Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Arihant Master Resource Book in Phy For JEE Mains 2022
Arihant Master Resource Book in Phy For JEE Mains 2022
JEE Main
JEE Main
Physics
Revised Edition
JEE Main
Physics
5000+
Specially Prepared Questions for JEE Main with
Complete Theory
2 Levels Exercises
Exams Questions
DB Singh
JEE Main
© Author
No part of this publication may be re-produced, stored in a retrieval system or by any
means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording, scanning, web or otherwise
without the written permission of the publisher. Arihant has obtained all the information
in this book from the sources believed to be reliable and true. However, Arihant or its
editors or authors or illustrators don’t take any responsibility for the absolute accuracy of
any information published and the damage or loss suffered thereupon.
All disputes subject to Meerut (UP) jurisdiction only.
Head Office
Kalindi, TP Nagar, Meerut (UP) - 250002
Tel: 0121-7156203, 7156204
ISBN 978-93-25792-45-6
PO No : TXT-XX-XXXXXXX-X-XX
Published by Arihant Publications (India) Ltd.
JEE Main
PREFACE
In sync with the recent changes in the test pattern and format of JEE Main (Joint Engineering
Entrance), it is my pleasure to introduce Master Resource Book in Physics for JEE Main, for the
Students aspiring a seat in a reputed Engineering College. JEE Main is a gateway examination for
candidates expecting to seek admission in Bachelor in Engineering (BE), Bachelor of Technology
(B.Tech) and Bachelor of Architecture (B.Arch) at Indian Institutes of Information Technology (IIITs),
National Institutes of Technology (NITs), Delhi Technological University and other Centrally Funded
Technical Institutes (CFTIs).
JEE Main is also an examination which is like screening examination for JEE Advanced
(The gateway examination to India's most reputed Technical Institutes, Indian Institutes of
Technology IITs). Only the top 2.2 lacs students passed in JEE Main will be able to attempt
JEE Advanced.
Gradually, the number of students aspiring for the seat in the Engineering College has increased
rapidly in the last 5 Years or so. This year nearly 10 lacs students appeared for JEE Main and only a
few were able to reserve a seat in the college of their choice, so there is a cut throat competition
among the aspirants. Thus, it calls for a systematic mastery of all the subjects of the test with
paramount importance to problem-solving. Most of the books now in the market have become
repetitive with scant respect to the needs of true and effective learning. This book has been
designed to fulfill the perceived needs of the students as such.
— This book comprehensively covers all the topics of JEE Main Physics syllabus. The chapters have
been sequenced according to the syllabus of class 11th & 12th. Each chapter has essential
theoretical discussion of the related concepts with sufficient number of solved examples and
practice problems. In each chapter previous years' questions of AIEEE and JEE Main have been
included to help students know the difficulty levels and nature of questions asked in
competitive exams at this level.
— All types of questions have been included in this book: Single Correct Answer Types and
Numerical Value Questions.
— This is the only book which has its subject matter divided as per class 11th & 12th syllabus.
It is hoped this new effort will immensely benefit the students in their goal to secure a seat in the
prestigious engineering college, and would be convenient to teachers in planning their teaching
programmes. Suggestions for further improvement are welcomed from the students and teachers.
DB Singh
Master Resource Book for
JEE Main
CONTENTS
PART I PART II
Chapters from Class 11th Syllabus Chapters from Class 12th Syllabus
1. Units and Measurements 1-27 18. Electrostatics 592-651
2. Vector Analysis 28-47 19. Current Electricity 652-690
3. Kinematics I (Motion in 1-D) 48-86 20. Magnetic Effects of Current 691-734
4. Kinematics II (Projectile Motion) 87-113 21. Magnetostatics 735-765
5. Circular Motion 114-134 22. Electromagnetic Induction 766-787
6. Laws of Motion and Friction 135-174 23. Alternating Current 788-816
7. Work, Energy and Power 175-204 24. Electromagnetic Waves 817-836
8. Centre of Mass 205-236 25. Ray Optics and Optical
9. Rotational Motion 237-283 Instruments 837-893
JEE Main
SYLLABUS
NOTE The syllabus contains two Sections - A & B. Section A pertains to the Theory Part, having 80%
weightage, while Section B contains Practical Component (Experimental Skills) having 20% weightage.
SECTION- A
UNIT 1 Physics and Measurement UNIT 5 Rotational Motion
Physics, technology and society, SI units, Fundamental Centre of mass of a two-particle system, Centre of mass of
and derived units. Least count, accuracy and precision of a rigid body; Basic concepts of rotational motion;
measuring instruments, Errors in measurement, moment of a force, torque, angular momentum,
Significant figures. Dimensions of Physical quantities, conservation of angular momentum and its
dimensional analysis and its applications. applications; moment of inertia, radius of gyration. Values
of moments of inertia for simple geometrical objects,
UNIT 2 Kinematics parallel and perpendicular axes theorems and their
Frame of reference. Motion in a straight line: Position-time applications.
graph, speed and velocity. Uniform and non-uniform Rigid body rotation, equations of rotational motion.
motion, average speed and instantaneous velocity.
Uniformly accelerated motion, velocity-time, position UNIT 6 Gravitation
time graphs, relations for uniformly accelerated motion. The universal law of gravitation.
Scalars and Vectors, Vector addition and Subtraction, Zero Acceleration due to gravity and its variation with altitude
Vector, Scalar and Vector products, Unit Vector, Resolution and depth.
of a Vector. Relative Velocity, Motion in a plane, Projectile Kepler's laws of planetary motion.
Motion, Uniform Circular Motion. Gravitational potential energy; gravitational potential.
Escape velocity. Orbital velocity of a satellite.
UNIT 3 Laws of Motion Geo-stationary satellites.
Force and Inertia, Newton's First Law of motion;
Momentum, Newton's Second Law of motion; Impulse; UNIT 7 Properties of Solids & Liquids
Newton's Third Law of motion. Law of conservation of Elastic behaviour, Stress-strain relationship, Hooke's. Law,
linear momentum and its applications, Equilibrium of Young's modulus, bulk modulus, modulus of rigidity.
concurrent forces.
Pressure due to a fluid column; Pascal's law and its
Static and Kinetic friction, laws of friction, rolling friction. applications.
Dynamics of uniform circular motion: Centripetal force Viscosity, Stokes' law, terminal velocity, streamline and
and its applications. turbulent flow, Reynolds number. Bernoulli's principle
and its applications.
UNIT 4 Work, Energy and Power
Surface energy and surface tension, angle of contact,
Work done by a constant force and a variable force;
application of surface tension - drops, bubbles and
kinetic and potential energies, work-energy theorem,
capillary rise.
power.
Heat, temperature, thermal expansion; specific heat
Potential energy of a spring, conservation of mechanical
capacity, calorimetry; change of state, latent heat.
energy, conservative and nonconservative forces; Elastic
and inelastic collisions in one and two dimensions. Heat transfer-conduction, convection and radiation,
Newton's law of cooling.
Master Resource Book for
JEE Main
JEE Main
JEE Main
SECTION- B
UNIT 21 Experimental Skills (ii) Internal resistance of a cell.
Familiarity with the basic approach and observations of 14. Resistance and figure of merit of a
the experiments and activities galvanometer by half deflection method.
1. Vernier callipers - its use to measure internal and 15. Focal length of
external diameter and depth of a vessel. (i) Convex mirror
2. Screw gauge - its use to determine thickness/ (ii) Concave mirror
diameter of thin sheet/wire. (iii) Convex lens
3. Simple Pendulum - dissipation of energy by 16. Using parallax method. Plot of angle of
plotting a graph between square of amplitude deviation vs angle of incidence for a triangular
and time. prism.
4. Metre Scale - mass of a given object by principle 17. Refractive index of a glass slab using a travelling
of moments. microscope.
5. Young's modulus of elasticity of the material of a 18. Characteristic curves of a p-n junction diode in
metallic wire. forward and reverse bias.
6. Surface tension of water by capillary rise and 19. Characteristic curves of a Zener diode and
effect of detergents. finding reverse break down voltage.
7. Coefficient of Viscosity of a given viscous liquid 20. Characteristic curves of a transistor and finding
by measuring terminal velocity of a given current gain and voltage gain.
spherical body.
21. Identification of Diode, LED, Transistor, IC,
8. Plotting a cooling curve for the relationship Resistor, Capacitor from mixed collection of
between the temperature of a hot body and time. such items.
9. Speed of sound in air at room temperature 22. Using multimeter to
using a resonance tube.
(i) Identify base of a transistor.
10. Specific heat capacity of a given (i) solid and (ii) (ii) Distinguish between npn and pnp type
liquid by method of mixtures. transistor.
11. Resistivity of the material of a given wire using (iii) See the unidirectional flow of current in
metre bridge. case of a diode and an LED.
12. Resistance of a given wire using Ohm's law. (iv) Check the correctness or otherwise of a
13. Potentiometer given electronic component (diode,
transistor or IC).
(i) Comparison of emf of two primary cells.
JEE NEET ADDA
This Pdf Is
Download From
www.jeeneetadda.in
VISIT NOW !!
01
Units and
Measurements
Physics is a quantitative science, based on measurement of certain physical
IN THIS CHAPTER ....
quantities. Measurement of any physical quantity involves comparison with
some standard unit of that quantity. In this chapter, we shall study about the Physics, Technology and Society
units and measurement. Physical Quantities
Fundamental and Derived Units
Physics, Technology and Society Least Count and Percentage
Physics is the study of matter and its motion, as well as space and time using Uncertainty
concepts such as energy, force, mass and charge. It is an experimental science, Accuracy and Precision of
creating theories that are tested against observation. Measuring Instruments
The connection between physics, technology and society can be seen in many Errors in Measurement
examples like working of heat engines gave rise to thermodynamics. Wireless
communication technology arose from basic laws of electricity and magnetism. Significant Figures
Lately discovery of silicon chip triggered the computer revolution. Dimensions of Physical
Quantities
Physical Quantities Dimensional Analysis and Its
Applications
All the quantities which are used to describe the laws of physics are called
physical quantities. To measure a physical quantity, some standard unit of
that quantity is required, e. g. if length of some metal rod is measured to be 20 m,
then m is the unit of length and 20 is the numerical value. So,
Physical quantity = Numerical value ´ Unit
Note (i) If the numerical value of any physical quantity in different units u1 and u 2 are n1 and n 2
respectively, then n1u1 = n 2u 2 .
(ii) As the unit will change, numerical value will also change, e . g . acceleration due to gravity,
g = 32 fts–2 = 9.8 ms–2.
2 JEE Main Physics
The least count error occurs with both systematic and Example 7. Two resistors of resistances R1 = 100 ± 3 W
random error. Instruments of higher precision and and R2 = 200 ± 4 W are connected in parallel, then the
improving experimental techniques can reduce the least
equivalent resistance in parallel is (in ohm)
count error.
æ 1 1 1 DR ¢ DR1 DR2 ö
çUse = + and = + 2 ÷
Combination of Errors è R ¢ R1 R2 DR ¢2 R12 R2 ø
be V1 = (10.2 ± 0.02) cm3 and V2 = (6.4 ± 0.01) cm3. The sum = ç ÷ DR1 + ç ÷ DR2
è R1 ø è R2 ø
and difference in volumes with error limits is 2 2
(a) (16.6 ± 0.03) cm3 and (3.8 ± 0.03) cm3 æ 66.7 ö æ 66.7 ö
=ç ÷ 3+ ç ÷ 4 = 1.8 W
è 100 ø è 200 ø
(b) (16.6 ± 0.01) cm3 and (3.8 ± 0.01) cm3
(c) (16.2 ± 0.03) cm3 and (3.6 ± 0.03) cm3 Hence, R ¢ = (66.7 ± 1.8) W
3 3
(d) (16.2 ± 0.01) cm and (3.6 ± 0.01) cm Example 8. The following observations were taken for
Sol. (a) Given, V1 = (10.2 ± 0.02) cm 3 determining surface tension T of water by capillary method.
Diameter of capillary, d = 1.25 ´ 10 -2 m, rise of water,
and V2 = (6.4 ± 0.01) cm3
h = 1.45 ´ 10 -2m. Using g = 9.80 m / s2 and the simplified
DV = ± ( DV1 + DV2)
rhg
= ± (0.02+0.01) cm3 = ± 0.03 cm3 relation T = ´ 103N /m, the possible error in surface
2
V1 + V2 = (10.2+6.4) cm3 = 16.6 cm3 tension is closest to [JEE Main 2017]
and V1 - V2 = (10.2 – 6.4) cm3 = 3.8 cm3 (a) 1.5% (b) 2.4%
Hence, sum of volume = (16.6 ± 0.03) cm3 (c) 10% (d) 0.15%
and difference of volume = (3.8 ± 0.03) cm3 Sol. (a) By ascent formula, we have surface tension,
rhg N
In product If Z = AB, then maximum fractional error is T= ´ 10 3
2 m
DZ æ DA DB ö
= ±ç + ÷ dhg N æ dö
Z è A Bø = ´ 10 3 çQ r = ÷
4 m è 2ø
In division If Z = A / B, then maximum fractional error is
DT Dd Dh
DZ æ DA DB ö Þ = + [given, g is constant]
= ±ç + ÷ T d h
Z è A Bø
DT æ Dd Dh ö
Note Maximum fractional error in product or division of two (or more) So, percentage error = ´ 100 = ç + ÷ ´ 100
T è d h ø
quantities is equal to sum of fractional errors in the individual
quantities. æ 0.01 ´ 10 -2 0.01 ´ 10 -2 ö
=ç + ÷ ´100
è 1.25 ´ 10 -2 1.45 ´ 10 -2 ø
Example 6. The temperature of two bodies measured by a
thermometer are t1 = 20° C + 0.5° C and t 2 = 50° C ± 0.5° C. = 1.5%
The maximum absolute error in temperature difference is DT
\ ´ 100 = 1.5%
(a) ± 1°C (b) ± 2°C (c) ± 3°C (d) ± 4°C T
Units and Measurements 5
Example 9. In a simple pendulum, experiment for (iv) All zeros to the right of a decimal point and to the
determination of acceleration due to gravity ( g ), time taken for left of a non-zero digit are not significant.
20 oscillations is measured by using a watch of 1 second least Number Significant number
count. The mean value of time taken comes out to be 30 s. 0.08 1
The length of pendulum is measured by using a meter scale of 0.008 1
least count 1 mm and the value obtained 55.0 cm. The 0.0846 3
percentage error in the determination of g is close to
(v) All zeros to the right of a decimal point and to the
[JEE Main 2019]
right of a non-zero digit are significant.
(a) 0.7% (b) 6.8% Number Significant number
(c) 3.5% (d) 0.2%
0.40 2
Sol. (b) Relation used for finding acceleration due to gravity by 0.430 3
using a pendulum is
4p 2l (vi) The powers of ten are not counted as significant
g = 2 digits e. g. ,1.4 ´ 10 - 7 has only two significant figures
T
So, fractional error in value of g is
1 and 4.
Dg Dl 2 DT
= + …(i) Rounding off the Digits
g l T
Given, Dl = 0.1cm, l = 55 cm, DT = 1s andT for 20 oscillations = 30 s
Certain rules are applied in order to round off the
measurements
Substituting above values in Eq. (i), we get
Dg 0.1 1 (i) If the number lying to the right of digit to be
= +2´ rounded is less than 5, then the rounded digit is
g 55 30
retained as such. However, if it is more than 5, then
Hence, percentage error in g is the digit to be rounded is increased by 1.
Dg
= ´ 100 For example, x = 6.24 is rounded off to 6.2 to two
g
significant digits and x = 8.356 is rounded off to 8.36
10 20 to three significant digits.
= + = 6.8%
55 3 (ii) If the digit to be dropped is 5 followed by digits other
than zero, then the preceding digit is increased by 1.
Significant Figures For example, x = 14.252 is rounded off to x = 14.3 to
“The significant figures are those number of digits in a three significant digits.
quantity that are known reliably plus one digit that is (iii) If the digit to be dropped is simply 5 or 5 followed by
uncertain.” Larger the number of significant figures zeros, then the preceding digit is left unchanged if it
obtained in a measurement, greater is the accuracy of the is even and it is raised by one if it is odd.
measurement. For example, x = 6.250 or x = 6.25 becomes x = 6.2
after rounding off to two significant digits and
Rules for Significant Figures x = 6.350 or x = 6.35 becomes x = 6.4 after rounding
off to two significant digits.
(i) All non-zero digits are significant figures.
Number Significant figures
16 2
Algebraic Operations with
1683 4 Significant Figures
16835 5 The following rules for algebraic operations with
(ii) All zeros occurring between non-zero digits are significant figures, that make final result more consistent
significant figures. with the precision of the measured values.
Number Significant figures
802 3 Addition and Subtraction
80004 5 The number of decimal places in the final result of any of
these operations has to be equal to the smallest number
(iii) All zeros to the right of the last non-zero digits are
of decimal places in any of the terms involved in
not significant.
calculation e. g. , sum of terms 2.29 and 62.7 is 64.99. After
Number Significant number
rounding off to one place of decimal, it will become 65.0.
40 1 Subtraction of 62.7 from 82.27 gives 19.57. After
410 2 rounding off to one place of decimal, it will become 19.6.
40240 4
6 JEE Main Physics
Multiplication and Division volume. Hence, the density should be expressed to only 2
significant figures.
In these operations, the number of significant figures in Mass
the result is same as the smallest number of significant Q Density =
Volume
figures in any of the factors.
5.74
e. g. 1.2 ´ 1.3 = 1.56. After rounding off to two significant \ Density = g cm–3 = 4.8 g cm–3
1.2
figures, it becomes 1.6.
1100
Similarly, if
10.2
gives 107.84. Then, the result when Dimensions of Physical Quantities
rounded off to three significant digits becomes 108. Dimensions of a physical quantity are the powers to
which the fundamental quantities are raised to represent
Example 10. The respective number of significant figures that quantity. In mechanics, all physical quantities can
for the numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1 ´ 10 -3 are be expressed in terms of mass [M], length [L] and time
[AIEEE 2010] [T].
(a) 5, 1, 2 (b) 5, 1, 5 For example, Force = Mass ´ Acceleration
(c) 5, 5, 2 (d) 4, 4, 2 Velocity m ´ s
= Mass ´ =
Sol. (a) The reliable digit plus the first uncertain digit is known as Time t´t
significant figures. m´s
= = [M] [L] [T –2 ]
For the number 23.023, all the non-zero digits are significant, t2
hence 5. So, the dimensions of force are 1 in mass, 1 in length and
For the number 0.0003, number is less than 1, the zero(s) on the -2 in time.
right of decimal point but to the left of the first non-zero digit are
not significant, hence 1. Dimensional Formula and
For the number 2.1 ´ 10 -3 , significant figures are 2.
Dimensional Equations
Example 11. The area enclosed by a circle of diameter The expression which shows how and which of the
1.06 m to correct number of significant figures is fundamental quantities represent the dimension of
physical quantity is called the dimensional formula of the
(a) 0.88 m2 (b) 0.088 m2
given physical quantity.
(c) 0.882 m2 (d) 0.530 m2
For example, as deduced above, [M1L1T –2 ] is the
1.06 dimensional formula of force. It reveals that unit of force
Sol. (c) Here, r = = 0.530 m
2 depends on [M], [L] and [T].
Area enclosed = pr = 3.14 (0.53) 2
2
Further, if we represent force by [F], then [F] = [M1L1T –2 ]
= 0.882026 m2 = 0.882 m2 is called the dimensional equation of force.
(rounded to three significant figures)
Dimensionless Quantity
Example 12. A body of mass m = 3.513 kg is moving In the equation [M a L b T c], if a = b = c = 0, then the
along the X-axis with a speed of 5.00 ms -1. The magnitude of quantity is called dimensionless.
its momentum is recorded as [AIEEE 2008]
For example, strain, specific gravity and angle are
(a) 17.6 kg ms-1 (b) 17.565 kg ms-1 dimensionless quantity because they are ratio of two
(c) 17.56kg ms-1 (d) 17.57kg ms-1 similar quantities.
Sol. (a) So, momentum, p = mv = 17.565 kg ms -1 Some dimensionless quantities
where m = 3.513 kg and v = 5.00 ms-1 Angle, solid angle, relative density, specific gravity,
As the number of significant digits in m is 4 and in v is 3, so, p must Poisson’s ratio, Reynold’s number, all trigonometric ratios,
have 3 (minimum) significant digits. refractive index, relative permittivity, dielectric constant,
Hence, p = 17.6 kg ms-1 magnetic susceptibility. A dimensionless quantity has
same numeric value in all system of units.
Example 13. 5.74 g of a substance occupies 1.2 cm3.
Keeping the significant figure in view, its density is given by Principle of Homogeneity
(a) 4.8 g cm-3 (b) 1.5 g cm-3
According to this principle, a correct dimensional
equation must be homogeneous, i.e. dimensions of all the
(c) 2.1 g cm-3 (d) 9.2 g cm-3
terms in a physical expression must be same.
Sol. (a) There are 3 significant figures in the measured mass LHS (dimension) = RHS (dimension)
whereas there are only 2 significant figures in the measured
Dimensions of Important Physical Quantities
Units and Measurements 7
Magnetisation Am-1 [L-1A] Example 16. The SI unit of energy is J = kg m 2s-2, that of
speed v is ms -1 and of acceleration a is ms -2, which one of
Magnetic induction T [MT-2 A -1 ]
the formula for kinetic energy given below is correct on the
Planck’s constant J-s [ML2 T-1 ] basis of dimensional arguments?
(Given, m stands for the mass of body)
Radioactive decay constant Bq [T-1 ]
(a) K = m2v 2 (b) K = ma
Binding energy 2 -2
MeV [ML T ] 1 1
(c) K = mv 2 + ma (d) K = mv 2
2 2
8 JEE Main Physics
Sol. (a) Every correct formula or equation must have the same Example 18. Which of the following combinations has the
dimensions on both sides of the equation. Also, only quantities dimension of electrical resistance (e 0 is the permittivity of
with the same physical dimensions can be added or subtracted. vacuum and m 0 is the permeability of vacuum)? [JEE Main 2019]
The dimensions of the quantity on the right side for (a) is
m0 m0
K = m2v 2 (a) (b)
e0 e0
Putting, m = [M], v = [LT –1]
\dimensions are [M 2 L2T –2] e0 e0
(c) (d)
for (b), K = ma m0 m0
putting m = [M], a = [LT –2]
Sol. (a) Let dimensions of resistance R, permittivity e 0 and
\dimensions are [MLT –2] permeability m 0 are [R], [e 0 ] and [m 0 ], respectively.
option (c) has no proper dimensions,
1 So, [R] = [ e 0 ]a [m 0 ]b …(i)
option (d), K = mv 2, putting m = [M] 1 2 -3 -2
2 [R] = [M L T A ],
and V = [LT –1], we have -1 -3
[ e 0 ] = [M L T A 2],
4
–1 2 2 –2
K = [M] [LT ] =[ML T ] 1 1
[m 0 ] = [M L T -2
A -2 ]
2 –2
in units it is written as kg m s . Now, from Eq. (i), we get
[M1 L2 T -3 A -2] = [M -1 L-3 T 4 A 2]a [M1 L1 T -2 A -2 ] b
2. Derivation of formula
[M1 L2 T -3 A -2] = [M - a + b L-3 a + b T 4a - 2b A 2a - 2b ]
The method of dimensions is used to deduce the relation
among the physical quantities. We should know the On comparing both sides, we get
dependence of the physical quantity on the other - a + b =1 …(ii)
quantities. -3 a + b = 2 …(iii)
We explain the process in following examples. 4 a - 2 b = -3 …(iv)
Example 17. The time period T of simple pendulum 2 a - 2 b = -2 …(v)
depends upon length l of the pendulum and gravitational Value of a and b can be found using any two
acceleration. The formula for time period of simple pendulum Eqs. from (ii) to (v),
is given by on subtracting Eq. (iii) from Eq. (ii), we get
l g ( - a + b) - ( -3a + b) = 1 - 2
(a) T = 2p (b) T = 2p Þ 2 a = -1
g l
-1
1 2 pl or a=
(c) T = lg (d) T = 2
2p g
Put the value of a in Eq. (ii), we get
Sol. (a) Let T µ l a and T µ g b 1
b=+
where a and b are dimensionless constants 2
T = kl a g b m0
\ [R] = [ e 0 ]-1/ 2 [m 0 ]1/ 2 =
e0
where, k is dimensionless constant.
[LHS] = [ T ] = [M 0L0 T1]
3. To convert a physical quantity
and [RHS] = ( l a g b) = [L ]a [LT –2]b
from one system to the other
= [La + b T -2b ] = [M 0La + b T -2b ]
Let dimensional formula of a given physical quantity be
According to homogeneity principle,
[MaLbT c ] . If in a system having base units [M1L1T1 ] the
or [M 0L0 T] = [M 0La + b T -2b ]
numerical value of given quantity (Q ) be n1 and
For dimensional balance, dimensions on both sides should
numerical value n 2 in another unit system having the
be same.
base units [M2 , L 2 , T2 ], then
\ a + b = 0 and -2b = 1
1 1 Q = n1u1 = n 2u 2
\ b=- and a =
2 2 n1 [M1aLb1 T1c ] = n 2 [Ma2 Lb2 T2c ]
l a b c
\ T = 2p é M ù éL ù éT ù
g Þ n 2 = n1 ê 1 ú ê 1 ú ê 1 ú
[since, numerical value of k in case of simple pendulum is 2 p] ë M2 û ë L 2 û ë T2 û
Units and Measurements 9
Practice Exercise
ROUND I Topically Divided Problems
Physical Quantities and Units 10. Young modulus of steel is 1.9 ´ 1011 N/m2 . When
1. The SI unit of electrochemical equivalent is expressed in CGS units of dyne/cm2 , it will be equal
(a) kg C (b) C kg -1 (c) kg C -1 (d) kg 2 C-1 to (1 N = 105 dyne, 1 m 2 = 104 cm 2) [NCERT]
(a) 1.9 ´ 1010 (b) 1.9 ´ 1011
2. SI unit of intensity of wave is (c) 1.9 ´ 1012 (d) 1.9 ´ 1013
(a) J m -2s -1 (b) J m -1s -2 (c) W m -2 (d) J m -2
11. 1 light year is defined as the distance travelled by
3. Which one of the following pairs of quantities and
light in one year. The speed of light 3 ´ 108 ms -1.
their unit is properly matched?
The same in metre is
(a) Electric field - coulomb/m
(a) 3 ´ 1012m (b) 9.461 ´ 1015 m
(b) Magnetic flux - Weber/m2
(c) 3 ´ 1015 m (d) None of these
(c) Power - Farad
(d) Capacitance - Henry 12. 1 slug is equivalent to 14.6 kg. A force of 10 pound
is applied on a body of 1 kg. The acceleration of the
4. Farad is not equivalent to
body is
(q = coulomb, V = volt and J = joule)
(a) 43.8 ms -2 (b) 4.448 ms -2
q q2 J
(a) (b) qV 2 (c) (d) (c) 44.4 ms -2 (d) None of these
V J V2
13. The time taken by an electron to go from ground
5. On which of the following factor universal time state to excited state is one shake (1 shake = 10–8s).
depends? This time in nanosecond will be
(a) Rotation of earth on its axis (a) 10 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 25
(b) Oscillations of quartz crystal
(c) Vibrations of cesium atom 14. The concorde is the fastest airlines used for
(d) Earth’s orbital motion around the sun commercial service. It can cruise at 1450 mile per
hour (about two times the speed of sound or in
6. A sextant is a double reflecting navigation other words mach 2). What is it in m/s?
instrument. Which of the following physical (a) 644.4 m/s (b) 80 m/s
quantity, it can measure? (c) 40 m/s (d) None of these
(a) Area of hill
(b) Angular distance between two visible objects 15. The value of universal gas constant is
(c) Breadth of a tower R = 8.3 J/ k-mol. The value of R in atmosphere litre
(d) Volume of the building per kelvin per mol
(a) 8.12 (b) 0.00812
7. The ‘rad’ is the correct unit used to report the (c) 81.2 (d) 0.0812
measurement of [AIEEE 2006]
(a) the ability of a beam of gamma ray photons to Least Count and Accuracy of
produce ions in a target
(b) the energy delivered by radiation to a target
Measuring Instruments
(c) the biological effect of radiation 16. One main scale division of a vernier callipers is
(d) the rate of decay of a radioactive source a cm and nth division of the vernier scale coincide
with (n - 1)th division of the main scale. The least
8. A pressure of 106 dyne cm -2 is equivalent to count of the callipers (in mm) is [JEE Main 2021]
(a) 105 Nm -2 (b) 104 Nm -2 (c) 106 Nm -2 (d) 107 Nm -2 10na 10a
(a) (b)
9. How many wavelengths of Kr86 are there in one (n - 1) (n - 1)
metre? æ n - 1ö 10a
(a) 1553164.13 (b) 1650763.73 (c) ç ÷a (d)
è 10n ø n
(c) 652189.63 (d) 2348123.73
Units and Measurements 11
17. A student measures the thickness of a human hair 23. A student measures the time period of 100
by looking at it through a microscope of oscillations of a simple pendulum four times. The
magnification 100. He makes 20 observations and data set is 90s, 91s, 92s and 95s. If the minimum
finds that the average width of the hair in the field division in the measuring clock is 1s, then the
of view of the microscope is 3.5 mm. The thickness reported mean time should be [JEE Main 2016]
of hair is [NCERT] (a) (92 ± 2) s (b) (92 ± 5 ) s
(a) 0.035 mm (b) 0.04 mm (c) (92 ± 1.8 ) s (d) (92 ± 3) s
(c) 0.35 mm (d) 0.40 mm
24. Which of the following is the most precise device for
18. A vernier callipers has 1 mm marks on the main measuring length? [NCERT]
scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the vernier scale (a) A vernier callipers with 20 divisions on the sliding
which match with 16 main scale divisions. For this scale.
vernier callipers, the least count is [IIT JEE] (b) A screw gauge of pitch 1 mm and 100 divisions on
(a) 0.02 mm (b) 0.05 mm the circular scale.
(c) 0.1 mm (d) 0.2 mm (c) An optical instrument that can measure length to
within a wavelength of light.
19. A spectrometer gives the following reading when (d) All are equally precise device for measuring
used to measure the angle of a prism. length.
Main scale reading : 58.5 degree.
Vernier scale reading : 9 division. Errors and Significant Figures
Given that, 1 division on main scale corresponds to 25. The density of a cube is measured by measuring its
0.5 degree. Total division on the vernier scale is 30 mass and length of its sides. If the maximum errors
and match with 29 divisions of the main scale. The in the measurement of mass and length are 3% and
angle of the prism from the above data is [AIEEE 2012] 2% respectively, then the maximum error in the
(a) 58.59° (b) 59.77° measurement of density is
(c) 58.65° (d) 59° (a) 7% (b) 5%
(c) 1% (d) 9%
20. A screw gauge gives the following reading when
used to measure the diameter of a wire. 26. A physical quantity is represented by X = M a L bT - c .
Main scale reading : 0 mm, Circular scale reading : If percentage errors in the measurements of M, L
52 divisions and T are a%, b% and g% respectively, then total
Given that, 1 mm on main scale corresponds to percentage error is
100 divisions of the circular scale. (a) (aa + bb - gc) % (b) (aa + bb + gc) %
(c) (aa - bb - gc) % (d) 0%
The diameter of wire from the above data is
(a) 0.052 cm (b) 0.026 cm 27. If there is a positive error of 50% in the
(c) 0.005 cm (d) 0.52 cm measurement of speed of a body, then the error in
21. Two full turns of the circular scale of a screw gauge the measurement of kinetic energy is
(a) 25% (b) 50%
cover a distance of 1 mm on its main scale. The
(c) 100 % (d) 125%
total number of divisions on the circular scale is 50.
Further, it is found that the screw gauge has a zero 28. The radius of the sphere is (4.3 ± 0.1) cm. The
error of – 0.03 mm. While measuring the diameter percentage error in its volume is
of a thin wire, a student notes the main scale 0.1 0.1 ´ 100
(a) ´ 100 (b) 3 ´
reading of 3 mm and the number of circular scale 4.3 4.3
divisions in line with the main scale as 35. The 1 0.1 ´ 100 0.1 ´ 100
(c) ´ (d) 3 +
diameter of the wire is 3 4.3 4.3
(a) 3.32 mm 29. The time period of a simple pendulum is given by
(b) 3.73 mm
l
(c) 3.67 mm T = 2p . The measured value of the length of
(d) 3.38 mm g
22. The least count of the main scale of a screw gauge is pendulum is 10 cm known to a 1 mm accuracy. The
1 mm. The minimum number of divisions on its time for 200 oscillations of the pendulum is found
circular scale required to measure 5 mm diameter of to be 100 s using a clock of 1 s resolution. The
a wire is [JEE Main 2019]
percentage accuracy in the determination of g
using this pendulum is x. The value of x to the
(a) 50 (b) 200
nearest integer is [JEE Main 2021]
(c) 500 (d) 100
(a) 2% (b) 3% (c) 5% (d) 4%
12 JEE Main Physics
30. The velocity of transverse wave in a string is 38. The diameter and height of a cylinder are
T measured by a meter scale to be 12.6 ± 01 . cm and
v= where T is the tension in the string and M 34.2 ± 01
. cm, respectively. What will be the value of
M
its volume in appropriate significant figures?
is mass per unit length. If T = 3.0 kgf, mass of string
[JEE Main 2019]
is 2.5 g and length of string is 1.000 m, then the
(a) 4300 ± 80 cm3
percentage error in the measurement of velocity is
(b) 4260 ± 80 cm3
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.7 (c) 2.3 (d) 3.6
(c) 4264.4 ± 81 .0 cm3
31. The initial temperature of a liquid is (80.0 ± 0.1)° C. (d) 4264 ± 81 cm3
After it has been cooled, its temperature is
39. The current voltage relation of diode is given by
(10.0 ± 0.1)° C. The fall in temperature in degree
I = ( e1000 V / T - 1) mA, where the applied voltage V is
centigrade is
in volt and the temperature T is in kelvin. If a
(a) 70.0 (b) 70.0 ± 0.3
student makes an error measuring ± 0.01V while
(c) 70.0 ± 0.2 (d) 70.0 ± 0.1
measuring the current of 5 mA at 300K, what will
32. A public park, in the form of a square, has an area be the error in the value of current (in mA)?
of (100 ± 0.2) m 2 . The side of park is [JEE Main 2013]
(a) (10 ± 0.01)m (b) (10 ± 0.1)m (a) 0.2 mA (b) 0.02 mA
(c) (10.0± 0.1)m (d) (10.0 ± 0.2)m (c) 0.5 mA (d) 0.05 mA
33. Given, potential difference V = (8 ± 0.5) V and 40. The result after adding 3.8 ´ 10-6 to 4.2 ´ 10-5 with
current I = (2 ± 0.2)A. The value of resistance R due regard to significant figures is
(in W) is (a) 4.58 ´ 10-5 (b) 0.458 ´ 10-4
(a) 4 ± 16.25% (b) 4 ± 6.25% (c) 4.6 ´ 10-5 (d) 45.8 ´ 10-6
(c) 4 ± 10% (d) 4 ± 8%
41. The value of p2 with due regard for significant
34. The length, breadth and thickness of a block are figures is (Given p = 3.14)
measured to be 50 cm, 2.0 cm and 1.00 cm. The (a) 9.86 (b) 9.859
percentage error in the measurement of volume is (c) 9.8596 (d) 9.85960
(a) 0.8% (b) 8%
(c) 10% (d) 12.5 % 42. You measure two quantities as
A = 1.0 m ± 0.2 m, B = 2.0 m ± 0.2 m . We should
35. One side of a cubical block is measured with the report correct value for AB as [NCERT Exemplar]
help of a vernier callipers of vernier constant (a) 1.4 m ± 0.4 m (b) 1.41 m ± 0.15 m
0.01 cm. This side comes out to be 1.23 cm. What is
(c) 1.4 m ± 0.3 m (d) 1.4 m ± 0.2 m
the percentage error in the measurement of area?
1.23 0.01 43. The area of a square is 5.29 cm2 . The area of 7 such
(a) ´ 100 (b) ´ 100
0.01 1.23 squares taking into account the significant figures is
0.01 0.01 [JEE Main 2019]
(c) 2 ´ ´ 100 (d) 3 ´ ´ 100 (a) 37.030 cm 2 (b) 37.0 cm 2
1.23 1.23
(c) 37.03 cm 2 (d) 37 cm 2
36. A physical quantity z depends on four observables
a2 b2 / 3 44. For the four sets of three measured physical
a, b, c and d, as z = . The percentages of error quantities as given below. Which of the following
cd3
options is correct? [JEE Main 2020]
in the measurement of a, b, c and d are 2%, 1.5%, (i) A1 = 24.36, B1 = 0.0724, C1 = 256.2
4% and 2.5%, respectively. The percentage of error
(ii) A2 = 24.44, B2 = 16.082, C2 = 240.2
in z is [JEE Main 2020]
(iii) A3 = 25.2, B3 = 19.2812, C3 = 236.183
(a) 13.5% (b) 16.5%
(iv) A4 = 25, B4 = 236.191, C4 = 19.5
(c) 14.5% (d) 12.25%
(a) A1 + B1 + C1 < A3 + B3 + C3
37. The relative density of the material of a body is the < A2 + B2 + C 2 < A4 + B4 + C 4
ratio of its weight in air and the loss of its weight in (b) A4 + B4 + C 4 < A1 + B1 + C1
water. By using a spring balance, the weight of the
= A2 + B2 + C 2 = A3 + B3 + C3
. ± 005
body in air is measured to be (500 . ) N. The
weight of the body in water is measured to be (c) A4 + B4 + C 4 < A1 + B1 + C1
(4.00 ± 005
. ) N, then the maximum possible = A3 + B3 + C3 < A2 + B2 + C 2
percentage error in relative density is (d) A1 + B1 + C1 = A2 + B2 + C 2
(a) 11% (b) 10% (c) 9% (d) 7% = A3 + B3 + C3 = A4 + B4 + C 4
Units and Measurements 13
52. The physical quantities not having same 62. Let [ e 0 ] denotes the dimensional formula of the
dimensions are [AIEEE 2003] permittivity of vacuum. If M = mass, L = length,
(a) torque and work T = time and A = electric current, then
[JEE Main 2013]
(b) momentum and Planck’s constant
(a) [e 0 ] = [ M -1L-3 T2A] (b) [e 0 ] = [M -1L-3 T4A 2]
(c) stress and Young’s modulus
(d) speed and ( m 0e 0 )-1/ 2 (c) [e 0 ] = [M -2L2 T-1A -2] (d) [e 0 ] = [ M -1L2 T-1A 2]
53. The dimensions of magnetic field in M, L, T and C 63. Let l, r, c and v represent inductance, resistance,
is given as [AIEEE 2008] capacitance and voltage, respectively. The
(a) [MLT-1 C -1 ] dimension of
l
in SI units will be [JEE Main 2019]
(b) [MT2 C -2] rcv
(c) [MT-1 C -1 ] (a) [LT2] (b) [LTA] (c) [A - 1 ] (d) [LA - 2]
(d) [MT2 C -1 ]
= a n sin -1 æç - 1ö÷. The value of n is
dx x
54. The time dependence of a physical quantity P is
64. ò 2ax - x 2 è a ø
2
given by P = P0e -at , where a is a constant and t is (a) 0 (b) –1
time. Then constant a is (c) 1 (d) None of these
(a) dimensionless (b) dimension of t–2 (You may use dimensional analysis to solve the
(c) dimensions of P (d) dimension of t2 problem.)
14 JEE Main Physics
65. The period of a body under SHM is represented by 69. If speed V, area A and force F are chosen as
T = pa DbS c , where p is pressure, D is density and fundamental units, then the dimensional formula of
S is surface tension. The value of a, b and c are Young’s modulus will be [JEE Main 2020]
3 1
(a) - , ,1 (b) -1,-2, 3 (a) [FA 2V -3 ] (b) [FA -1V 0 ]
2 2
1 -3 -1 1 (c) [FA 2 V -2] (d) [FA 2V -1 ]
(c) , , (d) 1, 2,
2 2 2 3 70. If momentum p, area A and time T are taken to be
the fundamental quantities, then the dimensional
66. Taking frequency f, velocity v and density r to be
formula for energy is [JEE Main 2020]
the fundamental quantities, then the dimensional
(a) [p2AT-2] (b) [pA -1T-2]
formula for momentum will be
(c) [pA1/2T-1 ] (d) [p1/2AT-1 ]
(a) [rv4f -3 ] (b) [rv3 f -1 ]
(c) [rvf 2] (d) [r 2v2f 2] 71. If speed (v), acceleration ( A) and force ( F ) are
considered as fundamental units, the dimension of
67. If p represents radiation pressure, v represents
Young’s modulus will be [JEE Main 2019]
speed of light and q represents radiation energy
(a) [v-4A - 2F] (b) [v-2A 2 F2]
striking a unit area per second, then non-zero
(c) [v-2A 2 F- 2] (d) [v-4A 2 F]
integers a, b and c are such that pa qbv c is
dimensionless, then 72. The dimension of stopping potential V0 in
(a) a = 1, b = 1, c = -1 photoelectric effect in units of Planck’s constant h,
(b) a = 1, b = -1, c = 1 speed of light c, gravitational constant G and
(c) a = -1, b = 1, c = 1 ampere A is [JEE Main 2020]
(d) a = 1, b = 1, c = 1 (a) h -2/3 c-1/ 3G 4/ 3 A -1 (b) h1/ 3G 2/ 3 c1/3 A -1
68. The wavelength associated with a moving particle 0 5
(c) h c G -1
A -1
(d) h1/ 3G 2/ 3 c1/ 3 A -1
depends upon power p of its mass m, qth power of
its velocity v and rth power of Planck’s constant h. 73. If surface tension ( S), moment of inertia ( I ) and
Then the correct set of values of p, q and r is Planck’s constant ( h), were to be taken as the
(a) p = 1, q = -1, r = 1 fundamental units, the dimensional formula for
(b) p = 1, q = 1, r = 1 linear momentum would be [JEE Main 2019]
6. The dimensions of a rectangular block measured 14. A resistor of 4 kW with tolerance 10% is connected in
with callipers having least count of 0.01 cm are parallel with a resistor of 6 kW with tolerance 100%.
5 mm ´ 10 mm ´ 5 mm. The maximum percentage The tolerance of the parallel combination is nearly
error in the measurement of the volume of the (a) 10 % (b) 20 %
block is (c) 30 % (d) 40 %
(a) 5% (b) 10 %
15. What is the unit of k in the relation where,
(c) 15 % (d) 20% ky
U= where U represents the potential
7. A resistor of 10 kW having tolerance 10% is connected y + a2
2
in series with another resistor of 20 kW having energy, y represents the displacement and a
tolerance 20%. The tolerance of the combination will represents amplitude?
be approximately (a) m s–1 (b) m s
(a) 10% (b) 13% (c) J m (d) J s–1
(c) 17% (d) 20% 16. In the equation X = 3 YZ 2 , X and Z have
8. The following observations were taken for dimensions of capacitance and magnetic induction
determining surface tension of water by capillary respectively. In MKSQ system, the dimensional
tube method. Diameter of capillary, D = 1.25×10–2 m formula of Y is
and rise of water in capillary, h = 1.46 × 10–2 m. (a) [M -3 L-2T-2Q-4 ] (b) [ML–2]
-3 -2 4 8
Taking g = 9.80 ms –2 and using the relation (c) [M L Q T ] (d) [M -3 L-2Q4T4 ]
T = ( rgh / 2) ´ 103 Nm-1, what is the possible error in 1 e2
surface tension T ? 17. The dimensional formula of is
e 0 hc
(a) 2.4% (b) 15 %
(a) [M 0L0T0A 0 ] (b) [M -1L3 T 2A]
(c) 1.6% (d) 0.15%
(c) [ML3 T-4A -2] (d) [M -1L-3 T4 ]
9. Resistance of a given wire is obtained by measuring
the current flowing in it and the voltage difference 18. Given X = (Gh / c3)1/ 2 , where G, h and c are
applied across it. If the percentage errors in the gravitational constant, Planck’s constant and the
measurement of the current and the voltage velocity of light respectively. Dimensions of X are
difference are 3% each, then error in the value of the same as those of
resistance of the wire is [AIEEE 2012] (a) mass (b) time
(a) 6% (b) zero (c) 1% (d) 3% (c) length (d) acceleration
10. A wire has a mass (0.3 ± 0.003) g, radius 19. The thrust developed by a rocket-motor is given by
(0.5 + 0.005) mm and length (6 ± 0.06) cm. The F = mv + A( p1 - p2 ), where m is the mass of the gas
maximum percentage error in the measurement of its ejected per unit time, v is velocity of the gas, A is area
density is [IIT JEE 2004] of cross-section of the nozzle, p1, p2 are the pressures of
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 the exhaust gas and surrounding atmosphere. The
formula is dimensionally
11. In an experiment to measure the height of a bridge (a) correct
by dropping stone into water underneath, if the
(b) wrong
error in measurement of time is 0.1s at the end of
(c) sometimes wrong, sometimes correct
2 s, then the error in estimation of height of bridge
(d) data is not adequate
will be [Kerala CEE 2004]
(a) 0.49 m (b) 0.98 m (c) 1.96 m (d) 2.12 m 20. When a wave traverses a medium the displacement
of a particle located at x at a time t is given by
12. A cube has a side of length 1.2 ´ 10–2 m. Calculate y = a sin ( bt - cx) , where a, b and c are constants of
its volume. [IIT JEE 2003] the wave. Which of the following is not
(a) 1.7 × 10 - 6 m3 (b) 1.73 × 10 - 6 m3 dimensionless?
(c) 1.70 × 10 - 6 m3 (d) 1.732 × 10 - 6 m3 y
(a) (b) bt
a
13. In the experiment of Ohm’s law, a potential b
(c) cx (d)
difference of 5.0 V is applied across the end of a c
conductor of length 10.0 cm and diameter of
5.00 mm. The measured current in the conductor is 21. In a new system of units, unit of mass is 10 kg, unit
2.00 A. The maximum permissible percentage error of length is 1 km and unit of time is 1 min. The
in the resistivity of the conductor is [JEE Main 2021] value of 1 J in this new hypothetical system is
(a) 3.6 ×10 - 4 new units (b) 6 × 107new units
(a) 3.9 (b) 8.4 (c) 7.5 (d) 3.0
(c) 1011 new units (d) 1.67 ×10 4 new units
16 JEE Main Physics
n2 - n1 IFv2
22. The number of particles given by n = D are 29. A quantity x is given by x = where, I is
x2 - x1 WL4
crossing a unit area perpendicular to X-axis in unit moment of inertia, F is force, v is work and L is
time, where n1 and n2 are the number of particles length. The dimensional formula for x is same as
per unit volume for the values x1 and x2 of x that of [JEE Main 2020]
respectively. Then the dimensional formula of (a) Planck’s constant
diffusion constant D is (b) force constant
(a) [M 0LT0 ] (b) [M 0L2 T-4 ] (c) coefficient of viscosity
(c) [M 0LT-3 ] (d) [M 0L2 T-1 ] (d) energy density
1 E l
23. A calorie is a unit of heat and equals 4.2 J. Suppose 30. The quantities x = , y = and z = are
m 0 e0 B CR
we employ a system of units in which the unit of
mass is a kg, the unit of length is b metre and the defined, where C is capacitance, R is resistance, l is
unit of time is g s. In this new system, 1 calorie =
length, E is electric field, B is magnetic field, e 0 is
free space permittivity and m 0 is permeability,
(a) a -1b - 2g 2 (b) 4.2 ab 2g - 2
respectively. Then, [JEE Main 2020]
(c) ab 2g 2 (d) 4.2 a -1b -2g 2 (a) x, y and z have the same dimension
24. An important milestone in the evolution of the (b) Only x and z have the same dimension
universe just after the Big Bang is the Planck time (c) Only x and y have the same dimension
t p , the value of which depends on three (d) Only y and z have the same dimension
fundamental constants speed c of light in vacuum, 31. Dimensional formula for thermal conductivity is
gravitational constant G and Planck’s constant h. (Here, K denotes the temperature) [JEE Main 2020]
Then, t p µ (a) [MLT -2 K] (b) [MLT -2K -2]
c5
(a) Ghc5 (b) (c) [MLT -3 K -1] (d) [MLT -3 K]
Gh
1/ 2 hc5
Gh æ Gh ö 32. A quantity f is given by f = , where c is speed
(c) 5 (d) ç 5 ÷ G
c è c ø
of light, G universal gravitational constant and h is
25. Which of the following combinations have the the Planck’s constant. Dimension of f is that of
dimensions of time? L-C-R represent inductance, [JEE Main 2020]
capacitance and resistance, respectively. (a) area (b) volume
(a) RC (b) LC (c) R /C (d) C /L (c) momentum (d) energy
26. Photon is quantum of radiation with energy E = hn 33. The force of interaction between two atoms is given
æ x2 ö
where n is frequency and h is Planck’s constant. by F = ab exp ç - ÷; where x is the distance, k is
è akT ø
The dimensions of h are the same as that of
[NCERT Exemplar] the Boltzmann constant and T is temperature and
(a) linear impulse (b) angular impulse a and b are two constants. The dimension of b is
[JEE Main 2019]
(c) linear momentum (d) None of these
(a) [MLT -2] (b) [M 0L2T-4]
27. In order to determine the Young’s modulus of a
wire of radius 0.2 cm (measured using a scale of (c) [M 2L T-4] (d) [M 2L2T-2]
least count = 0.001 cm) and length 1 m (measured 34. In the formula X = 5YZ 2 , X and Z have dimensions
using a scale of least count = 1 mm), a weight of of capacitance and magnetic field, respectively.
mass 1 kg (measured using a scale of least count What are the dimensions of Y in SI units?
= 1 g) was hanged to get the elongation of 0.5 cm [JEE Main 2019]
(measured using a scale of least count = 0.001 cm). (a) [M - 1L- 2 T4A -2] (b) [M - 2L0 T- 4A - 2]
What will be the fractional error in the value of (c) [M - 3 L- 2 T8A 4 ] (d) [M - 2L- 2 T6A3 ]
Young’s modulus determined by this experiment?
[JEE Main 2021]
(a) 0.14% (b) 0.9%
Numerical Value Questions
(c) 9% (d) 1.4% 35. If the unit of velocity is run, the unit of time is
second and unit of force is strength in a
28. What is dimensional formula of thermal hypothetical system of unit. In this system of unit,
conductivity? the unit of mass is (strength) x (second) y (run) z .
(a) [MLT -1 q-1] (b) [MLT -3 q-1] y
The value of is …… .
(c) [M 2LT -3 q-2] (d) [ML 2 T -2q ] x
Units and Measurements 17
36. The edge of a cube is measured using a vernier 38. The focal length of a spherical mirror is given by
calliper (9 divisions of the main scale is equal to 1 1 1
= + , where u is the position of object from pole
10 divisions of vernier scale and 1 main scale f v u
division is 1 mm). The main scale division reading of the mirror and v is position of image from pole of
is 10 and 1 division of vernier scale was found to be the mirror.
coinciding with the main scale. The mass of the
cube is 2.736 g. The density (in gcm –3) upto correct If u = (30 ± 0.3) cm and v = (60 ± 0.6) cm. The
significant figures is ……… . [IIT JEE 2005] maximum percentage error in the measurement of
focal length of the mirror is n%, then the value of n
37. The density of a solid metal sphere is determined
is ……… . [JEE Main 2021]
by measuring its mass and its diameter. The
maximum error in the density of the sphere is 39. If the speed of light ( c), acceleration due to gravity
æ x ö %. If the relative errors in measuring the
ç ÷ ( g) and pressure ( p) are taken as base units. The
è 100 ø
dimension of g in the dimensional formula of
mass and the diameter are 6.0% and 1.5%
universal gravitational constant is ……… .
respectively, the value of x is ........ [JEE Main 2020]
Answers
Round I
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (*) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (d)
61. (b) 62. (b) 63. (c) 64. (a) 65. (a) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (b) 70. (c)
71. (d) 72. (c) 73. (c)
Round II
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. 1 36. 2.66 37. 1050 38. 1 39. 2
Solutions
Round I
1. According to Faraday’s first law of electrolysis, m = Zq 13. As, n1u1 = n2u2
m
or Z = . So, SI unit of Z is kg C-1. 1 shake 10-8 s
q Þ n2 = = –9
1 ns 10 s
Energy J
2. Intensity (I ) = = or Jm-2s -1 \ n2 = 10
Area ´ Time m2 s
14. As, n1u1 = n2 u2
3. Magnetic flux has the unit as weber/ m2.
Charge q (n1 and n2 are numerical values and u1 and u2 are the
4. Capacitance, C = = unit in proper system)
Potential V
nu
work æ Wö \ n2 = 1 1
Also, potential = çQ V = ÷ u2
charge è qø
1450 mile/h 1450 s/mile
q2 J = =
\ C= as well as C = 2 m/s mh
J V
1450 s ´ 1.6 km
Thus, (a), (c) and (d) are equivalent to farad but (b) is = = 644.4
not equivalent to Farad. 10–3 km ´ 60 ´ 60 s
1450 mile/h = 644.4 m/s
5. Time defined in terms of rotation of the earth is called
Universal Time (UT). 15. As, R = 8.3J/K-mol
6. The primary use of a sextant is to measure the angle Now, n1u1 = n2 u2
between an astronomical object and the horizon. (u1 and u2 are units while n1 and n2 are the numerical
values)
7. ‘rad’ is used to measure biological effect of radiation. n1 u1 8.3 J / K-mol
\ n2 = =
8. 1 Newton = 105 dyne and 1 m = 100 cm u2 atm L / K-mol
106 dyne cm–2 = 106 ´ 10-5 N ´ (10-2 m)-2 = 105 Nm–2 8.3 J/K-mol
=
9. According to definition, metre is the distance containing (1.013 ´ 105 N/m2) (10-3 m3 ) / K -mol
1650763.73 wavelength in vacuum of radiation 8.12
= = 0.0812
corresponding to orange red light emitted by an atom of 102
Kr-86. \ 8.3 J/K-mol = 0.0812 atm L/K-mol
11 2
10. Young modulus, Y = 1.9 ´ 10 N/m 16. na ¢ = (n - 1)a
5 2 4 2
Q 1 N = 10 dyne, 1 m = 10 cm æ n -1ö
Þ a¢ = ç ÷a
1.9 ´ 1011 ´ 105 è n ø
So, Y (in CGS) = dyne/cm2
104 \Least Count (LC) = 1MSD - 1VSD = a - a ¢
= 1.9 ´ 1012 dyne /cm2 æ n - 1ö a 10a
=a-ç ÷ a = cm = mm
11. One light year = 3 ´ 108m /s ´ 1 yr è n ø n n
3 ´ 108 m 17. Magnification of microscope = 100
= ´ 365 ´ 24 ´ 60 ´ 60 s
s
Observed width of the hair = 3.5 mm
= 3 ´ 108 ´ 365 ´ 24 ´ 60 ´ 60 m
Observed width
= 9.461 ´ 1015 m Magnification =
Real width
12. Force, F = ma Observed width 3.5
Real width = = = 0.035 mm
F 10 pound Magnification width 100
\ a= =
m 1 kg
18. Least count of vernier callipers
pound 10 slug ft
= 10 = LC = 1 MSD - 1 VSD
kg kg s 2
Smallest division on main scale
ft ft =
= 10 ´ 14.6 kg = 146 2 Number of divisions on vernier scale
kg s 2 s
As, 20 divisions of vernier scale = 16 divisions of main
= 146 ´ 0.30 ms –2
scale
= 43.8 ms –2
Units and Measurements 19
= 3 + 35 ´
1
- (- 0.03) (l ) » 10-7m = 10-5 cm = 0.00001 cm
2 ´ 50 \ As the given optical instrument can measure
= 3.38 mm length to within a wavelength of light, therefore
least count of the given optical instrument
22. In a screw gauge, = Wavelength of light
Least count = 0.00001 cm
Measure of 1 main scale division (MSD) The least count is minimum for the given optical
=
Number of division on circular scale instrument, therefore the given optical
Here, minimum value to be measured/least count is instrument is the most precise.
5 mm = 5 ´ 10-6 m M [M]
25. We know that, density, r = = 3
\ According to the given values, V [L ]
1 ´ 10-3 Dr DM DL
5 ´ 10-6 = \ ´ 100 = ´ 100 + 3 ´ 100
N r M L
10-3 1000 = 3% + 3 (2%) = 9%
or N = = = 200 divisions
5 ´ 10-6 5 26. Given, a b -c
X = [M L T ]
23. Arithmetic mean time of a oscillating simple DX é DM DL DT ù
\ =± êë a M + b L + c T úû
pendulum X
S xi 90 + 91 + 92 + 95 = ± [aa + bb + gc]%
= = = 92 s
N 4 1
27. Kinetic energy, E = mv2
Mean deviation of a simple pendulum 2
S | x - xi| DE Dv2 - v2
= \ ´ 100 = ´ 100
N E v2
2+1+3+0
= = 1.5 = [(1.5)2 - 1] ´ 100 = 125%
4
0.1
Given, minimum division in the measuring clock, i.e. 28. Percentage error in radius is ´ 100
4.3
simple pendulum = 1 s. Thus, the reported mean time
of a oscillating simple pendulum = (92 ± 2) s. Again, V µ R3
l 4p 2l a 2b2/3
29. Given, T = 2p Þg= 2 36. Given, z =
g T c d3
Dg Dl 2DT 0.1 æ 1 ö According to question,
\ = + = +2ç ÷
g l T 10 è 0.5 ´ 200 ø æ2ö
Dg 1 1 % error in z = (2)% error in a + ç ÷% error in
´ 100 = ´ 100 + ´ 100 = 3% è3ø
g 100 50 æ ö
1
b + ç ÷% error in c + (3)% error in d
1/ 2 1/ 2 è2ø
T é m¢g ù é m¢lg ù
30. v = = =ê
m êë M / l úû ë M úû Dz
=2
Da 2 Db 1 Dc
+ + +3
Dd
z a 3 b 2 c d
Dv 1 é Dm ¢ Dl DM ù
It follows from here, = + + 2 1
v 2 êë m l M úû = 2 ´ 2 % + ´ 1.5 % + ´ 4 % + 3 ´ 2.5 %
3 2
1 é 0.1 0.01 0.1 ù
= ê + + = 14.5%
2 ë 3.0 1.000 2.5 úû
1 37. Weight in air = (5.00 ± 0.05) N
= [0.03 + 0.001 + 0.04]
2 Weight in water = (4.00 ± 0.05) N
= 0.036 Loss of weight in water
Percentage error in the measurement = 3.6 = [(5.00 - 4.00) ± (0.05 + 0.05)] N
31. When quantities are subtracted, their maximum = (1.00 ± 0.1) N
absolute errors are added up. Weight in air
Now, relative density =
\ Result = (80 - 10) ± (0.1 + 0.1) Weight loss in water
= 70 ± 0.2 5.00 ± 0.05
i.e. RD =
1.00 ± 0.1
32. Percentage error in side of public park
1 é 0.2 ù Now, relative density with maximum permissible error
= ´ 100ú = 0.1 m 5.00 æ 0.05 0.1 ö
2 êë 100 û = ±ç + ÷ ´ 100
1.00 è 5.00 1.00 ø
Absolute error in side of public park
0.1 = 5.0 ± (1 + 10)% = 5 ± 11%
= ´ 10 = 0.01 m So, maximum possible percentage error in relative
100
density is ± 11%.
Side of public park = 100 = 10 m
38. Volume of a cylinder of radius r and height h is given
\ Side = (10 ± 0.01) m
by
33. As, V = (8 + 0.5) V V = pr 2h
1
and I = (2 + 0.2) A or V = pD 2h, where D is the diameter of circular
8 4
\ R = =4W (R = resistance) surface. Here, D = 12.6 cm and h = 34.2 cm
2
p
DR æ DV DI ö Þ V = ´ (12.6)2 ´ (34.2)
Þ %=ç + ÷ 4
R è V I ø
V = 4262.22 cm3
æ 0.5 0.2 ö
=ç + ÷ ´ 100 = 16.25% V = 4260 (in three significant numbers)
è 8 2 ø
Now, error calculation can be done as
\ R = (4 ± 16.25%) W DV æ DD ö Dh 2 ´ 0.1 0.1
1 =2 ç ÷+ = +
34. Percentage error in length = ´ 100 = 2 V è D ø h 12.6 34.2
50 DV
0.1 Þ = 0.0158 + 0.0029
Percentage error in breadth = ´ 100 = 5 V
2.0
Þ DV = (0.01879) ´ (4262.22)
0.1
Percentage error in thickness = ´ 100 = 1 Þ DV = 79.7 ~- 80 cm3
1.00
Percentage error in volume = 2 + 5 + 1 = 8 \For proper significant numbers, volume reading will
be V = 4260 ± 80 cm3 .
0.01
35. Percentage error in measurement of a side = ´ 100
1.23 39. Given, I = (e1000V /T - 1) mA
\Percentage error in measurement of area dV = ± 0.01 V, T = 300 K
0.01 I = 5 mA
=2´ ´ 100
1.23
Units and Measurements 21
43. Area of 1 square = 5.29 cm2 52. Planck’s constant (in terms of unit)
Area of seven such squares h = J-s = [ML2 T–2][T] = [ML2 T–1 ]
= 7 times addition of area of 1 square Momentum ( p) = kg -ms –1
= 5.29 + 5.29 + 5.29 + K 7 times = 37.03 cm2 = [M][L][T–1 ] = [MLT–1 ]
As we know that, if in the measured values to be
added/subtracted the least number of significant digits
53. From the relation F = qvB
after the decimal is n. Þ [MLT-2] = [C][LT-1 ][B]
Then, in the sum or difference also, the number of
significant digits after the decimal should be n. Þ [B] = [MC-1T-1 ]
22 JEE Main Physics
=
Pressure
= Pressure gradient r = resistance = [M1 L2 T-3 A -2]
Distance c = capacitance = [M - 1 L- 2 T4 A 2]
v = voltage = [M1 L2 T-3 A -1 ]
1 LQ 2 é Qù
57. Magnetic energy = LI 2 = 2 êëas, I = t úû So, dimensions of
l
are
2 2t rcv
1 2 -2 -2
where, L = inductance and I = current. é l ù [M L T A ] -1
Energy has the dimensions = [ ML2 T–2] êë rcv úû = [M1 L2 T-2 A -1 ] = [A ]
Equate the dimensions, we have
64. Trigonometric function has no dimension, so
[Q 2]
[ML2 T–2] = [henry] ´ 2 x
[T ] = dimensionless
2
a
[ML ]
Þ [henry] = Thus, a has the dimensions as x in equation.
[Q 2] LHS of given equation is dimensionless and hence, a n
Solar energy [ML2 T-2] is dimensionless
58. Solar constant = = = [ML0T-3 ]
Area ´ Time [L2][T] Þ n =0
69. Let Young’s modulus is related to speed, area and [c] = [Speed] = [LT-1 ]
force, as Y = F x A yV z é Force ´ (Distance)2 ù
[G ] = ê ú
Substituting dimensions, we have ë (Mass)2 û
[ML-1T-2] = [MLT-2]x [L2]y [LT-1 ]z [MLT-2][L2]
Comparing power of similar quantities, we have =
[M 2]
x = 1, x + 2 y + z = - 1 and -2x - z = - 2
= [M -1L3 T-2]
Solving these, we get
Substituting the dimensions of V 0 , h, C , G and A in
x = 1, y = - 1, z = 0 Eq. (i) and equating dimension on both sides, we get
So, [Y] = [FA -1V 0 ] [ML2 T-3 A -1 ] = [ML2 T-1 ]a ´ [LT-1 ] b
70. Let dimensions of energy E in terms of momentum p, ´ [M -1L3 T-2]c ´ [A ]d
area A and time T are Þ a -c=1 …(ii)
[E ] = [ p]x [ A ]y [T ]z 2a + b + 3c = 2 …(iii)
Substituting dimensions of fundamental quantities for -a - b - 2c = - 3 …(iv)
E , p, A and T, we have d = -1 …(v)
[ML 2 T -2] = [MLT -1] x [L 2] y [T] z On solving above equations, we get
[ML 2 T -2] = [M x L x + 2y T - x + z ] a = 0, b = 5, c = - 1, d = - 1
Equating powers of same physical quantities on both Substituting these values in Eq. (i), we get
sides, we have
V 0 = h 0 × c5 × G -1 × A -1
x = 1, x + 2 y = 2 and - x + z = - 2
1 73. Suppose, linear momentum ( p) depends upon the
So, x = 1, y = , z = - 1
2 Planck’s constant (h ) raised to the power (a ), surface
\ Dimensional formula of [E] = [pA1/2 T-1 ] tension(S) raised to the power (b) and moment of
inertia (I ) raised to the power (c).
71. Dimensions of speed are [v] = [LT-1 ]
Then, p µ (h )a (S )b (I )c or p = kh aSbI c
Dimensions of acceleration are [ A ] = [LT-2]
where, k is a dimensionless proportionality constant.
Dimensions of force are [F] = [MLT-2]
Thus, [ p] = [h ]a [S ]b [I ]c …(i)
Dimension of Young modulus is, [Y] = [ML-1T-2]
Then, the respective dimensions of the given physical
Let dimensions of Young’s modulus is expressed in
terms of speed, acceleration and force as quantities, i.e.
[Y ] = [v] a [ A ]b [F ] g …(i) [ p] = [mass ´ velocity] = [MLT-1 ]
Then substituting dimensions in terms of M, L and T, [I ] = [mass ´ (distance) 2] = [ML2 T0 ]
we get [S ] = [force ´ length] = [ML0T-2]
[ML-1T-2] = [LT-1 ]a [LT-2]b [MLT-2]g [h ] = [ML2 T-1 ]
= [M g La +b + g T- a - 2b - 2g ] Then, substituting these dimensions in Eq. (i),
Now comparing powers of basic quantities on both we get
sides, we get g =1 [MLT-1 ] = [ML2 T-1 ]a [MT-2]b [ML2] c
a + b + g = -1 For dimensional balance, the dimensions on both sides
and - a - 2b - 2g = -2 should be same.
Solving these, we get Thus, equating dimensions, we have
a = -4, b = 2, g = 1 a + b + c=1
Substituting a , b , and g in Eq. (i), we get 1
2(a + c) = 1 or a + c=
[Y] = [v-4A 2F1 ] 2
72. Let V 0 = (h )a × (c)b × (G )c × ( A )d …(i) - a - 2b = - 1 or a + 2b = 1
é potential energy ù Solving these three equations, we get
Then, [V 0 ] = [potential] = ê ú
ë charge û 1 1
a = 0, b = , c =
2 2
[ML2 T-2]
= = [ML2 T- 3 A -1 ] 1 1
[AT] \ p = h 0S 2I 2
é Energy ù [ML2 T-2] 2 -1 1 1
[h ] = ê ú = [T-1 ] = [ML T ]
ë Frequency û or p = S 2I 2h 0
24 JEE Main Physics
rgh dgh é dù
Round II 8. T = = êëQ r = 2 úû
2 4
1. Vernier scale reading (VSR) = 6 ´ 0.01 = 0.06 cm
DT Dd Dg Dh
Correct value = 8.5 + 0.06 - 0.02 = 8.54 cm \ ´ 100 = ´ 100 + ´ 100 + ´ 100
T d g h
1 g cm s –1 1 g cm s –1
2. As, x = = =
0.01
´ 100 +
0.01
´ 100 +
0.01
´ 100
N-s 1 kg ´ 1 ms –1 ´ 1 s 1.26 9.80 1.45
1 g cm s –1 = 0.8 + 0.1 + 0.7 = 1.6%
= = 10–5
10 g ´ 102 cm s 2 ´ 1 s
3
V
9. R =
i
3. Muscle ´ Speed = Power
Power Work \ log R = log V - log i
\ Muscle = = DR DV D i
Speed Time ´ Speed = + = 3% + 3% = 6%
R V i
[ML2 T–2]
= = [MLT–2] Dm 0.003
[T] [LT–1 ] 10. Here, = ,
m 0.3
= Mass ´ acceleration = Force Dr 0.005 DL 0.06
= × =
SI unit of force kg ´ m ´ s –2 r 0.5 L 6
Hence, = m
CGS unit of force g ´ cm ´ s –2 As r=
(pr 2) L
= 103 ´ 102 = 105
æ Dr ö æ Dm 2 Dr DL ö
1 \ ç ÷ ´ 100 = ç + + ÷ ´ 100
4. Least count 1 = mm = 0.01 = 0.001 cm è r ø è m r L ø
100
Diameter of wire D = 1 mm + 63 ´ 0.01 mm æ 0.003 2 ´ 0.005 0.06 ö
=ç + + ÷ ´ 100
è 0.3 0.5 6 ø
= 1.63 mm or 0.163 cm
= 1 + 2 + 1 = 4%
pD 2l 3.14 ´ (0.163)2 ´ 5.6 1
Volume of wire = = 11. From, s = ut + at 2
4 4 2
= 0.117 cm3 1
1 h = 0 + ´ 9.8 (2)2 = 19.6 m
5. As, pitch = mm = 0.5 mm 2
2 Dh æ Dt ö
=±ç ÷ (Q a = g = constant)
Least count =
0.5
mm = 0.01 mm h è t ø
50
æ 0.1ö 1
Zero error = -0.03 mm = ±2 ç ÷ = ±
è 2 ø 10
Zero correction = + 0.03 mm h 19.6
Dh = = = 1.96 m
Observed diameter of wire = 3 + 35 ´ 0.01 10 10
= 3.35 mm
12. Here, L = 1.2 ´ 10–2 m, V = ?
Corrected diameter of wire = 3.35 mm + 0.03 mm
= 3.38 mm V = L3 = (1.2 ´ 10–2)3 = 1.728 ´ 10–6 m3
As the result can have only two significant digits,
6. Given, l = 10 mm = 1 cm therefore rounding off, we get
b = 5 mm = 0.5 cm and V = 1.7 ´ 10–6 m3
h = 5 mm = 0.5 cm rl
Error in measurements,
13. Resistance, R =
A
Dl = Db = Dh = 0.01 cm V
Also, R=
\ Maximum percentage error in volume, I
DV Dl Db Dh AV pD 2V æ pD 2 ö
´ 100 = ´ 100 + ´ 100 + ´ 100 Þ r= = ç\ A = ÷
V l b h Il 4Il è 4 ø
0.01 0.01 0.01
= ´ 100 + ´ 100 + ´ 100 Dr DD DV DI Dl
1 0.5 0.5 \ =2 + + +
r D V I l
= 1% + 2% + 2% = 5%
æ 0.01 ö æ 0.1 ö æ 0.01 ö æ 0.1 ö
=2ç ÷+ç ÷+ç ÷+ç ÷
7. As, DRs = DR1 + DR2 = éê ù
10 20
´ 10 + ´ 20ú k W = 5 kW è 5.00 ø è 5.0 ø è 2.00 ø è 10.0 ø
ë 100 100 û
Dr
DRs 5 50 ´ 100 = 0.4 + 2 + 0.5 + 1 = 3.9%
´ 100 = ´ 100 = = 17% r
Rs 30 3
Units and Measurements 25
R1R2 n (x2 - x1 )
14. Equivalent, Rs = 22. From the given relation, D =
R1 + R2 n2 - n1
DRs DR1 DR2 D (R1 + R2) é 1 ù 1
´ 100 = ´ 100 + ´ 100 + ´ 100 Here, [n ] = ê = = [L-2 T–1 ]
Rs R1 R2 R1 + R2 ë area ´ time úû [L2 T]
10 x2 - x1 = [L]
Now, DR1 = ´ 4 kW = 0.4 kW
100
é 1 ù é1ù –3
10 and n2 - n1 = ê úû = êë L3 úû = [L ]
DR2 = ´ 6 kW = 0.6 kW ë volume
100
DRs 0.4 0.6 0.4 + 0.6 [L–2 T–1L]
Again, ´ 100 = ´ 100 + ´ 100 + ´ 100 So, [D ] = = [L2 T–1 ]
Rs 4 6 10 [L–3 ]
= 10 + 10 + 10 = 30% 23. [Calorie] = [ML2T–2]
15. The right hand side of the given relation is basically Comparing with general dimensional formula
k [M aLbTc ], we get
. But, since the left hand side is joule, therefore k
metre a = 1, b = 2, c = 2
should be Jm. 1 2 -2
é 1 kg ù é 1 m ù é 1 s ù
16. Capacitance X = [M L T Q ] –1 –2 2 2 n2 = 4.2 ê ú ê ú ê ú = 4.2 a –1 b -2g 2
ë a kg û ë b m û ë g s û
Magnetic induction Z = [MT–1Q–1 ]
24. Note carefully that every alternative has Gh and c5 .
[Z 2] = [M 2 T–2Q–2]
[Gh ] = [M –1L3 T–2] [ML2T–1 ] = [M 0 L5 T–3 ]
Given, X = 3YZ 2
[c] = [LT–1 ]
X [X ]
or Y = or [Y ] = 1/ 2
3Z2 [Z ]2 æ Gh ö
\ ç 5 ÷ = [T]
è c ø
[M –1L–2 T2Q2]
\ [Y ] = = [M –3 L–2T4Q4 ]
[M 2 T–2Q–2] 25. We know that,
2 R = [M1 L2T–3 A –2]
e
17. The formula for fine structure constant = C = [M –1 L–2T4A 2]
æ h ö
4 pe 0 ç ÷c
è2 p ø L = [ML2T–2A –2]
It is dimensionless. \ RC = [T] and LC = [T]
é M –1L3 T–2 ´ ML T 2 –1 ù 1/ 2 26. From E = hn
18. [X ] = ê ú = [L]
ë
3
LT –3
û E [ML2 T-2]
h= = = [ML2 T-1 ]
n [T-1 ]
19. Each of the three terms in the given equation has the
dimensional formula of force. Angular impulse = t ´ t = [ML2 T-2 ´ T ] = [ML2 T-1 ]
Stress mgL
20. Given equation, y = a sin (bt - cx) 27. Y = =
Strain pR2l
Comparing the given equation with general wave
equation DY Dm DL DR Dl
\ = + +2 +
æ 2 pt 2 px ö Y m L R l
y = a sin ç - ÷ DY é 1
è T l ø 1 æ 0.001 ö 0.001 ù
´ 100 = ê + +2ç ÷+ ´ 100
2p 2p Y ë 1000 1000 è 0.2 ø 0.5 úû
we get, b= ,c =
T l = 0.1 + 0.1 + 1 + 0.2 = 1.4%
b 2p / T 28. Heat DQ transferred through a rod of length L and
Dimension of = = [LT–1 ] and other three
c 2p / l æ T - T2 ö
quantities are dimensionless. area A in time Dt is DQ = KA ç 1 ÷ Dt
è L ø
21. We know that, the dimensional formula of energy is where, K = coefficient of thermal conductivity,
[ML2T–2]. T1 - T2 = temperature difference.
1
é 1 kg ù é 1 m ù é 1 s ù
2 2
DQ ´ L
n2 = 1 ê \ K = …(i)
ú ê ú ê ú A (T1 - T2) Dt
ë 10 kg û ë 1 km û ë 1 min û
1 1 1 Substituting dimensions for corresponding quantities
= ´ ´ in Eq. (i), we have
10 106 (60)-2
[ML2 T–2] [L]
=
3600
= 3.6 ´ 10–4 [K ] = = [MLT–3 q–1 ]
107 [L2] [q] [T]
26 JEE Main Physics
IF v2 As, h =
E
; [h ] = [ML2 T- 2] [T] = [ML2 T- 1 ]
29. Given that, x = n
WL4
Dimensionally, F × r2
c = [LT- 1 ] and G =
[I ] [F ] [v]2 [M1L2] [M1L1T-2] [L1 T-1 ]2 m2
[x] = =
[W ] [L ]4 [M1L2 T-2] [L1 ]4 -2
[MLT ] [L ] 2
Þ [G ] = = [M - 1L3 T- 2]
[M1L1T-2][L2 T-2] [M 2]
= [M1L2]
[M1L2 T-2][L4 ] So, dimensions of f using Eq. (i),
= [M1L-1T-2] …(i) 1 5
Types of Vectors
Some important types of vectors are given in the table below
S.No. Types of Vectors Description
(i) Polar vectors These are the vectors which have a starting point or a point of
application. e.g. Displacement, force, etc.
(ii) Axial vectors These are the vectors which represent rotational effect and act
along the axis of rotation in accordance with right hand screw rule.
e.g. Angular velocity, angular acceleration, etc.
(iii) Equal vectors These are the vectors which have equal magnitude and same
direction.
(iv) Like parallel These are the vectors which have same direction and magnitude
vectors may equal or different.
(v) Anti-parallel These are the vectors which have opposite direction and magnitude
vectors may equal or different.
(vi) Collinear vectors These are the vectors which act along same line, i.e. vectors lying
in the same line. Angle between them can be zero or 180°.
(vii) Zero vector A vector having zero magnitude is known as zero vector. Its
direction is not specified and hence it is arbitrary. It is represented
by 0.
Vector Analysis 29
(ix) Coplanar vectors These are the vectors which always lie
in the same plane.
(x) Negative vector If the direction of a vector is reversed, R
the sign of the vector is reversed. It is B
called negative vector of the original θ
α
vector.
O A
Example 1. A vector may change, if
or R=A+B
(a) frame of reference is translated
(b) vector is rotated If q is the angle between A and B, then the magnitude of
(c) frame of reference is rotated resultant, R can be given by
(d) vector is translated parallel to itself R =| A + B|= A2 + B2 + 2 AB cos q
Sol. (b) Vector will change, if it is rotated because its direction B sin q
If R makes an angle a with A, then tan a = .
changes. A + B cos q
1 $ $
Example 2. The expression ( i + j) is a 2. The Parallelogram Law
2
(a) unit vector If two non-zero vectors A and B are represented by the
(b) null vector two adjacent sides of a parallelogram then, the resultant
(c) vector of magnitude 2
is given by the diagonal of the parallelogram in
magnitude and direction both passing through the point
(d) scalar of intersection of the two vectors.
1/ 2
é æ 1 ö 2 æ 1 ö 2ù
Sol. (a) We have|R| = ê ç ÷ +ç ÷ ú =1 B
êë è 2 ø è 2ø ú
û A+
B
R=
Multiplication of a Vector by a β
α θ θ
Real Number A
The multiplication of a vector by a scalar quantity n gives
a new vector whose magnitude is n times the magnitude The magnitude of R is
of the given vector. Its direction is same as that of the R =|R| = A2 + B2 + 2 AB cos q …(i)
given vector, if n is a positive real number and reverses,
if n is a negative real number. where, q is the angle between A and B.
B sin q
Here, tan a =
Example 3. If A = 2 i$ - 3$j + 4 k$ , is multiplied by a number A + B cos q
5, then the vector along y-direction is A sin q
and tan b = …(ii)
(a) -15$j B + A cos q
(b) 5$j where, a + b = q .
(c) -5$j
(d) 15$j
Special Cases
If q = 0°, Rmax = A + B
Sol. (a) As, n ´ A = nA,
If q = 180°, Rmin = A - B and if q = 90° , R = A2 + B2
So, 5 ´ (2 $i - 3 $j + 4 k$) = 10 $i - 15 $j + 20k$
In all other cases, Eqs. (i) and (ii) can be used to calculate
\ Vector along y-direction = -15 $j
magnitude and direction of R.
30 JEE Main Physics
or 100 = A2 + B2 - 3 AB …(i)
3. Polygon Law of Vector Addition
B sin 150°
If a number of vectors are represented both in magnitude Again tan 90° =
and direction by the sides of a polygon taken in the same A + B cos150°
order, then the resultant vector is represented both in B ´1/ 2
=
magnitude and direction by the closing side of the A + B ( - 3 /2)
polygon taken in the opposite order. B
=
E U 2A- 3B
V
D B
or ¥=
2A- 3B
T
or 2A- 3B =0
R C
3
or A= B
S 2
B Putting the value of A in Eq. (i), we get
P 3 3 1
A Q 100 = B2 + B2 - 3 ´ B ´ B = B2
4 2 4
R= A+B+C+D+E or B2 = 4 ´ 100
or B = 20 N
Properties of Vector Addition 3
(i) Vector addition is commutative, and A= 20 = 10 3 N
2
i.e. A + B = B + A
(ii) Vector addition is associative, Example 6. Three vectors each of magnitude A are acting
i.e. ( A + B) + C = A + ( B + C) at a point such that angle between any two vectors is 60º.
(iii) Vector addition is distributive, The magnitude of their resultant is
i.e. l ( A + B) = lA + lB (a) zero (b) 2 A
Example 4. If A = B + C and the magnitude of A, B and C (c) 3 A (d) 6 A
are 5, 4 and 3 minutes respectively, then angle between A
Sol. (d) We have, R = | A + B + C|
and C is
–1
(a) cos (4/5) –1
(b) cos (3/5) = [ A2 + B2 + C 2 + 2 A × B + 2 B × C + 2 C × A ]1/ 2
(c) tan–1 (3/4) (d) sin–1(3/5) Given, A=B=C
and q = 60°
Sol. (b) Given, A = B + C
R = [3 A2 + 2 A × B + 2 B × C + 2 C × A ]1/ 2
Þ B= A - C Þ B= A-C
Þ B2 = ( A - C) 2 = [3 A2 + (2 A × A cos 60° ) ´ 3]1/ 2
Þ B × B = ( A - C) × ( A - C) = 6A
Þ B× B = A × A - A × C - C × A + C × C
Þ B2 = A2 - AC cos q - AC cos q + C 2 Example 7. A particle has two equal accelerations in two
Þ 2
2AC cos q = A + C - B 2 2 given directions. If one of the accelerations is halved, then the
2 2 2 angle which the resultant makes with the other is also halved.
Þ 2 ´ 5 ´ 3 ´ cos q = 5 + 3 - 4
The angle between the accelerations is
18 3
Þ cos q = = (a) 120° (b) 90°
30 5
(c) 60° (d) 45°
æ3ö
Þ q = cos-1 ç ÷ B sin q
è5ø Sol. (a) tan b =
A + B cos q
Example 5. The resultant of two forces acting at an angle A sin q
of 150º is 10 N and is perpendicular to one of the forces. One = (Q A = B)
A + A cos q
of the two other forces is
sin q
(a) 20 / 3 N (b) 10 / 3 N = …(i)
(1 + cos q)
(c) 20 N (d) 20 / 3 N
b ( A / 2) sin q
tan =
Sol. (c) We have, R 2 = A2 + B2 + 2 AB cos q 2 A + ( A / 2) cos q
(10) 2 = A2 + B2 + 2 AB cos150° sin q
= …(ii)
= A2 + B2 + 2 AB ( - 3 / 2) 2 + cos q
Vector Analysis 31
B
(a) 3, 13 (b) 2, 14
(c) 5, 11 (d) 4, 12 A A
(a) (b)
Sol. (b) Given A + B = 16
R = ( A2 + B2 + 2AB cos q)1/ 2 (ii) Change in velocity of a particle moving along circular path with a
constant speed
8 3 = ( A2 + B2 + 2AB cos q)1/ 2
v1 = v
B sin q B sin q
and tan 90° = or ¥ =
A + B cos q A + B cos q P
or A + B cos q = 0 O
Q
or B cos q = - A
\ 8 3 = [ A2 + B2 + 2A ( - A)]1/ 2
or 192 = B2 - A2 = (B - A) (B + A) = (B - A) ´ 16
v2 = v
or B - A = 192 / 16 = 12
On solving, A = 2 and B = 14 When a particle moves along a circular path with a constant
speed, then its velocity changes due to change in direction.
\ Change in velocity, Dv = v1 - v 2 = v - ( - v ) = 2 v
Subtraction of Vectors
Negative of a vector (–A) is a vector of the same Example 9. Find A - B from the diagram shown in figure.
magnitude as vector A but pointing in a direction
Given A = 4 units and B = 3 units
opposite to that of A.
Therefore, A - B = A + ( - B). B
Example 10. A car moving towards south changes its The rectangular components of a vector lying
direction towards west moving with the same speed. Find the in the space
change in the direction of velocity of the car. Suppose there is a vector A in space as shown in the
(a) North-West (b) North-East figure. Let the rectangular components of A along X-axis,
(c) South-East (d) South-West Y -axis and Z-axis be A x , A y and A z respectively.
Sol. (a) Y
O N P
v A
–v 1 v1 W E β
O α
X
γ
W S S
v2 Z
Here, |v1| = |v 2| = v (say) \ A = Ax i$ + Ay $j + Az k
$
\Change in velocity of car, Dv = v 2 - v1
Magnitude of the change in velocity, \ | A| = Ax2 + Ay2 + Az2
or A= Ax2 + Ay2 C Y
A
For the directions of vectors
Ay 45° 30°
X
tanq = O 60°
Ax
æ Ay ö
or q = tan-1 ç ÷
è Ax ø B
Vector Analysis 33
● Magnitude of cross product of two vectors A and B Example 20. The area of a parallelogram whose adjacent
represents the area of the parallelogram. sides are P = 2 i$ + 3$j and Q = i$ + 4$j is
Q R (a) 5 square units (b) 15 square units
(c) 20 square units (d) 25 square units
B sin
B Sol. (a) P ´ Q = (2$i + 3$j ) ´ ( $i + 4$j)
$i $j k$
O = 2 3 0 = $i (0 - 0) - $j (0 - 0) + k$ (8 - 3) = 5k$
N A P
1 4 0
\| A ´ B|= AB sin q = A ( B sin q ) = OP ´ QN = Area of
the parallelogram. Area of parallelogram = |P ´ Q| = 5 square units
Vector Analysis 35
Practice Exercise
ROUND I Topically Divided Problems
Addition and Subtraction of Vectors 7. Figure shows the orientation of two vectors u and v
in the XY-plane. [NCERT Exemplar]
1. Consider the quantities, pressure, power, energy, Y
impulse, gravitational potential, electrical charge,
temperature, area. Out of these, the only vector
quantities are [NCERT Exemplar]
v
(a) Impulse, pressure and area u
(b) Impulse and area
(c) Area and gravitational potential O X
(d) Impulse and pressure If u = a$i + b$j and v = pi$ + q$j, which of the following
2. What is the numerical value of the vector is correct?
3 $i + 4$j + 5k
$ ? (a) a and p are positive while b and q are negative
(a) 3 2 (b) 5 2 (b) a, p and b are positive while q is negative
(c) a, q and b are positive while p is negative
(c) 7 2 (d) 9 2
(d) a, b, p and q are all positive
3. If, 0.5 $i + 0.8 $j + c k$ is a unit vector, then the value 8. In the cube of side ‘a’ shown in the figure, the
of c is vector from the central point of the face ABOD to
(a) 0.11 (b) 0.22 the central point of the face BEFO will be
[JEE Main 2019]
(c) 0.33 (d) 0.89 z
4. Which one of the following statements is true? B E
[NCERT Exemplar]
A H a
(a) A scalar quantity is the one that is conserved in a
G
process. F
O
(b) A scalar quantity is the one that can never take y
negative values. a
x D a
(c) A scalar quantity is the one that does not vary
from one point to another in space. 1 1 $ $
(a) a ($i - k
$) (b) a ( j - i)
(d) A scalar quantity has the same value for observers 2 2
with different orientations of the axes. 1 1
(c) a ($j - k
$) (d) a (k $ - $i )
2 2
5. Given, vector, A = $i - $j + 2 k$ and vector
p
B = 3 $i - 3 $j + 6 k
$ , then which one of the following 9. Two forces, each equal to act at right angles.
2
statements is true? Their effect may be neutralised by a third force
(a) A is perpendicular to B. acting along their bisector in the opposite direction
(b) A is parallel to B. with a magnitude of
(c) Magnitude of A is half of that of B. p p
(a) p (b) (c) (d) 2 p
(d) Magnitude of B is equal to that of A. 2 2
6. What is the unit vector along $i + $j ? 10. Given A = i$ + 2$j - 3 k$ . When a vector B is added to
$i + $j A, we get a unit vector along X-axis, then B is
(a) (b) 2 (i$ + $j)
2 (a) -2$j + 3 k $ (b) - $i - 2$j
(c) i + $j
$ $
(d) k (c) - $i + 3 k
$ (d) 2$j - 3 k$
36 JEE Main Physics
11. Two forces F1 and F2 are acting at right angles to 20. If the resultant of A and B makes angle a with A
each other, then their resultant is and b with B, then
(a) F1 + F2 2
(b) F1 + F2 2 (a) a < b, always (b) a < b, if A < B
F + F2 (c) a < b, if A > B (d) a < b, if A = B
(c) F1 2 - F2 2 (d) 1
2 21. If the resultant of the vectors ( $i + 2$j - k$ ), ( $i - $j + 2k)
$
12. Given, R = A + B and R = A = B. The angle between and C is a unit vector along the y-direction, then C
A and B is is
(a) 60° (b) 90° (a) -2$i - k
$ (b) -2$i + k
$ (c) 2$i - k
$ (d) -2$i + k
$
(c) 120° (d) 180° 22. (P + Q) is a unit vector along X-axis. If P = $i - $j + k$ ,
13. The resultant of two forces, each P, acting at an then what is the value of vector Q?
angle q is (a) $i + $j - k
$ (b) $j - k
$ (c) $i + $j + k
$ (d) $j + k
$
q q
(a) 2P sin (b) 2P cos 23. What vector must be added to the sum of two
2 2
(c) 2P cos q (d) P 2 vectors 2 $i - $j + 3 k
$ and 3 $i - 2 $j - 2 k
$ so that the
31. Two vectors a and b are such that|a + b|= |a - b|. 41. The angle subtended by the vector,
What is the angle between a and b? A = 4 i$ + 3 $j + 12 k
$ with the X-axis is
(a) 0° (b) 90° (c) 60° (d) 180° æ3ö æ4ö
(a) sin -1 ç ÷ (b) sin -1 ç ÷
è 13 ø è 13 ø
32. The vectors A1 and A2 each of magnitude A are
æ4ö æ3ö
inclined to each other such that their resultant is (c) cos -1 ç ÷ (d) cos -1 ç ÷
è 13 ø è 13 ø
equal to 3 A. Then the resultant of A 1 and - A 2 is
(a) 2A (b) 3 A (c) 2 A (d) A
Scalar and Vector Product of Vectors
33. If A = $i + $j - 2k$ and B = 2$i - $j + k$ , then the 42. The angle between the Z-axis and the vector
magnitude of 2 A - 3 B is $i + $j + 2 k
$ is
(a) 90 (b) 50 (a) 30° (b) 45°
(c) 190 (d) 30 (c) 60° (d) 90°
34. The vector which can give unit vector along X-axis 43. The angle between A = i$ + $j and B = i$ - $j is
with A = 2 $i - 4 $j + 7 k $ , B = 7 $i + 2 $j - 5 k
$ and
[NCERT Exemplar]
C = - 4 $i + 7 $j + 3 k
$ is
(a) 45° (b) 90° (c) - 45° (d) 180°
(a) 4 $i + 5 $j + 5 k
$ (b) -5 $i - 5 $j + 5 k$
44. Given, P = 3 $j + 4 k$ and Q = 2 $i + 5 k$ . The magnitude
(c) -5 i$ - 5 $j - 5 k$ (d) 4 i$ - 5 $j - 5 k
$
of the scalar product of these vectors, is
(a) 20 (b) 23
Resolution of Vectors (c) 26 (d) 5 33
35. The x and y components of a force are 2 N and – 3N.
The force is 45. If P = 2 i$ - 3 $j + k$ and Q = 3 $i + 2 $j, then P × Q is
(a) 2$i - 3$j (b) 2$i + 3$j (a) zero (b) 6
(c) -2$i - 3$j (d) 3 $i + 2$j (c) 12 (d) 15
36. The magnitude of the X and Y components of A are 46. If AB = AB, then the angle between A and B is
7 and 6. Also the magnitudes of X and Y (a) 0° (b) 45°
components of A + B are 11 and 9, respectively. (c) 90° (d) 180°
What is the magnitude of B ? 47. Projection of P on Q is
(a) 5 (b) 6 (a) P × Q
$ $ ×Q
(b) P
(c) 8 (d) 9 (c) P ´ Q
$ (d) P ´ Q
37. One of the rectangular components of a velocity of
48. A and B are two vectors given by A = 2 $i + 3 $j and
60 kmh–1 is 30 kmh –1. The other rectangular
component is B = $i + $j. The magnitude of the components of A
(a) 30 km h -1 (b) 30 3 km h -1 along B is
(c) 30 2 km h -1 (d) zero (a)
5
(b)
3
2 2
38. A force is inclined at 60° to the horizontal. If its
7 1
rectangular component in the horizontal direction (c) (d)
is 50 N, then magnitude of the force in the vertical 2 2
direction is 49. If, A = 2 i$ + 3 $j + 4 k$ and B = 4 $i + 3 $j + 2 k$ , then
(a) 25 N (b) 75 N
angle between A and B is
(c) 87 N (d) 100 N
æ 25 ö æ 29 ö
(a) sin -1 ç ÷ (b) sin -1 ç ÷
39. The component of a vector r along X-axis will have è 29 ø è 25 ø
maximum value, if [NCERT Exemplar]
æ 25 ö æ 29 ö
(a) r is along positive Y-axis (c) cos -1 ç ÷ (d) cos -1 ç ÷
è 29 ø è 25 ø
(b) r is along positive X-axis
(c) r makes an angle of 45° with the X-axis 50. What is the angle between ( $i + 2$j + 2k)
$ and $i?
(d) r is along negative Y-axis (a) 0º (b) p /6
(c) p /3 (d) None of these
40. Consider a vector F = 4 $i - 3 $j. Another vector that
51. If A = B, then which of the following is not correct?
is perpendicular to F is $ =B $ $ ×B$ = AB
(a) A (b) A
(a) 4 $i + 3 $j (b) 6 $j $
(c) 7 k (d) 3 $i - 4 $j
(c)|A| = |B| (d) AB$ || BA
$
38 JEE Main Physics
52. For what value of a, A = 2 $i + a $j + k$ will be 61. The area of a parallelogram formed by the vectors
perpendicular to B = 4 i$ - 2 $j - k
$? A = $i - 2 $j + 3 k
$ and B = 3 $i - 2 $j + k
$ as its adjacent
6. What is the angle between $i + $j + k$ and $i ? 14. If the vectors A = 2 $i + 4 $j and B = 5 $i - p $j are
(a) 0º (b) p/6 parallel to each other, the magnitude of B is
(c) p/3 (d) None of these (a) 5 5 (b) 10
(c) 15 (d) 2 5
40 JEE Main Physics
15. Two vectors A and B are inclined at an angle q. 19. When two non-zero vectors a and b are
Now if the vectors are interchanged, then the perpendicular to each other, the magnitude of their
resultant turns through an angle a. Which of the resultant is R. When they are opposite to each
following relation is true? R
2 other, the magnitude of their resultant is . The
a æ A - Bö q a æ A - Bö q 2
(a) tan =ç ÷ tan (b) tan = ç ÷ tan
2 è A + Bø 2 2 è A + Bø 2 æ a bö
value of ç + ÷ is ……… .
a æ A - Bö q a æ A - Bö q è b aø
(c) tan =ç ÷ cot (d) tan =ç ÷ cot
2 è A + Bø 2 2 è A + Bø 2
20. The sum of two forces P and Q is R such that
16. Let|A 1|= 3,|A2|= 5 and|A1 + A2|= 5. The value of |R|= |P|. The angle q (in degree) that the resultant
(2 A1 + 3 A2 ) × (3 A1 - 2 A2 ) is [JEE Main 2019] of 2P and Q will make with Q is ……… .
[JEE Main 2020]
(a) -106.5 (b) -112 . 5
(c) -99.5 (d) -118 . 5 21. If a = 2$i - $j + k$ , b = i$ + 2$j - 3 k$ and c = 3 i$ - y $j + 5 k$
17. The vectors 2 i$ + 3 $j - 2 k$ , 5 i$ + a $j + k$ and are coplanar, then the value of y is ……… .
- $i + 2 $j + 3 k
$ are coplanar when a is 22. A triangle ABC has its vertices at A (2 , 1 , 1),
(a) –9 (b) 9 B(1 , - 3 , - 5) and C ( 4 , - 4 , - 4). If Ð BAC = q and
8n
(c) –18 (d) 18 cos q = . The value of n is ……… .
1537
18. Three vectors A, B and C add up to zero. Find which
is false?
23. The volume of a parallelopiped, whose edges are
[NCERT Exemplar]
represented by
(a) (A ´ B) ´ C is not zero unless B, C are parallel
a = (2$i - 3 $j + 4 k $ ) m , b = ( $i + 2$j - k
$ ) m and
(b) (A ´ B) × C is zero unless B, C are parallel $ ) m is ……… m 3.
(c) If A , B, C defined a plane, (A ´ B) ´ C is in that c = (3 $i - $j + 2 k
plane
(d) (A ´ B) × C = |A||B||C|® C 2 = A 2 + B2
Round II
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. 4 20. 90
21. 4 22. 6 23. 7
Vector Analysis 41
Round I
Solutions
9. As, R = a 2 + b2 + 2 ab cos q
1. Out of the given quantities, impulse and area are 2 2
æ pö æ pö æ pö æ pö
vector quantities and other are scalar quantities. Þ R = ç ÷ + ç ÷ + 2 ç ÷ ç ÷ cos 90°
è2ø è2ø è2ø è2ø
2. Required numerical value is 32 + 42 + 52 , i. e. 50 or p p
5 2. Þ R = 2× =
2 2
3. Clearly, (0.5)2 + (0.8)2 + c2 = 1 10. As, B + ($i + 2$j - 3 k$ ) = $i or B = -2 $j + 3 k$
0.25 + 0.64+ c2 = 1
or 2
c = 1 - 0.25 – 0.64 = 0.11 11. As, resultant of two vectors is given by,
or c = 0.11 R= A 2 + B2 + 2 AB cos q
4. A scalar quantity has the same value for observers \ F 2 = F12 + F22 + 2 F1F2 cos 90°
with different orientations of the axes. Given, q = 90°
5. A vector A is parallel to that of vector B, if it can be or F 2 = F12 + F22 Þ F = F12 + F22
written as
12. For the resultant,
A = mB
$ ) = 1 (3$i - 3$j + 6 k R2 = R2 + R2 + 2 R2 cos q
Here, A = ($i - $j + 2 k $)
3 or R2 = 2 R2 + 2 R2 cos q
1 1
A= B = 1 + cos q
3 2
1 1
This implies A is parallel to B and magnitude of A is or cos q = - or q = 120°
3 2
times the magnitude of B.
A 13. As, R2 = P 2 + P 2 + 2 P 2 cos q
6. We have A = AA$ or A$ =
A or R2 = 2 P 2 + 2 P 2 cos q
$i + $j $i + $j or R2 = 2 P 2 (1 + cos q)
\Required unit vector is = qö
|$i + $j| æ
2 or R2 = 2 P 2 ç2 cos 2 ÷
è 2ø
7. As per figure, in u = a $i + b$j , both a and b are positive. q
or R2 = 4 P 2 cos 2
In v = p$i + q$j, p is positive and q is negative. 2
q
Thus, a, p and b are positive and q is negative. or R = 2 P cos
2
8. In the given cube, coordinates of point G(centre of face
a a 14. Resultant, R = A 2 + B2 + 2 AB cos q
ABOD) are x1 = , y1 = 0, z1 =
2 2 Þ 10 A 2 = 4 A 2 + 2 A 2 + 2 ´ 2 A ´ 2 A ´ cos q
where, a = side of cube or 4 A 2 = 4 2 A 2 cos q
Z 1
or cos q =
B 2
Þ q = 45°
A H E
G 15. Note that the angle between two forces is 120° and not
a ,0 , a 60°.
2 2
O F R2 = F 2 + F 2 + 2 × F × F cos 120°
D Þ R2 = F 2 + F 2 - F 2
Y
X
C Þ R2 = F 2
and coordinates of point H are Þ R=F
a a 16. As, P + Q = 5 i - 4$j + 3 k$
$
x2 = 0, y2 = , z2 =
2 2 5 5
So, vector GH is Þ cos a = =
52 + 42 + 32 50
GH = (x2 - x1 )i$ + ( y2 - y1 )$j + (z2 - z1 ) k
$
æ 5 ö
a a a or a = cos -1 ç ÷
= - $i + $j = ($j - $i ) è 50 ø
2 2 2
42 JEE Main Physics
\ C = -5 $i + 3 $j or cos q = 1 Þ q = 0°
Vector Analysis 43
30. Resultant, R = (P + Q) + (P - Q) = 2 P. Thus, angle 39. If r makes an angle q with X-axis, then component of r
between R and P is 0°. along X-axis = r cos q.
It will be maximum, if cos q = max = 1 or q = 0°. i.e. r is
31. From the condition given in question, along positive X-axis.
a 2 + b2 + 2 ab cos q = a 2 + b2 - 2 ab cos q
40. Since F = 4 $i - 3 $j is lying in XY-plane, hence the vector
or 4 ab cos q = 0
perpendicular to F must be lying perpendicular to
But 4 ab ¹ 0 $
XY-plane or along Z-axis, i.e. 7 k.
\ cos q = 0
or q = 90° 41. Let q be the angle which A make with X-axis, then
Ax 4 4
32. Let q be the angle between A1 and A 2, then cos q = = =
A 2 2
4 + 3 + 12 2 13
A12 + A22 + 2 A1 A2 cos q = R2
æ ö4
or A 2 + A 2 + 2 AA cos q = 3 A 2 \ q = cos -1 ç ÷
è 13 ø
1
or cos q = = cos 60°
2 42. From, A × B = AB cos q
or q = 60° A×B
Þ cos q =
The angle between A1 and -A 2 is (180° - 60° ) = 120° AB
\Resultant of A1 and -A 2 is ($i + $j + 2 k
$ )× k
$
or cos q =
R¢ = [ A12 + A22 + 2 A1 A2 cos(180°-60° )]1/ 2 1 12 + 12 + ( 2 )2
= [ A 2 + A 2 + 2 AA cos 120° ]1/ 2 = A 2 1
or cos q =
= Þ q = 45°
33. Clearly, 2 A - 3 B = 2 ($i + $j - 2 k$ ) - 3 (2 $i - $j + k$ ) 2 2
= - 4 $i + 5 $j - 7 k
$ A×B ($i + $j) × ($i - $j) 1 -1
43. cos q = = = = 0 = cos 90°
AB 2 2
1 + 1 ´ 1 + (-1) 2 2 2
\Magnitude of 2A - 3B = (-4)2 + (5)2 + (-7)2
= 16 + 25 + 49 = 90 \ q = 90°
34. The vector is i - (A + B + C )
$ 44. |P × Q| = (3$j + 4 k$ ) × (2$i + 5 k$ ) = 6 + 20 = 26
= $i - [(2$i - 4$j + 7 k
$ ) + (7 $i + 2 $j - 5 k
$ ) + (-4 $i + 7$j + 3 k
$ )]
45. Here, P × Q = (2$i - 3$j + k$ ) × (3$i + 2$j) = 6 ($i × $i ) - 6 ($j × $j) = 0
= - 5 $i - 5$j - 5 k
$
46. We know that, [$i × $j = $j × k$ = k$ × $i = 0, $i × $i = $j × $j = k$ × k$ = 1]
35. Here, F = Fx $i + Fy $j or F = 2 $i - 3 $j As, AB cos q = AB
or cos q = 1
36. Let, A + B = R. Given, Ax = 7 and Ay = 6
or q = 0°
Also, Rx = 11 and Ry = 9
Therefore, Bx = Rx - Ax = 11 - 7 = 4 47. Projection of P on Q is P cos q
and By = Ry - Ay = 9 - 6 = 3
P
Hence, magnitude of B = Bx2 + By2 = 42 + 32 = 5 θ
v Q
37.
PQ cos q P × Q
Here, P cos q = = = P× Q
$
60 km/h Q Q
B sin 45° j
B A sin 30° j
C Q P
60°
60° O
X' X B
A 135° A
B 60°
45° 30°
60° 60° X′ X
C B cos 45° – i A cos 30° i
A
Y'
(a) (b)
Resolving A and B into two rectangular components
we have A cos 30° along OX and A sin 30° along OY .
In figure (b), these vector are drawn from a common
While B cos 45° along OX ¢ and B sin 45° along OY ¢.
point, O and they are lying in XY-plane. Resolving
these vectors into two rectangular components along Resultant of components of forces along X-axis.
XY-axis and Y -axis, we have, the X-component of = ( A cos 30° - B cos 45° ) $i
resultant vector as = (10 ´ 3 / 2 - 10 ´ 1 / 2 ) $i = 1.59 $i
RX = |A| + |B|cos (180° - 60° ) + |C|cos (180° + 60° )
Resultant of components forces along Y -axis
= 1 - 2 cos 60° - 3 cos 60°
1 1 3 = ( A sin 30° + B sin 45° ) $j
= 1 -2 ´ -3 ´ = -
2 2 2 æ 1 1 ö$
= ç10 ´ + 10 ÷ j = 12.07 $j
Y -component of resultant vector is è 2 2ø
RY = 0 + |B|sin (180° - 60° ) + |C|sin (180° + 60° )
6. Using A × B = AB cos q
= 0 + 2 sin 60° - 3 sin 60° = - sin 60° = - 3 /2 Q A = $i + $j + k
$,
Magnitude of resultant vector,
2 \ A = 12 + 12 + 12 = 3
2
æ 3ö æ 3ö
R = RX2 + RY2 = ç - ÷ + ç - ÷ = 3 units A × i$ 1 3
è 2ø è 2 ø Þ cos q = = =
3 3 3
1.732
4. Given, | A | =| B| or A = B …(i) = = 0.5773 = cos 54°44¢
3
Let magnitude of ( A + B ) is R and for (A - B) is R¢.
or q = 54°44¢ ~ - 55°
Now, R = A + B
and R2 = A 2 + B2 + 2 AB cos q 7. Let, C be a vector perpendicular to A and B, then as
per question, kC = A ´ B
R2 = 2 A 2 + 2 A 2 cos q …(ii)
[Q using Eq. (i)] (A ´ B) (2$i + 3$j + 6 k $ ) ´ (3 $i - 6$j + 2 k
$)
or k = =
Again, R¢ = A - B C (6 $i + 2$j - 3 k $)
14. As, A = 2 $i + 4$j and B = 5 i$ - p $j 17. If the three vectors are coplanar, then their scalar
triple product is zero. So, (A ´ C) × B = 0
\ A = 22 + 42 = 20 or [(2$i + 3$j - 2k
$ ) ´ (- $i + 2 $j + 3 k
$ )] × [5 $i + a$j + k
$]=0
and B = 5 2 + p2 or [(13 $i - 4 $j + 7 k$ ] × [5$i + a$j + k
$]=0
Now, A × B = 10 - 4 p or 65 - 4 a + 7 = 0 or a = 18
Vector Analysis 47
18. Given, A + B + C = 0, then A , B and C are in one plane Substituting the value of|P|cos b from Eq. (i) in above
equation, we get
and are represented by the three sides of a triangle
p
taken in one order. tan q = ¥ Þ q = = 90°
2
(a) \ B ´ (A + B + C ) = B ´ 0 = 0
or B´ A + B´ B+ B´ C=0 21. If three vectors are coplanar, then a × (b ´ c) = 0.
or B´ A + 0 + B´ C=0 $i $j $
k
or A ´B=B´C …(i) Þ (2i - j + k) × 1 2 -3 = 0
$ $ $
\ (A ´ B ) ´ C = (B ´ C) ´ C; 3 -y 5
It cannot be zero.
If B||C, then B ´ C = 0, then (B ´ C ) ´ C = 0 Þ (2$i - $j + k$ ) × { $i (10 - 3 y) - $j(5 + 9) + k $ (- y - 6)} = 0
ì $i $j $ ü
k
As, |R| = |P| (given) ï ï
= (2i - 3 j + 4 k) × í 1 2 -1 ý
$ $ $
So, |P|2 = |P|2 + |Q|2 + 2|P||Q|cos b ï 3 -1 2 ï
î þ
Q
or |P|cos b = - .... (i) = (2i$ - 3$j + 4 k
$ ) × { $i (4 - 1) - $j (2 + 3) + k
$ (-1 - 6)}|
2
If resultant of 2P and Q makes angle q with Q, then = |(2i$ - 3$j + 4 k
$ ) × (3$i - 5$j - 7 k
$ )|
angle q is given by = |6 + 15 - 28|
|2P|sin b
tan q = = 7 m3
|Q| + |2P|cos b
03
Kinematics I
(Motion in 1-D)
The branch of Physics in which we study the motion of objects or particles and IN THIS CHAPTER ....
their equilibrium under the action of external forces is known as mechanics.
Frame of Reference
Kinematics is one of the branch of Mechanics. It describes the motion of
objects without looking at the cause of the motion. Here, time factor plays an Basic Terms Related to Motion
important role. Speed and Velocity
Uniform and Non-uniform Motion
Frame of Reference Acceleration
The frame of reference is a suitable coordinate system involving space and time Graphs in One Dimensional Motion
used as a reference to study the motion of different bodies. The most common
reference frame is the cartesian frame of reference involving (x, y, z and t). Relative Velocity
In 2-D motion, the object moves in a plane. time. Mathematically, it is equal to the change in
position vectors, i. e. Dr = r2 - r1
Y
y
(x, y)
(x2,y2,z2)
M
B
X r
O
r2 A (x1,y1,z1)
C
(iii ) Three-dimensional motion The motion of an
object is considered as 3-D (three-dimensional), if r1
all the three coordinates are needed to specify the
x
position of the object. O
Z Distance vs Displacement
● Distance is a scalar quantity and displacement is a
Basic Terms Related to Motion vector quantity.
● For motion between two points, displacement is single
Here, we will consider the motion of a point object in a
straight line in one dimension, therefore, the motion of valued while distance depends on actual path and so
the point object can be described by specifying the can have many values.
distance x of the point object and the corresponding ● Path length or distance is a positive scalar quantity
instant of time t. Mathematically, the position of the which does not decrease with time and can never be
object in one dimensional motion can be expressed as zero for a moving body. Displacement of a body can be
follows zero or negative.
x = x ( t) ● Magnitude of displacement can never be greater than
distance travelled by the body.
or x = f ( t)
● When a body returns to its initial position, its
Here, the distance x is the function of the time t. displacement is zero but distance or path length is
non-zero.
Position Vector
It describes the instantaneous position of a particle with Example 1. A particle moves along a circle of radius R. It
respect to the chosen frame of reference. It is a vector starts from A and moves in an anti-clockwise direction. What
joining the origin to the particle. If at any time (x, y, z) be is the distance and displacement of the particle from A to D?
coordinates of the particle, then its position vector is B
given by r = x$i + y$j + zk
$.
B D
pR
r2 r (a) , 2R (b) pR , 2 R
A 2
r1 3
(c) pR , 2 R (d) 2 pR, zero
O x 2
Sol. (c) For the motion from A to D,
Distance and Displacement 2 pR ´ 3 3
Distance travelled = = pR
Distance is the total length of the path travelled by the 4 2
particle in a given interval of time. \ Displacement = | AD| = (OA) 2 + (OD) 2
Displacement is a vector joining the initial position of
the particle to its final position in a given interval of = R2 + R2 = 2 R
JEE NEET ADDA
This Pdf Is
Download From
www.jeeneetadda.in
VISIT NOW !!
50 JEE Main Physics
For uniform motion, instantaneous velocity = average The average velocity of the particle during the complete
velocity = uniform velocity. motion is
However, converse may or may not be true, i. e. 2 u + v1 + v 2 2 u (v1 + v 2)
(a) (b)
if average velocity = instantaneous velocity, the motion 2 u (v1 + v 2) 2 u + v1 + v 2
may or may not be uniform. v1 + v 2 v -v
(c) (d) 1 2
v1 - v 2 v1 + v 2
Example 2. A car travels a distance A to B at a speed of
40 kmh–1 and returns to A at a speed of 30 kmh–1. What is the Sol. (b) When time intervals are equal,
average speed for the whole journey? then distances are equal
æv + v ö
(a) Zero (b) 34.3 kmh–1 (c) 68.6 kmh–1 (d) 120 kmh–1 2u ç 1 2÷
2 uv m è 2 ø 2 u (v1 + v 2)
s v av = = =
Sol. (b) Let AB = s, time taken to go from A to B, t1 = h u + vm æ v + v ö 2 u + v1 + v 2
40 u + ç 1 2÷
è 2 ø
s
and time taken to go from B to A, t 2 = h
30 Example 5. The coordinates of a moving particle at any
s s time t are given by x = at3 and y = bt3. The speed of the
\ Total time taken = t1 + t 2 = +
40 30 particle at time t is given by
(3 + 4) s 7 s
= = h (a) 3 t a2 + b2 (b) 3 t 2 a 2 + b 2
120 120
Total distance travelled = s + s = 2 s (c) t 2 a 2 + b 2 (d) a2 + b2
Total distance travelled
\ Average speed =
Total time taken Sol. (b) The given co-ordinate
2s 120 ´ 2 x = at 3 , y = bt 3
= = = 34.3 kmh –1
7 s / 120 7 dx dy
Then, vx = = 3 a t 2 and v y = = 3bt 2
dt dt
Example 3. A man walks on a straight road from his home
to a market 3 km away with a speed of 6 kmh–1 finding the \ Resultant velocity, v = v x2 + v y2 = 9a 2t 4 + 9 b 2t 4
market closed, he instantly turns and walks back with a speed
= 3 t 2 a2 + b2
of 9 kmh–1. What is the magnitude of average velocity and
average speed of the man, over the interval of time 0 to
Example 6. A particle is moving according to graph is
40 min ?
–1 –1 –1 –1
shown in figure. What is the average velocity in the interval
(a) 2.25 kmh , 6.75 kmh (b) 6.75 kmh , 2.25 kmh
of 3 s to 8 s?
(c) zero, 2.25 kmh–1 (d) zero, 6.75 kmh–1
(a) 10 ms -1 (b) 10 ms -2 (c) 8 ms -1 (d) 3 ms -1
Sol. (a) Time taken by man to go from his home to market,
distance 3 km 1
t1 = = –1
= h = 30 min 10 ms–1
speed 6 kmh 2
Time taken by man to go from market to home, v
3 km 1
t2 = –1
= h = 20 min
9 kmh 3 t 10 s
Distance moved in 30 min (from home to market) = 3.0 km Sol. (a) In uniform motion, average velocity equals to
Distance moved in 10 min (from market to home) with speed instantaneous velocity. Hence, average velocity will be10 ms-1.
1
9 kmh –1 = 9 ´ = 1.5 km Example 7. A particle is moving according to the
6
So, displacement = 3.0 - 1.5 = 1.5 km
equation x = 5 t 2 - 20 t + 4 . What is the average velocity
Total path length travelled = 3.0 +1.5 = 4.5 km between time t1 = 0 s to t 2 = 4 s ? (where, x = displacement,
1.5 km t = time)
Average velocity = = 2.25 kmh –1 (a) 20t ms -1 (b) 20 ms -2
(40/60) h
4.5 km (c) 10 ms -1 (d) None of these
Average speed = = 6.75 kmh –1
(40 /60) h
v
Example 4. A particle travels half the distance with
velocity u. The remaining part of the distance is covered with 2 t 4
velocity v1 for the first half time and v2 for the remaining half
time. –20 ms–1
52 JEE Main Physics
Sol. (c) Given that, x = 5 t 2 - 20 t + 4 ● A particle moving with a uniform acceleration from A
dx to B along a straight line has velocities v1 and v2 at A
v= = 10 t - 20
dt and B respectively. If C is the mid-point between A and
At t = 0 , vi = - 20 ms–1 B, then velocity of the particle at C is equal to
t = 2 s, v f = 0 ms–1 v 2 + v22
v= 1 .
t = 4 s, v = 20 ms–1 2
Area of v-t graph gives displacement and distance.
Example 8. A particle travels according to the equation
Average velocity = 0
a = A - Bv, where a is acceleration, A and B are constants and v
40
Average speed = = 10 ms-1 is velocity of the particle. It’s velocity as a function of time is
4
B B A A
(a) (1- e- At ) (b) (1- e-Bt ) (c) (1- e-Bt ) (d) (1- e- At )
A A B B
Uniform and Non-uniform Motion dv
Sol. (c) Given acceleration, a =
Uniform Motion An object is said to be in uniform dt
motion if its velocity is uniform, i. e. it undergoes equal dv
\ = A - Bv
displacement in equal intervals of time, howsoever small dt
these intervals may be. For a uniform motion along a dv
straight line in a given direction, the magnitude of Þ = dt
A - Bv
displacement is equal to the actual distance covered by V dv t
the object. ò0 A - Bv = ò0 dt
Non-uniform Motion An object is said to be in v
1
non-uniform motion if it undergoes equal displacement in - log e ( A - Bv) = t
B 0
unequal intervals of time, howsoever small these
A - Bv
intervals may be. Clearly, in non-uniform motion, the Þ log e = -Bt
velocity of an object is different at different instants. A
Þ A - Bv = Ae-Bt
A
Acceleration \ v = (1 - e-Bt )
B
Acceleration of an object is defined as rate of change of
velocity. It is a vector quantity and its SI unit is m/s2. Example 9. A body moves along a straight line with an
acceleration 3 ms–2 for 2 s and then with an acceleration
Average acceleration for a given time
4 ms–2 for 3 s. What is his average acceleration?
v - v 1 Dv
a av = 2 = (a) 3.4 ms–2 (b) 3.5 ms–2
t2 - t1 Dt –2
(c) 3.6 ms (d) 3.7 ms–2
Instantaneous acceleration at a particular instant is
Sol. (c) Average acceleration,
defined as
a1t1 + a2 t 2 3 ´ 2 + 4 ´ 3
Dv dv æ dvx $ dv y $ dvz $ ö aav = = = 3.6 ms–2
a ins = lim = =ç i+ j+ k÷ t1 + t 2 2+3
Dt ® 0 D t dt è dt dt dt ø
= ( ax i$ + a y $j + az k$ ) Kinematics Equations for
Uniformly Accelerated Motion Uniformly Accelerated Motion
In an accelerated motion, if the change in velocity of an We can establish the relation between velocity,
object in each unit of time is constant, the object is said to acceleration and the distance travelled by the body in a
be moving with constant acceleration and such a particular time interval by a set of equations. These
motion is called uniformly accelerated motion. equations are known as kinematics equations or
● If a particle is accelerated for a time t with equations of motion.
1
acceleration a1 and for time t2 with acceleration a2, If u be the initial velocity, v the final velocity and
then average acceleration is distance covered by the body in time t is s, then the
a t + a2t2 equations of motion are as under
aav = 1 1
t1 + t2 (i) v = u + at
1
● If a body starts from rest and moves with uniform (ii) s = ut + at 2
acceleration, then distance travelled by the body in t 2
2 2
second is proportional to t 2 (i.e. s µ t 2) (iii) v - u = 2 as and
So, we can say that the ratio of distance covered in 1s, a
(iv) snth = u + ( 2 n - 1)
2s, 3s, is 12 : 22 : 32 or 1 : 4 : 9. 2
Kinematics I (Motion in 1-D) 53
Sol. (b) Given, Note Sign Conventions Normally, vertically upward motion is taken as
At t = 0, initial velocity of particle is x = 3$i ms-1 negative and vertically downward motion is taken as positive. Similarly, for
horizontally rightward motion is taken positive and leftward motion is
Acceleration of particle, a = (6$i + 4$j)ms-2 taken negative.
54 JEE Main Physics
Example 17. The motion of a particle along a straight line Uniformly s Slope of graph is
is described by the function x = (2 t - 3) 2, where x is in metres retarded motion decreasing with time so,
and t is in seconds. The acceleration at t = 2 s is v is decreasing, a is
negative
(a) 5 ms–2 (b) 6 ms–2 (c) 7 ms–2 (d) 8 ms–2
Sol. (d) Position, x = (2 t - 3) 2
t
dx t0
Velocity, v = = 4 (2 t - 3) ms-1
dt
dv
and acceleration, a = = 8 ms–2
dt Velocity-Time Graph
At t = 2 s, a = 8 ms–2
(i) Velocity-time graph gives the instantaneous value
of velocity at any instant.
Graphs in One (ii) The slope of tangent drawn on graph gives
instantaneous acceleration.
Dimensional Motion (iii) Area under v-t graph with time axis gives the
The tabular forms of s-t and v-t graphs are given for one value of displacement covered in given time.
dimensional motion with uniform velocity or with
(iv) The v-t curve cannot take sharp turns.
constant acceleration.
Different Cases of Velocity-Time Graph
Position-Time Graph
Different Cases v-t Graph Features of Graph
(i) Position-time graph gives instantaneous value of
displacement at any instant. Uniform motion v (i) q = 0º
(ii) v = constant
(ii) The slope of tangent drawn to the graph at any v = constant (iii) Slope of v-t
instant of time gives the instantaneous velocity at
that instant. graph = a = 0
t
(iii) The s-t graph cannot make sharp turns.
56 JEE Main Physics
s
Different Cases v-t Graph Features of Graph
Uniformly v So slope of v-t graph is
accelerated constant. i .e. u = 0, so t
t0
motion with u = 0 v = at a = constant. Also
and s = 0 at t = 0 v = 0 at t = 0. –s0
t
increasing.
Relative Velocity
v
The time rate of change of relative position of one object
Non-uniformly Slope of v-t graph is
decelerating decreasing, so with respect to another is called relative velocity.
motion acceleration is Let two objects A and B are moving along the +ve
decreasing. direction of X-axis. At time t, their displacement from the
t origin be xA and xB .
vA A vB
Note (i) Slope of s-t or v-t graphs can never be infinite at any point, O B
because infinite slope of s-t graphs means infinite velocity. xA
Similarly infinity slope of v-t graph means infinite acceleration. xB
Hence, the following graphs are not possible. dxA dxB
\ Their velocities are vA = and vB =
s v dt dt
The displacement of B relative to A,
xBA = xB - xA
Rate of change of relative displacement w.r.t. time is
d ( xBA ) d
t t = ( xB - xA )
dt dt
(ii) At one time, two values of velocity or displacement are not dxBA dx B dx A
Þ = -
possible. Hence, the following graphs are not acceptable dt dt dt
s v \ v BA = v B - v A
s1 v1 Different Cases
Case I When the two objects move with equal velocities,
s2 v2
i. e. vA = vB or vB - vA = 0. It means, the two
objects stay at constant distance apart during the
t t whole journey.
t0 t0
y B
t
(iii) Different values of displacements in s-t graph corresponding to jec
ob
given v-t graphs can be calculated just by calculating areas s(m) t A
jec
under v-t graph. There is no need of using equations like ob
v = u + at , etc.
x
Example 18. Position-time graph of a particle moving in a t (s)
straight line is as shown in figure. State the type of motion. In this case, the position-time graph of two
(Given, s0 = 20 m and t 0 = 4 s) objects are parallel straight lines.
Kinematics I (Motion in 1-D) 57
Case II If both objects A and B move along parallel OA = v m (velocity of man in still river water)
straight lines in the opposite direction, then OB = v mR (relative velocity of man w.r.t. river)
relative velocity of B w.r.t. A is given as v mR = v 2m - v R
2
v BA = v B - ( - v A ) = v B + v A
vR
and the relative velocity of A w.r.t. B is given by In DOAB, sinq =
vm
v AB = v A - v B
where q is the angle made by man with shortest distance
OB,
Examples of Relative Motion v vR
tanq = R =
1. Relative Velocity of Rain vm 2 2
vm - vR
Consider a man walking East with velocity v m ,
represented by OA. Let the rain be falling vertically (a) Time taken to cross the river If d be the
downwards with velocity v r , represented by OB . width of the river, then time taken cross to the
river given by
To find the relative velocity of rain w.r.t. man ( i. e. , v rm ) d d
bring the man at rest by imposing a velocity -v m on man t1 = =
and apply this velocity on rain also. v mR v - v2
2
m R
Now the relative velocity of rain w.r.t. man will be the (b) To cross the river in possible shortest time
resultant velocity of v r ( = OB) and - v m ( = OA), which will The man should go along OA. Now the swimmer
be represented by diagonal OC of rectangle OACB will be going along OB, which is the direction of
\ v rm = vr2 + vm
2
+ 2vr vm cos 90° = vr2 + vm
2 resultant velocity of v m and v R
A vR B
–vm O vm x
A A
d vm –vmR
vrm q
θ
vr
downstream
C B upstream O
Sol. (d) Given, v A = 6 $i Example 20. The stream of a river is flowing with a speed
N of 2 km/h. A swimmer can swim at a speed of 4 km/h. What
should be the direction of the swimmer with respect to the
30° v = 6 ms–1 flow of the river to cross the river straight?
B
W E (a) 60°
vA = 6 ms–1 (b) 120°
(c) 90°
S (d) 150°
vB = vB cos 60° $i + vB sin 60° $j Sol. (b) Let the velocity of the swimmer is
æ 1ö æ 3ö $ v s = 4 km/h
= 6 ç ÷ $i + 6 ç ÷ j = 3 $i + 3 3 $j
è2ø è 2 ø and velocity of river is v r = 2 km/h
To find the velocity, Also, angle of swimmer with the flow of the river (down
vBA = vB - v A = (3$i + 3 3 $j) - 6 $i stream) is a as shown in the figure below.
= -3 $i + 3 3 $j
α=90°+θ vr
2 2 vr
| vBA| = ( -3) + (3 3) = 9 + 27
= 36 = 6 ms-1 vsr θ vs
Here, $i is –ve and $j is +ve. So, second quadrant is possible.
coefficient of $j From diagram, angle q is
Direction, tan a = vr 2 km/h 1
coefficient of $i sin q = = =
v sr 4 km/h 2
3 3
= =- 3 Þ q = 30°
-3
Clearly, a = 90° + 30° = 120°
Þ a = - p /3
Kinematics I (Motion in 1-D) 59
Practice Exercise
ROUND I Topically Divided Problems
12. A body moves in a plane, so that the displacement 20. A particle starts from the origin and moves along
along X and Y-axes is x = 3 t2 and y = 4 t2 , then the X-axis such that the velocity at any instant is
velocity is given by 4 t 3 - 2 t, where t is in second and velocity
(a) 15 t 2 is in ms–1. What is the acceleration of the particle
(b) 20 t 2 when it is 2 m from the origin?
(c) 5 t 2 (a) 10 ms–2 (b) 12 ms–2
(d) None of the above (c) 22 ms–2 (d) 28 ms–2
13. The displacement of a body along X-axis depends 21. A lift is coming from 8th floor and is just about to
on time as x = t + 1. Then, the velocity of body reach 4th floor. Taking ground floor as origin and
(a) increase with time (b) decrease with time positive direction upwards for all quantities, which
(c) independent of time (d) None of these one of the following is correct? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) x < 0, v < 0, a > 0
14. The velocity of a particle is v = v0 + gt + Ft2 . Its
(b) x > 0, v < 0, a < 0
position is x = 0 at t = 0, then its displacement after (c) x > 0, v < 0, a > 0
time ( t = 1) is [JEE Main 2021] (d) x > 0, v > 0, a < 0
g F
(a) v0 + g + F (b) v0 + + 22. The position of a particle as a function of time t, is
2 3
g given by x( t) = at + bt2 - ct 3 where a, b and c are
(c) v0 + + F (d) v0 + 2 g + 3 F
2 constants. When the particle attains zero
acceleration, then its velocity will be [JEE Main 2019]
15. In one dimensional motion, instantaneous speed v b2 b2
satisfies 0 £ v < v0 . [NCERT Exemplar] (a) a + (b) a +
2c 4c
(a) The displacement in time T must always take b2 b2
non-negative values (c) a + (d) a +
3c c
(b) The displacement x in time T satisfies
- v0 T < x < v0T 23. The driver of a car moving with a speed of 10 ms -1
(c) The acceleration is always a non-negative number sees a red light ahead, applies brakes and stops
(d) The motion has no turning points after covering 10 m distance. If the same car were
moving with a speed of 20 ms -1, the same driver
16. A particle located at x = 0 at time t = 0, starts would have stopped the car after covering 30 m
moving along the positive x-direction with a
distance. Within what distance the car can be
velocity v that varies as v = a x . The displacement
stopped if travelling with a velocity of 15 ms -1?
of the particle varies with time as
Assume the same reaction time and the same
(a) t 2 (b) t
deceleration in each case.
(c) t1/ 2 (d) t3 (a) 18.75 m (b) 20.75 m
17. A particle moving with a uniform acceleration along (c) 22.75 m (d) 25 m
a straight line covers distance a and b in successive
24. A particle moving in a straight line with uniform
intervals of p and q second. The acceleration of the
acceleration is observed to be at a distance a from a
particle is
fixed point initially. It is at distances b, c, d from
pq ( p + q) 2 (aq - bp)
(a) (b) the same point after n, 2n, 3n second. The
2 (bp - aq) pq ( p - q)
acceleration of the particle is
bp - aq 2 (bp - aq) c - 2b + a c+ b + a
(c) (d) (a) (b)
pq ( p - q) pq ( p - q) n2 9 n2
c+ 2 b + a c- b + a
18. The position vector of particle changes with time (c) (d)
according to the relation r( t) = 15t2 $i + ( 4 - 20t2 ) $j. 4 n2 n2
What is the magnitude of the acceleration (in ms-2) 25. The retardation experienced by a moving motor
at t = 1? [JEE Main 2019] boat, after its engine is cut-off, is given by
(a) 50 (b) 100 dv
= - kv 3, where k is a constant. If v0 is the
(c) 25 (d) 40 dt
magnitude of the velocity at cut-off, the magnitude
19. The relation between time t and distance x is of the velocity at time t after the cut-off is
t = ax2 + bx, where a and b are constants. The v0
acceleration is (a) v0 (b)
2
(a) -2 abv2 (b) 2 bv3 v0
(c) v0 e- kt (d)
(c) -2 av3 (d) 2 av2 2v02 kt + 1
Kinematics I (Motion in 1-D) 61
26. The engine of a train can impart a maximum 32. A particle is moving with speed v = b x along
acceleration of 1 ms–2 and the brakes can give a positive X-axis. Calculate the speed of the particle
maximum retardation of 3 ms–2. The least time at time t = t (assume that the particle is at origin at
during which a train can go from one place to the t = 0). [JEE Main 2019]
other place at a distance of 1.2 km is nearly b2t b2t
(a) (b)
(a) 108 s (b) 191 s 4 2
(c) 56.6 s (d) time is fixed b2t
(c) b2t (d)
2
27. The acceleration of a particle increasing linearly
with time t is bt. The particle starts from the origin 33. Two balls A and B are thrown simultaneously from
with an initial velocity v0 . The distance travelled by the top of a tower. A is thrown vertically up with a
the particle in time t will be speed of 4 ms–1. B is thrown vertically down with a
1 3 1 2 speed of 4 ms–1. The ball A and B hit the ground
(a) v0 t + bt (b) v0 t + bt
6 6 with speed v A and vB respectively, then
1 1 (a) vA < vB (b) vA > vB
(c) v0 t + bt3 (d) v0 t + bt 2 (c) vA ³ vB (d) vA = vB
3 3
34. A stone is allowed to fall from the top of a tower
Uniform and Non-uniform Motions 100 m high and at the same time another stone is
28. A car is moving along a straight road with uniform projected vertically upwards from the ground with
acceleration. It passes through two points P and Q a velocity of 25 ms -1. The two stones will meet after
separated by a distance with velocities 30 kmh–1 (a) 4 s (b) 0.4 s
and 40 kmh -1 respectively. The velocity of car (c) 0.04 s (d) 40 s
midway between P and Q is 35. A boy released a ball from the top of a building. It
(a) 33.3 kmh -1 (b) 1 kmh -1 will clear a window 2 m high at a distance 10 m
-1 -1 below the top in nearly
(c) 25 2 kmh (d) 35.35 kmh
(a) 1 s (b) 1.3 s
. i$ + 4.0 $j) m at
29. A particle moves from the point (20 (c) 0.6 s (d) 0.13 s
t = 0 with an initial velocity (50. i$ + 4.0 $j) ms- 1. It is
acted upon by a constant force which produces a 36. A ball P is dropped vertically and another ball Q is
constant acceleration ( 4.0 $i + 4.0 $j) ms- 2 . What is thrown horizontally with the same velocity from
the distance of the particle from the origin at time the same height and at the same time. If air
2 s? [JEE Main 2019] resistance is neglected, then
(a) 5 m (b) 20 2 m (c) 10 2 m (d) 15 m (a) ball P reaches the ground first
(b) ball Q reaches the ground first
30. A particle covers 4 m, 5 m, 6 m and 7 m in 3rd, 4th, (c) both reach the ground at the same time
5th and 6th second respectively. The particle starts (d) the respective masses of the two balls will decide
(a) with an initial non-zero velocity and moves with the time
uniform acceleration
(b) from rest and moves with uniform velocity 37. A ball A is thrown up vertically with a speed u and
(c) with an initial velocity and moves with uniform at the same instant another ball B is released from
velocity a height h. At time t, the speed of A relative to B is
(d) from rest and moves with uniform acceleration (a) u (b) 2 u
(c) u - gt (d) (u 2 - gt )
31. A mosquito is moving with a velocity
. t2 $i + 3 t$j +9 k
v = 05 $ m/s and accelerating in uniform
38. From a balloon rising vertically upwards at 5 m/s a
conditions. What will be the direction of mosquito stone is thrown up at 10 m/s relative to the balloon.
after 2s? [JEE Main 2021] Its velocity with respect to ground after 2 s is
æ2ö (assume g = 10 m /s2 )
(a) tan -1 ç ÷ , from X-axis
è3ø (a) 0 (b) 20 m/s
-1 æ 2 ö (c) 10 m/s (d) 5 m/s
(b) tan ç ÷ , from Y -axis
è3ø
39. A body thrown vertically upward with an initial
-1 æ 5 ö velocity u reaches maximum height in 6 second.
(c) tan ç ÷ , from Y -axis
è2ø The ratio of the distances travelled by the body in
æ5ö the first second and seventh second is
(d) tan -1 ç ÷ , from X-axis
è2ø (a) 1 : 1 (b) 11 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 11
62 JEE Main Physics
40. A particle of mass m is initially situated at the 45. A body freely falling from rest has a velocity v after
point P inside a hemispherical surface of radius r it falls through distance h. The distance it has to
as shown in figure. A horizontal acceleration of fall down further for its velocity to become double is
magnitude a 0 is suddenly produced on the particle (a) h (b) 2 h
in the horizontal direction. If gravitational (c) 3 h (d) 4 h
acceleration is neglected, the time taken by particle
46. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the top of
to touch the sphere again is
a tower of height h with velocity v. The ball strikes
the ground after
v é 2 gh ù v é 2 gh ù
(a) ê1 + 1 + 2 ú (b) ê1 + 1 - 2 ú
g ë v û g ë v û
P
1/ 2 1/ 2
væ 2 gh ö væ 2 gh ö
4r sin a 4 r tan a (c) ç1 + 2 ÷ (d) ç1 - 2 ÷
(a) (b) gè v ø gè v ø
a0 a0
4 r cos a 47. From an elevated point A, a stone is projected
(c) (d) None of these vertically upwards. When the stone reaches a
a0
distance h below A, its velocity is double of what
41. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. It is observed was at a height above A? The greatest height
that it remains at a height h twice with a time attained by the stone is
h 2h h 5h
interval Dt, then the initial velocity of the ball is (a) (b) (c) (d)
2 3 2 2 3
æ gDt ö
(a) 8 gh + g 2 (Dt )2 (b) 8 gh + ç ÷ 48. A particle starting from rest falls from a certain
è 2 ø
height. Assuming that the value of acceleration due
(c) 1 / 2 8 gh + g 2 (Dt )2 (d) 8 gh + 4 g 2 (Dt )2 to gravity remains the same throughout motion, its
displacements in three successive half second
42. A frictionless wire AB is fixed on a sphere of radius
intervals are s1, s2 , s3. Then,
R. A very small spherical ball slips on this wire.
(a) s1 : s2 : s3 = 1 : 5 : 9 (b) s1 : s2 : s3 = 1 : 2 : 3
The time taken by this ball to slip from A to B is
(c) s1 : s2 : s3 = 1 : 1 : 1 (d) s1 : s2 : s3 = 1 : 3 : 5
A
49. A body released from a great height falls freely
θ
towards the earth. Another body is released from
B O the same height exactly one second later. The
separation between the two bodies two second after
the release of the second body is
(a) 9.8 m (b) 4.9 m
C
(c) 24.5 m (d) 19.6 m
2 gR cos q 11
(a) (b) 2 gR
g cos q g 50. A ball released from the top of a tower travels of
36
R gR the height of the tower in the last second of its
(c) 2 (d)
g g cos q journey. The height of the tower is
(Take, g = 10 ms -2 )
43. A body is thrown vertically up with a velocity u. It
passes three points A, B and C in its upward (a) 11 m (b) 36 m (c) 47 m (d) 180 m
u u u
journey with velocities , and respectively. The 51. A stone thrown vertically upwards attains a
2 3 4 maximum height of 45 m. In what time, the
ratio of the separations between points A and B velocity of stone become equal to one-half the
AB
and between B and C, i. e. is velocity of throw? (Take, g = 10 ms -2 )
BC
10 20 (a) 2 s (b) 1.5 s (c) 1 s (d) 0.5 s
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) (d)
7 7 52. From a tower of height H, a particle is thrown
44. A juggler keeps on moving four balls in the air vertically upwards with a speed u. The time taken
throws the balls in regular interval of time. When by the particle to hit the ground, is n times that
one ball leaves his hand (speed = 20 ms -1), the taken by it to reach the highest point of its path.
position of other ball will be (Take, g = 10 ms -2 ) The relation between H, u and n is [JEE Main 2014]
(a) 10 m, 20 m, 10 m (b) 15 m, 20 m, 15 m (a) 2 gH = n 2 u 2 (b) gH = (n - 2)2 u 2
(c) 5 m, 15 m, 20 m (d) 5 m, 10 m, 20 m (c) 2 gH = nu 2 (n - 2) (d) gH = (n - 2)2u
Kinematics I (Motion in 1-D) 63
53. Water drops fall from a tap on the floor 5 m below 58. Among the four graphs, there is only one graph for
at regular intervals of time, the first drop striking which average velocity over the time interval (0, T)
the floor when the fifth drop begins to fall. The can vanish for a suitably chosen T. Which one is it?
height at which the third drop will be, from ground, [NCERT Exemplar]
at the instant when first drop strikes the ground, x x
will be (Take, g = 10 ms–2)
(a) 1.25 m (b) 2.15 m
(c) 2.73 m (d) 3.75 m (a) t (b)
v v (a) (b)
(a) t (b) t
t t
v v
v v
(c) (d) (c) (d)
t
t
t t
64 JEE Main Physics
Position Velocity
v
(in ms–1 )
(c) Time (d) Time
O 30
s (in m)
v 3
2
1
vm 0 t (s)
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
t (a) 6 m (b) 3 m (c) 10 m (d) 9 m
t0
Kinematics I (Motion in 1-D) 65
68. A particle starts from origin O from rest and moves (ii) v( t2 ) = v( t1) + a( t2 - t1)
with a uniform acceleration along the positive é x( t ) - x( t1) ù
X-axis. Identify all figures that correctly represent (iii) vav = ê 2 ú
the motion qualitatively. ë ( t2 - t1) û
(where, a = acceleration, v = velocity, [v( t2 ) - v( t1)]
(iv) aav =
x = displacement, t = time.) [JEE Main 2019] ( t2 - t1)
1
aav ( t2 - t1)2
(v) x( t2 ) = x( t1) + vav ( t2 - t1) +
2
(A) a (B) v (vi) x( t2 ) - x( t1) = Area under v-t curve bounded by
the t-axis and the dotted line shown
(a) (iii) and (vi)
O t O t
(b) (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (iv) and (vi)
(C) x (D) x
Relative Motion
O
71. An express train is moving with a velocity v1 and its
t O t
driver finds another train is moving on the same
(a) (A) (b) (A), (B), (C) track in the same direction with velocity v2 . To
(c) (B), (C) (d) (A), (B), (D) avoid collision, driver applies a retardation a on the
69. The velocity-displacement graph of a particle is train. The minimum time of avoiding collision will
shown in the figure. The acceleration-displacement be
graph of the same particle is represented by v1 - v2 v12 - v22
(a) t = (b) t =
[JEE Main 2021] a 2
v (c) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) Both (a) and (b)
v0
72. At a metro station, a girl walks up a stationary
escalator in time t1. If she remains stationary on
the escalator, then the escalator take her up in
x
x0 time t2 . The time taken by her to walk up on the
a a moving escalator will be [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) (t1 + t2)/2 (b) t1t2 /(t2 - t1 )
(a) O (b) O (c) t1t2 /(t2 + t1 ) (d) t1 - t2
x x
73. Two cars move in the same direction along parallel
roads. One of them is a 100 m long travelling with
a a a velocity of 7.5 ms -1. How long will it take for the
first car to overtake the second car?
(c) O (d) O (a) 24 s (b) 40 s
x x
(c) 60 s (d) 80 s
74. A 210 m long train is moving due North at a speed
70. The velocity-time graph of a particle in of 25 m/s. A small bird is flying due South, a little
one-dimensional motion is shown in figure. Which above the train with speed 5 m/s. The time taken
of the following formulae are correct for describing by the bird to cross the train is
the motion of the particle over the time interval (a) 6 s (b) 7 s
t1 to t2 ? (c) 9 s (d) 10 s
v
75. Rain drops fall vertically at a speed of 20 ms -1. At
what angle do they fall on the wind screen of a car
moving with a velocity of 15 ms -1, if the wind
screen velocity inclined at an angle of 23° to the
vertical?
O t1 t2 t é -1 æ 4 ö ù
êëcot çè 3 ÷ø » 36° úû
1
(i) x( t2 ) = x( t1) + v( t1)( t2 - t1) + a( t2 - t1)2 (a) 60º (b) 30º (c) 45º (d) 90º
2
66 JEE Main Physics
76. Two trains travelling on the same track are 82. Trains A and B are running on parallel tracks in
approaching each other with equal speeds of the opposite directions with speeds of 36 km/h and
40 ms–1. The drivers of the trains begin to 72 km/h, respectively. A person is walking in train
decelerate simultaneously when they are just 2 km A in the opposite direction to its motion with a
apart. If the decelerations are both uniform and speed of 1.8 km/h. Speed (in ms -1 ) of this person as
equal, then the value of deceleration to barely avoid observed from train B will be close to (Take, the
collision should be distance between the tracks as negligible)
(a) 0.8 ms–2 (b) 2.1 ms–2 [JEE Main 2020]
(c) 11.0 ms–2 (d) 13.2 ms–2 (a) 28.5 (b) 30.5 (c) 29.5 (d) 31.5
77. A passenger train of length 60 m travels at a speed 83. A man wants to reach point B on the opposite bank
of 80 km/h. Another freight train of length 120 m of a river flowing at a speed as shown in figure.
travels at a speed of 30 km/h. The ratio of times What minimum speed relative to water should the
taken by the passenger train to completely cross man have, so that he can reach point B?
the freight train when : (i) they are moving in the B
same direction and (ii) in the opposite direction is
[JEE Main 2019]
3 25 u
(a) (b)
2 11 45°
11 5
(c) (d)
5 2 A
(a) u 2 (b) u / 2
78. The distance between two particles moving towards
each other is decreasing at the rate of 6 m/s. If (c) 2 u (d) u /2
these particles travel with same speed and in the 84. A boat crosses a river from part A to part B which
same direction, then the separation increase at the are just on opposite side. The speed of the water is
rate of 4 m/s. The particles have speed as vw and that of boat is vb relative to still water.
(a) 5 m/s; 1 m/s (b) 4 m/s; 1 m/s Assume vb = 2 vw . What is the time taken by the
(c) 4 m/s; 2 m/s (d) 5 m/s; 2 m/s boat? If it has to cross the river directly on the AB
79. A police jeep is chasing with velocity of 45 km/h a line.
thief in another jeep moving with velocity of 2D 3D
(a) (b)
153 km/h. Police fires a bullet with muzzle velocity vb 3 2 vb
of 180 m/s towards thief’s car. The velocity with D D 2
which the bullet will strike the car of the thief is (c) (d)
vb 2 vb
(a) 150 m/s (b) 27 m/s
(c) 450 m/s (d) 250 m/s 85. When a car is at rest, its driver sees rain drops
falling on it vertically. When driving the car with
80. A train is moving towards east and a car is along
speed v, he sees that rain drops are coming at an
north, both with same speed. The observed
angle 60° from the horizontal. On further
direction of a car to the passenger in the train is
increasing the speed of the car to (1 + b)v, this angle
(a) east-north direction changes to 45°. The value of b is close to
(b) west-north direction [JEE Main 2020]
(c) south-east direction (a) 0.50 (b) 0.41
(d) None of the above (c) 0.37 (d) 0.73
81. A steam boat goes across a lake and comes back 86. In a car race on a straight path, car A takes a time
(i) on a quiet day when the water is still and (ii) on t less than car B at the finish and passes finishing
a rough day when there is a uniform current so as point with a speed v more than that of car B. Both
to help the journey onwards and to impede the the cars start from rest and travel with constant
journey back. If the speed of the launch on both acceleration a1 and a2 respectively, then v is equal
days was same, the time required for complete to [ JEE Main 2019]
journey on the rough day, as compared to the quiet 2a1a 2
(a) t (b) 2a1a 2 t
day will be a1 + a 2
(a) more (b) less a1 + a 2
(c) same (d) None of these (c) a1a 2 t (d) t
2
ROUND II Mixed Bag
Only One Correct Option 8. An elevator ascends with an upward acceleration
1. A particle moving in a straight line covers half the of 2.0 ms -2 . At the instant its upward speed is
distance with speed of 3 m/s. The other half of the 2.5 ms -1, a loose bolt is dropped from the ceiling of
distance is covered in two equal time intervals and the elevator 3.0 m from the floor. If g = 10 ms–2,
with speeds of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s, respectively. The then find the distance covered by the bolt during
average speed of the particle during this motion is the free fall relative to the elevator shaft.
(a) 4.0 m/s (b) 5.0 m/s (a) 0.11 m (b) 0.75 m (c) 1.38 m (d) 2.52 m
(c) 5.5 m/s (d) 4.8 m/s 9. A particle is moving with a uniform acceleration
2. In a race for 100 m distance, the first and the along a straight line AB. Its speed at A and B are
second runners have a gap of one metre at the mid 2 ms–1 and 14 ms–1 respectively. Then
way stage. Assuming the first runner goes steady, (a) its speed at mid-point of AB is 20 ms–1
by what percentage should the second runner (b) its speed at a point P such that AP : PB = 1:5 is
increases his speed just to win the race. 4 ms–1
(a) 2% (b) 4% (c) the time to go from A to mid-point of AB is double
(c) more than 4% (d) less than 4% of that to go from mid-point of B
(d) None of the above
3. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate a for
some time after which it decelerates at a constant 10. A bullet emerges from a barrel of length 1.2 m with
rate b to come to rest. If the total time elapsed is t a speed of 640 ms–1. Assuming constant
seconds, the total distance travelled is [JEE Main 2021] acceleration, the approximate time that it spends in
4ab 2 2ab 2 the barrel after the gun is fired is
(a) t (b) t (a) 4 ms (b) 40 ms (c) 400 ms (d) 1 s
(a + b ) (a + b )
ab ab 11. A train accelerated uniformly from rest attains a
(c) t2 (d) t2
2(a + b ) 4(a + b ) maximum speed of 40 ms -1 in 20 s. It travels at this
speed for 20 s and is brought to rest with uniform
4. A particle is moving with a velocity v = k( yi$ + x$j),
retardation in 40 s. The average velocity during
where k is a constant. The general equation for its
this period is
path is
(a) (80/3) ms–1 (b) 30 ms–1
(a) y = x2 + constant
(c) 25 ms–1 (d) 40 ms–1
(b) y2 = x + constant
(c) xy = constant 12. A car starting from rest, accelerates at the rate f
(d) y2 = x2 + constant through a distance S, then continues at constant
f
5. An automobile travelling with a speed of 60 kmh -1 speed for time t and then decelerates at the rate
2
can brake to stop with a distance of 20 m. If the car to come to rest. If the total distance traversed in
is going twice as fast, i. e. 120 kms -1, the stopping 15 s, then
distance will be 1 2 1
(a) 20 m (b) 40 m (a) S = ft (b) S = ft 2
4 72
(c) 60 m (d) 80 m 1
(c) S = ft 2 (d) S = ft
6. A point initially at rest moves along x-axis. Its 6
acceleration varies with time as a = (6 t + 5) m/s2. If 13. A particle is dropped vertically from rest from a
it starts from origin, the distance covered in 2 s is height. The time taken by it to fall through
(a) 20 m (b) 18 m successive distances of 1 m each, will then be
(c) 16 m (d) 25 m (a) all being equal to 2 / 9 s
7. The motion of a body is given by the equation (b) in the ratio of the square roots of the integers 1, 2,
dv ( t)
= 6.0 - 3 v ( t), where v( t) is speed in ms–1 and t 3, …
dt
(c) in the ratio of the difference in the square roots of
in second. If body was at rest at t = 0 and the
acceleration is half the initial value, then find its the integers is ( 2 - 1 ), ( 3 - 2 ), ( 4 - 3 )
speed. (d) in the ratio of the reciprocal of the square roots of
(a) 2.0 ms -1 (b) 3.0 ms -1 æ 1 1 1 1 ö
the integers is ç , , , ÷
(c) 1.0 ms -1 (d) 6.0 ms -1 è 1 2 3 4ø
68 JEE Main Physics
hitting the ground and neglect air resistance, take 28. The distance x covered by a particle in one
g = 10m /s2 ) [JEE Main 2015] dimensional motion varies with time t as
x2 = at2 + 2bt + c. If the acceleration of the particle
(y2 – y1)m
240
(y2 – y1)m depends on x as x - n , where n is an integer, the
240
value of n is …… .
(a) (b)
29. A particle moving on straight line whose
8 12
t(s) t(s) velocity-time graph is shown in the figure. The
8 12
15
average speed from t = 0 to t = 6 s is v = ms –1, the
n
(y2 – y1)m (y2 – y1)m
240 240 value of n is ………
(d) v (ms–1)
(c)
10
t(s) t(s)
12 8 12
5 6
t (s)
26. Ship A is sailing towards north-east with velocity 1 4
v = 30i$ + 50$j km/h, where $i points east and $j north.
Ship B is at a distance of 80 km east and 150 km
north of Ship A and is sailing towards west at 30. A particle is moving on a straight line whose
10 km/h. A will be at minimum distance from B in velocity as function of time is ( t - 2) ms –1. The
(a) 4.2 h [JEE Main 2019] distance travelled by particle (in m) in 4 s is …… .
(b) 2.6 h
(c) 3.2 h 31. A particle starts from rest to move along X-axis.
(d) 2.2 h The acceleration of the particle is a = ( t - x) ms –2 .
During motion, maximum acceleration of the
Numerical Value Questions particle is a0 = 2 ms –2 .The velocity (in ms -1) of the
p
27. The speed versus time graph for a particle is shown particle at t = s is ……… .
in the figure. The distance travelled (in m) by the 3
particle during the time interval t = 0 s to t = 5 s 32. A person is swimming with a speed of 10 m/s at an
will be ……… . angle of 120° with the flow and reaches to a point
directly opposite on the other side of the river. The
10
speed of the flow is x m/s. The value of x to the
8 nearest integer is ……… . [JEE Main 2021]
Speed 6
(in ms–1) 33. A particle is moving along the X-axis with its
4 coordinate with the t given by x( t) = 10 + 8 t - 3 t2 .
2 Another particle is moving along the Y -axis with its
coordinate as a function of time given by
0
1 2 3 4 5 y( t) = 5 - 8 t 3. At t = 1 s, the speed of the second
Time particle as measured in the frame of the first
(in s)
particle is given as v. Then v (in m/s) is ……… .
70 JEE Main Physics
Answers
Round I
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (d)
51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (b)
61. (c) 62. (a) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (d) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (b)
71. (a) 72. (c) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (a) 76. (a) 77. (c) 78. (a) 79. (a) 80. (b)
81. (a) 82. (c) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (d) 86. (c)
Round II
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. 20 28. 3 29. 2 30. 4
31. 1 32. 5 33. 580
Solutions
Round I 4. Here, S n =
1
an 2
1. Displacement along North = 400 - 300 = 100 m 2
Upward displacement = 1200 m S nth = distance travelled in n second
– distance travelled in (n - 1 ) second
\ Net displacement = (100)2 + (1200)2
æ 2n - 1 ö
= 1204.15 m » 1200 m =ç ÷a
è 2 ø
2. If distance between his house and office is s. S nth 2n - 1 2 1
s \ = = - 2
\ 2= (for 1st event) …(i) Sn n2 n n
3
t+
60 5. Horizontal distance covered by the wheel in half
s revolution pR.
and 2+1= (for 2nd event) …(ii) Final
æ 3ö A′
çt - ÷
è 60 ø
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 2R
s = 0.6 km and t = 0.25 h
3. Here, initial position vector of particle is
A πR
r i = $i + 2$j - 3 k
$
So, the displacement of the point which was initially in
and final position vector of particle is contact with ground
rf = 3$i + 4$j + 5 k
$
= AA ¢ = (pR)2 + (2 R)2
\ The displacement of particle is
= R p2 + 4 = p2 + 4 (Q R = 1 m)
s = rf - ri
6. A body is moving on straight line with constant
= (3$i + 4$j + 5 k
$ ) - ($i + 2$j - 3 k
$)
velocity. Between A and B, the straight path length is
= 2i$ + 2$j + 8 k
$ the shortest distance. This is the distance travelled.
\ Magnitude of displacement, |s| = 22 + 22 + 82 The particle starts at A and reaches B along the
straight line. Therefore displacement is also AB, i.e.
= 72 m = 8.5 m D = s.
Kinematics I (Motion in 1-D) 71
u + v1¢ u + u + at1 1 1
7. As, v1 = = = u + at1 cos q =
2 2 2 5
v1¢ + v2¢ (u + at1 ) + u + a (t1 + t2) 8
v2 = = \ vmin =
2 2 æ 2 ö 1
1 2ç ÷+
= u + at1 + at2 è 5ø 5
2
8
v2¢ + v3¢ (u + at1 + at2) + u + a (t1 + t2 + t3 ) = = 3.57 ms –1
v3 = = 5
2 2
1 10. When a particle is moving with uniform acceleration,
= u + at1 + at2 + at3
2 let v be the velocity of particle at a distance s,
1 0+ v v
Then, v1 - v2 = - a (t1 + t2) then average velocity = =
2 2 2
1 s 2s
v2 - v3 = - a (t2 + t3 ) Time taken, t1 = =
2 (v / 2) v
v1 - v2 t1 + t2
\ = When particle moves with uniform velocity, time
v2 - v3 t2 + t3 taken,
8. Here,v = |t - 2|ms –1 2s
t2 =
v
v = t - 2, when t > 2 s
When particle moves with uniform acceleration, time
v = 2 - t , when t < 2 s taken,
dv
\ a= = 1 ms –2 when t > 2 s t3 =
3s
=
6s
dt (0 + v) / 2 v
a = -1 ms –2 when t < 2 s
Total time = t1 + t2 + t3
a = 1 ms–2 a = 1 ms–2
C 2 s 2 s 6 s 10 s
A B = + + =
t = 2s v v v v
In the direction of motion from A to C, bee decelerates s + 2 s + 3s 6 v
\ vav = =
but for C to B, bee accelerates. 10s / v 10
Let AC = s1 , BC = s2 vav 6 3
or = =
uA = 2 ms –1 , t = 0 v 10 5
uC = 0 at t = 4 s 11. Let time interval be chosen as 1 s
PA OA vx
æ u + uC ö = =
\ s1 = ç A ÷ t1 PB OB vy
è 2 ø
æ u + uB ö So, P (x, y) divides AB in the ratio of vx : vy .
s2 = ç C ÷ t2
è 2 ø
æ2 + 0ö æ0 + 2ö (0, v y ) B
\ s = s1 + s2 = ç ÷2+ ç ÷2 =4m
è 2 ø è 2 ø
9. Let the man starts crossing the road at an angle q with vy P (x, y)
the roadside. For safe crossing, the condition is that
the man must cross the road by the time truck
describes the distance (4 + 2 cot q), A
4 + 2 cot q 2 sin q O (v y , 0)
So, =
8 v Using section formula,
8 vx ´ 0 + vy ´ vx vx vy
or v= x= =
2 sin q + cos q vx + vy vx + vy
dv
For minimum v, =0 vx vy + vy ´ 0 vx vy
dq y= =
- 8 (2 cos q - sin q) vx + vy vx + vy
or =0
(2 sin q + cos q)2 vx vy
v = x2 + y2 = 2
or 2 cos q - sin q = 0 vx + vy
or tan q = 2 Now, replace vx by v1 and vy by v2.
2 2 v1v2
So, sin q = v=
5 v1 + v2
72 JEE Main Physics
Þ
g F
x = v0 +
+ d 2x -1 2a
\ f = = ×
2 3 dt 2 (2 ax + b)2 (2 ax + b)
Since, vertical component of velocity is zero.
-2 a
15. The maximum distance covered in time T = v0 T . or f = Þ f = - 2 av3
(2 ax + b)3
Therefore, for the object having one dimensional dx
motion, the displacement x in time T satisfies 20. = 4 t3 - 2 t
dt
- v0 T < x < v0T .
or dx = 4t3 dt - 2 t dt
dx é dx ù
16. Given, v = a x or =a x êëQ v = dt úû 4t 4 2t 2
dt Integrating, x= - = t4 - t2
4 2
dx
or = a dt When x = 2,
x
\ t4 - t2 - 2 = 0
On integrating, we get - (-1 ) ± 1 + 8
x dx t t2 =
ò 0 x = ò 0 a dt 1±3
2
2
or t = =2 (Ignoring –ve sign)
[Q at t = 0, x = 0 and let at any time t, particle be at x] 2
x 2
é x1/ 2 ù a dx
Þ 1/ 2 Again, = 12 t 2 - 2
ê ú = a t or x = t dt 2
ë 1 / 2 û0 2
2
When t 2 = 2, acceleration = 12 ´ 2 - 2 = 22 ms –2
a
or x= ´ t 2 or x µ t 2 21. As lift is coming from 8th to 4th floor, the value of x
4
becomes negative, i. e. x < 0. Velocity is downwards
17. According to problem, when s = a , t = p (i. e. negative). So, v < 0. Before reaching 4th floor lift is
1 2 retarded, i. e. acceleration is upwards. Hence, a > 0.
Q s = ut +
ft (here, f = acceleration)
2 22. Position of particle is, x(t ) = at + bt 2 - ct3
fp2
\ a = up + …(i) dx
So, its velocity is, v = = a + 2bt - 3 ct 2
2 dt
For s = b, t = q dv
fq2 and acceleration is, a = = 2b - 6 ct
b = uq + …(ii) dt
2 Acceleration is zero, then 2b - 6 ct = 0
After solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 2b b
2 (aq - bp) Þ t= =
f = 6c 3c
pq ( p - q)
Kinematics I (Motion in 1-D) 73
v
Substituting this t in expression of velocity, we get 1 v-3 + 1
2 or - =t
æ bö æ bö k -3 + 1 v
v = a + 2bç ÷ - 3c ç ÷ 0
è 3 cø è 3 cø
1 é1 1ù
=a+
2b2 b2
- =a+
b2 or ê 2 - 2ú = t
2k ë v v0 û
3c 3c 3c
1 1
or - = 2 kt
23. If t0 is the reaction time, then the distance covered v2 v02
during decelerated motion is 10 - 10 t0. 1 1
or = + 2 kt
Now, in the first case, v2 v02
102 = 2a (10 - 10 t0 ) …(i)
1 1 + 2v02kt
Similarly, in the second case, or =
v2 v02
202 = 2a (30 - 20 t0 ) …(ii)
v0
Again, in the third case, or v=
2
152 = 2a (x - 5 t0 ) …(iii) 2v0kt + 1
Dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (i), we get v v
26. As, 1 = and 3 =
202 30 - 20 t0 t1 t2
=
102 10 - 10 t0 1
\ 1200 = (t1 + t2) v, …(i)
or 40 - 40 t0 = 30 - 20 t0 2
or 20 t0 = 10 1æ vö 1 4 v2 2 v2
1 1200 = ç v + ÷ v = =
or t0 = s 2è 3ø 2 3 3
2
or v2 = 1800
Dividing Eq. (iii) by Eq. (i), we get
From Eq. (i), we get
225 x - 15 t0 1
= \ 1200 = (t1 + t2) ´ 1800
100 10 - 10 t0 2
1 2400 2400
x - 15 ´ (t1 + t2) = s= s = 56.6 s
9 2 1800 42.43
or =
4 10 - 10 ´ 1 dv
2 27. Given, = bt or dv = bt dt
dt
v t
45 = 4x - 30 Þ ò dv = ò bt dt
v0 0
or 4x = 75 bt 2
75 or v - v0 =
or x= m = 18.75 m 2
4 bt 2
or v = v0 +
1 2
24. As, b - a = un + An 2
2 bt 2
or dx = v0dt + dt
\ 2b - 2a = 2 un + An 2 …(i) 2
x t b t 2
t=0 t=n t = 2n ò 0 dx = ò 0 v0dt + 2 ò 0 t dt
a 1 bt3
b or x = v0t +
c
2 3
bt3
1 = v0t +
Again, A (2 n )2
c - a = u (2 n ) + …(ii) 6
2 s
2 2 2 2
Subtracting Eq. (i) from Eq. (ii), we get 28. 40 - 30 = 2 as, and v - 30 = 2a
2
c - a - 2b + 2a = An 2 or 2 (v2 - 302) = 2 as
c-2 b + a Comparing, we get
A=
n2 2 (v2 - 900) = 1600 - 900 = 700
dv or v2 = 900 + 350 = 1250
25. As, = - kv3
dt or v = 35.35 kmh –1
v dv t
29. Given, initial position of particle, r = (2 $i + 4 $j)m,
Þ òv 0 v3
= - kò dt
0
0
1 1 2 1
But l= a 0t 2 gt = ´ 10 ´ 12 = 5 m
h1 =
2 2 2
æ 2l ö æ 2 ´ 2r cos a ö æ 4r cos a ö 1 2 1
\ t= ç ÷ = ç h2 = gt = ´ 10 ´ 22 = 20 m
÷ = ç ÷ 2 2
è a0 ø è a0 ø è a0 ø
From ground, 5 m, 20 m, 15 m (shown in figure)
41. Let the ball be at height h at time t and (t + D t ), then 45. Now, retain only the positive sign.
1 (2 v)2 - v2 = 2 gh ¢
h = ut - gt 2 …(i)
2 or 4 v2 - v2 = 2 gh ¢ or 3 v2 = 2 gh ¢
1
and h = u (t + D t ) - g (t + D t )2 …(ii) or 3 ´ 2 gh = 2 gh ¢ or h ¢ = 3 h
2
1
Equating Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 46. As, h = - vt + gt 2
2
2u- gDt or g t 2 - 2 vt - 2h = 0
t=
2g - (- 2v) ± 4 v2 + 8 gh 2 v ± v2 + 2 gh
Þ t= =
Substituting Eq. (ii) in Eq. (i), we get, 2g 2g
4 u 2 - g 2 (Dt )2 v (v2 + 2 gh )1/ 2 v é 2 gh ù
h= = ± = ê1 ± 1 + 2 ú
8g g g gë v û
Þ u=
1
8 gh + g 2 (D t )2 vé 2 gh ù
= ê1 + 1 + 2 ú [taking +ve sign]
2 gë v û
42. Acceleration of body along AB is g cos q 47. Let u be the velocity with which the stone is projected
1
Distance travelled in time t sec = AB = ( g cos q ) t 2 vertically upwards.
2 Given that, v- h = 2 vh
From D ABC , AB = 2R cos q
(v- h )2 = 4 vh2
1
2 R cos q = g cos q t 2 \ u 2 - 2 g (- h ) = 4 (u 2 - 2 gh )
2 10 gh
2 4R \ u2 =
t = 3
g
u2 5 h
R Now, hmax = =
t =2 2g 3
g
48. As, s¢ µ t 2
2u2
u - 2 1 9
4 = u ×3 Now, s1¢ : s¢2 : s3¢ =
: 1 : or 1 : 4 : 9
43. Here, OA = u/4 C 4 4
2g 2g 4
2
For successive intervals,
u u/3 B
u2 - 2 s1 : s2 : s3 = 1 : (4 - 1 ) : (9 - 4)
OB = 9 = u ×8 u/2 A or s1 : s2 : s3 = 1 : 3 : 5
2g 2g 9 O 1 1
u2 49. As, D x = gt 2 - g (t - 1)2
u - 2
2 2 2
and OC = 16 = u × 15 1 1
2g 2 g 16 = g [t 2 - (t - 1)2] = g (2 t - 1)
2 2
u 2 ì 8 3ü 4 2 5 1
\ AB = OB - OA = í - ý= × = ´ 9.8 ´ 5 m = 24.5 m
2 g î 9 4þ 2 g 36 2
u 2 ì 15 8ü u 2 7 11 h 9.8
BC = OC - OB = 50. Clearly, = (2n - 1)
í - ý= × 36 2
2 g î 16 9þ 2 g 144
11 1 9.8
AB 5 144 20 or ´ ´ 9.8 n 2 = (2 n - 1 )
\ = ´ = 36 2 2
BC 36 7 7
11 2
44. or 2n - 1 = n
v=0 36
or 11 n 2 = 72 n - 36
2
u or 11 n - 72 n + 36 = 0
t=g
20 m or 11 n 2 - 66 n - 6 n + 36 = 0
=2s
15 m or 11 n (n - 6) - 6 (n - 6) = 0 Þ n = 6
(Rejecting fractional value)
Ground 1
h = ´ 10 ´ 6 ´ 6 = 180 m
2
Position of balls
76 JEE Main Physics
67. To get exact position at t = 5 s, we need to calculate (iv) and (vi) are correct, because these relations are
area of the shaded part in the curve as shown below true for both uniform or non-uniform accelerated
motion.
v (m/s)
71. As the trains are moving in the same direction, so the
3 Q R
P S
initial relative speed (v1 - v2) and by applying
2 retardation, final relative speed becomes zero.
1 From v = u - at, we have
0 Þ 0 = (v1 - v2) - at
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 Time (s)
A B C æ v - v2 ö
Þ t=ç 1 ÷
è a ø
\Displacement of particle = Area of OPA + Area of
L
PABSP + Area of QBCRQ 72. Velocity of girl, vg =
t1
æ1 ö
= ç ´ 2 ´ 2÷ + (2 ´ 2) + (3 ´ 1)
è2 ø L
Velocity of escalator, ve =
t2
=2 + 4 + 3=9m
68. Since, the particle starts from rest, this means, initial Effective velocity of girl on escalator = vg + ve
velocity, u = 0. L L
= +
Also, it moves with uniform acceleration along positive t1 t2
X-axis. This means, its acceleration (a ) is constant.
L L L
\Given, a-t graph in (A) is correct. If t is the time taken, then = +
t t1 t2
As we know, for velocity-time graph,
slope = acceleration. t1 t2
or t=
Since, the given v-t graph in (B) represents that its t1 + t2
slope is constant and non-zero.
73. From the figure, the relative displacement is
\Graph in (B) is also correct.
Also, the displacement of such a particle w.r.t. time is
given by
1 1 7.5 ms–1
x = ut + at 2 = 0 + at 2 Þ x µ t 2
2 2
So, x versus t graph would be a parabola with starting 20 ms–1
from origin.
This is correctly represented in displacement-time 100 m
graph given in (D). srel = (200 + 100) m = 300 m
69. Given line have positive intercept but negative slope vrel = v1 - v2 = (20 - 7.5) ms –1 = 12.5 ms –1
so its equation can be written as srel 300
v = -mx + v0 …(i) \ t= = = 24 s
vrel 12.5
é v0 ù
ê where, m = tan q = x ú 74. Relative velocity of bird w.r.t. train = 25 + 5 = 30 m/s
ë 0û
Time taken by the bird to cross the train
By differentiating w.r.t. time, we get 210
dv dx t= =7s
= -m = - mv 30
dt dt 75. Let the required angle is q.
Now substituting the value of v from Eq. (i), we get 20
tan (90° - q) =
dv 15
= -m (-mx + v0 ) = m2x - mv0
dt 20 4
\ cot q = =
\ a = m2x - mv0 15 3
The graph between a and x should have positive slope Þ q = 37°
but negative intercept on a-axis. So, graph (c) is
correct. \Required angle = q + 23° = 37° + 23° = 60°
70. The slope of the given graph over the time interval 76. Let us calculate relative deceleration by considering
t1 to t 2 is not constant and is not uniform. It means relative velocity.
acceleration is not constant and is not uniform, Using, v2 - u 2 = 2 as
therefore relations (i), (ii) and (v) are not correct which
is for uniform accelerated motion, but relations (iii), 02 - 802 = 2 ´ a ´ 2000
Kinematics I (Motion in 1-D) 79
vw 1 a 2t
sin q = = = ( a1 - a 2 ) ( a1 + a2 ) × - a 2t
vb 2 ( a1 - a 2 )
Þ q = 30° or v = ( a1 + a 2 ) × a 2 t - a 2t
Time taken to cross the river, = a1a 2 × t + a 2t - a 2t
D D 2D
t= = = or v = a1 × a 2 t
vb cos q vb cos 30° vb 3
15. Let the body be projected upwards with velocity u from 18. First 50 m fall is under the effect of gravity only. The
top of tower. Taking vertical downward motion of boy velocity acquired, u = 2 gh = 2 ´ 9.8 ´ 50 ms –1.
from top of tower to ground, we have Taking onward motion of parachutist with retardation
u = - u , a = g = 10 ms –2, s = 50 m, t = 10 s 2 ms –2, we have, u = 10 9.8 ms –1.
1 d = - 2 ms –2, v = 3 ms –1
As s = ut + at 2
2 v2 - u 2 (3)2 - (2 ´ 9.8 ´ 50)
1 s= = = 243 m
So, 50 = - u ´ 10 + ´ 10 ´ 102 2a 2 ´ (-2)
2
\ Total height = 50 + 243 = 293 m
On solving, u = 45 ms –1
If t1 and t 2 are the time taken by the ball to reach 19. vA=0
points A and B respectively, then A (h, 0)
+ ve
1
20 = 45 t1 + ´ 10 ´ t12 – ve
2
1 h,0
and 40 = - 45 t2 + ´ 10 ´ t22 C
2
2 h
vC = 0
On solving, we get, t1 = 9.4 s and t2 = 9.8 s
Time taken to cover the distance AB h
vB = √02 – 2(– g)(h/2) 2
= (t2 - t1 ) = 9.8 – 9.4 = 0.4 s
(– √2gh) = √gh (positive)
16. Let u be the initial upward velocity of the ball from
B
top of the tower and h be the height of the tower.
B (0,+ √gh)
Taking the downward motion of the first stone from
vB = √02 + 2gh
A to the ground, we have
1 = √2gh (negative)
h = - ut1 + gt12 …(i)
2 Using third equation of motion, the relation between
Taking the downward motion of the second stone from v and h is given by,
top of the tower to the ground, we have v2 = u 2 + 2 gh = 02 + 2 gh = 2 gh
1 Þ v2 µ h
h = ut2 + gt12 …(ii)
2 It is the equation of a parabola. So, the shape of
Multiplying Eq. (i) t 2 and Eq. (ii) by t1 and adding, we v versus h graph will be parabolic.
get Now, as we have some co-ordinate points from
1 diagram.
h (t1 + t2) = gt1 t2 (t1 + t2)
2 On plotting them and tracing with a parabolic locus,
1 we will get the following graph
So, h = gt1 t2 …(iii) v
2
For falls under gravity from the top of the tower (0, +√gh)
+√gh
1 h,
0
h = gt32 …(iv) 2 (h, 0)
2 h h
h
From Eqs. (iii) and (iv), 2
t32 = t1t2
or t3 = t1 t2 = 9 ´ 4 = 6 s –√2gh
(0, –√2gh)
17. Clearly, v = 2 gh …(i)
Hence, correct option is (c).
After rebounce, v2 = u 2 - 2 gh
Þ u 2 = v2 + 2 gh 20. If vw be the velocity of water and vb be the velocity of
motorboat in still water.
and u 2 = 2 gh ¢ …(ii)
The distance covered by motorboat in moving
v2 2 gh
\ = downstream in 6 h is given by
u 2 2 gh ¢ x = (vb + vw ) ´ 6 …(i)
2
u2 æ 80 ö Same distance covered by motorboat in moving
Þ h' = h ´ 2 = h ´ ç ÷
v è 100 ø upstream in 10 h is
= 0.64 h x = (vb - vw ) ´ 10 …(ii)
84 JEE Main Physics
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have 24. For no collision, the speed of car A should be reduced
(vb + vw ) ´ 6 = (vb - vw ) ´ 10 to vB before the cars meet, i. e. , final relative velocity of
v car A with respect to car B is zero, i. e. vr = 0
Þ vw = b
4 Here, initial relative velocity, ur = vA - vB
\ x = (vb + vw ) ´ 6 = 7.5 vb Relative acceleration, a r = - a - 0 = - a
Time taken by the motorboat to cover the same Let relative displacement = sr
distance in still water is The equation,
x 7.5 vb vr2 = ur2 + 2 a rsr
t= = = 7.5 h
vb vb
(0)2 = (vA - vB )2 - 2 asr
21. Let the speed of trains be v. (vA - vB )2
sr =
Train 1
Wind 2a
u
+ve direction For no collision, sr £ s
v
(vA - vB )2
Train 2 i. e. £s
2a
vt1w = vt1 - vw = v - u
25. Consider the stones thrown up simultaneously as
vt 2 w = vt 2 - vw = (- v) - u = - v - u shown in the diagram below.
Given, | v - u |:| - v - u |= 1 : 2 Considering motion of the second particle with respect
v-u 1 to the first we have relative acceleration
\ = |a 21| = |a 2 - a1| = g - g = 0
v+ u 2
or 2v - 2u = v + u 40 m/s
or v = 3u 10 m/s
22. Let vr be the velocity of river.
240 m
B vr
C
v = 4 kmh –1
vb = 5 kmh –1
Thus, motion of first particle is straight line with
A respect to second particle till the first particle strikes
ground at a time given by
Velocity of boat when crosses river along the shortest 1
path - 240 = 10 t - ´ 10 ´ t 2
2
1 km 1000 18
v= = ´ kmh -1 = 4 kmh -1 or t 2 - 2t - 48 = 0
15 min 15 ´ 60 5
or t 2 - 8t + 6t - 48 = 0
Therefore, speed of river vr = 52 - 42 = 3 kmh -1 or t = 8, - 6 (not possible)
During motion, boat directs itself parallel to AB, Thus, distance covered by second particle with respect
moves along AC due to the resultant velocity. to first particle in 8 s is
s12 = (v21 ) t
23. The initial velocity of the both buses = v0
= (40 - 10) (8 s )
5m
= 30 ´ 8 = 240 m
A v0
Similarly, time taken by second particle to strike the
40 m
ground is given by
B v0
1
5m - 240 = 40t - ´ 10 ´ t 2
2
\ urel = uBA = v0 - v0 = 0 or - 240 = 40t - 5 t 2
1 or 5 t 2 - 40t - 240 = 0
Q srel = urel t + a rel t 2
2 or t 2 - 8t - 48 = 0
1 t 2 - 12t + 4t - 48 = 0
5 + 40 + 5 = 0 + (1 - 0) t 2
2 or t (t - 12) + 4 (t - 12) = 0
\ t 2 = 100 or t = 12, - 4 (not possible)
Þ t = 10 s
Kinematics I (Motion in 1-D) 85
Thus, after 8 s, magnitude of relative velocity will 28. Given, displacement (x) and time (t ) relation,
increase upto 12 s when second particle strikes the
x2 = at 2 + 2bt + c …(i)
ground.
On differentiating Eq. (i) w.r.t.t, we get
So, option (b) is correct.
dx
Þ 2x = 2at + 2b
26. Considering the initial position of ship A dt
as origin, so the velocity and position of ship will be or xv = at + b ...(ii)
v = (30 $i + 50 $j)
A Differentiating again w.r.t. t, we have
and rA = (0 $i + 0 $j) dv dx æ dx dv ö
x× + v× =a çQ = v and = A÷
dt dt è dt dt ø
Now, as given in the question, velocity and
position of ship B will be, Þ xA + v2 = a
Þ xA = a - v2
v = -10 $i
B 2
æ at + b ö
and rB = (80 $i + 150 $j) Þ xA = a - ç ÷
è x ø
Hence, the given situation can be represented é at + b ù
graphically as êë from Eq. (ii), v = x úû
ac - b2
Þ A=
B (80,150) x3
vB=–10 î Þ A µ x- 3
y Thus, n =3
29. The corresponding velocity time graph is
A i + 50^
vA=30^ j
v (ms –1)
x 10
(0,0)
0 t (s)
1 4 5 6
or v = a 0 [- cos t ] 0t or vA at t = 1 s,
= - a 0 [cos t - 1] vA = 8 - 6 ´ 1 = 2 ms -1
v = a 0 (1 - cos t ) Þ vA = + 2 $i ms -1
æ pö Velocity of particle B,
= 2 ç1 - cos ÷
è 3ø d
vB = vy = (5 - 8t3 ) = - 8 ´ 3t 2
æ 1ö dt
= ç2 ´ ÷ = 1 ms –1 At t = 1 s, vB = - 8 ´ 3 ´ 12 = - 24 ms -1
è 2ø
Þ vB = - 24 $j ms -1
32. v p = 10 m/s
Speed of particle B w.r.t. particle A,
vBA = velocity of particle B w.r.t. A
= vB - vA
vp
= - 24$j - (2 i$ )
30°
= - 2$i - 24$j
vr Þ Magnitude of velocity,
Þ 10 sin 30° = vr |vBA| = (2)2 + (24)2
Þ vr = 5 m/s
\ x=5 But given|vBA| = v
33. Let particle A moves along X-axis such that So, v = 242 + 22
x = 10 + 8t - 3t 2 or v = 580 ms -1
04
Kinematics II
(Projectile Motion)
An object which is projected in the air with some velocity and makes a IN THIS CHAPTER ....
random angle with the horizontal surface is known projectile. The path
followed by the projectile (called trajectory) is a parabola and the motion Equation of Trajectory
exhibited by it is called projectile motion. It is a two-dimensional motion. Important Terms in Projectile
Motion
Equation of Trajectory Special Cases of Projectile Motion
Let us consider a projectile launched, so that its initial velocity u makes an Projectile Motion on an Inclined
angle q with the horizontal. In the following diagram, horizontal direction is Plane
taken as X-axis and vertical direction is taken as the Y-axis.
u = u i$ + u $j x y
Þ u = u cos q $i + u sin q $j
Y
H
θ
X
ux =u cos θ
R
It can be seen that the X-axis is parallel to the horizontal, Y-axis is parallel to
the vertical and u lies in the XY-plane. The constant acceleration a is given as
a = a $i + a $j
x y
Speed of the projectile at any time t is v = vx2 + v 2y and direction of X-axis to be along the initial velocity and the positive
direction of Y-axis to be the vertically upward direction. The x and
displacement at time t will be y- components of the motion can be treated independently. The
æ 1 ö equations of motion are
= ut cos q$i + ç ut sin q - gt 2 ÷
è 2 ø x = x0 + uxt
1
The direction of v with the X-axis is given by y = y 0 + uyt + ayt 2
æ vy ö 2
q = tan-1 ç ÷. Here, x0 = y 0 = 0 ,uy = 0 , ay = - g = - 9.8 ms–2, ux = 15 ms-1
è vx ø
The stone hits the ground when, y = -490 m
Coordinates of the projectile after time t is given by 1
Þ x = u cosq t …(i) - 490 = - (9.8) t 2
2
1 2
Þ y = u sinq t - gt …(ii) Þ t = 10 s
2
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), eliminating t, we get The velocity components are, ux = u0x and uy = u0y - gt ,
Sol. (b) Here, u = 4 ms–1, q = 30° So, time of flight in first case,
–2
Acceleration of the ball relative to the lift = 10 + 2 = 12 ms acting 2u sin q1
t1 = …(iii)
in the negative y-direction or vertically downwards. It means, here g
g ¢ = 12 ms–2. and time of flight in second case,
2 u sin q 2 ´ 4 ´ sin 30° 1 2u sin q2 2u sin(90°- q1) 2u cos q1
Time of flight, T = = = s t2 = = = …(iv)
g¢ 12 3 g g g
u 2 sin(90° + 2 q)
Maximum Height (H ) Þ R=
g
Maximum height attained by the projectile is given as,
u 2 cos 2 q
u 2 sin2 q Þ R=
H = g
2g
u 4 cos2 2 q
Þ R2 = …(i)
Example 6. Two stones having different masses m1 and m2 g2
are projected at angles q and (90° – q) with same velocity Maximum heights achieved in two cases are
from the same point. The ratio of their maximum heights is
u 2 sin 2( 45° + q)
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1: tan q (c) tan q : 1 (d) tan 2 q : 1 h1 =
2g
u 2 sin2 q u 2 sin2( 45° - q)
Sol. (d) Maximum height, H1 = ...(i) and h2 =
2g 2g
u 2 sin2(90° - q) u 4 sin2( 45° + q) sin2( 45° - q)
and H2 = ...(ii) So, h1h2 =
2g 4g 2
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get Using 2 sin A × sin B = cos( A - B) - cos( A + B),
H1 sin 2 q
= we have
H2 sin 2 (90° - q) 1
H1 tan 2 q sin( 45° + q) sin( 45° - q) = (cos 2 q - cos 90° )
= 2
H2 1 cos 2 q
Þ sin( 45° + q) sin( 45° - q) = [Q cos 90° = 0 ]
\ H1 : H2 = tan 2 q : 1 2
So, we have
2
Example 7. Two particles are projected from the same æ cos 2 q ö
u4 ç ÷
point with the same speed u such that they have the same è 2 ø u 4 cos2 2 q
h1h2 = 2
Þ h1h2 = …(ii)
range R, but different maximum heights h1 and h2. Which of 4g 16g 2
the following is correct? [JEE Main 2019] From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
(a) R 2 = 4 h1h2 (b) R 2 = 16 h1h2 (c) R 2 = 2 h1h2 (d) R 2 = h1h2 R2
Þ h1h2 = Þ R 2 = 16 h1h2
16
Sol. (b)
h2 Important Points Regarding
Projectile Motion
u ● The equation of trajectory of projectile can be written
h1
u 45°+θ æ xö
45°–θ in the terms of range of projectile as y = x ç1 - ÷ tanq.
è Rø
As maximum range occurs at q = 45° for a given initial
projection speed, we take angles of projection of two
● A projectile has the same range at angles of projection
particles as q and ( 90° - q ), though time of flight, maximum height
45°+θ
and trajectories are different. This is also true for a
45°
45°–θ
range of projectile for q 1 = ( 45° - a ) and q 2 = ( 45° + a )
u 2 cos 2 a
and is equal to .
g
● There are two unique times at which the projectile is at
θ
the same height h ( < H ) and the sum of these two times
θ
1
equals the time of flight T. Since, h = ( u sin q ) t - gt 2
45°
2
is quadratic in time, so it has two unique roots t1 and t2
2 u sinq
(say) such that sum of roots ( t1 + t2 ) is and
q1 = 45° + q, q2 = 45° - q g
where, q is angle of projectiles with 45° line. So, range of 2h
product ( t1t2 ) is . The time lapse ( t1 - t2 ) between
projectiles will be g
u 2 sin 2 ( q1) these two events is (t1 - t2)2 = (t1 + t2)2 - 4 t1t2
R = R1 = R2 =
g
4 u 2 sin2 q 8h
u 2 sin 2( 45° + q) t1 - t2 = -
Þ R= g 2
g
g
Kinematics II (Projectile Motion) 91
From equation of horizontal motion, Example 8. A boy playing on the roof of a 10 m high
x = u cosqt …(i) building throws a ball with a speed of 10 m/s at an angle of
30° with the horizontal. How far from the throwing point will
Equation of vertical motion will be
the ball be at the height of 10 m from the ground?
1 1
- h = u sinqt - gt 2 ...(ii) [g = 10 m/s 2, sin 30° = , cos 30° = 3/2]
2 2
(a) 5.20 m (b) 4.33 m (c) 2.60 m (d) 8.66 m
vb = 0 vx = ux = u cos θ
u
Sol. (d) The ball will be at point P when it is at a height of 10 m
uy = u sin θ
A
O θ B u cos θ a y = –g
from the ground. So, we have to find the distance OP, which can
u cos θ θ be calculated directly by considering it as a projectile on a
u sin θ
levelled plane (OX).
h 10 m/s
O 30° P
X
P D C
gt 2 - 2u sinqt - 2h = 0 …(iii)
10 m
2 2
u sin q u sin q 2h
or t= ± 2
´
g g g
Horizontal distance covered in time T ,
Ground
PC = ( u cos q ) T
2 2
and horizontal distance covered during this time, u sin 2 q 10 ´ sin ( 2 ´ 30° )
OP = R = =
u 2 sin 2 q g 10
OB =
g 10 3
= = 5 3 = 8.66 m
In such case for range PC to become maximum, q 2
should be 45°.
Case III Projection at an Angle q below Horizontal Projectile Motion on an
u x = u cos q , ax = 0 Inclined Plane
u y = - u sin q , a y = - g When a projectile is projected from an inclined plane, we
y consider two axes x and y, i.e. along and perpendicular to
the inclined plane. Different cases of projectile motion on
uy = u sin θ
β
x sin
P A g
R
x'
Maximum range on inclined plane, Components of u along and perpendicular to plane are
u x = u cos q and u y = u sinq
u2
Rmax = We can also resolve acceleration due to gravity into its
g(1 + sin b ) components along and perpendicular to plane as shown below.
Case II Motion down the Plane Let the particle be y
x
thrown with a velocity u at an angle q with the = ax
g sin α
horizontal as shown in the figure. α g cos α = ay
y
g
θ
β
So, we can now apply formula for range, i.e. net horizontal
displacement of the particle as
β 1
sin R = uxT + axT 2 …(i)
g R 2
β
sβ where, T = time of flight.
co
β g Using formula for time of flight, we have
2uy 2u sin q
Time of flight (T ) and Range ( R ) on inclined T= = …(ii)
ay g cos a
plane is given as,
2 u sin(q + b ) From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have
Þ T =
g cos b Range up the inclined plane is
u 2 é sin( 2q + b ) + sin b ù
2
1 æ 2u sin q ö 1 æ 2u sin q ö
R= ê ú R = uxT + axT 2 = u cos q ç ÷ - g sin a ç ÷
g ë 1 - sin2 b û 2 è g cos a ø 2 è g cos a ø
Since, q is variable and the maximum value of sine Here, u = 2 ms-1, g = 10 ms-2, q = 15°, a = 30°
function is 1.
2u sin q 2 ´ 2 sin 15°
For R to be maximum, sin( 2q + b ) = 1 So, T= =
g cos a 10 ´ cos 30°
u 2 æ 1 + sin b ö 2 ´ 2 ´ 0.258 ´ 2
and Rmax = ç ÷ = = 0.1191
g è 1- sin2 b ø 10 ´ 1.732
u2 1
= down the plane Now, R = 2 ´ cos15° ´ 0.1191 - ´ 10 sin 30° (0.1191) 2
g (1- sin b ) 2
5
= 2 ´ 0.965 ´ 0.1191 - (0.1191) 2
Example 9. A plane is inclined at an angle a = 30º with 2
respect to the horizontal. A particle is projected with a speed = 0.229 - 0.0354 = 0.1936 m
u = 2 ms-1, from the base of the plane, making an angle » 0.20 m = 20 cm
q = 15º with respect to the plane as shown in the following
figure. The distance from the base, at which the particle hits Example 10. A cannon fired from under a shelter inclined
the plane is close to [Take, g = 10 ms-2] at an angle a to the horizontal. The cannon is at point A at
distant R from the base (B) of the shelter. The initial velocity of
the cannon is v0 and its trajectory lies in the plane. The
maximum range Rmax of the shell is
° v 02
15 (a) sin 2a
u θ= g
α=30°
g
(b) 2 sin 2 ( f - a)
(a) 26 cm (b) 20 cm v0
(c) 18 cm (d) 14 cm
v 02 æ gR sin 2a ö
(c) sin 2 ç a + sin -1 ÷
Sol. (b) When a projectile is projected at an angle q with an g è v0 ø
inclined plane making angle a with the horizontal, then
v 02 æ R sin 2a ö
u sin θ = uy θ= ux (d) sin 2 ç a + sin -1 ÷
y u cos x 2g è g ø
θ
Sol. (c) For h ¢ to be maximum,
θ v 02 sin2 ( f - a)
α h ¢ = R sin a =
2 g cos a
94 JEE Main Physics
v 02 sin 2f
Example 12. Two bodies are projected from the same
Range, Rmax = point with equal speeds in such directions that they both
g
strike the same point on a plane whose inclination is a. If q be
v 02 æ gR sin 2a ö the angle of projection of the first body with the horizontal,
= sin 2 ç a + sin -1 ÷
g è v0 ø then the ratio of their time of flight is
cos ( q - a) sin ( q - a)
(a) (b)
Example 11. A particle is projected horizontally with a cos b cos q
speed u from the top of a plane inclined at an angle q with the sin ( q - a) cos ( q - a)
(c) (d)
horizontal. How far from the point of projection will the sin b sin q
particle strike the plane?
u2
2 u2 2u Sol. (b) Range, R = [sin (2q - a) - sin a ]
(a) tan q sec q (b) tan 2 q sec q g cos2 q
g g
2 u2 2u
(c) tan q cos q (d) tan q cos2 q
g g u
Sol. (a) Take X and Y-axes as shown in figure below. Suppose that u
the particle strikes the plane at a point P with coordinates ( x, y).
Consider the motion between A and P.
u θ
A X α
Equation of Trajectory the point Q vertically below the highest point. For B
v
to collide with A, 2 should be
1. The height y and distance x along the horizontal for v1
a body projected in the xy-plane are given by Highest
y = 8 t - 5 t2 and x = 6 t. The initial speed of point
projection is
(a) 8 m/s (b) 9 m/s
v1 B v2
(c) 10 m/s (d) (10/3) m/s
A 30º
2. A particle moves in the xy-plane with velocity
vx = 8 t - 2 and v y = 2. If it passes through the point P Q
x = 14 and y = 4 at t = 2 s, find the equation
(a) 1 (b) 2
(x-y relation) of the path.
1
(a) x = y2 - y + 2 (c) (d) 4
(b) x = 2 y2 + 2 y - 3 2
(c) x = 3 y2 + 5 5. A projectile is fired with a velocity v at an angle q
(d) Cannot be found from above data with the horizontal. The speed of the projectile
3. A particle slides down a frictionless parabolic when its direction of motion makes an angle b with
( y = x2 ) track ( A - B - C) starting from rest at point the horizontal is
(a) v cos q (b) v cos q cos b
A. Point B is at the vertex of parabola and point C
(c) v cos q sec b (d) v cos q tan b
is at a height less than that of point A. After C, the
particle moves freely in air as a projectile. If the 6. A ball is projected with velocity u at an angle a with
particle reaches highest point at P, then horizontal plane. Its speed when it makes an angle
[NCERT Exemplar] b with the horizontal is
A y u
(a) u cos a (b)
cos b
u cos a
P (c) u cos a cos b (d)
cos b
7. A projectile is thrown with a velocity of 10 m/s at
an angle 60° with horizontal. The interval between
v0 the moment when speed is 5g m/s, is ( g = 10 m/s2 )
θ
C
(a) 1 s (b) 3 s
(c) 2 s (d) 4 s
–x2 –x1 B –x0 x
(x = 0)
8. A body of mass m is thrown upward at an angle q
with the horizontal with velocity v. While rising up,
(a) KE at P = KE at B the velocity of the mass after t second will be
(b) height at P = height at A (a) (v cos q)2 + (v sin q)2
(c) total energy at P = total energy at A
(d) time of travel from A to B = time of travel from B to P. (b) (v cos q - v sin q)2 - gt
9. The equation of motion of a projectile are given by 16. An arrow is shot into air. Its range is 200 m and its
x = 36 t and 2 y = 96 t - 9.8 t2 m. The angle of time of flight is 5 s. If g = 10 m / s2 , then horizontal
projectile will be component of velocity and the maximum height will
æ4ö æ3ö be respectively
(a) sin -1 ç ÷ (b) sin -1 ç ÷
è5ø è5ø (a) 20 m/s, 62.50 m (b) 40 m/s, 31.25 m
æ4ö æ3ö (c) 80 m/s, 62.5 m (d) None of these
(c) sin -1 ç ÷ (d) sin -1 ç ÷
è3ø è4ø
17. A ball is thrown up with a certain velocity at an
10. The trajectory of a projectile near the surface of the angle q to the horizontal. The kinetic energy (KE) of
2
earth is given as y = 2x - 9 x . If it were launched at the ball varies in the horizontal displacement x as
an angle q 0 with speed v0 , then (Take, g = 10 ms -2 )
[JEE Main 2019]
-1 æ
1 ö 5 -1
(a) q0 = sin ç ÷ and v0 = ms KE KE
è 5ø 3 (b)
(a)
æ 2 ö 3
(b) q0 = cos -1 ç ÷ and v0 = ms
-1
è 5ø 5 O O
x x
æ 1 ö 5
(c) q0 = cos -1 ç ÷ and v0 = ms
-1
è 5ø 3
æ 2 ö 3
(d) q0 = sin -1 ç ÷ and v0 = ms
-1 KE KE
è 5ø 5 (c) (d)
22. A projectile shot into air at some angle with the 30. Two projectiles A and B are thrown with velocities v
horizontal has a range of 200 m. If the time of flight v
and , respectively. They have the same range. If
is 5 s, then the horizontal component of the velocity 2
of the projectile at the highest point of trajectory is projectile B is thrown at an angle of 15° to the
(a) 40 ms -1 horizontal, then projectile A must have been
(b) 0 ms -1 thrown at an angle
9.8 ms -1 æ1ö æ1ö
(c) (a) sin -1 ç ÷ (b) sin -1 ç ÷
(d) equal to the velocity of projection of the projectile è 16 ø è4ø
æ1ö 1 æ1ö
23. The kinetic energy of a projectile at the highest, (c) 2 sin -1 ç ÷ (d) sin -1 ç ÷
è4ø 2 è8ø
point is half of the initial kinetic energy. What is
the angle of projection with the horizontal? 31. The velocity of projection of an oblique projectile is
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90° (6$i + 8 $j) ms -1. The horizontal range of the projectile is
24. A ball is projected from a certain point on the (a) 4.9 m (b) 9.6 m (c) 19.6 m (d) 14 m
surface of a planet at a certain angle with the 32. A projectile is thrown with velocity v making an
horizontal surface. The horizontal and vertical angle q with the horizontal. It just crosses the tops
displacement x and y vary with time t in second as of two poles, each of height h, after 1 s and 3 s
x = 10 3 t and y = 10 t - t2 . The maximum height respectively. The time of flight of the projectile is
attained by the ball is (a) 1 s (b) 3 s (c) 4 s (d) 7.8 s
(a) 100 m (b) 75 m (c) 50 m (d) 25 m
33. Two particles are simultaneously projected in
25. For a projectile thrown into space with a speed v, opposite directions horizontally from a given point
2
3v
the horizontal range is × The vertical range is in space whose gravity g is uniform. If u1 and u2 be
2g their initial speeds, then the time t after which
v2 their velocites are mutually perpendicular is given
. The angle which the projectile makes with the
8g by
horizontal initially is u1u2 u12 + u22
(a) (b)
(a) 15° (b) 30° g g
(c) 45° (d) 60° u1 (u1 + u2) u2 (u1 + u2)
(c) (d)
26. A projectile of mass m is thrown with a velocity v g g
making an angle of 45° with the horizontal. The
change in momentum from departure to arrival 34. A cricketer can throw a ball to a maximum
along vertical direction, is horizontal distance of 100 m. How much high above
(a) 2mv (b) 2 mv the ground can the cricketer throw the same ball?
[NCERT Exemplar]
mv
(c) mv (d) (a) 40 m (b) 45 m (c) 500 m (d) 50 m
2
27. A body is projected at an angle q to the horizontal 35. A piece of marble is projected from Earth’s surface
with velocity of 50 ms -1. 2 s later, it just clears a
with kinetic energy E k. The potential energy at
wall 5 m high. What is the angle of projection?
the highest point of the trajectory is
(a) 45° (b) 30°
(a) E k (b) E k cos 2 q
(c) 60° (d) None of these
(c) E k sin 2 q (d) E k tan 2 q
28. The horizontal range of an oblique projectile is 36. The ceiling of a long hall is 25 m high. Then, the
maximum horizontal distance that a ball thrown
equal to the distance through which a projectile has
with a speed of 40 m/s can go without hitting the
to fall freely from rest to acquire a velocity equal to
ceiling of the hall, is [NCERT Exemplar]
the velocity of projection in magnitude. The angle
of projection is (a) 95.5 m (b) 105.5 m
(a) 15° (b) 60° (c) 45° (d) 30° (c) 100 m (d) 150.5 m
29. A projectile is fired at an angle of 30° to the 37. A particle leaves the origin with an initial velocity
horizontal such that the vertical component of its v = (3.00 $i) ms -1 and a constant acceleration
initial velocity is 80 ms-1. Its time of flight is T. Its . $i - 0.50 $j) ms -2 . When the particle
a = ( - 100
T reaches its maximum x-coordinate, what is its
velocity at t = has a magnitude of nearly
4 y-component of velocity?
(a) 200 ms -1 (b) 300 ms -1 (a) –2.0 ms -1 (b) –1.0 ms -1
(c) 140 ms -1 (d) 100 ms -1 (c) –1.5 ms -1 (d) 1.0 ms -1
JEE NEET ADDA
This Pdf Is
Download From
www.jeeneetadda.in
VISIT NOW !!
98 JEE Main Physics
38. Two stones are projected so as to reach the same 44. Trajectories of two projectiles are shown in figure.
distance from the point of projection on a horizontal Let T1 and T2 be the time periods and u1 and u2
surface. The maximum height reached by one their speeds of projection, then
exceeds the other by an amount equal to half the y
sum of the height attained by them, then angle of
projection of the stone which attains smaller height
is
(a) 45° (b) 60°
2
(c) 30° (d) tan -1 (3 /4) 1
x
39. The angle of projection of a projectile for which the
horizontal range and maximum height are equal to (a) T2 > T1 (b) T1 = T2
(a) tan -1 (2) (b) tan -1 (4)
(c) u1 > u2 (d) u1 < u2
(c) cot-1 (2) (d) 60°
40. A particle is projected with velocity 2 gh, so that it Special Cases of Projectile Motion
just clears two walls of equal height h, which are at 45. A body of mass m thrown horizontally with velocity
a distance of 2h from each other. What is the time v, from the top of tower of height h touches the level
interval of passing between the two walls? ground at distance of 250 m from the foot of the
2h gh h h tower. A body of mass 2 m thrown horizontally with
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2 v
g g g g velocity , from the top of tower of height 4h will
2
41. A particle is projected from the ground with an touch the level ground at a distance x from the foot
initial speed of v at an angle q with horizontal. The of the tower. The value of x is
average velocity of the particle between its point of (a) 250 m (b) 500 m
projection and highest point of trajectory is (c) 125 m (d) 250 2 m
v v 46. A man standing on a hill top projects a stone
(a) 1 + 2 cos 2 q (b) 1 + cos 2 q
2 2 horizontally with speed v0 as shown in figure.
v
(c) 1 + 3 cos 2 q (d) v cos q Taking the coordinate system as given in the
2 figure. The coordinates of the point where the stone
42. The maximum range of a bullet fired from a toy will hit the hill surface
pistol mounted on a car at rest is R0 = 40 m. What y
v0
will be the acute angle of inclination of the pistol x
for maximum range when the car is moving in the (0, 0)
direction of firing with uniform velocity v = 20 m/s,
on a horizontal surface? ( g = 10 m/s2 ) [JEE Main 2013]
(a) 30° (b) 60°
(c) 75° (d) 45° θ
plane and fire shots at an angle q = 60° with the 51. An aircraft, diving at an angle of 53.0° with the
horizontal and with velocity u = 600 ms -1. At what vertical releases a projectile at an altitude of
altitude H of the plane, it can be hit by the shot? 730 m. The projectile hits the ground 5.00 s after
being released. What is the speed of the aircraft?
(a) 282 ms -1
600 ms–1 (b) 202 ms -1
H (c) 182 ms -1
(d) 102 ms -1
θ=60
52. A bomber plane moves horizontally with a speed of
(a) 1500 3 m (b) 125 m 500 ms -1 and a bomb releases from it, strikes the
(c) 1400 m (d) 2473 m ground in 10 s. Angle at which it strikes the ground
will be ( g = 10 ms -2 )
48. A particle A is projected from the ground with an
æ1ö
initial velocity of 10 ms-1 at an angle of 60° with (a) tan -1 ç ÷
è5ø
horizontal. From what height h should an another
particle B be projected horizontally with velocity æ1ö
(b) tan ç ÷
5 ms-1, so that both the particles collide with è5ø
velocity 5 ms-1 on the ground at point C, if both are (c) tan -1 (1)
projected simultaneously? ( g = 10 ms-2 ) (d) tan -1 (5)
B
5 ms –1 53. A plane surface is inclined making an angle q with
the horizontal. From the bottom of this inclined
10 ms –1
plane, a bullet is fired with velocity v. The
h
maximum possible range of the bullet on the
inclined plane is
60°
C v2 v2
A (a) (b)
g g (1 + sin q)
(a) 10 m (b) 30 m
v2 v2
(c) 15 m (d) 25 m (c) (d)
g (1 - sin q) g (1 + sin q)2
49. A particle is projected with speed v at an angle
p
q æç0 < q < ö÷ above the horizontal from a height H
54. An aeroplane is flying in a horizontal direction with
è 2ø a velocity 600 kmh -1 at a height of 1960 m. When
above the ground. If v = speed with which particle it is vertically above the point A on the ground, a
hits the ground and t = time taken by particle to body is dropped from it. The body strikes the
reach ground, then ground at point B. Calculate the distance AB.
(a) as q increases, v decreases and t increases O
(b) as q increases, v increases and t increases v
(c) as q increases, v remains same and t increases
(d) as q increases, v remains same and t decreases h
50. A projectile A is thrown at an angle 30° to the
horizontal from point P. At the same time, another
projectile B is thrown with velocity v2 upwards from A B
the point Q vertically below the highest point A. If
(a) 3.33 km (b) 333 km
projectile B collides with projectile A, then the
v (c) 33.3 km (d) 3330 km
ratio 2 should be
v1 55. A ball is projected up an incline of 30° with a
velocity of 30 ms -1 at an angle of 30° with reference
v1
v2 to the inclined plane from the bottom of the
inclined plane. If g = 10 ms -2 , then the range on the
30°
P Q inclined plane is
3 1 2 (a) 12 m (b) 60 m
(a) (b) 2 (c) (d) (c) 120 m (d) 600 m
2 2 3
ROUND II Mixed Bag
Only One Correct Option 7. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity v
1. A ball projected from ground at an angle of 45° just making an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The
clears a wall in front. If point of projection is 4 m magnitude of angular momentum of the projectile
from the foot of wall and ball strikes the ground at about the point of projection when the particle is at
a distance of 6 m on the other side of the wall, the its maximum height h is [AIEEE 2011]
height of the wall is [JEE Main 2013] 3 mv2
(a) (b) zero
(a) 4.4 m (b) 2.4 m 2 g
(c) 3.6 m (d) 1.6 m mv3 3 mv3
(c) (d)
2g 16 g
2. A shell is fired from a cannon with a velocity v at
angle q with horizontal. At the highest point, it 8. If a stone is to hit at a point which is at a distance d
explodes into two pieces of equal mass. One of the away and at a height h above the point from where
pieces retraces its path to the cannon. The speed of the stone starts, then what is the value of initial
the other piece just after explosion is speed u, if the stone is launched at an angle q?
(a) 3v cos q (b) 2v cos q u
3 3
(c) v cos q (d) v cos q
2 2
h
3. Figure shows four paths for a kicked football
ignoring the effects of air on the flight. Rank the θ
paths according to the initial horizontal velocity d
component highest first.
g d d g
(a) (b)
cos q 2 (d tan q - h ) cos q 2 (d tan q - h )
gd 2 gd 2
(c) (d)
h cos 2 q (d - h )
1 2 3 4
9. Two projectiles A and B are projected with same
speed at angles 15° and 75° respectively to the
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1
maximum height and have same horizontal range.
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1
If h be the maximum height and T total time of
4. Two second after projection, a projectile is flight of a projectile, then
travelling in a direction inclined at 30° to the (a) hA > hB (b) hA = hB
horizontal. After 1 more second, it is travelling
(c) TA < TB (d) TA > TB
horizontally (use g = 10 ms -2 ). The initial velocity of
its projection is 10. A projectile has the same range R for two angles of
(a) 10 ms -1 (b) 10 3 ms -1 projections. If T1 and T2 be the times of flight in the
(c) 20 ms -1 (d) 20 3 ms -1 two cases, then (using q as the angle of projection
corresponding to T1)
5. A projectile is given an initial velocity of (a) T1 T2 µ R (b) T1 T2 µ R 2
( $i + 2$j ) m/s, where $i is along the ground and $j is
along the vertical. If g = 10 m / s2 , the equation of (c) T1 /T2 = cot q (d) T1 /T2 = 1
its trajectory is [JEE Main 2013] 11. Two particles are projected in air with speed v0 at
(a) y = x - 5x2 (b) y = 2x - 5x2 angles q 1 and q 2 (both acute) to the horizontal,
(c) 4 y = 2x - 5x2 (d) 4 y = 2x - 25x2 respectively. If the height reached by the first
particle is greater than that of the second, then tick
6. A boy can throw a stone upto a maximum height of the right choices. [NCERT Exemplar]
10 m. The maximum horizontal distance that the (a) Angle of projection : q 1 < q 2
boy can throw the same stone upto will be (b) Time of flight : T1 > T2
[AIEEE 2012]
(a) 20 2 m (b) 10 m (c) Horizontal range : R1 > R2
(c) 10 2 (d) 20 m (d) Total energy : U 1 > U 2
Kinematics II (Projectile Motion) 101
12. The trajectory of a projectile in vertical plane is 18. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity v at
y = ax - bx2 , where a and b are constants and x and an angle of 60° with horizontal. When the particle
y are respectively horizontal and vertical distances is at its maximum height, the magnitude of its
of the projectile from the point of projection. The angular momentum about the point of projection is
maximum height attained by the particle and the 3 mv3
(a) zero (b)
angle of projection from the horizontal are 16 g
b2 a2
(a) , tan -1 (b) (b) , tan -1 (2b) 3 mv2 3 mv2
4b b (c) (d)
16 g 3g
a2 2a 2
(c) , tan -1 (a ) (d) , tan -1 (a )
4b b 19. A stone is projected with a velocity 20 2 ms-1 at an
13. The speed of projection of a projectile is increased angle of 45° to the horizontal. The average velocity
by 10%, without changing the angle of projection. of stone during its motion from starting point to its
The percentage increase in the range will be maximum height is (Take, g = 10 ms-2 )
(a) 10% (b) 20% (a) 5 5 ms -1 (b) 10 5 ms -1
(c) 15% (d) 5% (c) 20 ms -1 (d) 20 5 ms -1
14. A body of mass 1 kg is projected with velocity 20. Average torque on a projectile of mass m, initial
50 m/s at an angle of 30° with the horizontal. At the speed u and angle of projection q, between initial
highest point of its path, a force 10 N starts acting and final position P and Q as shown in figure about
on body for 5 s vertically upward besides the point of projection is
gravitational force, what is horizontal range of the
Y
body? (Take, g = 10 m / s2 )
(a) 125 3 m (b) 200 3 m u
(c) 500 m (d) 250 3 m
15. A particle is projected with a velocity 200 ms -1 at θ
an angle of 60°. At the highest point, it explodes X
P Q
into three particles of equal masses. One goes
(a) mu 2 sin q (b) mu 2 cos q
vertically upwards with a velocity 100 ms -1, the
second particle goes vertically downwards. What is 1 1
(c) mu 2 sin 2 q (d) mu 2 cos 2 q
the velocity of third particle? 2 2
(a) 120 ms -1 making 60° angle with horizontal
21. After one second, the velocity of a projectile makes
(b) 200 ms -1 making 30° angle with horizontal an angle of 45° with the horizontal. After another
(c) 300 ms -1 one second, it is travelling horizontally. The
(d) 200 ms -1 magnitude of its initial velocity and angle of
projection are ( g = 10 ms -2 )
16. Two stones are projected with the same velocity in
magnitude but making different angles with the (a) 14.62 ms –1 , tan -1 (2) (b) 22.36 ms –1 , tan -1 (2)
horizontal. Their ranges are equal. If the angle of (c) 14.62 ms –1 , 60° (d) 22.36 ms –1 , 60°
p
projection of one is and its maximum height is y1,
3 22. A body is projected up over a smooth inclined plane
the maximum height of the other will be with a velocity v0 from the point A as shown in the
(a) 3 y1 (b) 2 y1 figure. The angle of inclination is 45° and top B of
the plane is connected to a well of diameter 40 m. If
y y
(c) 1 (d) 1 the body just manages to cross the well, what is the
2 3
value of v0 ? Length of the inclined plane is 20 2 m,
17. A car is travelling at a velocity of 10 kmh -1 on a and g = 10 ms -2 .
straight road. The driver of the car throws a parcel B C
with a velocity of 10 2 kmh -1 when the car is
45°
passing by a man standing on the side of the road.
If the parcel is to reach the man, the direction of
A
throw makes the following angle with direction of
the car
(a) 135° (b) 45° 40 m
-1 æ 1 ö (a) 20 ms -1
(b) 20 2 ms -1
(c) tan ( 2) 60° (d) tan ç ÷
è 2ø (c) 40 ms -1 (d) 40 2 ms -1
102 JEE Main Physics
23. A projectile is launched with a speed of 10 m/s at 27. A ball thrown by one player reaches the other in 2s.
an angle 60° with the horizontal from a sloping The maximum value of height (in m) attained by
surface of inclination 30°. The range R is. the ball above the point of projection will be
(Take, g = 10 m / s2 ) ( Take, g = 10 ms -2 ) …… .
10 m/s
28. Two stones are projected with the same velocity but
60° making different angles with the horizontal. Their
ranges are equal. If angle of projection of one is 30°
R and its maximum height is y, then the maximum
30° height of other will be ny, where value of n will be
…… .
(a) 4.9 m (b) 13.3 m (c) 9.1 m (d) 12.6 m
29. When the angle of projection is 75°, a ball falls 10
24. A tennis ball (treated as hollow spherical shell) m shorter of the target. When the angle of
starting from O rolls down a hill. At point A, the projection is 45°, it falls 10 m ahead of the target.
ball becomes air borne leaving at an angle of 30°
Both are projected from the same point with the
with the horizontal. The ball strikes the ground at
same speed in the same direction, the distance of
B. What is the value of the distance AB?
the target (in m) from the point of projection is
(Moment of inertia of a spherical shell of mass m ……… .
2
and radius R about its diameter = mR2 )
3 30. A marble starts falling from rest on a smooth
[JEE Main 2013]
O inclined plane of inclination a. After covering a
distance h, the ball rebounds off the plane. The
distance from the impact point where the ball
2.0m rebounds for the second time nh sin a. Here, the
30º value of n is …… .
0.2m A B
h
(a) 1.87 m (b) 2.08 m (c) 1.57 m (d) 1.77 m
25. A projectile is fired with a velocity v at right angle
α
to the slope which is inclined at an angle q with the
horizontal. What is the range covered by the
projectile? 31. The projectile motion of a particle of mass 5g is
2v2
v2 shown in the figure.
(a) tan q (b) tan q
g g
Round II
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. 571.43 27. 5 28. 3 29. 30 30. 8
31. 5
Solutions
Round I 4. Equating velocities along the vertical,
dy dx v2 = v1 sin 30°
1. vy = = 8 - 10 t , vx = =6
dt dt v2 1
or =
At t = 0, vy = 8 m /s and vx = 6 m/s v1 2
\ v = vx2 + vy2 = 10 m/s 5. As, v¢ cos b = v cos q
(Qhorizontal component of velocities are always equal.)
2. vx = 8t - 2 or v¢ = v cos q sec b
dx
or = 8t - 2 6. As, v cos b = u cos a
dt
x t (Qhorizontal component of velocities are always equal.)
or ò14 dx = ò2 (8t - 2)dt u cos a
\ v=
or x - 14 = [4t 2 - 2t ]t2 = 4t 2 - 2t - 12 cos b
or x = 4t 2 - 2t + 2 …(i) 7. v2 = vy2 + vx2
Further, vy = 2
dy or 5 g = (uy - gt )2 + ux2
or =2
dt or 50 = (5 3 - 10 t )2 + (5)2
y t
\ ò4 dy = ò2 2 dt \ (5 3 - 10 t ) = ± 5
or y-4 = [2t ]t2 = 2t - 4 5 3 -5
t1 =
10
or y = 2t
y 5 3 +5
or t= …(ii) and t2 =
2 10
Substituting the value of t from Eq. (ii) in Eq. (i), we \ t2 - t1 = 1 s
have 8. Instantaneous velocity of rising mass after t s will be
x = y2 - y + 2
vt = vx2 + vy2
3. Since y = x2 , the motion is in two dimensions. Velocity
where, vx = v cos q = Horizontal component of velocity
at B is greater than at P. In the given motion of a
particle, the law of conservation of energy is obeyed. vy = v sin q - gt = Vertical component of velocity
Therefore, total energy at P = total energy at A. As vt = (v cos q)2 + (v sin q - gt )2
vertical distance AB > BP , time of travel from A to B is
greater than that from B to P. v = v2 + g 2 t 2 - (2v sin q) gt
104 JEE Main Physics
9. x = 36 t 12. At 45°, vx = vy
dx or ux = uy - gt
\ vx = = 36
dt uy - ux 40(sin 60° - sin 30° )
\ t= = = 1.5 s
y = 48 t - 4.9 t 2 g 9.8
dy
\ vy = = 48 - 9.8 t 13. Let v be the velocity of particle when it makes 30° with
dt horizontal, then
At t = 0, vx = 36 m/s y v
and vy = 48 m/s
æ vy ö
So, angle of projection, q = tan -1 ç ÷ 30°
è vx ø v cos 30°
30
æ 48 ö x
°
= tan - 1 ç ÷ g g cos 30°
è 36 ø
æ4ö v cos 30° = u cos 60°
= tan -1 ç ÷ æ1ö
è3ø (20)ç ÷
u cos 60° è 2 ø 20
æ4ö or v= = = ms -1
or q = sin -1 ç ÷ cos 30° æ 3ö 3
è5ø ç ÷
è 2 ø
10. Given, g = 10 m/s 2
v2
Equation of trajectory of the projectile, Now, g cos 30° =
R
y = 2x - 9x2 …(i) 2
æ 20 ö
In projectile motion, equation of trajectory is given by ç ÷
v 2
è 3ø
g x2 or R= = = 15.4 m
y = x tan q0 - 2 …(ii) g cos 30° 3
2v0 cos 2 q0 (10)
2
By comparison of Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
2h 2 ´ 490
tan q0 = 2 …(iii) 14. t = = = 100 = 10 s
g 9.8
g g
and = 9 or v02 = …(iv) æ 5ö -1 500
2v02 cos 2 q0 9 ´ 2 cos 2 q0 x = vt = ç60 ´ ÷ ms ´ 10 s = m
è 18 ø 3
From Eq. (iii), we can get value of cosq and sin q
1 2 u 2 sin 2 q 2u sin q
cos q0 = and sin q0 = …(v) 15. H = and T =
5 5 2g g
2
4 u sin 2 q
Þ T2 =
g2
√5 2
2 T 8
\ =
H g
θ0
1 8H 2H
Þ T= =2
g g
Using value of cos q0 from Eq. (v) to Eq. (iv), we get
10 ´ ( 5 )2 10 ´ 5 2 uy
v02 = = 16. T =
2 ´ (1)2 ´ 9 2 ´ 9 g
25 5 gT
Þ v02 = or v0 = m/s …(vi) \ uy = = 25 m/s
9 3 2
From Eq. (v), we get uy2 (25)2
Now, H = = = 31.25 m
æ 1 ö 2g 20
q0 = cos -1 ç ÷
è 5ø
Further, R = uxT
u 2 sin 2 ´ 15° R
11. Here, 50 = \ ux = = 40 m /s
g T
2
u 50 50
or = = = 100 17. As x increases, kinetic energy initially decreases till
g sin 30° 1/2
the highest point of projectile, because vertical
u 2 sin 2 ´ 45° u 2 component of velocity is decreasing (horizontal
R= = = 100 m
g g velocity remains same).
Kinematics II (Projectile Motion) 105
3 33. Since, v1 ^ v2
\ux = u cos 30° = 160 ´ = 80 3 ms -1
2
\ v1 × v2 = 0
2uy 2 ´ 80
T= = = 16 s or (u1$i - gt$j ) × (- u2$i - gt$j ) = 0
g 10
\ g 2 t 2 = u1 u2
T
At t = = 4 s, vx = 80 3 ms -1 u1 u2
4 or t=
vy = 80 - 10 ´ 4 = 40 ms -1 g
\ v = (80 3 )2 + (40)2 = 144.2 ms -1 34. Horizontal range of a projectile is given by
u 2 sin 2q
» 140 ms -1 R=
g
v2 sin 2q
30. As, R = If q = 45°, then R is maximum and is equal to
g
u2
In the given problem, v2 sin 2q = constant Rmax =
g
2
æ vö v2 é v ù Given, Rmax = 100 m
v2 sin 2q = ç ÷ sin 30° = êëQ v = 2 and q = 15° úû
è2ø 8 u2
\ 100 = …(i)
1 æ1ö g
or sin 2q = or 2q = sin -1 ç ÷
8 è8ø
When cricketer throws the ball vertically upward, then
1 æ1ö ball goes upto height H.
or q = sin -1 ç ÷
2 è8ø Using equation of motion,
31. Here, v = 6$i + 8$j ms -1 v2 = u 2 + 2as
(0)2 = u 2 + 2(- g )H
u2 1 æ u2 ö
or H = = ç ÷
10 8
2g 2 è g ø
1
= ´ 100 [using Eq. (i)]
2
θ
= 50 m
6
Comparing with v = vx $i + vy $j, we get 35. Horizontal component = u cos q
Vertical component = u sin q
vx = 6 ms -1 g = - 10 ms -2, u = 50 ms -1 , h = 5 m, t = 2 s
-1
and vy = 8 ms 1
h = uy t + gt 2
Also, v2 = vx2 + vy2 2
= 36 + 64 = 100
or v = 10 ms -1 θ
8 6 1
sin q = and cos q = \ 5 = 50 sin q - ´ 10 ´ 4
10 10 2
v2 sin 2q 2v2 sin q cos q or 5 = 50 sin q - 20
R= =
g g 25 1
or sin q = =
8 6 1 50 2
R = 2 ´ 10 ´ 10 ´ ´ ´ m = 9.6 m
10 10 10 \ q = 30°
1
32. h = v sin qt - gt 2 36. Given, initial velocity (u ) = 40 m/s
2
1 2 Height of the hall (H ) = 25 m
or gt - v sin qt + h = 0
2 Let the angle of projection of the ball be q, when
- v sin q maximum height attained by it is 25 m.
t1 + t2 = -
1 Maximum height attained by the ball,
g
2 u 2 sin 2 q
2v sin q H =
or t1 + t2 = =T 2g
g
(40)2 sin 2 q
25 =
T = (1 + 3) s = 4 s 2 ´ 9.8
Kinematics II (Projectile Motion) 107
When the car is moving : We will take ground as a 46. Range of the projectile on an inclined plane (down the
frome of reference, plane) is,
In ground frame; Range u2
2ux uy R= [sin(2a + b ) + sin b ]
R= g cos 2 b
g
Here, u = v0 , a = 0 and b = q
2 (20 + u cos q) u sin q
Þ R= 2v2 sin q
g \ R= 0 2
dR g cos q
Range R will be maximum, if =0 v2
dq
2[20u cos q + u 2(cos 2 q - sin 2 q)] θ
Þ =0
g
R
Þ 20 cos q + u (cos 2 q - sin 2 q) = 0
Þ 20 cos q + (2 cos 2 q - 1)u = 0
Þ 20 cos q + 40 cos 2 q - 20 = 0 [Q u = 20 m/s] θ
Þ 2 cos 2 q + cos q - 1 = 0
1 2v02 tan q
Þ cos q = - 1, Now, x = R cos q =
2 g
1 2v02 tan 2 q
Þ cos q = and y = - R sin q = -
2 g
Þ q = 60°
R /2 3H 47. If it is being hit, then
43. = = 3 1 2
H H d = v0t + at = (u cos q)t
2
(v02 sin q cos q)/ g
or = 3 (Q acceleration in horizontal direction is zero)
(v02 sin 2 q)/2 g
2 cot q = 3
2 Q
tan q =
3 600 ms–1
æ 2 ö
or q = tan -1 ç ÷ H
è 3ø
g cos θ
vx = v0 cos q Y gs
vy2 = (v0 sin q)2 + 2 gH α–θ g
α
v= vx2 + vy2 at ground θ
O B
v = v02 + 2 gH
2v sin(a - q)
It means speed is independent of angle of projection. T=
1 2 g cos q
Also, gt = H + t v0 sin q
2 Again, OB = v cos a ´ T
From this we can say that as q increases, t increases. OB
Now, cos q =
OA
50. Vertical component of velocity of A should be equal to
OB
vertical velocity of B. or OA =
cos q
or v1 sin 30° = v2
v cos a × T
v1 or OA =
or = v2 cos q
2
2v sin(a - q) 1
v2 1 or OA = v cos a ´ ´
\ = g cos q cos q
v1 2
v2
51. Since, the projectile is released, therefore, its initial or OA = [2 sin(a - q) cos a ]
g cos 2 q
velocity is same as the velocity of the plane at the time
of release. v2
or OA = [sin (2a - q) + sin (- q)]
Take the origin at the point of release. g cos 2 q
Let x and y(= - 730 m) be the coordinates of the point on v2
or OA = [sin(2a - q) - sin q]
the ground where the projectile hits and let t be the time g cos 2 q
when it hits. Then,
1 Clearly, the range R (= OA ) will be maximum when
y = - v0 t cos q - gt 2 sin(2a - q) is maximum, i. e. 1. This would mean
2
where, q = 53.0° p q p
2a - q = or a = +
1 2 2 4
y + gt 2
This equation gives v0 = - 2 Maximum range up the inclined plane,
t cos q
v2 v2(1 - sin q)
1
-730 + (9.8) (5)2 Rmax = 2
(1 - sin q) =
2 g cos q g (1 - sin 2 q)
= = 202 ms -1
5 cos 53° v2(1 - sin q) v2
-1 = =
52. Horizontal component of velocity, vx = 500 ms and g (1 - sin q) (1 + sin q) g (1 + sin q)
vertical component of velocity while striking the ground 1 2
vy = 0 + 10 ´ 10 = 100 ms -1 54. From h = gt ,
2
u =500 ms –1 2hOA 2 ´ 1960
We have tOB = = = 20 s
g 9.8
Horizontal distance, AB = vtOB
500 ms –1
θ æ 5ö
= ç600 ´ ÷ (20) = 3333.33 m = 3.33 km
è 18 ø
100 ms –1
110 JEE Main Physics
= 30 - 10 ´ 2 But = =ç ÷ <1
hB uB2 sin 2 qB è sin 75° ø
= 30 - 20 = 10 ms -1
or hA < hB
According to question,
TA uA sin qA sin 15°
vy 10 Again, = = <1
tan 30° = = TB uB sin qB sin 75°
ux ux
10 or TA < TB
or ux = = 10 3 ms -1
tan 30° 10. Horizontal range is same when angle of projection is q
and (90° - q).
\ u= ux2 + uy2 2
= (10 3 ) + (30) 2
u 2 sin 2 q 2 u 2 sin q cos q
-1
\ R= =
= 20 3 ms g g
When angle of projection is q,
5. Initial velocity, v = ($i + 2$j) m/s
2 u sin q
T1 =
Magnitude of velocity, v = (1)2 + (22) = 5 m/s g
Kinematics II (Projectile Motion) 111
When angle of projection is (90° - q), 14. For 5 s, weight of the body is balanced by the given force.
2 u sin (90° - q) 2 u cos q Hence, it will move in a straight line as shown below.
T2 = =
g g
4 u 2 sin q cos q æ 2 u 2 sin q cos q ö æ 2 ö 2 R
\ T1 T2 = =ç ÷ç ÷=
g2 è g ø è gø g
\ T1 T2 µ R
T1 2 u sin q / g 5s
and = = tan q
T2 2 u cos q / g 2
u sin 2 q
R= + (u cos q) (5)
v2 sin 2 q g
11. Height, h = 0 , i. e. h µ sin 2 q
2 g, (50)2 × sin 60°
= + (50 ´ cos 30° ) (5) = 250 3 m
h1 sin 2 q1 10
\ = >1
h2 sin 2 q2
15. If a particle is projected with velocity u at an angle q
So, sin 2 q1 > sin 2 q2 with the horizontal, the velocity of the particle at the
or q1 > q2 highest point is
2v0 sin q v = u cos q = 200 cos 60° = 100 ms -1
Time of flight, T =
g If m is the mass of the particle, then its initial
or T µ sin q momentum at highest point in the horizontal direction
= mv = m ´ 100. It means at the highest point, initially
T1 sin q1
\ = >1 the particle has no momentum in vertically upward or
T2 sin q2 downward direction. Therefore, after explosion, the
or T1 > T2 final momentum of the particles going upward and
downward must be zero.
u 2 sin 2q
Horizontal range, R= Hence, the final momentum after explosion is the
g
momentum of the third particle, in the horizontal
or R µ sin 2q direction. If the third particle moves with velocity v¢ ,
R1 sin 2q1 mv¢
\ = £1 then its momentum becomes . According to law of
R2 sin 2q2 3
or R1 £ R2 conservation of linear momentum, we have
mv¢
Total energy of each particle will be equal to KE of = m ´ 100 or v¢ = 300 ms -1.
3
each particle at the time of its projection.
16. Given, q1 = p / 3 = 30°
12. y = ax - bx2
Horizontal range is same if q1 + q2 = 90°
For height of y to be maximum,
\ q2 = 90° - 30° = 60°
dy
=0 u 2 sin 2 30°
dx y1 =
or a - 2bx = 0 2g
x=
a u 2 sin 2 60°
or and y2 =
2b 2g 2
æaö æaö
2
a2 æ 1 ö
\ ymax = a ç ÷ - bç ÷ =
è 2b ø è 2b ø y2 sin 30° ç
2 ÷
2 ÷ =1
4b \ = =ç
æ dy ö y1 sin 2 60° ç 3÷ 3
and ç ÷ = a = tan q ç ÷
è dx ø x = 0 è 2 ø
y1
or y2 =
where, q = angle of projection 3
\ q = tan -1 (a ). 17. Let v1 be the velocity of the car and v2 be the velocity of
u 2 sin 2 q the parcel. The parcel is thrown at an angle q from O, it
13. H =
2g reaches the man at M.
2u sin 2 q M
dH = du
2g
v2
dH 2du 1
\ = =2 ´
H u 10
dH 2
\% increase in H = ´ 100 = ´ 100 = 20% O v1 A
H 10
112 JEE Main Physics
Angular Displacement
The angle between initial and final positions of particle in a given interval of
time, is called angular displacement. In the given figure OP is the initial
position and OP¢ is the final position of the particle. Then, angular displacement
Ð P ¢OP = Dq
It is a dimensionless quantity, as q = Ds/ r.
Its SI unit is radian while practical unit is degree.
Y
P' s
P
X
O r
Angular Velocity
If the angular position of a particle changes with time, it is said to have angular
velocity. If q 1 and q 2 are the angular positions of a particle at time t1 and t2
respectively, the average angular velocity wav for this time interval is defined as
Circular Motion 115
If a (acceleration) makes an angle f with the radius, Sol. (c) Linear speed of particle at t = 2 s is
a
then tan f = t . v = (2) 2 = 4 ms-1
ar v 2 ( 4) 2
\ Radial acceleration, ar = = = 8 ms–2
Regarding circular motion, following possibilities exist r 2
(a) If ar = 0 and at = 0, then a = 0 and motion is The tangential acceleration is
uniform translatory. dv
at = = 2t
dt
(b) If ar = 0 and at ¹ 0, then a = at and motion is
At t = 2 s at = (2) (2) = 4 ms-2
accelerated translatory.
Net acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is
(c) If ar ¹ 0 but at = 0, then a = ar and motion is
uniform circular. a = ( ar ) 2 + ( at ) 2 = (8) 2 + ( 4) 2
(d) If ar ¹ 0 and at ¹ 0, then a = at2 + ar2 and motion or a = 80 ms-2
is non-uniform circular.
Example 4. In a circular motion of a body, which
Example 1. A clock has a continuously moving second’s amongst the following relation between tangential
hand of 0.1 m length. The average acceleration of the tip of acceleration and linear velocity is correct?
a×v
the hand (in ms -2) is of the order of [JEE Main 2020] (a) at = a × v (b) at = v / a (b) at = a / v (d) at =
-3 | v|
(a) 10
(b) 10 -4 Sol. (d) Let velocity of the particle be, v = v x$i + v y $j
(c) 10 -2 dv dv y $
(d) 10 -1 Acceleration, a = x $i + j
dt dt
Sol. (a) Given that, radius, R = 0.1 m dv dv y
vx x + vy ×
a×v dt dt
2p 2p Component of a along v will be, = …(i)
Angular frequency, w = = = 0.105 rad/s | v| v x2 + v y2
T 60
Circular Motion 117
Important Points
● In non-uniform circular motion, the particle mv 2
simultaneously possesses two forces Thus, f=
r
mv 2
Centripetal force, Fc = mac = = mrw2 Further, limiting value of f,
r
fL = mN = m mg
Tangential force, Ft = mat
Therefore, for a safe turn without sliding
\ Net force, Fnet = ma = m ac2 + at2
mv2
● If a moving particle comes to stand still, i. e. the particle £ fL
r
will move along the radius towards the centre and if
radial acceleration ar is zero, the body will fly off along mv 2
or £ m mg
the tangent. So, a tangential velocity and a radial r
acceleration (hence force) is always present in uniform v2
circular motion. m³ or v £ m rg
rg
118 JEE Main Physics
Here, two situations may arise. If m and r are Taking limiting condition, we can write
known to us, the speed of the vehicle should not f = ms N …(iii)
exceed m rg and if v and r are known to us, the
To obtain the value of N , Solve above three
v2
coefficient of friction should be greater than . equations properly.
rg mg
N =
Note If the speed of the car is too high, car starts skidding outwards. cos q - m s sin q
Due to this, radius of the circle increases or the necessary After putting the value of N in Eq. (i), we get
centripetal force is reduced æç centripetal force µ ö÷ .
1
è rø \For a car moving upward on inclined road, the
maximum speed for no skidding is given as,
(ii) By banking of roads only Friction is not 1/ 2 1/ 2
always reliable at circular turns, if high speed é rg (sin q + m s cos q ) ù é rg (m s + tan q ) ù
vmax = ê ú =ê ú
and sharp turns are involved. To avoid ë cos q - m s sin q û ë 1 - m s tan q û
dependence on friction, the roads are banked at
the turn so that the outer part of the road is Example 5. Find the maximum speed at which a car can
somewhat raised compared to the inner part. turn round a curve of 30 m radius on a level road, if the
\For safe turn without sliding, coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road is 0.4.
(acceleration due to gravity = 10 ms–2)
N cos θ
N (a) 12 ms–1 (b) 10 ms–1 (c) 11 ms–1 (d) 15 ms–1
h h
f
θ
f mg f sin l
b mg h
Also, tan q =
l
mv 2 v2 h v 2l
N sin q + f cos q = …(i) Þ = Þ h=
r rg l rg
N cos q = mg + f sin q …(ii) (20) 2 ´ 1 1 100
\ h= = m= = 2 cm
(Q vertical force is balanced) 2000 ´ 10 50 50
Circular Motion 119
Example 7. A circular race track of radius 300 m is banked Hence, N sin a = mrw2
at angle of 15°. If the coefficient of friction between the wheels Þ N sin a = m(R sin a) w2 [Qr = R sin a ]
of a race-car and the road is 0.2, then the maximum Þ N = mRw 2
…(i)
permissible speed to avoid slipping is
and N cos a = mg …(ii)
(a) 28.1 ms–1 (b) 50 ms–1 (c) 38.1 ms–1 (d) 42 ms–1 ω
Sol. (c) Here, r = 300 m, q = 15°, m s = 0.2, g = 10 ms - 2,
hence, maximum permissible speed to avoid slipping,
1/ 2 α
é rg (m s + tan q) ù é 300 ´ 10[0.2 + tan 15° ] ù
Vmax =ê ú =ê ú
ë 1 - m s tan q û ë 1 - 0.2 tan 15° û R N
–1
We obtain, v max = 38.1ms
r A
Conical Pendulum mg
It consists of a string OA, whose upper end O is fixed and Dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii), we get
bob of mass m is tied at the other free end which is 1 w2R
whirled in a horizontal circle. As the string traces the =
cos a g
surface of the cone, and such arrangement is called a
g
conical pendulum. \ w=
O R cos a
mg
g
In this case, vertical component of tension T balances the
weight of the bob and horizontal component provides the O D
necessary centripetal force. v
R– h T
g tan q
\Angular speed, w=
r h B
and time period of pendulum, A u mg mg cos
l cos q æhö mg sin θ
t = 2p = 2p ç ÷
g è gø (i) Velocity at any point on vertical loop
where, h = ON = l cosq At the lowest point A, it is imparted a velocity u in
the horizontal direction.
Example 8. A hemispherical bowl of radius R is rotating
Let v be its velocity at any point B at height h, is
about its axis of symmetry which is kept vertical. A small ball
given by
kept in the bowl rotates with the bowl without slipping on its
surface. If the surface of the bowl is smooth and the angle v = u 2 - 2 gh = u 2 - 2 gR (1 - cos q )
made by the radius through the ball with the vertical is a, find
the angular speed at which bowl is rotating. (ii) Tension at any point on the vertical loop,
R g At any point B, the necessary centripetal force is
(a) w = (b) w = provided by the resultant of tension T and
g cos a cos a
mg cos q, so
g mv 2 m 2
(c) (d) None of these TB = mg cos q + = ( u + gR - 3 gh )
R cos a R R
Sol. (c) Let w be the angular speed of rotation of the bowl. Two (iii) Tension at the lowest point A and highest
forces are acting on the ball. point C,
(i) Normal reaction, N (ii) Weight, mg
TA = Tmax
The ball is rotating in a circle of radius, r = (R sin a) with centre at
TC = Tmin = 0
A with an angular speed, w
120 JEE Main Physics
Velocity at the highest point C Example 9. A particle is suspended from a fixed point by
C Tmin = 0 a string of length 5 m. It is projected from the equilibrium
vC = vmin = √gR position with such a velocity that the string slackens after the
particle has reached a height 8 m above the lowest point.
Find the velocity of the particle, just before the string
vD > √3 gR
O D slackens.
TD > 3 mg
(a) 5.42 m/s (b) 6.24 m/s (c) 10.26 m/s (d) 9.28 m/s
R
vA = vmax = √5gR Sol. (a) At P,
u v
A T
max = 6 mg
θ P
(iv) The particle will move on the circular path only 5m θ
3m
and only if,
4m
Tmin > 0 and Tmax ³ 6 mg 5m mg
8m
Practice Exercise
ROUND I Topically Divided Problems
11. A stone tied to the end of a string 80 cm long is 16. Three identical particles are joined together by a
whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed. thread as shown in figure. All the three particles
If the stone makes 14 revolutions in 25 s, what is are moving in a horizontal plane. If the velocity of
the magnitude and direction of acceleration of the the outermost particle is v0 , then the ratio of
stone? tensions in the three sections of the string is
(a) 9.9 m/s 2 along the tangent O C
(b) 7.9 m/s 2 along the radius A B
l l l
(c) 9.9 m/s 2 along the radius
(d) None of the above (a) 3 : 5 : 7 (b) 3 : 4 : 5 (c) 7 : 11 : 6 (d) 3 : 5 : 6
12. Read the following statements and choose the 17. Two particles of equal mass are connected to a rope
correct option given below. AB of negligible mass such that one is at end A and
(i) The net acceleration of a particle in the circular other dividing the length of rope in the ratio 1 : 2
motion is always along the radius of the circle from B. The rope is rotated about end B in a
towards the centre. horizontal plane. Ratio of tensions in the smaller
(ii) The velocity vector of a particle at a point is part to the other is (ignore the effect of gravity)
always along the tangent to the path of the (a) 4 : 3 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 3
particle at that point. 18. A coin is placed on a gramophone record rotating at
(iii) The acceleration vector of a particle in uniform a speed of 45 rpm. It flies away when the rotational
circular motion averaged over one cycle is a speed is 50 rpm. If two such coins are placed over
null vector. the other on the same record, both of them will fly
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) away when rotational speed is
(c) (iii) Only (d) All the three (a) 100 rpm (b) 25 rpm (c) 12.5 rpm (d) 50 rpm
13. A car is moving along a circular path of radius 19. A body moves along a circular path of radius 5 m.
500 m with a speed of 30 ms–1. If at some instant, The coefficient of friction between the surface of
its speed increases at the rate of 2 ms–1, then at path and the body is 0.5. The angular velocity, in
that instant, the magnitude of resultant rad/s, with which the body should move so that it
acceleration will be does not leave the path is (Take, g = 10 ms–2)
(a) 4.7 ms–2 (b) 3.8 ms–2
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
(c) 3 ms–2 (d) 2.7 ms–2
20. A motorcycle moving with a velocity of 72 kmh–1 on
14. A point P moves in counter-clockwise direction on a
a flat road takes a turn on the road at a point
circular path as shown in the figure. The movement
where the radius of curvature of the road is 20 m.
of P is such that it sweeps out a length s = t 3 + 5,
The acceleration due to gravity is 10 ms–2. In order
where s is in metre and t is in second. The radius of
to avoid skidding, he must not bent with respect to
the path is 20 m. The acceleration of P when
the vertical plane by an angle greater than
t = 2 s is nearly
(a) q = tan -1 (2) (b) q = tan -1 (6)
y -1
(c) q = tan (4) (d) q = tan -1 (25.92)
B
P(x,y) 21. Statement I A cyclist is moving on an unbanked
road with a speed of 7 kmh - 1 and takes a sharp
m
20
22. A curved road of 50 m radius is banked at correct 27. A self-propelled vehicle (assume it as a point mass)
angle for a given speed. If the speed is to be runs on a track with constant speed v. It passes
doubled keeping the same banking angle, the through three positions A, B and C on the circular
radius of curvature of the road should be changed part of the track. Suppose N A , N B and N C are the
to normal forces exerted by the track on the vehicle
(a) 25 m (b) 100 m when it is passing through points A, B and C
(c) 150 m (d) 200 m respectively, then
23. A vehicle is moving with a velocity v on a curved B
C
A
road of width b and radius of curvature R. For
counteracting the centrifugal force on the vehicle, θ 2θ θ<45º
v
the difference in elevation required in between the
outer and inner edges of the rod is
Outer edge
(a) N A = N B = N C
(b) N B > N A > N C
(c) N C > N A > N B
Inner edge h (d) N B > N C > N A
θ
b 28. A car moving on a circular path and takes a turn.
If R1 and R2 be the reactions on the inner and outer
(a) v2b /Rg (b) vb /Rg wheels respectively, then
(c) vb2 /Rg (d) vb /R2g (a) R1 = R2 (b) R1 < R2
(c) R1 > R2 (d) R1 ³ R2
24. An object is being weighed on a spring balance
moving around a curve of radius 100 m at a speed
Conical Pendulum and
7 ms -1. The object has a weight of 60 kg-wt. The
reading registered on the spring balance would be Motion in Vertical Circle
(a) 60.075 kg-wt (b) 60.125 kg-wt 29. A sphere of mass 0.2 kg is attached to an
(c) 60.175 kg-wt (d) 60.225 kg-wt inextensible string of length 0.5 m whose upper end
25. A small block is shot into each of the four tracks is fixed to the ceilling. The sphere is made to
shown below. Each of the tracks rises to the same describe a horizontal circle of radius 0.3 m. The
height. The speed with which the block enters the speed of the sphere will be
track is the same in all cases. At the highest point (a) 1.5 ms -1 (b) 2.5 ms -1
of the track, the normal reaction is the maximum (c) 3.2 ms -1 (d) 4.7 ms -1
in the case 30. A particle describes a horizontal circle in a conical
funnel whose inner surface is smooth with speed of
(a) (b) 0.5 m/s. What is height of the plane of circle from
vertex of the funnel?
v v
(a) 0.25 m (b) 2 cm
(c) 4 cm (d) 2.5 cm
31. How many revolutions per minute must the
(c) (d) apparatus shown in figure make about a vertical
v v axis, so that the cord makes an angle of 45° with
the vertical? (Given, l = 2 m, a = 0.2 m, m = 5 kg)
a
26. A long horizontal rod has a bead, which can slide
along its length and initially placed at a distance L
from one end A of the rod. The rod is set in angular l
45
º
32. Two wires AC and BC are tied at C of small sphere 37. A 2 kg stone at the end of a string 1 m long is
of mass 5 kg, which revolves at a constant speed v whirled in a vertical circle at a constant speed. The
in the horizontal circle of radius 1.6 m. The speed of the stone is 4 m/s. The tension in the
minimum value of v is string will be 52 N, when the stone is
(a) at the top of the circle
A 30º (b) at the bottom of the circle
B
(c) halfway down
45º (d) None of the above
38. A body crosses the topmost point of a vertical circle
C
with critical speed. What will be its acceleration
when the string is horizontal?
1.6
(a) g (b) 2 g
(c) 3 g (d) 6 g
(a) 3.01 ms -1 (b) 4.01 ms -1
(c) 8.2 ms -1 (d) 3.96 ms -1 39. A particle is moving in a vertical circle. The
tensions in the string when passing through two
33. The string of a pendulum of length l is displaced positions at angles 30° and 60° from vertical
through 90° from the vertical and released. Then, (lowest position) are T1 and T2 respectively.
the minimum strength of the string in order to (a) T1 = T2
withstand the tension as the pendulum passes
(b) T2 > T1
through the mean position is
(a) mg (b) 6 mg (c) 3 mg (d) 5 mg (c) T1 > T2
(d) Tension in the string always remains the same
34. An insect is at the bottom of a hemispherical ditch
of radius 1 m. It crawls up the ditch but starts 40. A stone tied to a string of length L is whirled in a
slipping after it is at height h from the bottom. If vertical circle, with the other end of the string at
the coefficient of friction between the ground and the centre. At a certain instant of time, the stone is
the insect is 0.75, then h is (Take, g = 10 ms -2 ) at its lowest position, and has a speed u. The
[JEE Main 2020] magnitude of change in its velocity as it reaches a
(a) 0.20 m (b) 0.45 m (c) 0.60 m (d) 0.80 m position, where the string is horizontal is
(a) u 2 - 2 gL (b) 2 gL
35. A fighter plane is pulling out for a dive at 900 kmh -1
in a vertical circle of radius 2 km. Its mass is 5000 kg. (c) u 2 - gL (d) 2 (u 2 - gL )
Find the force exerted by the air on it at the lowest
point. 41. A stone of mass 1 kg is tied to a string 4 m long and
(a) 2.0625 ´ 104 N upward is rotated at constant speed of 40 ms -1 in a vertical
(b) 2.0625 ´ 105 N downward circle. The ratio of the tension at the top and the
(c) 2.0625 ´ 105 N upward bottom is
(d) 2.0625 ´ 104 N downward (a) 11 : 12 (b) 39 : 41
(c) 41 : 39 (d) 12 : 11
36. A stone of mass m is tied to a string and is moved
in a vertical circle of radius r making n revolution 42. An object is tied to a string and rotated in a vertical
per minute. The total tension in the string when circle of radius r. Constant speed is maintained
the stone is at its lowest point is along the trajectory. If Tmax / Tmin = 2, then v2 / rg is
(a) mg (b) m ( g + pnr 2) (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) m ( g + pnr ) (d) m { g + (p 2n 2r ) / 900} (c) 3 (d) 4
ROUND II Mixed Bag
Only One Correct Option 7. A particle is moving in a circle of radius R in such a
1. A block of 200 g mass moves with a uniform speed way that at any instant the normal and tangential
in a horizontal circular groove, with vertical side components of its acceleration are equal. If its
walls of radius 20 cm. If the block takes 40 s to speed at t = 0 is v0 , the time taken to complete the
complete one round, the normal force by the side first revolution is
R R R -2p 2 pR
walls of the groove is [JEE Main 2021] (a) (b) (1 - e-2p ) (c) e (d)
v0 v0 v0 v0
(a) 0.0314 N (b) 9.859 ´ 10- 2 N
(c) 6.28 ´ 10- 3 N (d) 9.859 ´ 10- 4 N 8. An aeroplane flying at a velocity of 900 kmh–1 loops
the loop. If the maximum force pressing the pilot
2. The distance r from the origin of a particle moving against the seat is five times its weight, the loop
in xy-plane varies with time as r = 2 t and the angle radius should be
made by the radius vector with positive X-axis is (a) 1594 m (b) 1402 m
q = 4 t. Here, t is in second, r in metre and q in (c) 1315 m (d) 1167 m
radian. The speed of the particle at t = 1 s is
(a) 10 ms–1 (b) 16 ms–1
9. A string of length L is fixed at one end and the
2
(c) 20 ms–1 (d) 12 ms–1
string makes rev/s around the vertical axis
p
3. A particle moves along a circle of radius æç
20 ö through the fixed and as shown in the figure, then
÷m
èpø tension in the string is
with constant tangential acceleration. If the s
velocity of the particle is 80 ms–1, at the end of θ
seconds revolution after motion has begun, the L
tangential acceleration is
(a) 40 ms–2 (b) 640 p ms–2
R
(c) 1609 p ms–2 (d) 40 p ms–2
4. A particle moves such that its position vector (a) ML (b) 2 ML
r ( t) = cos wt$i + sin wt$j, where w is a constant and t is (c) 4 ML (d) 16 ML
time. Then, which of the following statements is
true for the velocity v( t) and acceleration a( t) of the 10. An object of mass 10 kg is whirled round a
particle? [JEE Main 2020] horizontal circle of radius 4 m by a revolving string
(a) v and a both are parallel to r. inclined 30° to the vertical. If the uniform speed of
the object is 5 ms - 1, the tension in the string
(b) v is perpendicular to r and a is directed away from
the origin. (approximately) is
(a) 720 N (b) 960 N
(c) v and a both are perpendicular to r.
(c) 114 N (d) 125 N
(d) v is perpendicular to r and a is directed towards
the origin. 11. When the road is dry and coefficient of friction is m,
5. For a particle in uniform circular motion, the the maximum speed of a car in a circular path is
acceleration a at a point P ( R, q ) on the circle of 10 ms–1. If the road becomes wet and m ¢ = m/2, what
is the maximum speed permitted?
radius R is (here q is measured from the X-axis)
(a) 5 ms–1 (b) 10 ms–1
v2 v2 v2 v2 (c) 10 2 ms–1 (d) 5 2 ms–1
(a) - cos q i$ + sin q $j (b) - sin q $i + sin q $j
R R R R
12. A heavy small-sized sphere is suspended by a
v2 v2 v2 $ v2 $ string of length l. The sphere rotates uniformly in a
(c) - cos q $i - sin q $j (d) i+ j
R R R R horizontal circle with the string making an angle q
with the vertical, then the time period of this
6. When a ceiling fan is switched on, it makes 10 conical pendulum is
rotations in the first 4 s. How many rotations will it l l sin q
make in the next 4 s? (Assuming uniform angular (a) t = 2p (b) t = 2p
g g
acceleration).
(a) 10 (b) 20 l cos q l
(c) t = 2p (d) t = 2p
(c) 40 (d) 30 g g cos q
126 JEE Main Physics
13. A smooth wire of length 2pr is bent into a circle and rad/s), that stone can have in uniform circular
kept in a vertical plane. A bead can slide smoothly motion is ……… .
on the wire. When the circle is rotating with 18. In figure, a particle is placed at the highest point A
angular speed w about the vertical diameter AB, as of a smooth sphere of radius r. It is given slight
shown in figure, the bead is at rest with respect to
push, and it leaves the sphere at B, at a depth h
the circular ring at position P as shown. Then, the
vertically below A such that h is equal to r / n,
value of w2 is equal to [JEE Main 2019]
where the value of n is ……… .
w
A
A h
C B
r r
O O
r/2 P
B
Answers
Round I
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (c)
Round II
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. 8.6 15. 4 16. 5.689 17. 30 18. 3 19 20 20. 728
Circular Motion 127
Solutions
Round I
300
1. Frequency of wheel, n = = 5 rps. Angle rotated by
60 v2 ∆v
wheel in one rotation= 2 p rad. Therefore, angle
rotated by wheel in 1 s = 2 p ´ 5 rad = 10 p rad.
120° 30°
2. Increase in angular velocity, w = 2 p (n2 - n1 ) 30°
–v1 O v1
rad
w = 2 p (1200 - 600)
min From the figure,
2 p ´ 600 rad rad Dv = v2 - v1 = v2 + (- v1 )
= = 20 p Q
60 s s \ |Dv|2 = v12 + v22 + 2v1v2 cos 120°
3. Here, r = 1.5 ´ 1011 m; time period of revolution of æ 1ö
= v2 + v2 + 2v ´ v ´ ç - ÷
è 2ø
Earth around the Sun is 1 yr, i.e.
T = 1 yr = 365 ´ 24 ´ 60 ´ 60 s Þ |Dv| = v =10 m/s
2p 6. Angle covered by each particle in time duration 0 to
\Angular velocity, w =
T p
is
2 ´ (22 / 7) 2w
=
365 ´ 24 ´ 60 ´ 60 p p
q=w´t=w´ = rad
= 1.99 ´ 10-7 rad s -1 2w 2
Linear velocity, v = w r p
So, positions of particles at t = is as shown
= 1.99 ´ 10-7 ´ 1.5 ´ 1011 2w
= 2.99 ´ 104 ms -1 below;
90° R2
B
p
\Change in velocity , Velocities of particles at t =are
2w
æ qö
|Dv|= 2 v sin ç ÷ vA = - wR1$i and vB = - wR2$i
è2ø
The relative velocity of particles is
æ 90° ö
= 2 (rw)sin ç ÷ vA - vB = - wR1$i - (- wR2$i )
è 2 ø
= - w(R1 - R2)$i = w(R2 - R1 )$i
2p 1
= 2 ´1 ´ ´ w q
T 2 7. a = and w =
t t
4p p 2 cm
= = [As, T = 60 s ] q
60 2 30 s \ a=
t2
5. Let v1 be the velocity of the particle moving along the but a = constant
circular path initially, v1 and v2 be the velocity when it q1 (2)2
So, =
moves through an angle of 60º as shown below. q1 + q2 (2 + 2)2
v2 q1 1
or =
q1 + q2 4
v1
q1 + q2 4
or =
θ q1 1
q2 4
O or 1+ =
q1 1
q2
\ =3
q1
128 JEE Main Physics
O ac
m T2 T2 m T1
A B
2r r
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get Two forces are acting as weight (mg) and centripetal
T1 = 4 mw r2 æ mv2 ö
force, ç ÷ are at 90° to each other.
T1 4 è r ø
Þ =
T2 3 2
æ mv2 ö
\ Resultant force = (mg )2 + ç ÷
18. A coin flies off when centrifugal force just exceeds the è r ø
force of friction, i. e.mrw2 ³ mmg 1/ 2
é æ v2 ö ù
2
mg = mg ê1 + ç ÷ ú
or w³
r ê è rg ø ú
ë û
Thus, w does not depend upon mass and will remain é
1/2
æ 7´7 ö ù
2
the same (i. e. 50 rpm). = 60 ´ 9.8 ê1 + ç ÷ ú
êë è 100 ´ 9.8 ø ú
û
19. Here, r = 5 m,m = 0.5, w = ?, g = 10 ms –2
= 60.075 ´ 9.8 N
As, mrw2 = F = mR = m mg
= 60.075kg-wt
mg 0.5 ´ 10
w= = = 1 rad s –1 25. The blocks will have the same speed, say, equal to v, at
r 5 the highest point of each track, as they all rise to the
same height. If R be the radius of curvature of a track
20. Using the formula for motor cycle not to skid,
and N be the normal reaction of the track at the
æ v2 ö
q = tan -1 ç ÷ highest point of the track, then
è rg ø mv2
centripetal force = N + mg =
where, r = 20 m R
5 v
v = 72 km h –1 = 72 ´ = 20 ms –1
18
æ 20 ´ 20 ö
\ q = tan -1 ç ÷ N
è 20 ´ 10 ø
mg
or q = tan -1 (2)
21. Statement I Þ N will be the maximum when R is the minimum.
vmax = mRg = (0.2) ´ 2 ´ 9.8 This occurs when the track is most sharply curved, i.e.
in option (a).
vmax = 1.97 m/s
7 km/h = 1.944 m/s 26. Tangential acceleration, a = La
Speed is lower than vmax , hence it can take safe turn. \ Normal reaction, N = Ma = MLa
Statement II \ Frictional force, F = mN = m MLa
æ tan q + m ö For no sliding along the length, frictional force ³
V max = Rg ç ÷ centripetal force.
è 1 - m tan q ø
i. e. m MLa ³ MLw2
æ 1 + 0.2 ö As w = w0 + at = at
= 2 ´ 9.8 ç ÷ = 5.42 m/s
è 1 - 0.2 ø \ m MLa ³ ML (at )2
18.5 km/h = 5.14 m/s m
Þ t=
Speed is lower than vmax , hence it can take safe turn. a
v2 mv2
22. As, tan q = , therefore, when speed v is doubled; 27. As we know, mg cos q - N =
rg R
r must be made 4 times, if q remains the same. mv2
Þ N = mg cos q -
\ New radius of curvature, R
r ¢ = 4 r = 4 ´ 50 m = 200 m N
2
v
23. As, tan q =
Rg
mg sin θ
θ
From the given figure, we get
h v2 v2b mg
= Þ h= θ
b Rg Rg
28. The given situation is shown below. From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
rg
R1 tan q = 2
G R2 v
a a r
inner wheel outer wheel and tan q =
of car Mg of car h
F 2a v2 (0.5)2
h= = = 0.25 m = 2.5 cm
Since, R1 + R2 = Mg g 10
If F be the horizontal force which provides the
31. r = a + l sin 45° = (0.2) + ( 2 ) æç
1 ö
necessary centripetal force for motion in a circle, then ÷ = 1.2 m
è 2ø
mv2
F = Now, T cos 45° = mg …(i)
r
Taking moment about point G, there should be no and T sin 45° = mrw2 …(ii)
resultant turning effect about the centre of gravity. g
\ Fh + R1a = R2a From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have w = 2np =
r
Fh + R1a
\ R2 = 1 g 60 9.8
a \ n= = rpm = 27.3 rpm
Fh 2p r 2p 1.2
R2 = R1 +
a 32. From free body diagram shown in figure,
\Clearly, R2 > R1 T1 cos 30° + T2 cos 45° = mg …(i)
mv2 mv2
29. In figure, T sin q = ; T cos q = mg ; T1 sin 30° + T2 sin 45° = …(ii)
r r
O After solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
mv2
mg -
θ T1 = r
l æ 3 -1ö
ç ÷
è 2 ø
T cos θ
T
T 1 cos 30º
T sin θ A mv 2 +T 2 cos 45º
B r r
mg
2 T 1 sin 30º
v r
So, tan q = = +T 2 sin 45º
rg l2 - r2
1/ 2 1/ 2 mg
é r 2g ù é 0.09 ´ 10 ù
v = ê 2 2 1/ 2 ú =ê 1/2 ú
ë (l - r ) û ë (0.25 – 0.09) û But T1 ³ 0
= 1.5 ms –1 mv2
mg -
\ r ³0
30. The particle is moving in circular path as shown 3 -1
below
2
R R sin θ
mv2
or mg ³
θ r
R cos θ or v £ rg
r
(R = reaction) \ vmax = rg = 1.6 ´ 9.8 = 3.96 ms –1
mg
h
33. Velocity at the lowest point,
v = 2 gl
θ
At the lowest point, the tension in the string,
mv2
T = mg +
l
From the figure, mg = R sin q …(i)
m
mv2 = mg + (2 gl ) = 3 mg
= R cos q …(ii) l
r
Circular Motion 131
\ Dv = u 2 + v2 = u 2 + (u 2 - 2 gL ) = 2 (u 2 - gL )
mg sinθ mg cosθ mv2
41. As, Ttop = - mg …(i)
For balancing, mg cos q = N r
mg sin q = fmax = mN mv2
Þ mg sin q = mmg cos q and Tbottom = + mg …(ii)
r
sin q mmg
= From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
cos q mg v2 40 ´ 40
3 Ttop -g - 10
tan q = m = 0.75 = Þ = 2r = 4
4 Tbottom v 40 ´ 40
4 +g + 10
Þ cos q = r 4
5 400 - 10 390 39
æ4ö R = = =
From diagram, h = R - R cos q = R - Rç ÷ = 400 + 10 410 41
è5ø 5
mv2
1 42. At the lowest point, = TL - mg …(i)
or h = = 0.20 m r
5
mv2
mv2 5 ´ 103 ´ (250)2 At the highest point, = TH + mg …(ii)
35. Force, F = + mg = + 5 ´ 104 r
r 2 ´ 103 Tmax TL
As = =2
= 2.0625 ´ 104 N downward Tmin TH
36. Here, T = mg + mw2r = m ( g + 4 p 2n 2r ) \ TL = 2 TH
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have
ìï æ 2 æ n ö 2 öüï ìï æ p 2n 2r öüï
=míg+ çç4 p ç ÷ r ÷÷ý = m í g + ç ÷ý 2 TH - mg = TH + mg
ïî è è 60 ø øïþ ïî è 900 øïþ TH = 2 mg
mv2 2 ´ (4)2 mv2 v2
37. Here, mg = 2 ´ 10 = 20 N and = = 32 N From Eq. (ii), = 3 mg or =3
r 1 r rg
It is clear that, 52 N tension will be at the bottom of Round II
the circle because we know that
mv2
1. N = mw2R
Tbottom = mg + é 4p 2 ù
r N = mê 2 ú R …(i)
38. The body crosses the topmost position of a vertical ëT û
circle with critical velocity, so the velocity at the Given, m = 0.2 kg, T = 40 s, R = 0.2 m
lowest point of vertical circle, u = 5 gr . Putting the values in Eq. (i), we get
Velocity of the body when string is horizontal, is N = 9.859 ´ 10-4 N
v2 = u 2 - 2 gr = 5 gr - 2 gr = 3 gr
v2 3 gr 2. Here, r = 2 t , q = 4 t
\Centripetal acceleration, a c = = =3 g
r r As, l = rq = (2 t ) (4 t ) = 8 t 2
2
mv dl d
39. Tension, T = + mg cos q \ v= = (8 t 2) = 16 t
r dt dt
mv2
For q = 30°, T1 = + mg cos 30° Þ vt = 16 ms –1 (at t = 1 s)
r
132 JEE Main Physics
mv2 or w2 =
g
Fmax = + mg = 5 mg
r l cos q
2
\ v = 4 gr
v2 250 ´ 250 ~ 1594 m
or r= = = 1594.4 - θ θ
4g 4 ´ 9.8
l
T
9. From figure in question,
T cos θ
T sin q = Mw2R [Q R = L sin q]
Þ T sin q = Mw2L sin q
Þ T = Mw2L = M × 4 p 2n 2L A Tsin θ r B
2
æ2ö Mg
= M ×4 p 2 ç ÷ L
èpø
2p l cos q
= 16 ML \ Time period, t= = 2p
w g
AB
10. In figure, sin 30° = 13. Let N = normal reaction of wire loop acting towards
OA
O centre.
ω
30°
T
C N θ N cosθ
B
A N sinθ
4
mg mg
AB 4 r/2
or OA = = =8m
sin 30° 1/2
T F mg Then, component N cos q balances weight of bead,
= = Þ N cos q = mg …(i)
AO AB OB
AO and component N sin q provides necessary centripetal
F = ´F pull on the bead,
AB
æ rö
AO mv2 Þ N sin q = mç ÷ w2 …(ii)
= è2ø
AB r
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have
8 52
= ´ 10 ´ = 125 N rw2
4 4 tan q = …(iii)
2g
11. The maximum speed without skidding is
Now, from geometry of figure,
v = m rg
v2 m1 m /2 1
\ = = = (for rg = constant)
v1 m1 m 2
v1
v2 = = 5 2 ms –1 (Q v1 = 10 ms -1 ) C
2 θ r
Force
Force is a push or pull which IN THIS CHAPTER ....
(i) generates or tends to generate motion in a body at rest. Force
(ii) stops or tends to stop a body in motion.
Inertia
(iii) increases or decreases the magnitude of velocity of the moving body.
Newton’s Laws of Motion
(iv) changes or tries to change the direction of a moving body.
Principle of Conservation of
(v) tends to change the shape of the body.
Linear Momentum
Based on the nature of interaction between two bodies, forces may be broadly
classified into two types Equilibrium of Concurrent Forces
(a) Non-contact Forces These are the forces that act between two bodies Common Forces in Mechanics
separated by a distance without any actual contact, e.g. gravitational Connected Motion
force, electrostatic force. Friction
(b) Contact Forces These are the forces that act between two bodies in
contact, e.g. tension, normal reaction, friction, etc.
Inertia
The inability of a body to change by itself its state of rest or state of uniform
motion along a straight line is called inertia of the body.
As inertia of a body is measured by the mass of the body. Heavier the body,
greater the force required to change its state and hence, greater is its inertia.
It is of three types (i) inertia of rest (ii) inertia of motion (iii) inertia of
direction.
136 JEE Main Physics
Sol. (d) Resultant force is zero, as three forces acting on the If the string is massless, then
particle can be represented in magnitude and direction by three (i) the tension T has the same magnitude at all points
sides of a triangle in same order. Hence, by Newton’s second law, throughout the string.
dv dv dv
F=m Þm =0 Þ =0 (ii) the magnitude of acceleration of any number of
dt dt dt
masses connected through string is always same.
Þ v = constant, hence v remains unchanged.
(iii) if there is friction between string and pulley,
tension is different on two sides of the pulley but if
Principle of Conservation of Linear there is no friction between pulley and string,
Momentum tension will be same on both sides of the pulley.
It states that if no external force is acting on a system, Note (i) If string slacks, tension in string becomes zero.
the momentum of the system remains constant. (ii) The direction of tension on a body or pulley is always away from
If no force is acting, then F = 0 the point of contact.
dp
\ = 0 Þ p = constant The direction of tension (T )in some cases are shown below
dt
or m1v1 = m2v2 = constant (a) m2 m1 F ⇒ m2 T T m
1
T m
Sol. (b) Before cutting the string, free body diagrams of masses m where, k = spring constant and x = change in length of
and 2m are given as the spring.
F = kx F = kx
kx T (Tension) L L+x L–x
k = force constant
of spring m m m
2m m
Spring in natural Spring in the condition Spring in the condition
length of elongation of compression
2mg T mg (a) (b) (c)
Þ T + 2mg = kx …(i)
T = mg …(ii) (iv) Weight of a Body in a Lift
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get Earth attracts every body towards its centre. The force of
attraction exerted by the earth on the body is called
mg + 2mg = kx
gravity force. If m be the mass of the body, then the
Þ kx = 3mg …(iii)
gravity force on it is mg. Normally, the weight of a body
After cutting the string, free body diagrams of masses m and 2m is equal to the gravity force, w = mg.
are given as
● If lift is accelerating upward with acceleration a, then
T=0 kx apparent weight of the body is R = m( g + a ).
m a 2m a ● If lift is accelerating downward at the rate of
acceleration a, then apparent weight of the body is
R = m( g - a ).
mg 2mg
● If lift is moving upward or downward with constant
After cutting the string, mass m starts freely falling with velocity, then apparent weight of the body is equal to
gravitational acceleration ( g ). actual weight, i.e. R = mg .
i.e. a¢ = g ● If the lift is falling freely under the effect of gravity
Equation of motion for mass 2m, ( g = a ), then it is called weightlessness condition ( R = 0).
kx - 2mg = 2ma¢¢
Þ 3mg - 2mg = 2ma¢¢ [from Eq. (i)] Connected Motion
Þ mg = 2ma¢¢ When two objects of masses m1 and m2 tied at the ends of
g an inextensible string which passes over the light and
Þ a¢¢ =
2 frictionless pulley. Suppose m1 > m2 , the heavier object
m1 moves downward and lighter object m2 moves
(ii) The Normal Reaction Force upward.
Normal reaction is a contact force between two surfaces, If a be the common acceleration of two objects, since
which is always perpendicular to the surfaces in contact. pulley is frictionless and light, then the tension in the
string will be same on both sides of pulley.
Example 6. In the above problem, if another block of
mass 2 kg is placed over the first block, the normal reaction
between the first block and the ground surface in new case is
(a) 40 N (b) 60 N (c) 20 N (d) 10 N
Sol. (b) a T
N
T
m2 g
N′
M N a
Mg m1g
N - N¢ = Mg For mass m1, equation of motion is, m1 g - T = m1a
Þ N = (M + m) g
Similarly for the mass m2, equation of motion is
Þ N = ( 4 + 2) ´ 10 = 60 N
T - m2 g = m 2a
(iii) Spring Force æ m - m2 ö
The resistive force developed in spring, when its length is \ a=ç 1 ÷g
è m1 + m2 ø
changed, is called spring force.
æ 2 m1m2 ö
F µ -x Hence, tension (T ) in the string, T = ç ÷g
Spring force, F = - kx è m1 + m2 ø
Laws of Motion and Friction 139
N T
a
T T
a T
m2
a m1
m2 g sin θ a
m2 g cos θ
θ
m1 g m1 g
m2 g
æ m - m2 sinq ö
m2 g \ a=ç 1 ÷g
è m1 + m2 ø
Here, m1 = 5 kg, m2 = 4.8 kg, g = 9.8 ms-2
m1m2 (1 + sin q ) g
æ 5 - 4.8 ö 0.2 and T =
\ a=ç ÷ ´ 9.8 = ´ 9.8 = 0.2 ms-2 ( m1 + m2 )
è 5 + 4.8 ø 9.8
(c) Body accelerated on a wedge due to a another
Some Important Cases of Connected Motion falling body ( m2 > m1 )
(i) Motion of blocks in contact
B a a
A T
F m2 T
m1
m1 m2
F
Acceleration, a= β
m1 + m2 α Smooth
60°
External friction Internal friction
(a) 5 ms–2 (b) 4.11 ms–2 (c) 4 ms–2 (d) 5.11 ms–2
Sol. (b) Net pulling force
Static friction Limiting friction Kinetic friction
= mA g sin 60° + mBg sin 60° - mC g sin 30°
3 3 1
= 1 ´ 10 + 3 ´ 10 - 2 ´ 10 ´ = 24.66 N Sliding friction Rolling friction
2 2 2
Total mass being pulled = 1 + 3 + 2 = 6 kg (i) Static friction is a self-adjusting force and is
24.66 always equal and opposite to the applied force.
\Acceleration of the system, a = = 4.11ms–2
6 The static friction between two contact surfaces is
given by fs £ m s N , where N is the normal force
Example 9. A mass of 6 kg is suspended by a rope of between the contact surfaces and m s is the
length 2 m from the ceiling. A force of 50 N in the horizontal coefficient of static friction, which depends on the
direction is applied at the mid-point P of the rope as shown. nature of the surfaces.
The angle that rope makes with the vertical in equilibrium is
(ii) Limiting friction is the limiting (maximum) value
of static friction when a body is just on the verge of
T1
1m starting its motion over the surface of another body.
θ N
P 50 N
Applied
1m T2 force F
w f = µN
60 N
(a) 10° (b) 20° (c) 30° (d) 40° The force of limiting friction fl between the
surfaces of two bodies is directly proportional to
Sol. (d) Making the free body diagram of P and w, we T2 the normal reaction at the point of contact.
consider the point of equilibrium of the weight w. Mathematically,
\ T2 = 6 ´ 10 = 60 N f
w fl µ N or fl = m l N Þ m l = l
Consider the equilibrium of the point P under the action N
of three forces, the tensions T1 and T2 and the horizontal 60 N where, m l is the coefficient of limiting friction for
force 50 N. The horizontal and vertical components of the given surfaces in contact.
the resultant force must vanish separately. (iii) Kinetic friction is the opposing force that comes
into play, when one body actually slides over the
T1 surface of another body.
θ Force of friction fk is directly proportional to the
f
50 N normal reaction N and the ratio k is called
P N
coefficient of kinetic m k.
T2
Whenever limiting friction is converted into kinetic
T1 cos q = T2 = 60 N friction, body starts its motion with an abrupt
T1 sin q = 50 N uncontrolled movement.
which gives that ● Sliding friction is opposing force that comes
5
tan q = into play when one body actually slides over the
6 surface of the other body is called sliding friction.
æ5ö
or q = tan -1 ç ÷ = 40° e.g. A book is moving over a horizontal table.
è6ø
Laws of Motion and Friction 141
● Rolling friction is the opposing force that Sol. (a) Let mass of the block be m.
comes into play, when one body of symmetric
R
shape (wheel or cylinder or disc, etc.) rolls over
the surface of another body. F
α æ x3 ö
dç ÷
dy è 6 ø x2
mg sin α tan q = = =
mg cos α dx dx 2
mg
α
At limiting equilibrium, we get
In limiting condition, F = mg sina and R = mg cosa m = tan q , 0.5 = x2 / 2
F
So, = tana Þ x2 = 1 Þ x = ± 1
R
F Now, putting the value of x in y = x3 /6, we get
\ = m s = tan a
R When x = 1 When x = -1
Thus, the coefficient of limiting friction is equal to 3
(1) 1 (-1)3 -1
tangent of the angle of repose. \ y= = y= =
6 6 6 6
As well as, a =q
So, the maximum height above the ground at which the block can
i. e. Angle of repose = Angle of friction 1
be placed without slipping is m.
Example 10. A block rests on a rough inclined plane 6
making an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The coefficient of
static friction between the block and the plane is 0.8. If the Example 12. Two blocks A and B of masses mA = 1kg and
frictional force on the block is 10 N, the mass of the block (in mB = 3 kg are kept on the table as shown in figure. The
kg) is ( g = 10 m/s 2) [AIEEE 2004]
coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.2 and between B
and the surface of the table is also 0.2.
(a) 2.0 (b) 4.0 (c) 1.6 (d) 2.5
142 JEE Main Physics
The maximum force F that can be applied on B horizontally, where, m = coefficient of (kinetic) friction between the two
so that the block A does not slide over the block B is (Take, surfaces in contact.
g = 10 m/ s2) [JEE Main 2019] Case II Acceleration of a block sliding down a
A rough inclined plane Let there be an inclined plane
having angle of inclination l, which is more than the
B F
angle of repose a . Then, as shown in figure
N
µN
f=
(a) 12 N (b) 16 N (c) 8 N (d) 40 N
Sol. (b) Acceleration a of system of blocks A and B is a
m
Net force F - f1
a= =
Total mass mA + mB sin mg mg cos
g
m
where, f1 = friction between B and the surface
= m(mA + mB) g
F - m(mA + mB) g N = mg cos l and f = mN = m mg cos l
So, a= …(i)
(mA + mB) \ Net accelerating force down the inclined plane,
Here, m = 0.2 , mA = 1kg, mB = 3 kg, g = 10 ms -2 mg sin l - f = mg sin l - m mg cos l = ma
Substituting the above values in Eq. (i), we have Acceleration, a = g (sin l - m cos l )
F - 0.2(1 + 3) ´ 10 Case III Retardation of a block sliding up a rough
a=
1+ 3 inclined plane In this case, various forces have been
F -8 shown in figure
a= …(ii)
4 N
Due to acceleration of block B, a pseudo force F¢ acts on A.
F
This force F¢ is given by F ¢ = mA a.
m
where, a is acceleration of A and Bcaused by net force acting on B. m
a
For A to slide over B; pseudo force on A, i.e. F¢ must be greater f
m
than friction between A and B. + mg cos
mg
sin
Þ mA a ³ f2 m
g
We consider limiting case,
mA a = f2 Þ mA a = m(mA ) g N = mg cos l
Þ a = mg = 0.2 ´ 10 = 2 ms-2 …(iii) Force of friction, f = mN = m mg cos l
Putting the value of a from Eq. (iii) into Eq. (ii), we get and net retarding force = mg sin l + f
F -8
=2 = mg sin l + m mg cos l
4
\ F = 16 N \External force needed (up the inclined plane) to
maintain sliding motion F = mg (sin l + m cos l)
Some Special Cases of Friction In the absence of external force, the motion of given block
will be retarded and the value of retardation will be
Case I Acceleration of a block on a horizontal
surface As shown in figure, we have a = g (sin l + m cos l )
N Case IV Maximum length of hung chain A uniform
chain of length l is placed on the table in such a manner
that its l ¢ part is hanging over the edge of table without
sliding. Since, the chain has uniform linear density,
f = µN F therefore coefficient of friction,
m2 mass hanging from the table
m= =
m1 mass lying on the table
mg l l
N = mg and f = mN = m mg
\ Net acceleration produced, l
F-f F - m mg F
a= = = - mg
m m m
Laws of Motion and Friction 143
\For this case, we can rewrite the above expression in The limiting friction between the shoes of the man and the belt is
the following manner, given by F = m Mg = 0.2 ´ 65 ´ 9.8 N
length hanging from the table If the man can remain stationary upto an acceleration say a¢, then
m=
length lying on the table Ma¢ = F
F 0.2 ´ 65 ´ 9.8
(as chain has uniform linear density) or a¢ = = = 1.96 ms–2
M 65
l¢
\ m=
l - l¢ Example 14. A block of mass 10 kg is kept on a rough
ml inclined plane as shown in the figure. A force of 3 N is
By solving, l¢ =
(m + l ) applied on the block. The coefficient of static friction between
Case V Motion of an insect in the rough bowl The the plane and the block is 0.6. What should be the minimum
insect crawls up the bowl upto a certain height h only till value of force F, such that the block does not move
the component of its weight along the bowl is balanced by downward) ? (Take, g = 10 ms-2) [JEE Main 2019]
limiting frictional force.
F
O
r
θ kg
R y 10
L
F
Insect 3N 45°
h
mg cos θ
mg mg sin θ (a) 32 N (b) 25 N (c) 23 N (d) 18 N
Let m = mass of the insect, Sol. (a) Free body diagram, for the given figure is as follows:
r = radius of the bowl
and m = coefficient of friction. f
R F
For limiting condition at point A,
R = mg cosq …(i)
Mg sin θ
and FL = mg sinq …(ii) θ Mg cos θ
Dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (i), we get 3N
F
tanq = L = m Mg
R θ=45º
r 2 - y2
\ =m For the block to be in equilibrium, i.e. so that it does not move
y
r downward, then Sfx = 0
or y= \ 3 + Mg sin q - F - f = 0 or 3 + Mg sin q = F + f
1 + m2
As, frictional force, f = mR
Example 13. A man standing stationary with respect to a \ 3 + Mg sin q = F + mR ...(i)
horizontal conveyor belt that is accelerating with 1 ms . If–2 Similarly, Sfy = 0
the coefficient of static friction between the man’s shoes and - Mg cos q + R = 0 or Mg cos q = R ...(ii)
the belt is 0.2, upto what acceleration of the belt can the man Substituting the value of R from Eq. (ii) to
continue to be stationary relative to the belt? (Mass of the Eq. (i), we get
man = 65 kg) 3 + Mg sin q = F + m(Mg cos q) ...(iii)
(a) 1.25 ms–2 (b) 1.96 ms–2 (c) 2.5 ms–2 (d) 3.6 ms–2 Here, M = 10 kg, q = 45°, g = 10 m/s 2
and m = 0.6
Sol. (b) As the man is standing stationary w.r.t. the horizontal
conveyor belt, he is also accelerating at 1 ms–2, the acceleration of Substituting these values in Eq. (iii), we get
the belt. Thus, 3 + (10 ´ 10 sin 45° ) - (0.6 ´ 10 ´ 10 cos 45° ) = F
Acceleration of the man, a = 1ms–2 100 60 40
Þ F=3 + - =3 +
Mass of the man, M = 65 kg 2 2 2
Therefore, net force on the man, ma = 65 ´ 1 = 65 N = 3 + 20 2 = 31.8 N or F ~ - 32 N
Practice Exercise
ROUND I Topically Divided Problems
Newton’s Laws of Motion 7. An open carriage in a goods train is moving with a
1. A cricket ball of mass 150 g collides straight with a uniform velocity of 10 ms–1. If the rain adds water
–1
bat with a velocity of 10 ms . Batsman hits it with zero velocity at the rate of 5 kgs–1, then the
straight back with a velocity of 20 ms–1. If ball additional force applied by the engine to maintain
remains in contact with bat for 0.1s, then average the same velocity of the train is
force exerted by the bat on the ball is (a) 0.5 N (b) 2.0 N (c) 50 N (d) 25 N
(a) 15 N (b) 45 N 8. A ball of mass 0.2 kg is thrown vertically upwards
(c) 150 N (d) 4.5N by applying a force by hand. If the hand moves
2. A disc of mass 10 g is kept floating horizontally in 0.2 m while applying a force and the ball goes upto
air by firing bullets, each of mass 5 g, with the 2 m height further find, the magnitude of the force.
same velocity at the same rate of 10 bullets per (Take, g = 10 m/s2 )
(a) 16 N (b) 20 N
second. The bullets rebound with the same speed in
positive direction. The velocity of each bullet at the (c) 22 N (d) 44 N
time of impact is 9. A constant force acting on a body of mass 3.0 kg
(a) 196 cms -1 (b) 98 cms -1 changes its speed from 2.0 m/s to 3.5 m/s. The
(c) 49 cms -1 (d) 392 cms -1 direction of motion of the body remains unchanged.
3. A satellite in force free space sweeps stationary What is the magnitude and direction of the force?
(a) 0.18 N, along the direction of motion
interplanetary dust at a rate dM / dt = av, where M
is the mass, v is the velocity of the satellite and a is (b) 0.18 N, opposite to the direction of motion
a constant. What is the deacceleration of the (c) 0.28 N, along the direction of motion
satellite? (d) 0.28 N, opposite to the direction of motion
(a) -2 av2/ M (b) -av2/ M
10. A body of mass 5 kg is acted upon by two
(c) + av2/ M (d) - av2 perpendicular forces 8 N and 6 N. Give the
4. The engine of a car produces an acceleration of magnitude and direction of the acceleration of the
6 ms –2 in the car. If this car pulls another car of the body
same mass, then the acceleration would be (a) 2 m /s 2 at an angle 37° to force
(a) 6 ms–2 (b) 12 ms–2 (b) 2 m /s 2 at an angle 57° to force
(c) 3 ms–2 (d) 1.5 ms–2 (c) 4 m /s 2 at angle 37° to force
(d) 4 m /s 2 at an angle 57° to force
5. A body of mass 2 kg travels according to law
x ( t) = pt + qt2 + rt 3, where p = 3 ms –1, q = 4 ms –2 11. A particle of mass m is moving in a straight line
and r = 5 ms –3. The force acting on the body at with momentum p. Starting at time t = 0, a force
t = 2 s is [NCERT Exemplar] F = kt acts in the same direction on the moving
(a) 136 N (b) 134 N particle during time interval T, so that its
(c) 158 N (d) 68 N momentum changes from p to 3 p. Here, k is a
constant.
6. In a rocket of mass 1000 kg fuel is consumed at a The value of T is [JEE Main 2019]
rate of 40 kg/s. The velocity of the gases ejected
2p p
from the rocket is 5 ´ 104 m/s. The thrust on the (a) (b) 2
rocket is k k
(a) 2 ´ 103 N (b) 5 ´ 104 N 2k k
(c) (d) 2
(c) 2 ´ 106 N (d) 2 ´ 109 N p p
Laws of Motion and Friction 145
135° 90°
m F1
w = 10N
F3
(a) 5 N, zero (b) Zero, N
(a) ( 2 - 1) a (b) ( 2 + 1) a
(c) 5 N, 5 3 N (d) 5 3 N, 5 N
(c) 2 a (d) a
29. A piece of wire is bent in the shape of a parabola
25. The following figure is the part of a horizontally
y = kx2 (Y -axis vertical) with a bead of mass m on
stretched net section AB which is stretched with a
it. The bead can slide on the wire without friction.
force of 10 N. The tension in the section BC and BF
It stays at the lowest point of the parabola when
are
E the wire is at rest. The wire is now accelerated
150° 150° parallel to the X-axis with a constant acceleration
D a. The distance of the new equilibrium position of
the bead, where the bead can stay at rest with
respect to the wire, from the Y -axis is
120° a a 2a a
G C F H (a) (b) (c) (d)
gk 2 gk gk 4 gk
B
120° 120° Motion of Connected Bodies
A 30. Two blocks are in contact on a frictionless table.
(a) 10 N, 11 N One has mass m and other 2m. A force f is applied
(b) 10 N, 6 N on 2m as shown in figure. Next the same force F is
(c) 10 N, 10 N applied from the right on m. In the two cases
(d) Cannot calculate due to insufficient data respectively, the force of contact between the two
blocks will be
26. A mass of 10 kg is suspended by a rope of length
F F
4 m, from the ceiling. A force F is applied 2m m
horizontally at the mid-point of the rope such that
the top half of the rope makes an angle of 45° with (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 3
the vertical. Then, F equals (Take, g = 10 ms -2 and (c) 1 : 2 (d) 3 : 1
the rope to be massless) [JEE Main 2020,19]
(a) 75 N (b) 70 N (c) 100 N (d) 90 N 31. A wooden wedge of mass M and inclination angle a
rests on a smooth floor. A block of mass m is kept
27. A body of weight 2 kg is suspended as shown in on wedge. A force P is applied on the wedge as
figure. The tension T1 in the horizontal string
shown in figure, such that a block remains
(in kg-wt) is
stationary with respect to wedge. The magnitude of
30° force P is
m
P
M
α
2 kg-wt
(a) (M + m) g tan a (b) g tan a
(c) mg cos a (d) (M + m) g cosec a
(a) 2 3 (b) 3/2 (c) 3 (d) 2
Laws of Motion and Friction 147
32. Two blocks are connected by a string as F 36. A block is kept on a frictionless inclined surface
shown in the diagram. The upper block is T with angle of inclination a. The incline is given an
hung by another string. A force applied on acceleration a to keep the block stationary. Then, a
the upper string produces an acceleration 2 kg is equal to [AIEEE 2005]
of 2 m/s2 in the upward direction in both
the blocks. If T and T ¢ be the tensions in T
the two parts of the string, then
( Take, g = 9.8 m /s2 ) 4 kg a
(a) T = 70.8 N and T ¢ = 47.2 N
(b) T = 58.8 N and T ¢ = 47.2 N
(c) T = 70.8 N and T ¢ = 58.8 N g
(a) (b) g cosec
(d) T = 70.8 N and T ¢ = 0 tan a
33. A light spring balance hangs from the hook of the (c) g (d) g tan a
other light spring balance and a block of mass M kg
37. An elevator and its load have a total mass of
hangs from the former one. Then, the true
800 kg. The elevator is originally moving
statement about the scale reading is [AIEEE 2003]
downwards at 10 ms–1, it slows down to stop with
(a) both the scales read M kg each
constant acceleration in a distance of 25 m. Find
(b) the scale of the lower one reads M kg and of the
the tension T in the supporting cable while the
upper one zero
elevator is being brought to rest. (Take, g = 10 ms–2)
(c) the reading of the two scales can be anything but (a) 8000 N (b) 1600 N
the sum of the readings will be M kg
(c) 9600 N (d) 6400 N
(d) both the scales read M/2 kg
38. Two blocks of masses m1 = 4 kg and m2 = 2 kg are
34. Three blocks are placed at rest on a smooth
inclined plane with force acting on m1 parallel to connected to the ends of a string which passes over
the inclined plane. Find the contact force between a massless, frictionless pulley. The total downward
m2 and m3. thrust on the pulley is nearly
(a) 27 N (b) 54 N
m3 (c) 0.8 N (d) zero
m2
m1 39. A man wants to slide down a rope. The breaking
2
F
load for the rope rd of the weight of the man. With
3
(m1 + m2 + m3 ) F m3 F what minimum acceleration should fireman slide
(a) (b) down?
m3 m1 + m2 + m3
g g
(c) F - (m1 + m2) g (d) None of these (a) (b)
4 3
35. Given in the figure are two blocks A and B of 2g g
(c) (d)
weight 20 N and 100 N, respectively. These are 3 6
being pressed against a wall by a force F as shown
40. A sphere is accelerated upward by a cord whose
in figure. If the coefficient of friction between the
breaking strength is four times its weight. The
blocks is 0.1 and between block B and the wall is
maximum acceleration with which the sphere can
0.15, the frictional force applied by the wall in
move up without breaking the cord is
block B is [JEE Main 2015]
(a) g (b) 3 g
(c) 2 g (d) 4 g
F
A B 41. A body of mass 0.05 kg is observed to fall with an
acceleration of 9.5 ms –2 . The opposite force of air on
20N 100N
the body is (Take, g = 9.8 ms –2 )
(a) 0.015 N
(b) 0.15 N
(a) 100 N (b) 80 N (c) 0.030 N
(c) 120 N (d) 150 N
(d) zero
148 JEE Main Physics
42. The acceleration of the 500 g block in figure is 47. Two weights w1 and w2 are suspended from the
ends of a light string over a smooth fixed pulley. If
100 g the pulley is pulled up with acceleration g, the
tension in the string will be
4 w1w2 2 w1w2
(a) (b)
500 g
w1 + w2 w1 + w2
30° w1 - w2 w1w2
(c) (d)
w1 + w2 2 (w1 + w2)
50 g
48. A lift is moving down with acceleration a . A man in
6g 7g the lift drops a ball inside the lift. The acceleration
(a) downwards (b) downwards
13 13 of the ball as observed by the man in the lift and a
8g 9g man standing stationary on the ground are
(c) downwards (d) upwards
13 13 respectively [AIEEE 2002]
(a) g , g (b) g - a , g - a
43. A frictionless inclined plane of length l having (c) g - a , g (d) a , g
inclination q is placed inside a lift which is
accelerating downward with an acceleration a ( < g). 49. The monkey B shown in figure is holding
If a block is allowed to move down the inclined on to the tail of the monkey A which is
plane from rest, then the time taken by the block to climbing up a rope. The masses of the
slide from top of the inclined plane to the bottom of monkeys A and B are 5 kg and 2 kg
the inclined plane is respectively. If A can tolerate a tension of A
2l 2l 30 N in its tail, what force should it
(a) (b)
g g-a apply on the rope in order to carry the B
monkey B with it? (Take, g = 10 ms–2)
2l 2l
(c) (d) (a) 105 N (b) 108 N
g+ a ( g - a )sin q
(c) 10.5 N (d) 100 N
44. For the system shown in figure, the pulleys are light 50. Three equal weights A, B and C of mass 2 kg each
and frictionless. The tension in the string will be
are hanging on a string passing over a fixed
frictionless pulley as shown in the figure. The
tension in the string connecting weight B and C is
m
m
A
2 3 B
(a) mg sin q (b) mg sin q
3 2
1 C
(c) mg sin q (d) 2 mg sin q
2
(a) zero (b) 13 N
45. A spring balance is attached to the ceiling of a lift. (c) 3.3 N (d) 19.6 N
A man hangs his bag on the spring and the spring
reads 49 N, when the lift is stationary. If the lift 51. Two block of masses 7 kg and 5 kg are placed in
moves downward with an acceleration of 5 ms -2 , contact with each other on a smooth surface. If a
the reading of the spring balance will be [AIEEE 2003] force of 6 N is applied on a heavier mass the force
(a) 24 N (b) 74 N on the lighter mass is
(c) 15 N (d) 49 N 7 kg
52. Refer to the system shown in figure. The 56. Two fixed frictionless inclined plane making the
acceleration of the masses is angles 30° and 60° with the vertical are shown in
the figure. Two blocks A and B are placed on the
two planes. What is the relative vertical
acceleration of A with respect to B ? [AIEEE 2010]
T2
3 kg B T2 B
T1
T1
1 kg C A 5 kg 60° 30°
55. A blumb bob is hung from the ceiling of a train 60. A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice when
compartment. The train moves on an inclined track given a velocity of 6 ms -1 is stopped by friction in
of inclination 30° with horizontal. Acceleration of 10 s. Then, the coefficient of friction is [AIEEE 2003]
train up the plane is a = 9/2. The angle which the (a) 0.02 (b) 0.03
string supporting the bob makes with normal to the (c) 0.06 (d) 0.01
ceiling in equilibrium is
2 61. A box of mass m kg is placed on the rear side of an
(a) 30° (b) tan -1
3 open truck accelerating at 4 ms -2 . The coefficient
3 of friction between the box and the surface below it
(c) tan -1 (d) tan -1 2 is 0.4.
2
150 JEE Main Physics
The net acceleration of the box with respect to the 67. A block of weight 5 N is pushed against a vertical
truck is zero. The value of m is wall by a force 12 N. The coefficient of friction
(Take, g = 10 ms -2 ) between the wall and block is 0.6. The magnitude
(a) 4 kg (b) 8 kg of the force exerted by the wall on the block is
(c) 9.78 kg (d) It could be any value
100 N 10 kg
No friction B F
40 kg
71. A partly hanging uniform chain of length L is 75. A block of mass 3 kg resting on a horizontal
resting on a rough horizontal table. l is the surface. A force F is applied on the block as shown
maximum possible length that can hang in in figure. If coefficient of friction between the block
equilibrium. The coefficient of friction between the 1
chain and table is be what can be the maximum value of force F,
2 3
l L l lL
(a) (b) (c) (d) so that block does not start moving?
L-l l L L+l
(Take, g = 10 ms–2)
72. Two masses m1 = 5 kg and m2 = 10 kg connected by
an inextensible string over a frictionless pulley, are
F
moving as shown in the figure. The coefficient of
friction of horizontal surface is 0.15. The minimum 60°
weight m that should be put on top of m2 to stop √3 kg
the motion is [JEE Main 2018]
m (a) 20 N (b) 10 N
T
m2 (c) 12 N (d) 15 N
73. The minimum force required to start pushing a 77. A car starts from rest to cover a distance s. The
body up a rough (frictional coefficient m) inclined coefficient of friction between the road and the
plane is F1 while the minimum force needed to tyres is m. The minimum time in which the car can
prevent it from sliding down is F2 . If the inclined cover the distance is proportional to
plane makes an angle q from the horizontal such (a) m (b) m
F (c) 1 /m (d) 1 / m
that tan q = 2 m, then the ratio 1 is
F2
78. The coefficient of kinetic friction between a 20 kg
(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
box and the floor is 0.40. How much work does a
74. A point particle of mass m, moves along the pulling force do on the box in pulling it 8.0 m across
uniformly rough track PQR as shown in the figure. the floor at constant speed? The pulling force is
The coefficient of friction between the particle and directed 37° above the horizontal
the rough track equals m. The particle is released, (a) 343 J (b) 482 J
from rest , from the point P and it comes to rest at (c) 14.4 J (d) None of these
a point R. The energies, lost by the ball, over the
79. A block moves down a smooth inclined plane of
parts, PQ and QR, of the track, are equal to each
inclination q. Its velocity on reaching the bottom is
other, and no energy is lost when particle changes
v. If it slides down a rough inclined plane of same
direction from PQ to QR. The values of the
inclination, its velocity on reaching the bottom is
coefficient of friction m and the distance x(= QR), are
v/n, where n is a number greater than 1. The
respectively close to [JEE Main 2016]
coefficient of friction is given by
P
æ 1ö
(a) m = tan q ç1 - 2 ÷
è n ø
h=2m
æ 1ö
30º R (b) m = cot q ç1 - 2 ÷
è n ø
O
Horizontal Q 1/ 2
æ 1ö
surface (c) m = tan q ç1 - 2 ÷
è n ø
(a) 0.2 and 6.5 m (b) 0.2 and 3.5 m
1/ 2
(c) 0.29 and 3.5 m (d) 0.29 and 6.5 m æ 1ö
(d) m = cot q ç1 - 2 ÷
è n ø
ROUND II Mixed Bag
Only One Correct Option 6. Two persons are holding a rope of negligible weight
1. 80 railway wagons all of same mass 5 × 10 kg are 3 tightly at its ends so that it is horizontal. A 15 kg
pulled by an engine with a force of 4 × 10 N. The5 weight is attached to rope at the mid-point which
tension in the coupling between 30th and 31st now no more remains horizontal. The minimum
wagon from the engine is tension required to completely straighten the rope
(a) 25 × 10 4 N (b) 40 × 10 4 N is
(c) 20 × 10 4 N (d) 32 × 10 4 N (a) 15 kg (b) (15/2) kg
(c) 5 kg (d) infinitely large
2. A gardner waters the plants by a pipe of diameter
1 mm. The water comes out at the rate of 10 cm3 s–1. 7. A mass of 6 kg is suspended by a rope of length 2 m
The reactionary force exerted on the hand of the from a ceiling. A force of 50 N is applied in the
gardner is horizontal direction at the mid-point of the rope.
(a) zero The angle made by the rope, with the vertical, in
(b) 1.27 ´ 10–2 N equilibrium position will be (Take, g = 10 ms -2 ,
(c) 1.27 ´ 10–4 N neglect the mass of the rope)
(d) 0.127 N (a) 90º (b) 60º
(c) 50º (d) 40º
3. When forces F1, F2 , F3 are acting on a particle of
mass m such that F2 and F3 are mutually 8. The pulley and strings shown in figure are smooth
perpendicular, then the particle remains and of negligible mass. For the system to remain in
stationary. If the force F1 is now removed, then the equilibrium, the angle q should be
acceleration of the particle is
(a) F1/ m (b) F2F3 / mF1
(c) (F2 - F3 ) / m (d) F2/ m
θ
4. A block of mass m slides along a floor while a force
of magnitude F is applied to it at an angle q as
shown in figure. The coefficient of kinetic friction is √2 m
m k, then the block’s acceleration a is given by
(g is acceleration due to gravity) [JEE Main 2021] m m
F
(a) 0º (b) 30º
(c) 45º (d) 60º
θ
9. A 24 kg block resting on a floor has a rope tied to
its top. The maximum tension, the rope can
withstand without breaking is 310 N. The
F æ F ö
(a) - cos q - mK ç g - sin q÷ minimum time in which the block can be lifted a
m è m ø
vertical distance of 4.6 m by pulling on the rope is
F æ F ö (a) 1.2 s (b) 1.3 s
(b) cos q - mK ç g - sin q÷
m è m ø (c) 1.7 s (d) 2.3 s
F æ F ö
(c) cos q - mK ç g + sin q÷ 10. A rope of mass 0.1 kg is connected at the same
m è m ø
height of two opposite walls. It is allowed to hang
F æ F ö under its own weight. At the constant point
(d) cos q + mK ç g - sin q÷
m è m ø between the rope and the wall, the rope makes an
angle q = 10° with respect to horizontal. The tension
5. A 5 kg stationary bomb is exploded in three parts in the rope at its mid-point between the wall is
having mass 1 : 1 : 3 respectively. Parts having (a) 2.78 N (b) 2.56 N
same mass move in perpendicular directions with (c) 2.82 N (d) 2.71 N
velocity 39 ms–1, then the velocity of bigger part
will be 11. Block A of mass m and block B of mass 2m are
-1 10 placed on a fixed triangular wedge by means of a
(a) 10 2 ms (b) ms -1
2 massless, inextensible string and a frictionless at
15 45° to the horizontal on both the side. If the
(c) 13 2 ms -1 (d) ms -1
2 coefficient of friction between the block A and the
Laws of Motion and Friction 153
wedge is 2/3 and that between the block B and the 16. A block at rest slides down a smooth inclined plane
wedge is 1/3 and both blocks A and B are released which makes an angle 60° with the vertical and it
from rest, the acceleration of A will be [UP SEE 2008] reaches the ground in t1 seconds. Another block is
dropped vertically from some point and reaches the
ground in t2 seconds, then the ratio of t1 : t2 is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 2
f0 f0
—– —– C
mb mb
(a) (b)
v(t) v(t) (a) 16 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 80
t t 19. A small ball of mass m is thrown upward with
f0 f0 velocity u from the ground. The ball experiences a
—–
mb
—–
mb resistive force mkv2 , where v is its speed. The
maximum height attained by the ball is
(c) (d) [JEE Main 2020]
v(t) v(t) 1 æ ku 2 ö 1 æ ku 2 ö
(a) tan -1 ç ÷ (b) ln ç1 + ÷
t t k è 2g ø 2k è g ø
1 æ ku 2 ö 1 æ ku 2 ö
14. A mass m hangs with the help of a string wrapped (c) ln ç1 + ÷ (d) tan -1 ç ÷
k è 2g ø 2k è g ø
around a pulley on a frictionless bearing. The
pulley has mass m and radius R. Assuming pulley
20. A circular disc with a groove along its diameter is
to be the perfect uniform circular disc, the
placed horizontally. A block of mass 1 kg is placed
acceleration of the mass m. If the string does not
as shown. The coefficient of friction between the
slip on the pulley, is 2
2 block and all surfaces of groove in contact is m = ,
(a) g (b) g 5
3
g 3
the disc has an acceleration of 25 m/s2 . Find the
(c) (d) g acceleration of block with respect to disc.
3 2 [JEE Main 2021]
15. A ball of mass 0.2 kg is thrown vertically upwards
by applying a force by hand. If the hand moves 0.2 m
a = 25 m/s2
while applying the force and the ball goes upto 2 m
height further, find the magnitude of the force. θ 4 3
cos θ = —, sin θ = —
(Take, g = 10 m/s2 ) 5 5
(a) 4 N (b) 16 N (a) 10 m/s 2 (b) 5 m/s 2
(c) 20 N (d) 22 N (c) 20 m/s 2 (d) 1 m/s 2
154 JEE Main Physics
21. A block of mass 15 kg is resting on a rough inclined 26. A man of mass M is standing on a board of mass m.
plane as shown in figure. The block is tied by a The friction coefficient between the board and the
horizontal string which has a tension of 50 N. The floor is m, shown in figure. The maximum force that
coefficient of friction between the surfaces of the man can exert on the rope so that the board does
contact is (Take, g = 10 ms–2) not move is
T
T T
M F
T
R
45°
T
f
(a) 1/2 (b) 3/4
(m +M)g
(c) 2/3 (d) 1/4
m (m + M ) g
22. A given object takes n times more time to slide down (a) m (m + M ) g (b)
m+1
a 45° rough inclined plane as it takes to slide down a m (m + M ) g
perfectly smooth 45° incline. The coefficient of (c) (d) None of these
m -1
kinetic friction between the object and the incline is
1 1 27. If coefficient of friction between an insect and bowl
(a) (b) 1 - is m and radius of the bowl is r, the maximum
1 - n2 n2
1 1
height to which the insect can crawl in the bowl is
(c) 1 - 2 (d) æ 1 ö÷ r
n 1 - n2 (a) r çç1 - (b)
÷
è 1 + m2 ø 1 + m2
23. A body of mass M is kept on a rough horizontal
surface (friction coefficient m). A person is trying to (c) r 1 + m 2 (d) r ( 1 + m 2 - 1)
pull the body by applying a horizontal force but the
body is not moving. The force by the surface on the 28. A block is moving on an inclined plane making an
body is F, where angle 45° with the horizontal and the coefficient of
(a) F = Mg friction is m. The force required to just push it up
(b) F = mMgF the inclined plane is 3 times the force required to
just prevent it from sliding down. If we define
(c) Mg £ f £ Mg 1 + m 2
N = 10 m, then N is
(d) Mg ³ f ³ Mg 1 + m 2
mg/√2
24. The upper half of an inclined plane with inclination F1 m
f is perfectly smooth, while the lower half is rough.
A body starting from rest at the top will again come
to rest at the bottom if coefficient of friction for the µ mg/√2
lower half is given by
45°
(a) 2 sin f (b) 2 cos f
(c) 2 tan f (d) tan f (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
25. An insect crawls up a hemispherical surface very 29. A block of mass 200 kg is being pulled up by men
slowly, figure. The coefficient of friction between on an inclined plane at angle of 45° as shown in
the insect and the surface is 1/3. If the line joining figure. The coefficient of static friction is 0.5. Each
the centre of the hemispherical surface to the insect man can only apply a maximum force of 500 N.
makes an angle a with the vertical, the maximum Calculate the number of men required for the block
possible value of a is given by to just start moving up the plane.
30. A block kept on a rough inclined plane, as shown in 34. A block B of mass 1 kg is placed on a light plank
the figure, remains at rest upto a maximum force shown in figure. A force F of 10 N is applied on the
2 N down the inclined plane. The maximum plank horizontally. The acceleration (in m/s2 ) of
external force up the inclined plane that does not block B is …… .
move the block is 10 N. The coefficient of static
friction between the block and the plane is F
(Take, g = 10 m/ s2) [JEE Main 2019] B
1 0N A
Smooth
30° F=20 N θ
A
30° [JEE Main 2020]
F=20 N
(A) (B) 37. Consider a uniform cubical box of side a on a rough
floor that is to be moved by applying minimum
(a) 0.4 ms -2 (b) 3.2 ms -2 possible force F at a point b above its centre of mass
(c) 0.8 ms -2 (d) 0 ms -2 (see figure). If the coefficient of friction is m = 0.4,
b
the maximum possible value of 100 ´ for box not
Numerical Value Questions a
33. It is found that when 0.5 m was cut-off from the to topple before moving is ……… .
muzzle of a gun firing block of 50 kg, the velocity of
F
the block was changed from 700 m/s to 600 m/s.
The force exerted on the block by the powder of gas
at the muzzle when expanded in the bore was
. ´ 10n N. The value of n is …… .
65 [JEE Main 2020]
156 JEE Main Physics
38. A block starts moving up an inclined plane of move together is ………… N. (Round off to the
inclination 30° with an initial velocity of v0 . It nearest integer) (Take, g = 9.8 ms -2 )
v
comes back to its initial position with velocity 0 . m
2
The value of the coefficient of kinetic friction M F
between the block and the inclined plane is close to [JEE Main 2021]
I
, the nearest integer to I is .......... .
1000 41. A boy of mass 4 kg is standing on a piece of wood
[JEE Main 2020] having mass 5 kg. If the coefficient of friction
39. A body of mass 1 kg rests on a horizontal floor with between the wood and the floor is 0.5, the
1 maximum force that the boy can exert on the rope
which it has a coefficient of static friction
. It is
3 so that the piece of wood does not move from its
desired to make the body move by applying the place is ……… N. (Round off to the nearest
minimum possible force F N. The value of F will be integer). [Take, g = 10 ms -2 ] [JEE Main 2021]
……… . (Round off to the nearest integer)
(Take, g = 10 ms -2 ) [JEE Main 2021] T
T
40. Two blocks ( m = 05
. kg and M = 4.5 kg) are arranged F
R
on a horizontal frictionless table as shown in figure. T
The coefficient of static friction between the two
3
blocks is , then the maximum horizontal force that T
7
can be applied on the larger block so that the blocks
Answers
Round I
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (b)
51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (c)
61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (a)
71. (a) 72. (b) 73. (d) 74. (c) 75. (a) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (b) 79. (a)
Round II
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. 6 34. 5 35. 2 36. 3 37. 75 38. 346 39. 5 40. 21
41. 30
Solutions
Round I This velocity is supplied to the ball by the hand and
m (v - u ) 0.15 [20 – (–10)] 0.15 ´ 30 initially the hand was at rest, so it requires this velocity
1. F = = = = 45 N
t 0.1 0.1 during travelled distance of 0.2 m,
u2 40
2. 2 mnv = Mg \ a= = = 100 m /s 2
2 s 2 ´ 0.2
Mg
\ v= So, upward force on the ball,
2 mn
10 ´ 980 F = m (g + a)
or u= = 0.2 (10 + 100)
2 ´ 5 ´ 10
= 0.2 ´ 110 = 22 N
9800
= cms –1 = 98 cms –1
100 9. Mass of the body, m = 3.0 kg
3. The force acting on the satellite is given by Initial speed, u = 2.0 m/s
d dv dM Final speed, v = 3.5 m/s
F = (Mv) = M +v
dt dt dt Time, t = 25 s
dv æ dM ö Force, F =?
=M + v (av) çQ = av÷
dt è dt ø Using the first equation of motion, v = u + at
We know that, net force on satellite is zero, \ 3.5 = 2.0 + a ´ 25
3.5 - 2.0
dv or a= m / s2
i.e. M + v (av) = 0 25
dt
1.5
dv - v2a Acceleration, a = m / s2
Þ Acceleration, a = = 25
dt M \Force acting on the body,
4. Force applied by engine = 6 m 1.5 4.5
F = ma = 3.0 ´ = N = 0.18 N
When two cars are pulled, 25 25
(m + m) a = 6 m As direction of motion of the body remains unchanged,
therefore the direction of force acting on the body is
or 2 ma = 6 m along the direction of motion.
or a = 3 ms –2
10. Mass of the body, m = 5 kg
5. Given, x (t ) = pt + qt 2 + rt3 and p = 3 ms –1, q = 4 ms –2, Force acting on body, F1 = 8 N
r = 5 ms –3 , then x (t ) = 3 t + 4 t 2 + 5 t3
d 2x (t )
a= = 8 + 30 t F
dt 2 F2 = 6 N
\ t = 2s
α
\ a = 8 + 30 ´ 2 = 68
F1 = 8 N
Now, F = m ´ a = 2 ´ 68 = 136 N
Force perpendicular to force F1 on the body,
6. Thrust, F = u æç
dm ö 4 6
÷ = 5 ´ 10 ´ 40 = 2 ´ 10 N F2 = 6 N
è dt ø
Angle between two forces, q = 90°
dm
7. F = v = 10 ´ 5 N = 50 N Resultant force acting on the body,
dt
F = F12 + F22 + 2F1F2 cos q
8. Let the ball starts moving with velocity
u and it reaches upto maximum height = (8)2 + (6) 2 + 2 ´ 8 ´ 6 ´ cos 90°
H max , then from Hmax = 2 m
= 64 + 36 (Q cos 90° = 0)
u2
H max = = 10 N
2g
If resultant force F makes an angle a with force F1,
Þ u = 2 g (H max ) then
0.2 m
= 2 ´ 10 ´ 2 F 6
tan a = 2 = = 0.75 = tan 36° 33¢
= 2 10 m/s F1 8
a = 36°53¢
JEE NEET ADDA
This Pdf Is
Download From
www.jeeneetadda.in
VISIT NOW !!
158 JEE Main Physics
or V =
v 20
´ =
v h=
20 21 21 2g
Laws of Motion and Friction 159
As we know that, at the maximum height, velocity of 24. Since, acceleration acts in the direction of force, hence
the ball thrown would be zero. according to diagram,
So, for the flight when the ball is thrown till it reaches resultant acceleration (a )R = 2a - a
the maximum height (h ). a
v ® changes from u to 0
√2 a
Þ p ® changes from mu to 0
Similarly, when it reacher it’s initial point, then
a
h ® changes from hmax to 0
Also, p ® changes from 0 to some values. a
Thus, these conditions are only satisfied in the plot (a )R = ( 2 - 1) a
given in option (d).
25. By drawing the free body diagram of point B. Let the
22. Mass of the ball, m = 0.15 kg tension in the section BC and BF be T1 and T2,
5 respectively.
Velocity of the ball, v = 54 km/h = 54 ´ m/s = 15 m/s
18 From Lami’s theorem,
Let the ball be incident along path PO. Batsman deflects C F
the ball by an angle of 45° along both OQ. 120° T2
T1
N 120° 120°
P Q B
T =10 N
u cos θ T3
u u
A
°
22.5°
22. 5
T1 T2 T
= =
45° sin 120° sin 120° sin 120°
u sin θ
O u sin θ Þ T = T1 = T2 = 10 N
θ
26. Given situation is as shown below.
u cos θ u
45° 45º T cos 45º
ÐPON = ÐNOQ = = 22.5° T
2 45º
The horizontal component of velocity u sin q remains F
unchanged while vertical component of velocity is just T sin 45º
reversed.
\ Impulse imparted to the ball 10 kg
= Change in linear momentum of the ball
= mu cos q - (- mu cos q) We resolve tension T in string into vertical and
= 2 mu cos q = 2 ´ 0.15 ´ 15 ´ cos 22.5° horizontal components.
= 4.5 ´ 0.9239kg-m/s = 4.16 kg-m/s For equilibrium, F = T sin 45° ...... (i)
~
- 4 kg-m/s and Mg = T cos 45° ....... (ii)
23. In case of projectile motion at the highest point, On dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii), we get
(v)vertical = 0 F
= tan 45° or F = Mg = 10 ´ 10 = 100 N
and (v)horizontal = v cos q Mg
The initial linear momentum of the system will be 27. According to equilibrium of forces at point O,
mv cos q. Now, as force of blasting is internal and force of T sin 30 ° = 2 kg-wt
gravity is vertical. T sin 30°
So, linear momentum of the system along horizontal is
conserved.
30°
p1 + p2 = mv cos q T
m1v1 + m2v2 = mv cos q 30° O
m
But it is given that m1 = m2 = and as one part T cos 30° T1
2
retraces its path, v1 = - v cos q
1 1
\ m (- v cos q) + mv2 = mv cos q
2 2 2 kg-wt
or v2 = 3 v cos q
160 JEE Main Physics
35. In vertical direction, weights are balanced by frictional 40. Here, the tension in the cord is given by
forces. T = mg + ma T
Consider FBD of block A and B as shown in figure. Here, upward acceleration = a
fA fB Mass of sphere = M
a
T = 4 mg
Þ 4 mg = mg + ma
F N
3 mg = ma
mg
Þ a =3 g
20 N fA 100 N
41. Here, mass of the body, fair
As the blocks are in equilibrium, balance forces are in M = 0.05 kg
horizontal and vertical direction. Acceleration, g = 9.8 ms –2, a = 9.5 ms –2
For the system of blocks ( A + B), \ mg - fair = ma a
F =N Þ fair = m ( g - a )
For block A, fA = 20 N and for block B, = 0.05 (9.8 – 9.5)
mg
fB = fA + 100 = 120 N = 0.015 N
36. In the frame of wedge, the force diagram of block is 42. The given situation is shown below.
shown in figure. From free body diagram of wedge, Let a be the common acceleration.
N
ma cos α a T2
T2
α 0 °
ma in3 a
gs B C
α 0.1
mg sin α T1 0.1 kg
mg cos α 0.5 kg
+ mg a
ma sin α α 30°
a T1
For block to remain stationary, A
ma cos a = mg sin a or a = g tan a
37. As the elevator is going down with T 0.05 kg
decreasing speed, so acceleration is mB = 100 g = 0.1 kg
in upward direction. Let it be a, mC = 500 g = 0.5 kg
T - 800 g = 800 a v = 10 ms–1 mA = 50 g = 0.05 kg
T = 800 ( g + a ) Equation of motion for the mass A,
v=0
From v2 = u 2 - 2as T1 - 0.05 g = 0.05 a …(i)
Þ 102 = 0 - 2 ´ a ´ 25 800 g Equation of motion for the mass B,
\ a = 2 ms –2 T2 = 0.1 g sin 30° - T1 = 0.1 a
\ T = 800 (10 + 2), T2 - T1 - 0.05 g = 0.1 a …(ii)
\ T = 9600 N Equation of motion for the mass C,
2 m1m2 2 ´ 4 ´ 2 ´ 10 0.5 g - T2 = 0.5 a …(iii)
38. T = g=
m1 + m2 4+2 Adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have
160 T2 - 0.1 g = 0.15 a
= = 26.6 » 27 N
6 Þ T2 = 0.1 g + 0.15 a …(iv)
Total downward thrust on the pulley
Putting the value of T2 from Eq. (iv) in Eq. (iii), we get
= 2 T = 2 ´ 27 = 54 N
0.5 g - 0.1 g - 0.15 a = 0.5 a
2
39. Tension in rope, T < Breaking load, mg Þ 0.4 g = 0.65 a
3
2 0.4 g 8 g
\ m (g - a) < mg Þ a= = (downwards)
3 0.65 13
g 43. Effective value of acceleration due to gravity in the lift
or a>
3 = g-a
162 JEE Main Physics
m
si
or T - m2g - w2 = m2a (Q a 0 = g )
g
m
or T - 2 w2 = m2a …(i)
\ mg sin q - T = T
From force diagram, m1a 0 + w1 - T = m1 a
or 2 T = mg sin q
or m1a 0 + w1 - T = m1 a
1
or T = mg sin q or 2 w1 - T = m1a …(ii) (Q a 0 = g )
2
4 w1w2
45. In stationary position, spring balance reading = mg = 49 From Eqs. (i) and (ii), T =
w1 + w2
49
or m= = 5 kg 48. Apparent weight of ball,
9.8
w ¢ = w - R (where, R = normal reaction)
R = ma (acting upward)
w ¢ = mg - ma = m( g - a )
T Hence, apparent acceleration in the lift is g - a. Now,
if the man is standing stationary on the ground, then
a the apparent acceleration of the falling ball is g.
49. If A is climbing with constant velocity, then
T ¢ = 5 g + T and T = 2 g
mg T¢ = 5 g + 2 g = 7 g
Suppose A is climbing with acceleration a such that
When lift moves downward, mg - T = ma T = 30 N
Reading of balance, T -2 a = 2 a
T = mg - ma = 5 (9.8 - 5) 30 - 2 ´ 10 = 2 a T
= 5 ´ 4.8 = 24.0 N or a = 5 ms –2 A 5g
T
46. Let acceleration of system (rope + block) be a along the Again, T¢ -T -5 g = 5 a
5g
P or T¢ = T + 5 g + 5 a
direction of applied force, then a = . T
M +m or T ¢ = (30 + 50 + 25) N
a B 2g
= 105 N
m 2g
M P 50. Tension between m2 and m3 is given by
Frictionless
surface
Draw the FBD of block and rope as shown in the
following figure
a a
m
M T T P
m1 A
B m2
where, T is the required parameter.
For block, T = Ma
MP m3
Þ T= C
M +m
Laws of Motion and Friction 163
F
F = N 2 + fs2 = (12)2 + (5)2 = 13 N
10 N R
68. As, F = FAB + FBG
w
A
R = 10 N fAB
F = w and F = m R B
fBG
\ mR = w Ground
or w = 0.2 ´ 10 = 2 N
= m AB ma g + mBG (mA + mB ) g
65. From third equation of motion,
= 0.2 ´100 ´ 10 + 0.3 ´ (300) ´ 10
v2 = u 2 - 2as
= 200 + 900 = 1100 N
Given, v=0 (car is stopped)
Laws of Motion and Friction 165
30°
mg 74. Energy lost over path PQ = m mg cos q ´ 4
P
or f = mg sin q - ma = m ( g sin q - a )
æ 1 ö 4m
= 8 ç10 ´ - 0.4÷ N = 8 ´ 4.6 N = 36.8 N h=2m
è 2 ø
30º
70. For equilibrium of the block, O 2 3 mQ x R
N = mg + Q cos q
Energy lost over path QR = mmgx
Q sin q + P = mN
i.e. m mg cos 30° ´ 4 = m mgx (Q q = 30° )
Q sin q + P = m (mg + Q cos q)
x = 2 3 = 3.45 m
N
From Q to R energy loss is half of the total energy loss.
N
1
i.e. mmgx = ´ mgh
P 2
N P + Q sin Þ m = 0.29
The values of the coefficient of friction m and the
Q distance x(= QR) are 0.29 and 3 .5.
mg
mg +Q cos 75. From acting on block are shown in adjoining figure
N
æ Q sin q + P ö
\ m=ç ÷
è mg + Q cos q ø F cos 60°
71. If m is the mass/length, then 60°
weight of hanging length = m lg f =µN F
Weight of chain on table = m (L - l ) g Mg +F sin 60°
Q R = m (L - l ) g
As the block does not move, hence
\ f = m sR = m sm (L - l ) g
F cos 60° = f = mN = m (Mg + F sin 60° )
Equating m sm (L - l ) g = mlg
1 1 æ 3ö
l \ F = ç 30 ´ 10 + F ÷
or ms = 2 2 3 è 2 ø
L-l
On simplification, we get F = 20 N
72. Motion stops when pull due to m1 £ force of friction
between m and m 2 and surface. 76. Let the length of chain be l and mass m. Let a part x of
Þ m1 g £ m(m2 + m) g chain can hang over one edge of table having coefficient
of friction.
Þ 5 ´ 10 £ 0.15(10 + m) ´ 10 x
l
Þ m ³ 23.33 kg
Here, nearest value is 27.3 kg. x
So, mmin = 27.3 kg
73. F1 = mg (sin q + m cos q) (as body just in position
to move up, friction force downward) mx
\ Pulling force, F = g
F2 = mg (sin q - m cos q) l
m
(as body just in position and friction force, f = mN = m (l - x) g
l
to slide down, friction upward)
For equilibrium, F = f , hence
m mx m m
× g = m (l - x) g = 0.25 (l - x) g
l l l
o sθ l
F1 gc Þ x=
µm 5
θ+
sin x 1
mg θ \ % change in = ´ 100 = 20%
l 5
166 JEE Main Physics
77. Force on the car, Tension in the coupling between 30th and 31st wagon
will be due to mass of remaining 50 wagons. Now, mass
F = mR
of remaining 50 wagons.
or ma = m mg (Q R = mg )
m = 50 ´ 5 ´ 103 kg = 25 ´ 104 kg
or a = mg
\Required tension, T = mg = 25 ´ 104 ´ 1
Now, from second equation of motion,
= 25 ´ 104 N
1
s = ut + at 2 v
2 2. Rate of flow water, = 10 cm3s -1
t
1 2
or s = 0 + at (Q u = 0) Density of water, r = 103 kg /m3
2
Cross-sectional area of pipe OA = p (0.5 ´ 10-3 )2
2s dv mv Vrv rv v
or t= Force = m = = = ´
mg dt t t t At
2
2s æ vö l æ v ö
\ t= =ç ÷ çQ V = ÷
mg ètø A è At ø
or tµ
1 (10 ´ 10-6 )2 ´ 103
m F = = 0.127 N
p ´ (0.5 ´ 10-3 )2
78. The work done by the force is F cos 37°, 3. As F2 and F3 are mutually perpendicular, their
where F cos 37° = f = mN resultant = F22 + F32
F sin 37° As particle is stationary under F1 , F2, F3 , therefore
F F22 + F32 must be equal and opposite to F1.
37° The force F1 is now removed. So, the resultant of F2
F cos 37°
and F3 will now make the particle move with force
f 20 kg equal to F1 . Hence, the acceleration is F1 /m.
4. F sin θ
N F
mg N
Round II
θ
1. Total mass of 80 wagons = 80 ´ 5 ´ 103 = 4 ´ 105 kg T T
F 4 ´ 105
Acceleration, a = = = 1 ms -2
M 4 ´ 105 mg
Laws of Motion and Friction 167
°
50 6 ´ 10
45
In D SBA, = 2mg cos 45° g
sin
R 2 mg co
SA SB 2mg s4
g
m µ 2 45°
45° 5°
SA 50 5
or = =
SB 60 6
The equation of motion for body B,
SA 5
or tan q = = = 0.8333 = tan 40° 2mg sin 45° - m1R1 - T2 = 2ma
SB 6
1
\ q = 40° 2mg sin 45°- 2mg cos 45°-T = 2ma
3
8. If T is tension in each part of the string holding mass 1 1 1
2 m, then in equilibrium, Þ 2mg ´ - 2mg ´ - T = 2ma
2 3 2
T cos q + T cos q = 2 mg
In this problem as (mB = mA ) g sin q = (mg/ 2 ) is lesser
than (mB mB + m AmA ) g cos q = (4mg/ 3 2 ), the masses will
not move and hence,
θ θ acceleration of B = acceleration of A = 0
T T T T
m 5
2m 12. a = = 1 ms -2
m 5
mg Upward distance covered in 4 s,
1 1
2T cos q = 2 mg y = at 2 = ´ 1 ´ (4)2 = 8 m
2 2
But T = mg
Horizontal distance covered in 4s,
\ 2mg cos q = 2 mg
x = vt = 1.5 ´ 4 = 6 m
1
cos q =
2 s = x2 + y2 = 62 + 82
q = 45° = 36 + 64 = 10 m
dv -bt
9. Effective upward force = 310 - mg 13. m = f0e
dt
= 310 - 24 ´ 9.8 = 74.8 N dv f0 -bt
Upward acceleration, Þ = e
dt m
a = 74.8 / 24 = 3.12 ms -2 v f0 t -bt
As,
1
s = ut + at 2
Þ ò0dv = m ò0 e dt
2 t
1 f0 æ e-bt ö
Þ 4.6 = 0 + ´ 3.12 ´ t 2 Þ v= ç ÷
2 m è -b ø 0
2 4.6
Þ t = = 2.95 f0
1.56 Þ v= (1 - ebt )
mb
Þ t = 2.95 » 1.7s Hence, option (a) is correct.
168 JEE Main Physics
Þ = =
t22 cos 2 60° 1
t1 2
Þ =
t2 1
A
17. Let T be the tension in the string. Let a be the
0.2 m
T T
Then, for PA, v2 = 02 + 2 a ´ 0.2 N
For AB, 0 = v2 - 2 ´ g ´ 2 a
a
Þ v2 = 2 g ´ 2 37
°
3°
7°
mg
s5
sin
s3
37° 53°
From above equations,
co
g
co
sin
m mg
a = 10 g = 100 ms -2
mg
mg
37° mg
53° 53
°
F
Adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
mg (sin 53°- sin 37° )
a=
a = 10g
2m
= g cos 45° sin 8°
é æ A + Bö æ A - Böù
êQ sin A - sin B = 2 cos çè 2 ÷ø sin çè 2 ÷ø ú
mg ë û
1
Then, for PA, FBD of ball is = 10 ´ ´ 0.139
2
F - mg = ma (F is the force exerted by hand on ball)
= 0.98 ms -1 @ 1 ms -2
Þ F = m( g + a ) = 0.2 (10 + 100) = 22 N
18. The free body diagram of the person can be drawn as
16. Let L be the length and H be the height of the inclined T
plane, respectively. Acceleration of the block slide down a
the smooth inclined plane is
Person
60° 60 g
L
H
Let the person move up with an acceleration a, then
T - 60 g = 60a
Laws of Motion and Friction 169
Tmax - 60 g 1 g 1
2k òg + ku2 t
Þ a max = Þ dt = - [ y] H0
60
360 - 60 g 1
or a max = ® - ve value Þ [ln(t )]g 2 = - [H - 0]
60 2k g + ku
T 1 é æ g + ku 2 ö ù 1 æ ku 2 ö
= ê ln ç ÷ú = ln ç1 + ÷
a 2k êë è g ø úû 2k è g ø
Person
20. The free body diagram of the given system is given as
N1
60 g f1
f2 ma sin θ
60 g - T = 60 a
Þ 60 g - Tmax = 60 a min
ma
60 g - 360 θ
or a min = = 4 ms -2
60
N2
19. v=0
Sign conventions ma cos θ
m mg
⇒+ve
Given, m = 1 kg,
⇒ –ve
2 4 3
m = , a = 25 ms -2, cos q = , sin q =
H 5 5 5
mg+mkv2 u
Here, f1 and f2 are the two frictional forces
a= corresponding to the two points of contact.
m
= g+kv2 m If a¢ be the acceleration of the block with respect to
disc, then from above figure,
Net force on ball = Weight of ball + Resistive force ma cos q - f1 - f2 = ma ¢
i.e. Fnet = w + Fresistive = (-mg ) + (-mkv2) Þ ma cos q - mN 1 - mN 2 = ma ¢
= - m( g + kv2) Þ ma cos q - mmg - mma sin q = ma ¢
So, net acceleration of ball, Þ a ¢ = a cos q - mg - ma sin q
F -m( g + kv2) 4 2 2 3
a = net = = - ( g + kv2) = 25 ´ - ´ 10 - ´ 25 ´
m m 5 5 5 5
dv vdv = 20 - 4 - 6 = 10 ms -2
Þ v = - ( g + kv2) Þ = - dy
dy ( g + kv2) 21. Figure shows free body diagram of the block,
Integrating both sides, we get
T cos 45°
0 v H
òu ( g + kv2)dv = - ò0 dy …(i)
R
T
µR
1
Þ vdv = dt
°
45
2k mg cos 45°
sin
mg
g
Lower limit
m
45°
If v = u, then g + ku 2 = t Þ t = g + ku 2
Upper limit
For equilibrium, along the plane,
If v = 0, then g + k(0)2 = t Þ t = g
mR + T cos 45° = mg sin 45°
Putting these values in Eq. (i), we get
1 T mg
dt mR + = …(i)
g
2k H 2 2
òg+ ku2 t = - ò0 dy
170 JEE Main Physics
m
g
g
l B
m
sin
mg
mo oth
C S i.e mg sin q = f = mR = mmg cos q
l AC
φ Rough or m = tan q =
O OC
From v2 - u 2 = 2as, OA 2 - OC 2 r 2 - y2
= =
v2 - 0 = 2 g sin f ´ l OC y
For the rough portion CO, r 2 - y2
or m2 =
u = v = 2 g sin f × l y2
v = 0, a = g (sin f = m cos f ) m 2y2 + y2 = r 2
s=l r
y=
From v - u 2 = 2as,
2
2
m +1
0 - 2 gl sin f = 2 g (sin f - m cos f )l
h = BC = OB - OC = r - y
- sin f = sin f - m cos f
m cos f = 2 sin f r æ 1 ö÷
=r- = r ç1 -
2 ç 2 ÷
m = 2 tan f m +1 è m +1ø
Laws of Motion and Friction 171
mg/√2 θ
sin θ
mg mg cos θ
45° f mg
θ
T
Free body diagram of block is, 2a
m2
F sin 30°
N m2 g
F
For m1, m1 g - 2m2 = m1 (a ) ...(ii)
30°
Free body diagram (FBD) of m1,
F cos 30°
2T
f=µN
a
m1 g
mg
Laws of Motion and Friction 173
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get Using result of Eq. (i), we get
m1 g - 2m2 g = 4m2 a + m1 a æa ö æaö
f ç + b÷ = N ç ÷
Þ a = 0 m /s 2 è2 ø è2ø
or T = m2g = 10 N Now, f = mmg and N = mg
For m, 2T = mg æa ö æaö
\ m mg ç + b÷ = mg ç ÷
20 è2 ø è2ø
Þ m= = 2 kg
10 æa ö a
Þ m ç + b÷ =
Free body diagram of m, è2 ø 2
2T As, m = 0.4
b 3
m \ =
a 4
mg b 3
Hence, 100 ´ = 100 ´ = 75
a 4
mg = 2T 38. Let m be the coefficient of kinetic friction between the
2 ´ 10 block and the inclined plane.
Þ m= = 2 kg
10
The free body diagram of the given situation is shown
36. Different forces acting on the inclined plane are shown below.
below.
F=µmgcos θ m
s v0/2
mg sin θ B
B
Smooth mg v0 µ
µ=ktan θ m 30°
C A
A While going from A to B, the acceleration of the block
As block stops at point A, this means work done by is
component of weight down the plane is dissipated in a1 = g sin 30° + mg cos 30°
doing work against friction. g mg 3
Þ mg sin q( AB) = mmg cos q( AC ) Þ a1 = +
2 2
Þ mg sin q(3 AC ) = mmg cos q( AC ) Þ a1 = 5 + 5 3 m …(i) (g = 10 ms -2)
Þ 3 tan q = m Let s be the distance between A and B.
Given, m = k tan q From third equation of motion,
Comparing both, we get v02 - 0 = 2a1s
Þ k =3 v2 v02
Þ s= 0 = …(ii)
37. According to the given situation, 2a1 2(5 + 5 3 m )
When the minimum force F capable to topple the block [using Eq. (i)]
is applied, the block will be on the verge of toppling. When the block comes back to its initial position (i.e.
v
a from B to A), its velocity is 0 .
F 2
b So, the acceleration of the block while coming from B
C mg N to A is
f
A a 2 = g sin 30°- mg cos 30°
As the block is not moving, we have friction f such g mg 3
Þ a2 = -
that 2 2
f =F … (i) Þ a2 = 5 - 5 3 m …(iii)
Also, note that reaction N acts from point A as block is Again, using third equation of motion, we get
at the verge of toppling. 2
æ v0 ö
To maintain the equilibrium, net torque about centre ç ÷ - 0 = 2a 2s
è2ø
of mass C is zero.
v02
æaö æaö Þ = 2a 2s
Þ F ×b + fç ÷ = Nç ÷ 4
è2ø è2ø
174 JEE Main Physics
v02 F cos q = mN
Þ s=
8a 2 F sin q + N = mg
v02 mmg
Þ s= …(iv) Þ F =
8(5 - 5 3 m ) cos q + m sin q
1
[using Eq. (iii)] ´ 10
mmg
Equating Eqs. (ii) and (iv), we get Fmin = = 3 =5N
1 + m2 2
v02 v02
= 3
2(5 + 5 3 m ) 8(5 - 5 3 m )
3
Þ 4(5 - 5 3 m ) = 5 + 5 3 m 40. a max = mg = ´ 9.8
7
Þ 20 - 20 3 m = 5 + 5 3 m F = (M + m) a max = 5 a max
Þ 25 3 m = 15 = 21 N
15 3
Þ m= = 41. N
25 3 5 3
3 T
Þ m=
5
346 µN T
Þ m = 0.346 =
1000
\ I = 346
9g
39. F
N + T = 90
θ
T = mN = 0.5 (90 - T )
1.5T = 45
N T = 30 N
07
Work, Energy
and Power
The terms work, energy and power are frequently used in everyday language. IN THIS CHAPTER ....
In physics, however the word work converse a definite and precise meaning.
Work
Energy is our capacity to do work and it is related to work. In other words, an
object with lots of energy can do lots of work. The term power is usually Conservative and Non-
associated with the time in which the work is done, i.e. the rate at which work Conservative Forces
is done. Energy
Work-Energy Theorem
Work Conservation of Mechanical
The scientific meaning of work is transfer of energy by mechanical means. Energy
Work is said to be done by a force, when a body a displaced actually through Power
some distance in the direction of applied force. The SI unit of work is joule (J)
and in CGS, it is erg.
1 joule (J) = 107 erg
s
W = F × s = F s cosq, where q is the angle between F and s.
Work done is a scalar or dot product of F and s.
Work can be positive, negative or even zero, also depending on the angle (q )
between the force vector F and displacement vector s. Work done by a force is
zero when q = 90°, it is positive when q < 90° and negative when q > 90°.
For example, when a person lifts a body, the work done by the lifting force is
positive (as q = 0° ) but work done by the force of gravity is negative (as
q = 180° ). Similarly, work done by centripetal force is always zero (as q = 90° ).
176 JEE Main Physics
2a
Work Done by a Variable Force Q WAB = ò - (y$i + x$j) (dy$j)
0
The force is said to be variable force, if it changes its [x -coordinate is constant \x = 2a]
2a
direction or magnitude or both. The work done by a =ò - (y$i + 2a$j) dy $j
0
variable force can be calculated as 2a 2a
r2 = ò ( -y $i × $j) dy - ò 2a dy ( $j × $j)
W = òr
1
F × dr 0 0
Example 11. A person trying to lose weight by burning fat Example 13. A particle of mass 0.5 kg travels in a straight
lifts a mass of 10 kg upto a height of 1 m, 1000 times. Assume
line with velocity v = ax3/ 2 , where a = 5m -1/ 2s-1 . The work
that, the potential energy lost each time he lowers the mass is
done by the net force during its displacement from x = 0 to
dissipated. How much fat will he use up considering the work
x = 2 m is
done only when the weight is lifted up? Fat supplies
(a) 50 J (b) 45 J
. ´ 107 J of energy per kg which is converted into
38
(c) 25 J (c) None of these
mechanical energy with a 20% of efficiency rate.
(Take, g = 9.8 ms-2) [JEE Main 2016] Sol. (a) Here, m = 0.5 kg,
(a) 2.45 ´ 10 -3 kg (b) 6.45 ´ 10 -3 kg v = ax3 / 2, a = 5 m–1/2 s-1, W = ?
(c) 9.89 ´ 10 -3 kg (d) 12.89 ´ 10 -3 kg Initial velocity (at x = 0), v1 = a ´ 0 = 0
Final velocity (at x = 2), v 2 = 5 ´ 23 / 2
Sol. (d) Given, potential energy burnt by lifting weight
Work done = Increase in KE
= mgh = 10 ´ 9.8 ´ 1 ´ 1000 = 9.8 ´ 10 4
1
= m(v 22 - v12)
If mass lost by a person be m, then energy dissipated 2
2 1
=m´ ´ 3.8 ´ 10 7 J W= ´ 0.5 [(5 ´ 23 / 2) 2 - 0 ] = 50 J
10 2
1
Þ 9.8 ´ 10 4 = m ´ ´ 3.8 ´ 10 7
5 Example 14. A particle which is experiencing a force, is
Þ m=
5
´ 10 -3 ´ 9.8 = 12. 89 ´ 10 -3 kg given by F = 3i$ - 12$j, undergoes a displacement of d = 4$i . If
3.8 the particle had a kinetic energy of 3 J at the beginning of the
displacement, what is its kinetic energy at the end of the
Example 12. A spring of spring constant 5 ´ 103 N/m is displacement? [JEE Main 2019]
stretched initially by 5 cm from the unstretched position.
(a) 9 J (b) 15 J (c) 12 J (d) 10 J
Then, the work required to stretch it further by another 5 cm
is Sol. (b) We know that, work done in displacing a particle at
(a) 12.50 N-m (b) 18.75 N-m displacement d under force F is given by
(c) 25.00 N-m (d) 6.25 N-m DW = F × d
By substituting given values, we get
Sol. (b) Work done to stretch the spring by 5 cm from mean
Þ DW = (3$i - 12$j) × ( 4$i )
position,
1 Þ DW = 12 J … (i)
W1 = kx12
2 Now, using work-energy theorem, we get
1
= ´ 5 ´ 10 3 ´ (5 ´ 10 -2 ) 2 = 6.25 J work done ( DW ) = change in kinetic energy ( DK)
2 or DW = K2 - K1 … (ii)
Work done to stretch the spring by 10 cm from mean position, Comparing Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
1 K2 - K1 = 12 J
W2 = k( x1 + x2) 2
2 or K2 = K1 + 12 J
1 Given, initial kinetic energy, K1 = 3 J
= ´ 5 ´ 10 3 (5 ´ 10 -2 + 5 ´ 10 -2) 2 = 25 J
2 \ Final kinetic energy, K2 = 3 J + 12 J = 15 J
Net work done to stretch the spring from 5 cm to 10 cm
= W2 - W1 = 25 - 6 × 25 Example 15. A block of mass m = 1kg moving on a
= 18.75 J horizontal surface with speed v = 2 ms-1 enters a rough patch
= 18.75 N-m ranging from x = 0.10 m to x = 2.01m. The retarding force Fr
on the block in this range inversely proportional to x over this
Work-Energy Theorem range
Work done by all the forces (conservative or k
Fr = - for 0.1 < x < 2.01 m
non-conservative, external or internal) acting on a x
particle or an object is equal to the change in its kinetic =0 for x < 01
. m and x > 2.01 m
energy of the particle. Thus, we can write, where, k = 0.5 J. The final kinetic energy of the block as it
1 crosses this patch is
W = DK = K f - K i = m( v 2f - vi2 )
2 (a) 5 J (b) 50 J
We can also write, K f = K i + W (c) 0.5 J (d) 500 J
Note In a non-inertial frame, work done by all the forces (including the Sol. (c) If Ki and Kf are initial and final kinetic energies
pseudo forces) = change in kinetic energy in non-inertial frame. corresponding to xi and xf , then
180 JEE Main Physics
xf 1 1
Kf - Ki = ò F dx or 2 ´ 10 ´ 1 = 1 ´ 10 ´ 1 + ´ 1´ v 2 + ´ 2v 2
xi 2 2
2.01 ( -k) or 20 = 10 + 0.5 v 2 + v 2
Kf = Ki + ò dx
0.1 x or 1.5v 2 = 10
2.01
1 10
Kf = mvi2 - k ln ( x) \ v2 = = 6.67
2 0.1
1.5
= 2 - 0.5 ln (20.1) or v = 2.58 ms–1
= 2 - 1.5
Example 17. The potential energy of a 1 kg particle free to
= 0.5 J
move along the X-axis is given by
æ x4 x2 ö
Conservation of Mechanical Energy V( x) = ç - ÷ J
è 4 2ø
The mechanical energy E of a system is the sum of its
kinetic energy K and its potential energy U. The total mechanical energy of the particle is 2 J, then the
E = K +U maximum speed (in ms -1) is [AIEEE 2006]
Sol. (b) Since, there is no friction anywhere, so mechanical Sol. (a) According to conservation of energy, potential energy at
energy will be conserved. height H is sum of kinetic energy and potential energy at h2.
Here, the speed of both the blocks are same. Let the speed be
v ms–1. Since block of 2 kg is coming down, hence the
H = 100 m
gravitational potential energy is decreasing while the gravitational h1 = 3 0 m h2 = 20 m
potential energy of 1 kg block is increasing.
So, kinetic energy of both the blocks will increase.
1
Hence, mBgh = mA gh +
1 1
mAv 2 + mBv 2 \ mgH = mv 2 + mgh2
2 2 2
Work, Energy and Power 181
1 dW
Þ mg (H - h2) = mv 2 Since, P = , which means W = ò Pdt = area under
2 dt
or v = 2 g (100 - 20) P-t curve [as shown in Fig. (b)].
or v = 2 ´ 10 ´ 80 Work Power
= 40 m/s
Power
The time rate of doing work is called power. If an θ
external force is applied to an object and if the work done Time dt Time
by this force is DW in the time interval Dt, then the (a) (b)
average power during this interval is defined as
DW Example 19. An advertisement claims that a certain
P= 1200 kg car can accelerate from rest to a speed of 25 ms–1 in
Dt
a time of 8 s. What average power must the motor produce to
The work done on the object contributes to increasing the cause this acceleration? (Ignore friction)
energy of the object.
(a) 45 kW (b) 45.9 kW
The instantaneous power is the limiting value of the (c) 46.9 kW (d) None of these
average power as Dt approaches zero.
DW dW Sol. (c) The work done in accelerating the car is given by
i.e. P = lim = 1 1
Dt ® 0 D t dt W = DK = m (v f2 - v12) = (1200) [(25) 2 - 0 2]
2 2
where we have represented the infinitesimal value of the
work done by dW. or W = 375 kJ
W 375
dW ds é ds ù Power = = = 46.9 kW
P= =F = F× v êëas, dt = v úû t 8
dt dt
● Power is equal to the scalar product of force and Example 20. A body of mass m is accelerated uniformly
velocity. from rest to a speed v in a time T. The instantaneous power
● Power is a scalar with dimensions [ML2T -3 ]. The SI delivered to the body as a function of time, is given by
unit of power is Js–1 and is called watt (W). Practical [AIEEE 2005, 04]
unit of power is horse power (HP). mv 2 mv 2 2
(a) t (b) t
1 HP = 746 W T2 T2
● Kilowatt-hour or watt-day are units of work or energy 1 mv 2 1 mv 2 2
(c) t (d) t
but not of power. 2 T2 2 T2
1 kWh = 103 ´ Js -1 ´ (60 ´ 60 s) Sol. (a) A body of mass m with uniform acceleration, then force,
= 3.6 ´ 106 J mv é v -0ù
F = ma = êë\ a = T úû
● The slope of work-time curve gives the instantaneous T
dW mv
power as P = = tanq [from Fig. (a)] Instantaneous power = Fv = mav = × at
T
dt
mv v mv 2
while the area under P-t curve gives the work done. = × ×t = 2 t
T T T
182 JEE Main Physics
Practice Exercise
ROUND I Topically Divided Problems
Work Done by Variable and 7. A 5 kg brick of 20 cm × 10 cm × 8 cm dimension
Constant Forces lying on the largest base. It is now made to stand
with length vertical. If g =10 ms -2 , then the
1. The work done in pulling up a block of wood amount of work done is
weighing 2 kN for a length of 10 m on a smooth (a) 3 J (b) 5 J (c) 7 J (d) 9 J
plane inclined at an angle of 15° with the
horizontal is [sin 15° = 0.2588] 8. In a children’s park, there is a slide which has a
(a) 4.36 kJ (b) 5.13 kJ total length of 10 m and a height of 8.0 m. A
(c) 8.91 kJ (d) 9.82 kJ vertical ladder is provided to reach the top. A boy
weighing 200 N climbs up the ladder to the top of
2. A block of mass 10 kg slides down a rough slope the slide and slides down to the ground. The
which is inclined at an angle of 45 ° to the horizontal. average friction offered by the slide is three-tenth
The coefficient of sliding friction is 0.30. When the of his weight. The work done by the slide on the boy
block has slide 5 m, the work done on the block by the as he comes down is
force of friction is nearly
(a) 115 J (b) – 75 2 J
(c) 321.4 J (d) – 321.4 J
3. A position-dependent force F = 3x2 – 2x + 7 acts on a
body of mass 7 kg and displaces it from x = 0 m to x =
5m. The work done on the body is x′ joule. If both F
and x¢ are measured in SI units, the value of x′ is
(a) 135 (b) 235 (a) zero (b) + 600 J (c) –600 J (d) +1600 J
(c) 335 (d) 935
9. A ball is released from the top of a tower. The ratio
4. Water is drawn from a well in a 5 kg drum of of work done by force of gravity in Ist second, 2nd
capacity 55 L by two ropes connected to the top of second and 3rd second of the motion of ball is
the drum. The linear mass density of each rope is (a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 4 : 16 (c) 1 : 3 : 5 (d) 1 : 9 : 25
0.5 kgm–1. The work done in lifting water to the
ground from the surface of water in the well 20 m 10. A plate of mass m, length b and breadth a is
below is (g = 10 ms–2) initially lying on a horizontal floor with length
4
(a) 1.4 ´ 10 J 4
(b) 1.5 ´ 10 J parallel to the floor and breadth perpendicular to
(c) 9.8 ´ 10 ´ 6 J (d) 18 J the floor. The work done to erect it on its breadth is
é bù é bù
5. Under the action of a force, a 2 kg body moves such (a) mg ê ú (b) mg ê a + ú
ë2û ë 2û
that its position x as a function of time t is given by
x = t 3 / 3, where x is in metre and t in second. The éb-aù éb+ aù
(c) mg ê (d) mg ê
work done by the force in the first two seconds is ë 2 úû ë 2 úû
(a) 1.6 J (b) 16 J 11. A uniform chain of length L and mass M overhangs
(c) 160 J (d) 1600 J a horizontal table with its two-third part on the
6. A mass M is lowered with the help of a string by a table. The friction coefficient between the table and
distance h at a constant acceleration g/2. The work the chain is m. The work done by the friction during
done by the string will be the period the chain slips off the table is
Mgh -Mgh 1 2
(a) (b) (a) - mMgL (b) - mMgL
2 2 4 9
3Mgh -3Mgh 4 6
(c) (d) (c) - m MgL (d) - mMgL
2 2 9 7
Work, Energy and Power 183
12. A uniform chain of length L and mass M is lying on (c) Both the stones reach the bottom with the same
a smooth table and one-third of its length is speed and stone II reaches the bottom earlier than
hanging vertically down over the edge of the table. stone I.
If g is acceleration due to gravity, the work (d) Both the stones reach the bottom at different times
required to pull the hanging part on the table is and with different speeds.
(a) MgL (b) MgL /3 17. A 10 kg brick moves along an X-axis. Its
(c) MgL /9 (d) MgL /18 acceleration as a function of its position is shown in
figure. What is the net work performed on the brick
13. A rod AB of mass 10 kg and length 4 m rests on a by the force causing the acceleration as the brick
horizontal floor with end A fixed, so as to rotate it moves from x = 0 to x = 8.0 m ?
in vertical. Work done on the rod is 100 J. The
height to which the end B be raised vertically above 20
the floor is
a (ms–2 )
15
(a) 1.5 m (b) 2.0 m
(c) 1.0 m (d) 2.5 m 10
22. A mass of 5 kg is moving along a circular path of 30. A bomb of mass 3.0 kg explodes in air into two
radius 1m. If the mass moves with 300 revolutions pieces of masses 2.0 kg and 1.0 kg. The smaller
per minute, its kinetic energy (in J) would be mass goes at a speed of 80 m/s. The total energy
[NCERT Exemplar] imparted to the two fragments is
(a) 250p 2 (b) 100p 2 (c) 5p 2 (d) 0 (a) 1.07 kJ (b) 2.14 kJ
(c) 2.4 kJ (d) 4.8 kJ
23. A body of mass 2 kg is thrown up vertically with
kinetic energy of 490 J. The height at which the 31. A uniform chain of length 2 m is kept on a table
kinetic energy of the body becomes half of its such that a length of 60 cm hangs freely from
original value is the edge of the table. The total mass of the chain
(a) 50 m (b) 12.25 m (c) 25 m (d) 10 m is 4 kg. What is the work done in pulling the
entire chain on the table? [AIEEE 2004]
24. Two springs have force constants k1 and k2 . These
(a) 7.2 J (b) 3.6 J
are extended through the same distance x. If their
E (c) 120 J (d) 1200 J
elastic energies are E1 and E2 , then 1 is equal to
E2 32. Which of the diagrams shown in figure represents
(a) k1 : k2 (b) k2 : k1 (c) k1 : k2 (d) k12: k22 variation of total mechanical energy of a pendulum
oscillating in air as function of time? [NCERT Exemplar]
25. A stone of mass 2 kg is projected upward with
kinetic energy of 98 J. The height at which the E E
kinetic energy of the body becomes half of its
original value, is given by (Take, g = 10 ms–2) (a) (b)
t
(a) 5 m (b) 2.5 m (c) 1.5 m (d) 0.5 m
t
26. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius a
under the action of an attractive potential E
k E
U = - 2 . Its total energy is
2r [JEE Main 2018]
k k (c) (d)
(a) - (b)
4a 2 2a 2 t t
3 k
(c) zero (d) -
2 a2 33. A ball is projected vertically upwards with a certain
27. The potential energy of a particle of mass 5 kg initial speed. Another ball of the same mass is
moving in the XY-plane is given by U = ( -7x + 24 y) J, projected at an angle of 60° with the vertical with
x and y being in metre. If the particle starts from the same initial speed. At highest point of their
rest from origin, then speed of particle at t = 2 s is journey, the ratio of their potential energies will be
(a) 5 ms–1 (b) 0.1 ms–1 (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 4 : 1
(c) 17.5 ms–1 (d) 10 ms–1
34. The potential energy function for a particle
28. An elastic string of unstretched length L and force 1 2
executing linear SHM is given by V ( x) = kx ,
constant k is stretched by a small length x. It is 2
further stretched by another small length y. The where k is the force constant of the oscillator. For
work done in the second stretching is k = 0.5 N/m , the graph of V ( x) versus x is shown in
1 2 1 the figure. A particle of total energy E turns back
(a) ky (b) k(x2 + y2)
2 2 when it reaches x = ± xm . If V and K indicate the
1
(c) k(x + y)2
1
(d) ky(2x + y) PE and KE respectively of the particle at x = ± xm ,
2 2 then which of the following is correct?
[NCERT Exemplar]
29. If the potential energy between two molecules is V(x)
A B
given by U = - 6
+ 12 , then at equilibrium,
r r
separation between molecules and the potential
energy are [JEE Main 2020]
1/ 6 1/ 6
æ Bö A2 æ Bö x
(a) ç ÷ ,- (b) ç ÷ ,0 –xm xm
è2Aø 2B è Aø
æ 2B ö
1/ 6
A2 æ 2B ö
1/ 6
A2 (a) V = 0, K = E (b) V = E K = 0
(c) ç ÷ ,- (d) ç ÷ ,-
è Aø 4B è Aø 2B (c) V < E , K = 0 (d) V = 0, K < 0
Work, Energy and Power 185
35. The block of mass M moving on the frictionless 42. A bullet fired into a fixed target loses half of its
horizontal surface collides with the spring of spring velocity after penetrating 3 cm. How much further
constant k and compresses it by length L. The it will penetrate before coming to rest, assuming
maximum momentum of the block after collision is that it faces constant resistance to motion?
[AIEEE 2005] [AIEEE 2005]
(a) 3.0 cm (b) 2.0 cm
M (c) 1.5 cm (d) 1.0 cm
43. A 2 kg block slides on a horizontal floor with a
speed of 4 m/s. It strikes a uncompressed spring
kL 2
ML2 and compresses it till the block is motionless. The
(a) MkL (b) (c) zero (d) kinetic friction force is 15 N and spring constant is
2M k
10000 N/m. The spring compresses by [AIEEE 2007]
(a) 5.5 cm (b) 2.5 cm
Work-Energy Theorem
(c) 11.0 cm (d) 8.5 cm
36. A spring of spring constant 5 ×103 Nm–1 is stretched
initially by 5 cm from the unstretched position, 44. A body of mass M is dropped from a height h on a
then the work required to stretch it further by sand floor. If the body penetrates x cm into the
another 5 cm is sand, the average resistance offered by the sand to
(a) 12.50 N-m (b) 18.75 N-m the body is
æ hö æ hö
(c) 25.00 N-m (d) 6.25 N-m (a) Mg ç ÷ (b) Mg ç1 + ÷
è xø è xø
37. A body of mass 4 kg is moving with momentum of æ h ö
8 kg-ms - 1. A force of 0.2 N acts on it in the direction (c) Mgh + Mgx (d) Mg ç1 - ÷
è xø
of motion of the body for 10 s. The increase in kinetic
energy (in J) is 45. A stone tied to a string of length L is whirled in a
(a) 10 (b) 8.5 vertical circle with the other end of the string at the
(c) 4.5 (d) 4 centre. At a certain instant of time, the stone is at its
38. A force acts on a 30 g particle in such a way that lowest position and has a speed u. The magnitude of
the position of the particle as function of time is the change in its velocity as it reaches a position
given by x = 3 t - 4 t2 + t 3, where x is in metre and t where the string is horizontal is
is in second. The work done during the first 4 s is (a) u 2 - 2 gl
(a) 5.28 J (b) 450 mJ (b) 2 gl
(c) 490 mJ (d) 530 mJ
(c) u 2 - gl
39. The upper half of an inclined plane with inclination
f is perfectly smooth, while the lower half is rough. (d) 2 (u 2 - gL )
A body starting from rest at the top will again come
to rest at the bottom, if the coefficient of friction for
46. A uniform cable of mass M and length L is placed
on a horizontal surface such that its æç ö÷ th part is
1
the lower half is given by [AIEEE 2005]
è nø
(a) 2 sin f (b) 2 cos f
(c) 2 tan f (d) tan f hanging below the edge of the surface. To lift the
hanging part of the cable upto the surface, the work
40. A time dependent force F = 6t acts on a particle of done should be [JEE Main 2019]
mass 1 kg. If the particle starts from rest, the work 2MgL
(a) (b) nMgL
done by the force during the first 1 s will be n2
[JEE Main 2017] MgL MgL
(c) (d)
(a) 22 J (b) 9 J (c) 18 J (d) 4.5 J n2 2n 2
41. When a rubber band is stretched by a distance x, it 47. In a shotput event, an athlete throws the shotput of
exerts a restoring force of magnitude F = ax + bx2 , mass 10 kg with an inital speed of 1 m s -1 at 45°
where a and b are constants. The work done in from a height 1.5 m above ground. Assuming, air
stretching the unstretched rubber band by L is resistance to be negligible and acceleration due to
[JEE Main 2014] gravity to be 10 ms -2 , the kinetic energy of the
2 3 1 shotput when it just reaches the ground will be
(a) aL + bL (b) (aL + bL3 )
2
2 [NCERT Exemplar]
aL2 bL3 1 æ aL2 bL3 ö (a) 2.5 J (b) 5.0 J
(c ) + (d) ç + ÷
2 3 2 è 2 3 ø (c) 52.5 J (d) 155.0 J
186 JEE Main Physics
20
55. A car manufacturer claims that his car can be
10 accelerated from rest to a velocity of 10 ms–1 in 5 s.
If the total mass of the car and its occupants is
0 1 2 3 4 x (cm) 1000 kg, then the average horse power developed
by the engine is
(a) 50 J (b) 40 J (c) 20 J (d) 10 J 103 104
(a) (b)
49. A 0.5 kg ball is thrown up with an initial speed 746 746
14 m/s and reaches a maximum height of 8.0 cm. 105
(c) (d) 8
How much energy is dissipated by air drag acting 746
on the ball during the time of ascent?
56. A 10 HP motor pump take out water from a well of
(a) 19.6 J (b) 4.9 J (c) 10 J (d) 9.8 J
depth 20 m and falls a water tank of volume
50. A simple pendulum is released from A as shown in 22380 L at a height of 10 m from the ground. The
figure. If M and l represent the mass of the bob and running time of the motor to fill the empty water
length of the pendulum respectively, the gain in tank is ( Take, g = 10 ms -2 )
kinetic energy at B is (a) 5 min (b) 10 min
A (c) 15 min (d) 20 min
57. Ten litre of water per second is lifted from well
30° through 20 m and delivered with a velocity of
10 ms–1, then the power of the motor is
B (a) 1.5 kW (b) 2.5 kW
(c) 3.5 kW (d) 4.5 kW
Mgl 3 Mgl 2
(a) (b) Mgl (c) (d) mgl
2 2 2 3 58. A dam is situated at a height of 550 m above sea
level and supplies water to a power house which is
51. In the given curved road, if particle is released from at a height of 50 m above sea level. 2000 kg of
A, then water passes through the turbines per second.
M A
What would be the maximum electrical power
output of the power house, if the whole system were
80% efficient?
h
(a) 8 MW (b) 10 MW
(c) 12.5 MW (d) 16 MW
B
59. An automobile weighing 120 kg climbs up a hill
(a) kinetic energy at B must be mgh that rises 1 m in 20 s. Neglecting frictional effects,
(b) kinetic energy at B may be zero the minimum power developed by the engine is
(c) kinetic energy at B must be less than mgh 9000 W. If g = 10 ms -2 , then the velocity of the
(d) kinetic energy at B must not be equal to zero automobile is
52. A 50 g bullet moving with a velocity of 10 ms–1 gets (a) 36 kmh–1
embedded into a 950 g stationary body. The loss in (b) 54 kmh–1
kinetic energy of the system will be (c) 72 kmh–1
(a) 95% (b) 100% (c) 5% (d) 50% (d) 90 kmh–1
53. Given that, the position of the body in metre is a 60. A 60 HP electric motor lifts an elevator having a
function of time as follows maximum total load capacity of 2000 kg. If the
frictional force on the elevator is 4000 N, the speed
x = 2 t4 + 5 t + 4
of the elevator at full load is close to (Take, 1 HP
The mass of the body is 2 kg. What is the increase = 746 W and g = 10 ms -2 ) [JEE Main 2020]
in its kinetic energy, one second after the start of
motion? (a) 2.0 ms -1 (b) 1.5 ms -1
(a) 168 J (b) 169 J (c) 32 J (d) 144 J (c) 1.9 ms -1 (d) 1.7 ms -1
Work, Energy and Power 187
61. A 500 kg car, moving with a velocity of 36 kmh–1 on 66. An elevator in a building can carry a maximum of
a straight road unidirectionally, doubles its velocity 10 persons with the average mass of each person
in one minute. The power delivered by the engine being 68 kg. The mass of the elevator itself is
for doubling the velocity is 920 kg and it moves with a constant speed of 3 m/s.
(a) 750 W (b) 1050 W The frictional force opposing the motion is 6000 N.
(c) 1150 W (d) 1250 W If the elevator is moving up with its full capacity,
62. A quarter horse power motor runs at a speed of the power delivered by the motor to the elevator
600 rpm. Assuming 40% efficiency, the work done must be at least (Take, g = 10 m/s2 ) [JEE Main 2020]
by the motor in one rotation will be (a) 62360 W (b) 48000 W
(a) 7.46 J (b) 7400 J (c) 56300 W (d) 66000 W
(c) 7.46 erg (d) 74.6 J 67. A particle is moving unidirectionally on a
63. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of horizontal plane under the action of a constant
constant radius r such that its centripetal power supplying energy source. The displacement
acceleration a c is varying with time t as ac = k2 rt2 . (s)-time (t) graph that describes the motion of the
The power is particle is (graphs are drawn schematically and are
(a) 2 pmk2r 2t (b) mk2r 2t not to scale) [JEE Main 2020]
mk4r 2t5 s s
(c) (d) zero
3
(a) (b)
64. The power supplied by a force acting on a particle
moving in a straight line is constant. The velocity
of the particle varies with the displacement x as t t
(a) x1/ 2 (b) x (c) x 2 (d) x1/ 3 s s
65. A body is moved along a straight line by a machine (c) (d)
delivering a constant power. The distance moved by
the body in time t is proportional to
(a) t3/ 4 (b) t3/ 2 (c) t1/ 4 (d) t1/ 2
t t
7. Two blocks of mass m each are connected to a 12. An ideal spring with spring constant k is hung from
spring of spring constant k as shown in figure. The the ceiling and a block of mass M is attached to its
maximum displacement in the block is lower end. The mass is released with the spring
k initially unstretched, then the maximum extension
m m
v v in the spring is
4 Mg 2 Mg
(a) (b)
2 mv2 mv2 k k
(a) (b)
k k Mg Mg
(c) (d)
mv2 k k 2k
(c) 2 (d) 2
k mv2 13. A bullet when fired at a target with velocity of
8. Power supplied to a particle of mass 2 kg varies 100 ms–1 penetrates 1 m into it. If the bullet is fired
2 at a similar target with a thickness 0.5 m, then it
3t
with time as P = watt, here t is in second. If the will emerge from it with a velocity of
2
50
velocity of particle at t = 0 is v = 0, the velocity of (a) 50 2 m/s (b) m/s
particle at time t = 2 s will be 2
(a) 1 ms–1 (b) 4 ms–1 (c) 50 m/s (d) 10 m/s
(c) 2 ms–1 (d) 2 2 ms -1 14. Velocity-time graph of a particle of mass 2 kg
9. The potential energy of a system represent in the moving in a straight line is as shown in figure.
first figure. The force acting on the system will be Work done by all forces on the particle is
represent by
20
f (x)
v (m/s)
O a x
t(s) 2
f (x) f (x)
(a) 400 J (b) – 400 J
a a (c) – 200 J (d) 200 J
(a) x (b) x
15. A box of mass 50 kg is pulled up on an incline 12 m
long and 2 m high by a constant force of 100 N from
f (x) f (x) rest. It acquires a velocity of 2 ms–1 on reaching the
top. Work done against friction (g = 10 ms–2) is
a (a) 50 J (b) 100 J
(c) x (d) a x
(c) 150 J (d) 200 J
16. A particle is released from a height s. At certain
height, its kinetic energy is three times its
10. A gun of mass 20 kg has bullet of mass 0.1 kg in it. potential energy. The height and speed of the
The gun is free to recoil 804 J of recoil energy particle at that instant are respectively
are released on firing the gun. The speed of bullet s 3 gs s 3 gs
(ms–1) is (a) , (b) ,
4 2 4 2
2010
(a) 804 ´ 2010 (b) s 3 gs s 3 gs
804 (c) , (d) ,
2 2 8 2
804
(c) (d) 804 ´ 4 ´ 103
2010 17. A man running has half the kinetic energy of a boy
of half his mass. The man speeds up by 1 ms–1 and
11. A particle moves on a rough horizontal ground with then has kinetic energy as that of the boy. What
some initial velocity v0 . If (3/4)th of its kinetic
were the original speeds of man and the boy?
energy is lost due to friction in time t0 , the
coefficient of friction between the particle and the (a) 2 ms -1 ; 2 2 - 1 ms -1
ground is (b) ( 2 - 1) ms -1 , 2( 2 - 1) ms -1
v0 v0 3 v0 v0 (c) ( 2 + 1) ms -1 ; 2( 2 + 1) ms -1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 gt0 4 gt 0 4 gt0 gt0 (d) None of the above
Work, Energy and Power 189
18. If the kinetic energy of a body is directly 24. A particle moves in a straight line with retardation
proportional to time t, the magnitude of the force proportional to its displacement. Its loss of kinetic
acting on the body is energy for any displacement x is proportional to
(a) directly proportional to t (a) x2 (b) ex
(b) inversely proportional to t (c) x (d) log e x
(c) directly proportional to the speed of the body
(d) inversely proportional to the root of speed of the 25. A particle moves in one dimension from rest under
body the influence of a force that varies with the
distance travelled by the particle as shown in the
19. The kinetic energy k of a particle moving along a figure. The kinetic energy of the particle after it
circle of radius R depends upon the distance s as has travelled 3 m is [JEE Main 2019]
k = as2 . The force acting on the particle is
1/ 2
s2 é s2 ù 3
(a) 2 a (b) 2 asê1 + 2 ú
R ë R û Force 2
(in N)
(c) 2 as (d) 2 a
1
20. A particle is placed at the origin and a force F = kx
is acting on it (where k is a positive constant). If 1 2 3
U(0) = 0, the graph of U(x) versus x will be (where U Distance
is the potential energy function) [UP SEE 2004] (in m)
U(x) U(x) (a) 4 J (b) 2.5 J (c) 6.5 J (d) 5 J
26. A block of mass m lying on a smooth horizontal
(a) x (b) x
surface is attached to a spring (of negligible mass)
of spring constant k. The other end of the spring is
fixed as shown in the figure. The block is initially
U(x) U(x)
at rest in its equilibrium position. If now the block
is pulled with a constant force F, the maximum
(c) x (d) x speed of the block is [JEE Main 2019]
P P
4.5 s
t (c) (d)
O 3s
29. A bob of mass m accelerates uniformly from rest to Numerical Value Questions
v1 in time t1. As a function of t, the instantaneous
power delivered to the body is 36. A cricket ball of mass 0.15 kg is thrown vertically up
mv1t mv1t by a bowling machine, so that it rises to a maximum
(a) (b)
t2 t1 height of 20 m after leaving the machine. If the part
pushing the ball applies a constant force F on the
mv1t 2 mv12t
(c) (d) ball and moves horizontally a distance of 0.2 m,
t1 t12
while launching the ball, the value of F (in N) is
30. A car of mass 1000 kg moves at a constant speed of ........ . (Take, g = 10 ms -2 ) [JEE Main 2020]
20 ms–1 up an incline. Assume that the frictional 37. A boy wishes to move the block slowly shown in the
force is 200 N and that sin q = 1/20, where, q is the figure, a distance of 2 m to the right by either
angle of the incline to the horizontal. The g = 10 ms–2. sliding or by tiping over one corner with the least
Find the power developed by the engine. amount of work. The mass of block is 100 kg and
(a) 14 kW (b) 4 kW
coefficient of friction is 0.3. If the least amount of
(c) 10 kW (d) 28 kW work is 207 nJ. The value of n is ……… .
31. A body of mass M is moving with a uniform speed C 2m B
of 10 m/s on frictionless surface under the influence
of two forces F1 and F2 . The net power of the system 2m
is
F1 F2
M D A
41. A body of mass 2 kg is driven by an engine k = 150 N/m. The system is in equilibrium. The
delivering a constant power of 1 J/s. The body minimum value of initial downward velocity v0 of
starts from rest and moves in a straight line. After the block B for which the block A bounce up is
9 s, the body has moved a distance (in m) ……… . 20
m/s. The value of n is ……… .
[JEE Main 2020] 3n
42. A ball of mass 4 kg is moving with a velocity of B
10 ms -1, collides with a spring of length 8 m and
force constant 100 Nm -1. The length of the
k
compressed spring is x m. The value of x, to the
nearest integer, is ……… . [JEE Main 2021]
A
43. Two blocks A and B of equal masses (m = 10 kg) are
connected by a light spring of spring constant
Answers
Round I
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (d) 50. (b)
51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (c)
61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (d) 67. (a)
Round II
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. 150 37. 2 38. 6 39. 10 40. 2
41. 18 42. 6 43. 5
Solutions
Round I 8. Average friction, F =
3
mg
1. W = mg sin q ´ s 10
3
= 2 ´ 103 ´ sin 15° ´ 10 = 5.13 kJ As, W = - Fs or W = - mgs
10
æ 3 ö
s or W = ç- ´ 200 ´ 10÷ J = - 600 J
è 10 ø
14. Work done by a variable force on the particle, 18. Normal reaction force on the block,
W = ò F × dr N = ma net
= ò F × (dx$i + dy$j) N
h1
37. Initially, 4 u = 8 Þ u = 2 m /s
u Now, mv - mu = Ft
m mv - 8 = 0.2 ´ 10
or v = (5 / 2) ms -1
u2 1
i. e. h1 = Increase in KE = m(v2 - u 2)
2g 2
For second ball, 1 é æ5ö
2 ù
u 2 cos 2 q = ´ ê4 ç ÷ - (2)2ú = 4.5 J
mgh2 = mg 2 êë è 2 ø úû
2g
dx 2
1 38. As, v = = 3 -8 t + 3 t
= mu 2 cos 2 q dt
2 At t = 0, v0 = 3 - 8 ´ 0 + 3 ´ 02 = 3 m/s
1
= mu 2 cos 2 60° and at t = 4 s, v4 = 3 - 8 ´ 4 + 3 ´ 42 = 19 m/s
2 1
2 W = m (v42 - v02 )
1 æ1ö 2
= mu 2 ç ÷
2 è2ø (According to work-energy theorem)
1 æ1ö 1
= mu 2 ç ÷ = ´ 0.03 ´ (192 - 33 ) = 5.28 J
2 è4ø 2
196 JEE Main Physics
=0 2 2
l 1 1
Þ - ( m mg cos f ) + mgl sin f = 0 Þ ´ 2 (4) = 15 x + ´ 10000 x2
2
2 2 2
m Þ 5000 x2 + 15x - 16 = 0
or cos f = sin f \ x = 0.055 m = 5.5 cm
2
or m = 2 tan f 44. If the body strikes the sand floor with a velocity v, then
1
40. From Newton’s second law, Mgh = mv2
Dp 2
=F With this velocity v, when body passes through the
Dt
sand floor it comes to rest after travelling a distance x.
Þ Dp = FDt
1
Let F be the resisting force acting on the body. Net
\ p = ò dp = ò F dt force in downwards direction = Mg - F
0
Work done by all the forces is equal to change in KE
1 æmö
Þ p = ò 6 t dt = 3 kg ç ÷ 1
0 èsø (Mg - F ) x = 0 - Mv2
2
Also, change in kinetic energy,
(Mg - F ) x = - Mgh
D p2 32
DK = = = 4 .5 J or Fx = Mgh + Mgx
2m 2 ´ 1 æ hö
or F = Mg ç1 + ÷
From work-energy theorem, è xø
Work done = Change in kinetic energy
45. In this case, motion of stone is in vertical circle of
So, work done = DK = 4 . 5 J radius L and centre at O.
41. Given, F = ax + bx2 The change in velocity is
According to work-energy theorem, work done in Y v
O L
stretching the rubber band by t is
dW = Fdx
L
é ax2 ù L é bx3 ù L L
W = ò (ax + bx2) dx = ê ú +ê ú
0 ë 2 û0 ë 3 û0 u
é aL 2
a ´ (0) 2ù
éb ´ L b ´ (0) ù
3 3
Dv = v - u = v$j - u$i
=ê - ú+ê - ú
ë 2 2 û ë 3 3 û |Dv| = (v)2 + (- u )2 = v2 + u 2
aL2 bL3
\ W = + According to work-energy theorem,
2 3
W = DK
42. According to work-energy theorem,
1 1
Total work done = Change in kinetic energy or WT + W g = mv2 - mu 2 …(i)
2 2
W = DK
2 WT = work done by the force of tension = 0
1 æv ö 1
Case I F ´ 3 = m ç 0 ÷ – mv02 W g = work done by the force of gravity
2 è2ø 2
= mgL (path independent)
where, F is resistive force and v0 is initial speed. 1 1
Case II Let the further distance travelled by the From Eq. (i), 0 - mgL = mv2 - mu 2
2 2
bullet before coming to rest be s.
Q v2 = u 2 - 2 gL
1
\ – F (3 + s) = K f - K i = – mv02 \ |Dv|= v2 + u 2 = 2 (u 2 - gl )
2
1 2 1 2
Þ - mv0 (3 + s) = - mv0 46. (L – L /n)
8 2
1
or (3 + s) = 1
4 L /n
3 s
or + =1
4 4
or s = 1 cm
Work, Energy and Power 197
Given, mass of the cable is M. 50. Vertical height, h = l cos q = l cos 30°
1 Loss of potential energy = Mgh
So, mass of th part of the cable, i.e. hanged part of
n 3
the cable is M / n. …(i) = Mgl cos 30° = Mgl
2
Now, centre of mass of the hanged part will be its A
middle point.
So, its distance from the top of the table will be L /2n. l
h 30°
B
L /2n
3
L /n \ Kinetic energy gained = Mgl
2
51. (a) If the surface is smooth, then the kinetic energy
at B never be zero.
(b) If the surface is rough, the kinetic energy at B be
zero. Because, work done by force of friction is
negative. If work done by friction is equal to mgh,
\Initial potential energy of the hanged part of cable, then net work done on body will be zero. Hence,
æMö æLö net change in kinetic energy is zero. Hence, (b) is
U i = ç ÷ (- g ) ç ÷
è nø è 2n ø correct.
MgL (c) If the surface is rough, the kinetic energy at B
Þ Ui = - …(ii) must be lesser than mgh. If surface is smooth, the
2n 2
kinetic energy at B is equal to mgh.
When the whole cable is on the table, its potential
energy will be zero. (d) The reason is same as in (a) and (b)
\ Uf = 0 …(iii) 52. Applying principle of conservation of linear
Now, using work-energy theorem, momentum, velocity of the system (v) is
m1v1 = (m1 + m2)v
W net = DU = U f - U i
m1v1 50 ´ 10 ´ 100 1
æ MgL ö Þ v= = = ms -1
Þ W net = 0 - ç - ÷ m1 + m2 (50 + 950) ´ 100 2
è 2n 2 ø
1
[using Eqs. (ii) and (iii)] Initial KE, E1 = m1v12
2
MgL
Þ W net = 1 æ 50 ö 2
2n 2 = ´ç ÷ ´ 10 = 2.5 J
2 è 1000 ø
47. As the shotput reaches the ground, its KE 1
= PE of shotput when it is thrown + KE given Final KE, E 2 = (m1 + m2 ) v2
2
1
= mgh + mv2 1 (50 + 950) æ 1 ö
2
2 = ´ ç ÷ = 0.125J
1 2 1000 è2ø
= 10 ´ 10 ´ 1.5 + ´ 10 (1)2
2 Percentage loss in KE,
= 150 + 5 = 155 J E1 - E 2 2.5 - 0.125
´ 100 = ´ 100 = 95%
1 1 E1 2.5
48 Initial KE of the body = mv2 = ´ 25 ´ 4 = 50 J
2 2 dx
53. x = 2 t 4 + 5 t + 4 Þ v = = 8 t3 + 5
Work done against resistive force dt
= Area between F-x graph At t = 0, v = 5 m/s
1 At t = 1 s, v = 8 ´ 1 + 5 = 13 m/s
= ´ 4 ´ 20 = 40 J
2 1
Increase in KE = m [(13)2 - (5)2]
Final KE = Initial KE – Work done against resistive 2
force 1
= ´ 2 ´ 144 = 144 J
= 50 - 40 = 10 J 2
49. If there is no air drag, then maximum height, mgh
54. As, P=
u 2 14 ´ 14 t
H = = = 10 m m P
2 g 2 ´ 9.8 or =
t gh
But due to air drag ball reaches upto height 8 m only,
so loss of energy m 1000
or = kg = 10 kg
= Mg (10 - 8) = 0.5 ´ 9.8 ´ 2 = 9.8 J t 10 ´ 10
198 JEE Main Physics
10 - 0 500 ´ 30 ´ 10
55. As, a = ms -2 = 2 ms -2 =
5 2
F = ma 500 ´ 30 ´ 10
Q Power = = 1250 W
\ F = (1000 ´ 2) N = 2000 N 2 ´ 60
0 + 10
Average velocity = ms -1 = 5 ms -1 62. Motor makes 600 revolution per minute,
2 revolution rev
\ n = 600 = 10
Average power = (2000 ´ 5)W = 104 W min s
104 1
Required horse power is . \Time required for one revolution = s
746 10
Energy required for one revolution = Power ´ Time
56. Volume of water of raise = 22380 L = 22380 ´ 10-3 m3
1 1 746
mgh Vrgh = ´ 746 ´ = J
P= = 4 10 40
t t But work done = 40% of input
Vrgh 746
Þ t= = 40% ´
p 40
22380 ´ 10-3 ´ 103 ´ 10 ´ 10 40 746
t= = 5 min = ´ = 7.46 J
10 ´ 746 100 40
1 v2
mgh + mv2 63. Here a c = = k2rt 2
total energy 2 r
57. As power, P = =
t t \ v = krt
1 dv
10 ´ 10 ´ 20 + ´ 10 ´ 10 ´ 10 The tangential acceleration, a t =
= 2 dt
1 d (krt )
= = kr
= 2000 + 500 = 2500 W dt
= 2.5 kW The work done by centripetal force will be zero.
dm So, power is delivered to the particle by only
58. Given, h = 500 m , = 2000 kgs -1
dt tangential force which acts in the same direction of
80 dm instantaneous velocity.
\ Power output = ´ gh
100 dt \ Power = Ft v = ma t krt
4 = m (kr )(krt )
= ´ 2000 ´ 10 ´ 500 W
5 = mk2r 2t
= 8 ´ 106 W = 8 MW
W
59. Minimum force mg sin q, so minimum power is given 64. Since, power, P = = F ´v
t
by Þ P = F ´ v = ma ´ v [Q F = ma]
P = mg sin q v (Q F = mg sin q )
P Þ P = mav …(i)
or v= Again, by equation of motion,
mg sin q
9000 ´ 2 v2 - u 2 = 2ax
or v= = 15 ms -1 Þ v2 - 0 = 2ax
1200 ´ 10 ´ 1
18 v2
= 15 ´ = 54 kmh -1 Þ a= …(ii)
5 2x
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have
60. At maximum load, force provided by motor to pull the
lift, v2
P = m× × v
F = weight carried + friction = mg + f 2x
= (2000 ´ 10) + 4000 = 24000 N mv3
P=
Power delivered by motor at speed v of load, P = F ´ v 2x
P 60 ´ 746 æ 2P ö
Þ v= = = 1.865 = 1.9 ms -1 Þ v3 = ç ÷x
F 24000 èmø
5 Since, P is constant, hence
61. Given, u = 36 km/h = 36 ´ ms -1
18 v3 µ x
= 10 ms -1 and v = 20 ms -1 Þ v µ x1/3
\ Work done = Increase in kinetic energy 65. Delivering power of a machine,
1
= ´ 500 [202 - 102] P = constant
2
Work, Energy and Power 199
é W s ù Þ
1
m × 2v
dv
=P
P = F ×v êëQ Power = t = F × t = F × vúû 2 dt
dv P
= mav = m v Þ vdv = × dt
dt m
dv Integrating both sides, we get
P = mv
dt P
P ò v dv = m ò dt
vdv = dt
m v2 P
Þ = ×t
Integrating on both sides, we get 2 m
v t
P 2P 1/ 2
Þ v= ×t
ò v dv = ò m
dt
m
0 0
1/ 2 ds 2P 1/ 2
v2 Pt æ 2Pt ö Þ = ×t
= Þ v=ç ÷ dt m
2 m è m ø
2P 1/ 2
ds æ 2Pt ö
1/ 2 Þ ds = × t dt
v= =ç ÷ m
dt è m ø
Again integrating both sides, we get
1/ 2
æ 2Pt ö 2P 1/ 2
ds = ç ÷ dt s = ò ds = ò × t dt
è m ø m
s 2P t Þ s = C × t3/ 2
ò0 ds =
m ò0 t1/ 2 dt
2 2P
where, C is a constant = .
2P t 3/ 2 3 m
s=
m 3 /2 Hence, displacement (s)-time (t ) graph is correctly
represented in option (a).
\ s µ t3/ 2
66. Mass of elevator, M = 920 kg Round II
t3
Mass of all 10 passengers carried by elevator = 10 ´ m 1. Given, s=
3
= 10 ´ 68 = 680 kg
\ ds = t 2 dt
Total weight of elevator and passengers
d 2s d 2 é t3 ù
= (M + 10 m) g Þ a = 2 = 2 ê ú = 2 t m / s2
= (920 + 680) ´ 10 dt dt ë 3 û
= 16000 N Now work done by the force,
2 2
W = ò F × ds = ò m × a ds
T 0 0
2 2 3 4 2
ò0 3 ´2 t ´ t dt = ò 6 t3 dt =
2
[t ]0 = 24 J
Lift 0 2
2. When a man of mass m climbs up the staircase of
Passengers
height L, work done by the gravitational force on the
man is - mgL and work done by muscular force is
f mgL. If we ignore air resistance and friction, then the
work done by all forces on man is equal to
(M+10 m) g - mgL + mgL = zero. Further, force from a step does
not do work because the point of application of force
Force of friction = 6000 N does not move while the force exists.
Total force (T ) applied by the motor of elevator 3. Here, the displacement of an object is given by
= 16000 + 6000 = 22000 N x = (3 t 2 + 5) m
Power delivered by elevator’s motor, dx d (3 t 2 + 5)
P = F × v = 22000 ´ 3 [Q v = 3ms -1 ] Therefore, velocity (v) = =
dt dt
= 66000 W
or v = 6 t m/s ...(i)
d
67. As, power = (KE) = constant The work done in moving the object from t = 0 to t = 5 s,
dt x5
d æ1 2ö
Þ ç mv ÷ = P W = ò F × dx …(ii)
dt è 2 ø x0
200 JEE Main Physics
30
The force acting on this object is given by é 10 2ù
= 200 [15 - 0] + ê300x - x
F = ma = m ´
dv ë 3 úû 15
dt
éì 10 ü
d (6t ) = 200 ´ 15 + êí300(30) - (30)2ý
=m ´ [using Eq. (i)] ëî 3 þ
dt
F = m ´ 6 = 6 m = 12 N ì 10 üù
- í300 (15) - (15)2ý ú
Also, x0 = 3 t 2 + 5 = 3 ´ (0)2 + 5 = 5 m î 3 þû
and at t = 5 s, = 3000 + [{9000 - 3000} - {4500 - 750}]
x5 = 3 ´ (5)2 + 5 = 80 m = 3000 + [6000 - 3750]
Put the values in Eq. (ii), we get = 3000 + 2250 = 5250 J
x5 1
5. As, E1 = mv2
W = 12 ´ ò dx = 12 [80 - 5] 2
x0 1
E 2 = m (v + 1)2
W = 12 ´ 75 = 900 J 2
1
Alternate Solution m [(v + 1)2 - v2]
E 2 - E1 2 44
To using work-kinetic energy theorem, = =
E1 1 2 100
1 mv
W = DKE = m(vf2 – vi2) 2
2
1 On solving, we get v = 5 ms -1.
= m ´ (302 – 02)
2 6. Given, m = 0.5 kg and u = 20 m/s
1 1
= ´ 2 ´ 900 = 900 J mu 2
Initial kinetic energy, (K i ) =
2 2
4. For 0 £ x £ 15 m, F = 200 N …(i) 1
= ´ 0.5 ´ 20 ´ 20 = 100 J
2
For 15 m < x £ 30 m, force F is linearly decreasing
from 200 N to 100 N. After deflection it moves with 5% of K i
5 5
So, using two-point form of straight line, we have \ Kf = ´ Ki Þ ´ 100
æ y - y1 ö 100 100
( y - y1 ) = ç 2 ÷ (x - x1 ) Þ Kf = 5 J
è x2 - x1 ø
Now, let the final speed be v m/s, then
æ F - F1 ö
(F - F1 ) = ç 2 ÷ (x - x1 ) 1
è x2 - x1 ø K f = 5 = mv2
2
2
Here, x1 = 15 m, F1 = 200 N Þ v = 20
x2 = 30 m, F2 = 100 N Þ v = 20 = 4.47 m/s
æ 100 - 200 ö 1 2 1 1
So, (F - 200) = ç ÷ (x - 15) 7. kx = mv2 + mv2 = mv2
è 30 - 15 ø 2 2 2
-100 2mv2
F - 200 = (x - 15) x=
15 k
20
F = 200 - (x - 15) 8. From work-energy theorem,
3
20 DKE = W net
F = 200 - x + 100
3 or K f - K i = ò Pdt
æ 20 ö
F = ç300 - x÷ N …(ii) 1 2 æ3 ö
è 3 ø or mv2 = ò ç t 2÷ dt
2 0 è2 ø
ì 200 N; 0 £ x £ 15 m
ï 2
é t3 ù
Therefore, F = í æ 20 ö
300 - x÷ N ; 15 m < x £ 30 m v2 = ê ú
ïî çè 3 ø ë 2 û0
Now, work done during the complete movement of the v = 2 ms -1
box,
30 15 30 æ 20x ö 9. As slope of problem graph is positive and constant
W = ò F dx = ò 200 dx + ò ç300 - ÷ dx upto certain distance and then it becomes zero.
0 0 15 è 3 ø
- dU
é 2 ù 30 So, from F = , upto distance F = constant
20 x dx
= 200 [x]15
0 + ê 300 x - ú
ë 3 2 û 15 (negative) and become zero suddenly.
Work, Energy and Power 201
t =4s
1 2 F2 F2 F2 Þ E=ò (3t 2 - 2t + 1 ) dt
Þ mvmax = - = t = 2s
2 k 2k 2k
t =4s
F2 é 3t3 2t 2 ù
or 2
vmax = =ê - + tú
km ë 3 2 û t = 2s
Þ vmax = F / km = [(43 - 23 ) - (42 - 22) + (4 - 2)]
27. From the diagram, or E = 56 - 12 + 2 = 46 J
a
F 34. Work output of engine = mgh = 100 ´ 10 ´ 10 = 104 J
R output 104 105
Efficiency (h ) = = ´ 100 = J
F - R = ma or F = R + ma input 60 6
Rate of doing work = Power = F × v = (R + ma ) × v input energy 105 / 6
\ Power = =
l time 5
28. We know that, P = F × v = F ×
t 105
= = 3.3 kW
As F = constant 30
\ l µ t2 mgh
l t2 35. Power given to turbine =
\ P = F × = F × = F ×T t
t t æmö
or P µt Pin = ç ÷ gh = Pin = 15 ´ 10 ´ 60
è tø
æ v ö
29. From v = u + at , v1 = 0 + at1 çQ a = 1 ÷ Pin = 9000 W
è t1 ø
mv1 Þ Pin = 9 kW
F = ma =
t1 As efficiency of turbine is 90%, therefore power
v generate = 90% of 9 kW
Velocity acquired in t seconds = at = 1 t 90
t1 Þ Pout = 9 ´
mv1 v1t mv12t 100
Power = F × v = ´ = 2 Þ Pout = 8.1 kW
t1 t1 t1
36. Work done by bowling machine = Initial kinetic energy
30. As, P = (mg sin q + F )v
of ball = Final potential energy of ball.
æ 1 ö Þ Force × displacement = mgh
= ç1000 ´ 10 ´ + 200÷ ´ 20
è 20 ø
Þ F (0 . 2) = (0 . 15) (10) (20)
= 14000 W = 14kW F = 150 N
31. Q Speed is constant.
37. To slide the block, the boy has to overcome the force of
\ Work done by force = 0
friction m mg = 300 N
Work
\ Power = =0
Time
32. We know that,
P = F ×v …(i)
Dp mv
But F = = [\Dp = mv]
Dt t
mv é lù A
= êëQ l = v × t Þ t = v úû
(l / v) \ W1 = 300 ´ 2 = 600 J
mv2 To displace the block by tipping about corner A, the
=
l change in the height of centre of gravity is
æmö 2 h = 2 - 1 = 1.414 - 1 = 0.414
Þ F = ç ÷×v …(ii)
è lø \ W 2 = mgh = 414 = 207 ´ 2 (least)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have \ n =2
æmö 1
P = ç ÷ × v2 × v 38. Here, mv2 = b t 4 or mv2 = 2bt 4
è lø 2
æmö The centripetal force on the body,
= ç ÷ × v3 = 100 ´ 23 = 800 W mv2 2bt 4
è lø Fc = =
dE R R
33. Given, P = 3t 2 - 2t + 1 = dv 2 b d ( t )2 8b
dt and at = = = t
\ dE = (3t 2 - 2t + 1)dt dt m dt m
204 JEE Main Physics
This Pdf Is
Download From
www.jeeneetadda.in
VISIT NOW !!
08
Centre of Mass
Centre of mass of a system of particles is the point that behaves as whole mass
of the system is concentrated on it and all the external forces are acting on it. IN THIS CHAPTER ....
For rigid bodies, centre of mass is independent of the state of the body, i.e. Position of Centre of Mass
whether it is in rest or in accelerated motion, centre of mass will remain same. Motion of Centre of Mass
Collision
Position of Centre of Mass
For different particles system, the position of centre of mass is as given below,
(i) Two Particles System If a system consists two particles of masses
m1 , m2 and respective position vectors r1 , r2, then the position of centre of
mass is given by
m r + m2r2
rCM = 1 1
m1 + m2
r1 + r2
If m1 = m2 = m(say), then rCM = .
2
(ii) System of n Particles If a system consists of n particles, of masses m1 ,
m2 , ¼ mn with r1 , r2 , ¼ , rn as their respective position vectors, at a given
instant of time, then the position vector of CM, i.e. rCM of the system at
that instant is given by
n n
m1r1 + m2r2 + ¼ mn rn
å mi ri å mi ri
i =1 i =1
rCM = = =
m1 + m2 + ¼ + mn n
M
å mi
i =1
n
å mi xi
i =1
In terms of coordinates, xCM =
M
n
å mi y i
i =1
Further, yCM =
M
n
å mi z i
i =1
zCM =
M
Note The centre of mass of a body may lie within or outside the body. It is not at all necessary that
some mass has to be present at the centre of mass.
206 JEE Main Physics
For uniform objects which have uniform density or mass ● Centre of mass of a uniform rod is located at its
per unit volume, we have mid-point.
dm M
r= =
dV V
CM
where dV is the volume occupied by a mass element dm
and V is the total volume of the object. Thus, we find that Example 4. Find the centre of mass of a uniform
1
V ò
xCM = x dV semicircular ring of radius R and mass M.
2R 3R
1 (a) 0 , 2 pR (b) 0 , (c) 0 , (d) 0 , pR
V ò
yCM = y dV p p
1 Sol. (b) Consider the centre of the ring as origin. Let a differential
V ò
zCM = z dV element of length dl of the ring whose radius vector makes an
angle q with the X-axis. If the angle subtended by the length dl is
Centre of Mass of Different Rigid Bodies dq at the centre, then dl = R dq.
● For a uniform rectangular, square or circular plate, CM Let l be the mass per unit length.
lies at its centre. Y
dθ
Rdθ
R
θ X
CM CM
CM Rsinθ Rcosθ
● Centre of mass of a uniform semicircular ring lies at Then, mass of this element is dm = l R dq
2R
a distance of h = from its centre, on the axis of 1 p
p X CM = ò (R cos q) l R dq = 0
m 0
symmetry, where R is the radius of the ring.
1 p
Þ YCM = ò (R sin q) × lR dq
m 0
R CM
2R lR 2 p lR 2
[ - cos q]0p
m ò0
π or = sin q d q =
l pR
O
● For a uniform semicircular disc of radius R, CM lies 2R
Þ YCM =
4R p
at a distance of h = from the centre on the axis of p
3p As, m = ò l R dq = 2 p R
0
symmetry as shown in the following figure.
Example 5. A rod of length L has non-uniform linear mass
2
R CM æ xö
4R density given by r( x) = a + b ç ÷ , where a and b are constants
3π èLø
O and 0 £ x £ L. The value of x for the centre of mass of the rod
● Centre of mass of a hemispherical shell of radius R is at [JEE Main 2020]
lies at a distance of h = R/ 2 from its centre on the axis 3 æ 2a + b ö 4æ a+b ö
of symmetry as shown in the following figure.
(a) ç ÷L (b) ç ÷L
4 è 3a + b ø 3 è 2a + 3b ø
3æ a+b ö 3 æ 2a + b ö
R CM (c) ç ÷L (d) ç ÷L
R 2 è 2a + b ø 2 è 3a + b ø
2
O Sol. (a) For a continuous mass distribution,
For a solid hemisphere of radius R, CM lies at a
ò xdm
●
3R xCM =
distance of h = from its centre on the axis of
8 ò dm
symmetry. Y
dx
x
R CM 3R
8 O X
O L
208 JEE Main Physics
Here, mass of an elemental length dx of rod, Example 6. Find the position of centre of mass of the
é æ xö ù
2 uniform lamina shown in figure is
dm = rdx = ê a + bç ÷ údx
êë èLø ú Y
û
L æ bx2 ö
ò0 xç a +
è L2 ø
÷dx
a
So, xCM = O X
L æ bx2 ö
ò0 ça +
è L2 ø
÷dx
Læ b x3 ö æ a ö æa ö æa aö
(a) ç - , 0 ÷ (c) ç , 0 ÷ (d) ç , - ÷
ò0 è
ç ax +
L2 ø
÷dx è 6 ø
(b) (0, 0)
è6 ø è6 6ø
=
Læ b x2 ö Sol. (a) Here, A1 = area of complete circle = pa2
ò0 è L2 ÷ødx
ç a +
2
æ aö p a2
and A2 = area of small circle = p ç ÷ =
L è2ø 4
é æ ax2 b x4 ö ù
êç + 2 × ÷ú ( x1, y1) = coordinates of centre of mass of large circle = (0 , 0)
êë è 2 L 4 ø úû 0
= æa ö
L and ( x2, y 2) = coordinates of centre of mass of small circle = ç , 0 ÷ .
éæ bx3 ö ù è2 ø
ê ç ax + 2 ÷ ú A1x1 - A2x2
êë è 3L ø úû 0 Using xCM =
A1 - A2
aL2 bL2
+ - p a2 æ a ö æ 1ö
ç ÷ -ç ÷
= 2 4
4 è2ø è8ø a
bL We get, xCM = = a =-
aL + 2 pa
2
æ3ö 6
3 pa - ç ÷
4 è 4ø
æ a b ö
ç + ÷ and y CM = 0 as y1 and y 2 both are zero. Therefore, the coordinates
=ç 2 4 ÷L æ a ö
ça+ b÷ of centre of mass of the lamina shown in figure are ç - , 0 ÷ .
è è 6 ø
3ø
3 æ 2a + b ö
So, xCM = ç ÷L
4 è 3a + b ø
Motion of Centre of Mass
Consider the motion of a system of n particles of
individual masses m1 , m2 , K , mn and total mass M. It is
Position of Centre of Mass after Removal of a assumed that no mass enters or leaves the system during
Part from a Rigid Body its motion, so that M remains constant. Then, velocity of
If some mass or area is removed from a rigid body, then centre of mass is
m v + m 2v 2 + ¼ + m n v n
the position of centre of mass of the remaining portion is vCM = 1 1
obtained from the following formulae. m1 + m2 + ¼ + mn
n
m r - m2r2 mi v i
rCM = 1 1 or vCM = å
m1 - m2 i =1 M
Example 7. Four particles A, B, C and D with masses (ii) Inelastic Collision A collision is said to be
mA = m, mB = 2m, mC = 3m and mD = 4m are at the corners of inelastic, if only linear momentum remains
a square. They have accelerations of equal magnitude with conserved and not the kinetic energy, the collision is
directions as shown in the figure. The acceleration of the said to be perfectly inelastic, if approaching
centre of mass of the particles (in ms-2 ) is [JEE Main 2019] particles permanently stick to each other and move
Y
with a common velocity.
a
B
C
a Elastic Collision in One Dimension
Let the two balls of mass m1and m2, collide each other
X
elastically with velocities u1 and u 2 in the directions
shown as in Fig. (a). Their velocities become v1 and v2
a A D
after the collision along the same line.
m2 m1
a u2 u1
a
(a) ( $i - $j) (b) a( $i + $j)
5 (a)
a Before collision
(c) zero (d) ( $i + $j)
5 m2 m1
v2 v1
Sol. (a) For a system of discrete masses, acceleration of centre of
mass (CM) is given by (b)
m a + mBa B + mC a C + mDa D After collision
a CM = A A
mA + mB + mC + mD
Since, in a perfectly elastic collision, total energy and
a^
j
A
mA=m D æ 2m1 ö æ m2 - m1 ö
– a^
i and v2 = ç ÷ u1 + ç ÷ u2 …(ii)
– a^
j è m1 + m2 ø è m1 + m2 ø
Example 8. Two particles of mass m and 2m moving in Inelastic Collision in One Dimension
opposite directions collide elastically with velocities v and 2v.
In an inelastic collision, the total linear momentum as well
Find their velocities after collision. as total energy remain conserved but total kinetic energy
(a) 0, 3v (b) 3v, 0 (c) 3v , 3v (d) 0, 0 after collision is not equal to kinetic energy before collision.
Sol. (b) Here, u1 = - v ,u2 = 2v ,m1 = m and m2 = 2m For inelastic collision,
v1 v2 v
2v v m1 m2 m1 m2
2m m +ve
Before collision v2=0 After collision
● For head-on collision, the final velocities of the colliding Rebounding of a Ball on Collision with
bodies can be written as
the Floor
æ m - em2 ö (1 + e)m2 Speed of the ball after the nth rebound
v1 = ç 1 ÷ u1 + u2 ●
è 1
m + m 2 ø ( m1 + m2 ) vn = en v0 = e n 2gh0
(1 + e)m1 æ m - em1 ö ● Height covered by the ball after the n th rebound
and v2 = u1 + ç 2 ÷ u2
( m1 + m2 ) è m1 + m2 ø h n = e 2n h 0
● Total distance (vertical) covered by the ball before it
Putting, e = 1, we will get formulae of v1 and v2 for an
stops bouncing
elastic collision.
æ 1 + e2 ö
Similarly, putting e = 0, we get formulae for inelastic H = h0 + 2h 1 + 2h 2 + 2h 3 + … = h0 ç ÷
collision. è 1 - e2 ø
● The loss in KE during an inelastic collision can be ● Total time taken by the ball before it stops bouncing
given as, T = t0 + t1 + t2 + t3 +…
1 m1m2 2 h0 2 h1 2 h2 2 h0 æ 1 + e ö
DK = (1 - e2 ) ( u1 - u 2 )2 = +2 +2 + ... = ç ÷
2 m1 + m2 g g g g è1 - eø
However, if the target is massive (i.e. m2 >> m1 ) and
u 2 = 0, then the lighter body loses all its kinetic energy. Two Dimensional or Oblique Collision
If the initial and final velocities of colliding bodies do not
Example 11. A ball of mass m moving with a speed v lie along the same line, then the collision is called two
makes a head-on collision with an identical ball at rest. The dimensional or oblique collision.
kinetic energy after collision of the balls is three-fourth the
In horizontal direction,
original kinetic energy. The coefficient of restitution (e) is
m1u1 cos a 1 + m2u 2 cos a 2 = m1v1 cos b1 + m2v2 cos b 2
1 1
(a) (b) Y m2
2 3
1 1 m1
(c) (d)
2 3 u1 v2
α1 β2
Sol. (c) From the law of conservation of momentum, X
α2 v1
mv = mv1 + mv 2 u2 β1 m1
or v = v1 + v 2 …(i)
v -v
which gives, e= 2 1 m2
v -0
m m
v In vertical direction,
m1u1 sin a 1 - m2u 2 sin a 2 = m1v1 sin b1 - m2v2 sin b 2
Before collision If m1 = m2 and a 1 + a 2 = 90°, then b1 + b 2 = 90°.
v2 v1 If a particle A of mass m1 moving along X-axis with a
speed u and makes an elastic collision with another
After collision stationary body B of mass m2. Then,
or v 2 - v1 = ev …(ii) v1
A
Adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get m1
v + ev A u B α
v2 =
2 m1 m2 β
(1 - e) v
and v1 = m2
2 v2
3 mv 2
m é v (1 + e)
2 2
(1 - e) v 2 2ù
m1v1 sin a = m2v2 sin b
= ê + ú
4 2 2 ë 4 4 û
2 2 2
Example 12. After perfectly inelastic collision between
Þ 3 = (1 + e) + (1 - e) = 2 (1 + e ) two identical particles moving with same speed in different
1 directions, the speed of the particles becomes half the initial
Þ e2 =
2 speed. Find the angle between the two before collision.
1
or e= (a) 120° (b) 140° (c) 90° (d) 100°
2
212 JEE Main Physics
Sol. (a) Let q be the desired angle. Linear momentum of the Example 14. Two particles of equal mass m have
system will remain conserved. Hence, æ $i + $j ö
p 2 = p12 + p22 + 2p1p2 cos q respective initial velocities u $i and u ç ÷. They collide
è 2 ø
v
2m completely inelastically. The energy lost in the process is
m v [JEE Main 2020]
θ 2
m 3 2 1 1
(a) mu 2 (b) mu 2 (c) mu 2 (d) mu 2
4 3 3 8
v
ì æ v öü
2 Sol. (d) Collision between particles are as shown in the figure.
2 2
or í2m çè ÷øý = (mv) + (mv) + 2(mv)(mv) cos q m
î 2 þ ui
or 1 = 1 + 1 + 2 cos q Before
u (i+j/2)
1
or cos q = - collision
2 m
\ q = 120°
v
2m After collision, both
Example 13. A particle of mass m is moving with speed 2v particles stuck as they
and collides with a mass 2m moving with speed v in the same collided inelastically
direction. After collision, the first mass is stopped completely
From momentum conservation, we have
while the second one splits into two particles each of mass m,
æ $i + $j ö
which move at angle 45º with respect to the original m(u$i) + muç ÷ = 2mv
direction. The speed of each of the moving particle will be è 2 ø
[JEE Main 2019] æ $i + $j ö 3 $ 1 $
u$
(a) 2v (b)
v Þ v= i + uç ÷ = u i + uj
2
2 è 4 ø 4 4
v Initial kinetic energy of particles,
(c) (d) 2 2 v 2
(2 2) 1 1 æ u ö
K1 = mu 2 + m ç ÷
2 2 è 2ø
Sol. (d) According to the questions,
1 1 3
Initial condition, = mu 2 + mu2 = mu 2
2 4 4
Final kinetic energy of combined particles,
1
K2 = (2m) v 2
Final condition, 2
v′ 2
m æ 3 2 2ö
1 æ ö æ1 ö
= ´ 2m ´ ç ç u÷ + ç u÷ ÷
m 45°
2 ç è4 ø è4 ø ÷
vf=0 è ø
45°
m
v′ 5
= mu 2
As we know that, in collision, linear momentum is conserved in 8
both x and y directions separately. Change in kinetic energy or energy lost
So, ( px)initial = ( px) final = K1 - K2
m(2v) + 2m(v) = 0 + mv ¢ cos 45º + mv ¢ cos 45º 3 5
2m = mu 2 - mu2
Þ 4mv = v¢ 4 8
2 1
Þ v ¢ = 2 2v = mu 2
8
Centre of Mass 213
Practice Exercise
ROUND I Topically Divided Problems
Position of Centre of Mass 6. Four particles of mass 1 kg, 2 kg, 3 kg and 4 kg are
1. A cricket bat is cut at the location of its centre of placed at the corners A, B, C and D respectively of
mass as shown. Then, a square ABCD of edge X-axis and edge AD is
taken along Y-axis, the coordinates of centre of
mass in SI unit is
(a) (1, 1) m
(a) the two pieces will have the same mass
(b) (5, 7) m
(b) the bottom piece will have larger mass
(c) (0.5, 0.7) m
(c) the handle piece will have larger mass
(d) None of the above
(d) mass of handle piece is double the mass of bottom
piece 7. In the HCl molecule, the separation between the
nuclei of the two atoms is about 1.27 Å
2. Which of the following does the centre of mass lie (1 Å = 10-10 m). Find the approximate location of
outside the body? [NCERT Exemplar]
the centre of mass of the molecule, given that a
(a) A pencil (b) A shotput chlorine atom is about 35.5 times as massive as a
(c) A dice (d) A bangle hydrogen atom and nearly all the mass of an atom
3. The centre of mass of two particles with masses is concentrated in its nucleus. [NCERT]
4 kg and 2 kg located at (1,0,1) and (2,2,0) (a) rCM = 1.24 Å
respectively has coordinates. (b) rCM = 2.24 Å
(a) (1/3, 2/3, 2/3) (b) (4/3, 1/3, 1/3)
(c) rCM = 0.24 Å
(c) (2/3, 1/3, 1/3) (d) (4/3, 2/3, 2/3)
(d) rCM = 3.24 Å
4. Three rods of the same mass are placed as shown in
figure. What will be the coordinates of centre of mass 8. The centre of mass of three particles of masses
of the system? 1 kg, 2 kg and 3 kg is at (2, 2, 2). The position of the
(0, a) fourth mass of 4 kg to be placed in the system as
that the new centre of mass is at (0, 0, 0) is
(a) (- 3, - 3, - 3) (b) (- 3, 3, - 3) [EAMCET]
(c) (2, 3, - 3) (d) (2, - 2, 3)
10. Three bricks each of length L and mass M are 14. A circular hole of radius 1 cm is cut-off from a disc
arranged from the wall as shown. The distance of of radius 6 cm. The centre of hole is 3 cm from the
the centre of mass of the system from the wall is centre of the disc. The position of centre of mass of
Wall
the remaining disc from the centre of disc is
3 1
(a) - cm (b) cm
35 35
3
L/4 (c) cm (d) None of these
10
L/2
L 15. The density of a non-uniform rod of length 1m is
L L 3 11 given by r ( x) = a (1 + bx2 ) where a and b are
(a) (b) (c) L (d) L constants and 0 £ x £ 1. The centre of mass of the rod
4 2 2 12
will be at [NCERT Exemplar]
11. The coordinates of centre of mass of a uniform flag 3 (2 + b) 4 (2 + b)
shaped lamina (thin flat plate) of mass 4 kg. (The (a) (b)
4(3 + b) 3 (3 + b)
coordinates of the same are shown in figure) are
[JEE Main 2020] 3 (2 + b) 4 (3 + b)
(0, 3) (2, 3) (c) (d)
4 (2 + b) 3 (2 + b)
(2, 2)
16. A non-uniform thin rod of length L is placed along
(1, 2) X-axis as such its one of ends is at the origin. The
linear mass density of rod is l = l 0 x. The distance
of centre of mass of rod from the origin is
L 2L
(0, 0)
(a) (b)
(1, 0) 2 3
(a) (1.25 m, 1.50 m) (b) (1 m, 1.75 m) L L
(c) (d)
(c) (0.75 m, 0.75 m) (d) (0.75 m, 1.75 m) 4 5
12. Look at the drawing given in the figure, which has 17. An L-shaped object made of thin rods of uniform
been drawn with ink of uniform line thickness. The mass density is suspended with a string as shown
mass of ink used to draw each of the two inner in figure. If AB = BC and the angle is made by AB
circles and each of the two line segments is m . The with downward vertical is q, then [JEE Main 2019]
mass of the ink used to draw the outer circle is 6 m .
The coordinates of the centres of the different parts A
are outer circle (0, 0) left inner circle ( - a, a), right z
inner circle ( a, a), vertical line (0, 0) and horizontal θ
C
x
2 1
(a) tan q = (b) tan q =
3 2 3
a a a a
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1 1
10 8 12 3 (c) tan q = (d) tan q =
2 3
13. The distance of the centre of mass of the T-shaped
plate from O is Motion of Centre of Mass
8m 18. An isolated particle of mass m is moving in a
O horizontal plane (x-y), along the X-axis, at a certain
2m
height above the ground. It suddenly explodes into
3m 3m two fragments of masses m/4 and 3m/4. An instant
later, the smaller fragment is at y = +15 cm. The
6m
19. Two identical particles move towards each other Collision in One Dimension
with velocity 2v and v, respectively. The velocity of
centre of mass is 24. Two equal masses m1 and m2 moving along the
(a) v (b)
v same straight line with velocities + 3 m/s and
3 - 5 m/s respectively collide elastically. Their
v velocities after the collision will be respectively
(c) (d) zero
2 (a) + 4 m/s for both
(b) - 3 m/s and + 5 m/s
20. Find the velocity of centre of the system shown in (c) - 4 m/s and + 4 m/s
the figure. (d) - 5 m/s and + 3 m/s
1 kg 2 ms–1
y 25. A large block of wood of mass M = 599
. kg is
hanging from two long massless cords. A bullet of
x′ x 2 kg mass m = 10 g is fired into the block and gets
30° embedded in it. The (block + bullet) then swing
upwards, their centre of mass rising a vertical
y′
2 ms–1 distance h = 9.8 cm before the (block + bullet)
pendulum comes momentarily rest at the end of its
æ2 + 2 3 ö $ 2 $ arc. The speed of the bullet just before collision is
(a) ç ÷ i- j (b) 4 $i
è 3 ø 3 (Take, g = 9.8 ms-2 ) [JEE Main 2021]
æ2 -2 3 ö $ 2 $
(c) ç ÷ i- j (d) None of these
è 3 ø 3
29. An a-particle of mass m suffers one-dimensional 34. A block of mass 1.9 kg is at rest at the edge of a
elastic collision with a nucleus at rest of unknown table of height 1 m. A bullet of mass 0.1 kg collides
mass. It is scattered directly backwards losing 64% with the block and sticks to it. If the velocity of the
of its initial kinetic energy. The mass of the nucleus bullet is 20 m/s in the horizontal direction just
is [JEE Main 2019] before the collision, then the kinetic energy just
(a) 1.5 m (b) 4 m before the combined system strikes the floor, is
(c) 3.5 m (d) 2 m (Take, g = 10 m/s2 and assume there is no
rotational motion and loss of energy after the
30. A thick uniform bar lies on a frictionless horizontal collision is negligible) [JEE Main 2020]
surface and is free to move in any way on the
surface. Its mass is 0.16 kg and length is 1.7 m. (a) 20 J (b) 19 J (c) 21 J (d) 23 J
Two particles each of mass 0.08 kg are moving on 35. In an elastic head on collision between two
the same surface and towards the bar in the particles,
direction perpendicular to the bar, one with a (a) velocity of separation is equal to the velocity of
velocity of 10 ms -1 and other with velocity 6 ms -1. approach
If collision between particles and bar is completely (b) velocity of the target is always more than the
inelastic, both particles strike with the bar velocity of the projectile
simultaneously. The velocity of centre of mass after (c) the maximum velocity of the target is double to
collision is that of the projectile
(a) 2 ms -1 (b) 4 ms -1 (d) maximum transfer of kinetic energy occurs when
(c) 10 ms -1 (d) 167 ms -1 masses of both projectile and target are equal
31. In the given figure four, identical spheres of equal 36. A sphere of mass m moving with a constant
mass m are suspended by wires of equal length l0 , velocity v hits another stationary sphere of same
so that all spheres are almost touching to one mass. If e is the coefficient of restitution, then the
other. If the sphere 1 is released from the ratio of velocity of two spheres after collision will be
horizontal position and all collisions are elastic, the 1-e 1+ e e+ 1 e-1 2
velocity of sphere 4 just after collision is (a) (b) (c) (d) t
1+ e 1-e e-1 e+ 1
37. A particle of mass m collides with another
stationary particle of mass M. If the particle m stops
just after collision, the coefficient of restitution for
collision is equal to
m M -m m
1 2 3 4 (a) 1 (b) (c) (d)
M M +m M +m
(a) 2 gl0 (b) 3 gl0 38. In a one dimensional collision between two
g l0 identical particles A and B, where B is stationary
(c) gl0 (d) and A has momentum p before impact. During
2
impact B gives an impulse J to A. Then coefficient
32. A body of mass 1 kg falls freely from a height of of restitution between the two is
100 m on a platform of mass 3 kg which is 2J 2J
mounted on a spring having spring constant (a) -1 (b) +1
p p
k = 1.25 ´ 106 N/m. The body sticks to the platform
J J
and the spring’s maximum compression is found to (c) +1 (d) -1
be x. Given that g = 10 ms -2 , the value of x will be p p
close to [JEE Main 2019] 39. Three identical blocks A, B and C are placed on
(a) 8 cm (b) 4 cm horizontal frictionless surface. The blocks A and C
(c) 40 cm (d) 80 cm are at rest. But A is approaching towards B with a
33. A man (mass = 50 kg) and his son (mass = 20 kg) speed 10 ms–1. The coefficient of restitution for all
are standing on a frictionless surface facing each collisions is 0.5. The speed of the block C just after
other. The man pushes his son, so that he starts collision is
moving at a speed of 0.70 ms -1 with respect to the
A B C
man. The speed of the man with respect to the
surface is [JEE Main 2019]
(a) 11.25 ms–1 (b) 6 ms–1
(a) 0.28 ms -1 (b) 0.20 ms -1
(c) 8 ms–1 (d) 10 ms–1
(c) 0.47 ms -1 (d) 0.14 ms -1
Centre of Mass 217
40. A bullet of mass m hits a target of mass M hanging 46. A particle of mass m with an initial velocity u$i
by a string and gets embedded in it. If the block collides perfectly elastically with a mass 3m at rest.
rises to a height h as a result of this collision, the It moves with a velocity v $j after collision, then v is
velocity of the bullet before collision is given by [JEE Main 2020]
(a) v = 2 gh 2 1 u u
(a) v = u (b) v = u (c) v = (d) v =
æ mö 3 6 2 3
(b) v = 2 gh ç1 + ÷
è Mø
47. A smooth steel ball strikes a fixed smooth steel
æ Mö
(c) v = ç1 + ÷ 2 gh plate at an angle q with the vertical. If the
è mø coefficient of restitution is e, the angle at which
æ mö the rebounce will take place is
(d) v = 2 gh ç1 - ÷
è Mø æ tan q ö
(a) q (b) tan -1 ç ÷
è e ø
41. If a ball is dropped from rest, its bounces from the
æ e ö
floor. The coefficient of restitution is 0.5 and the (c) e tan q (d) tan -1 ç ÷
è tan q ø
speed just before the first bounce is 5 ms–1. The
total time taken by the ball to come to rest is 48. Particle A of mass m1 moving with velocity
(a) 2 s
( 3 $i + $j ) ms-1 collides with another particle B of
(b) 1 s
mass m2 which is at rest initially. Let v1 and v2
(c) 0.5 s
be the velocities of particles A and B after
(d) 0.25 s
collision, respectively. If m1 = 2m2 and after
42. A tennis ball bounces down flight of stairs striking collision v1 = ( i$ + 3 $j) ms-1, then the angle between
each step in turn and rebounding to the height of v1 and v2 is [JEE Main 2020]
the step above. The coefficient of restitution has a (a) 15° (b) 60° (c) -45° (d) 105°
value
49. A mass m moves with a velocity v and collides
(a) 1/2 (b) 1
inelastically with another identical mass. After
(c) 1 / 2 (d) 1 / 2 2 v
collision, the 1st mass moves with velocity in a
43. Two bodies A and B of definite shape (dimensions of 3
bodies are not ignored). A is moving with speed of direction perpendicular to the initial direction of
10 ms–1 and B is in rest, collides elastically. The motion. Find the speed of the second mass after
(a) body A comes to rest and B moves with speed of collision.
10 ms -1 2 v
(a) v (b) 3v (c) v (d)
(b) they may move perpendicular to each other 3 3
(c) A and B may come to rest 50. A particle of mass m moving in the x-direction with
(d) they must move perpendicular to each other speed 2v is hit by another particle of mass 2m
moving in the y-direction with speed v. If the
Collision in Two Dimensions collision is perfectly inelastic, the percentage loss in
44. A ball moving with a certain velocity hits another the energy during the collision is close to
identical ball at rest. If the plane is frictionless and [JEE Main 2015]
collision is elastic, the angle between the directions (a) 44% (b) 50% (c) 56% (d) 62%
in which the balls move after collision, will be
(a) 30º (b) 60º
51. A particle of mass m is projected with a speed u
p
(c) 90º (d) 120º from the ground at an angle q = w.r.t. horizontal
3
45. A body at rest breaks up into 3 parts. If 2 parts (X-axis). When it has reached its maximum height,
having equal masses fly off perpendicularly each it collides completely inelastically with another
after with a velocity of 12 m/s, then the velocity of particle of the same mass and velocity u$i. The
the third part which has 3 times mass of each part horizontal distance covered by the combined mass
is before reaching the ground is [JEE Main 2020]
(a) 4 2 m/s at an angle of 45° from each body 3 3 u2 3 2 u2
(a) (b)
(b) 24 2 m/s at an angle of 135° from each body 8 g 4 g
(c) 6 2 m/s at 135° from each body 5 u2 u2
(d) 4 2 m/s at 135° from each body (c) (d) 2 2
8 g g
ROUND II Mixed Bag
Only One Option is Correct 7. Three identical balls A, B and C are lying on a
1. A 10 kg object collides with stationary 5 kg object horizontal frictionless table as shown in figure. If
and after collision they stick together and move ball A is imparted a velocity v towards B and C and
forward with velocity 4 ms -1. What is the velocity the collisions are perfectly elastic, then finally
with which the 10 kg object hit the second one? v
(a) 4 ms–1 (b) 6 ms–1 A B C
(c) 10 ms–1 (d) 12 ms–1
2. A bullet of mass M hits a block of mass M ¢. The
energy transfer is maximum, when (a) ball A comes to rest and balls B and C roll out with
(a) M ¢ = M (b) M ¢ = 2 M speed v/2 each
(c) M ¢ << M (d) M ¢ >> M (b) balls A and B are at rest and ball C rolls out with
speed v
3. Two bodies having masses m1 and m2 and velocities (c) all the three balls roll out with speed v/3 each
u1 and u2 collide and form a composite system of (d) all the three balls come to rest
m1v1 + m2 v2 = 0 ( m1 ¹ m2 ). The velocity of the
composite system is
8. In the figure shown below, the magnitude of
acceleration of centre of mass of the system is
(a) zero (b) u1 + u 2
( Take, g = 10 ms -2 )
u1 + u 2
(c) u1 - u 2 (d)
2 µ = 0.2 5 kg
11. A particle is projected with 200 ms -1, at an angle of 15. Two carts on horizontal straight rails are pushed
60º. At the highest point, it explodes into three apart by an explosion of a powder charge Q placed
particles of equal masses. One goes vertically between the carts. Suppose the coefficient of
upward with velocity 100 ms -1, the second particle friction between carts and rails are identical. If the
goes vertically downward with the same velocity as 200 kg cart travels a distance of 36 m and stops,
the first. Then, what is the velocity of the third the distance covered by the cart weighing 300 kg is
particle? (a) 32 m (b) 24 m (c) 16 m (d) 12 m
(a) 120 ms–1 with 60º angle
16. The masses of five balls at rest and lying at equal
(b) 200 ms–1 with 30º angle
distances in a straight line are in geometrical
(c) 50 ms–1 vertically upwards
progression with ratio 2 and their coefficients of
(d) 300 ms–1 horizontally
restitution are each 2/3. If the first ball be started
12. An object of mass m1 collides with another object of towards the second with velocity u, then the
mass m2 , which is at rest. After the collision the velocity communicated to 5th ball is
objects move with equal speeds in opposite 2 3 4
5 æ5ö æ5ö æ5ö
direction. The ratio of the masses m2 : m1 is (a) u (b) ç ÷ u (c) ç ÷ u (d) ç ÷ u
9 è9ø è9ø è9ø
[JEE Main 2021]
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 1 17. Consider a rubber ball freely falling from a height
h = 4.9 m onto a horizontal elastic plate. Assume
13. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 ( m1 > m2 )
that the duration of collision is negligible and the
respectively are tied to the ends of a massless
collision with the plate is totally elastic. Then the
string, which passes over a light and frictionless
velocity as a function of time and the height as
pulley. The masses are initially at rest and then
function of time will be
released. Then acceleration of the centre of mass of
v v
the system is +v1
v1
(a) (b)
O t
O t
–v1
v
v
+v1
a2 T +v1
(c) O 3t1 (d) O 3t1
t t
t1 2t1 4t1 t1 2t1 4t1
m2
–v1 –v1
T
C v0 A B æ 2a 2b ö æ 5a 5b ö
(a) ç , ÷ (b) ç , ÷
è 3 3ø è 12 12 ø
mv02 mv02 æ 3a 3b ö æ 5a 5b ö
(a) (b) (c) ç , ÷ (d) ç , ÷
è 4 4ø è 3 3ø
x02 2x02
3 mv02 2 mv02 25. A particle of mass m is dropped from a height h
(c) (d)
2 x02 3 x02 above the ground. At the same time another
particle of the same mass is thrown vertically
22. The position vector of the centre of mass rCM of an upwards from the ground with a speed of 2gh. If
asymmetric uniform bar of negligible area of they collide head-on completely inelastically, then
cross-section as shown in figure is [JEE Main 2019] the time taken for the combined mass to reach the
h
ground, in units of is [JEE Main 2020]
g
2m 1 1 3 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 2 4
L m
m 26. Three blocks A, B and C are lying on a smooth
L 2L 3L horizontal surface as shown in the figure. A and B
have equal masses m while C has mass M. Block A
13 5 is given an initial speed v towards B due to which it
(a) r = L x$ + L y$
8 8 collides with B perfectly inelastically. The combined
11 3 5
(b) r = L x$ + L y$ mass collides with C, also perfectly inelastically th
8 8 6
3 11 of the initial kinetic energy is lost in whole process.
(c) r = L x$ + Ly
$ M
8 8 What is value of ?
5 13 m [JEE Main 2019]
(d) r = L x$ + Ly
$
A B C
8 8
m m M
23. Blocks of masses m, 2m, 4m and 8m are arranged
in a line on a frictionless floor. Another block of (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5
mass m, moving with speed v along the same line
(see figure) collides with mass m in perfectly 27. A simple pendulum is made of a string of length l
inelastic manner. All the subsequent collisions are and a bob of mass m, is released from a small angle
also perfectly inelastic. By the time, the last block q 0 . It strikes a block of mass M, kept on a
of mass 8m starts moving, the total energy loss is horizontal surface at its lowest point of oscillations,
p% of the original energy. Value of p is close to elastically. It bounces back and goes up to an angle
[JEE Main 2020] q 1. Then, M is given by [JEE Main 2019]
v
æ q + q1 ö m æ q0 - q1 ö
(a) m ç 0 ÷ (b) ç ÷
è q0 - q1 ø 2 è q0 + q1 ø
m m 2m 4m 8m
æ q - q1 ö m æ q0 + q1 ö
(a) 77 (b) 87 (c) 94 (d) 37 (c) m ç 0 ÷ (d) ç ÷
è q0 + q1 ø 2 è q0 - q1 ø
Centre of Mass 221
28. Two particles of masses M and 2M, moving as centre of mass of the remaining portion from O is
a
shown, with speeds of 10 m/s and 5 m/s, collide - , value of X (to the nearest integer) is ……… .
elastically at the origin. After the collision, they X
[JEE Main 2020]
move along the indicated directions with speed v1
and v2 are nearly [JEE Main 2019]
M 2M a
v1
10 m/s
O
30° 30°
d
45° 45° l=a/2
5m/s
v2
33. Two bodies of the same mass are moving with the
2M M
same speed, but in different directions in a plane.
(a) 6.5 m/s and 3.2 m/s (b) 3.2 m/s and 6.3 m/s
They have a completely inelastic collision and move
together thereafter with a final speed which is half
(c) 3.2 m/s and 12.6 m/s (d) 6.5 m/s and 6.3 m/s
of their initial speed. The angle between the initial
29. As shown in figure, when a spherical cavity velocities of the two bodies (in degree) is ............
(centred at O) of radius 1 is cut out of a uniform [JEE Main 2020]
sphere of radius R (centred at C), the centre of mass
34. A particle of mass m is moving along the X-axis
of remaining (shaded) part of sphere is at G, i.e. on
with initial velocity u$i. It collides elastically with a
the surface of the cavity. R can be determined by
particle of mass 10 m at rest and then moves with
the equation
half its initial kinetic energy (see figure). If
R sin q 1 = n sin q 2 , then value of n is …..… .
[JEE Main 2020]
m
1
θ1
G
C O m ^ 10 m θ2
ui
10 m
Round II
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. 3
31. 1 32. 23 33. 120 34. 10 35. 30 36. 4
Solutions
Round I 5. The position of centre of mass of the system shown in
1. Centre of mass is closer to massive part of the body, figure is likely to be at C. This is because lower part of
therefore the bottom piece of bat has larger mass. the sphere containing sand is heavier than upper part
2. Centre of mass of a bangle lies at the centre of the of the sphere containing air.
bangle, which is outside the body. mAX A + mB X B + mC X C + mDX D
6. XCM =
3. Here, m1 = 4 kg, m2 = 2 kg mA + mB + mC + mD
x1 = 1, y1 = 0, z1 = 1, x2 = 2, y2 = 2, z2 = 0 Y
The coordinates of centre are
D
m x + m2x2 4 ´ 1 + 2 ´ 2 4 C(1, 1)
x= 1 1 = = (0, 1)
m1 + m2 4+2 3
m1 y1 + m2y2 4 ´ 0 + 2 ´ 2 2
y= = =
m1 + m2 4+2 3
A X
m z + m2z2 4 ´ 1 + 2 ´ 0 2 (0, 0) B(1, 0)
z= 1 1 = =
m1 + m2 4+2 3
1 ´0 + 2 ´1 + 3 ´1 + 4 ´0
=
4. As shown in figure, centre of mass of respective rods are 1+2+3+4
at their respective mid-points. 2+3 1
= = = 0.5 m
Hence centre of mass of the system has coordinates 10 2
(XCM , YCM ), then
mAY A + mBYB + mCYC + mDYD
Similarly, YCM =
(0, a ) mA + mB + mC + mD
1 ´0 + 2 ´0 + 3 ´1 + 4 ´1
a a =
,
2 2 1+2+3+4
a
0, 7
2 = = 0.7 m
10
7. Let mass of hydrogen atom = m
O a (a , 0)
,0
2 \Mass of chlorine atom = 35.5m
a a CM
m´ + m ´ + m ´0 Cl
2 2 a
XCM = = 35.5 m
3m 3 m
a a 1.27 Å
m ´0 + m ´ + m ´
YCM = 2 2 =a Let hydrogen atom be at origin, i.e. position vector of
3m 3 it, r1 = 0.
Centre of Mass 223
Þ 4x4 = -12 Þ x4 = -3 11. Given lamina consists of 2 parts I and II as shown in the
figure.
Similarly, y4 = -3 Þ z4 = -3
A (0, 3) E (1, 3) F (2, 3)
\ Position of fourth mass (- 3, - 3 , - 3).
9. The height of equilateral D is II
h = y3 = (1)2 - (0.5)2 = 3 /2 m I G (2, 2)
Thus, coordinates of three masses are (0, 0), (1, 0) D (1, 2)
æ 3ö
and ç0.5, ÷.
è 2 ø
Y B (0, 0) C (1, 0)
m3=150 g
As mass of uniform lamina is 4 kg, mass of part I is
x3=0.5 m, y3= √3 m m1 = 3 kg and mass of part II is m2 = 1 kg.
2
These masses can be assumed to be concentrated at
geometrical centres of sections I and II.
So, m1 = 3 kg has coordinates x1 = 0.5 m,
m1=50 g (m2=100 g) y1 = 1.5 m
X and m2 = 1 kg has coordinates x2 = 1.5 m,
(x1=0, y1=0) 0.5 m (x2=1 m, y2=0)
y2 = 2.5 m
m1x1 + m2x2 + m3 x3 Now, we use formula of centre of mass (CM) to find
Using, XCM = ,
m1 + m2 + m3 XCM and YCM.
50 ´ 0 + 100 ´ 1 + 150 ´ 0.5 m x + m2x2
= So, XCM = 1 1
50 + 100 + 150 m1 + m2
175 7 (3 ´ 0.5) + (1 ´ 1.5)
= = m = = 0.75 m
300 12 4
224 JEE Main Physics
A m1 2m dm = l dx = l 0x dx
1 1
ò 0 x dm ò 0 x (l0x dx)
3m 3m \ xCM = = 1
ò dm ò 0 l0x dx
6m
B m2
L
é x3 ù
l0 ê ú L3
l0
ë 3 û0 3 =2L
= =
2m é x2 ù
L
L2 3
Taking parts A and B as two bodies of same system. l0 ê ú l0
2 2
m1 = l ´ b ´ s = 8 ´ 2 ´ s = 16 s ë û0
m2 = l ´ b ´ s = 6 ´ 2 ´ s = 12 s 17. The given system of rods can be drawn using geometry
Choosing O as origin, as,
x1 = 1 m, x2 = 2 + 3 = 5 m
16 s ´ 1 + 12 s ´ 5 19
\ XCM = = B
16 s + 12 s 7
3a
a/2
4
a θ
= 2.7 m from O
(COM)1
14. For the calculation of the position of centre of mass,
a/2
cut-off mass is taken as negative. The mass of disc is
A′
A
a/4
O' B′
O
a (COM)2
m1 = pr12s C
= p (6)2s = 36 ps where, (COM)1 and (COM)2 are the centre of mass of
where s is surface mass density. both rods AB and AC, respectively.
The mass of cutting portion is So, in DA ¢ BB¢,
a
m2 = p (1)2s = ps A ¢ B¢ 4 1 1
tan q = = = or tan q =
m x - m2x2 A ¢ B 3a 3 3
xCM = 1 1
m1 - m2 4
Taking origin at the centre of disc, 18. Since there is no external force acting on the particle,
hence
x1 = 0, x2 = 3 cm m y + m2y2
36 ps ´ 0 - ps ´ 3 yCM = 1 1 = 0,
xCM = m1 + m2
36 ps - ps
æmö æ3mö
- 3ps 3 Hence,ç ÷ ´ (15) + ç ÷ (y ) = 0
= =- cm è4ø è 4 ø 2
35 ps 35 Þ y2 = - 5 cm
Centre of Mass 225
m0 m1=50 kg
v1 m2=20 kg
vCM v2
µ=0
v2 Man Son
m After collision
Centre of Mass 227
40. If initial velocity of bullet be v, then after collision 45. The momentum of third part will be equal and opposite
combined velocity of bullet and target is of the resultant of momentum of rest two equal parts.
mv y
v¢ =
(M + m)
v¢2 12 m/s M
and h= or v¢ = 2 gh
2g 12 m/s
mv M x
\ = 2 gh
(M + m) 135°
M
æ M + mö æ Mö
Þ v=ç ÷ × 2 gh = ç1 + ÷ 2 gh
è m ø è mø v
v - v0
41. Acceleration, g = Let v be the velocity of third part.
t
By the conservation of linear momentum,
\ v=0
3 m ´ v = m ´ 12 2
Speed before first bounce
Þ v = 4 2 m/s
v0 = - 5 ms –1
v - vA 46. As collision is elastic as shown below, both momentum
\ t= B and KE are conserved.
g
0 - (-5) 5 v1=v^
j
= = = 0.5 s u1=u^
i u2=0
10 10
m 3m m 3m
42. As shown in the following figure, ball is falling from v2
height 2 h and rebounding to a height h only. It means Before collision After collision
that velocity of ball just before collision. Momentum conservation gives,
mu$i = mv$j + 3mv 2
h 1 $
Þ v2 = (ui - v$j)
3
u 2 + v2
Þ |v2| =
9
or v22 = (u 2 + v2) / 9 …(i)
Kinetic energy conservation gives,
2 (2 h ) 4h 1 1 1
u= = Þ mu 2 = mv2 + 3mv22
g g 2 2 2
and velocity just after collision. Þ u 2 = v2 + 3v22 …(ii)
2h Substituting value of v2 from Eq (i) into Eq (ii), we get
v=- u
g v=
2
2h
-v g 1 47. Since, no force is present along the surface, so
\ e= = = momentum conservation principle for ball is applicable
u 4h 2
along the surface of plate.
g
v1
43. (a) This is only possible when collision is head-on
elastic.
(b) When collision is oblique elastic, then in this case, θ2 θ1
both bodies move perpendicular to each other n
θ1
after collision.
(c) Since, in elastic collision, kinetic energy of system
remains constant so, this is not possible. v Plate
(d) The same reason as (b).
44. This is an example of elastic oblique collision. When a mv sin q1 = mv1 sin q2
moving body collides obliquely with another identical or v sin q1 = v1 sin q2
body at rest, then during elastic collision, the angle of v cos q2 v1 cos q2
e= 1 =
divergence will be 90°. v cos q1 v cos q
Centre of Mass 229
\ v1 = cos q2 = ev cos q
1 2
v1 sin q2 v sin q tan q
\ = = Before collision
v1 cos q2 ev cos q e v/√3 m
tan q 1 2 vx
\ tan q =
e
æ tan q ö vy
\ q2 = tan -1 ç ÷
è e ø After collision
In y-direction, apply conservation of momentum, we
48. Given that, u1 = ( 3 $i + $j) m/s, u 2 = 0 get
v1 = ($i + 3 $j) m/s and m1 = 2m2 æ v ö
0 + 0 =m ç ÷ - mvy
Using conservation of linear momentum, è 3ø
pi = pf v
Þ vy =
3
m1u1 + m2u 2 = m1 v1 + m2v2
Velocity of second mass after collision,
2m2( 3 i$ + $j) + m2(0) = 2m2(i$ + 3 $j) + m2v2 2
æ v ö 2 4 2 2
v¢ = ç ÷ +v = v or v ¢ = v
v2 = 2( 3 $i + $j) - 2($i + 3 $j) è 3ø 3 3
= 2( 3 - 1)($i - $j) m/s 50. Consider the movement of two particles as shown below.
Let the angle between v1 and v2 be q, then
v1 × v2
cos q =
v1v2
Conserving linear momentum in x-direction
($i + 3 $j) × 2( 3 - 1)($i - $j) ( pi )x = ( pf )x
=
2 × 2 2 ( 3 - 1) or 2mv = (2m + m) vx
2
(Q v1 = 2 m/s, v2 = 2 2 ( 3 - 1) m/s) or vx = v
3
2( 3 - 1) - 2 3 ( 3 - 1) Conserving linear momentum in y-direction
=
4 2 ( 3 - 1) ( pi ) y = ( pf ) y
or 2mv = (2m + m) vy
2( 3 - 1)(1 - 3 ) 2
= or vy = v
4 2 ( 3 - 1) 3
1- 3 Initial kinetic energy of the two particles system is
cos q = = -0.259 1 1
2 2 Ei = m (2v)2 + (2m) (v)2
2 2
Þ q = 105° 1 1
= ´ 4mv2 + ´ 2mv2
Alternate solution 2 2
Directly observing the direction of v1 and v2. = 2mv2 + mv2 = 3mv2
y
v1 Final energy of the combined two particles system is
1
E f = (3m) (vx2 + vy2 )
60º 2
x
45º 1 é 4v2 4v2 ù
= (3m) ê + ú
2 ë 9 9 û
v2
3m é 8v2 ù 4mv2
æ 1 ö = ê ú=
q1 = tan -1 ç ÷ = 60 ° 2 ë 9 û 3
è 3ø
Loss in the energy DE = Ei - E f
Þ q2 = tan -1 (-1) = 45 °
é 4ù 5
\ q = q1 + q2 = 60 ° + 45 ° = 105 ° = mv2 ê3 - ú = mv2
ë 3û 3
49. In x-direction, apply conservation of momentum, we get
Percentage loss in the energy during the collision
mu1 + 0 = mvx
Þ mv = mvx DE (5 /3) mv2 5 ~ 56%
´ 100 = ´ 100 = ´ 100 -
Þ vx = v Ei 3mv2 9
230 JEE Main Physics
10. At the time of applying the impulsive force on block of 14. First sphere will take a time t1 to start motion in second
10 kg pushes the spring forward but 4 kg mass is at rest. L
sphere on colliding with it, where t1 = .
Hence, u
m v + m2v2 10 ´ 14 + 4 ´ 0 Now speed of second sphere will be
vCM = 1 1 =
m1 + m2 10 + 4 u 2 æ 1ö
v2 = (1 + e) = u çQ e = ÷
140 2 3 è 3ø
= = 10 ms –1
14 Hence, time taken by second sphere to start motion in
11. At the highest point momentum of particle before L 3L
third sphere t2 = = .
explosion 2 /3 u 2 u
p = mv cos 60° L 3L 5L
1 \Total time t = t1 + t2 = + =
= m ´ 200 ´ = 100 m horizontally. u 2u 2u
2
15. Consider the two cart system as a single system. Due to
Now, as there is no external force during explosion,
explosion of power, total momentum of system remains
hence
unchanged, i. e. p1 + p2 = 0 or m1v1 = m2v2, hence
p = p1 + p2 + p3 = constant
v1 m2
However, since velocities of two fragments, of masses =
v2 m1
m/3 each, are 100 ms -1 downward and 100 ms -1
upward. As coefficient of friction between carts and rails are
Hence, p1 = - p2 identical, hence a1 = a 2 and at the time of stopping, final
or p1 + p2 = 0 velocity of cart is zero. Using equation v2 - u 2 = 2 as, we
have
m
p3 = × v3 = p = 100 m horizontally s1 v12 m22
3 = =
s2 v22 m12
v3 = 300 ms -1 horizontally
s1m12 36 ´ (200)2
12. Þ s2 = = = 16 m
m22 (300)2
v1 m1 m2
16. We know that velocity of 2nd ball after collision is given
m1 m2 v v by
u1 (1 + e) m1 (m - m1e)
v2 = + u2 2
(m1 + m2) (m1 + m2)
m1v1 = - m1v + m2v
m In present problem u2 = 0,m2 = 2 m1 and e = 2 / 3, hence
v1 = - v + 2 v
m1 æ 2ö
u ç1 + ÷ m1
(v1 + v) m2 è 3ø 5
= v2 = = u
v m1 (m1 + 2 m1 ) 9
2v As four exactly similar type of collisions are taking place
e= =1
v1 successively, hence velocity communicated to fifth ball
4
v= 1
v æ5ö
v5 = ç ÷ u
2 è9ø
v1 + v1 / 2 m2 m 1 2
= Þ 3= 2 17. h = gt (parabolic)
v1 / 2 m1 m1 2
Hence, the ratio of masses m2 : m1 is 3 : 1. v = - gt and after the collision v = gt (straight line).
æ m1 - m2 ö Collision is perfectly elastic, then ball reaches to same
13. In the pulley arrangement,|a1| = |a 2| = a = ç ÷g height again and again with same velocity.
è m1 + m2 ø
v v
but a1 is in downward direction and a 2 in the upward
direction, i. e. a 2 = - a1. +v1
æ m - m2 ö æ m - m2 ö 1
m1 ç 1 ÷ g - m2 ç 1 ÷g 18. Let ball strikes at a speed u, the K 1 = mu 2.
è m1 + m2 ø è m1 + m2 ø 2
=
(m1 + m2) Due to collision, tangential component of velocity
2
æ m - m2 ö remains unchanged at u sin 45°, but the normal
=ç 1 ÷ g 1
è m1 + m2 ø component of velocity change to u sin 45° = u cos 45°
2
232 JEE Main Physics
Now, initial kinetic energy of system, \Using formula for centre of mass, we have
1 1 A x - A2x2
(K sys )i = mv2 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 = mv2 XCM = 1 1
2 2 A1 - A2
æ a ö ab æ 3a ö
And final kinetic energy of system, abç ÷ - ç ÷
è2ø 4 è 4 ø
1 =
(K sys )f = (m + m + 2m + 4m + 8m) (v¢ )2 ab
2 ab -
2
4
1 æ vö 8a 2b - 3a 2b
= ´ 16m ´ ç ÷
2 è 16 ø 16 5a
= =
1 v2 3ab 12
=
´ 16m ´
2 256 4
1 A y - A2y2
= mv 2 Similarly, YCM = 1 1
32 A1 - A2
Loss in kinetic energy, æ b ö ab æ 3b ö
abç ÷ - ç ÷
(DK sys )loss = (K sys )i - (K sys )f è2ø 4 è 4 ø 5b
= =
1 1 ab 12
= mv2 - mv2 ab -
2 32 4
15 25. Let particles collide at some distance h ¢ from top at time
= mv2 t0. Then,
32
1
% loss in kinetic energy, h ¢ = gt02 ... (i)
2
(DK sys )loss (for particle A)
%(DK sys )loss = ´ 100% 1
(K sys )i and h - h ¢ = 2 gh × t0 - gt02 .... (ii)
15 2
mv2 (for particle B)
= 32 ´ 100% A u=0
1
mv2 h′
2
15 h
= ´ 100%
16 h – h′
= 93.75% B √2gh
Given that, % (DK sys )loss = p%
From these equations, particles meet after time t0
so, p = 93.75 ~
- 94
given by
24. The given rectangular thin sheet ABCD can be drawn h h
t0 = =
as shown in the figure below, 2 gh 2g
Y Velocities of particles A and B at instant of collision
H B(a, b) are vA = gt0 and vB = 2 gh - gt0.
A (0, b)
3a , 3b Hence,
— —
4 4 h 1 1
E G vA = g ´ = gh = gh
a b 2g 2 2
—,—
D 2 2 C h
X and vB = 2 gh - g
O (0, 0) F (a, 0) 2g
Here, æ 1 ö 1
=ç 2- ÷ gh = ´ gh
è 2ø 2
Area of complete lamina, A1 = ab
So, particles collide as shown in the figure.
a b ab
Area of shaded part of lamina = ´ = From momentum conservation, we can see that
2 2 4 particles stuck, pinitial = pfinal .
(x1 , y1 ) = coordinates of centre of mass of complete
æ a bö
lamina = ç , ÷ 1
è 2 2ø √2 √ gh
vA =
1
(x2, y2) = coordinates of centre of mass of shaded part of vB= √ gh
√2
æ 3a 3b ö
lamina = ç , ÷
è 4 4ø
234 JEE Main Physics
For small q0, we have As, XCM is at C which is taken at origin of our chosen
q0 q1 reference axis, so XCM = 0.
+ æ q + q1 ö
M Þ mremaining ´ xremaining + mremoved ´ xremoved = 0
= 2 2 or M = mç 0 ÷ .... (i)
m q0 q1 è q0 - q1 ø æ4 4 3ö
- 3
Here, mremaining = ç pR - p 1 ÷ r
2 2 è3 3 ø
28. The given condition can be drawn as shown below. where, r = density of sphere,
v1 sin 30° xremaining = 2 - R,
æ4 ö
M removed = - ç p 13 ÷ r.
M
10 sin 30° è3 ø
2M
10 m/s v1
Here, mass removed is negative
and xremoved = R - 1 .
30° 30° So, from Eq. (i), we get
45° 45° v1 cos 30° v2 cos 45°
5 cos 45° 10 cos 30° æ4 3 4 ö æ4 ö
ç pR - p ÷ r ´ (2 - R) = ç p ÷ r ´ (R - 1)
è3 3 ø è3 ø
v2 Þ (R3 - 1)(2 - R) = R - 1
5 m/s 5 sin 45°
32. Centre of mass of remaining portion is given by For particle 1, final KE is equals to half of its initial
m x - m2x2 value,
XCM = 1 1 1
m1 - m2 K f = Ki
2
Here note that, removed mass (m2) is treated as a 1 æ1 ö 1
negative mass. Þ m1v1 = ç m1u 2÷ ´
2
2 è2 ø 2
Let x = mass per unit area of uniform disc.
u
Then, m1 = mass of complete disc = x × pa 2 Final velocity of m1 will be, v1 =
2
a2
and m2 = mass of square portion = x × . Momentum in y-direction is conserved,
4 m v1 sin θ1
Also, x1 = x-coordinate of centre of mass of m1 = 0 v1
and x2 = x - coordinate of centre of mass of m2 = d. m
u θ1 m v1 cos θ1
a2
xp a 2 ´ 0 - x ´d θ2 10 m v2 cos θ2
4 -a m
Þ XCM = = …(i) 10m v
2 a 2
2 (4 p - 1) 2
xp a - x
4 10 m v2 sin θ2
æ aö
çSince, d = ÷ i.e. 10mv2 sin q2 = mv1 sin q1
è 2ø u
a Here, v1 = and sin q1 = n sin q2
Given, XCM = - …(ii) 2
X
So, we have
Comparing the Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
mu
\ X = 2(4p - 1) = 23.12 or X » 23. 10mv2 × sin q2 = × n sin q2
2
33. Let initial velocities of two bodies are making angle q1 u n
and q2 with horizontal direction as shown in figure. Þ v2 = …(i)
10 2
m
Also collision is elastic, so KE is conserved.
v0 1 1 1
Þ mu 2 = mv12 + (10m)v22
θ1 2 2 2
θ2 2m v0 Substituting values of v1 and v2, we have
2 2
æ u ö æ u 2n ö
v0 u2 = ç ÷ + 10 ç ÷
è 2ø è 100 ´ 2 ø
m
u2 u 2n
Initial momentum, pi = p1 + p2 Þ = Þ n = 10
2 10 ´ 2
= {mv0 cos q1$i + mv0 sin q1 $j} + {mv0 cos q2$i + mv0 sin q2 - $j}
35. Before collision
= mv0 (cos q1 + cos q2)$i + mv0 (sin q1 - sin q2)$j A 10√3 m/s B
æv ö Rest
Final momentum, pf = (2m)ç 0 ÷ $i 10 kg 20 kg
è2ø
Þ pf = mv0i $ After collision
10 m/s
In collision momentum remains conserved, so,
A
applying momentum conservation, 10 kg
pf = pi Rest
or mv0$i = mv0 (cos q1 + cos q2)$i + mv0 (sin q1 - sin q2)$j
10 kg θ
Þ sin q1 - sin q2 = 0 Þ q1 = q2
1 20 m/s
and mv0 = 2mv0 cos q or cos q =or q = 60°
2 From conservation of momentum along X-axis,
But angle between initial velocities is q1 + q2 which is pi = p f
equal to 60° + 60° = 120°. 10 ´ 10 3 = 200 cos q
3
34. Given, impact is shown below, cos q = Þ q = 30°
m
2
4a 4a
ui θ1 36. Centre of mass of the quarter disc is at ,
3p 3p
m θ2 According to the centre of mass of the quarter disc (the
10 m x a x a
10 m shaded area) is at × × , So, x = 4
3 p 3 p
09
Rotational
Motion
If all particles of a rigid body perform circular motion and the centres of these
circles are steady on a definite straight line, then the motion of the rigid body
is called rotational motion. IN THIS CHAPTER ....
Basic Concepts of Rotational
Basic Concepts of Rotational Motion Motion
In rotation of a rigid body about a fixed axis, every particle of the body moves Moment of Inertia
in a circle, which lies in a plane perpendicular to the axis and has its centre on Theorems on Moment of Inertia
the axis. For e.g. A disc (rigid body) of radius R and mass M rotating about a
fixed axis passing through its centre as shown in figure. Values of Moment of Inertia for
ω Simple Geometrical Objects
Moment of a Force or Torque
Angular Momentum
Law of Conservation of Angular
Momentum
Pure Rotational Motion (Spinning)
Equations of Rotational Motion
Rotational motion is characterised by angular displacement dq and angular
dq Rolling Motion
velocity w = .
dt
ω Rω
rω
Radius of Gyration
The radius of gyration of a body about a given axis is the Let X and Y axes be chosen in the plane of the body and
perpendicular distance of a point from the axis at which Z-axis perpendicular to this plane, three axes being
the whole mass of the body could be concentrated without mutually perpendicular, then according to the theorem
any change in the moment of inertia of the body about
I Z = I X + IY
that axis.
If a body has mass M and radius of gyration is K, then where, I X , IY and I Z are the moments of inertia about
moment of inertia, the X, Y, Z axes respectively.
I = MK 2
I
Values of Moment of Inertia for Simple
K = Geometrical Objects
M
Radius of gyration is also defined as the root mean Axis of Moment K 2/R 2
Body Figure K
square distance of all the particles about the axis of Rotation of Inertia
rotation. Thin About an axis
circular passing
r12 + r22 + r32 +¼+ rn2 through CG
i.e. K = ring, R MR 2 R 1
n radius R and
perpendicular
Note Radius of gyration depends upon shape and size of the body, to its plane
position and configuration of the axis of rotation.
Rotational Motion 239
Circular Diameter 1 R 1
MR 2 40 37
disc,
4 4 4 (a) 4MR 2 (b) MR 2 (c) 10MR 2 (d) MR 2
radius R 9 9
Hollow About its own Sol. (a) Moment of inertia of remaining solid
cylinder, axis R = Moment of inertia of complete solid
radius R
- Moment of inertia of removed portion
L MR 2 R 1
9MR 2 é M(R /3) 2 æ 2R ö ù
2
\ I= -ê + Mç ÷ ú Þ I = 4MR 2
2 êë 2 è3ø ú
û
Solid About its own Example 3. Four spheres, each of diameter 2a and mass
cylinder, axis
radius R
M are placed with their centres on the four corners of a
MR 2 R 1
square of side b. Then, moment of inertia of the system about
2 2 2
one side of the square taken as the axis is
2 2
(a) M( 4a2 + 5b2) (b) M( 4a2 + 5b2)
5 3
Solid About its 1 1
sphere, diametric (c) M(2a2 + 5b2) (d) M(2a2 + 5b2)
radius R axis 2 2 2 3 4
MR 2 R
5 5 5 Sol. (a) ABCD is a square of side b. Four spheres, each of mass
M and radius a are placed at the four corners of the square.
a a
b
A D
Example 1. Consider a uniform square plate of side a and
mass m. The moment of inertia of this plate about an axis
perpendicular to its plane and passing through one of its b b
corners is [AIEEE 2008]
5 1 7 2
(a) ma2 (b) ma2 (c) ma2 (d) ma2 a a
6 12 12 3 B C
b
Sol. (d) z′
x′ Moment of inertia of the system about any side, say CD
= MI of sphere at A about CD
z
+ MI of sphere at B about CD
+ MI of sphere at C about CD
x a + MI of sphere at D about CD
240 JEE Main Physics
coefficient a is [JEE Main 2019] choice of origin O, so long as it is chosen on the axis of
1 3 8 3 rotation AB.
(a) (b) (c) (d) ● Only normal component of force contributes towards
2 5 5 2
the torque. Radial component of force does not
Sol. (c) Consider an elementary ring of thickness dx and radius r contribute towards the torque.
as shown below F
I
O r
Or θ A
R B
dr
Example 6. Let F be the force acting on a particle having Example 9. A slab is subjected to two forces F1 and F2 of
position vector r and t be the torque of this force about the same magnitude F as shown in the figure. Force F2 is in
origin. Then, [AIEEE 2003] XY-plane while force F1 acts along Z-axis at the point (2 $i + 3$j).
(a) r × t = 0 and F × t ¹ 0 (b) r × t ¹ 0 and F × t = 0
The moment of these forces about point O will be
[JEE Main 2019]
(c) r × t ¹ 0 and F × t ¹ 0 (d) r × t = 0 and F × t = 0 Z
F1
Sol. (d) As t = r ´F F2
O Y
t is perpendicular to both r and F, so r × t as well as F × t has to be 30°
zero. 4m
Law of Conservation of
Angular Momentum
According to the law of conservation of angular (a) 0.02 (b) 0.3 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.28
momentum, if no external torque is acting on a system, Sol. (c) Now, angular impulse of weight = change in angular
then total vector sum of angular momentum of different momentum
particles of the system remains constant. l ml 2 3g ´ t
dL \ mg ´ t = w Þ w=
We know that, t ext = 2 3 2 ´l
dt
Substituting the given values, we get
dL 3 ´ 10 ´ 0.01
If t ext = 0, then = 0 Þ L = constant . w= = 0.5 rad s -1
dt 2 ´ 0.3
Therefore, in the absence of any external torque, the total 2h 2 ´5
angular momentum of a system must remain conserved. Time of fall of box, t = = » 1s
g 10
As L = Iw, the law of conservation of momentum leads us
to the conclusion. So, angle turned by box in reaching ground,
q = wt = 0.5 ´ 1 = 0.5 rad
For an isolated system, Iw = constant or I1w1 = I 2w2
This principle is often made use by gymnast, swimmers, Example 12. Four point masses, each of mass m are fixed
circus acrobats and ballet dancers etc. at the corners of a square of side l. The square is rotating with
Example 10. The time dependence of the position of a angular frequency w, about an axis passing through one of the
particle of mass m = 2 kg is given by r(t) = 2t $i - 3t 2$j. Its corners of the square and parallel to its diagonal, as shown in
angular momentum, with respect to the origin, at time t = 2 s the figure. The angular momentum of the square about this
is [JEE Main 2019]
axis is [JEE Main 2020]
Sol. (c) The angular momentum of the square about the given For B to C, we have
axis will be the sum of angular momentum due to each point æ R ö
L=ç + a÷ mv (k$ )
masses. è 2 ø
i.e. L = L1 + L2 + L3 + L4
Example 14. A thin smooth rod of length L and mass M is
= I1w1 + I2w2 + I3 w3 + I4 w4
rotating freely with angular speed w0 about an axis
Here, angular frequency will be same. perpendicular to the rod and passing through its centre. Two
i.e., w1 = w2 = w3 = w4 = w (say) beads of mass m and negligible size are at the centre of the
\ L = (I1 + I2 + I3 + I4) w rod initially. The beads are free to slide along the rod. The
angular speed of the system, when the beads reach the
opposite ends of the rod, will be [JEE Main 2019]
m l M w0 M w0
(a) (b)
m M + 3m M+m
M w0 M w0
is (c) (d)
Ax M + 2m M+6m
l/√2 Sol. (d) As there is no external torque on system.
m
m \Angular momentum of system is conserved.
l/√2 Þ Ii wi = If wf
Initially,
ω
ìï æ l ö
2 ü
2ï
M
L = ím(0) 2 + 2 ´ mç 2
÷ + m ( 2l) ý w = 3ml w
ïî è 2ø ïþ
Sol. (b) Loss of potential energy of rod = Gain of kinetic energy Rolling Motion
When a body performs translatory motion as well as
cm rotational motion, then this type of motion is known as
50 rolling motion or combined rotational and translational
L= motion. e.g. Motion of football rolling on a surface.
ω ω, α ω, α
L/2 sin 30°
30° +
v, a v, a
Sol. (b) When force F is applied at the centre of roller of mass m where, v CM is the final velocity of (the centre of mass) of the body.
as shown in the figure below Equating K and mgh, we have
α 1 æ k2 ö
mgh = mv 2 ç1 + 2 ÷
F 2 è R ø
æ 2 gh ö
or v2 = ç ÷
f è1 + k2/ R 2 ø
Its acceleration is given by
(F - f ) Note It is independent of the mass of the rolling body.
=a … (i)
m
For a ring, k2 = R 2
where, f = force of friction and m = mass of roller.
Torque on roller is provided by friction f and it is 2 gh
v ring = = gh
t = fR = Ia …(ii) 1+ 1
where, I = moment of inertia of solid cylindrical roller
= mR 2 / 2 R2
For a solid cylinder, k2 =
and a = angular acceleration of cylinder = a / R. 2
mR 2 a maR 2 gh 4
Hence, t = × = v disc = = gh
2 R 2 1 + 1/2 3
From Eq. (ii), ( t = fR)
ma 2 R2
f= …(iii) For a solid sphere, k2 =
2 5
From Eqs. (i) and (iii), we get
3 2 gh 10
F = ma v sphere = = gh
2 7
2 1+
2F 5
Þ a=
3m From the results obtained it is clear that among the three bodies,
2F é aù the sphere has the greatest and the ring has the least velocity of
So, a= êëQ a = R úû
3mR the centre of mass at the bottom of the inclined plane.
248 JEE Main Physics
Practice Exercise
ROUND I Topically Divided Problems
10. Four point masses, each of value m, are placed at 15. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere, about an
the corners of a square ABCD of side l . The axis parallel to its diameter and at a distance of x
moment of inertia of this system about an axis from it, is I ( x). Which one of the graphs represents
passing through A and parallel to BD is [AIEEE 2006] the variation of I ( x) with x correctly? [JEE Main 2019]
(a) 2 ml2 (b) 3 ml2 I(x) I(x)
(c) 3 ml2 (d) ml2
(a) (b)
11. The moment of inertia of uniform semi-circular disc
of mass M and radius r about a line perpendicular O x O x
to the plane of the disc through the centre is I(x) I(x)
[AIEEE 2005]
1 2 (c) (d)
(a) Mr 2 (b) Mr 2
4 5 O x O x
1
(c) Mr 2 (d) Mr 2
2
16. A circular disc D1 of mass M and radius R has two
12. If I1 is the moment of inertia of a thin rod about an identical discs D2 and D3 of the same mass M and
axis perpendicular to its length and passing radius R attached rigidly at its opposite ends (see
through its centre of mass and I2 is the moment of figure). The moment of inertia of the system about
inertia of ring about an axis perpendicular to plane the axis OO ¢ passing through the centre of D1, as
of ring and passing through its centre formed by shown in the figure will be [JEE Main 2019]
bending the rod, then O′
I 3 I 2
(a) 1 = 2 (b) 1 = 2
I2 p I2 p
I p2 I p2
(c) 1 = (d) 1 =
I2 2 I2 3 D2 D3
O
13. One solid sphere A and another hollow sphere B D1
are of same mass and same outer radii. Their 2 4
(a) MR2 (b) MR2 (c) 3MR2 (d) MR2
moment of inertia about their diameters are 3 5
respectively I A and I B such that [AIEEE 2004]
17. A thin disc of mass M and radius R has mass per
(a) I A = IB (b) I A > IB
unit area s( r) = kr2 , where r is the distance from its
I d
(c) I A < IB (d) A = A centre. Its moment of inertia about an axis going
IB dB through its centre of mass and perpendicular to its
14. Seven identical circular planar discs, each of mass plane is [JEE Main 2019]
20. The linear mass density of a thin rod AB of length inertia of the remaining figure about the same axis
L varies from A to B as l( x) = l 0 æç1 + ö÷, where x is
x is I, then [JEE Main 2019]
è Lø A
of the rod when it makes an angle q with the The correct statement for this system is
vertical, is [JEE Main 2017] ω
Z
z B
α
l
θ
M
x A r
a a2 a = 10 m
(a) Mg (b) Mg 1 -
R R2 A
2 2 h = 10 m
æ R ö æR-aö
(c) Mg ç ÷ -1 (d) Mg 1 - ç ÷
èR-aø è R ø B
(a) 8 kg-m2 /s (b) 3 kg-m2 / s
31. A ring of diameter 0.4 m and of mass 10 kg is (c) 2 kg-m2 /s (d) 6 kg-m2 /s
rotating about its axis at the rate of 1200 rpm. The
angular momentum of the ring is 35. A triangular plate is shown. A force F = 4 i$ - 3 $j is
2 -1 2 -1
(a) 60.28 kg-m s (b) 55.26 kg-m s applied at point P. The torque at point P with
(c) 40.28 kg-m 2s -1 (d) 50.28 kg-m 2s -1 respect to points O and Q are
Y
32. A mass M hangs on a massless rod of length l F
P
which rotates at a constant angular frequency. The
mass M moves with steady speed in a circular path 10 cm 10 cm
of constant radius. Assume that, the system is in
steady circular motion with constant angular 60° 60°
X
velocity w. The angular momentum of M about O 10 cm Q [JEE Main 2021]
point A in L A which lies in the position z-direction (a) - 15 - 20 3 , 15 - 20 3 (b) 15 + 20 3 , 15 - 20 3
and the angular momentum of M about B is LB .
(c) 15 - 20 3 , 15 + 20 3 (d) - 15 + 20 3 , 15 + 20 3
252 JEE Main Physics
36. Initial angular velocity of a circular disc of mass M from the round). The speed of the round afterward
is w1, then two small spheres of mass m are is [NCERT Exemplar]
attached gently to two diametrically opposite points w
(a) 2 w (b) w (c) (d) 0
on the edge of the disc. What is the final angular 2
velocity of the disc? [AIEEE 2002]
43. If earth where to shrink to half its present
æ M + mö æ M + mö
(a) ç ÷w (b) ç ÷w diameter without any change in its mass, the
è M ø 1 è m ø 1
duration of the day will be
æ M ö æ M ö (a) 48 h (b) 6 h (c) 12 h (d) 24 h
(c) ç ÷ w1 (d) ç ÷ w1
è M + 4m ø è M + 2mø 44. A man of 80 kg mass is standing on the rim of a
circular platform of mass 200 kg rotating about its
37. A cord is wound round the circumference of a wheel axis. The mass of the platform with the man on it
of radius r. The axis of the wheel of horizontal and rotates at 12.0 rpm. If the man now moves to centre
moment of inertia about it is I. A weight mg is of the platform, the rotational speed would become
attached to the end of the cord and falls from rest. (a) 16.5 rpm (b) 25.7 rpm
After falling through a distance h, the angular (c) 32.3 rpm (d) 31.2 rpm
velocity of the wheel will be
æ 2 gh ö
1/ 2
æ 2 mgh ö
1/ 2 45. Consider a uniform rod of mass M = 4 m and length
(a) ç ÷ (b) ç ÷
è 1 + mr ø è I + mr 2 ø l pivoted about its centre. A mass m moving with
p
1/ 2 velocity v making angle q = to the rod’s long axis
æ 2 mgh ö 4
(c) ç ÷ (d) (2 gh )1/ 2
è 1 + 2m ø collides with one end of the rod and sticks to it. The
angular speed of the rod-mass system just after the
38. A 3 kg particle moves with constant speed of 2 ms–1
collision is [JEE Main 2020]
in the XY-plane in the y-direction along the line
3 2 v 4 v 3 v 3 v
x = 4 m. The angular momentum (in kg-m2s -1) (a) (b) (c) (d)
relative to the origin and the torque about the 7 l 7 l 7 l 7 2 l
origin needed to maintain this motion are
respectively Dynamics of Rotational Motion
(a) 12, 0 (b) 24, 0 46. The moment of inertia of a body about a given axis
(c) 0, 24 (d) 0, 12 is 1.2 kg-m2. Initially, the body is at rest. In order
to produce a rotational kinetic energy of 1500 J and
39. If the earth suddenly changes its radius x times the
angular acceleration of 25 rads–2 must be applied
present value, the new period of rotation would be
about that axis for a duration of
(a) 6 x 2h (b) 12 x 2h
(a) 4 s (b) 2 s (c) 8 s (d) 10 s
(c) 24 x 2h (d) 48 x 2h
47. A ring and a disc of different masses are rotating
40. A thin and circular disc of mass and radius R is
with the same kinetic energy. If we apply a
rotating in a horizontal plane about axis passing
retarding torque t on the ring stops after making n
through its centre and perpendicular of its plane
revolutions, then in how many revolutions will the
with an angular velocity w. If another disc of same
M disc stop under the same retarding torque?
dimensions but of mass is placed gently on the (a) n (b) 2n (c) 4 n (d) n/2
4
first disc co-axially, then the new angular velocity 48. A thin metal disc of radius 0.25 m and mass 2 kg
of the system is starts from rest and rolls down an inclined plane. If
5 2 4 3 its rotational kinetic energy is 4 J at the foot of the
(a) w (b) w (c) w (d) w
4 3 5 2 inclined plane, then its linear velocity at the same
41. A ballet dancer spins with 2.8 rev s–1 with her arms point is
(a) 1.2 ms–1 (b) 2 2 ms–1
out stretched. When the moment of inertia about
(c) 20 ms–1 (d) 2 ms–1
the same axis becomes 0.7 I, the new rate of spin is
(a) 3.2 rev s–1 (b) 4.0 rev s–1 49. The motor of an engine is rotating about its axis
(c) 4.8 rev s–1 (d) 5.6 rev s–1 with an angular velocity of 100 rev min - 1. It come
42. A merry-go-round, made of a ring-like platform of to rest in 15s, after being switched off. Assuming
radius R and mass M, is revolving with angular constant angular deceleration. What are the
speed w. A person of mass M is standing on it. At number of revolutions made by it before coming to
one instant, the person jumps off the round, rest?
(a) 15.6 (b) 32.6 (c) 12.5 (d) 40
radially away from the centre of the round (as seen
Rotational Motion 253
50. A thin uniform rod of length l and mass m is 57. A wheel is rotating freely with an angular speed w
swinging freely about a horizontal axis passing on a shaft. The moment of inertia of the wheel is I
through its end. Its maximum angular speed is w. and the moment of inertia of the shaft is negligible.
Its centre of mass rises to a maximum height of Another wheel of moment of inertia 3I initially at
[AIEEE 2009] rest is suddenly coupled to the same shaft. The
1 l2w2 1 lw 1 l2w2 1 l2w2 resultant fractional loss in the kinetic energy of the
(a) (b) (c) (d) system is [JEE Main 2020]
3 g 6 g 2 g 6 g
3 5 1
(a) (b) (c) 0 (d)
51. The oxygen molecule has a mass of 5.30 ´ 10-26 kg 4 6 4
and a moment of inertia of 1.94 ´ 10-46 kg-m -2 58. Two uniform circular discs are rotating
about an axis through its centre perpendicular to independently in the same direction around their
the lines joining the two atoms. Suppose the mean common axis passing through their centres. The
speed of such a molecule in a gas is 500 m/s and moment of inertia and angular velocity of the first
2
that is KE of rotation is of its KE translation. disc are 0.1 kg-m2 and 10 rad s -1 respectively,
3
while those for the second one are 0.2 kg-m2 and
Find the average angular velocity of the molecule.
5 rad s -1, respectively. At some instant, they get
(a) 3.75 ´ 1012 rad/s (b) 5.75 ´ 1012rad/s
stuck together and start rotating as a single system
(c) 9.75 ´ 1012 rad/s (d) 6.75 ´ 1012 rad/s
about their common axis with some angular speed.
52. A circular disc rolls down an inclined plane. The The kinetic energy of the combined system is
ratio of the rotational kinetic energy to total kinetic [JEE Main 2020]
energy is 10 20 5 2
(a) J (b) J (c) J (d) J
1 1 2 3 3 3 3 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 3 3 4
59. Two coaxial discs, having moments of inertia I1 and
53. Moment of inertia of a body about a given axis is I1
are rotating with respective angular velocities w1
1.5 kg-m2 . Initially, the body is at rest. In order to 2
produce a rotational kinetic energy of 1200 J, the w
and 1 , about their common axis. They are brought
angular acceleration of 20 rad/s2 must be applied 2
about the axis for a duration of [JEE Main 2019] in contact with each other and thereafter they
(a) 5 s (b) 2 s (c) 3 s (d) 2.5 s rotate with a common angular velocity. If E f and Ei
are the final and initial total energies, then
54. Two discs of moment of inertia I1 and I2 about their
( E f - Ei ) is [JEE Main 2019]
respective axes and rotating with angular speed w1 I1w12 I1w12 3 I1w12
and w2 are brought into contact face-to-face with (a) - (b) - (c) I1w12 (d)
24 12 8 6
their axes of rotation coincident. Then the loss of
kinetic energy of the system in the process is 60. A uniformly thick wheel with moment of inertia I
I1I 2 I1 I 2 and radius R is free to rotate about its centre of
(a) (w1 - w2) 2 (b) - (w1 - w2) 2
2 (I1 + I 2) 2 (I1 + I 2) mass (see figure). A massless string is wrapped over
its rim and two blocks of masses m1 and
I1 I 2
(c) (w1 - w2) 2 (d) zero m2 ( m1 > m2 ) are attached to the ends of the string.
(I1 + I 2)
The system is released from rest. The angular
55. A thin uniform rod AB of mass m and length L is speed of the wheel when m1 descents by a distance
hinged at one end A to the level floor. Initially, it h is [JEE Main 2020]
stands vertically and is allowed to fall freely to the
floor in the vertical plane. The angular velocity of
the rod, when its end B strikes the floor is
(g is acceleration due to gravity)
1/ 2 1/ 2
æ mg ö æ mg ö æ gö æ3 gö m2
(a) ç ÷ (b) ç ÷ (c) ç ÷ (d) ç ÷
è L ø è3 L ø èLø è L ø m1
1 1
56. A particle performs uniform circular motion with é 2(m1 + m2) gh ù 2 é m1 + m2 ù2
an angular momentum L . If the frequency of a (a) ê 2 ú (b) ê 2 ú gh
particle’s motion is doubled and its kinetic energy ë (m1 + m2)R + I û ë (m1 + m2)R + I û
1 1
is halved, the angular momentum becomes é ù2 é 2(m1 - m2) gh ù 2
m1 - m2
(a) 2 L (b) 4 L (c) L/2 (d) L/4 (c) ê 2 ú gh (d) ê 2 ú
ë 1 + m2)R +
(m Iû ë (m1 + m2)R + I û
254 JEE Main Physics
log L
(a) (b) R2
(c) (3M + 12m) (d) zero
2
7. If the radius r of earth suddenly changes to x times
log p log p the present values, the new period of rotation
would be
(a) dT /dt = (T /r ) (dr/dt ) (b) dT /dt = (2T /r ) (dr/dt )
æ1 ö æ dr ö
log L
log L
D F C
R m 2r R
L
B
mL2 1 1 ML2 1 1 A E
(a) + MR 2 + ML2 (b) + mR 2 + mL2
12 4 4 12 2 2
(a) I AC = 2 IEF (b) 2 I AC = IEF
1 mR 2 ML 2 mL 2 1
(c) mL2 + + (d) + MR 2 + ML2
2 2 12 12 2 (c) I AD = 3 IEF (d) I AC = IEF
256 JEE Main Physics
10. Two spheres each of mass M and radius R / 2 are 13. A circular platform is free to rotate in a horizontal
connected with a massless rod of length 2 R as plane about a vertical axis passing through its
shown in the figure. What will be the moment of centre. A tortoise is sitting at the edge of the
inertia of the system about an axis passing through platform. Now, the platform is given an angular
the centre of one of the sphere and perpendicular to velocity w0 . When the tortoise moves along a chord
the rod? of the platform with a constant velocity (w.r.t. the
platform), the angular velocity of the platform will
M M
R/2 R/2
vary with the time t as
ω(t) ω(t)
2R ω0 ω0
(a) (b)
21 2
(a) MR 2 (b) MR 2
5 5
5 5 t t
(c) MR 2 (d) MR 2
2 21 ω(t) ω(t)
11. With referene to figure of a cube of edge a and mass ω0 ω0
m, state whether the following is true. (c) (d)
(O is the centre of the cube).
Z¢¢ t t
H
G 14. A pulley of radius 2m is rotated about its axis by a
Z′
force F = (20 t - 5 t2 ) newton (where t is measured
D C in s) applied tangentially. If the moment of inertia
O
of the pulley about its axis of rotation is 10 kg-m2 ,
E the number of rotation made by the pulley before
F
Y its direction of motion of reversed is [AIEEE 2011]
(a) less than 3
A a B (b) more than 3 but less than 6
X (c) more than 6 but less than 9
(d) more than 9
(a) The moment of inertia of cube about Z-axis is
I Z = I X + IY 15. A solid cylinder is rolling down on an inclined plane
(b) The moment of inertia of cube about Z ¢ is of angle q. The coefficient of static friction between
ma 2 the plane and cylinder is m s . The condition for the
I Z¢ = I Z +
2 cylinder not to slip is
(c) The moment of inertia of cube about Z ¢¢ is (a) tan q ³ 3 m s (b) tan q > 3 m s
mz 2 (c) tan q £ 3 m s (d) tan q < 3 m s
I Z¢¢ = I Z +
2
(d) I X ¹ IY
16. The moment of inertia of a rod about an axis
through its centre and perpendicular to it is
12. Four holes of radius R are cut from a thin square 1
ML2 (where, M is the mass and L the length of
plate of side 4 R and mass M. The moment of 12
inertia of the remaining portion about z-axis is the rod). The rod is bent in the middle to that the
y two halves make an angle of 60°. The moment of
inertia of the bent rod about the same axis would
be
1 1 1 ML2
x (a) ML2 (b) ML2 (c) ML2 (d)
48 12 24 8 3
17. Four point masses, each of value m, are placed at
the corners of a square ABCD of side l. The moment
of inertia of the system about an axis passing
p æ4 p ö through A and parallel to BD is
(a) MR 2 (b) ç - ÷ MR 2 [AIEEE 2006]
12 è3 4 ø
(a) 3 ml 2 (b) 3 ml 2
æ4 p ö æ 8 10 p ö (c) ml 2 (d) 2 ml 2
(c) ç - ÷ MR 2 (d) ç - ÷ MR
2
è3 6 ø è 3 16 ø
Rotational Motion 257
18. From a circular disc of radius R and mass 9 M, a T( x) at a distance x from the axis, then which of
small disc or radius R/3 is removed. The moment of the following graphs depicts it most closely?
inertia of the remaining disc about an axis [JEE Main 2019]
perpendicular to the plane of the disc and passing T(x) T(x)
through O is [IIT JEE 2005] (a) (b)
x x
R/3 l l
T(x) T(x)
2R/3
(c) (d)
x
R l x
l
momentarily coming to rest. If the rod has mass 30. Shown in the figure is a hollow R
M = 2 kg and length l = 1 m, then the value of q is icecream cone (it is open at the top). If
approximately its mass is M, radius of its top R and
(Take, g = 10 m/s2 ) [JEE Main 2020] height H, then its moment of inertia
O about its axis is [JEE Main 2020] H
M, l
θ MR2 M (R2 + H 2)
(a) (b)
m m 2 4
v
m MH 2 MR2
(c) (d)
3 3
(a) 63° (b) 55°
(c) 69° (d) 49° 31. A uniform rod of length l is pivoted at one of its
ends on a vertical shaft of negligible radius. When
27. A metal coin of mass 5g and radius 1 cm is fixed to a the shaft rotates at angular speed w, the rod makes
thin stick AB of negligible mass as shown in the an angle q with it (see figure). To find q, equate the
figure. The system is initially at rest. The constant rate of change of angular momentum (direction
torque, that will make the system rotate about AB ml2 2
going into the paper) w sin q cos q about the
at 25 rotations per second in 5s, is close to 12
[JEE Main 2019] centre of mass to the torque provided by the
A
horizontal and vertical forces FH and FV about the
centre of mass. The value of q is then such that
[JEE Main 2020]
1 cm
ω
FV
FH
l
B θ
(a) 4.0 ´ 10- 6 N -m
(b) 2.0 ´ 10- 5 N -m
(c) 1.6 ´ 10- 5 N -m
(d) 7.9 ´ 10- 6 N -m g g
(a) cos q = (b) cos q =
lw2 2lw2
28. A person of mass M is sitting on a swing to length
L and swinging with an angular amplitude q 0 . If 2g 3g
(c) cos q = (d) cos q =
the person stands up when the swing passes 3lw2 2lw2
through its lowest point, the work done by him, 32. Two identical spherical balls of mass M and radius
assuming that his centre of mass moves by a R each are stuck on two ends of a rod of length 2R
distance l( l << L), is close to [JEE Main 2019] and mass M (see figure). The moment of inertia of
(a) Mgl (1 - q20 ) the system about the axis passing perpendicularly
through the centre of the rod is [JEE Main 2019]
(b) Mgl (1 + q20 )
(c) Mgl 2R
R R
æ q2 ö
(d) Mgl ç1 + 0 ÷
è 2ø
2 14 4
(a) (b) (c) 1 (d)
5 15 5
1m
35. The following bodies are made to roll up (without
slipping) the same inclined plane from a horizontal
plane : (i) a ring of radius R, (ii) a solid cylinder of v
radius R/2 and (iii) a solid sphere of radius R/ 4. If
in each case, the speed of the centre of mass at the 41. A circular disc of mass M and radius R is rotating
bottom of the incline is same, the ratio of the about its axis with angular speed w1. If another
maximum height they climb is R
stationary disc having radius and same mass M
(a) 10 : 15 : 7 (b) 4 : 3 : 2 2
(c) 20 : 15 : 14 (d) 2 : 3 : 4 is dropped co-axially on to the rotating disc.
Gradually, both discs attain constant angular speed
Numerical Value Questions w2 . The energy lost in the process is p% of the
36. A massless equilateral triangle EFG of side a (as initial energy. Value of p is ........... [JEE Main 2020]
shown in figure) has three particles of mass m
42. ABC is a plane lamina of the shape of an
situated at its vertices. The moment of inertia of
equilateral triangle. D, E are mid-points of AB, AC
the system about the line EX perpendicular to EG
and G is the centroid of the lamina. Moment of
N
in the plane of EFG is ma2 , where N is an inertia of the lamina about an axis passing through
20 G and perpendicular to the plane ABC is I 0 . If part
integer. The value of N is ............ . [JEE Main 2020]
ADE is removed, the moment of inertia of the
X F NI 0
remaining part about the same axis is , where
16
N is an integer. Value of N is …… . [JEE Main 2020]
A
E a G
D E
37. A force F = ( i$ + 2$j + 3 k$ ) N acts at a point
G
( 4 i$ + 3 $j - k
$ ) m. Then, the magnitude of torque
about the point ( i$ + 2$j + k $ )m will be x N-m. The
B C
value of x is …… . [JEE Main 2020]
Answers
Round I
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (d)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (d)
61. (d) 62. (d) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (c) 67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (b) 70. (b)
Round II
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. 25 37. 195 38. 9 39. 15 40. 20
41. 20 42. 11
Solutions
Round I = I A + IB + IC
1. Apply parallel axes theorem, = M A (rA )2 + MB (rB )2 + MC (rC )2
I = ICM + Mh 2, we get = M (0)2 + m (l )2 + m (l cos 60° )2
ML2 æLö
2
7 ML2 ml 2 5 ml 2 æ 1ö
Þ = +M ç ÷ = = ml 2 + = çQ cos 60° = ÷
è4ø 4 4 è 2ø
12 48
2. Moment of inertia, 5. Here, m1 = m2 = 0.1 kg
æL r æL 2
D 2ö 2 2ö
r1 = r2 = 10 cm = 0.1 m
I=Mç + ÷=Mç + ÷
è 12 4 ø è 12 16 ø 1 3
and I = I1 + I 2 = m1r12 + m2 r22 = m1r12 (Q m1 = m2)
2 2
3. Moment of inertia of the system about rod x shown in 3
the figure = ´ 0.1 (0.1) = 1.5 ´ 10 kg - m2
2 –3
2
x z
6. Moment of inertia of circular wire about its axis is
MR2. Consider two diameters XX ¢ and YY ¢. Moment of
inertia about any of these diameters is same, let us
y say I.
Y
M, R
R
I = Ix + Iy + Iz X′ X
æ Ml 2 Ml 2 ö 4
=0+ ç + ÷ + Ml 2 = Ml 2
è 12 4 ø 3
Y′
4. Moment of inertia of the system about axis AX From perpendicular axes theorem,
X MR2
rC C I + I = MR2 or I =
2
l l
7. According to the theorem of perpendicular axes,
I Z = I X + IY .
With the hole, I X and IY both decrease gluing the
60°
A Y removed piece at the centre of square plate does not
l
rB affect I Z . Hence, I Z decreases, overall.
Rotational Motion 261
8. As, m1 = m2 13. Let same mass and same outer radii of solid sphere
and hollow sphere be M and R, respectively.
Þ pR12xd1 = pR22xd2
R12 d2 The moment of inertia of solid sphere A about its
= diameter,
R22 d1 2
I A = MR2 …(i)
1 5
mR12
I1 2 R2 d Similarly, the moment of inertia of hollow sphere
Now, = = 12 = 2
I 2 1 mR2 R2 d1 (spherical shell) B about its diameter,
2
2 2
IB = MR2 …(ii)
9. Moment of inertia of a uniform rod about one end 3
mL2 It is clear from Eqs. (i) and (ii), I A < IB .
=
3 14. First we found moment of inertia (MI) of system using
\ Moment of inertia of the system, which rod is bent parallel axes theorem about centre of mass, then we
2
æ M ö (L / 2) ML2 use it to find moment of inertia about given axis.
=2´ç ÷ =
è 2ø 3 12
Moment of inertia of an outer disc about the axis
10. The situation is shown in figure through centre
X
Q M
A B
P
R R
X′
D C
I XX ¢ = m ´ DP 2 + m ´ BQ 2 + m ´ CA 2 MR2
= + M (2R)2
2 2
æ 2 lö
=m ´2 ´ ç ÷ + m ´ ( 2 l)2 = 3ml2 æ1 ö 9
è 2 ø = MR2ç + 4÷ = MR2
è2 ø 2
11. The mass of complete (circular) disc is For 6 such discs,
9
Moment of inertia = 6 ´ MR2 = 27MR2
2
So, moment of inertia of system
O MR2 55
= + 27MR2 = MR2
2 2
55
Hence, IP = MR2 + (7M ´ 9R2)
2
The moment of inertia of disc about the given axis is 181
2 Mr 2 Þ IP = MR2
I= = Mr 2 2
2 181
I system = MR2
Let the moment of inertia of semi-circular disc be I1. 2
The disc may be assumed as combination of two 15. Moment of inertia of a solid sphere about an axis
semi-circular parts. 2
I Mr 2 through its centre of mass is IC = MR2
Thus, I1 = I - I1 or I1 = = 5
2 2
Moment of inertia about a parallel axis at a distance x
12. Here, as ring is made by bending the rod l = 2 pR. from axis through its COM is
l
R= IC
2p I
ml 2
I1 = ,
12 x
ml 2
2
I 2 = mR =
4p 2
I1 ml ml 2 p 2
2
= / =
I 2 12 4p 2 3 I = IC + Mx2 (by parallel axes theorem)
262 JEE Main Physics
dr
O a
r
dr
dm = s dA = s ´ 2prdr
R
ò dm = M = ò0 (kr
2
) 2prdr
Rotational Motion 263
7L3 l 0 Þ a = (16)1/ 4
= …(i) = (24 )1/ 4 = 2
12
Now, mass of complete rod, 22. O′
M = ò dm = ò ldx
cm
40 cm
50
L
æ xö
= ò l 0 ç1 + ÷ dx L=80 cm
è L ø O 30 cm
P
0
L
é x2 ù
= l0 ê x + ú
ë 2L û 0
B=60 cm
é L2 ù 3l L Let the mass of this rectangular sheet be M.
= l0 ê L + - 0ú = 0
ë 2 L û 2 From figure,
2M L 80
Þ l0 = O ¢P = = cm = 40 cm
3L 2 2
Putting the value of l 0 in Eq. (i), we get B 60
OP = = cm = 30 cm
7 2 2
I= ML2
18 OO ¢ = (OP )2 + (O ¢ P )2
21. Both the discs are made up of same material. (by Pythagoras’ theorem)
Let the density of material used for both discs be r and = (30)2 + (40)2
their thickness be t.
= 900 + 1600
Now, moment of inertia of first disc,
= 2500 = 50 cm
264 JEE Main Physics
l/2
Þ F × R = Mgx
g
m
q mg sin q
q
mg From DOAB, x = R2 - (R - a )2
KE = 1200 J L2 1
Þ =
and a = 20 rad /s 2 and w0 = 0 L1 4
Substituting these values in Eq.(i), we get L L
Þ L2 = 1 = [Q L1 = L ]
1 4 4
1200 = (1.5) (20 ´ t )2
2 57. Let wc be the final angular speed.
2 2 ´ 1200
Þ t = =4 According to law of conservation of angular
1.5 ´ 400
momentum,
\ t =2s Initial angular momentum = Final angular momentum
JEE NEET ADDA
This Pdf Is
Download From
www.jeeneetadda.in
VISIT NOW !!
Rotational Motion 269
61. Since, the inclined plane is frictionless, then there will For rolling on inclined plane,
be no rolling and the mass will only slide down. K2 K2
1 + 12 1 + 22
Hence, acceleration is same for all the given bodies. R1 R2
=
2l (1 + K 2/ R2) sin q1 sin q2
62. For rolling, t = = same
g sin q æ 1ö
ç1 + ÷
(given in question) è 2ø 1 + 1
Hence, =
2l (1 + K 12/ R2) 2l (1 + K 22/ R2) sin 30° sin q
\ =
g sin q1 g sin q2 2
\ sin q = = 0.6667
1 + K 12 /R2 1 + K 22 /R2 3
Þ = …(i)
sin q1 sin q2 q = 41.8° ~
- 42°
2
For sphere, K 12 = R2, q1 = 30°
5 67. As, it is clear from figure,
K2
For hollow cylinder, 22 = 1, q2 = ?
R R
\From Eq. (i), we get
2 On reaching the bottom of the bowl, loss in PE = mgR,
1+
Þ 5 = 1+1 and gain in
sin 30° sin q2 1 1
KE = mv2 + Iw2
5 2 2
or sin q2 = = 0.7143
7 1 æ2
1 ö
or q = 45.58° ~
- 45° Þ |DK |= mv2 + ´ ç mr 2÷ w2
2 2 è5 ø
g sin q
63. For rolling, a = 1 1
æ I ö = mv2 + mv2
ç1 + ÷ 2 5
è MR2 ø
10 ´ 1 /2 7
= = mv2
1 + 2 /5 10
25 2 As, gain in KE = loss in PE
= ms -2 (Q for sphere, I = MR2)
7 5 7
\ mv2 = mgR
2v 2 ´ 1 ´ 7 10
Þ t= = = 0.56 s
a 25 10 gR
v=
~
- 0.57 s 7
64. Here, q = 60°, l = 10 m, a = ? 68. If h is height of the ramp, then in rolling of marble,
speed
2 2 gh
For solid sphere, K = R22
v=
5 1 + K 2/ R2
æ ö The speed of the cube to the centre of mass,
ç ÷
9.8 sin 60° çQ a = g sin q ÷
\ a= 2 v¢ = 2 gh
2 ç K ÷
1+ ç 1+ 2 ÷
5 è R ø v¢ K2
\ = 1+ 2
5 3 v R
or a= ´ 9.8 ´ = 6.06 ms -2 2 2
2
7 2 For marble sphere, K = R
5
65. As, the wheel rolls forward the radius of the wheel
v¢ 2
decreases along AB, hence for the same number of \ = 1+
rotations, it moves less distance along AB. So, it turns v 5
left. 7
= = 7: 5
K 12 1 5
66. For solid cylinder, q = 30° , =
R12 2 69. Given, m = 5 kg, R = 0.5 m.
K 22 Horizontal force, F = 40 N
For hollow cylinder, q = ?, =1 As, cylinder is rolling without slipping.
R22
Rotational Motion 271
M Þ t3 = 6 t 2
= ´ 32 R2 - 10 mR2
12 Þ t =6s
8 10 p dq
= MR2 - MR2 As =w
3 16 dt
æ 8 10 p ö 2 6 6 æ t3 ö
=ç - ÷ MR Þ q = ò w dt = ò ç2 t 2 - ÷ dt
è 3 16 ø 0 0 è 3ø
6
13. As there is no external torque, angular momentum é 2 t3 t 4 ù
will remain constant. When the tortoise moves from A =ê - ú
to C, moment of inertia of the platform and tortoise ë 3 12 û 0
decreases. Therefore, angular velocity of the system é2 1ù
= 216 ê - ú = 36 rad
increases. When the tortoise moves from C to B, ë3 2û
moment of inertia increases. Therefore, angular q 36
velocity decreases. Number of rotation = = = 5.73 < 6
2p 2p
g sin q
15. Linear acceleration for rolling, a =
K2
1+ 2
R
O f
R a
r
A C B
D
θ
If M = mass of platform, 2
K 1
R = radius of platform, For cylinder, 2
=
R 2
m = mass of tortoise moving along the chord AB 2
\ a cylinder = g sin q
and a = perpendicular distance of O from AB. 3
MR2 For rotation, the torque
Initial angular momentum, I1 = mR2 +
2 fR = Ia = (MR2a ) / 2
At any time t, let the tortoise reach D moving with (where, f = force of friction)
velocity v. But Ra = a
M
\ AD = vt \ f = a
2
AC = R2 - a 2
M 2
As DC = AC - AD = ( R2 - a 2 - vt ) \ f = × g sin q
2 3
\ OD = r = a 2 + [ R2 - a 2 - vt ]2 M
= g sin q
Angular momentum at time t 3
MR2 m s = f / N , where N is normal reaction,
I 2 = mr 2 +
2 M
g sin q
As angular momentum is conserved tan q
\ ms = 3 =
\ I1w0 = I 2 w (t ) Mg cos q 3
This shows that variation of w (t ) with time is \ For rolling without slipping of a roller down the
non-linear. inclined plane, tan q £ 3 m s.
14. To reverse the direction, 16. Since, rod is bent at the middle, so each part of it will
ò t dq = 0 (work done is zero) æLö æMö
have same length ç ÷ and mass ç ÷ as shown
2 2 è2ø è 2ø
As, t = F ´ r = (20t - 5t ) ´ 2 = 40 t - 10 t
t 40 t - 10 t 2 dw
a= = = 4 t - t2 =
I 10 dt M/2
t t3
w=ò
L /2
2
a dt = 2 t -
0 3
w is zero at
60°
t3 M/2
2 t2 - =0
3 O L/2
274 JEE Main Physics
Moment of inertia of each part about an axis passing 19. When bob falls, its potential energy is converted into
through its one end kinetic energy of bob and rotational kinetic energy of
2
1 æM ö æLö disc.
= ç ÷ç ÷
3 è 2 ø è2ø So, decrease in potential energy of bob = kinetic energy
Hence, net moment of inertia about an axis passing of bob + kinetic energy of disc
through its middle point O is 1 1
2 2
Þ mgh = mv + Iw22
…(i)
1 æM ö æLö 1 æM ö æLö 2 2
I= ç ÷ç ÷ + ç ÷ç ÷
3 è 2 ø è2ø 3 è 2 ø è2ø If there is no slip, then v = rw
1 é ML2 ML2 ù ML2 Also, moment of inertia of disc,
= ê + ú= mr 2
3 ë 8 8 û 12 I=
2
17. As, it is clear from figure, Substituting this value in Eq. (i), we get
AC = BD = l 2 + l 2 = l 2 1 1 mr 2
mgh = m(rw)2 + ´ ´ w2
Moment of inertia of four point masses about BD, 2 2 2
2 2
æl 2ö æl 2ö 3
IBD =m ç ÷ + m ´0 + m ç ÷ + m ´0 Þ mgh = mr 2w2
è 2 ø è 2 ø 4
2 4 gh
ml 2 ml 2 Þ w =
= + = ml 2 3r 2
2 2
1 4 gh
Y or w=
r 3
A B 20. Various forces acting on bead at point P can be
resolved as shown in figure
l y
X
O
ω N cos θ
D l C N θ P (a, b)
mrω
N sin θ θ
Applying the theorem of parallel axes,
mg
I XY = IBD + M ( AO )2 x
2
æ l ö
= ml 2 + 4 m ç ÷
è 2ø θ
2
= 3 ml
9M
18. Mass per unit area of disc =
p R2 Normal force of rotating wire are
9M
2
æ Rö N cos q = mg and N sin q = mxw2
Mass of removed portion of disc = ´p ç ÷ =M dy xw2
p R2 è3ø Þ tan q = = …(i)
dx g
Moment of inertia of removed portion about an axis
passing through centre of disc and perpendicular to Given, y = 4 Cx2
dy
the plane of disc, using theorem of parallel axes is Þ = 8 Cx
2 2 dx
M æ Rö æ2 Rö 1 2 dy
I1 = ç ÷ +M ç ÷ = MR = 8 Ca …(ii)
2 è3ø è 3 ø 2 dx at x = a, y = b
When portion of disc would not have been removed, From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
then the moment of inertia of complete disc about the xw2
given axis is = 8 Ca
g
1
I 2 = MR2 At x = a, we have
2
aw2
So moment of inertia of the disc with removed portion, = 8 Ca
g
about the given axis is
9 1 Þ w = 8 Cg
I = I 2 - I1 = MR2 - MR2 = 4 MR2 = 2 2g C
2 2
Rotational Motion 275
21. Use geometry of the figure to calculate mass and side For this element, K = (dm) w2 …(ii)
2
length of the cube interms of M and R, respectively. \ dT = (dm) w x …(iii)
Consider the cross-sectional view of a diametric plane To find complete tension in the rod, we need to
as shown in the following diagram. integrate Eq. (iii),
T m
ò dT = ò (dm) w x
2
…(iv)
S R 0 0
Now, moment of inertia of each sphere along an axis Density of given sphere of radius R,
through its centre, Mass M
2 r= =
2 2 æ dö 1 Volume 4 pR 3
I1 = mr 2 = mç ÷ = md 2
5 5 è2ø 10 3
Let radius of sphere formed from second part is r, then
ω mass of second part = volume ´ density
1 4 M
M = pr3 ´
8 3 4
pR 3
3
I=1/10 md 2 R3 R
\ r3 = Þ r=
8 2
Now, I1 = moment of inertia of disc (radius 2R and
7
mass M) about its axis
8
Now, by using parallel axes theorem, moment of
inertia of each sphere around axis through O, Mass ´ (Radius)2
=
I ¢ = I1 + m(h 2) 2
7
æ d ö
2
1 md 2 13 M ´ (2R)2
= I1 + mç md 2 + md 2 7
÷ = = = 8 = MR2
è 3ø 10 3 30 2 4
and I 2 = moment of inertia of sphere
d/√3 R 1
A B (radius and mass M) about its axis
2 8
2 2
O = ´ Mass ´ (Radius)
5
2
2 1 æ Rö MR2
C = ´ M ´ç ÷ =
5 8 è2ø 80
So, moment of inertia of system of spheres about O, 7 2
13 13 MR
I
I 0 = 3I ¢ = 3 ´ md 2 = md 2 …(i) \ Ratio 1 = 4 = 140
30 10 I2 1
MR2
Again by using parallel axes theorem, moment of 80
inertia of system about point A,
26. O
I A = I 0 + msystem ´ h 2
2 M, l
13 æ d ö θ
= md 2 + 3m ´ ç ÷
10 è 3ø
23 m m
= md 2 …(ii) v
m
10
Hence, required ratio from Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
As there is no external torque, so angular momentum
I 0 13 10
= md 2 ´ about pivot O is conserved.
I A 10 23 md 2 Þ L i = Lf
I 0 13 Þ mvl = (Isystem ) w
Þ =
I A 23 Þ mvl = (I rod + I block ) w
25. The given situation is shown in the figure given below æ Ml2 ö
Þ mvl = ç + ml2÷ w
è 3 ø
7 1
R M M M (where, w = initial angular speed of rod and block)
8 8
mvl
w=
æ Ml2 ö
Solid sphere ç + ml2÷
è 3 ø
mv
Þ w=
2R æ Ml ö
ç + ml÷
r è 3 ø
Disc (radius= 2R) 1 ´6 6 ´ 3 18
Þ w= = = rad/s
Solid sphere æ 2 ´ 1 ö 5 5
(radius = r) ç + 1 ´ 1÷
è 3 ø
Rotational Motion 277
Now, by law of conservation of energy, From perpendicular axes theorem, moment of inertia of
Initial rotational kinetic energy of rod and block = disc about an axis along its diameter is
Final potential energy at angle q of rod and block I X + IY = I Z Þ 2I 2 = I1
Þ
1
(Isystem ) ´ w2 = Mgh1 + mgh2 I MR2
Þ I2 = 1 =
2 2 4
where, h1 = height raised by centre of mass of rod IY=I2
l
= (1 - cos q)
2
and h2 = height raised by block = l(1 - cos q).
Hence, IX=I2
1 l
(I rod + I block ) w2 = Mg (1 - cos q) + mgl(1 - cos q)
2 2
1 æ Ml2 ö æM ö I1=IZ
Þ ç + ml2÷ w2 = gl ç + m÷ ´ (1 - cos q)
2è 3 ø è 2 ø
So, moment of inertia about a tangential axis from
1 æM ö parallel axes theorem is
ç + m÷ lw2
2è 3 ø MR2 5
Þ = 1 - cos q I = I 2 + MR2 = + MR2 = MR2
æM ö 4 4
ç + m÷ g
è 2 ø
2 I2
1 æ2 ö æ 18 ö I
ç + 1÷ ´ 1 ´ ç ÷
2 è3 ø è5ø
Þ = 1 - cos q
æ2 ö
ç + 1÷ ´ 10
è2 ø
27 R
Þ = 1 - cos q
50
23
Þ cos q = = 0.46
50
Þ q = cos -1 (0.46) = 62 .61° ~
- 63°
The nearest answer is 63°. Now, using torque, t = Ia, we have
27. Moment of inertia (MI) of a disc about a tangential 5 æ w - wi ö
t = Ia = MR2ç f ÷
axis in the plane of disc can be obtained as below. 4 è Dt ø
A Here, M = 5 ´ 10-3 kg, R = 1 ´ 10-2 m
rad rad
M=5 g = 5×10–3 kg wf = 25 rps = 25 ´ 2p = 50p ,
s s
wi = 0, Dt = 5 s
5
R =1 cm ´ 5 ´ 10-3 ´ (10-2)2 ´ 50p
So, t= 4
5
» 2 ´ 10-5 N-m
28. Initially, centre of mass is at distance L from the top
B end of the swing. It shifts to (L - l) distance when the
Moment of inertia of disc about its axis, person stands up on the swing.
MR2 \Using angular momentum conservation law, if v0 and
I1 = v1 are the velocities before standing and after standing
2
of the person, then
Mv0L = Mv1 (L - l)
æ L ö
Þ v1 = ç ÷v …(i)
R è L - lø 0
Now, total work done by (person + gravitation) system
will be equal to the change in kinetic energy of the
person, i.e.
W g + W p = KE1 - KE0
278 JEE Main Physics
1 1 Now, v2 = 2 as
Þ - Mgl + W p = Mv12 - Mv02
2 2 2 g s sin q
1 \ 2 as =
Þ W p = Mgl + M (v12 - v02 ) 1 + I / MR2
2
g sin q
a=
1 éæ L ö 2 ù
2 or
= Mgl + M ê ç 2
÷ v0 - v0 ú 1 + I / MR2
2 ê è L - lø úû
ë 30. The hollow icecream cone can be assumed to be formed
[from Eq. (i)] of several parts of rings having different radii. In
é æ L - lö -2ù general, we shall consider a ring (element) which is at
1
= Mgl + M v02 ê ç ÷ - 1ú distance y away from vertex O, of thickness dy, having
2 êë è L ø úû radius r as shown in figure.
éæ - 2 ù
1 lö
= Mgl + Mv02 ê ç1 - ÷ - 1ú R
2 êë è L ø úû
1 éæ 2l ö ù
= Mgl + Mv02 ê ç1 + ÷ - 1ú
2 ëè Lø û r
dy
[using (1 + x)n = 1 + nx as higher terms H
can be neglected, if n << 1]
y
1 2l θ
Þ W p = Mgl + Mv02 ´
2 L
2 l O
or W p = Mgl + Mv0 …(ii)
L
æ gö Area of cone, A = pRl = pR R2 + H 2
Here, v0 = WA = ç ÷ (q0 L ) dy
è Lø Area of element, dA = 2prdl = 2pr
cos q
Þ v0 = q0 gL
Mass of element, dm = Surface density ´ Area
\Using this value of v0 in Eq.(ii), we get
M 2pr dy
l = ´
W p = Mgl + Mq20 gL × cos q
L p R R2 + H 2
Þ W p = Mgl (1 + q20 ) r
From above diagram, tan q = or r = y tan q
y
29. Assuming that no energy is used up against friction,
the total loss in potential energy is equal to the total 2M tan q y dy
\ dm =
gain in the kinetic energy. R cos q R2 + H 2
Moment of inertia of element about its axis,
C
æ 2M tan qy dy ö
s dI = (dm)r 2 = ç ÷ ( y tan q)2
ç R cos q R2 + H 2 ÷
è ø
h
ω 2 M tan3 qy3 dy
=
C
θ R cos q R2 + H 2
v
1 1 \ Total moment of inertia,
Mgh = Iw2 + Mv2 [as , v = rw] 2M tan3 q H
2 2 I = ò dI = ò0 y3 dy
2 2
1 æv ö 1
2 R cos q R + H
i.e. Mgh = I ç ÷ + Mv2
2 è R2 ø 2 2M tan3 q H4
= .
1 2æ I ö R cos q R + H 2 2 4
or v ç M + 2 ÷ = Mgh
2 è R ø R
Again, from above diagram, tan q =
2 Mgh 2 gh H
or v2 = =
M + I/R2 1 + I/MR2 cos q =
H
If s is the distance covered along the plane, then R2 + H 2
h = s sin q Putting these values in the expression of I, we get
2 gs sin q MR2
\ v2 = I=
1 + I / MR2 2
Rotational Motion 279
ò dm = ò s 0 ´ 2p ´ dr
0 a
Þ M = s 02p (b - a ) …(iii)
R R Calculation of Moment of Inertia
M b
s0
ò r dm = ò r
2 2
I= × ´ 2prdr [from Eq. (ii)]
2R
0 a
r
Principal axis Given axis
280 JEE Main Physics
b
Taking the ratio of Eqs. (iii) and (iv), we get
ò r dr
2
= s 02p
7 2
a
mghsph 10 mv
é r3 ù
b
=
= s 02p ê ú mghcyl 3
mv2
ë 3 ûa 4
1 hsph 7 4 14
Þ I = s 02p [b3 - a3 ] …(iv) Þ = ´ =
3 hcyl 10 3 15
Now, radius of gyration,
2ps 0 3 35. From question,
(b - a3 ) let height attained by ring = h1
I 3
K = =
M 2ps 0 (b - a ) Height attained by cylinder = h2
Height attained by sphere = h3
1 (b3 - a3 )
Þ K = As we know that for a body which is rolling up an
3 b-a inclined plane (without slipping), follows the law of
conservation of energy.
As we know, b3 - a3 = (b - a ) (b2 + a 2 + ab)
\ For ring, using energy conservation law at its height
1 2 h1,
\ K = (b + a 2 + ab)
3 (KE)linear + (KE)rotational = (PE)
2 2
a + b + ab 1 1
or K = Þ m1v02 + I1w2 = m1 gh1
3 2 2
1 1
Þ m1v02 + m1R2w2 = m1 gh1
34. When a spherical/circular body of radius r rolls 2 2
without slipping, its total kinetic energy is (Q I = mR2 for ring)
K total = K translation + K rotation v 2
v 2
Þ gh1 = 0 + 0 (Q v0 = wR)
1 1 2 2
= mv2 + Iw2
2 2
Þ h1 = v02 / g …(i)
1 1 v2 é vù
= mv2 + I × 2 êëQ w = r úû Similarly, for solid cylinder, applying the law of
2 2 r
conservation of energy,
Let v be the linear velocity and R be the radius for both
solid sphere and solid cylinder. 1 1
m2v02 + I 2w2 = m2gh2
\Kinetic energy of the given solid sphere will be 2 2
1 1 v2 1 1 æ1 æ Rö ö
2
K sph = mv2 + Isph 2 Þ m2v02 + çç ´ m2 ´ ç ÷ ÷÷ w2 = m2gh2
2 2 R 2 2 è2 è2ø ø
1 1 2 v2
= mv2 + ´ mR2 ´ 2 é 1 2 Rù
2 2 5 R êëQ I = 2 mR for cylinder and R = 2 úû
7
= mv2 …(i) 1 1 1 v02
10 Þ m2v02 + ´ m2R2 ´ = m2gh2
Similarly, kinetic energy of the given solid cylinder 2 2 8 (R / 2)2
1 2 1 2
1 1 v2 Þ v0 + v0 = gh2
will be K cyl = mv2 + I cyl 2 4
2 2 R
3
Þ gh2 = v02
1 1 mR2 v2 3 4
= mv2 + ´ ´ 2 = mv2 …(ii)
2 2 2 R 4 3 æ v02 ö
Þ h2 = ç ÷ …(ii)
Now, from the conservation of mechanical energy, 4è gø
1 1 2 R2 v02 38.
Þ m3 v02 + ´ ´ m3 ´ = m3 gh3
2 2 5 16 (R / 4)2 ω1 ω2
1 2 1 2
Þ v0 + v0 = gh3
2 5
7 2
Þ gh3 = v0
10
7 æ v02 ö Initially Finally
or h3 = ç ÷ …(iii)
10 è g ø According to conservation of angular momentum,
\ Taking the ratio of h1 , h2 and h3 by using I1w1 = I 2 w2
Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), we get æ 200R2 ö æ 200R2 ö
Þ ç80R2 + ÷ w1 = ç ÷ w2
v023 v02
7 v02
3 7 è 2 ø è 2 ø
h1 : h2 : h3 = : : =1: :
g 4 g 10 g 4 10
360R2 200R2
Þ ´5 = ´ w2
Þ h1 : h2 : h3 = 40 : 30 : 28 = 20 : 15 : 14 2 2
\ The most appropriate option is (c). w2 = 9 rpm
39. When bar is released, its potential energy appears in
36. form of rotational kinetic energy.
X
a/2
F
l/2
h=l/2 sin 30º
θ=30º
a
E G Now, from geometry of figure, height of centre of mass
Moment of inertia of system above surface,
3 l l
= S miri2 h = × sin 30° =
i =1 2 4
= m1r12 + m2r22 + m3 r32 If angular speed of bar as it hits the table is w, then
æaö
2 Gravitational potential energy = Rotational kinetic
= m ´0 + m ´ a2 + m ´ ç ÷ energy
è2ø
1 2
5 25 Þ mgh = Iw
= ma 2 = ma 2 2
4 20
N l 1 æ ml2 ö 2
= ma 2 Þ mg = ç ÷ ×w
20 4 2è 3 ø
\ N = 25
3 g 3 10
Þ w2 = = ´ = 15
37. Given, F = (i + 2$j + 3k$ ) N
$
2 l 2 1
r = (4$i + 3$j - k$ ) - ($i + 2$j + k
$)
Þ w = 15 s - 1
= (4 – 1)$i + (3 – 2)$j + (–1 – 1)k
$
Thus, n = 15
= (3i$ + $j - 2k
$)m
= (7$i - 11$j + 5k
$ ) N-m
Applying law of conservation of angular momentum
about pivotal point,
Magnitude of torque,|t|= (7)2 + (-11)2 + (5)2 Li = L f
= 49 + 121 + 25 Þ mvl = Iw
= 195 N-m æ1 ö
Þ mvl = ç ML2 + mL2÷ w …(i)
So, the value of x = 195 . è3 ø
282 JEE Main Physics
MR2 5 MR2 A
Þ ´ w1 = ´ w2
2 8 G′
5 a/2√3
Þ w1 = w2
4 D E a/√3
4 G
Þ w2 = w1 …(i)
5
Now, the loss in rotational kinetic energy, B C
(DK sys )loss = (K sys )i - (K sys )f
a
é1 ù é1 ù The side of the new triangular lamina ADE is .
= ê I1w12 + 0ú - ê (I1 + I 2)w22ú 2
ë2 û ë2 û
It is also equilateral in shape.
é 1 MR2 ù a /2 a
=ê ´ ´ w12 + 0ú If its centroid is G¢, so AG ¢ = =
ë 2 2 û 3 2 3
é 1 æ MR2 MR2 ö æ 4 ö 2ù We know that for triangular lamina ABC , the centroid
- ê ´ç + ÷ ´ ç w1 ÷ ú is G.
êë 2 è 2 8 ø è 5 ø úû a
So, AG =
MR2w12 1 5MR2 16 w12 3
= - ´ ´
4 2 8 25 Now, side G ¢ G = AG - AG ¢
MR2w12 MR2w12 a a
= - = -
4 5 3 2 3
MR2w12 =
a
=
20 2 3
Now, the % loss in rotational kinetic energy, Now, the moment of inertia of lamina ADE about the
(DK sys )loss axis passing through point G and perpendicular to its
%(DK sys )loss = ´ 100% plane (using parallel axes theorem),
(K sys )i
2
æaö
æ MR2w12 ö m1 ç ÷
ç ÷ è2ø
è 20 ø I1 = + m1 (G ¢ G )2 …(ii)
= ´ 100% 12
æ MR2w12 ö Let m1 be the mass of lamina ADE.
ç ÷
è 4 ø
Rotational Motion 283
\ m1 =
mass of lamina ABC
× area of lamina ma 2 5ma 2
= -
area of lamina ABC 12 192
2
m 3 æaö m 11 ma 2
ADE = ´ ç ÷ = =
3 4 è 2 ø 4 192
(a )2
4 11 ma 2 11
= ´ = I0
So, putting all the values in Eq. (ii), we get 16 12 16
2
æmö æ a ö
ç ÷ç ÷ 2 D E
è 4 ø è2ø æmö æ a ö
I1 = + ç ÷ç ÷
12 è 4 ø è2 3 ø G
2 2 a/2 a
ma ma
= +
192 48
5ma 2 B C
= …(iii) a
192
So, the moment of inertia of remaining part about the N
It is given that, I net = I0
axis passing through point G and perpendicular to its 16
plane is given by On comparing, we get
I net = I 0 - I1 N = 11
10
Gravitation
The Universal Law of Gravitation
In this universe, each body attracts other body with a force that is directly IN THIS CHAPTER ....
proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the
square of the distance between them. Let m1 and m2 be the masses of two The Universal Law of Gravitation
bodies and r be the separation between them. Acceleration due to Gravity
mm Gm1m2 Gravitational Field
F µ 12 2 Þ F =
r r2 Gravitational Potential (V)
Here, G is the constant of proportionality which is called universal Gravitational Potential Energy
gravitational constant. The value of G is 6.67 ´ 10–11 N-m 2kg -2. Escape Velocity
Motion of a Satellite
Example 1. Two particles of equal mass m go around a circle of radius R under
the action of their mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle with Geostationary Satellite
respect to their centre of mass is [AIEEE 2011] Kepler’s Laws of Planetary Motion
Gm Gm Gm Gm
(a) (b) (c) (d)
R 4R 3R 2R
Sol. (b) Given, masses of the two particles are m1 = m2 = m and radius of the two particles
are r1 = r2 = R. So, the gravitational force of attraction between the particles,
G ´m´m
F= …(i)
R2
R R
m m mv2
F R
mv 2
Centripetal force, F = …(ii)
R
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
Gm2 mv 2
=
(2R) 2 R
Gm
So, the speed of the each particle is v = .
4R
Gravitation 285
E∝r
Gravitational Field Intensity (E) r∝R r∝R
Gravitational field intensity at any point is defined as the O r=R r
gravitational force experienced by any test mass divided
by the magnitude of test mass when placed at the desired
point. Gravitational Potential (V )
Fr
E= Gravitational potential at any point in a gravitational
m0 field is defined as the work done in bringing a unit mass
where, m0 is a small test mass. The SI unit of from infinity to that point.
gravitational intensity is Nkg -1. W
Gravitational potential, V = lim
m 0 ®0 m
0
Gravitational Field Intensity due to Various
Mass Distributions Gravitational potential due to a point mass is
GM
(i) Gravitational intensity at a point P situated at a V =-
GM r
distance r from a point mass M is given by E = 2
r Gravitational potential is always negative and it is
r maximum at infinity. It is a scalar term and its SI unit is
M r P J kg -1 .
Gravitation 287
2 2
Gravitational Potential due to Various Mass where, OA = AD = ( AB sin 60° )
3 3
Distributions 2 3 a
(i) Due to ring having a uniform mass distribution. = ´a´ =
3 2 3
GM a
At the centre, V = - Thus, OA = OB = OC =
R 3
GM
On the axis, V =- The gravitational intensity at O due to mass m at A is
R2 + r 2 Gm Gm
EA = 2
= along OA
(ii) Due to a hollow sphere of radius R having a uniform (OA) ( a / 3) 2
mass distribution. For inside points (r £ R), Similarly, the gravitational intensity at O due to mass m at B is
GM Gm Gm
V =- EB = = along OB
R (OB) 2 ( a / 3) 2
V and gravitational intensity at O due to mass m at C is
Gm Gm
EC = 2
= along OC
r=R
r (OC) ( a / 3) 2
As E A , EB and EC are equal in magnitude and equally inclined to
–GM each other, the resultant gravitational intensity at O is zero.
R
Example 6. Two bodies of masses m and 4 m are placed
For outside points ( r > R ), at a distance r. The gravitational potential at a point on the
GM line joining them, where the gravitational field is zero, is
V =- [AIEEE 2011]
r
4 Gm 6 Gm 9 Gm
(iii) Due to a solid sphere of radius R having a uniform (a) - (b) - (c) - (d) zero
mass distribution. r r r
V Sol. (c) Let gravitational field be zero at P as shown in figure.
m P 4m
A B
x r–x
O r r
Gm G( 4m)
– 3GM \ =
2R x2 (r - x) 2
R
Þ 4x2 = (r - x) 2
For inside points (r < R), Þ 2x = r - x
- GM ( 3 R 2 - r 2 ) r
V = Þ x=
2 R3 3
For outside points ( r ³ R ), \ VP = -
Gm G ( 4m)
-
GM x r-x
V =-
r Gm 4Gm é rù
=- - êëQ x = 3 úû
r /3 r - r /3
Example 5. Three particles, each of mass m, are placed at
the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side a. What is the 3 Gm 6 Gm 9 Gm
=- - =-
gravitational field at the centroid of the triangle? r r r
Gm 3 Gm 2 Gm
(a) Zero (b) -3 3 (c) (d)
a2 a2 a2 Gravitational Potential Energy
Sol. (a) In the figure, O is the centroid of triangle ABC, Gravitational potential energy of a body or system is
m• A negative of work done by the conservative gravitational
force F in bringing it from infinity to the present position.
Mathematically, gravitational potential energy,
r
F
IA E U = -W = - ò ¥ F × dr
O ● The gravitational potential energy of two particles of
masses m1 and m2 separated by a distance r is given by
IB IC
Gm1m2
m• •
C
•m U =-
B D r
288 JEE Main Physics
Kepler’s Laws of Planetary Motion Example 12. The maximum and minimum distances of a
comet from the sun are 8 ´ 1012 m and 1.6 ´ 1012 m. If its
Kepler discovered three empirical laws which accurately
describe the motion of the planets. These laws are velocity when nearest to the sun is 60 ms-1. What will be its
velocity (in ms-1) when it is farthest?
Kepler’s First Law or Law of Orbits (a) 12 (b) 60
All the planets move around the sun in an elliptical orbit (c) 112 (d) 6
with sun at one of the focus of ellipse.
Minor axis Sol. (a) By conservation of angular momentum,
mvr = constant
Planet i.e. v min ´ rmax = v max ´ rmin
Major axis 60 ´ 1.6 ´ 1012 60
\ v min = = = 12 ms–1
Perihelion S Aphelio n 8 ´ 1012 5
or Perigee or Apogee
a Example 13. If the angular momentum of a planet of mass
m, moving around sun in a circular orbit is L about the centre
The point when the planet is nearest to the sun is termed of the sun , its areal velocity is [JEE Main 2019]
as perihelion and the farthest one is known as
4L 2L L L
aphelion. (a) (b) (c) (d)
m m 2m m
Kepler’s Second Law or Law of Areas Sol. (c) According to Kepler’s second law, the line joining the
The line joining the sun to the planet sweeps out equal planet to sun sweeps out equal areas in equal interval of time.
areas in equal intervals of time, i. e. areal velocity of the This means the rate of change of area with time is constant.
planet w.r.t. sun is constant.
B P′
r
A
C I Sun dθ
II
P
D
9. A spherical hollow is made in a lead sphere of 13. A thief stole a box full of valuable articles of weight
radius R such that its surface touches the outside w and while carrying it on his head jumped down
surface of the lead sphere and passes through the from a wall of height h from the ground. Before he
centre. The mass of the lead sphere before reaches the ground, he experienced a load
hollowing was M. The force of attraction that this (a) zero (b) w /2 (c) w (d) 2 w
sphere would exert on a particle of mass m which 14. The mass of the moon is 1/8 of the earth but the
lies at a distance d ( > R) from the centre of the gravitational pull is 1/6 of the earth. It is due to the
lead sphere on the straight line joining the centres fact that
of the sphere and the hollow is (a) moon is the satellite of the earth
GM m GMm (b) the radius of the earth is 8.6 the moon
(a) (b)
d2 8d2 (c) the radius of the earth is 8 / 6 of the moon
é ù é ù (d) the radius of the moon is 6/8 of the earth
ê ú ê ú
GMm ê 1 ú (d) GMm ê 1 ú 15. Average density of the earth [AIEEE 2005]
(c) 2 ê
1+ ê1 - 2ú
d æ R ú
ö d2 æ Rö ú (a) does not depend on g
ê 8 ç1 + ÷ú ê 8 ç1 - ÷
ë è 2 dø û êë è 2 d ø úû (b) is a complex function of g
(c) is directly proportional to g
10. A straight rod of length L extends from x = a to (d) is inversely proportional to g
x = L + a. The gravitational force it exerts on a
16. The change in the value of g at a height h above the
point mass m at x = 0, if the mass per unit length of
the rod is A + Bx2 , is given by [JEE Main 2019]
surface of the earth is the same as at a depth d
é æ ù below the surface of earth. When both d and h are
1 1ö
(a) Gm ê A ç - ÷ - BL ú much smaller than the radius of earth, then which
ë èa + L aø û one of the following is correct? [AIEEE 2005]
é æ 1 1ö ù h 3h
(b) Gm ê A ç - ÷ + BL ú (a) d = (b) d = (c) d = 2 h (d) d = h
ë èa + L aø û 2 2
é æ1 1 ö ù 17. The earth is an approximate sphere. If the interior
(c) Gm ê A ç - ÷ + BL ú
ë è a a + Lø û contained matter which is not of the same density
é æ1 ù everywhere, then on the surface of the earth, the
1 ö
(d) Gm ê A ç - ÷ - BL ú acceleration due to gravity [NCERT Exemplar]
ë è a a + L ø û (a) will be directed towards the centre but not the
same everywhere
11. Four identical particles of mass M are located at
(b) will have the same value everywhere but not
the corners of a square of side a. What should be
directed towards the centre
their speed, if each of them revolves under the
(c) will be same everywhere in magnitude directed
influence of other’s gravitational field in a circular towards the centre
orbit circumscribing the square? [JEE Main 2019]
(d) cannot be zero at any point
18. There is a mine of depth about 2.0 km. In this mine
a
the conditions as compared to those at the surface
are
(a) lower air pressure, higher acceleration due to
gravity
(b) higher air pressure, lower acceleration due to gravity
(c) higher air pressure, higher acceleration due to
GM GM gravity
(a) 1.35 (b) 1.16
a a (d) lower air pressure, lower acceleration due to gravity
GM GM 19. At a given place where, acceleration due to gravity
(c) 1.21 (d) 1.41
a a is g ms–2, a sphere of lead of density d kgm–3 is
gently released in a column of liquid of density r
Acceleration due to Gravity kgm–3. If d > r, the sphere will
12. The acceleration due to gravity on a planet is (a) fall vertically with an acceleration of g ms–2
–2
1.96 ms . If it is safe to jump from a height of 3 m (b) fall vertically with no acceleration
on the earth, the corresponding height on the æ d -rö
(c) fall vertically with an acceleration g ç ÷
planet will be è d ø
(a) 3 m (b) 6 m (c) 9 m (d) 15 m (d) fall vertically with an acceleration r/d
Gravitation 293
20. At a distance 320 km above the surface of earth, 28. The variation of acceleration due to gravity g with
the value of acceleration due to gravity will be distance d from centre of the Earth is best
lower than its value on the surface of the earth by represented by (R = Earth’s radius) [JEE Main 2017]
nearly (radius of earth = 6400 km) g g
(a) 2% (b) 6%
(a) (b)
(c) 10% (d) 14% d d
O R O R
21. The acceleration due to gravity at a height (1/20)th g g
of the radius of the earth above the earth surface is (c) (d)
9 ms–2. Its value at a point at an equal distance
below the surface of the earth (in ms–2) is about d d
O R O R
(a) 8.5 (b) 9.5
(c) 9.8 (d) 11.5 29. The depth from the surface of the earth of radius R
at which the acceleration due to gravity will be 75%
22. If the value of g acceleration due to gravity at earth of the value on the surface of the earth is
surface is 10 ms–2, its value in ms–2 at the centre of (a) R /4 (b) R /2 (c) 3 R / 4 (d) R /8
the earth, which is assumed to be a sphere of
radius R metre and uniform mass density is 30. Two equal masses m and m are hung from a balance
(a) 5 (b) 10/R whose scale pans differ in height by h. If r is the
(c) 10/2R (d) zero mean density of earth, then the error in weighing
machine is
23. The height at which the acceleration due to gravity (a) zero (b) 4 p Grmh / 3
decreases by 36% of its value on the surface of the (c) 8 p Grmh / 3 (d) 2 pGrmh / 3
earth. (The radius of the earth is R)
R R 31. The speed of earth’s rotation about its axis is w. Its
(a) (b) speed is increased to x times to make the effective
6 4
R 2 acceleration due to gravity equal to zero at the
(c) (d) R equator, then value of x is around
2 3
(g = 10 ms–2, R = 6400 km)
24. Two spherical planets A and B have same mass but (a) 1 (b) 8.5 (c) 17 (d) 34
densities in the ratio 8 : 1. For these planets, the
ratio of acceleration due to gravity at the surface of
32. The bodies situated on the surface of earth at its
equator, becomes weightless, when the earth has
A to its value at the surface of B is
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 2
KE about it axis
(a) mgR (b) 2 mgR/5 (c) MgR/5 (d) 5 MgR/2
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 8 : 1
25. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by 1% and 33. The height h at which the weight of a body will be
the same as that at the same depth h from the
its mass remaining same, the acceleration due to
surface of the earth is
gravity on the earth’s surface would
(a) decrease by 2%
(Radius of the earth is R and effect of the rotation
of the earth is neglected) [JEE Main 2020]
(b) remain unchanged
5 R
(c) increase by 2% (a) (R - R) (b)
(d) become zero 2 2
5R - R 3R - R
26. If the force inside the earth surface varies as rn , (c) (d)
2 2
where r is the distance of body from the centre of
earth, then the value of n will be 34. At what height above the earth’s surface, does the
(a) –1 (b) –2 force of gravity decrease by 10%? The radius of the
(c) 1 (d) 2 earth is 6400 km?
(a) 345.60 km (b) 687.20 km
27. The height at which the acceleration due to gravity (c) 1031.8 km (d) 12836.80 km
g
becomes (where, g is the acceleration due to
9 35. The ratio of acceleration due to gravity at a height h
gravity on the surface of the earth) in terms of R above the surface of the earth and at a depth h
(the radius of the earth) is [AIEEE 2009] below the surface of the earth for h < radius of earth
R (a) is constant
(a) 2 R (b)
3 (b) increases linearly with h
R (c) decreases linearly with h
(c) (d) 2R
2 (d) decreases parabolically with h
294 JEE Main Physics
36. If a man weights 90 kg on the surface of earth, the 42. There are two bodies of masses 100000 kg and
height above the surface of the earth of radius R, 1000 kg separated by a distance of 1 m. At what
where the weight is 30 kg, is distance (in metre) from the smaller body, the
(a) 0.73 R (b) R / 3 intensity of gravitational field will be zero?
(c) R /3 (d) 3 R (a) 1/9 (b) 1/10
(c) 1/11 (d) 10/11
37. The ratio of the weights of a body on the earth’s
surface, so that on the surface of a planet is 9 : 4. 43. Consider two solid spheres of radii R1 = 1 m,
1
The mass of the planet is th of that of the earth. If R2 = 2 m and masses M1 and M2 , respectively. The
9 gravitational field due to spheres 1 and 2 are
R is the radius of the earth, what is the radius of M1
shown. The value of is
the planet? (Take, the planets to have the same M2 [JEE Main 2020]
mass density) [JEE Main 2019]
4
1 1 1 2
Gravitational Field, Potential (a) (b) (c) (d)
3 2 6 3
and Potential Energy 44. In a certain region of space, the gravitational field
39. The gravitational field due to a mass distribution is is given by –k/r, where r is the distance and k is a
E = k / x 3 in the x-direction (k is a constant). Taking constant. If the gravitational potential at r = r0 be
the gravitational potential to be zero at infinity, its V0 , then what is the expression for the
value at a distance x/ 2 is gravitational potential V ?
(a) k / x (b) k /2x ærö ær ö
(c) k / x 2 (d) k /2x 2 (a) k log ç ÷ (b) k log ç 0 ÷
è r0 ø èrø
40. Which of the following graphs represents correctly ærö ær ö
the variation of the intensity of gravitational field (c) V 0 + k log ç ÷ (d) V 0 + k log ç 0 ÷
è r0 ø èrø
(I) with the distance (r) from the centre of a
spherical shell of mass M and radius a? 45. A particle of mass m is placed at the centre of a
I I uniform spherical shell of mass 3 m and radius R.
The gravitational potential on the surface of the
GM GM
shell is
a2 a2
(a) (b) Gm 3 Gm
(a) - (b) -
R R
r O r 4 Gm 2 Gm
O r=a r=a (c) - (d) -
R R
I I
GM GM
46. The kinetic energy needed to project a body of mass
a2 a2 m from the earth’s surface (radius R) to infinity is
(c) (d) [AIEEE 2002]
mgR mgR
(a) (b) 2 mgR (c) mgR (d)
O r O r 2 4
r=a r= a
41. Two bodies of masses 2 kg and 8 kg are separated 47. Energy required to move a body of mass m from an
orbit of radius 2R to 3R is [AIEEE 2002]
by a distance of 9 m. The point where the resultant
gravitational field intensity is zero is at a distance GMm GMm
(a) (b)
of 12R2 3 R2
(a) 4.5 m from each mass (b) 6 m from 2 kg GMm GMm
(c) (d)
(c) 6 m from 8 kg (d) 2.5 m from 2 kg 8R 6R
Gravitation 295
48. A mass m is placed at a point B in the gravitational 54. A particle of mass 10 g is kept on the surface of a
field of mass M. When the mass m is brought from uniform sphere of mass 100 kg and radius 10 cm.
B to near point A, its gravitational potential energy Find the work to be done against the gravitational
will force between them, to take the particle far away
(a) remain unchanged (b) increase from the sphere. (Take, G = 6.67 ´ 10-11 Nm 2 / kg 2)
(c) decrease (d) become zero (a) 13.34 ´ 10-10 J [AIEEE 2005]
60. The escape velocity for a body projected vertically (c) of viscous forces causing the speed of satellite and
upwards from the surface of the earth is 11.2 hence height to gradually decrease
kms -1. If the body is projected in a direction (d) of collisions with other satellites
making an angle of 45° with the vertical, the escape 67. The escape velocity from the earth is 11 kms -1. The
velocity will be escape velocity from a planet having twice the
(a) 11.2 kms–1 (b) 11.2 ´ 2 kms–1 radius and the same mean density as the earth
(c) 11.2 ´ 2 kms–1 (d) 11.2/ 2 kms–1 would be
61. The escape velocity of a body depends upon mass as (a) 5.5 kms–1 (b) 11 kms–1
(a) m0 (b) m1 [AIEEE 2002] (c) 15.5 kms–1 (d) 22 kms–1
(c) m2 (d) m3 68. The mass of the moon is 1/81 of earth’s mass and
62. The time period of an earth satellite in circular its radius 1/4th that of the earth. If the escape
orbit is independent of [AIEEE 2004]
velocity from the earth’s surface is 11.2 kms–1, its
(a) the mass of the satellite value for the moon will be
(b) radius of its orbit (a) 0.15 kms–1 (b) 5 kms–1
(c) both the mass and radius of the orbit (c) 2.5 kms–1 (d) 0.5 kms–1
(d) neither the mass of the satellite nor the 69. Two satellites A and B have masses m and 2m,
radius of its orbit
respectively. A is in a circular orbit of radius R and
63. If suddenly the gravitational force of attraction B is in a circular orbit of radius 2R around the
between earth and a satellite revolving around it earth. The ratio of their kinetic energies, TA / TB is
becomes zero, then the satellite will [AIEEE 2002] [JEE Main 2019]
(a) continue to move in its orbit with same velocity 1 1
(a) (b) 2 (c) (d) 1
(b) move tangentially to the original orbit with the 2 2
same velocity
(c) become stationary in its orbit 70. A satellite is revolving in a circular orbit at a
(d) move towards the earth height h from the Earth’s surface (radius of Earth
R, h < < R ). The minimum increase in its orbital
64. A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit around
velocity required, so that the satellite could escape
earth. The mass of the satellite is very small
from the Earth’s gravitational field, is close to
compared to the mass of the earth?
(Neglect the effect of atmosphere) [JEE Main 2017]
(a) The acceleration of S is always directed towards
the centre of the earth (a) 2 gR (b) gR
(b) The angular momentum of S about the centre of (c) gR/2 (d) gR ( 2 - 1)
the earth changes in direction but its magnitude
remains constant 71. Planet A has mass M and radius R and planet B
(c) The total mechanical energy of S varies has half the mass and half the radius of planet A.
periodically with time If the escape velocities from the planets A and B
v n
(d) The linear momentum of S remains constant in are v A and vB respectively, then A = . The value
magnitude vB 4
65. A satellite of mass M is in a circular orbit of radius of n is [JEE Main 2020]
R about the centre of the earth. A meteorite of the (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
same mass falling towards the earth collides with
72. A satellite is in an elliptical orbit around a planet
the satellite completely inelastically. The speeds of
P. It is observed that the velocity of the satellite
the satellite and the meteorite are the same just
when it is farthest from the planet is 6 times less
before the collision. The subsequent motion of the
than that when it is closest to the planet. The ratio
combined body will be [JEE Main 2019]
of distances between the satellite and the planet at
(a) in the same circular orbit of radius R closest and farthest points is [JEE Main 2020]
(b) in an elliptical orbit
(c) such that it escapes to infinity (a) 1 : 6 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 3 : 4
(d) in a circular orbit of a different radius 73. A body is moving in a low circular orbit about a
66. Satellites orbiting the earth have finite life and planet of mass M and radius R. The radius of the
sometimes debris of satellites fall to the earth. This orbit can be taken to be R itself. Then, the ratio of
is because, [NCERT Exemplar] the speed of this body in the orbit to the escape
(a) the solar cells and batteries in satellites run out velocity from the planet is [JEE Main 2020]
(b) the laws of gravitation predict a trajectory 1
(a) 1 (b) (c) 2 (d) 2
spiralling inwards 2
Gravitation 297
74. A satellite of mass m revolves around the earth of 78. The time period of a satellite of earth is 5 h. If the
radius R at a height x from its surface. If g is the separation between the earth and the satellite is
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the increased to 4 times the previous value, the new
earth, the orbital speed of the satellite is [AIEEE 2004] time period will become [AIEEE 2003]
gR (a) 10 h (b) 80 h (c) 40 h (d) 20 h
(a) gx (b)
R-x 79. A geostationary satellite is orbiting around an
1/ 2
gR 2 æ gR ö2 arbitrary planet P at a height of 11 R above the
(c) (d)ç ÷ surface of P, R being the radius of P. The time
R+ x è R + xø
period of another satellite (in h) at a height of 2R
75. A satellite is moving with a constant speed v in from the surface of P is …… . P has the time period
circular orbit around the earth. An object of mass m of 24 h. [JEE Main 2021]
is ejected from the satellite such that it just escapes 6
(a) 6 2 (b) (b) 3 (d) 5
from the gravitational pull of the earth. At the time 2
of ejection, the kinetic energy of the object is 80. The period of revolution of planet A around the sun
[JEE Main 2019] is 8 times that B. The distance of A from the sun is
3
(a) mv2 (b) 2 mv2 how many times greater than that of B from the
2 sun?
1
(c) mv2 (d) mv2 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
2
81. The largest and the shortest distance of the earth
Kepler’s Laws from the sun are r1 and r2 , its distance from the sun
when it is perpendicular to the major axis of the
76. If the radius of earth’s orbit is made (1/4)th, then
orbit drawn from the sun, is
duration of an year will become r1 + r2 r1r2 2 r1r2 r1 + r2
(a) 8 times (b) 4 times (a) (b) (c) (d)
4 r1 + r2 r1 + r2 3
(c) (1/8) times (d) (1/4) times
82. A comet of mass m moves in a highly elliptical orbit
77. In our solar system, the inter-planetary region has around the sun of mass M. The maximum and
chunks of matter (much smaller in size compared to minimum distances of the comet from the centre of
planets) called asteroids. They [NCERT Exemplar] the sun are r1 and r2 respectively. The magnitude of
(a) will not move around the sun since they have very angular momentum of the comet with respect to the
small masses compared to sun centre of sun is
1/ 2 1/ 2
(b) will move in an irregular way because of their é GMr1 ù é GMmr1 ù
small masses and will drift away into outer space (a) ê ú (b) ê ú
ë (r1 + r2) û ë (r1 + r2) û
(c) will move around the sun in closed orbits but not
1/ 2 1/ 2
obey Kepler’s laws é 2 Gm2r1r2 ù é 2 GMm2r1r2 ù
(c) ê ú (d) ê ú
(d) will move in orbits like planets and obey Kepler’s
ë r1 + r2 û ë (r1 + r2) û
laws
3. The correct graph representing the variation of 9. The potential energy of gravitational interaction of
total energy ( E), kinetic energy ( K ) and potential a point mass m and a thin uniform rod of mass M
energy (U) of a satellite with its distance from the and length l, if they are located along a straight
centre of earth is line at distance a from each other is
GMm æ a + lö
(a) U = log e ç ÷
Energy
Energy
E E è a ø
a
U K
(a) O (b) O æ1 1 ö
r r (b) U = GMm ç - ÷
è a a + lø
K U
GMm æ a + lö
(c) U = log e ç ÷
l è a ø
Energy
Energy
GMm
K (d) U = -
K a
(c) O r (d) O r
E 10. The work that must be done in lifting a body
U
U of weight P from the surface of the earth to a height
E h is
PRh R+ h
4. A simple pendulum has a time period T1 when on (a) (b)
R-h PRh
the earth’s surface and T2 when taken to a height PRh R-h
(c) (d)
2 R above the earth’s surface when R is 2 R above R+ h PRh
earth’s surface where R is the radius of the earth.
The value of ( T1/ T2 ) is [Kerala CET 2006] 11. A spaceship is launched into a circular orbit close to
(a) 1/9 (b) 1/3 earth’s surface. The additional velocity that should
(c) 3 (d) 9 be imparted to the spaceship in the orbit to
overcome the gravitational pull is (Radius of earth
5. The escape velocity on the surface of earth is = 6400 km and g = 9.8 ms–2)
11.2 kms–1. If mass and radius of a planet is 4 and 2 (a) 11.2 kms–1 (b) 8 kms–1
times respectively, than that of earth, the escape (c) 3.2 kms–1 (d) 1.5 kms–1
velocity on the planet [BVP Engg. 2006]
(a) 11.2 kms–1
12. Two identical thin rings each of radius R are
coaxially placed at a distance R. If the rings have
(b) 1.12 kms–1
a uniform mass distribution and each has mass
(c) 22.4 kms–1
m1 and m2 respectively, then the work done in
(d) 15.8 kms–1
moving a mass m from centre of one ring to that of
6. The time period of a geostationary satellite at a the other is
height 36000 km is 24 h. A spy satellite orbits very
close to earth surface (R = 6400 km). What will be R R
its time period? [Orissa JEE 2008] m1
m2
Y Y
(a) 4 h (b) 1 h
(c) 2 h (d) 1.5 h
7. Infinite number of masses, each of 1 kg are R
placed along the x-axis at x = +1 m, ± 2 m1, ±4 m, Gmm1 ( 2 + 1) Gm (m1 - m2) ( 2 - 1)
(a) (b)
± 8 m, ± 16 m… The magnitude of the resultant m2R 2R
gravitational potential in terms of gravitational
Gm 2 (m1 + m2)
constant G at the origin ( x = 0) is [Kerala CET 2008] (c) (d) zero
R
(a) G/2 (b) G
(c) 2 G (d) 4 G 13. Four particles, each of mass M and equidistant
8. Halley’s comet has a period of 76, had a distance of from each other, move along a circle of radius R
closest approach to the sun equal to 8.9 ´ 10 m. 10 under the action of their mutual gravitational
The comet’s farthest distance from the sun, if the attraction, the speed of each particle is
[JEE Main 2014]
mass of sun is 2 ´ 1030 kg and g = 6.67 ´ 1011 in
MKS units is GM GM
(a) (b) 2 2
(a) 2 ×1012 m R R
(b) 2.7 × 1013 m GM 1 GM
(c) 5.3 × 1012 m (c) (1 + 2 2 ) (d) (1 + 2 2 )
R 2 R
(d) 5.3 × 1013 m
Gravitation 299
14. A thin uniform annular disc (see figure) of mass M 19. How will you weight the sun, i. e. estimate its mass?
has outer radius 4 R and inner radius 3 R. The You will need to know the period of one of its
work required to take a unit mass from point P on planets and the radius of the planetary orbit. The
its axis to infinity is mean orbital radius of the earth around the sun is
1.5 ´ 108 km, then the mass of the sun is
P
[NCERT Exemplar]
4R
(a) 4 ´ 1030 kg (b) 5 ´ 1030kg
(c) 2 ´ 1030 kg (d) 3 ´ 1030 kg
3R
4R
20. Two satellites S1 and S2 revolve around a planet in
coplanar circular orbits in the same sense. Their
2 GM 2 GM periods of revolution are 1 h and 8 h respectively.
(a) (4 2 - 5) (b) - (4 2 - 5) The radius of orbit of S1 is 104 km. When S2 is
7R 7R
GM 2 GM
closest to S1, the speed of S2 relative to S1 is
(c) (d) ( 2 - 1) (a) p ´ 104 km h –1
4R 5R
(b) 2 p ´ 104 km h –1
15. If satellite is revolving around a planet of mass M (c) 3 p ´ 104 km h –1
in an elliptical orbit of semi-major axis a, find the (d) 4 p ´ 104 km h –1
orbital speed of the satellite when it is at a distance
r from the focus. 21. If a planet was suddenly stopped in its orbit, k
2 é2 1 ù 2 é 2 1ù suppose to be circular, find how much time will it
(a) v = GM ê - ú (b) v = GM ê 2 - ú
ër aû ër aû take in falling onto the sun.
é 2 1ù é 2 1 ù (a) 2 / 8 times the period of the planet’s revolution
(c) v2 = GM ê 2 - 2 ú (d) v2 = GM ê - 2 ú
ër a û ë r a û (b) 4 2 times the period of the planet’s revolution
(c) 3 2 times the period of the planet’s revolution
16. The gravitational force between a point like mass
(d) 9 times the period of the planet’s revolution
M and an infinitely long, thin rod of linear mass
density perpendicular to distance L from M is 22. Distance between the centres of two stars is 10 a.
MGl 1 MGl The masses of these stars are M and 16 M and
(a) (b)
L 2 L their radii a and 2a respectively. A body of mass m
2 MGl is fired straight from the surface of the larger star
(c) (d) infinite towards the smaller star. The minimum initial
L2
speed for the body to reach the surface of smaller
17. The acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s star is
surface at the poles is g and angular velocity of the
earth about the axis passing through the pole is w. 16 M M
An object is weighed at the equator and at a height O1 O2
h above the poles by using a spring balance. If the 2a a
weights are found to be same, then h is (h << R,
where R is the radius of the earth) [JEE Main 2020] 10a
R2w2 R2w2 R2w2 R2w2
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2 GM 3 5 GM
2g g 4g 8g (a) (b)
3 a 2 a
18. Two equal mases m and m are hung from balance 2 5 GM 3 GM
whose scale pans differ in vertical height by h. (c) (d)
3 a 2 a
Calculate the error in weighing, if any, in terms of
density of earth r. 23. The mass density of a planet of radius R varies
with the distance r from its centre as
æ r2 ö
r( r) = r 0 ç1 - 2 ÷, then the gravitational field is
m è R ø
h maximum at [JEE Main 2020]
m 3
(a) r = R (b) r = R
2 8 4
(a) prR 3Gm (b) prGmh
3 3 5 1
8 4 (c) r = R (d) r = R
(c) prR 3Gm (d) prGm2h 9 3
3 3
300 JEE Main Physics
24. A body A of mass m is moving in a 28. On the X-axis and at a distance x from the origin,
circular orbit of radius R about a planet. Another the gravitational field due to a mass distribution is
m Ax
body B of mass collides with A with a velocity given by 2 in the x-direction. The
2 ( x + a2 ) 3/ 2
which is half æç ö÷, the instantaneous velocity v of A.
v
è2ø magnitude of gravitational potential on the X-axis
at a distance x, taking its value to be zero at
The collision is completely inelastic, then the infinity, is [JEE Main 2020]
combined body [JEE Main 2020] A
(a) escapes from the planet’s gravitational field (a) (b) A (x2 + a 2)3/ 2
(x2 + a 2)1/ 2
(b) starts moving in an elliptical orbit around the A
planet (c) 2 (d) A (x2 + a 2)1/ 2
(x + a 2)3/ 2
(c) falls vertically downward towards the planet
(d) continues to move in a circular orbit K
29. The mass density of a spherical galaxy varies as
r
25. Two stars of masses 3 ´ 1031 kg each and at
over a large distance r from its centre. In that
distance 2 ´ 1011 m rotate in a plane about their region, a small star is in a circular orbit of radius
common centre of mass O. A meteorite passes R. Then, the period of revolution T depends on R as
through O moving perpendicular to the star’s [JEE Main 2020]
rotation plane. In order to escape from the (a) T µ R (b) T 2 µ R3
gravitational field of this double star, the minimum 1
(c) T 2 µ R (d) T 2 µ 3
speed that meteorite should have at O is (Take, R
. ´ 10-11 N-m 2 kg -2)
gravitational constant, (G = 667
[JEE Main 2019] 30. A test particle is moving in a circular orbit in the
5 4 gravitational field produced by mass density
(a) 2 . 8 ´ 10 m/s (b) 3.8 ´ 10 m/s K
r( r) = 2 . Identify the correct relation between the
(c) 2 . 4 ´ 104 m/s (d) 1 . 4 ´ 105 m/s r
26. A satellite is moving in a low nearly circular orbit radius R of the particle’s orbit and its period T
[JEE Main 2019]
around the earth. Its radius is roughly equal to 2
that of the earth’s radius Re . By firing rockets T T
(a) is a constant (b) is a constant
attached to it, its speed is instantaneously R3 R2
increased in the direction of its motion, so that it T
(c) TR is a constant (d) is a constant
3 R
becomes times larger. Due to this, the farthest
2 31. A spaceship orbits around a planet at a height of
distance from the centre of the earth that the 20 km from its surface. Assuming that only
satellite reaches is R. Value of R is [JEE Main 2020] gravitational field of the planet acts on the
(a) 4Re (b) 2.5Re spaceship, what will be the number of complete
(c) 3Re (d) 2Re revolutions made by the spaceship in 24 h around
the planet?
27. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R, a (Take, mass of planet = 8 ´ 1022 kg, radius of planet
spherical portion of radius R /2 is removed as
= 2 ´ 106 m and gravitational constant
shown in the figure. Taking gravitational potential
. ´ 10- 11 N - m 2 / kg2)
G = 667 [JEE Main 2019]
V = 0 at r = ¥, the potential at the centre of the
(a) 11 (b) 17 (c) 13 (d) 9
cavity thus formed is (G = gravitational constant)
[JEE Main 2015] 32. A rocket has to be launched from earth in such a
way that it never returns. If E is the minimum
energy delivered by the rocket launcher, what
should be the minimum energy that the launcher
should have, if the same rocket is to be launched
from the surface of the moon? Assume that, the
density of the earth and the moon are equal and
that the earth’s volume is 64 times the volume of the
moon. [JEE Main 2019]
- GM - GM E E
(a) (b) (a) (b)
2R R 64 16
- 2GM - 2GM
(c) (d) E E
3R R (c) (d)
32 4
Gravitation 301
33. A satellite of mass m is launched vertically satellite is stopped suddenly in its orbit and
upwards with an initial speed u from the surface of allowed to fall freely onto the earth, then speed (in
the earth. After it reaches height R ms -1) with which it hits the surface of the earth is
(R = radius of the earth), it ejects a rocket of mass kgR. The value of k is …… . (Take, g = 9.8 ms -2
m
, so that subsequently the satellite moves in a and R = 6.4 ´ 106 m)
10
circular orbit. The kinetic energy of the rocket is 37. An asteroid is moving directly towards the centre of
(G is the gravitational constant, M is the mass of the earth. When at a distance of 10 R (R is the
the earth) [JEE Main 2020] radius of the earth) from the earth’s centre, it has a
2 2 speed of 12 km/s. Neglecting the effect of earth’s
3m æ 5 GM ö mæ 2GM ö
(a) çu + ÷ (b) çu - ÷ atmosphere, what will be the speed of the asteroid
8 è 6R ø 20 è 3R ø when it hits the surface of the earth (escape
m æ 2 113 GM ö æ 119 GM ö velocity from the earth is 11.2 km/s)? Give your
(c) çu + ÷ (d) 5mç u 2 - ÷ answer to the nearest integer (in km/s) ......... .
20 è 200 R ø è 200 R ø
[JEE Main 2020]
Numerical Value Questions 38. Inside a fixed sphere of radius R and uniform
R
34. The radius in kilometre to which the present radius density r, there is a spherical cavity of radius
of earth (R = 6400 km) to be compressed, so that the 2
escape velocity is increased to ten time is …… km. such that, the surface of cavity passes through the
[JEE Main 2021] centre of the sphere as shown in the figure. A
particle of mass m0 is released from rest at centre B
35. If one wants to remove all the mass of the earth to of the cavity. The velocity with which particle
infinity in order to break it up completely. The
2p GrR2
amount of energy that needs to be supplied will be strikes the centre A of sphere is . The
x GM 2 b
, where x is ……… . (Round off to the
5 R value of b is ……… .
nearest integer)
(Here, M is the mass of earth, R is the radius of
earth and G is the gravitational constant).
[JEE Main 2021] A B
Answers
Round I
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (a)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (d)
71. (d) 72. (a) 73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (c) 76. (c) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (c) 80. (b)
81. (c) 82. (d)
Round II
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. 64 35. 3 36. 1 37. 16 38. 3
Solutions
Round I 5. Moon is revolving around earth in almost circular orbit.
1. Gravitational force = æç 3/ 2 ö÷ provides the necessary
GMm Sun exerts gravitational pull on both, earth and moon.
è R ø When observed from sun, the orbit of the moon will not
centripetal force (i. e. mRw2) be strictly elliptical because the total gravitational force
2 (i. e. force due to earth on moon and force due to sun on
GMm æ2 p ö 4 p 2mR moon) is not central.
So, = mRw2 = mR ç ÷ =
R3/ 2 è T ø T2
6. The earth is revolving on circular orbit around sun due
4 p 2R5/ 2 to gravitational force (F ) which acts along the radius of
or T2 =
GM circular path, towards the sun, i. e. angle between
i. e. T 2 µ R 5/ 2 r and F is zero. As,
2. Let R be the original radius of a planet. Then attraction Torque,| t | = | r ´ F| = r F sin 0° = 0
on a body of mass m placed on its surface will be Therefore, torque is zero.
GMm 7. Here, m1 = m2 = 100 kg, r = 100 m
F =
R2 Acceleration of first astronaut,
If radius of the planet is made double, i. e. R¢ = 2 R, then Gm1m2 1 Gm
mass of the planet becomes a1 = 2
´ = 22
r m1 r
4 4
M ¢ = p (2 R)3 r = 8 ´ pR3r = 8 M Acceleration of second astronaut,
3 3 Gm1m2 1 Gm
GM ¢ m G ´ 8M ´ m a2 = ´ = 21
New force, F ¢ = = =2F r2 m2 r
R ¢2 (2 R)2
Net acceleration of approach,
i. e. Force of attraction increases due to the increase in Gm Gm 2 Gm1
mass of the planet. a = a1 + a 2 = 2 2 + 2 1 = [Q m1 = m2]
r r r2
3. From the figure, the gravitational intensity due to the 2 ´ (6.67 ´ 10–11 ) ´ 100
ring at a distance d = 3 R on its axis is =
(100)2
= 2 ´ 6.67 ´ 10–13 ms –2
M R
1
As, s = at 2
2
1/ 2 1/2
d= 3R æ 2 sö é 2 ´ (1 /100) ù
\ t=ç ÷ =ê second
è aø ë 2 ´ 6.67 ´ 10–13 úû
On solving, we get t = 1.41 days
8M 8. Resultant force on mass m due to masses at A and B is
G2M ´ m GMm
F = - towards BA. Therefore, m will
( AB)2 (BC )2
GMd GM ´ 3 R 3 GM
E= 2 2 3/ 2
= 2 2 3/ 2
= move towards 2M.
(d + R ) (3R + R ) 8 R2
9. Gravitational force between sphere of mass M and the
3 GM 3 GM 2 particle of mass m at B is
Force on sphere = (8 M ) ´ E = (8 M ) ´ 2
=
8R R2 G Mm
F1 =
GMm d2
4. Gravitational force due to solid sphere, F1 = , If M1 is the mass of the removed part of sphere, then
(2R)2
æ ö
where M and m are masses of the solid sphere and 4 æ Rö
3
1 æ4 3 ö M ç M ÷
particle respectively and R is the radius of the sphere. M1 = p ç ÷ r = ç pR r ÷ = çQ r = ÷
3 è2ø 8 è3 ø 8 ç 4
pR3 ÷
The gravitational force on particle due to sphere with è ø
3
cavity = force due to solid sphere creating cavity, d
assumed to be present above at that position.
GMm G (M / 8) m 7 GMm
i. e. F2 = - =
4 R2 (3R / 2)2 36 R2
O A
F2 7 GMm æ GMm ö 7
So, = ç ÷=
F1 36 R2 è 4 R2 ø 9
Gravitation 303
Gravitational force between the removed part and the FBO ( net ) = FBD + FBA sin 45° + FBC cos 45°
particle of mass m at B is
GM 2 GM 2 æ 1 ö GM 2 æ 1 ö
GM1m G (M / 8) m GMm = + ç ÷+ ç ÷
F2 = 2
= 2
= ( 2 a )2 a2 è 2 ø a2 è 2 ø
(d - R / 2) (d - R / 2) 8 (d - R / 2)2
\ Required force, [where, diagonal length BD is 2a]
GMm GMm GM 2
GM 2 æ 2 ö GM 2 æ 1 ö
F = F1 - F2 = - = + ç ÷= ç + 2÷
d2 8 [d - (R / 2)]2 2a 2
a2 è 2 ø a2 è2 ø
M 3
DM C 4 G pR æ 4 Gp R ö
\ g= r or g = ç ÷r
a 3 R2 è 3 ø
16. Acceleration due to gravity at height h, 23. The value of acceleration due to gravity at a height h
æ 2 hö 64
gh = g ç 1 - ÷ [ if h < < R] …(i) reduces to = 100 - 36 = 64% = g
è Rø 100
64 gR2
Acceleration due to gravity at depth d, \ g=
100 (R + h )2
æ dö
gd = g ç 1 - ÷ …(ii) 8 R R
è Rø or = or h=
10 R + h 4
As per statement of the problem,
24. Mass of two planets is same, so
gh = gd
4 4
pR13r1 = pR32r 2
æ 2 hö æ dö 3 3
i. e. g ç1 - ÷ = g ç1 - ÷
è Rø è Rø 1/3 1/3
R1 æ r 2 ö æ1ö 1
or =ç ÷ =ç ÷ =
Þ 2h = d R2 è r1 ø è8ø 2
17. If the earth is an approximate sphere of non-uniform g1 GM / R12 æ R2 ö
2
and R p = radius of planet. 43. Gravitational field of a solid sphere is maximum at its
2 2
M Rp 9 æ Rp ö 9 surface (r = R) and its value at surface,
Þ × 2 = Þ9× ç ÷ =
Mp R 4 è Rø 4 GM
E= 2
Rp R
1 R
Þ = Þ Rp = From graph given in the question,
R 2 2
38. The relation of gravitational acceleration at an altitude E
h above the earth’s surface is given as
-2 3
æ hö
gh = g ç 1 + ÷
è Re ø 2
The viscous force acting on satellite decreases the \ Minimum increase in its orbital velocity required to
energy of satellite. As a result of it, the value of r escape from the Earth’s gravitational field,
gradually decreases, consequently the height of 2 GM GM
satellite gradually decreases. v¢- v = -
R R
2 GM æ GM ö
67. Escape velocity , ve = = 2 gR - gR = gR ( 2 - 1) çQ g = 2 ÷
R è R ø
4
2G pR3 ´ d 71. Escape velocity is given by
Þ ve = 3
R 2 GM
ve =
R
4 8
= 2G p R2 ´ d = R p Gd where, m = mass and R = radius of planet.
3 3
2 GM
(Here, d = mean density of earth) So, vA =
R
Now, ve µ R d
æMö
ve R de R de 2G ç ÷
\ = e = e è 2ø 2 GM
v p R p d p 2 Re de and vB = =
æ Rö R
ç ÷
v p = 2 ve = 2 ´ 11 = 22 kms –1 è2ø
2 vA n
gm Mm æ Re ö 1 16 Þ = 1 or = 1 Þ n =4
68. Here, = ´ç ÷ = ´ (4)2 = vB 4
ge M e è Rm ø 81 81
72. The motion of a satellite in an elliptical orbit is shown in
16 figure
Þ gm = ge
81 vmin
-1
Also, ve = 2 geRe = 11.2 kms
rmin rmax
16 1
vm = 2 gm Rm = 2 ´ ge ´ Re Planet
81 4
vmax
2 2
= 2 ge Re = ´ 11.2
9 9 Applying, angular momentum conservation about
= 2.48 » 2.5 kms –1 planet at closest and farthest points,
L closest = L farthest
69. Orbital speed of a satellite in a circular orbit is rmin vmin
mvmax rmin = mvmin rmax or =
æ GM ö rmax vmax
vo = ç ÷
è ro ø vmin 1
Given that, vmax = 6vmin or =
vmax 6
where, ro is the radius of the circular orbit.
rmin 1
So, kinetic energies of satellites A and B are \ =
rmax 6
1 2 GMm
TA = mAvOA =
2 2R 73. Orbital velocity of a body revolving around a planet,
1 2 GM (2m) GMm GM
TB = mB vOB = = vo = …(i)
2 2(2R) 2R r
TA where, M = mass of the planet,
So, ratio of their kinetic energies is = 1.
TB r = orbital radius of revolving body = R (given)
and G = universal gravitational constant.
70. Given, a satellite is revolving in a circular orbit at a
height h from the Earth’s surface having radius of earth Escape velocity of any body from the surface of a planet,
R, i.e. h < < R. ve =
2 GM
…(ii)
GM GM R
Orbital velocity of a satellite, v = = where, M = mass of the planet,
R+ h R
(as, h < < R) R = radius of the planet and G = universal
Velocity required to escape, gravitational constant. Ratio of body’s orbital velocity
1 GMm to the escape velocity from the planet,
mv¢ 2 = GM
2 R+ h
vo
= R = 1
2GM 2GM
v¢ = = (h < < R) ve 2 GM 2
R+ h R
R
310 JEE Main Physics
74. The gravitational force exerted on satellite at a height x 78. According to Kepler’s law,
is T 2 µ r3 Þ 52 µ r3 …(i)
GM em
FG = and (T ¢ )2 µ (4r )3 …(ii)
(R + x)2
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have
where, M e = mass of earth. 25 r3
=
Since, gravitational force provides the necessary (T ¢ )2 64r3
centripetal force, so
or T ¢ = 1600 or T ¢ = 40 h
GM em mvo2
= 79. From Kepler’s law,
(R + x)2 (R + x)
T 2 µ R3 Þ T µ R 3 / 2
where, vo is orbital speed of satellite. 3/ 2
T1 æ 12R ö
GM em \ =ç ÷ =8
Þ = mvo2 T2 è 3R ø
(R + x)
T 24
Þ T2 = 1 = =3h
gR2m é GM e ù 8 8
or = mvo2 êëQ g = R2 úû
(R + x) 80. As, T 2 µ r3
1/ 2
é gR2 ù é gR2 ù TA2 rA3
or vo = ê ú =ê ú So, =
TB2 rB3
ë (R + x) û ë (R + x) û
2/3
rA æ TA ö
75. Kinetic energy must be given to an object, so that it just or =ç ÷ = (8)2/3 = 4 or rA = 4 rB
escapes to infinity is as shown in the figure below rB è TB ø
So, rA - rB = 4 rB - rB = 3 rB
To infinity
81. The earth moves around the sun in elliptical path. So,
v by using the properties of ellipse
m r1 = (1 + e) a and r2 = (1 - e) a
r +r
Satellite Þ a = 1 2 and r1r2 = (1 - e2) a 2
2
where, a = semi-major axis,
Earth
b = semi-minor axis
and e = eccentricity.
r b2
Now, required distance = semi-latus rectum =
a
a 2 (1 - e2) r1 r2 2 r1r2
Applying energy-conservation for mass m, = = =
a (r1 + r2) / 2 r1 + r2
we get
Initial energy of m at satellite = Final energy of m at 82. The gravitational force of sun on comet is radial, hence
infinity angular momentum is constant over the entire orbit.
Þ Ui + Ki = U f + K f …(i) Using law of conservation of angular momentum, at
Here, U i = initial PE of locations A and B, we get
- G × Mm r2 r1
m= = - (v2)m 1
r M
m
GM B A
As, v = = orbital speed of the satellite, Sun m
r 2
K i = initial kinetic energy of m,
U f = final potential energy of m which is zero L = mv1 r1 = mv2 r2
and K f = final kinetic energy of m which is also zero. vr
or v2 = 1 1 …(i)
So, from Eq. (i), we have r2
- v2m + K i = 0 + 0 or K i = mv2 Using the principle of conservation of total energy at A
ær ö
3/ 2 3/ 2 and B,
æ1ö 1 1
76. As, T2 = T1 ç 2 ÷ = T1 ç ÷ = T1 = times 1 GMm 1 GMm
è r1 ø è4ø 8 8 mv12 - = mv22 -
2 r1 2 r2
77. Asteroids move in circular orbits like planets under the æ1 1ö
action of central forces and obey Kepler’s laws. or v22 - v12 = 2 GM ç - ÷ …(ii)
è r2 r1 ø
Gravitation 311
Putting the values from Eq. (i) in Eq. (ii) and solving, Dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (i), we get
we get ve¢ = 2 ´ ve = 1.414 ´ 11.2 = 15.8 kms–1
1/ 2
é 2 GMr2 ù é r3 ù
1/ 2
v1 = ê ú 2 pr 2 pr
ë r1 (r1 + r2) û
6. As, T = = 1/ 2
= 2p ê ú
v [GM / r ] ë GM û
1/ 2
é 2 GMm2r1r2 ù 1/ 2
\ L = mv1r1 = ê ú é (6400 + 36000)3 ù
ë (r1 + r2) û As per question, 24 = 2p ê ú
ë GM û
1/ 2
Round II é (6400)3 ù
and T ' = 2p ê ú
1. As, D KE = D U ë GM û
1/ 2
1 æ1 1 ö T¢ é (6400)3 ù
Þ mv2 = GM e m ç - ÷ …(i) \ =ê = (0.4)3
2 è R R + hø 3ú
24 ë (6400 + 36000) û
GM e
Also, g= …(ii) or T ¢ = (0.4)3 ´ 24 = 1.53 h
R2
é Gm æ Gm ö æ Gm ö ù
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have 7. V = ê - + ç- ÷+ç ÷ + ...ú ´ 2
ë 1 è 2 ø è 4 ø û
R
h=
æ 2 gR ö é ù
ç 2 - 1÷ é 1 1 ù ê 1 ú
è v ø = -2Gmê1 + + + ...ú = -2Gmê
ë 2 4 û 1ú
ê1 - ú
2. For r £ R, ë 2û
mv2 GmM æ 4 3 ö = - 4Gm = -4G ´ 1 = - 4G
= çQ M = pr r 0 ÷
r r 2 è 3 ø In magnitude, V = 4G
\ vµr 8. It is self-evident that, the orbit of the comet is elliptic
i.e. v-r graph is a straight line passing through the with sun begin at one of the focus. Now, as for elliptic
origin. orbits, according to Kepler’s third law,
For r ³ R , 1/3
4 p 2a3 æ T 2 GM ö
æ4 ö T2 = Þ a=ç ÷
GM ç pR 3 ÷r 0 GM è 4 p2 ø
mv2 è3 ø 1
= Þ vµ 1/3
r r 2
r é (76 ´ 3.14 ´ 107 ) ´ 6.67 ´ 10–11 ´ 2 ´ 1030 ù
or a=ê ú
The corresponding v-r graph will be as shown in option ë 4p 2 û
(c).
a = 2.7 ´ 1012
3. We know that, total energy (E ), kinetic energy (K ) and But in case of ellipse,
potential energy (U ) of moving satellite is given as 2 a = rmin + rmax
GMm GMm GMm
E=- ,K = and U = - \ rmax = 2 a - rmin = 2 ´ 2.7 ´ 1012 - 8.9 ´ 1010
2r 2r r
- 5.3 ´ 1012 m
~
For satellite U , K and E vary with r and also U and E
remain negative whereas K remains always positive. 9. M l dx m
Hence, from above expressions, graph represented in a
option (c) is correct. x
l
4. As, T = 2p æM ö
g Gm ç dx÷
è l ø
Þ dU =
i.e. T µ 1 / g (for fixed value of l) x
2 ù 1/ 2 Integrating, we get
T1 g ¢ é gR2/ (R + 2R) 1
\ = =ê ú = GmM a+ l dx
Þ ò dU =
l òa x
T2 g ë g û 3
Gm1 Gm2 2 GM
Þ VA = - - =
4R
[ 16 R2 + r 2 ]3R
R 2R 7 R2
Similarly, VB = (Potential at B due to m1 ) 2 GM
= [4 2R - 5 R]
+ (Potential at B due to m2 ) 7 R2
Gm2 Gm1 2 GM
Þ VB = - - = (4 2 - 5)
R 2R 7R
Since, W A®B = m (VB - V A ) Þ W A®B
15. As in case of elliptic orbit of a satellite, mechanical
Gm (m1 - m2) ( 2 - 1 ) æ GMm ö
= energy E = - ç ÷ remains constant, at any position
2R è 2a ø
13. Net force acting on any one particle M of satellite in the orbit.
GM 2
GM 2
GM GMm
= + cos 45° + cos 45° i. e. KE + PE = - …(i)
(2R) (R 2 )2 (R 2 )2 2a
Now, if at position r , v is the orbital speed of satellite
u M
u 1
KE = mv2
R 2
m R R 45° m
O 45° GMm
and PE = - …(ii)
R r
u
M u So, from Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have
1 GMm GMm
GM 2 æ 1 1 ö mv2 - =- ,
= ç + ÷ 2 r 2a
R2 è 4 2ø
é2 1 ù
This force will be equal to centripetal force. i. e. v2 = GM ê - ú
ër aû
Gravitation 313
dx 2 GM (r - x)
i. e. - =
dt r x
t r 0 é x ù dm = (4πr2 dr)ρ
or ò0 dt = - 2 GM ò r êë (r - x) úû dx
G x
x2 ò 0
Substituting x = r sin 2 q and solving the RHS, we get So, E= (4pr 2dr )[r (r )] …(i)
r æ pr ö x x
t= ´ç ÷ (After integrating) Here, M = ò dm = ò 4pr 2dr ×r (r )
2 GM è 2 ø 0 0
26. Rockets
fired
Planet vp < vo (Spiral)
Position v= 3 v0
2 1
vp=vo (Circular) I
Re Position
II
vp>vo but vp< ve (Elliptical) R
v0 2
Now, by momentum conservation in given collision, we
have, pi = pf v0 1
m æ vA ö æ mö
Þ mvA + ç ÷ = çm + ÷ vp ...(i)
2 è2ø è 2ø Using law of conservation of energy for position I and
Body A is orbiting in orbit of radius R + h, hence for a position II of satellite, we have
small value of h, (PE + KE)Position I = (PE + KE)Position II
GM GM v - GMm 1 - GMm 1
vA = = = e Þ + mv12 = + mv22
r R 2 Re 2 R 2
So, final speed of combined mass system, - GMm 1 æ 3 2 ö - GMm 1
Þ + mç v01 ÷ = + mv022
5 5 1 Re 2 è2 ø R 2
v p = vo = ´ ve
6 6 2 GM
As, orbital speed, v0 =
As v p is less than vo , so it must spiral towards planet. R
Most nearest option is (b), if we take spiral close to
(where, R = orbital radius)
elliptical.
316 JEE Main Physics
x 2 + a2 x 2 + a2
é -3 + 1 ù é -1 ù
A ê (t ) 2 ú A ê (t ) 2 ú
P
R/2 =- ê ú =- ê ú
R 2 ê -3 + 1ú 2 ê -1 ú
ë 2 û¥ ë 2 û¥
x 2 + a2
é ù é ù
According to the question,we can write potential at an ê 1 ú ê 1 1 ú
= Aê 1 ú = Aê 1
- 1ú
internal point P due to complete solid sphere,
êë (t ) 2 úû êë (x2 + a 2) 2 (¥ ) 2 úû
GM é 2 æ R ö ù
2 ¥
Vs = - ê 3 R - ç ÷ ú é ù
2R3 êë è2ø ú
û ê 1 ú A
= Aê 1
- 0 ú= 1
- GM é 2 R2 ù
= ê3R - ú êë (x2 + a 2) 2 úû (x2 + a 2) 2
2R3 ë 4 û
- GM é 11 R2 ù - 11 GM
29. Force on star is provided by the mass enclosed inside
=ê ú= region of radius R as shown below
2R3 ë 4 û 8R
3 Star
M 4 æ Rö M
Mass of removed part = ´ p ç ÷ =
(4 /3) ´ pR3
3 è 2 ø 8
Galaxy
Potential at point P due to removed part, R
- 3 GM /8 - 3GM
Vc = ´ =
2 R /2 8R
Thus, potential due to remaining part at point P, where, R = orbital radius of star.
- 11GM æ 3GM ö Now, consider a spherical region of radius r and
VP = V s - V c = - ç- ÷
8R è 8R ø thickness dr as shown below
(-11 + 3) GM - GM
= =
8R R dr
Ax r
28. Here, gravitational field, EG = 2
(x + a 2)3/ 2
and also gravitational potential at infinity, V ¥ = 0
Now, dV = - EG × dx
Vx x
òV ¥
dV = - ò EG × dx
¥ Mass enclosed in this region is given by
Ax
x k
= -ò
[V ]VVx¥ d x cos 0° dm = density ´ volume = × 4pr 2 × dr
¥ (x2 + a 2 )3 / 2 r
x Ax So, total mass enclosed in a region of radius R is given
Vx - V¥ = - ò dx ´ 1 by
¥ (x2 + a 2 )3 / 2 R R
k
x Ax M = ò dm = ò × 4pr 2dr
Vx - 0 = - ò dx 0 0
r
¥ (x2 + a 2 )3 / 2
R
é r2 ù
x x = 4pkê ú = 2kpR2
Vx = - Aò dx …(i)
¥ (x2 + a 2 )3 / 2 ë 2 û0
JEE NEET ADDA
This Pdf Is
Download From
www.jeeneetadda.in
VISIT NOW !!
Gravitation 317
Gravitational pull of this mass provides necessary This gravitational pull provides necessary centripetal
centripetal force for rotation of star. pull for orbital motion of spaceship.
GMm mv2 2 GM G2kpR2 GmM mv2
So, = Þ v = = So, Fg = Fcentripetal Þ =
R2 R R R (R + h )2 (R + h )
Þ v2 = 2GkpR Þ v = 2GkpR where, v = orbital speed of spaceship.
Time period of rotation, Orbital speed of spaceship,
2pR 2 pR
T= = Þ T µ R or T 2 µ R v=
GM
…(i)
v 2GkpR (R + h )
30. Let the mass of the test particle be m and its orbital Here, G = 6.67 ´ 10-11 N-m 2/kg 2,
linear speed be v.
M = 8 ´ 1022 kg
Force of gravity of the mass-density would provide the
R + h = (2 ´ 106 + 20 ´ 103 ) m
necessary centripetal pull on test particle.
= 2.02 ´ 106 m
Þ Gravitational force (Fg ) = Centripetal force (Fc )
So, substituting these values in Eq. (i), we get
Let us now assume an elementary ring at a distance r
from the centre of the mass density, such that mass of 6.67 ´ 10-11 ´ 8 ´ 1022
v= = 1.6 ´ 103 ms -1
this elementary ring be M. 2.02 ´ 106
Test particle
Time period of rotation of spaceship will be
2p (R + h ) 2p ´ 2.02 ´ 106
m T= Þ T=
v 1.6 ´ 103
Fg = F c 8 ´ 103
» 8 ´ 103 s = (h) = 2.2 h
60 ´ 60
dr
So, number of revolutions made by spaceship in 24 h,
r Elementary 24 24
ring n= = » 11 rev
T 2.2
Properties of
Solids
A body is said to be elastic, if it regains its original shape and size on the removal of
deforming force. The property of matter by virtue of which a body tends to regain IN THIS CHAPTER ....
its original shape and size after the removal of deforming forces is called elasticity.
Elastic Behaviour
If a body completely gains its natural shape after the removal of the deforming
forces it is called perfectly elastic body. If a body remains in the deformed state or Stress
does not even partially regain its original shape after removal of deforming forces it Strain
is called perfectly inelastic or plastic body. Hooke’s Law
Poisson’s Ratio (σ)
Elastic Behaviour Stress-Strain Relationship
The elastic behaviour can be understood by taking the microscopic nature of solids.
It is shown in the following figure, in which we can see that the balls represent the Work Done or Potential Energy
Stored in a Stretched Wire
atoms or molecules and the springs represent the interatomic or intermolecular
forces. Thermal Stresses and Strains
In this system originally, the ball is in the position of its stable equilibrium, if any
ball is displaced a little from its equilibrium position, the springs attached to that
ball will either be stretched or compressed.
Therefore, the restoring forces are developed in the springs and they will bring the
ball back to its natural position. This is known as the elastic behaviour of the solid
body.
Interatomic/Intermolecular force
Atom/Molecule
Properties of Solids 321
If area of cross-section of a rod is A and a deforming force Sol. (c) Let d min be the minimum diameter of brass.
F is applied along the length of the rod and perpendicular Then, stress in brass rod is given by
to its cross-section, then in this case, stress produced in F 4F é pd 2 ù
the rod is known as normal or longitudinal stress. It is s= = 2 êQ A = ú
A pd min ë 4 û
also known as axial stress.
F For stress not to exceed elastic limit, we have s £ 379 MPa
Longitudinal stress = n 4F
A Þ 2
£ 379 ´ 10 6
Longitudinal stress is of two types pd min
F dx DV Dp
Change in dx length of the wire is dy = × ´ 100% = - ´ 100%
Ry ( a + r) 2 V B
Fdx -4 ´ 10 9
or dy = = ´ 100%
Ry( a + x tan q) 2 8 ´ 10 10
So, change in overall length of the wire, 1
= - ´ 10%
DL F L dx 2
ò0 dy = pY ò0 ( a + x tan q) 2 = - 0.5 ´ 10% = - 5%
F æ 1 ö
L Now, V =l3 (for cube)
Dl = ç ÷
pY tan q è a + x tan q ø 0 Þ l = (V ) 1/3
FL Dl 1 æ DV ö
= Þ ´ 100% = ç ´ 100%÷
pa ( a + L tan q) Y l 3è V ø
FL 1
= (Q a + L tan q = b) = ( -5%) = -167
. %
p abY 3
3.14 ´ 9.8 ´ 10 So, length of cube will be decreased by 1.67%.
\ Dl =
3.14 ´ (9.8 ´ 10 –4) ´ 5 ´ 10 -4 ´ 2 ´ 1011
Dl = 10 -3 m
Modulus of Rigidity
The ratio of tangential stress to shearing strain is known
as modulus of rigidity. It is also called shear modulus. It
Bulk Modulus of Elasticity (K) is denoted by Greek letter h (eta). Thus,
It is defined as the ratio of the volumetric stress to the Tangential stress
h=
volumetric strain. It is denoted by K. Thus, Shearing strain
Volumetric stress Here, a body (shown) is acted upon by an external force
K =
Volumetric strain tangential to the surface of the body, the opposite face
Suppose a force F acts uniformly over the whole being kept fixed, its volume remains unchanged. Then,
surface of the sphere (shown), decreasing its volume by F
DV . Then, D D' C C'
F /A
K =
- DV /V
φ φ
- FV pV
or K = =- Fixed face
ADV DV A B
The negative sign indicates that on increasing stress, the F /A
volume of the sphere decreases. The units of bulk modulus h=
DD ¢/AD
are Pa or Nm–2 in SI system.
DD ¢
Compressibility (C) The reciprocal of the bulk modulus Here, tan f » f = [for small angle f]
of the material of the body is called the compressibility of AD
the material. Thus, F/ A
h=
1 -1 æ DV ö f
Compressibility (C ) = = ç ÷
K V è Dp ø or h=
F
–1
Its unit is N m or Pa 2 –1
in SI system. Af
The units of modulus of rigidity are Pa or Nm - 2 in SI
Note Young’s modulus and Bulk modulus for a perfectly rigid body is
infinity. system.
Note Modulus of rigidity (or shear modulus) is involved with solids only.
Example 9. A cube of metal is subjected to a hydrostatic Modulus of rigidity for a solid is generally less than its Young’s modulus.
pressure of 4 GPa. The percentage change in the length of the
side of the cube is close to Example 10. A square lead slab of side 50 cm and
(Take, Bulk modulus of metal, B = 8 ´ 1010 Pa) [JEE Main 2020] thickness 10 cm is subject to a shaping force (on its narrow
(a) 1.67 (b) 0.6 (c) 20 (d) 5 face) of 9 ´ 10 4 N. The lower edge is riveted to the floor. The
Dp DV Dp upper edge is displaced by (Take, G = 5.6 GPa) [NCERT]
Sol. (a) Bulk modulus, B = Þ =-
æ DV ö V B (a) 0.30 mm (b) 0.16 mm
ç- ÷
è V ø (c) 0.28 mm (d) 0.92 mm
Properties of Solids 325
Sol. (b) The lead slab is fixed and the force is applied parallel to Example 12. A tension of 20 N is applied to a wire of
the narrow face. The area of the face parallel to which this force is cross-sectional area 0.01 cm 2. The decrease in cross-sectional
applied is area is (Take, Young’s modulus of Cu = 1.1 ´ 1011 Nm -2 and
F
50 cm Poisson’s ratio = 0.32)
(a) 1.81 ´ 10 –4 cm2 (b) 1.16 ´ 10 –6 cm2
–8 2
(c) 2.81 ´ 10 cm (d) 5.23 ´ 10 –3 cm2
Dl F 20
Sol. (b) As, = = -6 = 1.81 ´ 10 –4
A = 50 cm ´ 10 cm = 0.5 m ´ 0.1m = 0.05 m 2 l AY 10 ´ 1.1 ´ 10 11
\ Stress applied = (9.4 ´ 10 4 N / 0.05 m2) Dr Dl
=s ´ = 0.32 ´ 1.81 ´ 10 –4
= 1.80 ´ 10 6 Nm–2 r l
Dx stress DA 2 Dr
We know that, shearing strain = = = = 2 ´ 0.32 ´ 1.81 ´ 10 –4
L G A r
Stress ´ L = 1.16 ´ 10 –4
\Displacement, Dx =
G
and DA = A (1.16 ´ 10 –4)
(1.8 ´ 10 6 ´ 0.5)
=
5.6 ´ 10 9 = 1.16 ´ 10 –6 cm2 [Q A = 0.01 cm2]
= 1.6 ´ 10 –4 m = 0.16 mm
Example 11. A 5 cm cube has its upper face displaced by Stress-Strain Relationship
0.2 cm by a tangential force of 8 N. The modulus of rigidity of For a small deformation (say < 0.01) the longitudinal
the material of cube is stress is proportional to the longitudinal strain. But
(a) 5 ´ 10 4 Nm-2 when the deformation is not small, the relation of stress
and strain is complicated.
(b) 6 ´ 10 4 Nm-2
(c) 7 ´ 10 4 Nm-2 Figure below shows qualitatively relation between the
stress and strain of a stretched metal wire when the load
(d) 8 ´ 10 4 Nm-2
is gradually increased in it.
Sol. (d) Here, l = 5 cm = 5 ´ 10 -2 m,
Dl = 0.2 cm = 0.2 ´ 10 –2 m, F = 8 N
D
Shearing stress
Modulus of rigidity, h =
Shearing strain AB
Stress
C Plastic
F F 8 behaviour
Hence, shearing stress = = 2 = = 3200 Nm–2
A l ( 5 ´ 10-2) 2
Dl 0.2 Elastic
Shearing strain = = = 0.04 behaviour
l 5
3200 O Strain
\ h= = 80000 Nm–2
0.04
= 8 ´ 10 4 Nm–2 In figure, A = proportional limit,
B = elastic limit,
Poisson’s Ratio (s) C = yield point (lower)
and D = fracture point.
The ratio of lateral strain to the longitudinal strain is
● Point A is limit of proportionality and beyond which
constant for a given material. This constant is called as
Poisson’s ratio. linear variation of stress and strain ceases. Hooke’s law
is valid in region OA and it is also called linear elastic
Lateral strain æ - DR ö Dl
s= =ç ÷ region.
Longitudinal strain è R ø l ● Point B is elastic limit, i.e. the maximum stress upto
Here, negative sign shows that if the length increases, which a metal wire regains its original shape (length)
then the radius of wire decreases. Poisson’s ratio (s) has after removal of applied load. Region AB is called
no units and dimensions. non-linear elastic region.
1 ● Point C is called yield point, at this point yielding of
Theoretically, -1 < s =
2 the wires begins, i.e. even if the stretching force is
1 removed the wire does not come back to its original
Practically, 0 < s < while practically no substance has
2 length, some permanent increase in length takes place.
been found for which s is negative. The behaviour of wire is now plastic.
326 JEE Main Physics
● Point D is known as a fracture point. The stress ● The modulii of elasticity Y and h exist only for solids as
corresponding to this point is called breaking stress, liquids and gases cannot be deformed along one
region BD represents plastic region. dimension only and also cannot sustain shear strain.
If large deformation takes place between elastic limit and However, K exists for all states of matter, i. e. solid,
the fracture point, the material is called ductile. If it liquid and gas.
breaks soon after the elastic limit is crossed, it is called ● Gases being most compressible are least elastic while
brittle. solids are most, i.e. the bulk modulus of gases is very
low while that for liquids and solids is very high. i.e.
Note Elastic limit is the property of a body whereas elasticity is
Esolid > E liquid > E gas
the property of material of a body.
● If a liquid of density r, volume V and Bulk modulus K
Example 13. The strain-stress curves of three wires of is compressed, then its density increases.
different materials are shown in the figure. P, Q and R are the M
As density, r =
elastic limits of the wires, the figure shows that V
Dr DV
Y So, =- ...(i)
P r V
Q
Strain
R
But by definition of Bulk modulus,
-V D p
K =-
X DV
Stress
DV Dp
Þ = ...(ii)
(a) elasticity of wire P is maximum V K
(b) elasticity of wire Q is maximum From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
(c) elasticity of wire R is maximum Dr r ¢ - r Dp
(d) None of the above = =
r r K
Sol. (c) As stress is shown on X-axis and strain on Y-axis. æ Dp ö
1 1
or r ¢ = r ç1 + ÷ = r (1 + C Dp)
So, we can say that y = cot q = = è K ø
tan q slope
So, elasticity of wire P is minimum and of wire R is maximum. Work Done or Potential Energy Stored in
Important Points for Modulus of Elasticity (Y, a Stretched Wire
K and h ) When a wire is stretched, work is done against the
interatomic forces. This work is stored in the wire in the
● The value of modulus of elasticity (Y, K and h ) is form of elastic potential energy.
independent of the magnitude of the stress and strain.
It depends only on the nature of the material of the Let us consider a wire of length l and the cross-sectional
body. area A. If a force F acts along the length of the wire and
stretches it by x, then
● There are three modulii of elasticity, i. e. Y, K and h
Stress F/ A Fl
while elastic constants are four, i. e. Y, K, h and s. Y = = =
Poisson’s ratio s is not modulus of elasticity as it is the Strain x / l Ax
ratio of two strains and not of stress to strain. YA
F= x
Elastic constants are found to depend on each other l
through the relations So, work done for an additional small increase dx in length,
Y = 3K (1 - 2s ) and Y = 2h (1 + s ) dW = F dx = (YA / l ) x dx
Eliminating s or Y between these, we get So, total work done in increasing the length by Dl,
9 Kh 3 K - 2h Dl YA
Y = and s = W =ò x dx
0 l
3K + h 6 K + 2h
1 YA
● The modulii of elasticity has same dimensional formula W = ( Dl )2
2 l
and units as that of stress, since strain is
dimensionless, i.e. the dimensional formula for Y, K or \Work done per unit volume,
2
h is [ML–1T –2 ], while unit is dyne cm–2 or Nm–2. W 1 æ Dl ö 1
= Y ç ÷ = Y (strain)2
● Greater the value of modulii of elasticity, more elastic V 2 è l ø 2
æ1ö 1 æ1ö æ Dl ö
is the material. As Y µ ç ÷ , K µ and h µ ç ÷ . çQV = Al and strain = ÷
è Dl ø DV è fø è l ø
Properties of Solids 327
A body having linear dimensions is shown in above Also, thermal strain in rod is obtained by using formula for
figure. expansion in rod,
Let the temperature of the rod be increased by an Dl = l a DT
amount t. The length of the rod would increase by an Dl
Thermal strain, = a DT …(ii)
amount Dl, if it is not fixed at two supports. Here, l
Dl = l at From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
F
But since the rod is fixed at the supports, a compressive = aT [Q DT = T ]
strain will be produced in the rod. pr 2 Y
F
Because at the increased temperature, the natural length Þ a= 2
of the rod is l + Dl, while being fixed at two supports, its pr YT
actual length is l. Hence, thermal strain, Hence, coefficient of volume temperature expansion of rod is
Dl l at 3F
e= = = at g = 3a = 2
l l pr YT
or e = at Example 17. A rod of length L at room temperature and
Therefore, thermal stress, uniform area of cross-section A, is made of a metal having
S = Ye (QStress = Y ´ Strain) coefficient of linear expansion a / °C. It is observed that an
or S = Yat external compressive force F, is applied on each of its ends,
prevents any change in the length of the rod, when its
Example 16. A uniform cylindrical rod of length L and temperature rises by DT K. Young’s modulus Y for this metal is
radius r, is made from a material whose Young’s modulus of [JEE Main 2019]
elasticity equals Y. When this rod is heated by temperature T F F
(a) (b)
and simultaneously subjected to a net longitudinal 2Aa DT Aa( DT - 273)
compressional force F, its length remains unchanged. The 2F F
(c) (d)
coefficient of volume temperature expansion of the material AaDT AaDT
of the rod, is (nearly) equal to [JEE Main 2019]
Sol. (d) If a rod of length L and coefficient of linear expansion
(a) 9F / ( pr 2 YT) a/° C, then with the rise in temperature by DT K, its change in
(b) 6F / ( pr 2 YT) length is given as
(c) 3F / ( pr 2 YT) DL = L a DT
(d) F / (3pr 2 YT) DL
Þ = a DT ...(i)
L
Sol. (c) As length of rod remains unchanged, Also, when a rod is subjected to some compressive force (F), then
its’ Young’s modulus is given as
F F F
Stress
Y= = A
Strain caused by compressive forces is equal and opposite to the Strain DL
thermal strain. L
Now, compressive strain is obtained by using formula for Young’s DL F
= ...(ii)
modulus, L YA
F Since, it is given that the length of the rod does not change. So,
Y= A from Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
Dl
F
l a DT =
YA
Dl F F
Compressive strain, = = …(i) F
l AY pYr 2 Þ Y=
Aa DT
Properties of Solids 329
Practice Exercise
ROUND I Topically Divided Problems
10. The length of an elastic string is a metre when the 15. Speed of a transverse wave on a straight wire
tension is 4 N and b metre when the tension is (mass 6.0 g, length 60 cm and area of cross-section
5 N. The length in metre when the tension is 9 N, is 1.0 mm2 ) is 90 ms -1. If the Young’s modulus of wire
(a) 4a - 5b (b) 5b - 4a is 16 ´ 1011 Nm -2 , the extension of wire over its
(c) 9b - 9a (d) a + b natural length is [JEE Main 2020]
(a) 0.01 mm (b) 0.04 mm
Types of Modulus of Elasticity (c) 0.03 mm (d) 0.02 mm
11. The ratio of diameters of two wires of same 16. A thick rope of rubber of density 1.5 ´ 103 kgm–3
materials is n : 1. The length of each wire is 4 m. and Young’s modulus 5 ´ 106 Nm–2, 8 m in length is
On applying the same load, the increase in length hung from the ceiling of a room, the increase in its
of thin wire will be (n > 1)
length due to its own weight is
(a) n 2 times (b) n times
(a) 9.6 × 10–2 m (b) 19.2 × 10–2 m
(c) 2n times (d) (2n + 1) times
(c) 9.6 × 10–3 m (d) 9.6 m
12. A rigid bar of mass M is supported symmetrically
by three wires each of length l. Those at each end 17. A substance breaks down by a stress of 106 Nm–2.
are of copper and the middle one is of iron. The If the density of the material of the wire is
ratio of their diameter, if each is to have the same 3 ´ 103 kgm -3, then the length of the wire of that
tension, is equal to [NCERT Exemplar]
substance which will break under its own weight
when suspended vertically is nearly
Y iron
(a) Y copper /Y iron (b) (a) 3.4 m (b) 34 m (c) 340 m (d) 3400 m
Y copper
2 18. A copper wire of negligible mass, 1 m length and
Y iron Y iron
(c) 2
(d) cross-sectional area 10–6 is kept on a smooth
Y copper Y copper horizontal table with one end fixed. A ball of mass
1 kg is attached to the other end. The wire and the
13. If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young’s moduli of
ball are rotated with an angular velocity 20 rad s–1.
steel and brass wires in the figure are a, b and c
If the elongation in the wire is 10–3 m, then the
respectively, then the corresponding ratio of
Young’s modulus is
increase in their lengths is [JEE Main 2013]
(a) 4 × 1011 Nm–2 (b) 6 × 1011 Nm–2
(c) 8 × 1011 Nm–2 (d) 10 × 1011 Nm–2
Steel
19. Two wires of the same material and length are
M
stretched by the same force. Their masses are in
the ratio 3:2. Their elongations are in the ratio
Brass (a) 3 : 2 (b) 9 : 4
(c) 2 : 3 (d) 4 : 9
2M
20. The dimensions of four wires of the same material
are given below. In which wire, the increase in
length will be maximum?
3c 2a 2c (a) Length 100 cm, Diameter 1 mm
(a) (b)
2ab2 b (b) Length 200 cm, Diameter 2 mm
3a 2ac (c) Length 300 cm, Diameter 3 mm
(c) (d) 2
2b2c b (d) Length 50 cm, Diameter 0.5 mm
14. In an experiment, brass and steel wires of length 21. Two wires of the same length and same material
1 m each with areas of cross-section 1 mm 2 are but radii in the ratio of 1 : 2 are stretched by
used. The wires are connected in series and one end unequal forces to produce equal elongation. The
of the combined wire is connected to a rigid support ratio of the two forces is
and other end is subjected to elongation. The stress (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
required to produce a net elongation of 0.2 mm is (c) 2 : 3 (d) 1 : 4
[Take, the Young’s modulus for steel and brass as 22. Two wires of the same material have lengths in the
120 ´ 109 Nm -2 and 60 ´ 109 Nm -2 , respectively] ratio 1 : 2 and their radii are in the ratio 1 : 2. If
[JEE Main 2019]
they are stretched by applying equal forces, the
(a) 1.2 ´ 106 Nm-2 (b) 0.2 ´ 106 Nm-2 increase in their lengths will be in the ratio of
(c) 8 ´ 106 Nm-2 (d) 4.0 ´ 106 Nm-2 (a) 2 : 2 (b) 2 : 2 (c) 1:1 (d) 1:2
Properties of Solids 331
23. When a weight of 5 kg is suspended from a copper 30. Two wires of equal cross-section but one made of
wire of length 30 m and diameter 0.5 mm, the steel and the other of copper are joined end-to-end.
length of the wire increases by 2.4 cm. If the When the combination is kept under tension, the
diameter is doubled, the extension produced is elongations in the two wires are found to be equal.
(a) 1.2 cm (b) 0.6 cm (c) 0.3 cm (d) 0.15 cm What is the ratio of the lengths of the two wires?
(Given, Y for steel = 2 ´ 1011Nm - 2 and Y for
24. A wire of length L and radius r is clamped rigidly
copper = 1.1 ´ 1011 Nm -2 )
at one end. When the other end of the wire is pulled
(a) 2 : 11 (b) 11 : 2
by a force F, its length increases by l. Another wire
(c) 20 : 11 (d) 11 : 20
of the same material of length 4 L, radius 4r is
pulled by a force 4F. The increase in length will be 31. The Young’s modulus of brass and steel are
l 10 ´ 1010 Nm -2 and 2 ×1011 Nm–2, respectively. A
(a) (b) l
2 brass wire and a steel wire of the same length are
(c) 2l (c) 4l extended by 1 mm under the same force. The radii of
25. A wire extends by 1 mm when a force is applied. the brass and steel wires are RB and RS respectively,
Double the force is applied to another wire of same then
RB
material and length but half the radius of (a) RS = 2RB (b) RS =
cross-section. The elongation of the wire (in mm) 2
will be RB
(c) RS = 4RB (d) RS =
(a) 8 (b) 4 4
(c) 2 (d) 1
32. When the tension in a metal wire is T1, its length is
26. A steel ring of radius r and cross-sectional area A is l1. When the tension is T2 , its length is l2 . The
fitted on a wooden disc of radius R ( R > r). If natural length of wire is
Young’s modulus be E, then the force with which T2
(a) (l1 + l2) (b) T1l1 + T2l2
the steel ring is expanded is T1
R (R - r )
(a) AE (b) AE l1T2 - l2T1 l1T2 + l2T1
r r (c) (d)
E æ R - rö Er T2 - T1 T2 + T1
(c) ç ÷ (d)
Aè A ø AR 33. Two wires, one made of copper and other of steel
27. A wire is stretched 1 mm by a force of 1 kN. How are joined end-to-end (as shown in figure). The area
far would a wire of the same material and length of cross-section of copper wire is twice that of steel
but of four times that diameter be stretched by the wire.
same force ?
1 1 Copper Steel
(a) mm (b) mm F F
2 4
1 1 They are placed under compressive force of
(c) mm (d) mm
8 16 magnitudes F. The ratio for their lengths such that
28. Two bars A and B of circular cross-section and of change in lengths of both wires are same is (YS =
same volume and made of the same material are 2 ´ 1011 Nm–2 and YC = 1.1 ´ 1011 Nm–2)
subjected to tension. If the diameter of A is half (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1.1 : 1
that of B and if the force applied to both the rods is (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 3
the same and it is in the elastic limit, the ratio of
extension of A to that of B will be 34. A uniform slender rod of length L, cross-sectional
(a) 16 : 1 (b) 8 : 1 area A and Young’s modulus Y is acted upon by the
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 2 : 1 forces shown in the figure. The elongation of the rod
is
29. A steel wire has length 2 m, radius 1 mm and L/3
Y = 2 ´ 1011 Nm -2 . A 1 kg sphere is attached to one
end of the wire and whirled in a vertical circle with
an angular velocity of 2 revolutions per second. 3F 2F
When the sphere is at the lowest point of the
3FL 2FL
vertical circle, the elongation of the wire is nearly (a) (b)
5 AY 5FY
(Take, g = 10 ms–2)
3FL 8FL
(a) 1 mm (b) 2 mm (c) (d)
(c) 0.1 mm (d) 0.01 mm 8 AY 3 AY
332 JEE Main Physics
35. The stress versus strain graphs for wires of two 41. A cube is compressed at 0°C equally from all sides
materials A and B are as shown in the figure. If Y A by an external pressure p. By what amount should
and YB are the Young’s modulus of the materials, the temperature be raised to bring it back to the
then size it had before the external pressure was
A applied? (Take, K as bulk modulus of elasticity of
the material of the cube and a as the coefficient of
Stress
linear expansion)
B p p
(a) (b)
Ka 3 Ka
60° 3pa K
30° (c) (d)
X p 3p
Strain
(a) YB = 2Y A (b) Y A = YB 42. A cube is shifted to a depth of 100 m in a lake. The
(c) YB = 3Y A (d) Y A = 3YB change in volume is 0.1%. The bulk modulus of the
material is nearly
36. One end of steel wire is fixed to ceiling of an (a) 10 Pa (b) 10 4 Pa
–2
elevator moving up with an acceleration 2 ms and (c) 107 Pa (d) 10 9 Pa
a load of 10 kg hangs from other end. Area of
cross-section of the wire is 2 cm2. The longitudinal 43. A cube is subjected to a uniform volume
strain in the wire is (Take, g = 10 ms–2 and compression. If the side of the cube decreases by 1%
Y = 2 × 1011 Nm–2) the bulk strain is
(a) 4 × 1011 (b) 3 × 10 -6 (a) 0.01 (b) 0.02
(c) 8 × 10 -6 (d) 2 × 10 -6 (c) 0.03 (d) 0.06
37. The upper end of a wire of radius 4 mm and length 44. A copper bar of length L and area of cross-section A
10 cm is clamped and its other end is twisted is placed in a chamber at atmospheric pressure. If
through an angle of 30°. Then angle of shear is the chamber is evacuated, the percentage change
(a) 12° (b) 0.12° in its volume will be (Take, compressibility of
(c) 1.2° (d) 0.012° copper is 8 ´ 10 - 12 m2 N -1 and 1 atm = 105 Nm–2)
(a) 8 ×10 -7 (b) 8 ×10 -5
38. A rubber rope of length 8 m is hung from the (c) 1.25 ×10 -4
(d) 1.25 ×10 -5
ceiling of a room. What is the increase in length of
the rope due to its own weight? (Given, Young’s 45. The compressibility of water is 6 ´ 10-10 N –1m 2 . If
modulus of elasticity of rubber = 5 ´ 10 6 Nm - 2 , one litre is subjected to a pressure of 4 ´ 107 Nm –2 .
density of rubber = 1.5 ´ 10 3 kgm - 3 and The decrease in its volume is
g = 10 ms–2) (a) 2.4 cc (b) 10 cc
(a) 1.5 mm (b) 6 mm
(c) 24 cc (d) 15 cc
(c) 24 mm (d) 96 mm
39. A solid sphere of radius r made of a soft material of 46. Forces of 100 N each are applied in opposite
bulk modulus K is surrounded by a liquid in a directions on the upper and lower faces of a cube of
cylindrical container. A massless piston of area a side 20 cm. The upper face is shifted parallel to
floats on the surface of the liquid, covering entire itself by 0.25 cm. If the side of the cube were 10 cm,
cross-section of cylindrical container. When a mass then the displacement would be
m is placed on the surface of the piston to compress (a) 0.25 cm (b) 0.5 cm
the liquid, the fractional decrement in the radius of (c) 0.75 cm (d) 1 cm
æ dr ö 47. The Young’s modulus of the material of a wire is
the sphere ç ÷ is
è r ø [JEE Main 2018] 6 ´ 1012 Nm–2 and there is no transverse strain in
Ka Ka it, then its modulus of rigidity will be
(a) (b)
mg 3mg (a) 3 × 1012 Nm–2 (b) 2 ×1012 Nm–2
mg mg (c) 1012 Nm–2 (d) None of these
(c) (d)
3Ka Ka 48. Equal torsional torques act on two rods x and y
40. If the compressibility of water is s per unit having equal length. The diameter of rod y is twice
atmospheric pressure, then the decrease in volume the diameter of rod x. If q x and q y are the angles of
q
V due to atmospheric pressure p will be twist, then x is equal to
qy
(a) s p /V (b) spV
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 16
(c) s /pV (d) sV / p
Properties of Solids 333
49. Two rods A and B of the same material and length 55. For a given material, the Young’s modulus is 2.4
have their radii r1 and r2 , respectively. When they times that of modulus of rigidity. Its Poisson’s ratio
are rigidly fixed at one end and twisted by the same is
couple applied at the other end, the ratio of the (a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.4
angle of twist at the end of A and the angle of twist
56. When a rubber cord is stretched, the change in
at the end of B is
volume with respect to change in its linear
r24 r14
(a) (b) dimensions is negligible. The Poisson’s ratio for
r14 r24 rubber is
r22 r12 (a) 1 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.75
(c) (d)
r12 r22
Potential Energy Stored in
Thermal Stress, Strain and Stretched Wire
Poisson’s Ratio 57. Modulus of rigidity of ideal liquids is
(a) infinity [NCERT Exemplar]
50. A 1 m long wire is stretched without tension at (b) zero
30°C between two rigid supports. What strain will (c) unity
be produced in the wire if the temperature falls to (d) some finite small non-zero constant value
0°C ? (Given, a = 12 ´ 10-6 K -1)
(a) 36 × 10-5 (b) 64 × 10-5 58. A spring is extended by 30 mm when a force of
(c) 0.78 (d) 0.32
1.5 N is applied to it. Calculate the energy stored in
the spring when hanging vertically supporting a
51. Two different wires having lengths L1 and L2 and mass of 0.20 kg, if the spring was relaxed before
respective temperature coefficients of linear applying the mass.
expansion a 1 and a 2 , are joined end-to-end. Then (a) 0.01 J (b) 0.02 J (c) 0.04 J (d) 0.08 J
the effective temperature coefficient of linear 59. Two wires of the same material (Young’s modulus
expansion is [JEE Main 2020]
Y) and same length L but radii R and 2R
a L + a 2L 2 respectively are joined end-to-end and a weight w is
(a) 1 1 (b) 2 a1a 2
L1 + L 2 suspended from the combination as shown in the
a1 + a 2 a1a 2 L 2L1 figure. The elastic potential energy in the system is
(c) (d) 4
2 a1 + a 2 (L 2 + L1 )2
62. The force constant of a wire is k and that of another 68. A wire (Y = 2 ´ 1011 Nm–2) has length 1 m and
wire of the same material is 2k. When both the cross-sectional area 1 mm2. The work required to
wires are stretched, then work done is increase the length by 2 mm is
(a) W 2 = 1.5 W1 (b) W 2 = 2 W1 (a) 0.4 J (b) 4 J
(c) W 2 = W1 (d) W 2 = 0.5 W1 (c) 40 J (d) 400 J
63. If the shear modulus of a wire material is 69. The increase in length on stretching a wire is
5.9 ´ 1011 dyne cm –2 , then the potential energy of a 0.05%. If its Poisson’s ratio is 0.4, the diameter is
wire of 4 ´ 103 cm in diameter and 5 cm long reduced by
twisted through an angle of 10°, is (a) 0.01% (b) 0.02%
-12 -12 (c) 0.03% (d) 0.04%
(a) 1.253 × 10 J (b) 2.00 × 10 J
(c) 1.00 × 10 -12 J (d) 0.8 × 10 -12 J 70. The following data were obtained when a wire was
64. Two cylinders of same material and of same length stretched within the elastic region
are joined end-to-end as shown in figure. The upper Force applied to wire = 100 N
end of A is rigidly fixed and their radii are in ratio Area of cross-section of wire = 10 - 6 m2
of 1 : 2. If the lower end of B is twisted by an angle Extension of wire = 2 ´ 10 - 3m
q, the angle of twist of cylinder A is Which of the following deductions can be correctly
made from this data?
A I. The value of Young’s modulus is 1011 Nm - 2 .
II. The strain is 10 - 3.
III. The energy stored in the wire when the load is
B applied is 10 J.
(a) I, II and III (b) I and II
(c) Only I (d) Only III
5. The graph shown was obtained from the 10. The stress-strain graph for a metallic wire is shown
experimental measurements of the period of at two different temperatures T1 and T2 . Which
oscillation T for different masses M placed in the temperature is high T1 or T2 ?
scale pan on the lower end of the spring balance. Strain
The most likely reason for the line not passing T1
through the origin is that
T2
T2
Stress
11. A wire is suspended from the ceiling and stretched 15. Given, initial stretching force on rod = 100 kN and
under the action of a weight F suspended from its initial elongation = 1.59 ´ 10-3 m. What is the
other end. The force exerted by the ceiling on it is increase in elastic potential energy when the
equal and opposite to the weight, then stretching force is increased by 200 kN?
[NCERT Exemplar] (a) 238.5 J (b) 636.0 J
(a) tensile stress at any cross section A of the wire is (c) 115.5 J (d) 79.5 J
F/A
(b) tensiIe stress at any cross section is zero 16. The pressure that has to be applied to the ends of a
(c) tensile stress at any cross section A of the wire is steel rod of length 10 cm to keep its length constant
2F/A when its temperature is raised by 100°C is (For
(d) tension at any cross section A of the wire is O steel Young’s modulus is 2 ´ 1011 Nm -2 and
coefficient of thermal expansion is 1.1 ´ 10-5 K -1)
12. A copper wire of length 1.0 m and a steel wire of [JEE Main 2014]
length 0.5 m having equal cross-sectional areas are (a) 2.2 ´ 108 Pa (b) 2.2 ´ 109 Pa
joined end-to-end. The composite wire is stretched
(c) 2.2 ´ 107 Pa (d) 2.2 ´ 106 Pa
by a certain load which stretches the copper wire by
1 mm. If the Young’s modulii of copper and steel 17. When the temperature of a metal wire is increased
are respectively 1.0 ´ 1011 Nm -2 and from 0°C to 10°C, its length increases by 0.02%.
2.0 ´ 1011 Nm -2 , the total extension of the composite The percentage change in its mass density will be
wire is [JEE Main 2013] closest to [JEE Main 2020]
(a) 1.75 mm (b) 2.0 mm (c) 1.50 mm (d) 1.25 mm (a) 0.06 (b) 2.3
13. Figure shows a 80 cm square brass plate of (c) 0.008 (d) 0.8
thickness 0.5 cm. It is fixed at its bottom edge. 18. Determine the volume contraction of a solid copper
What tangential force F must be exerted on the cube, 10 cm on an edge, when subjected to a
upper edge, so that the displacement x of this edge hydraulic pressure of 7 ´ 106 Pa. (Take, K for
in the direction of force is 0.16 mm? copper = 140 ´ 109 Pa) [NCERT]
(The shear modulus of brass is 3.5 ´ 1010 Pa.) (a) 5 ´ 10-7 m3 (b) 4 ´ 10-8 m3
(c) 5 ´ 10-8 m3 (d) 6 ´ 10-8 m3
F
19. The bulk modulus of a metal is 8 ´ 10 9 Nm–2 and
its density is 11 gcm–2. The density of this metal
under a pressure of 20000 N cm–2 will be (in gcm–3)
440 431
(a) (b)
39 39
451 40
(c) (d)
(a) 2.8 ´ 104 N (b) 3.8 ´ 10-4 N 39 39
(c) 5 ´ 105 N (d) 4 ´ 10-5 N
20. The Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.1. If the
14. The stress-strain graphs for two materials are longitudinal strain of a rod of this material is 10–3,
shown in figure. (assume same scale). then the percentage change in the volume of the
[NCERT Exemplar]
rod will be
Ultimate tension Ultimate tension (a) 0.008% (b) 0.08%
strength strength (c) 0.8% (d) 8%
Fracture Point Linear
Linear Fracture Point
Stress
Stress
limit
limit 21. A solid block of silver with density 10.5 ´ 10 3 kg m–3
is subjected to an external pressure of 10 7 Nm–2. If
the bulk modulus of silver is 17 ´ 1010 Nm–2, the
Strain E change in density of silver (in kg m–3) is
Strain E
Material (i) Material (ii) (a) 0.61 (b) 1.7
(c) 6.1 (d) 17 ´ 103
(a) Material (i) is more elastic than material (ii) and
hence material (ii) is more brittle. 22. When a weight w is hung from one end of the wire
(b) Materials (i) and (ii) have the same elasticity and other end being fixed, the elongation produced in it
the same brittleness. be l. If this wire goes over a pulley and two weights
(c) Material (ii) is elastic over a larger region of strain w each are hung at the two ends, the elongation of
as compared to material (i). the wire will be
(d) Material (ii) is less brittle than material (i). (a) 4 l (b) 2 l (c) l (d) l /2
Properties of Solids 337
23. A sonometer wire of length 1.5 m is made of steel. 28. A uniform rectangular bar of area of cross-section A
The tension in it produces an elastic strain of 1%. is fixed at one end and on other end force F is
What is the fundamental frequency of steel, if applied as shown in figure. Find the shear stress at
density and elasticity of steel are 7.7 ´ 103 kg/m 3 a plane through the bar making an angle q with the
and 2 . 2 ´ 1011 N / m 2 , respectively? [JEE Main 2013] vertical as shown in figure.
(a) 188.5 Hz (b) 178.2 Hz
(c) 200.5 Hz (d) 770 Hz
24. A pendulum made of a uniform wire of
cross-sectional area A has time period T. When an FF
θ
additional mass M is added to its bob, the time
period changes TM . If the Young’s modulus of the
1
material of the wire is Y, then is equal to
Y Rigid wall
(g = gravitational acceleration) [JEE Main 2015]
éæT ö2 ù éæT ö2 ù F F
A Mg (a) (cos 2 q) (b)
(a) ê ç M ÷ - 1ú (b) ê ç M ÷ - 1ú 2A 2A
êë è T ø úû Mg êë è T ø úû A
F F
(c) (sin 2 q) (d) cos q
é æT ö ù
2
A é æ T ö ù
2
A 2A 2A
(c) ê1 - ç M ÷ ú (d) ê1 - ç ÷ ú
êë è T ø ú Mg êë è TM ø ú Mg 29. A uniform rod of length L and area of cross-section
û û
A is subjected to tensile load F. If s be Poisson’s
25. The twisting couple per unit twist for a solid ratio and Y be the Young’s modulus of the material
cylinder of radius 3 cm is 0.1 N-m. The twisting of the rod, then find the volumetric strain produced
couple per unit twist, for a hollow cylinder of same in rod.
material with outer and inner radius 5 cm and F F
(a) (1 + 2 s ) (b) (1 - 2 s )
4 cm respectively, will be AY AY
(a) 0.1 N-m (b) 0.455 N-m (c) Zero (d) None of these
(c) 0.91 N-m (d) 1.82 N-m
30. A solid sphere of radius r made of a material of
26. A rigid bar of mass 15 kg is supported Bulk modulus K is surrounded by a liquid in a
symmetrically by three wires each 2 m long. These cylindrical container. A massless piston of area a
at each end are of copper and middle one is of iron. floats on the surface of the liquid. When a mass m
Determine the ratio of their diameters, if each wire is placed on the piston to compress the liquid, the
is to have the same tension. (Take, Young’s fractional change in the radius of the sphere (Dr/r)
modulus of elasticity for copper and steel are is
110 ´ 109 N/m2 and 190 ´ 109 N/m2 , respectively.) (a) Ka / mg (b) Ka /3mg
[NCERT] (c) mg /3Ka (d) mg / Ka
(a) 1 : 1.3 (b) 1.3 : 1 (c) 2.3 : 1.3 (d) 2.3 : 1
31. A pendulum clock loses 12 s a day, if the
27. The wires A and B shown in figure, are made of the temperature is 40°C and gains 4 s in a day, if the
same material and have radii rA and rB , respectively. temperature is 20°C. The temperature at which the
A block of mass m is connected between them. When clock will show correct time and the coefficient of
a force F is mg/3, one of the wires breaks, then which linear expansion (a) of the metal of the pendulum
of the following option is correct? shaft are, respectively [JEE Main 2016]
(a) 25°C, a = 1.85 ´ 10-5 / ° C
A
(b) 60°C, a = 1.85 ´ 10-4 / ° C
m (c) 30°C, a = 1.85 ´ 10-3 / ° C
(d) 55°C, a = 1.85 ´ 10-2 / ° C
B 32. A steel wire of length 4.7 m and cross-sectional
area 3.0 ´ 10-5 m2 stretches by the same amount as
a copper wire of length 3.5 m and cross-sectional
F area 4.0 ´ 10-5 m 2 under a given load. The ratio of
(a) A will break before B if rA > rB the Young’s modulus of steel to that of copper is
(b) A will break before B if rA = rB [NCERT]
(c) Either A or B will break if rA = 2rB (a) 1.2 :1 (b) 1.8 : 1
(d) The length of A and B must be known to decide (c) 1.5 : 1 (d) 1.19 : 1
which wire will break
338 JEE Main Physics
33. The Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.4. If a force is 37. One litre of a gas is maintained at pressure 72 cm
applied to a wire of this material, there is a of mercury. It is compressed isothermally, so that
decrease of cross-sectional area by 2%. The its volume becomes 900 cm3. The value of stress
percentage increase in its length is and strain will be respectively
(a) 3% (b) 2.5% (a) 0.106 Nm–2 and 0.1 (b) 1.106 Nm–2 and 0.1
(c) 1% (d) 0.5% (c) 106.62 Nm–2 and 0.1 (d) 10662.4 Nm–2 and 0.1
34. The ratio of lengths, radii and Young’s modulus of
steel and brass wires shown in the figure are a, b
Numerical Value Questions
and c, respectively. The ratio between the increase 38. Wires A and B are made from the same material. A
in length of brass and steel wires would be has twice the diameter and three times the length
of B. If the elastic limits are not reached, when
Brass each is stretched by the same tension, the ratio of
energy stored in A to that of B will be …… .
2 kg 39. Two separate wires A and B are stretched by 2 mm
and 4 mm respectively, when they are subjected to
Steel
a force of 2 N. Assume that, both the wires are
made up of same material and the radius of wire B
4 kg is 4 times that of the radius of wire A. The length of
b 2a bc
the wires A and B are in the ratio of a : b, then a / b
(a) (b) can be expressed as 1/ x, where x is …… .
2c 2a2 [JEE Main 2021]
ba 2 c -3 -3
(c) (d) 40. A wire of density 9 ´ 10 kg cm is stretched
2c 2 b 2a
between two clamps 1 m apart. The resulting strain
35. A wire of cross-sectional area A is stretched in the wire is 4.9 ´ 10-4 . The lowest frequency
horizontally between two clamps loaded at a (in Hz) of the transverse vibrations in the wire is
distance 2 l metres from each other. A weight w kg is (Young’s modulus of wire, Y = 9 ´ 1010 Nm -2 ), (to the
suspended from the mid-point of the wire. The strain nearest integer) ……… . [JEE Main 2020]
produced in the wire, (if the vertical distance
41. A body of mass m = 10 kg is attached to one end of a
through which the mid-point of the wire moves down
wire of length 0.3 m. The maximum angular speed
x < l) will be
2 2 (in rad s-1) with which it can be rotated about its
(a) x /l
other end in space station is (breaking stress of
(b) 2x 2l 2
wire = 4.8 ´ 107 Nm -2 and area of cross-section of
(c) x 2 /2 l 2
the wire = 10-2 cm2 ) ……… . [JEE Main 2020]
(d) x /2 l
42. A solid ball 3 cm in diameter, is submerged in a
36. A boy’s catapult is made of rubber cord 42 cm long
lake to a depth where the pressure is 103 kgfm -2 . If
and 6 mm in diameter. The boy keeps a stone
weighing 0.02 kg on it and stretches the cord by Bulk modulus of the material of the ball is 107 dyne
20 cm. When released, the stone flies off with a cm -2 , then the change in the volume of ball (in cm 3)
velocity of 20 ms -1. Neglect the change in the will be ……… .
cross-section of the cord in stretched position. The 43. A rubber cube of each side 7 cm has one side fixed,
stress in the rubber cord is while a tangential force equal to the weight of
(a) 1.8 × 10 6 Nm - 2
300 kgf is applied to the opposite face. If the
(b) 1.4 × 10 6 Nm - 2
modulus of rigidity for rubber is 2 ´ 107 dyne cm -2
(c) 2.4 × 105 Nm - 2
and g = 10ms -2, then the distance (in cm) through
(d) 1.8 × 105 Nm - 2
which the strain side moves will be ……… .
Properties of Solids 339
Answers
Round I
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (a)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (b) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (d) 67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (b) 70. (b)
71. (b) 72. (d)
Round II
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. 3 : 4 39. 32 40. 35
41. 4 42. 0.1386 43. 2.1
Solutions
Round I 3. As, rubber is being more stretched as compare to the
1. Given, radius of steel cable, r = 1.5 cm = 1.5 ´ 10-2 m iron under the action of same weight. Therefore, the
number of atoms in unit volume of iron will be more
Maximum stress = 108 N/m 2 than that of rubber.
Area of cross-section of steel cable, A = pr 2
= 3.14 ´ (1.5 ´ 10-2)2 m 2 4. Breaking force does not depend upon length. Breaking
= 3.14 ´ 2.25 ´ 10-4 m 2 force = Breaking stress ´ Area of cross-section. For a
Maximum force given material, breaking stress is constant.
Maximum stress =
Area of cross -section Q Breaking force µ Area of cross-section
Maximum force = Maximum stress ´ Area of F2 A2 p (6r )2
Þ = = = 36
cross-section F1 A1 pr 2
= 108 ´ (3.14 ´ 2.25 ´ 10-4 ) N or F2 = 36F1 = 36F
= 7.065 ´ 104 N Breaking stress
= 7.1 ´ 104 N -
~ 7 ´ 104 N 5. Length , L =
rg
2. Let m be the mass of rectangular frame and q be the 106
angle which the tension T in the string make with the L= = 33.3 m
3 ´ 103 ´ 10
horizontal.
T sin θ T sin θ 6. Breaking strength = Tension in the wire = mrw2
T T (centrifugal force)
θ θ
Þ 4.8 ´ 107 ´ 10-6 = 10 ´ 0.3 ´ w2
T cos θ T cos θ 48
m w2 = = 16
0.3 ´ 10
w = 4 rads -1
Therefore, 2T sin q = mg
mg 1
7. According to the figure,
or T= or T µ Increase in length = BO + OC - BC
2 sin q sin q
DL = 2 BO - 2L
T is least if sin q has maximum value, i.e.
sin q = 1 = 90° or q = 90°. i.e. in Fig. (ii). = 2 (L 2 + x 2 )1/ 2 - 2 L
340 JEE Main Physics
é
1/ 2 T1 l - l1
x2 ù So, =
or DL = 2 L ê1 + ú - 2L T2 (l - l2)
ë L2 û
\ T1l - T1l2 = T2l - T2l1
L L (T1 - T2) l = T1l2 - T2l1
B D C
T l - T2l1 (4b - 5a )
x l= 12 = …(i)
(T1 - T2) (4 - 5)
O
m
l = (5a - 4b) …(ii)
So from Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
Using binomial theorem, (1 + x)n = 1 + nx + ... + higher 1
terms. k=
b-a
é x2 ù
Þ DL = 2L ê1 + ú - 2L So, length of wire when tension is 9 N, is given by
ë 2L2 û
9 = kl ¢ (l¢ = change in length)
x2 x2 1
= 2L + 2L ´ - 2L = 9= ´ l¢
2L 2
L (b - a )
D L x /L x
2 2
l¢ = 9b - 9a
\ Strain = = = 2
2L 2L 2L Hence, final length = l + l ¢
F = 5a - 4b + 9b - 9a
8. As, x =
k l0 = 5b - 4a
k
If spring constant is k for the first case, it is for F
2 Fl
second case. 11. As, Y = A =
4 Dl A Dl
For first case, 1= …(i) l
k
6 12 F ´4
For second case, x¢ = = …(ii) or Y =
k /2 k pD 2 ´ Dl
Dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (i), we get 1
or Dl µ 2
12 / k D
x¢ = = 3 cm
4 /k DL 2 D12 n 2 ì D2 n ü
or = = íQ = ý
9. Assume original length of spring = l DL1 D22 1 î D1 1 þ
As, mg = kx On applying the same load, the increase in length of
Þ k1 (60) = k2(l - 60) = kl thin wire will be n 2 times.
mgL
According to question, 12. As, Y = (Y = Young’s modulus)
pr 2l
mg
\ = 7.5 4mgL 4 mgL
k1 Þ Y = =
p (2r )2l p (d )2l1
mg
and =5
k2 So under same tension,
1
kl kl Þ Y µ 2
\ k1 = , k2 = d
60 (l - 60)
1
k1 5.0 (l - 60) Þ dµ
= = Y
k2 7.5 60
1
2 (l - 60) Then, dcopper µ
Þ = Y copper
3 60
1
\ l = 100 cm and diron µ
Y iron
and kx = k1 ´ 7.5,
æ 5k ö dcopper Y iron
kx = ç ÷ ´ 7.5 So, =
è3ø diron Y copper
\ x = 12.5 cm l1 r y
13. Given = a , 1 = b, 1 = c
l2 r2 y2
10. As, T1 = K (l - l1 ) …(i)
Let Young’s modulus of steel be Y1 and that of brass
and T2 = K (l - l2) …(ii) be Y 2
Properties of Solids 341
F1 l1 m
Y1 = …(i) and m = = mass per unit length.
A1Dl1 l
F2 l2 Also, Young’s modulus of string,
and Y2 = …(ii)
A2 D l2 Tl YADl
Y = Þ T= …(ii)
Dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii) we get ADl l
Y1 F1 A2 l1 D l2 F1 pr22 l1 Dl2 From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have
= = × × YADl mv2
Y 2 F2 A1 l2 D l1 F2 pr12 l2 Dl1 v2 = or Dl = …(iii)
ml YA
From the figure,
Here, m = 6 g = 6 ´ 10-3 kg, l = 60 cm
Force on steel wire, F1 = 2M + M = 3M
= 60 ´ 10-2 m, A = 1 mm2 = 1 ´ 10-6 m2,
Force on brass wire, F2 = 2M
Dl1 3a Y = 16 ´ 1011 Nm-2 and v = 90 ms -1
\ =
Dl2 2b2c Substituting these given values in Eq. (iii), we get
6 ´ 10-3 ´ (90)2
14. In given experiment, a composite wire is stretched by Dl = = 3.03 ´ 10-5 m
16 ´ 1011 ´ 1 ´ 10-6
a force F.
» 30 ´ 10-6 m = 0.03 mm
16. If A is the area of cross-section and l is the length of
Brass Steel Force (F) rope, then the mass of rope, m = Alr × As, the weight of
the rope acts at the mid-point of the rope.
mg (l / 2)
So, Y = ´
A Dl
Net elongation in the wire = Elongation in brass wire +
Elongation in steel wire …(i) mgl Al rgl g rl 2
Dl = = =
Now, Young’s modulus of a wire of cross-section ( A ) 2 AY 2 AY 2Y
Fl 9.8 ´ 1.5 ´ 103 ´ 82
when some force (F ) is applied, Y = or Dl =
ADl 2 ´ 5 ´ 106
We have, = 9.6 ´ 10-2 m
Fl LAdg
Dl = elongation = 17. From the question, 106 =
AY A
So, from Eq. (i), we have 106
\ L= m
Dlnet = Dlbrass + Dlsteel 3 ´ 103 ´ 9.8
æ Fl ö æ Fl ö 1000
Þ Dlnet = ç ÷ +ç ÷ = = 34.01 m ~
- 34 m
è AY ø brass è AY ø steel 3 ´ 9.8
As wires are connected in series and they are of same Fl (ml w2)l
18. As, Y = =
area of cross-section, length and subjected to same ADl A Dl
force, so
ml 2w2
F æ l l ö or Y =
Dlnet = ç + ÷ …(ii) A Dl
A èY brass Ysteel ø
1 ´ 1 ´ 1 ´ 20 ´ 20
Here, or Y =
10-6 ´ 10-3
Dlnet = 0.2 mm = 0.2 ´ 10-3 m
= 4 ´ 1011 Nm-2
and l=1m
Fl 1
Y brass = 60 ´ 109 Nm-2 , Ysteel = 120 ´ 109 Nm-2 19. As, Y = Þ Dl µ
A Dl A
On putting the values in Eq (ii), we have
Again, m = Alr, m µ A
F æ 1 1 ö
0.2 ´ 10-3 = ç + ÷ 1
A è 60 ´ 109 120 ´ 109 ø \ Dl µ
m
F
Þ Stress = = 8 ´ 106 Nm-2 Dl1 m2 2
A \ = =
Dl2 m1 3
15. Speed of transverse wave over a string, F L
T 20. As, Y =
v= …(i) A Dl
m
L L
where, T = tension or force on string Þ Dl µ µ
A pd 2
342 JEE Main Physics
DV phr 4
or s= 48. As, tx = qx
pV 2l
or DV = spV ph (2r )4
pV pV p and ty = qy
41. As, K = = = 2l
DV 3VaDT 3aDT
Since, tx = ty
p
Þ DT = \ qx = 16qy
3 Ka qx
or = 16
42. 10 m column of water exerts nearly 1 atmospheric qy
pressure. So, 100 m column of water exerts nearly
phr 4
10 atmospheric pressure, i.e. 10 ´ 105 Pa or 106 Pa. 49. As, torque, t = q
2l
DV 0.1
Þ 106 = K or 106 = K In the given problem, r 4q = constant
V 100
1
Þ K = 109 Pa Þ qµ 4
r
43. Let, L be the length of each side of cube, then initial qA r24
volume = L3 . When each side decrease by 1%, then Þ =
qB r14
1 99L
New length, L ¢ = L - =
100 100 50. Strain = Fractional change in length
3
æ 99L ö Dl l at
New volume = L ¢3 = ç ÷ , = = = at = 12 ´ 10-6 ´ 30 = 36 ´ 10-5
è 100 ø l l
\ Change in volume, 51. Let a be the effective temperature coefficient of linear
æ 99L ö
3 expansion.
DV = L3 - ç ÷ L1,α1 L2,α2
è 100 ø
3
é æ 3 öù é 3 ù 3L
= L3 ê1 - ç1 - + K÷ ú = L3 ê ú =
ë è 100 øû ë 100 û 100 α, L = L1+ L2
DV 3L3 / 100 Change in length of equivalent wire = Sum of change
\ Bulk strain = = = 0.03
V L3 in length of each wire
1 DV / V DV é1ù DL = DL1 + DL 2
44. As, = or = D pê ú
K Dp V ëK û Þ LaDT = L1a1DT + L 2a 2DT
DV L = L1 + L 2
´ 100 = 105 ´ 8 ´ 10-12 ´ 100 = 8 ´ 10-5
or Q
V \ (L1 + L 2) a DT = DT (L1 a1 + L 2a 2)
p L a + L 2a 2
45. Bulk modulus, K = - Þ a = 1 1
DV L1 + L 2
V
Negative sign shows that an increase in pressure and
52. Given, T1 = 40º C and T2 = 20º C
a decrease in volume occur. Þ DT = T1 - T2 = (40 - 20)° C = 20º C
1 - dV Also, Young’s modulus,
Compressibility, C = =
K pV Y = 1011 N/m 2
Decrease in volume, DV = pVC Coefficient of linear expansion,
= 4 ´ 107 ´ 1 ´ 6 ´ 10-10 a = 10-5 /ºC
= 24 ´ 10-3 L Area of the brass wire, A = p ´ (10-3 )2 m2
= 24 ´ 10-3 ´ 103 cm3 = 24 cc Now, contraction in the wire due to fall in temperature
Fl Fl F 1 is
46. As, h = = 2 = or Dl µ (for, F = constant)
ADl l Dl l Dl l Dl = l aDT
If l is halved, then Dl is doubled, i.e. 0.25 ´ 2 = 0.5 cm. Dl
Þ = aD T …(i)
Y l
47. As, h= We know that, Young’s modulus is defined as
2 (1 + s )
Mgl
Now, s =0 Y =
ADl
Y 6 ´ 1012 YADl
then, h= = = 3 ´ 1012 Nm-2 Þ M= …(ii)
2 2 gl
Properties of Solids 345
It is symmetric strain. 1 2ì 1 1ü
=
wí + ý …(i)
Now, strain of 2.5 ´ 10-4 is equivalent. 2 î k1 k2þ
DV æ Dr ö 1 1 L L
As, = 3ç ÷ Now, + = + …(ii)
V è r ø k1 k2 4YpR2 YpR2
2.5 ´ 10-4 Dr 1 2æ 5L ö
\ = = 0.75 ´ 10-4 \ U = wç ÷
3 r 2 è 4YpR2 ø
\Fraction decrease in radius 5w2L
= [from Eqs. (i) and (ii)]
= (1.00 - 0.75) 10-4 = 0.25 ´ 10-4 8pYR2
54. F = force developed 60. Elastic energy stored in the wire,
= YA a (Dq) 1
U = ´ stress ´ strain ´ volume
2
= 1011 ´ 10-4 ´ 10-5 ´ 100 = 104 N
1 F Dl 1
Y = ´ ´ ´ Al = FDl
55. As, h = 2 A l 2
2(1 + s )
1 -3
2.4 h or U = ´ 200 ´ 1 ´ 10 = 0.1 J
or h= 2
2 (1 + s )
61. As, mg = kx
or 1 + s = 1.2
10 N 1000
or s = 0.2 k= = Nm-1 = 250 Nm-1
40 ´ 10-3 m 4
56. As volume, V = pr 2l
Spring constant of combination of two such springs
DV D (pr 2l ) 250
Þ = = Nm-1 = 125 Nm-1
V pr 2l 2
DV r 2Dl + 2rlDr 1
or = Energy = ´ 125 ´ (40 ´ 10-3 )2 J = 0.1 J
V r 2l 2
DV Dl 2 Dr 62. Work done in stretching the wire,
or = +
V l r 1
W = ´ force constant ´ x2
Dl - 2 Dr æ DV ö 2
Þ = çQ » 0÷
l r è V ø 1 1
For first wire, W1 = ´ kx2 = kx2
Now, Poisson’s ratio, 2 2
Dr / r Dr / r 1
s =- =- = 0.5 For second wire, W 2 = ´ 2k ´ x2 = kx2
Dl Dr 2
-2
l r Hence, W 2 = 2W1
57. Modulus of rigidity of ideal liquids is zero, because a 63. To twist the wire through the angle dq, it is necessary
liquid at rest begins to move under the effect to to do the work
tangential force. dW = tdq
346 JEE Main Physics
10 p p YDl 2
and q = 10¢ = ´ = rad or q=
60 180 1080 2l 2d JS
q q hpr 4q dq hpr 4q 12 ´ 1011 ´ 10-1 ´ 10-3 ´ 10-3
\ W = ò dW = ò t dq = ò = or q=
0 0 2l 4l 2 ´ 2 ´ 2 ´ 9 ´ 103 ´ 4.2 ´ 0.1 ´ 103
5.9 ´ 1011 ´ 10-5 ´ p (2 ´ 10-5 )4 p 2 12 ´ 105
or W = =
10-4 ´ 4 ´ 5 ´ 10-2 ´ (1080)2 72 ´ 42 ´ 105
or W = 1.253 ´ 10-12 J 1
= °C
phr 4 252
64. For cylinder A, t= q¢ 1 YADl 2 YADl ö
2l 1 æ
68. As, work done = FDl = çQ F = ÷
4 2 2 l è l ø
ph (2r ) (q - q¢ )
For cylinder B, t=
2l 2 ´ 1011 ´ 10-6 (2 ´ 10-3 )2
= = 0.4 J
Since, torque acting both of the cylinders will be equal, 2 ´1
so Lateral strain
69. As, s =
phr 4q¢ nh (2r )4 (q - q¢ ) Longitudinal strain
= (for equal torque)
2l 2l or Lateral strain = s ´ Longitudinal strain
16
Þ q¢ = q = 0.4 ´
0.05 0.02
=
17 100 100
1
65. As, energy density = ´ stress ´ strain So, percentage reduction in diameter is 0.02.
2
100 N
1 stress (stress)2 1
70. As, stress = -6 2 = 108 Nm-2 and
= ´ stress ´ = µ 4 10 m
2 Y 2Y D
2 ´ 10-3
æ force 4F ö Strain = = 10-3
çQ stress = = ÷ 2
è area pD 2 ø
108
uA DB4 \Young modulus, Y = Nm-2 = 1011 Nm-2
Now, = = (2)4 = 16 10-3
uB DA4
1
Thus, energy stored = ´ 100 ´ 2 ´ 10-3 J
(where, uA and uB are energy densities) 2
Hence, uA : uB = 16 : 1 = 10-1 J = 0.1 J
1 71. As,mg = kx
66. As, W = FDl (where, Dl = extension)
2 4 ´ 9.8
k= or k = 19.6 ´ 102 Nm-1
1 Ypr 2Dl æ Ypr 2Dl ö 2 ´ 10-2
Þ W = ´ Dl çQ F = ÷
2 l è l ø 1
\Work done = ´ 19.6 ´ 102 ´ (5 ´ 10-2)2 J = 2.45 J
Ypr 2Dl 2 2
or W =
2l 72. When a mass M is attached to each of the free ends at
r 2
(2r ¢ )22 the centre of rods, the steel rod will elongate without
Þ W µ and W ¢ µ any perceptible change in shape, but the rubber rod
l l
W¢ will elongate with the shape of the bottom edge
Þ =8 tapered to a tip at the centre.
W
or W ¢ = 8 ´ 2 J = 16 J Round II
1 YADl 2 MgL 4 ´ (3.1 p ) ´ (2.0)
67. As, E = 1. As, Y = =
2 l pr 2 ´ l p ´ (2 ´ 10-3 )2 ´ (0.031 ´ 10-3 )
But m = A ld
= 2 ´ 1011 Nm-2
m
or A= YAl
ld 2. As, T = (where, T = force)
L
YmDl 2
\ E= Increase in length of one segment of wire,
2l 2d
æ 1 d2 ö 1 d2
YmDl 2 l = çL + ÷-L=
E in calorie = 2 è 2 Lø 2 L
2l dJ
YmDl 2 Yp r 2 × d 2
Now, mSq = 2 So, T=
2l dJ 2L2
Properties of Solids 347
1 æ DL ö
2
YADL2 Stress = (Shearing strain) (Shear modulus)
2= ´Y ´ ç ÷ AL =
2 è L ø 2L = (2.0 ´ 10-4 ) ´ (3.5 ´ 1010 Pa)
If the fracture point of a material is closer to ultimate So, from Eq (i), we get
strength point, then the material is a brittle material. Dr
´ 100 = 3 ´ 0.02% = 0.06%
Therefore, the material (ii) is more brittle than r
material (i).
18. Given, each side of cube (l ) = 10 cm = 0.1 m
15. Initial elastic potential energy, Hydraulic pressure ( p) = 7 ´ 106 Pa
1 1 Bulk modulus for copper (K ) = 140 ´ 109 Pa
U 1 = FDl = ´ (100 ´ 1000) ´ (1.59 ´ 10-3 ) = 79.5 J
2 2 Volume contraction (DV ) = ?
Let, Dl1 be the elongation in the rod when stretching Volume of the cube (V ) = l 3 = (0.1 )3 = 1 ´ 10-3 m3
force is increased by, 200 N. p pV
F l Bulk modulus for copper (K ) = =
Since Dl = 2 ´ , so Dl µ F DV / V DV
pr Y pV
Dl1
or DV =
\ = 3Dl = 3 ´ 1.59 ´ 10-3 m = 4.77 ´ 10-3 m K
Dl 7 ´ 106 ´ 1 ´ 10-3 1
DV = = ´ 10-6 m3
Final elastic potential energy, 140 ´ 109 20
1 1 = 0.05 ´ 10-6 m3 = 5 ´ 10-8 m3
U 1 = F1Dl1 = ´ (300 ´ 103 ) ´ (4.77 ´ 10-3 ) = 715.5 J
2 2
19. Here, p = 20000 Ncm-2 = 2 ´ 108 Nm-2
Increase in elastic potential energy
pV
= 715.5 - 79.5 = 636.0 J As, k=
DV
16. If the deformation is small, then the stress in a body is
pV 2 ´ 108 ´ V V
directly proportional to the corresponding strain. or DV = = =
k 8 ´ 109 40
According to Hooke’s law,
Tensile stress New volume of the metal,
Young’s modulus (Y ) =
Tensile strain V 39V
V ¢ = V - DV = V - =
F /A FL 40 40
So, Y = =
DL / L AD L New mass of the metal
39V
If the rod is compressed, then compressive stress and = V ¢ ´ r¢ = r ¢ = V ´ 11
strain appear. Their ratio Y is same as that for tensile 40
case. 40 ´ 11 440
or r¢ = = gcm-3
Given, length of a steel rod (L) = 10cm, 39 39
Temperature (q) = 100 ° C 20. Longitudinal strain,
As length is constant, l2 - l1
Þ a= = 10-3
DL l1
\ strain = = aDq
L l2
= 1.001
Now, pressure = stress =Y ´ strain l1
lateral strain b
[Given, Y = 2 ´ 1011 N /m2 and a = 1.1 .´10-5 K -1] Poisson’s ratio, s = =
= 2 ´ 1011 ´ 1.1 ´ 10-5 ´ 100 = 2.2 ´ 108 Pa longitudinal strain a
r - r2
Mass Mass or b = sa = 0.1 ´ 10-3 = 10-4 = 1
17. Density = = r1
Volume Area ´ Length r2 -4
M or = 1 - 10 = 0.9999
Þ r= r1
AL æ V - V1 ö
Dr DM DA DL % increase in volume = ç 2 ÷ ´ 100
Þ = + + è V1 ø
r M A L
æ pr 2l - pr 2l ö
But DM = 0, as mass remains constant. = ç 2 2 2 1 1 ÷ ´ 100
è pr1 l1 ø
Dr DA DL
\ = + = bDT + aDT
r A L æ r 2l ö
= ç 22 2 - 1÷ ´ 100
= 2aDT + aDT è r1 l1 ø
[Q coefficient of expansion of area, b = 2a ] = [(0.9999)2 ´ 1.001 - 1] ´ 100
= 3aDT …(i) = 0.08%
Dp ´ V
Now, given that, 21. Decrease in volume, DV =
DL K
´ 100 = aDT = 0.02% Final volume, V ¢ = V - DV
L
Properties of Solids 349
34. Given,
l1 r y
= a , 1 = b, 1 = c 36. Here m = 0.02 kg; v = 20 ms -1 ;
l2 r2 y2 l = 42 cm = 0.42 m
T T Dl = 20 cm = 0.20 cm
Brass Steel
r = 3 mm = 3 ´ 10-3 m
Due to extension, energy is stored in the cord. This is
converted into kinetic energy when the stone flies off.
2g 1 1
\ Work done = mv2 = FDl
2 kg 2 2
Let Young modulus of steel beY1 and that of brass beY 2 mv2 0.02 ´ (20)2
or F = = = 40 N
Fl Dl 0.20
Y1 = 1 1 …(i)
A1 Dl1 F 40
Stress = 2 =
and Y2 =
F2l2
…(ii) pr (22 / 7) (3 ´ 10-3 )2
A2 Dl2
= 1.4 ´ 106 Nm-2
352 JEE Main Physics
37. According to Boyle’s law, p2V 2 = p1V1 41. Centripetal force is provided by the tension in wire.
æV ö
or p2 = p1 ç 1 ÷
è V2 ø
or p2 = 72 ´ 1000 / 900 = 80 cm of Hg
Space T
Stress = Increase in pressure m=10kg
station
= p2 - p1 = 80 - 72 = 8
= (8 ´ 10-2) ´ 13.6 ´ 103 ´ 9.8
= 10662.4 Nm-2
V1 - V 2 1000 - 900 So, T = mw2l
Volumetric strain = = = 0.1
V1 1000 T mw2l
Stress in wire, s = = ...(i)
38. Elastic energy per unit volume, A A
1 F 2l Here, s max = 4.8 ´ 107 Nm - 2,
U = FDl =
2 2 AY A = 10- 2 cm 2 = 10-2 ´ 10- 4 m 2 = 10- 6 m 2,
l m = 10 kg and l = 0.3 m
U µ 2 (F and Y are constants)
r
2 2
If maximum angular speed of rotation is wmax , then
U A æ lA ö æ rB ö æ1ö 3 from Eq. (i), we have
\ = ç ÷ ç ÷ = (3) ´ ç ÷ =
U B è lB ø è rA ø è2ø 4 s A 4.8 ´ 107 ´ 10- 6
w2max = max = = 16
F 2 mm ml 10 ´ 0.3
39. For A =Y …(i)
pr 2 a or wmax = 4 rad s - 1
F 4 mm
For B =Y …(ii) 42. Here, 2r = 3 ´ 10-2 m
p × 16r 2 b
Dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii), we get or r = (3 / 2) ´ 10-2 m
2b Dp = 10 kgfm-2 = 103 ´ 9.8 Nm - 2
\ 16 =
4a K = 107 dyne cm2 = 106 Nm-2
a 1 Volume of the ball,
= 3
b 32 4 3 4 22 æ 3 ö
V= pr = ´ ´ ç ´ 10-2÷ m 3
\ x = 32 3 3 7 è2 ø
kg Dp ´ V VDp
40. Density of wire, d = 9 ´ 10-3 = 9 ´ 103 kg/m3 Now, K= or DV =
cm3 DV K
Strain in the wire, e = 4.9 ´ 10-4 4 22 æ 3 ö
3
´ ´ ç ´ 10-2÷ ´ 103 ´ 9.8
Young’s modulus of wire is 3 7 è2 ø
=
Y = 9 ´ 1010 N/m 2 10 6
dimensions [ML–3 T 0 ]. Its SI unit in MKS is kgm–3, while in CGS it is gcc–1 Angle of Contact
with 1 gcc–1 = 103 kgm –3 . Capillarity
Viscosity
Relative Density
It is defined as the ratio of density of substance to the density of water at 4°C. Poiseuille’s Formula
Density of substance Stoke’s Law and Terminal Velocity
i. e. Relative density =
Density of water at 4° C
Relative density has no units and no dimensions. It is also known as specific
gravity.
354 JEE Main Physics
The excess pressure above atmospheric pressure is called If container is accelerating down, then
gauge pressure and total pressure is called absolute p2 - p1 = r ( g - a ) h and if container is accelerating
pressure. Thus, down with acceleration > g, then the liquid occupies
gauge pressure = absolute pressure - atmospheric pressure upper part of the vessel.
● Variation of pressure within an accelerating closed
i. e. hrg = p - p0 …(iii)
container.
Some important points related to fluid column pressure 2
are given below h
● Forces acting on a fluid in equilibrium have to be
s
1 a
perpendicular to its surface, because it cannot sustain
the shear stress. i.e. fluid at rest has no tangential
force acting on its surface.
● In the same liquid, pressure will be same at all points
at the same level. Here, all the points lying on a particular line making
an angle of tan-1 ( a/ g) with the horizontal have the
For example, in the given figure,
same pressure. In the given scenario, point 2 is the
Density = ρ2 least pressure point, if the vessel is completely closed,
p0 p0
we can take its pressure to be zero.
h1 p1 p2 h p1 = p 2 + rgh + rsa
2
p3 p4
as p2 = 0
p5 p6
So, p1 = rgh + rsa
Density =ρ2
Pascal’s Law and its Applications
p1 ¹ p 2, p3 = p 4 and p 5 = p6 Pascal’s law states that the increase in pressure at one
Further, p3 = p4 point of the enclosed liquid in equilibrium at rest is
p0 + r1gh1 = p0 + r 2gh 2 transmitted equally to all other points of liquid provided
1 the gravity effect is neglected.
or r1h1 = r 2h 2 or h µ
r Some applications of Pascal’s law are given as follows
i.e. for a given pressure at a point, the height of (i) Pascal’s law is used in the working of the
liquid column above it is inversly proportional to its hydraulic lift which is used to support or lift heavy
density. objects. In hydraulic lift,
● Barometer is used to measure atmospheric pressure, A
F2 = 2 F1
while manometer measures pressure difference, i. e. A1
gauge pressure.
where, A1 , A2 = area of cross-section of smaller and
Vacuum larger piston of hydraulic lift, F1 = force applied on
(p = 0) smaller piston.
p0
p0 p (ii) Hydraulic lift is a force multiplying device, which
h
h
is used in dentist’s chair, car lifts and jacks, many
elevators and hydraulic brakes.
Example 4. Assuming that the density of atmosphere does (a) 3.2 ´ 10 8 N (b) 4.12 ´ 10 5 N
not change with altitude. How high would the atmosphere (c) 8.3 ´ 10 2 N (d) 3.1 ´ 10 –5 N
extend? (Given, density of the atmosphere at sea level is Sol. (b) Given, h = 1000 m, r = 1.03 ´ 10 3 kgm–3 , gauge pressure,
1.29 kg /m3).
pg = rgh
(a) 2 km (b) 4 km (c) 8 km (d) 16 km pg = 1.03 ´ 10 3 ´ 10 ´ 1000
Sol. (c) Given, r = 1.29 kg/m , g = 9.8 ms , p = 1.01 ´ 10 5 Nm- 2
3 –2
pg = 103 ´ 10 5 Pa
Q Pressure = rgh = density ´ gravity ´ height The pressure outside the submarine is p = pa + rgh and pressure
\ 1.01 ´ 10 5 = 1.29 ´ 9.8 ´ h inside the submarine is pa . Hence, the net pressure acting on the
1.01 ´ 10 5 window is gauge pressure pg .
Þ h= » 7989 m
1.29 ´ 9.8 Since, area of window is A = 0.04 m2, the force acting on it is
Þ h » 8 km F = rg A = 103 ´ 10 5 Pa ´ 0.04 m2
Note The acceleration due to gravity decreases with height and = 4.12 ´ 10 5 N
hence the density of air also decreases. The atmospheric cover
extends with decreasing pressure over 100 km. We should also
note that the sea level atmospheric pressure is not always 760
Archimedes’ Principle and
mm of Hg. A drop in the Hg level by 10 mm or more is a sign of Buoyancy
an approaching storm. Whenever a body is immersed in a fluid, the fluid exerts
an upward force on the body and this upward force is
Example 5. A submarine experience a pressure of
called buoyant force. In fact, any body wholly or partially
5.05 ´ 106 Pa at a depth of d 1 in a sea. When it goes further to immersed in a fluid is brought up by a force equal to the
a depth of d 2, it experiences a pressure of 8.08 ´ 106 Pa, then weight of the displaced fluid. This result is known as
d 2 - d 1 is approximately (density of water = 103 kg /m3 and Archimedes’ principle. Thus, buoyant force = V i r l g,
acceleration due to gravity = 10 ms- 2) [JEE Main 2019] where V i is the volume of immersed part of body and r l is
(a) 500 m (b) 400 m (c) 600 m (d) 300 m the density of fluid.
Sol. (d) Pressure inside a fluid volume open to atmosphere is If a body of volume V and density r s is completely
immersed in a liquid of density r l , then its observed
p = p0 + hrg
weight,
where, p = pressure at depth h, h = depth,
r = density of fluid wobserved = wactual - upthrust (buoyant force)
and g = acceleration due to gravity. = Vr s × g - Vr l × g = V (r s - r l ) g
p0 Let us learn more about buoyant force or buoyancy
(i) It is equal to the weight of liquid displaced by the
h immersed part of the body.
p (ii) The buoyant force acts at the centre of buoyancy
which is the centre of gravity of the liquid displaced
In problem given, by the body when immersed in the liquid.
when h = d1, pressure p1 = 5.05 ´ 10 6 Pa and when h = d 2,
(iii) The line joining the centre of gravity and centre of
pressure p2 = 8.08 ´ 10 6 Pa
buoyancy is called central line.
So, we have
p1 = p0 + d1rg = 5.05 ´ 10 6
and p2 = p0 + d 2 rg = 8.08 ´ 10 6
Laws of Floatation
Þ p2 - p1 = (d 2 - d1)rg = 3.03 ´ 10 6 When a body of density r B and volume V is immersed in
6
a liquid of density s, the forces acting on the body are
3.03 ´ 10
Þ d 2 - d1 = (i) The weight of body w = mg = Vr B g acting vertically
rg downwards through the centre of gravity of the
Given, r = 10 3 kgm -3 body.
and g = 10 ms -2 (ii) The upthrust F = Vsg acting vertically upwards
3.03 ´ 10 6 through the centre of gravity of the displaced
\ d 2 - d1 = = 303 m » 300 m
10 3 ´ 10 liquid, i.e. centre of buoyancy.
Properties of Fluids 357
So, the following three cases are possible Example 7. A boat having a length of 3 m and breadth
Case I The density of body is greater than that of liquid, 2 m is floating on a lake. The boat sinks by 1 cm, when a man
( i. e. r B > s ). In this case, as weight will be more than gets on it. The mass of the man is
upthrust, the body will sink as shown in Fig. (a). (a) 60 kg (b) 62 kg
(c) 72 kg (d) 128 kg
Sol. (a) Mass of the man = Mass of water displaced
= Volume ´ Density
1
= 3 ´2 ´ ´ 10 3 kg
(a) ρB > σ 100
Case II The density of body is equal to the density of = 60 kg
liquid, ( i. e. r B = s ). In this case, w = F . So, the body will
float fully submerged in neutral equilibrium anywhere in Example 8. An ice-berg is floating partially immersed in
the liquid as shown in Fig. (b). sea water of density 1.03 gcm–3. The density of ice is
0.92 gcm–3. The fraction of the total volume of the ice-berg
above the level of sea water is
(a) 8.1 % (b) 11 %
(c) 34 % (d) 0.8 %
Sol. (b) Let V be the volume of the ice-berg outside the sea water
(b) ρB = σ
and V be the total volume of ice-berg. According to question,
Case III The density of body is lesser than that of liquid,
( i. e. r B < s ). In this case, w < F . So, the body will move Weight of iceberg = Weight of liquid displaced
upwards and in equilibrium will float partially immersed 0.92 ´ V ´ g = 103
. (V - V ¢) g
in the liquid such that 0.92 V = 1.03 (V - V ¢)
w = Vinsg . - 0.92 11
V ¢ 103
or = =
[Vin is the volume of body in the liquid] V 1.03 103
V¢ 11
´ 100 = ´ 100
V 103
= 10.67% » 11%
Now, let a mass m is placed over block to just keep the cube fully Sol. (c) From free body diagram,
immersed in water. B - mg = ma (here, B = buoyant force)
Now, by Archimedes’ principle, rwVg - mg = ma (here, V = volume)
weight of water displaced = weight of block + weight of mass m rwVg = mg + ma
m rwVg = m( g + a)
r Vg
Þ m= w …(i)
100% g+a
Þ Vrw g = Vr b g + mg
B Water
Þ V (rw - r b) = m Þ V ´ 0.7 rw = m [Q rb = 0.3 rw ]
Air bubble a
Here, V = (side)3 = (0.5) 3 m 3
rw = 10 3 kg m -3 mg
Substituting these values in the above relation, we get Given, rw = 1 g / cm 3 , g = 980 cm / s2,
m = (0.5)3 ´ 0.7 ´ 103 = 87.5 kg a = 9.8 cm/ s2 and r = 1 cm
Example 10. A hollow spherical shell at outer radius R Substituting all values in Eq. (i), we get
4 4 22
floats just submerged under the water surface. The inner radius (1) ´ pr3 ´ 980 ´ ´ (1)3 ´ 980
27 m= 3 = 3 7
of the shell is r. If the specific gravity of the shell material is 980 + 9.8 989.8
8
with respect to water, then the value of r is 4 ´ 22 ´ 980
[JEE Main 2020] = = 4 .148 g ~- 4.15 g
8 1 2 4 3 ´ 7 ´ 989.8
(a) R (b) R (c) R (d) R
9 3 3 9
Example 12. Consider a solid sphere of radius R and mass
Sol. (a) Relative density or specific gravity, æ r2 ö
density r(r) = r 0 ç1 - 2 ÷, 0 < r £ R. The minimum density of a
Density of object r o 27 è R ø
rr = = =
Density of water rw 8
liquid in which it will float is [JEE Main 2020]
r 2r 2r r0
r (a) 0 (b) 0 (c) 0 (d)
3 5 3 5
R
Sol. (b) If density of liquid is minimum, then its buoyant force is
also minimum. In this case, floating pattern of sphere is as shown
below
Sphere is fully submerged
4 3 4
In equilibrium, pR rw g = p (R3 – r3) r o × g and touching the surface
3 3 dr
æ 27 ö
Þ R = (R3 – r3) ç ÷
3
è8ø r
Example 13. A leak proof cylinder of length 1 m, made of ● The tangent drawn at any point of streamline gives the
a metal which has very low coefficient of expansion is floating direction of the flow of liquid at that point.
vertically in water at 0°C such that its height above the water ● The streamlines cannot intersect each other.
surface is 20 cm. When the temperature of water is increased Turbulent Flow The flow of liquid with a velocity
to 4°C, the height of the cylinder above the water surface greater than its critical velocity is disordered and called
becomes 21 cm. The density of water at T = 4 °C, relative to turbulent flow. In case of turbulent flow, maximum part
the density at T = 0 °C is close to [JEE Main 2020] of external energy is spent for producing eddies in the
(a) 1.26 (b) 1.03 (c) 1.01 (d) 1.04 liquid and small part of external energy is available for
Sol. (c) For a floating body, weight of body forward flow.
= upthrust or buoyant force = weight of water displaced Laminar Flow If a liquid is flowing over a horizontal
Initially at 0°C, cylinder floats as shown in the figure surface with a steady flow and moves in the form of
layers of different velocities which do not mix with each
other, then the flow of liquid is called laminar flow. Thus
20 cm a flow, in which the liquid moves in layers or lamina is
called a laminar flow.
Now, from the equation of continuity, we have Therefore in horizontal flow of liquid, if p increases, v
Av decreases and vice-versa.
A1v1 = A2v 2 or A2 = 1 1
v2 This theorem is applicable to ideal liquid, i.e. a liquid
10 -4 ´ 1 which is non-viscous, incompressible and irrotational.
\ A2 = = 0.5 ´ 10 -4
2
= 5 ´ 10 -5 m2 Applications of Bernoulli’s Theorem
● The action of carburetor, paintgun, scent sprayer,
Energy of a Flowing Liquid atomiser and insect sprayer is based on Bernoulli’s
There are three types of energies in a flowing liquid theorem.
Pressure Energy If p is the pressure on the area A of a
● The action of Bunsen’s burner, gas burner, oil stove
fluid and the liquid moves through a distance l due to and exhaust pump is also based on Bernoulli’s
this pressure, then theorem.
● Motion of a spinning ball (Magnus effect) is based on
pressure energy of liquid = work done
Bernoulli’s theorem.
= force ´ displacement = pAl ● Blowing of roofs by wind storms, attraction between
The volume of the liquid is Al. two closely parallel moving boats, fluttering of a flag
Hence, pressure energy per unit volume of liquid etc are also based on Bernoulli’s theorem.
pAl ● Bernoulli’s theorem helps in explaining blood flow in
= = p
Al artery.
Kinetic Energy If a liquid of mass m and volume V is
● Working of an aeroplane is based on Bernoulli’s
1 theorem.
flowing with velocity v, then the kinetic energy is mv 2.
2
Example 18. A fluid is flowing through a horizontal pipe
\ Kinetic energy per unit volume of liquid of varying cross-section with speed v ms-1 at a point where
1 æmö 1 the pressure is p Pa. At another point, where pressure is
= ç ÷ v 2 = rv 2
è
2 V ø 2 p
Pa its speed is V ms-1. If the density of the fluid is r kg m -3
Here, r is the density of liquid. 2
and the flow is streamline, then V is equal to [JEE Main 2020]
Potential Energy If a liquid of mass m is at a height h
from the reference line ( h = 0), then its potential energy p 2p
(a) +v (b) + v2
is mgh. r r
\Potential energy per unit volume of the liquid p p
æmö (c) + v2 (d) + v2
= ç ÷ gh = rgh 2r r
èV ø
Sol. (d) Since, pipe is horizontal. Applying Bernoulli’s equation at
two different cross-section,
Bernoulli’s Principle 1 1
p1 + rgh1 + rv12 = p2 + rgh2 + rv 22
If an ideal liquid is flowing in streamlined flow, then 2 2
total energy, i.e. sum of pressure energy, kinetic energy For same level,
and potential energy per unit volume of the liquid 1 p 1
p + rv12 = + rv 22
remains constant at every cross-section of the tube. 2 2 2
1 Given, v1 = v m /s and v 2 = V m /s
Mathematically, p + rv 2 + rgh = constant
2 p 1 p
= r(V 2 - v 2) Þ V 2 - v 2 =
p v2 2 2 r
It can be expressed as, + + h = constant
rg 2g Þ V=
p
+ v2
2 r
p v
where, = pressure head, = velocity head
rg 2g
Example 19. At what speed, the velocity head of water is
and h = gravitational head or potential head. equal to pressure head of 40 cm of Hg?
1 (a) 10.32 ms-1 (b) 2.8 ms-1
For horizontal flow of liquid, p + rv 2 = constant (c) 5.5 ms-1 (d) 8.4 ms-1
2
1 Sol. (a) From Bernoulli’s equation,
where, p is called static pressure and rv 2 is called
2 p v2
+ + h = constant
dynamic pressure. rg 2 g
362 JEE Main Physics
Given that, velocity head = pressure head Pressure at any point P due to rotation is given as,
v2 p 1 1 1
= Pr = rv 2 = r × ( wt ) 2 = rw2r 2
2 g rg 2 2 2
2p Gauge pressure at depth y is pG = - rgy
Þ v2 = If p0 is atmospheric pressure, then total pressure at point P is
r
1
Given, p = 40 cm of Hg = 40 ´ 10 -2 ´ 9.8 ´ 13.6 ´ 10 3 p = p0 + rr 2w2 - rgy
2
2 ´ 13.6 ´ 10 3 ´ 40 ´ 10 –2 ´ 9.8 For any point on surface of rotating fluid, p = p0
v2 =
10 3 Hence, for any surface point.
–1
Þ v = 10.32 ms 1
p0 = p0 + rr 2w2 - rgy
2
Example 20. Water is flowing with a speed of 2 ms-1 in a or
1 2 2
rr w = rgy
horizontal pipe with cross-sectional area decreasing from 2
2 ´ 10 -2m 2 to 0.01 m2 at pressure 4 ´ 10 4 Pa. What will be r 2w2
or y= … (i)
the pressure at small cross-section? 2g
(a) 2 ´ 10 4 Pa (b) 3.4 ´10 4 Pa In the given case,
4
(c) 2.4 ´ 10 Pa (d) 4 ´ 10 Pa 4 Angular speed, w = 2 rps = 2 ´ 2p = 4p rad s-1
Radius of vessel, r = 5 cm = 0.05 m and g = 10 ms-2
Sol. (b) Here, v1 = 2 ms–1, A1 = 2 ´ 10-2 m2,
Hence, substituting these values in Eq. (i), we get
p1 = 4 ´ 10 4 Pa, A2 = 0.01m2, p2 = ? w2r 2 ( 4p ) 2(0.05) 2
y= =
As, A1v1 = A2v 2 2g 2 ´ 10
Av
or v2 = 1 1 = 0.02 m = 2 cm
A2
2 ´ 10 -2 ´ 2
=
0.01
= 4 ms–1 Torricelli’s Theorem
1 1
Velocity of efflux (the velocity with which the liquid flows
Now, p1 + rv12 = p2 + rv 22 out of a orifice or narrow hole) is equal to the velocity
2 2 acquired by a freely falling body through the same
1
or p2 = p1 + r (v12 - v 22) vertical distance equal to the depth of orifice below the
2 free surface of liquid.
1
or p2 = 4 ´ 10 4 + ´ 103 (22 - 42)
2
= 4 ´ 10 4 - 6 ´ 103
= 3.4 ´ 10 4 Pa
h
Example 21. A long cylindrical vessel is half-filled with a v
liquid. When the vessel is rotated about its own vertical axis, H
the liquid rises up near the wall. If the radius of vessel is
5 cm and its rotational speed is 2 rps, then the difference in
the heights between the centre and the sides (in cm) will be
[JEE Main 2019]
S
(a) 0.1 (b) 1.2 (c) 0.4 (d) 2.0
Sol. (d) When liquid filled vessel is rotated the liquid profile Velocity of efflux, v = 2gh
becomes a paraboloid due to centripetal force, as shown in the where, h = depth of orifice below the free surface of
figure below liquid.
Y Time taken by the liquid to reach the base-level
r 2( H - h )
P t=
g
y Horizontal range, S = 4h( H - h )
O where, H = height of liquid column.
X
Horizontal range is maximum, equal to height of the
liquid column H , when orifice is at half of the height of
liquid column.
Properties of Fluids 363
If the hole is at the bottom of the tank, then time The depth of the centre of the opening from the level of water
A 2H in the tank is close to [JEE Main 2019]
required to make the tank empty is t =
A0 g (a) 4.8 m (b) 6.0 m (c) 2.9 m (d) 9.6 m
where, A is area of the container and A0 is area of orifice. Sol. (a) For the given condition, a water tank is open to air and its
water level maintained.
Volume of liquid coming out from the orifice per second
= VA0 = A0 2gh
h
Venturimeter
It is a device which is used to measure the rate of flow of
fluids through pipes. Its working is based on Bernoulli’s Water tank
Circular opening
theorem. In the arrangement shown, the rate of flow of of radius r
fluid V is given by
Suppose the depth of the centre of the opening from level of
water in tank is h and the radius of opening is r.
h According to question, the water per minute through a circular
opening
0.74 3
A C Flow rate (Q) = 0.74 m3 /min = m /s
60
B
A1 A2 r = radius of circular opening = 2 cm
v1 v2 Here, the area of circular opening = p(r 2)
a = p ´ (2 ´ 10 -2) 2 = 4p ´ 10 -4 m2
2 gh
V = A1 A2 Now, flow rate through an area is given by
( A12 - A22 )
Q = Area of circular opening ´ Velocity of water
2( p1 - p2 ) Q = a ´ v = p(r 2) ´ v
V = A1 A2
r ( A12 - A22 ) 0.74
Þ = ( 4p ´ 10 -4) ´ v …(i)
60
Example 22. The diameter of a pipe at two points, where According to Torricelli’s law (velocity of efflux)
a venturimeter is connected is 8 cm and 5 cm and the
difference of levels in it is 4 cm. The volume of water flowing v = 2gh
through the pipe per second is Putting the value of v in Eq. (i), we get
(a) 1889 ccs–1 (b) 1520 ccs–1 0.74 ´ 10 4
(b) 1321 ccs–1 (d) 1125 ccs–1 2gh =
60 ´ 4p
2
Sol. (a) Here, r1 = 8/2 = 4.0 cm, æ 0.74 ´ 10 4 ö 1
Þ h=ç ÷ ´
r2 = 5 /2 = 2.5 cm, h = 4 cm è 60 ´ 4p ø 2g
Now, A1 = pr12 = p ( 4) 2 = 16 pcm2 h » 4.8 m
and A2 = pr22 = p (2.5) 2 = 6.25 p cm2
Here, r = rm Surface Tension
So, the rate of flow of water in venturimeter is given by The property of a liquid at rest by virtue of which its free
2 gh surface behaves like a stretched membrane under tension
V = A1 A2 and tries to occupy as small area as possible is called
( A12 - A22)
surface tension.
2 ´ 980 ´ 4 Force F
= 6.25 p ´ 16 p Surface tension, S = =
(16 p ) 2 - (6.25 p ) 2 Length L
100 p 2 ´ 28 10 The SI unit of surface tension is N/m or J/m2. It is a
= scalar quantity and its dimensional formula is [MT - 2].
(16 p - 6.25 p ) (16 p +6.25 p )
Surface tension of a liquid depends only on the nature of
= 1889 ccs–1 liquid and is independent of the surface area of film or
length of the line considered. Small liquid drops are
Example 23. The top of a water tank is open to air and its spherical due to the property of surface tension.
water level is maintained. It is giving out 0.74 m 3 water per Surface tension of a liquid decreases with an increase in
minute through a circular opening of 2 cm radius in its wall. temperature.
364 JEE Main Physics
Applications of Surface Tension ● If two plates are placed in contact with a thin film of
● Oil spreads over the water surface because the surface liquid in between them to pull them apart, a large force
tension of oil is smaller than the water. is needed.
● The surface tension of points and all lubricating oils is 2S
Excess pressure in this case is , where d is the
low. d
● The stromy waves at the sea are calmed by pouring oil separation between the plates. Force required to
on the sea water. separate two plates, each of area A is given by
The surface tension of antiseptics like dettol is low and 2 A ´S
●
F =
hence they spread faster. d
● The surface tension of soap solution is low, therefore it
can spread over large area. Surface Energy
If we increase the free surface area of a liquid, then work
Surface Tension of Drops and Bubbles has to be done against the force of surface tension. This
Due to the property of surface tension, a drop or bubble work done is stored in liquid surface as potential energy.
tends to contract and so compresses the matter enclosed. This additional potential energy per unit area of free
This in turn increases the internal pressure which surface of liquid is called surface energy.
prevents further contraction and equilibrium is achieved. Surface energy ( E ) = S ´ DA
So, in equilibrium, the pressure inside a bubble or drop is
where, S = surface tension and DA = increase in surface
greater than outside and difference of pressure between
area.
two sides of the liquid surface is called excess pressure.
(i) Work Done in Blowing a Liquid Drop If a liquid
Excess pressure in different cases is given below
p0 drop is blown up from a radius r1 to r2, then work
done for that is
p0 p00
W = S × 4p (r22 - r12 )
p p p p1i (ii) Work Done in Blowing a Soap Bubble As a soap
bubble has two free surfaces, hence work done in
blowing a soap bubble so as to increase its radius
from r1 to r2 is given by
Drop Air bubble Soap bubble
W = S × 8p (r22 - r12 )
2S
Excess pressure inside a drop, Dp =
r (iii) Work Done in Splitting a Bigger Drop into n Smaller
2S Droplets
Excess pressure inside an air bubble, Dp =
r If a liquid drop of radius R is split up into n
4S smaller droplets, all of same size, then radius of
Excess pressure inside a soap bubble, Dp = each droplet
r
● When two soap bubbles of same material having r = R × ( n )-1/ 3
different radii r and R ( > r ) are combined to form a Work done, W = 4pS ( nr 2 - R 2 ) = 4pSR 2 ( n1/ 3 - 1)
double bubble, then
(iv) Coalescance of Drops If n small liquid drops of
p0
p0 radius r each combine together so as to form a
single bigger drop of radius R = n1/ 3× r, then in the
r R
pr p process energy is released. Release of energy is
pr
given by DU = S × 4p ( nr 2 - R 2 ) = 4pSr 2n (1 - n - 1/ 3 )
pR R
Example 25. Surface tension of a detergent solution is For alcohol and clean glass q = 0°.
–2 -1
2.8×10 Nm . What is the work done in blowing a bubble Angle of Contact, Meniscus and Shape of liquid surface
of 2 cm diameter?
Angle of Angle of Angle of
(a) 4 ´ 10 -6 J (b) 70.3 ´ 10 –6 J Property
Contact < 90° Contact = 90° Contact > 90°
(c) 50.8 ´ 10 –6 J (d) 60.8 ´ 10 –6 J
Substances Water and Water and Mercury and
Sol. (b) Given that, S = 2.8 ´ 10 –2 Nm–1 glass silver glass
2 Angle of contact Almost zero, Right angle Obtuse angle
and R = = 1 cm = 0.01m acute angle = 90° = 138°
2
As soap bubble has two free surfaces, Meniscus shape Concave Plane Convex
\ Work done, W = S ×8 pR 2 = 2.8 ´ 10 –2 ´ 8 ´ 3.14 ´ (0.01) 2 Capillary action Liquid rises No effect Liquid falls
= 70.3 ´ 10 –6 J Sticking to solid Stick/wets Does not wet Does not wet
Relation between F F F
Fa > c Fa = c Fa < c
cohesive force 2 2 2
Angle of Contact (Fc ) and adhesive Fa > Fc Fc > Fa
The angle subtended between the tangents drawn at force (Fa )
liquid surface and at solid surface inside the liquid at the Shape of liquid Almost round Spreads on Flat on
point of contact is called angle of contact (q ). surface surface interface
If liquid molecules is in contact with solid (i.e. wall of
capillary tube), then forces acting on liquid molecules are
(i) Force of cohesion Fc (acts at an angle 45° to the
Capillarity
The phenomenon of rise or fall of liquid column in a
vertical)
capillary tube is called capillarity.
(ii) Force of adhesion Fa (acts outwards at right angle
to the wall of the tube) Ascent of a liquid column in a capillary tube is given by
2 S cos q r
Glass h= -
r rg 3
2 S cos q
If capillary is very narrow, then h =
θ rrg
liquid will wet the solid surface. (ii) Coffee powder is easily soluble in water because
● If angle of contact is obtuse angle, i.e. q > 90°, then
water immediately wets the fine granules of coffee
by the action of capillarity.
liquid will not wet the solid surface.
(iii) The water given to the fields rises in the
Angle of contact increases with increase in temperature innumerable capillaries formed in the stems of
of liquid. Angle of contact decreases on adding soluble plants and trees and reaches the leaves.
impurity to a liquid.
Angle of contact for pure water and glass is zero. Example 26. The lower end of a capillary tube of
For ordinary water and glass, it is 8°. diameter 2 mm is dipped 8 cm below the surface of water in a
For mercury and glass, it is 138°. beaker. The surface tension of water at temperature of the
experiment is 7.3 ´ 10 –2 Nm –1, 1 atmospheric pressure
For pure water and silver, it is 90°.
366 JEE Main Physics
= 1.01 ´ 10 5 Pa, density of water = 1000 kg/m3, g = 9.8 ms–2, Sol. (b) It is given that tangents drawn from point of contact of
then the pressure inside the bubble is meniscus makes 60° angle with each other.
(a) 2.13 ´ 10 3 Pa (b) 1.02 ´ 10 5 Pa We have following situation, as shown in figure
O
(c) 5 ´ 10 -5 Pa (d) 7.3 ´ 10 –3 Pa
Tangent R
30º
Sol. (b) The excess pressure in a bubble of gas in a liquid is r
2S
given by , where S is the surface tension of the liquid gas
r 30º
interface. The radius of the bubble is r. 60º
The pressure outside the bubble p0 equals atmospheric 120º
pressure plus the pressure due to 8 cm of water column. That h
is
30º
p0 = (1.01 ´ 10 5 Pa +0.08 m ´ 1000 kg m–3 ´ 9.80 ms–2)
p0 = 1.01784 ´ 10 5 Pa
The pressure inside the bubble is
2S (2 ´ 7.3 ´ 10 –2)
pi = p0 + = 1.01784 ´ 10 5 + A normal drawn on the tangent, will pass through the centre O of
r 10 -3 meniscus. Let r be the radius of capillary tube and R be the radius
= (1.01784+0.00146) ´ 10 5 of meniscus.
= 1.02 ´ 10 5 Pa radius of capillary r
From geometry of figure, = = cos 30 °
radius of meniscus R
Note This is a 100% increase in pressure from surface level. At a r 3
depth of 1 km, the increase in pressure is 100 atm. Submarines are Þ =
R 2
designed to withstand such enormous pressures.
2r 2 ´ 0.15 ´ 10 -3
or R= =
Example 27. The lower end of a capillary tube is 3 3
dipped into water and it is seen that water rises through -4
Þ R = 3 ´ 10 m
7.5 cm in the capillary. Given surface tension of water is Now, by ascent formula,
7.5 ´ 10 –2 Nm -1 and angle of contact between water and 2S 2 ´ 0.05
h= = = 0.087 m
glass capillary tube is zero. What will be the diameter of rgR 667 ´ 10 ´ 3 ´ 10 -4
the capillary tube? (Given, g = 10 ms-2)
(a) 0.2 mm (b) 0.3 mm (c) 0.4 mm (d) 0.5 mm Viscosity
-2
Sol. (c) Given, h = 7.5 cm = 7.5 ´ 10 m, S = 7.5 ´ 10 –2 Nm–1, The property of a fluid due to which it opposes the
q = 0 °, 2 r = ? relative motion between its different layers is called
2 S cos q viscosity (or fluid friction or internal friction) and the
As, h= force between the layers opposing the relative motion is
rrg
called viscous force.
4 S cos q
2r = According to Newton, the frictional force F (or viscous
hr g
force) between two layers depends upon the following
4 ´ 7.5 ´ 10 –2 ´ cos 0° factors
=
7.5 ´ 10 –2 ´ 10 3 ´ 10 (i) Force F is directly proportional to the area ( A) of
Þ = 4 ´ 10 –4 the layers in contact, i. e. F µ A
= 0.4 mm (ii) Force F is directly proportional to the velocity
æ dv ö dv
gradient ç ÷ between the layers, is also called
Example 28. A capillary tube made of glass of radius è dy ø dy
0.15 mm is dipped vertically in a beaker filled with strain rate.
methylene iodide, which rises to height h in the tube. It is
Combining these two, we have
observed that the two tangents drawn from liquid- glass
dv dv
interface (from opposite sides of the capillary) make an angle FµA or F = -hA
of 60° with one another. Then, h is close to dy dy
(Given, surface tension = 0.05 Nm -1, density = 667 kg m -3 where, h is a constant called coefficient of viscosity.
-2
and g = 10 ms ) [JEE Main 2020] The negative sign shows that viscous force on a liquid
layer acts in a direction opposite to the relative velocity of
(a) 0.049 m (b) 0.087 m (c) 0.137 m (d) 0.172 m flow of fluid.
Properties of Fluids 367
10. Torricelli’s barometer used mercury. Pascal on upper part MN to that at the lower part NO is
duplicated it using French wine of density (assume that the liquids are not mixing)
984 kg/m 3. Determine the height of the wine M
column for normal atmospheric pressure.
(a) 9.5 m (b) 5.5 m 5m
(c) 10.5 m (d) 11.5 m
N
11. A tank 5m high is half filled with water and then is
filled to the top with oil of density 0.85 gcm–3. The 5m
pressure at the bottom of the tank, due to these
O
liquids is [JEE Main 2020]
-2 -2
(a) 1.85 g dyne cm (b) 89.25 g dyne cm (a) 1/2 (b) 2/3 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/3
(c) 462.5 g dyne cm -2 (d) 500 g dyne cm -2
12. A cylindrical vessel is filled with equal amounts of
Archimedes’ Principle and
weight of mercury and water. The overall height of Laws of Floatation
the two layers is 29.2 cm, specific gravity of 18. A cubic block is floating in a liquid with half of its
mercury is 13.6. Then the pressure of the liquid at volume immersed in the liquid. When the whole
the bottom of the vessel is system accelerates upward with acceleration of g/3,
(a) 29.2 cm of water (b) 29.2/13.6 cm of mercury then the fraction of volume immersed in the liquid
(c) 4 cm of mercury (d) 15.6 cm of mercury will be
13. An aquarium tank is in the shape of a cube with
one side a 4m tall glass wall. When the tank is half g/3
filled and the water is 2 m deep, the water exerts a
force F on the wall. What force does the water
exerts on the wall when the tank is full and the
water is 4 m deep? 1 3 2 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) 1/2 F (b) F 2 8 3 4
(c) 2 F (d) 4 F
19. The total weight of a piece of wood is 6 kg. In the
14. The surface area of air bubble increases four times floating state in water, its 1 part remains inside the
when it rises from bottom to top of a water tank 3
where the temperature is uniform. If the water. On this floating solid, what maximum weight is
atmospheric pressure is 10 m of water, the depth of to be put such that the whole of the piece of wood is to
the water in the tank is be drowned in the water?
(a) 30 m (b) 40 m (a) 12 kg (b) 10 kg (c) 14 kg (d) 15 kg
(c) 70 m (d) 80 m 20. The spring balance A reads 2 kg with a block of
15. The pressure acting on a submarine is 3 ´ 10 Pa at 5 mass m suspended from it. A balance B reads 5 kg
a certain depth. If the depth is doubled, the when a beaker with liquid is put on the pan of the
percentage increase in the pressure acting on the balance. The two balances are now so arranged
submarine would be (Assume that, atmospheric that the hanging mass is inside the liquid in a
pressure = 1 ´ 105 Pa, density of water beaker as shown in figure.
= 103 kg m -3, g = 10 ms -2 ) [JEE Main 2021]
200 200 5 3
(a) % (b) % (c) % (d) %
3 5 200 200 A
16. Two cubes each weighting 22 g exactly are taken.
One is of iron ( d = 8 ´ 103 kgm -3) and the other is of
marble ( D = 3 ´ 103 kgm -3). They are immersed in M
alcohol and then weighted again
(a) iron cube weights less (b) iron cube weights more
(c) both have equal weight (d) nothing can be said
B
17. Two liquids of densities r1 and r2 (r2 = 2 r1) are
filled up behind a square wall of side 10 m as (a) The balance A will read more than 2 kg
shown in figure. Each liquid has a height of 5 m. (b) The balance B will read less than 5 kg
The ratio of the forces due to these liquids exerted
Properties of Fluids 371
(c) The balance A will read less than 2 kg and B will 27. A cubical block of wooden edge l and a density r
read more than 5 kg floats in water of density 2 r. The lower surface of cube
(d) The balance A will read more than 2 kg and B will just touches the free end of a massless spring of force
read less than 5 kg constant k fixed at the bottom of the vessel. The
weight w put over the block so that it is completely
21. A cylinder of mass m and density r hanging from a
immersed in water without wetting the weight is
string is lowered into a vessel of cross-sectional area A
(a) a (lrg + k) (b) a (l2rg + k)
containing a liquid of density s (< r) until it is fully
immersed. The increase in pressure at the bottom
æ lrg ö æ kö
of the vessel is (c) a ç + 2k÷ (d) l ç l2rg + ÷
mg è 2 ø è 2ø
(a) Zero (b)
A 28. Two cylinders of same cross-section and length L but
mgr msg
(c) (d) made of two material of densities r1 and r2 (in CGS
sA rA
units) are cemented together to form a cylinder of
22. A rectangular plate 2m × 3m is immersed in water length 2 L. If the combination floats in water with a
in such a way that its greatest and least depth are length L/2 above the surface of water and r1 < r2 ,
6 m and 4 m respectively, from the water surface. then
The total thrust on the plate is (a) r1 > 1 (b) r1 < 3 / 4
(a) 294 ×103 N (b) 294 N (c) r1 > 1 / 2 (d) r1 > 3 / 4
(c) 100 ×103 N (d) 400 ×103 N
29. The density of ice is 0.9 gcc–1 and that of sea water
23. A body of density r is dropped from rest at a height is 1.1 gcc–1. An ice berg of volume V is floating in
h into a lake of density s, where s > r. Neglecting sea water. The fraction of ice berg above water level
all dissipative forces, calculate the maximum depth is
to which the body sinks before returning to float on (a) 1/11 (b) 2/11 (c) 3/11 (d) 4/11
the surface.
h hr 30. A hollow cylinder of mass m made heavy at its
(a) (b) bottom is floating vertically in water. It is tilted
s -r s
hr hs from its vertical position through an angle q and
(c) (d) then released. The restoring force acting on it is
s -r s -r
(a) mg cos q (b) mg sin q
24. A hemispherical bowl just floats without sinking in é 1 ù é 1 ù
(c) mg ê -1 (d) mg ê + 1ú
a liquid of density 1.2 ´ 103 kgm –3. If outer ë cos q úû ë cos q û
diameter and the density of the bowl are 1 m and
2 ´ 104 kgm –3 respectively, then the inner diameter Flow of Liquids
of the bowl will be
31. Fig. (i) and Fig. (ii) refer to the steady flow of a
(a) 0.94 m (b) 0.96 m
(non-viscous) liquid. Which of the figures is/are
(c) 0.98 m (d) 0.99 m
incorrect?
25. A load of mass M kg is suspended from a steel wire
of length 2 m and radius 1.0 mm in Searle’s
apparatus experiment. The increase in length
produced in the wire is 4.0 mm. Now, the load is
fully immersed in a liquid of relative density 2. The
Fig. (i) Fig. (ii)
relative density of the material of load is 8. The
new value of increase in length of the steel wire is (a) Fig. (i) (b) Fig. (ii)
[JEE Main 2019]
(c) both (i) and (ii) (d) None of these
(a) zero (b) 5.0 mm
(c) 4.0 mm (d) 3.0 mm 32. An incompressible liquid flows through a
4 horizontal tube as shown in the figure. Then, the
26. A wooden block floating in a bucket of water has velocity v of the fluid is
5
of its volume submerged. When certain amount of A v2 = 1.5 m/s
an oil is poured into the bucket, it is found that the
v1 = 3 m/s A
block is just under the oil surface with half of its
1. 5
volume under water and half in oil. The density of A
oil relative to that of water is [JEE Main 2019] v
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.7 (d) 0.5 (a) 3 m/s (b) 1.5 m/s (c) 1.0 m/s (d) 2.25 m/s
372 JEE Main Physics
33. Water flowing out of the mouth of a tap and falling The change in energy of the system in the process
vertically in streamline flow forms a tapering is [JEE Main 2020]
column, i.e. the area of cross-section of the liquid 3
(a) gdS (x22 + x12) (b) gdS (x2 - x1 )2
column decreases as it moves down. Which of the 4
following is the most accurate explanation for this? 1
(c) gdS (x2 + x1 )2 (d) gdS (x2 - x1 )2
4
38. Air is streaming past a horizontal air plane wing
such that its speed is 120 ms–1 over the upper
surface and 90 ms–1 at the lower surface. If the
(a) Falling water tries to reach a terminal velocity and density of air is 1.3 kgm–3, what will be the gross
hence, reduces the area of cross-section to balance lift on the wing? If the wing is 10 m long and has
upward and downward forces an average width of 2 m,
(b) As the water moves down, its speed increases and (a) 81.9 N (b) 8.19 kN (c) 81.9 kN (d) 819 kN
hence, its pressure decreases. It is then
compressed by atmosphere
39. A tank is filled with water upto a height H. Water
is allowed to come out of a hole P in one of the walls
(c) The surface tension causes the exposed surface
at a depth h below the surface of water (see figure).
area of the liquid to decrease continuously
Express the horizontal distance X in terms of H
(d) The mass of water flowing out per second through and h.
any cross-section must remain constant. As the
water is almost incompressible, so the volume of
water flowing out per second must remain h
constant. As this is equal to velocity ´ area, the p
area decreases as velocity increases. H
34. Two water pipes P and Q having diameter
2 ´ 10-2 m and 4 ´ 10-2 m respectively are joined in
series with the main supply line of water. The X
velocity of water flowing in pipe P is
h
(a) 4 times that of Q (b) 2 times that of Q (a) X = h (H - h ) (b) X = (H - h )
(c) (1/2) times that of Q (d) (1/4) times that of Q 2
(c) X = 2 h (H - h ) (d) X = 4 (H - h )
35. A fluid flows through a horizontal pipe having two
different cross-sections of area A and 2 A. If the 40. A cylindrical drum, open at the top, contains 15 L
pressure at the thin cross-section is p and fluid of water. It drains out through a small opening at
velocity is v, the velocity and pressure at the thicker the bottom. 5 L of water comes out in time t1, the
cross-section is (take the density of fluid as r) next 5 L in further time t2 and the last 5 L in
v 1 v 3 further time t3. Then
(a) , p + rv2 (b) , p + rv2 (a) t1 < t2 < t3 (b) t1 > t2 > t3
2 2 4 8
v 3 2 3 2 (c) t1 = t2 = t3 (d) t2 > t1 = t3
(c) , p + rv (d) v, p + rv
2 8 4 41. In a test experiment on a model aeroplane in a
36. If two ping pong balls are suspended near each wind tunnel, the flow speeds on the upper and
other and a fast stream of air is produce within the lower surfaces of the wing are 70 m/s and 63 m/s
space of the balls, the balls respectively. What is the lift on the wing, if its area
(a) come nearer to each other is 2.5 m2 ? Take the density of air to be 1.3 kg/m 3.
(a) 5.1 ´ 102 N (b) 6.1 ´ 102 N
(b) move away from each other
(c) 1.6 ´ 103 N (d) 1.5 ´ 103 N
(c) remain in their original positions
(d) move far away Surface Tension and Surface Energy
37. Two identical cylindrical vessels are kept on the 42. A thin metal disc of radius r float on water surface
ground and each contains the same liquid of and bends the surface downwards along the
density d. The area of the base of both vessels is S perimeter making an angle q with vertical edge of
but the height of liquid in one vessel is x1 and in the the disc. If the disc displaces a weight of water w
other, x2 . When both cylinders are connected and surface tension of water is T, then the weight
through a pipe of negligible volume very close to of metal disc is
the bottom, the liquid flows from one vessel to the (a) 2 prT + w (b) 2 prT cos q - w
other until it comes to equilibrium at a new height. (c) 2 prT cos q + w (d) w - 2 prT cos q
Properties of Fluids 373
43. A ring is cut from a platinum tube 8.5 cm internal 51. Which graph represent the variation of surface
diameter and 8.7 cm external diameter. It is tension with temperature over small temperature
supported horizontally from a pan of a balance so, ranges for water?
that it comes in contact with the water in glass
vessel. If an extra 3.47 g-wt is required to pull it
Surface tension
Surface tension
away from water, surface tension of water is
(a) 62.96 dyne cm–1 (b) 70.80 dyne cm–1 (a) (b)
(c) 65.35 dyne cm–1 (d) 60.00 dyne cm–1
44. What is the radius of the biggest aluminium coin of
Temperature Temperature
thickness, t and density r, which will still be able to
float on the water surface of surface tension S?
Surface tension
Surface tension
4S 3S
(a) (b)
3rgt 4rgt
2S S (c) (d)
(c) (d)
rgt rgt
45. 8000 identical water drops are combined to form a Temperature Temperature
big drop then the ratio to the final surface energy 52. The amount of work done in blowing a soap
to the initial surface energy, if all the drops bubble such that its diameter increases from d to
together is D is
(a) 1 : 10 (b) 1 : 15 (Here, S = surface tension of solution)
(c) 1 : 20 (d) 1 : 25 (a) p (D 2 - d 2) S (b) 2 p (D 2 - d 2) S
(c) 4 p (D 2 - d 2) S (d) 8 p (D 2 - d 2) S
46. A mercury drop of radius 1 cm is broken into 106
droplets of equal size. The work done is
( Take, S = 35 ´ 10-2 Nm –1)
Excess of Pressure, Shape of
(a) 4.35 ´ 10–2
J (b) 4.35 ´ 10–3
J Meniscus and Capillarity
(c) 4.35 ´ 10–6 J (d) 4.35 ´ 10–8 J 53. Pressure inside two soap bubbles are 1.01 atm and
1.02 atm, respectively. The ratio of their volume is
47. What change in surface energy will be noticed [JEE Main 2020]
when a drop of radius R splits up into 1000 droplets
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 0.8 : 1 (c) 8 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
of radius r, surface tension S ?
2 2
(a) 4 pR S (b) 7 pR S 54. The ratio of surface tensions of mercury and water
(c) 16 pR 2S (d) 36 pR 2S is given to be 7.5 while the ratio of their densities is
13.6. Their contact angles with glass are close to
48. Let W be the work done, when a bubble of volume V
135° and 0°, respectively. It is observed that
is formed from a given solution. How much work is
mercury gets depressed by an amount h in a
required to be done to form a bubble of volume 2 V?
capillary tube of radius r1, while water rises by the
(a) W (b) 2W
same amount h in a capillary tube of radius r2 . The
(c) 21/3 W (d) 41/3 W
ratio ( r1 / r2 ), is then close to [JEE Main 2019]
49. What is the ratio of surface energy of 1 small drop (a) 3/5 (b) 2/3 (c) 2/5 (d) 4/5
and 1 large drop if 1000 drops combine to form 1
55. The following observations were taken for
large drop?
(a) 100 : 1 (b) 1000 : 1 determining surface tension T of water by capillary
(c) 10 : 1 (d) 1 : 100 method. Diameter of capillary, d = 1.25 ´ 10-2 m
rise of water, h = 1.45 ´ 10-2 m. Using g = 9.80 m/s 2
50. Two spherical soap bubbles of radii a and b in rhg
and the simplified relation T = ´ 103N/ m, the
vacuum coalesce under isothermal conditions. The 2
resulting bubble has a radius given by possible error in surface tension is closest to
(a + b) [JEE Main 2017]
(a)
2 (a) 1.5% (b) 2.4% (c) 10% (d) 0.15%
ab
(b) 56. When two soap bubbles of radius r1 and r2 ( r2 > r1)
a+b
coalesce, the radius of curvature of common surface
(c) a 2 + b2 is
(d) a + b r2 - r1 r2 r1
(a) (r2 - r1 ) (b) (r2 + r1 ) (c) (d)
r1 r2 r2 - r1
374 JEE Main Physics
57. Water in a vessel of uniform cross-section escapes It is observed that the meniscus is convex. The
through a narrow tube at the base of the vessel. liquid in the trough is [NCERT Exemplar]
Which graph given below represents the variation (a) water (b) ethylalcohol
of the height h of the liquid with time t? (c) mercury (d) methyliodide
h h
63. The diagram shows three soap bubbles A, B and C
prepared by blowing the capillary tube fitted with
(a) (b) stop cocks S, S1, S2 and S3. With stop cock S closed
and stop cocks S1, S2 and S3 opened
t t
h h C
(c) (d)
S1 S3 S S
2
t t A B
61. When two soap bubbles of radii a and b ( b > a) 66. Two capillary tubes of radii 0.2 cm and 0.4 cm are
dipped in the same liquid. The ratio of heights
coalesce, the radius of curvature of common
through which liquid will rise in the tubes is
surface is [JEE Main 2021]
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
ab a+b (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
(a) (b)
b-a ab
67. By inserting a capillary tube upto a depth l in
b-a ab
(c) (d) water, the water rises to a height h. If the lower
ab a+b
end of the capillary tube is closed inside water and
62. The angle of contact at the interface of water-glass the capillary is taken out and closed end opened, to
is 0° Ethylalcohol-glass is 0°, Mercury-glass is 140° what height the water will remain in the tube,
and Methyliodide-glass is 30°. A glass capillary is when l > h?
put in a trough containing one of these four liquids. (a) zero (b) l + h (c) 2 h (d) h
Properties of Fluids 375
x x B
A
p
p
h
C
(c) (d) D
(a)|2 p0Rh + pr rgh - 2RT| (b)|2 p0Rh + Rrgh 2 - 2RT |
2
x x
(c)| p0pR2 + Rrgh 2 - 2RT | (d)| p0pR2 + Rrgh 2 + 2RT|
Properties of Fluids 377
9. Water of density r at a depth h behind the vertical 14. A liquid of density r is filled in a U-tube is
face of dam whose cross-sectional length is l and accelerated with an acceleration a so that the height
cross-sectional area A. It exerts a horizontal of liquid in its two vertical arms are h1 and h2 as
resultant force on the dam tending to slide it along shown in the figure. If l is the length of horizontal
its foundation and a torque tending to overturn the arm of the tube, the acceleration a is
dam about the point O.
h h1
h2
O
The height at which the resultant force would have l
to act to the same torque is
g (h1 - h2)
h h (a) towards right
(a) (b) 2l
6 3 g (h1 - h2)
(b) towards left
h 2h 2l
(c) (d)
2 3 g (h1 - h2)
(c) towards right
l
10. Water flows through a vertical tube of variable g (h1 - h2)
cross-section. The area of cross-section at A and B (d) towards left
l
are 6 mm2 and 3 mm2, respectively. If 12 cc of water
enters per second through A, find the pressure 15. A trough contains mercury to a depth of 3.6 cm. If
difference p A - p B (g = 10 ms -2 ) The separation same amount of mercury is poured in it, then
between cross-section at A and B is 100 cm. height of mercury in the trough will be
(a) 1.6 ´ 105 dyne cm–2 (a) 3.6 cm (b) 7.2 cm
(c) 6 cm (d) None of these
(b) 2.29 ´ 105 dyne cm–2
(c) 5.9 ´ 104 dyne cm–2
16. A vessel whose bottom has round holes with
diameter of 1 mm is filled with water. Assuming
(d) 3.9 ´ 105 dyne cm–2 that surface tension acts only at holes, then the
11. A canister has a small hole at its bottom. Water maximum height to which the water can be filled in
penetrates into the canister when its base is at a vessel without leakage is (Surface tension of water is
depth of 40 cm from the surface of water. If 75 ´ 10-3 Nm –1 and g = 10 ms–2)
surface tension of water is 73.5 dyne/cm, find the (a) 3 cm (b) 0.3 cm
radius of the hole. (c) 3 mm (d) 3 m
(a) 375 mm 17. A jar shown in figure is filled with a liquid of
(b) 3.75 mm density r. The jar is placed in vacuum. Cross-section
(c) 0.0375 mm of the jar is circular and base is having a radius R.
(d) zero The force exerted by the liquid column on the base
of the jar is
12. A piece of gold weights 50 g in air and 45 g in
water. If there is a cavity inside the piece of gold, a
then find its volume [Density of gold = 19.3 g/cc]. b
(a) 2.4 cm3 (b) 2.4 m3
(c) 4 .2 m3 (d) 4.2 mm3
F
13. The bottom of a cylindrical vessel has a circular c
hole of radius r and at depth h below the water
level. If the diameter of the vessel is D, then find
the speed with which the water level in the vessel R
drops.
(a) rg (a + b + c) pR 2
4r 2 4D 2
(a) 2 gh (b) (b) less than rg (a + b + c) pR 2
D2 r2
(c) greater than rg (a + b + c) pR 2
4D 2
(c) 2 gh (d) None of these (d) 2rg (a + b + c) pR 2
r2
378 JEE Main Physics
18. Water flows into a large tank with flat bottom at 24. A plane of mass 3250 g is in level flight at a
the rate of 10-4 m 3s -1. Water is also leaking out of a constant speed and each wing has an area of 25 m2.
hole of area 1 cm2 at its bottom. If the height of the During flight the speed of the air is 216 kmh–1 over
water in the tank remains steady, then this height the lower wing surface and 252 kmh–1 over the
is [JEE Main 2019] upper wing surface of each wing of aeroplane. Take
(a) 4 cm (b) 2.9 cm (c) 5.1 cm (d) 1.7 cm density of air = 1 kgm -3 and g = 10 ms–2.
19. A small spherical droplet of density d is floating If a plane is in level flight with a speed of
exactly half immersed in a liquid of density r and 360 kmh–1 then the fractional increase in the speed
surface tension T. The radius of the droplet is (take of the air on the upper surface of the wing relative
note that the surface tension applies an upward to the lower surface is
force on the droplet) [JEE Main 2020] (a) 13 % (b) 9 %
(c) 6.5 % (d) 4.5 %
3T T
(a) r = (b) r =
(2d - r ) g (d - r ) g 25. Two capillaries of radii r1 and r2 , lengths l1 and l2
respectively are in series. A liquid of viscosity h is
T 2T
(c) r = (d) r = flowing through the combination under a pressure
(d + r ) g 3(d + r ) g difference p. What is the rate of volume flow of
20. A uniform cylinder of length L and mass M having liquid?
-1
cross-sectional area A is suspended, with its length pp æ l4 l4 ö 8pp æ l1 l ö
(a) ç + ÷ (b) ç 4 + 24 ÷
vertical from a fixed point by a massless spring 8h è r14 r24 ø h è r1 r2 ø
such that it is half submerged in a liquid of density -1 -1
pp æ r14 r24 ö pp æ l1 l ö
s at equilibrium position. The extensition x0 of the (c) ç + ÷ (d) ç + 2÷
spring when it is in equilibrium is [JEE Main 2013]
8h è l1 l2 ø 8h è r14 r24 ø
28. A block is submerged in vessel filled with water by 33. A uniform rod of density r is placed in a wide tank
a spring attached to the bottom of the vessel. In containing a liquid s (s > r ). The depth of liquid in the
equilibrium, the spring is compressed. The vessel tank is half the length of the rod. The rod is in
now moves downward with an acceleration a ( < g). equilibrium, with its lower end resting on the bottom
The spring length of the tank. In this position, the rod makes an angle q
with the horizontal. Then, sin q is equal to
1 s 1s
(a) (b)
2 r 2r
r r
(c) (d)
s s
32. What is the excess pressure inside a bubble of soap 37. Water flows in a horizontal tube (see figure). The
solution of radius 5.00 mm, given that the surface pressure of water changes by 700 Nm -2 between A
tension of soap solution at the temperature (20° C) and B, where the area of cross- section are 40 cm2
. ´ 10-2 N/m? If an air bubble of the same
is 250 and 20 cm2 , respectively. Find the rate of flow of
dimension were formed at a depth of 40.0 cm inside water through the tube.
a container containing the soap solution (of relative (Take, density of water = 1000 kgm -3) [JEE Main 2020]
density 1.20), what would be the pressure inside the A
. ´ 105 Pa.)
bubble? (1 atmospheric pressure is 101 B
(a) 7.06 ´ 105 Pa
(b) 2.06 ´ 105 Pa
(c) 1.06 ´ 105 Pa (a) 3020 cm3 /s (b) 2420 cm3 /s
5
(d) 1.86 ´ 10 Pa (c) 2720 cm3 /s (d) 1810 cm3 /s
380 JEE Main Physics
h
h
10 cm
(a) h1/ 2 (b) h3 / 2
(c) h (d) h 2 25 w2 5 w2 2 w2 2 w2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2g 2g 25 g 5g
40. A streamline body with relative density r1 falls into
air from a height h1 on the surface of a liquid of Numerical Value Questions
relative density r2 , where r2 > r1. The time of
immersion of the body into the liquid will be 44. Consider a water tank as shown in the figure. Its
cross-sectional area is 0.4 m 2 . The tank has an
2h1 2h r1 opening B near the bottom whose cross-sectional
(a) (b) ´
g g r2 area is 1 cm 2 . A load of 24 kg is applied on the
2h1 r1 2h1 r1 water at the top when the height of the water level
(c) ´ (d) ´ is 40 cm above the bottom, the velocity of water
g r2 g (r 2 - r1 )
coming out the opening B is v ms -1. The value of v,
41. Calculate the force of attraction between two to the nearest integer, is …… . (Take, g = 10 ms -2 )
parallel plates separated by a distance 0.2 mm [JEE Main 2021]
after a water drop of mass 80 mg is introduced 24 kg
between them. The wetting is assumed to be complete.
A
(surface tension of water is 0.07 Nm–1)
(a) 0.14 N (b) 0.28 N
(c) 0.42 N (d) 0.56 N
42. The U-tube has a uniform cross-section as shown in
figure. A liquid is filled in the two arms upto heights
h1 and h2 and then the liquid is allowed to move. B
Neglect viscosity and surface tension. When the
level equalize in the two arms, the liquid will
45. If a solid floats with (1/4)th its volume above the
surface of water, then the density (in kgm -3) of the
solid will be ……… .
46. The largest average velocity (in ms -1) of blood flow
h1 in artery of radius 2 ´ 10-3, if the flow must remain
laminar will be ……… . (Take, viscosity of blood
h2
= 2.084 ´ 10-3 Pa-s and density of blood
= 1.06 ´ 103 kgm -3 )
Properties of Fluids 381
47. A wire ring of 30.0 mm radius resting flat on the 50. When a long glass capillary tube of radius 0.015 cm
surface of the liquid is raised. If the pull required is dipped in a liquid, the liquid rises to a height of 15
is 3.03 gf force before the film breaks, so the cm within it.If the contact angle between the liquid
surface tension (in dyne cm -1) of the liquid will be and glass is close to 0°, the surface tension of the
……… . liquid (in mN m -1) to the nearest integer is
(Take, r (liquid) = 900 kgm -3, g = 10 ms -2 ) .......... .
48. A square plate of side 10 cm moves parallel to [JEE Main 2020]
another plate with a velocity of 10 cm s-1; both
plates immersed in water. If the viscous force is 51. A bakelite beaker has volume capacity of 500 cc at
200 dyne and viscosity of water is 0.01 poise, then 30°C. When it is partially filled with Vm volume (at
their separation distance is found to be x ´ 10-2 m, 30°C) of mercury, it is found that the unfilled volume
then the value of x is ……… . of the beaker remains constant as temperature is
varied. If g (beaker) = 6 ´ 10-6 °C -1 and
49. The density of ice is 917 kg m -3. Therefore, the g (mercury) = 1.5 ´ 10-4 °C -1, where g is the coefficient of
fraction of the volume of a piece of ice while volume expansion, then Vm (in cc) is close to ........... .
floating above the fresh water will be ……… .
[JEE Main 2020]
Answers
Round I
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (a)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (d) 50. (c)
51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (d) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (c)
61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (a)
71. (d) 72. (a) 73. (c) 74. (c) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (c)
Round II
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. 3 45. 750 46. 0.98 47. 78.76 48. 5 49. 0.083 50. 101
51. 20
Solutions
Round I æ Dp ö
Þ V = V 0 ç1 - ÷
è Bø
1. Effective weight of solid of specific gravity 1 when
-1
immersed in water, will be zero. Hence, the scale pan æ Dp ö æ Dp ö
\ Density, r = r0 ç1 - ÷ = p0 ç1 + ÷
with the beaker remains unchanged. è B ø è Bø
2. When 15.0 cm of water is poured in each arm, then where, Dp = p - p0 = hr 0 g
height of water column (h 1 ) = 10 + 15 = 25 cm Pressure difference between depth and surface of
Height of spirit column (h 2) = 12.5 + 15 = 27.5 cm ocean.
æ r gy ö
Density of water (rw ) = 1 g/cm3 \ r = r0 ç1 + 0 ÷ (As, h = y)
è B ø
Density of spirit (r s ) = 0.80 g/cm3
Density of mercury (rm ) = 13.6 g/cm3 5. Ice is lighter than water. When ice melts, the volume
Let in equilibrium, the difference in the level of occupied by water is less than that of ice. Due to
mercury in both arms be h cm. which the level of water goes down.
M M
\ hrm g = h1rw g - h2r s g 6. Volume of ice = , volume of water =
h 1 rw - h 2r s 25 ´ 1 - 27.5 ´ 0.80 r s
or h= =
rm 13.6 M M æ1 1 ö
Change in volume = - =Mç - ÷
r s èr s ø
= 0.221 cm
Therefore, mercury will rise in the arm containing 7. Given, mass of girl (m) = 50 kg
spirit by 0.221 cm.
Diameter of circular heel (2r ) = 1.0 cm
3. \ Radius (r ) = 0.5 cm = 5 ´ 10-3 m
Area of circular heel ( A ) = pr 2
Spirit
Water
12.5 = 3.14 ´ (5 ´ 10-3 )2 m 2
10 cm cm
= 78.50 ´ 10-6m 2
\ Pressure exerted on the horizontal floor,
F mg
p= =
Mercury A A
50 ´ 9.8
Height of water column (h 1 ) = 10.0 cm =
78.50 ´ 10-6
Density of water (r1 ) = 1 g/cm3
= 6.24 ´ 106 Pa
Height of spirit column (h 2) = 12.5 cm 6
- 6.2 ´ 10 Pa
~
Density of spirit (r 2) = ?
The mercury column in both arms of the U-tube are at 8. Force on the base of the vessel
same level, therefore pressure in both arms will be = Pressure ´ Area of the base
same.
= hrg ´ A
\Pressure exerted by water column = Pressure exerted
= 0.4 ´ 900 ´ 10 ´ 2 ´ 10-3
by sprit column
= 7.2 N
\ p1 = p2
h 1 r1 g = h 2r 2 g
9. Depth of point P below the free surface of water in the
vessel = (H - h ). Since, the liquid exerts equal pressure
h 1 r1 10 ´ 1 in all direction at one level, hence the pressure at
or r2 = = = 0.80 g/cm3
h2 12.5 p = (H - h ) rg.
Density of spirit 10. Atmospheric pressure ( p) = 1.013 ´ 105 Pa
Specific gravity of spirit =
Density of water
Density of French wine (r ) = 984 kg/m3
0.80
= = 0.80 Let h be the height of the wine column for normal
1 atmospheric pressure.
Dp
4. As, Bulk modulus, B = -V 0 For normal atmospheric pressure ( p) = hrg
DV
p 1.013 ´ 105
Dp \ h= = = 10.5 m
Þ DV = -V 0 rg 984 ´ 9.8
B
Properties of Fluids 383
éæ4ö ù æ4 ö ρ1 5m
= ê ç ÷ rw g ú ´ ç ´ b÷
ëè2ø û è2 ø N
When tank is filled up to height 4 m, then ρ2
5m
F ' = (4 rw g ) (4 ´ b)
F ¢ 4 ´4 O
= =4
F 2 ´2 r gh
or F¢ =4F Force on portion MN = 1 ´A
2
14. Surface area, A = 4pr 2 Force on portion NO
r = ( A / 4p)
1/ 2
or = Force due to pressure of liquid in MN portion + Force
4 3 4 due to pressure of liquid in NO portion
Volume, V = pr = p ( A / 4p )3/ 2 = kA3/ 2
3 3 1
= r1 ghA + (r2ghA )
4p 1 2
where, ´ = k = constant.
3 (4 p )3/ 2 1
= r1 ghA + ´ 2r1 ´ ghA (Q r2 = 2 r1)
Using Boyle’s law, we have 2
p1V1 = p2V 2 = 2 r1 ghA
pV (10 + h ) kA13./2 1
or p2 = 1 1 = (r ghA )
V2 kA32/ 2 Required ratio,
FMN 2 1
= =
1
3/ 2 FNO 2 r1 ghA 4
æA ö
or p2 = (10 + h ) ç 1 ÷
r
è A2 ø
18. Fraction of volume immersed in the liquid, V in = æç ö÷ V
ès ø
As, p2 = 10 m of water, so
10 + h i. e. , It depends upon the densities of the block and
10 = liquid, so there will be no change in it if system moves
8
upward or downward with constant acceleration, i. e.
or 80 = 10 + h uniform acceleration.
or h = 70 m V
19. Given, 6 g = ´ 103 ´ g ...(i)
15. p1 = rgd + p0 = 3 ´ 105 Pa 3
20. The effective weight of the block in liquid will become 25. When load M is attached to wire, extension in length
less than 2 kg due to buoyancy of liquid. As a result of of wire is
which A will read less than 2 kg. Mgl
Dl1 = …(i)
As, the body immersed in liquid has some effective AY
weight acting downwards so the reading of B will be where, Y is the Young’s modulus of the wire.
more than 5 kg.
m
21. Volume of cylinder =
r
æmö M
Upthrust on cylinder = ç ÷ sg
èrø Mg
From Newton’s third law, the downward force exerted When load is immersed in liquid of relative density 2,
æmö increase in length of wire as shown in the figure is
by cylinder on the liquid is = ç ÷ sg
èrø
msg FB
\ Increase in pressure =
rA
22. Given, size of the plate = 2m×5m and
M
Greatest and least depths of the plate are 6m and 4m.
We know that area of the plate A = 2 ´ 3 = 6 m2
Mg
and depth of centre of the plate,
6+4 (Mg - FB )l
x= = 5 m (mean depth) Dl2 =
2 AY
\Total thrust on the plate, where, FB = buoyant force.
r = rw g A × x æ r ö
= 103 ´ 9.8 ´ 6 ´ 5 ç Mg - Mg . l ÷ l
è rb ø é Mg ù
= 294 ´ 103 N \ Dl2 = êQ FB = Vrl g = rl g ú
AY ë rb û
23. The speed of the body just before entering the liquid is rl 2 1
v = 2 gh . The buoyant force FB of the lake (i. e. , Here given that, = =
rb 8 4
upward thrust of liquid on the body) is greater than
the weight of the body w, since s > r. If V is the æ3 ö
ç Mg ÷ l
volume of the body and a is the acceleration of the è4 ø
So, Dl2 = …(ii)
body inside the liquid, then FB - w = ma AY
or sVg - rVg = rVa Dividing Eqs. (ii) by (i), we get
or (s - r ) g = ra Dl2 3
=
(s - r ) g Dl1 4
or a=
r
3 3
Using the relation, v2 = u 2 + 2as, we have Þ Dl2 = ´ Dl1 = ´ 4 mm = 3 mm
4 4
(s - r )
0 = ( 2 gh )2 - 2 g s
r 26. For a floating body, upthrust = weight of the part of
hr object, i.e. submerged in the fluid.
or s=
s -r In first situation,
24. Let D1 be the inner diameter of the hemispherical bowl
and D2 be the outer diameter of the bowl. As, bowl is 4
just floating so 5V
4 éæ1ö æD ö ù
Water
3 3 3
4 æ1ö
p ç ÷ ´ 1.2 ´ 103 = p ê ç ÷ - ç 1 ÷ ú ´ (2 ´ 104 )
3 è2ø 3 êë è 2 ø è 2 ø ú
û So, weight of block of volume V = weight of
1.2 ´ 103 3 4 4
or = 1 - D1 water of volume V Þ Vrb g = Vrw g
2 ´ 104 5 5
1/3 1/3
æ 1.2 ö æ 18.8 ö where, rb = density of block
Þ D1 = ç1 - ÷ =ç ÷
è 20 ø è 20 ø and rw = density of water.
On solving, we get rb 4
Þ = … (i)
D1 = 0.98 m rw 5
Properties of Fluids 385
In second situation, 29. Let v be the volume of ice-berg outside the sea water
V
while floating. Therefore, volume of ice-berg inside the
2
sea water = (V - v). As ice-berg is floating, so weight of
Oil
ice-berg = weight of sea water displaced by ice-berg.
Water V i. e. V ´ 0.9 ´ g = (V - v) ´ 1.1 ´ g
2
or 1.1 v = 1.1 V - 0 /9 V
or v / V = 0.2 /1.1 = 2 / 11
So, weight of block of volume V = weight of oil of 30. Let l be the length of the cylinder in water when it is
V V in the vertical position and A be the cross-sectional
volume + weight of water of volume . area of the cylinder. As cylinder is floating, so
2 2
weight of cylinder = upward thrust
V V
Þ Vrb g = r o g + rw g or mg = Alrg
2 2
or m = Alr
where, r o = density of oil.
When the cylinder is tilted through an angle q, then
Þ 2 rb = r o + rw l
2 rb r o length of cylinder in water =
Þ = +1 cos q
rw rw
l
4 ro Weight of water displaced = Arg
Þ 2´ = +1 [using Eq. (i)] cos q
5 rw lA r g
\ Restoring force = - lA r g
Þ r 0 / rw = 8 / 5 - 1 = 3 / 5 = 0.6 cos q
27. Initially the position of wooden block is as shown in é 1 ù
= lArg ê - 1ú
Fig. (a). Since, the density of block is half than that of ë cos q û
water, hence half of its volume is immersed in water. é 1 ù
= mg ê - 1ú
w ë cos q û
l
31. Fig. (i) is incorrect. From equation of continuity, the
l speed of liquid is larger at smaller area. According to
l
Bernoulli’s theorem, due to larger speed, the pressure
will be lower at smaller area (large velocity) and
therefore height of liquid column will also be at lesser
height, while in Fig. (i) height of liquid column at
narrow area in higher.
When weight w is put on the block, the remaining half 32. If the liquid is incompressible, then mass of liquid per
of the volume of block is immersed in water, figure (b). second entering through left end should be equal to
Therefore, mass of liquid coming out from the right end.
w = additional upthrust + spring force M = M1 + M 2
l ælö Þ rAv1 = rAv2 + r (1.5 A )v
= l ´ l ´ ´ 2r ´ g + k ç ÷
2 è2ø Þ Av1 = Av2 + 1.5 Av
æ kö A ´ 3 = A ´ 1.5 + 1.5 ´ v ´ A
= l ç l 2rg + ÷
è 2ø Þ 1.5 = 1.5v
28. Mass of the cylinders = AL (r1 + r2). As cylinders float v = 1 m/s
with length L /2 outside the water, therefore length of 33. According to equation of continuity, av = constant. As v
cylinder inside the water = 3 L /2. When cylinders are increases, a decreases.
floating, then, weight of cylinder = weight of water 34. Using theorem of continuity, we have
displaced by cylinder.
pD 2pv p = pDQ2 vQ
So, AL (r1 + r 2) g = A (3L / 2) ´ 1 ´ g 2
æ DQ ö
or r1 + r 2 = 3 / 2 vp = ç ÷ vQ
è DP ø
As, r1 < r 2 æ 4 ´ 10-2 ö
=ç ÷ ´ vQ = 4 vQ
so, r1 < 3 / 4 è 2 ´ 10-2 ø
386 JEE Main Physics
δ δ 1 1
38. As, p1 + rv12 = p2 + rv22 (from Bernoulli’s equation)
2 2
By conservation of volume,
1
(Vsystem )initial = (Vsystem )final or p1 - p2 = r (v22 - v12)
2
Sx1 + Sx2 = Sxf + Sxf 1
= ´ 1.3 ´ (1202 - 902)
x1 + x2 = xf + xf 2
x1 + x2 = 2xf = 4.095 ´ 103 Nm–2
x + x2 Gross lift on the wing = ( p1 - p2) ´ Area
xf$ = 1 …(i)
2 = 4.095 ´ 103 ´ 10 ´ 2
Now, initial energy of system, = 81.9 ´ 103 N
(U system )initial = M1 gh1 + M 2gh2 39. Vertical distance covered by water before striking
= dV1 gh1 + dV 2gh2 ground = (H - h ). Time taken is, t = 2 (H - g ) × g ;
æx ö æx ö Horizontal velocity of water coming out of hole at
= dSx1 g ç 1 ÷ + dSx2g ç 2 ÷
è2ø è2ø P , u = 2 gh
1 1 \ Horizontal range = ut
= dSgx12 + dSgx22
2 2 = 2 gh ´ 2 (H - g )/ g
1 = 2 h (H - h )
= dSg (x1 + x22)
2
…(ii)
2
and final energy of system, 40. If h is the initial height of liquid in drum above the
small opening, then velocity of efflux, v = 2 gh . As the
(U system )final = M ¢ gh ¢ + M ¢ gh ¢ water drains out, h decreases, hence v decreases. This
= dV ¢ gh ¢ + dV ¢ gh ¢ reduces the rate of drainage of water. Due to which, as
æx ö æx ö the drainage continues, a longer time is required to
= dSxf g ç f ÷ + dSxf g ç f ÷
è2ø è2ø drain out the same volume of water. So, clearly
t1 < t2 < t3 .
Properties of Fluids 387
41. Let the lower and upper surface of the wings of the 46. If r is the radius of smaller droplet and R is the radius
aeroplane be at the same height h and speeds of air on of bigger drop, then according to question,
the upper and lower surfaces of the wings be v1 and v2. 4 4
pR3 = 106 ´ pr3
Speed of air on the upper surface of the wing, 3 3
v1 = 70 m/s R
or r= = 0.01 R
Speed of air on the lower surface of the wing, 100
v2 = 63 m/s = 0.01 ´ 10–2 m = 10–4 m
Density of the air, r = 1.3 kg/m3 \ Work done = Surface tension ´ Increase in area
Area, A = 2.5 m 2 = 35 ´ 10–2 ´ [(106 ´ 4 p ´ (10-4 )2 - 4p ´ (10-3 )2]
According to Bernoulli’s theorem, = 4.35 ´ 10–2 J
1 1
p1 + rv12 + rgh = p2 + rv 2 + rgh 47. Increase in surface energy = surface tension ´ increase
2 2
1 in surface area
or p2 - p1 = r(v1 - v22)
2
2
= S (1000 ´ 4 pr - 4 pR ) 2
2
æ 4 3 4 2 Rö
\Lifting force acting on the wings, ç100 ´ pr = R or r = ÷
1 è 3 3 10 ø
F = ( p2 - p1 ) ´ A = r (v12 - v22) ´ A éêQ pressure =
force ù
2 ë area úû æ R2 ö
= S ´ 4 p ç1000 ´ - R2÷ = 36 pR2S
1 è 100 ø
= ´ 1.3 ´ [( 70)2 - (63)2] ´ 2.5
2
1
48. Let R and R¢ be the radius of bubble of volume V and
= ´ 1.3 [4900 - 3969] ´ 2.5 2 V respectively, then
2
4 4
1 pR3 = V and pR¢3 = 2 V
= ´ 1.3 ´ 931 ´ 2.5 = 1.51 ´ 103 N 3 3
2 3
R¢
42. As, weight of metal disc = total upward force So, = 2 or R¢ = (2)1/3 R
R3
T
θ θ T As W = S ´ (4 pR2)2
r and W ¢ = S ´ (4 pR¢2)2
W ¢ R ¢2
= 2 = 223 /
= (4)1/3
W R
= upthrust force + force due of surface tension or W ¢ = (4)1/3 W
= weight of displaced water + T cos q (2 pr ) 4 4
49. As, pR3 = 1000 ´ pr3
= w + 2 prT cos q 3 3
Þ R = 10 r
43. Force on the ring due to surface tension of water
Surface energy of small drop, E1 = S ´ 4 pr 2
= (pD1 + pD2) S = mg
Surface energy of large drop, E 2 = S ´ 4 p (10 r )2
mg 3.47 ´ 980
So, S= = \ E1 /E 2 = 1 /100
p (D1 + D2) (22 /7) ´ (8.5 + 8.7)
= 62.96 dyne cm–1 50. Since, the bubbles coalesce in vacuum and there is no
change in temperature, hence its surface energy does
44. Let R be the radius of the biggest aluminium coin not change. This means that the surface area remains
which will be supported on the surface of water due to unchanged. Hence,
surface tension.
4 p a 2 + 4 p b 2 = 4 p R2
Then, mg = S ´ 2 pR
or R = a 2 + b2
or pR2t rg = S ´ 2 pR
or R = 2 S /rgt 51. As, Tc = T0 (1 - at ), i. e. surface tension decreases with
increase in temperature. Therefore, graph shown in
45. As volume remains constant, i. e. R3 = 8000 r3 or option (b) is correct.
R = 20 r
52. Change in surface area = 2 ´ 4 p [(D /2)2 - (d /2)2]
Surface energy of one big drop
Now, = 2 p (D 2 - d 2)
Surface energy of 8000 small drops
\Work done = surface tension ´ change in area
4 pR2T R2 = 2pS (D 2 - d 2)
= =
8000 ´ 4pr T 8000 r 2
2
53. Excess of pressure inside a soap bubble is given by
(20 r )2 1 4T
= = Dp = pi - po =
8000 r 2 20 R
388 JEE Main Physics
(Dp)I 4T / R1 R2 r2
Hence, = =
(Dp)II 4T / R2 R1
0.01 R2
Þ = r1
0.02 R1
R1 2
Þ =
R2 1 4S 4S 4S
\Excess pressure, p = = -
Now, ratio of volumes of soap bubbles is r r1 r2
4 1 r2 - r1
pR3 3 3 Þ =
V1 3 1 æ R1 ö æ2ö r r1 r2
= = ç ÷ = ç ÷ = 8 :1
V 2 4 pR3 è R2 ø è1ø
2 r1 r2
3 Þ r=
r2 - r1
Hence, option (c) is correct.
THg r Hg 57. Let at a time t, dV be the decrease in volume of water
54. Given, = 7.5, = 13.6 in vessel in time dt. Therefore, rate of decrease of
Tw rw
water in vessel = rate of water flowing out of narrow
cos qHg cos 135° 1 tube
and = =
cos qw cos 0° 2 dV p ( p1 - p2) r 4
So, =
Height of the fluid inside capillary tube is given by dt 8 hl
2T cos q But, p1 = p2 = hrg
h=
rgr
dV p (hrg ) r 4 (prgr 4 )
According to given situation, hw = hHg \ - = = ´ (h ´ A )
dt 8 hl 8 hl ´ A
2 Tw cos qw 2THg cos qHg
\ = where h ´ A = volume of water in vessel at a time t = V
rw g rw r Hg g rHg
æ p rgr 4 ö
rHg æ THg ö æ cos qHg ö æ rW ö \ dV = - ç ÷ ´ V dt = - lV dt
\ =ç ÷ç ÷ çç ÷÷ è 8 hlA ø
rw è Tw ø è cos qw ø è r Hg ø
dV
Given, rHg = r1 and rw = r2, then or = -l dt
V
Substituting the given values, we get prgr 4
rHg r1 1 1 where, = l = constant
= = 7.5 ´ ´ 8 hlA
rw r2 2 13.6
Integrating it within the limits as time changes from 0
= 0.4 = 2 / 5
to t, volume changes from V 0 to V .
55. By ascent formula, we have surface tension, V
or log e = -lt or V = V 0e- lt
rhg N V0
T= ´ 103
2 m
where, V 0 = initial volume of water in vessel = Ah0
dhg N æ dö
= ´ 103 çQ r = ÷ Therefore, h ´ A = h0 Ae- lt or h = h0e- lt
4 m è 2ø
Thus, the variation of h and t will be represented by
DT Dd Dh
Þ = + [given, g is constant] exponential curve as given by (a).
T d h
Properties of Fluids 389
58. Volume of liquid flowing per second through each of 67. Due to surface tension, water rises in the capillary
the two tubes in series will be the same. So, tube upto a height, h with concave meniscus on both
pr R4 pp2(R /2)4 p 1 the sides. Therefore, the total height of water column
V = 1 = or 1 = in the capillary tube = h + h = 2 h.
8 hL 8h (L /2) p2 4
2S cos q
p 68. As, h= (height raised = h)
59. Rate of flow of liquid, V = r rg
R
8 hl hr rg hr
where liquid resistance, R = or S= or S µ
pr 2 2 cos q cos q
For another tube, liquid resistance, Sw h cos q2 r1
\ = 1´ ´
8 hl 8 hl S Hg h2 cos q1 r 2
R¢ = 4
= 4 × 16 = 16 R
æ rö pr 10 cos 135° 1
pç ÷ = ´ ´
è2ø (-3.42) cos0° 13.6
For series combination, 10 0.707 1
= ´ =
p p p V 3.42 13.6 6.5
V new = = = =
R + R¢ R + 16 R 17 R 17 DV 8
69. The velocity gradient, = = 80 s –1
ppr4
p (3 p + p) (r /2) 4 Dr 0.1
60. As, V = and V ¢ =
2 r 2rg
8 hl 8 hl 70. Given, v = …(i)
V¢ 1 9h
\ = 4 ´ (1 / 2)4 = 4 3 4
V 4 Mass = pr r = p (2 r )3 r1 or r1 = r /8
V 3 3
or V¢= Terminal velocity of second ball is
4
2 (2 r )2 (r /8) g v
61. Excess pressure at common surface is given by v1 = =
8h 2
æ 1 1 ö 4T
pex = 4T ç - ÷ = 2R2 (r - r 0 ) g
è a bø r 71. Terminal velocity, v =
1 1 1 9h
\ = - v 2 (r - r 0 ) g
r a b or = = constant
ab R2 9h
r=
b-a
72. Terminal speed of a sphere falling in a viscous fluid is
62. The meniscus of liquid in a capillary tube will be 2 r2
convex upwards if angle of contact is obtuse. It is so vT = (r 0 - r f ) g
when one end of glass capillary tube is immersed in a 9 h
where, h = coefficient of viscosity of fluid,
trough of mercury.
r 0 = density of falling sphere
63. As excess pressure p µ 1 / r, therefore pressure inside
and r f = density of fluid.
C is highest and pressure inside B is lowest. The
As we know, if other parameters remains constant,
pressure inside A is in between of B and C. Therefore,
terminal velocity is proportional to square of radius of
C starts collapsing with volume of A and B increasing.
falling sphere.
64. When lift is accelerated downwards, the observed i.e. vT µ r 2 …(i)
weight of body in a lift decreases. Hence, to counter
Now, when sphere of radius R is broken into 27
balance the upward pull due to surface tension on the
identical solid sphere of radius r, then
liquid meniscus, the height through which the liquid
rises must increase. Volume of sphere of radius R = 27 ´ Volume of sphere
of radius r
65. There will be no over flowing of liquid in a tube of 4 4
insufficient height but there will be adjustment of the Þ pR3 = 27 ´ pr3
3 3
radius of curvature of meniscus so that hR = a finite
constant. Þ R = 3r
R
Here, the maximum height upto which the fluid can Þ r=
rise is 16.3 cm. If the height of the tube is only 12 cm, 3
Water will be able to rise only upto 12 cm because no So, from Eq. (i), we have
tube means no adhesion pulling further upwards. v1 R2
= =9
66. Height, h µ 1 /R v2 æ R ö 2
ç ÷
So, h1 /h2 = R2 /R1 = 0.4 /0.2 = 2 è3ø
390 JEE Main Physics
73. When a round pebble is dropped from the top of a tall 0.48 ´ 10-3 1 ´ 10-2
(Re )final = 103 ´ ´
cylinder, filled with viscous oil the pebble acquires p ´ (0.5 ´ 10-2)2 ´ 60 10-3
terminal velocity (i.e., constant velocity) after some = 1019.09
time.
So, option (d) is correct.
Hence, graph in option (c) represents velocity (v) of the
pebble as a function of time (t ). 3. As, work done = surface tension ´ increase in area
Þ W = surface tension
74. When terminal velocity v is reaching, then ´ [0.10 ´ 0.006 - 0.10 ´ 0.005] ´ 2
4 3
F = 2 ´ 10-5 v = pr rg -2
= 7.2 ´ 10 ´ 0.10 ´ 0.001 ´ 2
3
Þ 2 ´ 10-5 v =
4 22
´ ´ (1.5 ´ 10–3 )3 ´ 103 ´ 10 = 1.44 ´ 10-5 J
3 7 4. As we know according to equation of continuity, when
On solving, v = 7.07 ms –1 » 7 ms –1 cross-section of duct decreases, the velocity of flow of
75. Gravitational force remains constant on the falling liquid increases and in accordance with Bernoulli’s
spherical ball. It is represented by straight line P. The theorem, in a horizontal pipe, the place where speed of
viscous force (F = 6 phrv) increases as the velocity liquid is maximum, the value of pressure is minimum.
increases with time. Hence, it is represented by curve Hence, the 2nd graph correctly represents the
Q. Net force = gravitational force – viscous force. As variation of pressure.
viscous force increases, net force decreases and finally 5. When a coin placed on the top of a wooden box floating
becomes zero. Then the body falls with a constant in water falls in water, upthrust on the block
terminal velocity. It is thus represented by curve R. decreases. Due to it, l decreases as well as h decreases.
76. Work done against air friction is the average gain in 4S 4S 4S
6. Excess pressure - =
kinetic energy before attaining the terminal velocity r1 r2 r
1 2 1 1 1 1 1 1
0 + mvter or = - = - =
2 1 2
W1 = = mvter r r1 r2 4 5 20
2 4
Work done against air friction after attaining terminal or r = 20 cm
velocity is 7. The effective weight of ball in liquid w3 becomes less
1 2 then w1 due to buoyancy of liquid. As, the ball
W 2 = mvmax
2 immersed in liquid has some effective weight acting
\ W 2 > W1 vertically downwards, so, w4 > w2.
77. If v is the terminal velocity, then equation of force, 8. As, net force = Averge pressure ´ Area - T ´ 2 R
xg - yg = 6 p hrv æ hö
(x - y) g (x - y) = ç p0 + rg ÷ (2 Rh ) - T 2R
or v= or v µ è 2ø
r 6 ph r
= |2 p0Rh + Rrgh 2 - 2 RT|
Round II 9. Let H be the height above O at which the total force F
1. Angle of contact increases due to less adhesive force would have to act to produce the given torque. Then
between wax molecule and liquid molecule, inside the H ´F = t
capillary. Hence, height is reduced. t
or H =
F
2. The nature of flow is determined by Reynolds number.
rvD rglh3 /6 h
Re = H = =
h (r glh 2/ 2) 3
| D p| = r L D t v (-1)2 + (-1)2 = 2 r LD t v
| Dp |
Force exerted by water, F = = 2rLv
Dt
kx0
24. If v1 and v2 are the speeds of air on the lower and
upper surface of the wings of aeroplane and p1 , p2 are
FB
the pressures there, then
Assume difference,
1
p1 - p2 = r (v22 - v12)
Mg 2
æv + v ö
or Dp = r ç 2 1 ÷ (v2 - v1 ) = rvav (v2 - v1 )
Here, kx0 is restoring force of spring and FB is è 2 ø
buoyancy force.
Here, vav = 360 kmh -1 = 100 ms -1
L
kx0 + s Ag = Mg v2 - v1 Dp mg / A 3250 ´ 10 / 50
2 Þ = 2 = =
2
sLAg vav rvav rvav 1 ´ (100)2
Mg -
x0 = 2 = Mg æç1 - sLA ö÷ = 0.065 = 6.5%
k k è 2M ø
2( p1 - p2) 25. The rate of flow of liquid (V ) through capillary tube is
21. v = a1a 2
r (a12 - a 22) p pr 2 æ pr 4 ö p pressure difference
V = = pç ÷= =
2( p1 - p2) 8hhl è 8hl ø R resistance
= pr12 ´ pr22
r [(pr12)2 - (pr22)2] 8hhl
where, T=
2( p1 - p2) pr 4
= pr12r22
r (r14 - r24 ) When two tubes are in series,
total resistance, R = R1 + R2
22 2 ´ 10
= ´ (0.1)2 ´ (0.04)2 p
7 (1.25 ´ 103 )[(0.1)4 - (0.04)4 ] Rate of flow of liquid, V ' =
R1 + R2
= 6.4 ´ 10-4m3s -1
p
22. Let V be the volume of wooden ball. The mass of ball is =
8h é l1 l2 ù
m = V r. ê 4 + 4ú
p ë r r 2 û
Upward acceleration,
upward thrust - weight of ball -1
a= p p é l1 l2 ù
mass of ball = ê 4 + 4ú
V r 0 g - Vrg (r 0 - r ) g 8 h ë r1 r2 û
Þ a= =
Vr r
26. Let V 0 , V t = volume of the metal ball at 0° C and t° C
If v¢ is the velocity of ball on reaching the surface after
respectively, r 0 r 2 = density of alcohol at 0° C and t° C
being released at depth h is
1/ 2 respectively. Then
é æ p -rö ù
v = 2as = ê2ç 0 ÷ gh ú W1 = W 0 - V 0 r 0 g
ë è r ø û
W 2 = W t - V t rt g
If h' is the vertical distance reached by ball above the
surface of water, then r0
where, V t = V 0 (1 + gmt ) and r t =
v2 2(r 0 - r ) 1 (1 + g al )
h' = = gh ´
2g r 2g Upthrust at t° C = V tr t g
ær -rö æ r0 ö r0
=ç 0 ÷ h = ç - 1÷ h = V 0 (1 + gmt ) ´ g
è r ø èr ø (1 + g at )
23. In time Dt, momentum of water entering the hydrant (1 + gml )
= V 0 r0 g
p1 = (rLDt )v$j (1 + g al )
Momentum of water while leaving the hydrant in time As gm < g a , hence upthrust at t° C is less than at 0° C. It
Dt is means upthrust has been decreased with increase in
p = (rLDt )v(- $i )
2 temperature. Due to which W 2 > W1.
Properties of Fluids 393
4S Alternate Solution
Excess pressure inside the soap bubble =
r According to the given figure, force inside the capillary
4 ´ 2.5 ´ 10-2 tube is
= = 20 Pa
5.0 ´ 10-3 2πrT
2S
Excess pressure inside the air bubble =
R
2 ´ 2.5 ´ 10-2
= = 10 Pa
5.0 ´ 10-3 Mg
37. By equation of continuity for sections A and B, we have Let, a = area of cross-section of each hole
AAvA = AB vB r = density of the liquid
This Pdf Is
Download From
www.jeeneetadda.in
VISIT NOW !!
396 JEE Main Physics
42. When, there is an equal level of liquid in two arms of At topmost point of profile of rotating fluid body, y = h
U-tube, the height of liquid in each arm of U-tube and x = R
h + h2 w2R2
= 1 . We may consider that a height, Þ h=
2 2g
(h + h2) h1 - h2
h1 - 1 = of the liquid has been Given, R = 5 cm
2 2
transferred from left arm to right arm of U-tube w2(5)2 25 w2
æ h - h2 ö Þ h= = cm
=ç 1 ÷ Ar 2g 2g
è 2 ø
Hence, correct option is (a).
where, A = area of cross-section of tube and r = density of
liquid.
44. p0
æ n - n2 ö m
The decrease in height of this liquid = ç 1 ÷
è 2 ø
2 A
æ h - h2 ö v1
Loss in potential energy of this liquid = ç 1 ÷ Arg
è 2 ø H
The mass of the entire liquid in U-tube p0
v
= (h1 + h2 + h )rA a
If this liquid moves with velocity v, then its
1 Given, m = 24 kg
KE = (h1 + h2 + h )r A v2
2 A = 0.4 m2
Using law of conservation of energy, we have a = 1 cm2
1 æ h - h2 ö
2 H = 40 cm
(h1 + h2 + h )r A v2 = ç 1 ÷ Ar g
2 è 2 ø Using Bernoulli's equation,
g æ mg ö 1 2
or v = (h1 - h2) Þ ç p0 + ÷ + rgH + rv1
2(h1 + h2 + h ) è Aø 2
1 2
43. Let tangent at any point P (x, y) makes angle q with Þ p0 + 0 + rv …(i)
2
X-axis as shown below
Neglecting v1, we get
Y N cos θ
2mg
N Þ v = 2 gH +
B θ P (x, y) Ar
mxω
y θ
Þ v = 8 + 1.2
N′
mg Þ v = 3.033 m/s
x
Þ v = 3 m/s
45. Let V and r be volume and density of solid
θ
X respectively and r¢ be the density of water, i.e.
p¢ = 103 kg m-3
In rotating frame of vessel, let N be normal reaction. Weight of body = Vrg
Then,
Volume of solid body outside water = V /4
N cos q = mg and N sin q = mxw2
\Volume of solid body inside water
w2x = V - V / 4 = 3V / 4
Þ tan q =
g
Weight of water displaced by solid
dy 3V
But tan q = = slope of tangent = ´ 103 ´ g
dx 4
dy w2x As solid body is floating, then
\ =
dx g Weight of body = Weight of water displaced by it
w2x 3V
Þ y = ò dy = ò × dx Vrg = ´ 103 g
g 4
w2 x2 3
Þ y= × r = ´ 1000 = 750 kg m-3
g 2 4
Properties of Fluids 397
Triple Point
Triple point is a state in which ice, water and water vapour can stay together
in equilibrium. It refers to temperature at the equilibrium.
\The temperature scale is given by the equation
p
T = lim ´ 273.16 K
ptr ® 0 p
tr
Thermometry, Calorimetry and Heat Transfer 399
Sol. (d) By principle of thermometry, for any linear temperature Expansion of Solids
scale,
T - TLFP Three types of expansion takes place in solid.
= a (constant)
TUFP - TLFP Linear expansion (expansion in length of a solid)
where, T = temperature measured, Consider a rod of length l1 at a temperature q 1. Let it be
TLFP = temperature of melting ice or lower fixed point heated to a temperature q 2 and the increased length of
the rod be l2, then
and TUFP = temperature of boiling water or upper fixed point.
If T = temperature of given object, then l2 = l1 (1 + aq)
x0 x0 where, a = coefficient of linear expansion and q = q 2 - q 1.
-
T - 0° C T 1
we have, = 2 3 Þ = Superficial expansion (expansion in surface area)
100° C - 0° C x - 0 x 100 4 If A1 is the area of solid at q 1° C and A2 is the area at
0
3 q 2° C, then
Þ T = 25° C A2 = A1 (1 + bq)
Example 2. The resistance of a platinum-resistance where, b = coefficient of superficial (areal) expansion and
thermometer is found to be 11.00 W when dipped in a triple q = q 2 - q 1.
point cell. When it is dipped in a bath, resistance is found to be Volume expansion (expansion in volume)
28.887 W. Find the temperature of bath in °C on platinum If V1 is the volume of solid at q 1° C and V 2 is the volume at
scale. q 2°C, then
(a) 444.17 °C (b) 333.17 °C (c) 450.17 °C (d) 350.17 °C V 2 = V1 (1 + g q)
Sol. (a) In terms of triple point of water, temperature of bath, where, g = coefficient of cubical (volume) expansion
é
and q = q 2 - q 1.
Rù
TK = ê273.16 ú K
ë Rtr û Note For isotropic solids, b = 2 a, g = 3 a, i .e . a : b : g = 1: 2 : 3
28.887
So, TK = 273.16 ´ = 717.32 K
.
1100 Expansion of Liquids
Now, as TC = TK - 273.15 Thermal expansion in liquids is identical to that of
TC = 717.32 - 273.15 = 444.17° C volume expansion in solids and is governed by the
relationship which is V = V 0 (1 + g Dq ), g for liquids is
Example 3. A faulty thermometer has its fixed points generally higher than that of solids.
marked as 5° and 95°. The temperature of a body as Liquids have two coefficients of volume expansion
measured by the faulty thermometer is 59°. Find the correct (i) Coefficient of real expansion ( g r ), which is due
temperature of the body on Celsius scale. to the actual increase in volume of liquid due to
(a) 30°C (b) 45°C (c) 60°C (d) 75°C heating.
Sol. (c) Let q0 be the lower fixed point of the faulty thermometer (ii) Coefficient of apparent expansion ( g a ), which
and N be the number of divisions between its lower and the is apparent increase in the volume of liquid if
upper fixed points. If a temperature C on Celsius scale expansion of vessel containing the liquid is not
corresponds to temperature q on the scale of faulty thermometer, taken into account.
then \ g r = g a + gV
C - 0 q - q0 Here, g V = expansion of vessel.
= …(i)
100 N Generally, with increasing temperature, the coefficient of
Here, q0 = 5°; N = 95 - 5 = 90 and q = 59° volume expansion of liquids is about ten times greater
Therefore, Eq. (i) becomes, than that of solids. Water is an exception to this rule. From
0°C to 4°C, water contracts and beyond 4°C, it expands.
C - 0 59 - 5
= Thus, density of water reaches a maximum value of
100 95 - 5
1000 kgm–3 at 4°C.
54
or C= ´ 100 or C = 60° C
90
Volume
Density
Thermal Expansion
It has been a general observation that heating a body is
accompanied by an increase in size of the body. This 4°C 4°C
phenomenon is called thermal expansion. Temperature Temperature
(a) (b)
There are three types of thermal expansion
Thermometry, Calorimetry and Heat Transfer 401
r
Expansion of Gases \ r¢ =
1 + gDT
On heating, gases expand more than solids or liquids and
equal volumes of different gases expand equally, when This expression can also be written as
heated by the same amount. r ¢ = r (1 + gDT )–1
All gases have coefficient of volume expansion g V with As g is small, (1 + gDT )–1 » 1 – gDT
volume variation given by \ r ¢ » r (1 – gDT )
V = V 0 (1 + g V Dq ) ● Effect of temperature on upthrust When a solid
and pressure variation given by body is completely immersed in a liquid, its apparent
p = p0 (1 + g pDq ) weight gets decreased due to an upthrust acting on it
by the liquid. The apparent weight is given by,
Applications of Thermal Expansion wapp = w – F
● There is a common misconception that, if the object Here, F = upthrust = V S r L g
having hole inside it expands, the hole will shrink where, V S = volume of solid
because material expands into the hole. and r L = density of liquid.
But in actual, if the object expands, the hole will expand Now, as the temperature is increased, V S increases,
too, because every linear dimension of an object changes while r L decreases. So, F may increase or decrease (or
in the same way when the temperature changes. may remain constant also) depending upon the
condition that which factor dominates on the other.
a + ∆a We can write
a Ti + ∆T F ¢ V S¢ r L¢
Ti F µ V S r L or = ×
F VS r L
b b + ∆b
(a) Before heating (b) After heating
After solving, we get
æ 1 + g S DT ö
● Expansion of a bimetallic strip A bimetallic strip F¢ = F ç ÷
è 1 + g L DT ø
based on thermal expansion, is used to convert a
temperature change into mechanical displacement. The Now, if g S > g L , F ¢ > F
strip consists of two strips of different metals which or wapp¢ < wapp and vice-versa.
expand at different rates as they are heated. The ¢ = wapp
and if g S = g L , F ¢ = F or wapp
different expansions forces on the flat strip bend in one
● Effect of temperature on the time period of a
way, if they heated and in the opposite direction, if
pendulum The time period of a simple pendulum is
cooled below its initial temperature.
given by
Each strip (made by different substance) has its own
l
average value of coefficient of thermal expansion, T = 2p or T µ l
therefore length of their bimetallic strip also differs. g
For example, the brass rod expands more than the steel As the temperature is increased, length of the
rod as shown in figure below because brass has a pendulum is also increased and hence, time period gets
greater average coefficient of expansion than steel. increased or a pendulum clock becomes slow and it
Steel
loses the time.
Time lost in time t (by a pendulum clock whose actual
time period is T and the changed time period at some
æ DT ö
higher temperature is T ¢ ) is Dt = ç ÷t
Brass è T¢ ø
Room temperature Higher temperature Similarly, if the temperature is decreased, then due to
decrease in length, the time period gets decreased. A
Some Important Points Related pendulum clock in this case runs fast and it gains the
to Thermal Expansion time and time gained in time t is the same.
● Variation of density with temperature Most æ DT ö
substances expand when they are heated, i.e., volume i.e. Dt = ç ÷t
è T¢ ø
of a given mass of a substance increases on heating, so
æ 1ö ● Induced stress due to change in temperature
the density should decrease ç as r µ ÷. The density When a rod whose ends are rigidly fixed to prevent
è Vø
from expansion or contraction undergoes a change in
( r ) varies with increase in temperature as
temperature, thermal stresses are developed in the rod.
402 JEE Main Physics
This is because, if the temperature is increased, the rod On dividing Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
has a tendency to expand but since, it is fixed at two 12 ( q - 20) = 4 ( 40 - q)
ends, the rod exerts a force on supports. Þ q = 25° C
l, α
Clock shows correct time at 25°C.
Dl Specific Heat
Thermal strain = = a × DT
l The quantity of heat in calorie required to raise the
So, thermal stress = (Y ) (thermal strain) temperature of 1 g of that substance by 1°C is known as
= YaDT specific heat (s) of a substance. Its unit is cal g- 1C- 1.
or force on supports F = A (stress)
The heat lost by a body or gained from a body depends
= YA aDT
upon the difference in the temperature.
Here, Y = Young’s modulus of elasticity of the rod.
The heat lost or gained by a body, Q = msDq
Example 4. A steel ring of 3.000 inch inside diameter at where, m = mass of the body, s = specific heat
20°C is to be heated and slipped over a brass shaft measuring and Dq = rise or fall in the temperature of body.
3.002 inch in diameter at 20°C. To what temperature should
the ring be heated? (Take, asteel = 1.1 ´ 10–5 °C -1) Note Specific heat for ice, s ice = 0.5 cal g–1C–1
(a) 70.6°C (b) 75.6°C for water, s water = 1 cal g–1C–1
(c) 80.6°C (d) 78.6°C for steam , s steam = 0.47 cal g–1C–1
Sol. (b) Let q be the temperature to which the ring must be
heated.
Final diameter of ring should be 3.002 inch. Calorimetry
d 2 = d1 [1 + aDT ] Calorimetry means measurement of heat. A device in
Þ 3.002 = 3 [1 + a ( q - 20)] [d 2 = final diameter which heat measurement can be made is called a
and d1 = initial diameter]
calorimeter.
3.002 - 3 1 calorie is the quantity of heat required to raise the
Þ q= + 20 temperature of 1 g of water by 1°C.
3a
Þ q = 75.6° C
Water Equivalent
Example 5. A pendulum clock loses 12 s a day, if the It is the quantity of water whose thermal capacity is
temperature is 40°C and goes fast by 4 s a day if the same as the heat capacity of the body. It is denoted by W.
temperature is 20°C. Find the temperature at which the clock W = ms = heat capacity of the body
will show correct time and the coefficient of linear expansion
of the metal of the pendulum clock. Principle of Calorimetry
(a) 120°C, 1.85 ´ 10–5 ºC–1 (b) 28°C, 1.85 ´ 10–6 ºC–1
When two bodies at different temperatures are placed in
(c) 25 °C, 1.85 ´ 10–5 ºC–1 (d) 27°C, 1.85 ´ 10–6 ºC–1 contact with each other or mixed with each other
Sol. (c) A pendulum clock keeps proper time at temperature q1 (liquid-in-liquid, solid-in-liquid), the heat will pass from
and if temperature is increased to q2 > q1, then due to linear the body at higher temperature to the body at lower
expansion, length of pendulum is increased and hence, its time temperature until both bodies reach a common
period will increase. Fractional change in time period will be temperature. This state is called as thermal equilibrium.
DT 1 At this state,
= a Dq
T 2 Heat lost by one body = Heat gained by the other body
Let q be the temperature at which the clock is correct. Let the two bodies; body 1 and body 2 are in contact with
Time lost per day = 1/2 a(rise in temperature ) ´ 86400 each other.
Þ 12 = 1/2 a ( 40 - q) ´ 86400 …(i) Also, consider that the temperature of body 1 is greater
Time gained per day than that of body 2. Therefore, heat will flow from body 1
= 1/2 a (drop in temperature) ´ 86400 to body 2. So,
1 Heat lost by body 1 = Heat gained by body 2
4 = a ( q - 20) ´ 86400 …(ii)
2 m1s1 (q1 - q) = m2s2 (q - q2) (q2 < q < q1 )
On adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
where m1 = mass of body 1,
32 = 86400 a ( 40 - 20)
m2 = mass of body 2,
Þ a = 1.85 ´ 10 –5° C–1
Thermometry, Calorimetry and Heat Transfer 403
s1 = specific heat of body 1 at temperature q 1, Sol. (a) Heat gained (water + calorimeter) = Heat lost by copper ball
s2 = specific heat of body 2 at temperature q 2 Þ mw sw DT + mc sc DT = mBsB DT
and q = common temperature of bodies 1 and 2 at Þ 170 ´ 1 ´ (75 - 30) + 100 ´ 0.1 ´ (75 - 30) = 100 ´ 0.1 ´ (T - 75)
thermal equilibrium state. \ T = 885° C
Heat Capacity Example 7. Calculate the heat of fusion of ice from the
following data for ice at 0ºC added to water. Mass of
The quantity of heat required by the body to raise its calorimeter = 60 g, mass of calorimeter + water = 460 g,
temperature by 1°C is called heat capacity of a body. It is mass of calorimeter + water + ice = 618 g, initial
also known as thermal capacity. temperature of water = 38°C, temperature of the mixture
Heat capacity = (mass ´ specific heat) = 5°C. The specific heat of calorimeter = 0.10 cal g -1 °C -1.
(a) 73.85 calg -1 (b) 78.35 calg -1
Change of State (c) 88.7 calg -1 (d) 84.3 calg -1
Normally, matter exists in three states : solid, liquid and
gas. The conversion of one of these states of matter to Sol. (b) Mass of water = 460 - 60 = 400 g
another is called the change of state. Mass of ice = 618 - 460 = 158 g
There are two common changes of states Heat lost by water = Heat gained by ice to melt +
(i) The change of state from solid to liquid is called Heat gained by (water + calorimeter) to reach 5ºC
melting and from liquid to solid is called fusion. Þ 400 ´ 1 ´ (38 - 5) = 158 ´ L + 158 ´ 1 ´ 5 + 60 ´ 0.1 ´ 5
Both the solid and liquid states of the substance where, L is the latent heat of fusion of ice.
coexist in thermal equilibrium during the change Þ L = 78.35 calg –1
of states from solid to liquid.
(ii) The change of state from liquid to gas (or vapour) is Example 8. What will be the temperature, when 150 g of
called vaporisation. The temperature at which the ice at 0°C is mixed with 300 g of water at 50°C? Specific heat of
liquid and the vapour states of the substance coexist water = 1calg -1° C -1. Latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 calg -1.
is called its boiling point. The change of state from
(a) 6.0°C (b) 5.6°C
solid state to vapour state without passing through
the liquid state is called sublimation. (c) 6.7°C (d) 17.6°C
Sol. (c) Let us assume that T > 0° C.
Latent Heat Heat lost by water = Heat gained by ice to melt
The amount of heat that has to be supplied to (or taken + heat gained by water formed from ice
from) the body during the change of state while 300 ´ 1 ´ (50 - T) = 150 ´ 80 + 150 ´ 1 ´ (T - 0)
temperature remaining constant is called latent heat. It Þ T = 6.7° C
is measured in terms of calg–1 or kcalkg–1. It is given by
Hence, our assumption that T > 0°C is correct.
Q = mL, where L is the latent heat.
Latent Heat of Fusion The quantity of heat required Example 9. A sphere of aluminium of 0.047 kg placed for
to change the unit mass of a solid substance to the liquid sufficient time in a vessel containing boiling water, so that the
state at its melting point is called latent heat of fusion. sphere is at 100°C. It is then immediately transferred to 0.14
For ice, latent heat of fusion is 80 calg–1. kg copper calorimeter containing 0.25 kg of water at 20°C.
The temperature of water rises and attains a steady state at
Latent Heat of Vaporisation The quantity of heat
23°C. The specific heat capacity of aluminium is [NCERT]
required to convert unit mass of a liquid to gaseous state
(a) 0.911 kJ kg -1K -1 (b) 211 kJ kg -1K -1
at the boiling point of the liquid is called latent heat of
vaporisation. For water, latent heat of vaporisation is 540 (c) 423 kJ kg -1K -1 (d) 143 kJ kg -1K -1
calg–1. Sol. (a) At a steady state, heat given by an aluminium sphere will
be equal to the heat absorbed by the water and calorimeter.
Example 6. A copper ball of mass 100 g is at a Mass of aluminium sphere (m1) = 0.047 kg
temperature T. It is dropped in a copper calorimeter of mass Initial temperatue of aluminium sphere = 100° C
100 g, filled with 170 g of water at room temperature. Final temperature = 23° C
Subsequently, the temperature of the system is found to be Change in temperature ( DT1) = 100° C - 23° C = 77° C
75°C. T is (Given, room temperature = 30°C, specific heat of Let the specific heat capacity of aluminium be sAl,
copper = 01 . cal/g°C) [JEE Main 2017] then the amount of heat gained by the aluminium sphere
(a) 885°C (b) 1250°C = m1sAlDT1 = 0.047 ´ sAl ´ 77
(c) 825°C (d) 800°C Mass of water (m2) = 0.25 kg
404 JEE Main Physics
d to e temperature is again constant until all the water Now, suppose m0 mass of steam converts into water to liberate
is transformed into the vapour phase. this much amount of heat, then
Q 12000
Q4 = mLv = (1) (539) = 539 cal m0 = = = 22.26 g
L 539
Thus, the net heat required to convert 1 g of ice at – 20° C
into steam at 100°C is Since, it is less than 30 g, the temperature of the mixture = 100°C
mass of steam in the mixture = 30 – 22.26 = 7.74 g
Q = Q1 + Q2 + Q3 + Q4 = 729.6 cal
and mass of water in the mixture = 200 + 22.26 = 222.26 g.
Example 12. How much heat is required to convert 8.0 g
of ice at –15° C to steam at 100°C? Heat Transfer
(Given, sice = 0.53 cal/g-°C, Lf = 80 cal / g and Lv = 539 cal/g There are three different ways in which heat can be
and swater = 1cal/g-°C) transferred, i.e. conduction, convection and radiation.
ice ice water water steam
–15°C 0°C 0°C 100°C 100°C
Conduction
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 The process by which the heat is transferred in solid is
known as conduction. In conduction, molecules vibrate
(a) 7895.1 cal (b) 5815.6 cal about a fixed location and transfer the heat by collision.
(c) 9891.5 cal (d) 9210.5 cal
Sol. (b) Q1 = msice (Tf – Ti ) = (8.0) (0.53) [0 – (–15)] = 63.6 cal
Thermal Conductivity
In solids, heat is transferred through conduction.
Q 2 = mLf = (8) (80) = 640 cal
Q3 = mswater (Tf – Ti ) = (8.0) (1.0) [100 – 0] = 800 cal Regarding conduction, following points are worth noting
● The amount of heat flowing in a rod of surface area
Q 4 = mLv = (8.0) (539) = 4312 cal
A in time interval Dt is
\ Net heat required DQ Dq
Q = Q1 + Q 2 + Q3 + Q 4 = 5815.6 cal = - KA
Dt Dx
Example 13. 10 g of water at 70°C is mixed with 5 g of where, K = coefficient of heat conduction,
water at 30°C. Find the temperature of the mixture in Dq
= temperature gradient between faces of a rod
equilibrium. Dx
(a) 36.67°C (b) 25.98°C DQ
In this expression, negative sign is used to make
(c) 42.96°C (d) 15.63°C Dt
a positive quantity, since it is negative.
Sol. (a) Let t° C be the temperature of the mixture. ● The ratio of thermal and electrical conductivities
From energy conservation, is the same for the metals at a particular temperature
heat given by 10 g of water and is proportional to the absolute temperature of the
= heat taken by 5 g of water K
metal. If T is the absolute temperature, then µT
or m1swater | DT1| = m2swater | DT2| s
K
\ (10) (70 – T) = 5 (T – 30) or = constant.
sT
\ T = 36.67° C ● Let two rods of thermal conductivities K 1 , K 2 lengths
l1 , l2 and cross-sectional area A are connected in series.
Example 14. In a container of negligible mass, 30 g of In steady state, the temperatures of ends of rod are T1
steam at 100°C is added to 200 g of water that has a and T2 and the temperature of junction is T. Then,
temperature of 40°C. The amount of heat required to attain K T l + K 2T2l1
T = 1 12
final temperature of the system, masses of water and steam in K 1l2 + K 2l1
equilibrium, respectively are (Take, Lv = 539 cal / g and H1 H2
swater = 1cal / g -° C )
(a) 12000 cal, 22.6g, 222.6g K1 K2
(b) 14000 cal, 15.32g, 20.96g
(c) 19000 cal, 20.36g, 15.97g T1 T T2
(d) 23000 cal, 18.52g, 16.56g l1 l2
● The thermoelectric conductivity or diffusivity is
Sol. (a) Let Q be the heat required to convert 200 g of water at
40°C into 100°C, then defined as the ratio of the coefficients of thermal
conductivity to the product of density and heat capacity
Q = msDT
K
= (200) (1.0) (100 – 40) at constant pressure. So, diffusivity, D =
rc
= 12000 cal
406 JEE Main Physics
● The hindrance offered by a body to the flow of heat is If lengths of rods are equal, then
called its thermal resistance. 1 1 1
+ +
Temperature difference ( DT ) l 1 K K 2 K3
R= = = 1
Heat current ( H ) KA Ks 3
where, l is length of rod, A is the area and DT is the ● In parallel combination of slabs of different
temperature difference across its ends. materials, equivalent conductivity will be given as
follows
If different rods are connected in series, then heat
flowing per second is same. K 1 A 1 + K 2 A 2 + K 3 A3
Kp =
i. e. H1 = H 2 = H3 = ¼ A1 + A 2 + A3
\ Rs = R1 + R2 + R3 + ¼ If areas of slabs are equal, then
K + K 2 + K3
If different rods are connected in parallel, then Kp = 1
3
temperature difference is same.
l
i. e. DT1 = DT2 = DT3 = ¼
1 1 1 1
\ = = + +¼ A1
R p R1 R2 R3
K1
dQ DT A2
æ l ö
● Heat current H = = ç where, R = ÷
dt R è KA ø K2
A3
Current flow through a resistance, K3
dq DV æ l ö
i= = ç where, R = ÷ When the atmospheric pressure falls below 0°C (say -
è sA ø
●
dt R
T°C), the cold air above water extracts heat from the
We find the following similarities in heat flow through water. As a result, the water begins to freeze into the
a conducting rod and current flow through a resistance ice layers. Let at any time the thickness of ice is x and
further, the layer of ice of thickness dx is formed in
Heat flow through a Current flow through a time dt. If r is density of ice and L be the latent heat of
conducting rod resistance
fusion, then
dQ dq At – T °C
Heat current, H = Electric current, i =
dt dt Air
= rate of heat flow = rate of charge flow
DT TD DV PD
H= = i = =
R R R R Ice
l l x
R= R=
KA sA At 0°C
Here, K = thermal Here, s = electrical dx Water At 4°C
conductivity. conductivity.
Time taken by ice to grow to a thickness x,
From the above table, it is evident that flow of heat rL x rL 2
Kq ò 0
through rods in series and parallel is analogous to the t= x dx = x
2 Kq
flow of current through resistances in series and
If the thickness is from x1 to x2, then time taken
parallel. This analogy is of great importance in solving
rL
complicated problems of heat conduction. t= ( x22 - x12 )
● In series combination of rods of different 2 KT
materials, equivalent conductivity will be given as where, K = coefficient of thermal conductivity of ice.
follows
K1 K2 K3
Example 15. A cylinder of radius R is surrounded by a
cylindrical shell of inner radius R and outer radius 2R. The
thermal conductivity of the material of the inner cylinder is K1
l1 l2 l3 and that of the outer cylinder is K 2. Assuming no loss of heat,
L the effective thermal conductivity of the system for heat
flowing along the length of the cylinder is [ JEE Main 2019]
l1 + l2 + l3 l l l K1 + K2 K1 + 3K2 2K1 + 3K2
= 1 + 2 + 3 (a) (b) (c) (d) K1 + K2
Ks K1 K 2 K3 2 4 5
Thermometry, Calorimetry and Heat Transfer 407
Sol. (b) Both the given cylinders are in parallel, as heat flow is Example 17. Two metal cubes with 3 cm edges of copper
given along length. In parallel, equivalent thermal conductivity of and aluminium are arranged as shown in figure. Find
system is
K A + K2A2
Keq = 1 1 Al
A1 + A2 100°C 20°C
Cu
So, in given system
(i) the total thermal current from one reservoir to the other.
Heat (ii) the ratio of the thermal currents carried by the copper cube
to that carried by the aluminium cube.
(Take, thermal conductivity of copper = 401 Wm-1K -1 and
K1( pR 2) + K2[ p (2R) 2 - pR 2] thermal conductivity of aluminium = 237 Wm-1K -1).
Keq =
( pR 2) + ( 4pR 2 - pR 2) (a) 0.08 kW -1, 1.75 (b) 0.01 kW -1, 1.05
(c) 0.25 kW -1, 1.32 (d) 0.02 kW -1, 1.02
K1 + 3K2
or Keq =
4 Sol. (a) Thermal resistance of aluminium cube,
l
Example 16. A copper rod 2 m long has a circular R1 =
kAlA
cross-section of radius 1 cm. One end is kept at 100°C and
the other at 0°C and the surface is insulated so that negligible (3.0 ´ 10 –2)
or R1 = = 0.14 kW –1
heat is lost through the surface. Find (237) (3.0 ´ 10 –2) 2
(i) the thermal resistance of the bar, l
and thermal resistance of copper cube, R2 =
(ii) the thermal current H, kCuA
dT
(iii) the temperature gradient and (3.0 ´ 10 –2)
dx or R2 = = 0.08 kW –1
( 401) (3.0 ´ 10 –2) 2
(iv) the temperature 25 cm from the hot end.
Which collection of the answer is correct ? As, these two resistances are in parallel, their equivalent
(Given, thermal conductivity of copper is 401 Wm-1K -1) resistance will be
RR (0.14) (0.08)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) R= 1 2 = = 0.05 kW –1
(a) 3 kW -1
6W 5 Cm -1
8°C R1 + R2 (0.14) + (0.08)
Temperature difference
(b) 5.9 kW -1 60 W -50 Cm-1 87.5°C \Thermal current, H =
Thermal resistance
(c) 15.9 kW -1 6.3 W -50 Cm-1 67.5°C (100 - 20)
-1 = = 1.6 ´ 10 3 W
(d) 15.9 kW 6.3 W -50 Cm-1 87.5°C 0.05
In parallel, thermal current distributes in inverse ratio of resistances.
Sol. (d)
HCu RAl R1 0.14
l l Hence, = = = = 1.75
(i) Thermal resistance, R = = HAl RCu R2 0.08
KA K ( pr 2)
(2) Example 18. Water is boiled in flat bottom kettle placed
or R= = 15.9 kW –1
( 401) ( p ) (10 -2) 2 on a stove. The area of the bottom is 3000 cm2 and the
DT Dq 100 thickness is 2 mm. If the amount of steam produced is1 gmin -1,
(ii) Thermal current, H = = =
R R 15.9 calculate the difference of temperature between the inner
or H = 6.3 W and outer surfaces of the bottom. (Given, K for the material of
dT 0 - 100 kettle = 0.5 cal°C -1s -1cm -1)
(iii) Temperature gradient = = -50
dx 2 (a) 2.1 ´ 10 –3 °C (b) 3.1 ´ 10 –3 °C
= -50° Cm–1 (c) 1.2 ´ 10 –3 °C (d) 2.5 ´ 10 –3 °C
(iv) Let q°C be the temperature at 25 cm from the hot end, then dm 1 –1
Sol. (c) Mass of steam produced = = gs
100°C °C 0°C dt 60
dQ dm
0.25 m Heat transferred per second = =L
dt dt
2.0 m
dQ 1
Þ = 540 ´ cal° C–1s–1cm–1
( q - 100) = ( temperature gradient) ´ (distance) dt 60
or q - 100 = ( -50) (0.25) d = thickness = 2 m = 0.2 cm
q = 87.5° C
408 JEE Main Physics
KA (100 - q ) KA ( q - 4)
Þ + 36 =
d d
Þ KA ( q - 4 - 100 + q ) = 36 ´ d Transmitted
As a perfectly black body absorbs all radiations incident Here, e = emissivity of body (e = 1 for a black body).
on it, the absorptive power of a perfectly black body is If Q is the total energy radiated by the ordinary body,
maximum and unity. then
Spectral Absorptive Power ( al ) The ratio of radiant Q
e= = esT 4
energy absorbed by a surface to the radiant energy A´ t
incident on it for a particular wavelength l is known as
Þ Q = A esT 4t
spectral absorptive power. It may have different values
for different wavelengths for a given surface.
Example 20. The rate at which the radiant energy
The spectral absorptive power al is related to absorptive reaches the surface of the Earth from the Sun is about
power a through the relation 1.4 kWm -2. The distance from the Earth to the Sun is about
¥
a = ò a l dl 1.5 ´ 1011 m and the radius of the Sun is about 0.7 ´ 109 m.
0
What is the rate of radiation of energy per unit area from the
Emissive power (e) For a given surface, it is defined as Sun’s surface?
the radiant energy emitted per second per unit area of (a) 6.43 ´ 10 7 Wm-2
the surface. (b) 6.43 ´ 10 6 Wm-2
It is the total amount of energy radiated by a body per (c) 5.43 ´ 10 7 Wm-2
second per unit area of surface. (d) 6.43 ´ 10 -7 Wm-2
1 DQ Sol. (a) Let D = distance from the Sun to the Earth = 1.5 ´ 10 11 m,
e=
A Dt
radius of the Sun, R = 0.7 ´ 10 9 m
Spectral emissive power ( el ) It is emissive power for a
and power of the sun, P = energy radiated from the surface of the
particular wavelength l. Sun per second.
¥
Thus, e = ò el dl Hence, in every one second, P joule of energy are radiated from
0
the surface of the Sun and this energy passes through a big sphere
Emissivity (e ) The ratio of the total emissive power of of radius D centred at the Sun.
the body (e) to the total emissive power of a perfect black Hence, at the circumference of this big sphere (i. e. near the
body (E) at given temperature is known as emissivity of a surface of the Earth), the energy crossing through a unit area per
body at a given temperature. second
e P P
i. e. e= = =
E area of big sphere 4 pD2
= 1.4 ´ 10 3 Wm–2
Kirchhoff’s Law
Kirchhoff's law states that, ‘‘at any temperature and for sphere o
Big f
particular wavelength, the ratio of the emissive power to
ra
diu
Sol. (c) If the Sun is an ideal black body, e = 1 Sol. (b) Net heat lost by sphere per second
Þ E = sT 4 Hnet = es A (T 4 - T04)
æEö
1/ 4
where, T = temperature of sphere = 3000 K
Þ T=ç ÷
ès ø and T0 = temperature of surrounding = 300 K.
1/ 4 Area, A = 4 pr 2 = 4 p (0.01) 2
æ 6.43 ´ 10 7 ö
=ç ÷ = 5803 K To maintain constant temperature,
è 5.67 ´ 10 –8 ø
power input required = net heat loss from the surface
Example 22. A black body at 227°C radiates heat at a
Pinput = es A (T 4 - T04)
rate of 7 cal/cm 2s. At a temperature of 727°C, the rate of heat
radiated in the same units will be = 0.35 ´ 5.67 ´ 10 –8 ´ 4 p (0.01) 2 ´ (3000 4 - 300 4)
(a) 112 (b) 105 (c) 101 (d) 89 = 2019.8 W
4
Sol. (a) According to Stefan’s law, E = sT
Newton’s Law of Cooling
\ 7 = s (227 + 273) 4 = s ´ (500) 4
According to this law, ‘‘if the temperature T of the body is
and x = s (727 + 273) 4 = s ´ (1000) 4 not very different from that of the surroundings T0, then
x (1000) 4 dT
Hence, = = 16 rate of cooling - is proportional to the temperature
7 (500) 4 dt
difference between them.’’
Þ x = 16 ´ 7 = 112 cal/cm 2s
Newton’s law of cooling formula can be expressed by
Net Heat Loss from the Surface of a Body T ( t ) = T0 + (T1 - T0 ) e- kt
The rate at which a body radiates energy is determined where, t = time,
by the temperature of the body and its surroundings. T ( t ) = temperature of the given body at time t,
When a body is hotter than its surroundings, the rate of
emission exceeds the rate of absorption; there is net loss T0 = surrounding temperature,
of energy and the body cools down, unless it is heated by T1 = initial temperature of the body and K = constant.
some other means.
Note Approximate solution for Newton’s law of cooling is
When a body is cooler than its surroundings, the rate of
T1 - T2 T +T
absorption is greater than the rate of emission and its = K éê 1 2 - T0 ùú , where t is the time in which temperature of
temperature rises. At thermal equilibrium, the two rates t ë 2 û
are equal. body changes fromT1 toT2 .
Walls
Example 24. A body cools down from 60°C to 55°C in
30 s. Using Newton’s law of cooling, calculate the
T1 approximate time taken by same body to cool down from
55°C to 50°C. Assume that the temperature of surroundings
is 45°C.
T2 (a) 41.28 s
(b) 55.28 s
Hence, for a body at a temperature of T1, surrounded by (c) 51.28 s
walls at a temperature T2 (as shown in figure), the net (d) 60.28 s
rate of loss (or gain) of energy per second by radiation is
Sol. (c) According to Newton’s law of cooling,
H net = AesT14 - AesT24
q1 - q2 é q + q2 ù
=K ê 1 - q0 ú
H net = Aes (T14 - T24 ) t ë 2 û
60 - 55 é 60 + 55 ù
Example 23. The emissivity of tungsten is approximately =K ê - 45ú …(i)
30 ë 2 û
0.35. A tungsten sphere 1 cm in radius is suspended within a
large evacuated enclosure whose walls are at 300 K. What Similarly, for 2nd case,
power input is required to maintain the sphere at a 55 - 50 é 55 + 50 ù
=K ê - 45ú …(ii)
temperature of 3000 K, if heat conduction along the supports t ë 2 û
is neglected? (Take, s = 5.67 ´ 10 –8 SI units). Dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii), we get
(a) 2119.8 W (b) 2019.8 W t = 51.28 s
(c) 2219.8 W (d) 1919.8 W
Thermometry, Calorimetry and Heat Transfer 411
Wien’s Displacement Law obtained depend only on the temperature and not on the
shape, size or material of the black body.
According to this law, “the wavelength ( l m ) of maximum
intensity of emission of black body radiation is inversely l As the temperature of the body increases, the
proportional to absolute temperature of the black body.” wavelength at which the spectral intensity ( El ) is
1 maximum shifts towards left.
i. e. lm µ
T Example 25. Which of the following is n m -T graph for
or l mT = b (constant) perfectly black body? Here, n m is the frequency of radiations
where, b is Wien’s constant and its value 2.89 ´ 10–3 m-K with maximum intensity and T is the absolute temperature.
and l m is the wavelength corresponding to maximum
νm(Hz)
intensity (energy constant) of radiation emitted by body B
at temperature T.
D
l The thermal radiation emitted by a body at any C
temperature consists of all wavelengths from small to
large values.
The intensities of all wavelengths are different. A
Eλ O T(K)
T 1 > T 2 > T3
(a) A (b) B
T1 (c) C (d) D
T2 Sol. (c) According to Wien’s displacement law,
l mT = b (Wein’s constant)
T3 If n m is the frequency corresponding to wavelength l m, then
λ
λm1 λm2 λm3 æ C ö
ç ÷T = b
l The given figure shows the experimental curves for è nm ø
radiation emitted by a black body versus wavelength for C
or nm = T
different temperatures. b
l The most significant feature of the curves obtained is i. e. nm µ T
that they are universal, i. e. black-body radiation curves \ n m - T graph is straight line shown by the curve C.
Practice Exercise
ROUND I Topically Divided Problems
Thermometry : Thermometers and 6. A clock with an iron pendulum keeps correct time
Temperature Scales at 15°C. What will be the error in second per day, if
the room temperature is 20°C?
1. Two absolute scales A and B have triple points of (The coefficient of linear expansion of iron is
water defined to be 200 A and 350 B. What is the
0.000012°C–1)
relation between TA and TB ? [NCERT]
TA 4 TA 3 (a) 2.6 s (b) 6.2 s (c) 1.3 s (d) 3.1 s
(a) = (b) =
TB 7 TB 7 7. The triple point of neon and carbon dioxide are
T 7 T 7 24.57 K and 216.55 K, respectively. These
(c) A = (d) A = temperatures on the celsius and fahrenheit scales
TB 3 TB 4
are respectively [NCERT]
2. The Fahrenheit and Kelvin scales of temperature (a) - 415.44° F and - 69.88° F
will give the same reading at (b) 415.44° F and 69.88° F
(a) – 40 (b) 313 (c) - 315.44° F and 69.88° F
(c) 574.25 (d) 732.75 (d) - 69.88° F and 415.44° F
3. A faulty thermometer has its fixed points marked
as 5 and 95. When this thermometer reads 68, the
Thermal Expansion
correct temperature (in degree celsius) is 8. A metal rod having linear expansion coefficient
(a) 68 (b) 70 (c) 66 (d) 72 2 ´ 10-5 °C–1 has a length of 1 m at 20°C. The
temperature at which it is shortened by 1 mm is
4. The graph between two temperature scales A and B (a) –20°C (b) –15°C (c) –30°C (d) –25°C
is shown in figure. Between upper fixed point and
lower point, there are 150 equal division on scale A 9. A uniform metallic rod rotates about its
and 100 on scale B. The relationship for conversion perpendicular bisector with constant angular
between the two scales is given by [NCERT Exemplar] speed. If it is heated uniformly to raise its
temperature slightly,
180 (a) its speed of rotation increases
Temperature (°A)
12. What should be the lengths of a steel and copper 19. A wheel is 80.3 cm in circumference. An iron tyre
rod at 0°C, so that the length of the steel rod is 5 measures 80.0 cm around its inner face. If the
cm longer than the copper rod at any temperature? coefficient of linear expansion for iron is
[Take, a (steel) = 1.1 ´ 10–5 ° C–1 1.2 ´ 10-5 ° C-1, the temperature of the tyre must be
a (copper) = 1.7 ´ 10–5 ° C-1] raised by
(a) 14.17 cm; 9.17 cm (b) 9.17 cm, 14.17 cm (a) 105°C (b) 417°C (c) 312°C (d) 223°C
(c) 28.34 cm; 18.34 cm (d) 14.17 cm, 18.34 cm 20. The coefficient of apparent expansion of mercury in
a glass vessel is 153 ´ 10-6 /°C and in a steel vessel
13. When a liquid in a glass vessel is heated, its
is 144 ´ 106 /°C. If a for steel is 12 ´ 10-6 /°C, then
coefficient of apparent expansion is
that of glass is
10.30 ´ 10–4 ° C–1. When the same liquid is heated (a) 9 ´ 10-6/°C (b) 6 ´ 10-6 /°C
in a metal vessel, its coefficient of apparent (c) 36 ´ 10-6/°C (d) 27 ´ 10-6 /°C
expansion is 10.06 ´ 10–4 °C–1. If the coefficient of
linear expansion of glass = 9 ´ 106 °C–1, what is the 21. A bimetallic strip consists of metals A and B. It is
coefficient of linear expansion of metal? mounted rigidly as shown. The metal A has higher
-6 –1 -6 –1 coefficient of expansion compared to that of metal
(a) 51 ´ 10 ° C (b) 17 ´ 10 °C
B. When the bimetallic strip is placed in a cold
(c) 25 ´ 10-6 ° C–1 (d) 43 ´ 10–6 ° C–1 both, it will [JEE Main 2021]
14. A vertical column 50 cm long at 50°C balances
another column of same liquid 60 cm along at 100°C. A B
The coefficient of absolute expansion of the liquid is
(a) 0.005/°C (b) 0.0005/°C
(c) 0.002/°C (d) 0.0002/°C (a) bend towards the right
15. The radius of a metal sphere at room temperature (b) not bend but shrink
T is R, and the coefficient of linear expansion of (c) Neither bend nor shrink
the metal is a . The sphere is heated a little by a (d) bend towards the left
temperature DT, so that its new temperature is 22. The coefficient of linear expansion of crystal in one
T + DT. The increase in the volume of the sphere is direction is a 1 and that in every direction
approximately [NCERT Exemplar] perpendicular to it is a 2 . The coefficient of cubical
(a) 2p Ra DT (b) p R 2 a DT expansion is
3
(c) 4p R a DT /3 (d) 4pR3 aDT (a) a1 + a 2 (b) 2 a1 + a 2
(c) a1 + 2 a 2 (d) None of these
16. Two rods A and B of identical dimensions are at
temperature 30°C. If A is heated upto 180°C and B 23. When the temperature of a rod increases from t to
upto T° C, then new lengths are the same. If the t + Dt, its moment of inertia increases from I to
ratio of the coefficients of linear expansion of A and I + DI . If a be the coefficient of linear expansion of
DI
B is 4 : 3, then the value of T is [ JEE Main 2019] the rod, then the value of is
I
(a) 230ºC (b) 270ºC a Dt Dt
(a) 2 a Dt (b) a Dt (c) (d)
(c) 200ºC (d) 250ºC 2 a
17. The volume of a metal sphere increases by 0.24% 24. A piece of metal weighs 46 g in air. When it is
when its temperature is raised by 40°C. The immersed in the liquid of specific gravity 1.24 at
coefficient of linear expansion of the metal is 27°C, it weighs 30 g. When the temperature of
(a) 2 ´ 10–5 per°C (b) 6 ´ 10-5 per°C liquid is raised to 42°C, the metal piece weighs
30.5 g, specific gravity of the liquid at 42°C is 1.20,
(c) 2.1 ´ 10–5 per°C (d) 1.2 ´ 10–5 per°C
then the linear expansion of the metal will be
18. The coefficient of apparent expansion of a liquid (a) 3.316 ´ 10–5 /° C (b) 2.316 ´ 10–5 /° C
when determined using two different vessels A and (c) 4.316 ´ 10–5 /° C (d) None of these
B are g 1 and g 2 , respectively. If the coefficient of 25. A hole is drilled in a copper sheet. The diameter of
linear expansion of the vessel A is a, the coefficient the hole is 4.24 cm at 27.0°C. What is the change in
of linear expansion of vessel B is the diameter of the hole when the sheet is heated to
a g1 g 2 g1 - g 2
(a) (b) 227°C? Coefficient of linear expansion of copper is
g1 + g 2 2a . ´ 10-5 / ° C.
170 [NCERT]
g1 - g 2 + a g1 - g 2 (a) 1.44 ´ 10-2 cm (b) 2.44 ´ 10-3 cm
(c) (d) +a
3a 3 (c) 1.44 ´ 10-2 mm (d) 2.44 ´ 10-3 mm
414 JEE Main Physics
26. The coefficient of volume expansion of glycerine is (c) Its latent heat of vaporisation is smaller than its
-5 latent of fusion
49 ´ 10 /K. What is the fractional change in its
density for a 30°C rise in temperature? [NCERT] (d) None of the above
(a) 1.45 ´ 10-3 (b) 2.45 ´ 10-3 35. When two substances at different temperatures are
-2
(c) 2.45 ´ 10 (d) 1.45 ´ 10-2 mixed together, exchange of heat occurs between
them till they acquire a common temperature. In
Specific Heat and Calorimetry thermal equilibrium, heat gained by one substance
27. An amount of water of mass 20 g at 0°C is mixed is equal to heat lost by the other substance. This is
with 40 g of water at 10°C, final temperature of the called principle of calorimetry. 10 g of ice at 0°C
mixture is and water at 100°C are mixed together. The
(a) 5°C (b) 0°C (c) 20°C (d) 6.66°C resultant temperature would be
(a) 10°C (b) 5°C (c) 50°C (d) 40°C
28. The amount of heat required to convert 10 g of ice
at –10°C into steam at 100°C is (in calories) 36. A steel ball of mass 0.1 kg falls freely from a height
(a) 6400 (b) 5400 (c) 7200 (d) 7250 of 10 m and bounces to a height of 5.4 m from the
ground. If the dissipated energy in this process is
29. One gram of ice is mixed with one gram of steam. absorbed by the ball, the rise in its temperature is
At thermal equilibrium, the temperature of [Take, specific heat of steel = 460 Jkg - 1°C - 1)
mixture is
(a) 0.01°C (b) 0.1°C
(a) 0°C (b) 100°C (c) 55°C (d) 80°C
(c) 1.1°C (d) 1°C
30. 540 g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 540 g of water at
80°C. The final temperature of the mixture is
37. A lead bullet of 10 g travelling at 300 ms–1 strikes
against a block of wood comes to rest. Assuming
(a) 0°C (b) 53°C
50% of heat is absorbed by the bullet, the increase
(c) 80°C (d) less than 0°C
in its temperature is
31. If the ratio of densities of two substances is 5 : 6 (Take, specific heat of lead = 150 Jkg - 1K - 1)
and that of the specific heats is 3 : 5, then the ratio (a) 100°C (b) 125°C
between heat capacities per unit volume is (c) 150°C (d) 200°C
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 3
38. Steam is passed into 22 g of water at 20°C. The
mass of water that will be present when the water
32. When the room temperature becomes equal to the acquires a temperature of 90°C (Take, latent heat
dew point, the relative humidity of the room is of steam is 540 cal/g) is
(a) 100% (b) 0% (c) 70% (d) 85% (a) 24.8 g (b) 24 g
33. Water of volume 2L in a container is heated with a (c) 36.6 g (d) 30 g
coil of 1 kW at 27°C. The lid of the container is 39. Ice at - 20°C is added to 50 g of water at 40°C.
open and energy dissipates at rate of 160 J/s. In
When the temperature of the mixture reaches 0°C,
how much time temperature will rise from 27°C to
it is found that 20 g of ice is still unmelted. The
77°C? (Take, specific heat of water is 4.2 kJ/kg)
amount of ice added to the water was close to
(a) 8 min 20 s (b) 6 min 2 s
(Take, specific heat of water = 4.2 J/g/°C,
(c) 7 min (d) 14 min
specific heat of ice = 21
. J/g/°C and
34. Heat is supplied to a certain homogeneous sample heat of fusion of water at 0°C = 334 J/g)
of matter, at a uniform rate. Its temperature is [ JEE Main 2019]
plotted against time as shown. Which of the (a) 40 g (b) 50 g
following conclusions can be drawn? (c) 60 g (d) 100 g
40. Water falls from a height of 500 m. What is the rise
Temperature
42. A metal ball of mass 0.1 kg is heated upto 500ºC 46. Two identical square rods of metal are welded end
and dropped into a vessel of heat capacity 800 JK - 1 to end as shown in Fig. (i), Q cal of heat flows
and containing 0.5 kg water. The initial through this combination in 4 min. If the rods were
temperature of water and vessel is 30°C. What is welded as shown in Fig. (ii), the same amount of
the approximate percentage increment in the heat will flow through the combination in
temperature of the water?
(Take, specific heat capacities of water and metal
are respectively 4200 Jkg- 1K - 1 and 400 Jkg- 1K - 1) (i)
[ JEE Main 2019]
(ii)
(a) 25% (b) 15%
(c) 30% (d) 20%
(a) 16 min (b) 12 min (c) 1 min (d) 4 min
43. As the temperature is increased, the time period of
a pendulum [NCERT Exemplar]
47. A cylinder of radius r and thermal conductivity K 1
(a) increases as its effective length increases even is surrounded by a cylindrical shell of linear radius
though its centre of mass still remains at the r and outer radius 2 r, whose thermal conductivity
centre of the bob is K 2 . There is no loss of heat across cylindrical
(b) decreases as its effective length increases even surfaces, when the ends of the combined system are
though its centre of mass still remains at the maintained at temperatures T1 and T2 . The
centre of the bob effective thermal conductivity of the system, in the
(c) increases as its effective length increases due to steady state is
shifting of centre of mass below the centre of the bob
K 1K 2 K1 + 3 K 2 3 K1 + K 2
(d) decreases as its effective length increases remains (a) (b) K 1 + K 2 (c) (d)
same but the centre of mass shifts above the centre K1 + K 2 4 4
of the bob
48. The coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper is
Thermal Conduction and Convection nine times that of steel. In the composite
cylindrical bar shown in figure, what will be the
44. Five rods of same dimensions are arranged as temperature at the junction of copper and steel?
shown in figure. They have thermal conductivities
K 1, K 2 , K 3, K 4 and K 5 . When points A and B are Copper Steel 0°C
100°C
maintained at different temperatures, no heat
would flow through central rod, if 18 cm 6 cm
A (a) 75°C (b) 67°C (c) 33°C (d) 25°C
K1 K2 49. Two rods of equal length and area of cross-section
are kept parallel and lagged between temperatures
A K5 B 20°C and 80°C. The ratio of the effective thermal
conductivity to that of the first rod is
K3 K4 é æ K1 ö 3 ù
ê the ratio ç ÷= ú
D ë è K2 ø 4 û
(a) K 1K 4 = K 2 K 3 (b) K 1 = K 4 and K 2 = K 3
(a) 7 : 4 (b) 7 : 6 (c) 4 : 7 (d) 7 : 8
K K
(c) 1 = 2 (d) K 1 K 2 = K 3 K 4 50. Two plates of same thickness, of coefficients of
K4 K3
thermal conductivity K 1 and K 2 and areas of
45. Two materials having coefficients of thermal cross-section A1 and A2 are connected as shown in
conductivity 3 K and K and thickness d and 3d figure. The common coefficient of thermal
respectively, are joined to form a slab as shown in conductivity K will be
the figure. The temperatures of the outer surfaces
are q 2 and q 1 respectively, (q 2 > q 1). The K1
temperature at the interface is [JEE Main 2019]
A1
Q1 K2 Q2
d 3d
θ2 3K K θ1 A2
q2 + q1 q1 2q2 K 1 A1
(a) (b) + (a) K 1 A1 + K 2A 2 (b)
2 3 3 K 2A 2
q1 5 q2 q1 9 q2 K 1 A1 + K 2A 2 K 1 A 2 + K 2A1
(c) + (d) + (c) (d)
6 6 10 10 A1 + A 2 K1 + K 2
416 JEE Main Physics
51. Ice starts forming in a lake with water at 0°C, 57. Two rods P and Q have equal lengths. Their
when the atmospheric temperature is –10°C. If thermal conductivities are K 1 and K 2 and
time taken for 1 cm of ice to be formed is 7 h, the cross-sectional areas are A1 and A2 . When the
time taken for the thickness of ice to increase from temperature at ends of each rod are T1 and T2
1 cm to 2 cm is respectively, the rate of flow of heat through P and
(a) 7 h Q will be equal, if
(b) less than 7 h A1 K 2 A1 K 2 T2
(a) = (b) = ´
(c) more than 7 h but less than 14 h A2 K 1 A2 K 1 T1
(d) more than 14 h 2
A1 K1 A1 æ K 2 ö
(c) = (d) =ç ÷
52. A wall has two layers A and B, made of two A2 K2 A2 è K 1 ø
different materials. The thermal conductivity of
material A is twice that of B. If the two layers have 58. The amount of heat conducted out per second
same thickness and under thermal equilibrium, the through a window, when inside temperature is
temperature difference across the wall is 48°C, the 10°C and outside temperature is –10°C, is 1000 J.
temperature difference across layer B is Same heat will be conducted inside through the
(a) 40°C (b) 32°C window, when outside temperature is –23°C and
(c) 16°C (d) 24°C inside temperature is
(a) 23°C (b) 230 K
3
53. A heat source at T = 10 K is connected to another (c) 270 K (d) 296 K
heat reservoir at T = 102 K by a copper slab which
59. Two identical square rods of metal are welded end
is 1 m thick. Given that the thermal conductivity of
to end as shown in Ffig. (i), 20 cal of heat flows
copper is 0.1 WK -1m -1, the energy flux through it
through it in 4 min. If the rods are welded as
in the steady state is [ JEE Main 2019]
shown in Fig. (ii), the same amount of heat will
(a) 90 Wm -2 (b) 65 Wm -2 flow through the rods in [NCERT Exemplar]
(c) 120 Wm -2 (d) 200 Wm -2
0°C
54. Two identical metal wires of thermal conductivities
100°C
K 1 and K 2 respectively are connected in series. The 0°C 100°C
effective thermal conductivity of the combination is (i) (ii)
l l
(a) 1 min (b) 2 min
K1 K2 [JEE Main 2021] (c) 4 min (d) 16 min
2K 1K 2 K + K2 Stefan’s Law
(a) (b) 1
K1 + K 2 2K 1K 2
60. The temperature of a black body is increased by
K1 + K 2 K1 K 2 50%, then the percentage of increase of radiation is
(c) (d)
K1 K 2 K1 + K 2 approximately
(a) 100% (b) 25%
55. Four rods of different radii r and length l are used
(c) 400% (d) 500%
to connect two reservoirs of heat at different
temperatures. Which one will conduct heat fastest? 61. The rectangular surface of area 8 cm ´ 4 cm of a
(a) r = 2 cm, l = 0.5 m (b) r =1 cm, l = 0.5 m black body at a temperature of 127°C emits energy
(c) r = 2 cm, l = 2 m (d) r = 1 cm, l = 1 m at the rate of E per second. If the length and
breadth of the surface are each reduced to half of
56. Consider two insulating sheets with thermal
its initial value, and the temperature is raised to
resistances R1 and R2 as shown in figure. The
327°C, the rate of emission of energy will become
temperature q is 3 81
(a) E (b) E
θ1 8 16
R2 9 81
θ
(c) E (d) E
16 64
R1
θ2 62. The rays of Sun are focussed on a piece of ice
q1R2 + q2R1 (q1 + q2) R1R2 through a lens of diameter 5 cm, as a result of
(a) (b) which 10 g ice melts in 10 min. The amount of heat
R1 + R2 R12 + R 22
received from Sun, per unit area per min is
q1R1 + q2R2 q1q2R1R2 (a) 4 cal cm–2 min–1 (b) 40 cal cm–2 min–1
(c) (d)
R1 + R2 (q1 + q2) (R1 + R2) (c) 4 Jm–2 min (d) 400 cal cm–2 min–1
Thermometry, Calorimetry and Heat Transfer 417
63. A black body at a temperature of 327°C radiates 70. A black body radiates at two temperatures T1 and
4 cal cm–2s–1. At a temperature of 927°C, the rate of T2 , such that T1 < T2 . The frequency corresponding
heat radiated per unit area (in cal cm–2s–1) will be to maximum intensity is
(a) 16 (b) 32 (a) less at T1 (b) more at T1
(c) 64 (d) 128 (c) equal in the two cases (d) Cannot say
64. A planet is at an average distance d from the Sun 71. A black body is at a temperature of 2880 K. The
and its average surface temperature is T. Assume energy of radiation emitted by this object with
that the planet receives energy only from the Sun, wavelength between 499 nm and 500 nm is U1 and
and loses energy only through radiation from its between 999 nm and 1000 nm is U2 . The Wien’s
surface. Neglect atmospheric effects. If T µ d- n ,the constant = 2.88 ´ 106 nm K. Then,
value of n is (a) U 1 = 0 (b) U 3 = 0
(a) 2 (b) 1
(c) U 1 > U 2 (d) U 2 > U 1
(c) 1/2 (d) 1/4
72. Solar radiation emitted by Sun resembles that
65. Two bodies A and B are placed in an evacuated
emitted by a black body at a temperature of
vessel maintained at a temperature of 27°C. The
6000 K. Maximum intensity is emitted at a
temperature of A is 327°C and that of B is 227°C.
wavelength of about 4800Å. If the Sun were cooled
The ratio of heat loss from A and B is about
down from 6000 K to 3000 K, then the peak
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 4 : 1
intensity would occur at a wavelength of
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 4
(a) 4800 Å (b) 9600 Å
66. The rates of heat radiation from two patches of skin (c) 2400 Å (d) 19200 Å
each of area A, on a patient’s chest differ by 2%. If
73. When the temperature of a black body increases, it
the patch of the lower temperature is at 300 K and
is observed that the wavelength corresponding of
emissivity of both the patches is assumed to be
maximum energy changes from 0.26 mm to 0.13 mm.
unity, the temperature of other patch would be
The ratio of the emissive powers of the body at the
(a) 306 K (b) 312 K respective temperatures is
(c) 308.5 K (d) 301.5 K (a) 16/1 (b) 4/1
67. A surface at temperature T0 K receives power P by (c) 1/4 (d) 1/16
radiation from a small sphere at temperature 74. The temperature of Sun is 5500 K and it emits
T > T0 and at a distance d. If both T and d are maximum intensity radiation in the yellow region
doubled, the power received by the surface will (5.5 ´ 10–7 m). The maximum radiation from a
become furnace occurs at wavelength 11 ´ 10-7 m. The
(a) P (b) 2 P temperature of furnace is
(c) 4 P (d) 16 P (a) 2550 K (b) 2750 K
68. Assuming the Sun to have a spherical outer surface (c) 2650 K (d) 2850 K
of radius r radiating like a black body at temperature
t° C, the power received by a unit surface (normal to Newton’s Law of Cooling
the incident rays) at a distance R from the centre of 75. A body cools from 80°C to 50°C in 5 min. Calculate
the Sun is (s is Stefan’s constant) the time it takes to cool from 60°C to 30°C. The
2 4 r 2s (t + 273)4 temperature of the surroundings is 20°C. [NCERT]
(a) 4 pr st (b)
4 pR 2 (a) 9 min (b) 7 min
2 2
16 p r st 4 2 4
r s (t + 273) (c) 8 min (d) 10 min
(c) (d)
R2 R2 76. An object is cooled from 75°C to 65°C in 2 min in a
room at 30°C. The time taken to cool another
Wien’s Law identical object from 55°C to 45°C in the same
69. The wavelength of maximum intensity of radiation room, in minutes is
emitted by a star is 289.8 nm and the radiation (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
intensity for the star is 77. The total energy radiated from a black body source
(Stefan’s constant = 5.67 ´ 10–8 Wm –2K –4 , Wien’s is collected for one minute and is used to heat a
constant, b = 2898 mmK) quantity of water. The temperature of water is
(a) 5.67 ´ 108 Wm–2 (b) 5.67 ´ 10–12 Wm–2 found to increase from 20°C to 20.5°C. If the
(c) 10.67 ´ 107 Wm–2 (d) 10.67 ´ 1014 Wm–2 absolute temperature of the black body is doubled
418 JEE Main Physics
and the experiment is repeated with the same 80. A solid cube and a solid sphere have equal surface
quantity of water at 20°C, the temperature of water areas. Both are at the same temperature of 120°C.
will be Then,
(a) 21°C (b) 22°C (a) both of them will cool down at the same rate
(c) 24°C (d) 28°C (b) the cube will cool down faster than the sphere
78. A liquid is filled in a container which is kept in a (c) the sphere will cool down faster than the cube
room whose temperature is 20°C. When (d) whichever of the two is heavier will cool down
faster
temperature of liquid is 80°C, it emits heat at the
rate of 45 cals–1. When temperature of liquid falls to 81. The temperature of a liquid drops from 365 K
40°C, its rate of heat loss will be to 361 K in 2 min. Find the time during which
(a) 15 cals–1 (b) 30 cals–1 temperature of the liquid drops from 344 K to
(c) 45 cals–1 (d) 60 cals–1 342 K. Temperature of room is 292 K.
79. A metallic sphere cools from 50°C to 40°C in 300 s. (a) 84 s
If the room temperature is 20°C, then its (b) 72 s
temperature in next 5 min will be (c) 66 s
(a) 38°C (b) 33.3°C (c) 30°C (d) 36°C (d) 60 s
2 min 4 min
X λ λ
Time (min)
6. Heat is flowing through a conductor of length l 11. Two cylindrical conductors A and B of same
from x = 0 to x = l. If its thermal resistance per unit metallic material have their diameters in the ratio
length is uniform, which of the following graph is 1 : 2 and lengths in the ratio 2 : 1. If the
correct? temperature difference between their ends is same,
T T the ratio of heat conducted respectively by A and B
per second is
(a) (b) (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 4
(c) 1 : 16 (d) 1 : 8
O x O x
12. A hollow copper sphere S and a hollow copper cube
T T
C, both of negligible thin walls of same area, are
filled with water at 90°C and allowed to cool in the
same environment. The graph that correctly
(c) (d) represents their coolings is
T T
O x O x
16. 70 cal of heat are required to raise the temperature 22. Steam at 100°C is passed into 1.1 kg of water
of 2 mol of an ideal gas at constant pressure from contained in a calorimeter of water equivalent to
30°C to 35°C. The amount of heat required to raise 0.02 kg at 15°C till the temperature of the
the temperature of the same sample of the gas calorimeter and its contents rises to 80°C. The
through the same range at constant volume is mass of the steam condensed (in kg) is
nearly (Take, gas constant = 1.99 cal K–1-mol–1) (a) 0.130 (b) 0.065 (c) 0.260 (d) 0.135
(a) 30 cal
23. 2 kg of ice at –20°C is mixed with 5 kg of water at
(b) 50 cal
20°C in an insulating vessel having a negligible
(c) 70 cal
heat capacity. Calculate the final mass of water
(d) 90 cal remaining in the container. It is given that the
17. A flask of volume 103 cc is completely filled with specific heats of water and ice are 1 kcal/kg/°C and
mercury at 0°C. The coefficient of cubical expansion 0.5 kcal/kg/°C while the latent heat of fusion of ice
of mercury is 1.80 ´ 10–6 ° C–1 and that of glass is is 80 kcal/kg.
1.4 ´ 10–6 ° C–1. If the flask is now placed in boiling (a) 7 kg (b) 6 kg (c) 4 kg (d) 2 kg
water at 100°C, how much mercury will overflow? 24. A lead bullet at 27°C just melts when stopped by an
(a) 7 cc (b) 1.4 cc
obstacle. Assuming that 25% of heat is absorbed by
(c) 21 cc (d) 28 cc
the obstacle, then the velocity of the bullet at the
18. A steel tape measures the length of a copper rod as time of striking (MP of lead = 327°C, specific heat
90.0 cm, when both are at 10°C, i.e. the calibration of lead = 0.03 cal/g/°C, latent heat of fusion of lead
temperature, for the tape. What would tape read = 6 cal/g and J = 4.2 joule/cal)
for the length of the rod when both are at 30°C? (a) 410 m/s (b) 1230 m/s
(Take, given, a for steel is 1.2 ´ 10–5 ° C–1 and a for
(c) 307.5 m/s (d) None of these
copper is 1.7 ´ 10–5 ° C–1)
(a) 90.01 cm (b) 89.90 cm 25. In a vertical U-tube containing a liquid, the two
(c) 90.22 cm (d) 89.80 cm arms are maintained at different temperatures t1
and t2 . The liquid columns in the two arms have
19. A solid whose volume does not change with
heights l1 and l2 , respectively. The coefficient of
temperature floats in liquid. For two different
volume expansion of the liquid is equal to
temperatures t1 and t2 , the fractions f1 and f2 of
volume of solid remain submerged. What is the
coefficient of volume expansion of liquid? t1
f -f f -f
(a) 1 2 (b) 1 2 t2
f2t1 - f1t2 f1t1 - f2t2 l1
l2
f1 + f2 f1 + f2
(c) (d)
f2t1 - f1t2 f1t1 - f2t2
28. Three discs A, B and C having radii 2 m, 4 m and 34. A solid copper cube of edges 1 cm is suspended in
6 m respectively are coated with carbon black on an evacuated enclosure. Its temperature is found to
their other surfaces. The wavelengths fall from 100°C to 99°C in 100 s. Another solid
corresponding to maximum intensity are 300 nm, copper cube of edges 2 cm, with similar surface
400 nm and 500 nm, respectively. The power nature, is suspended in a similar manner. The time
radiated by them are Qa , Qb and Qc respectively, required for this cube to cool from 100°C to 99°C
then will be approximately
(a) Qa is maximum (b) Qb is maximum (a) 25 s (b) 50 s (c) 200 s (d) 400 s
(c) Qc is maximum (d) Qa = Qb = Qc 35. Which of the substances A, B or C has the highest
29. Four identical rods of same material are joined end specific heat? The temperature versus time graph is
to end to form a square. If the temperature shown
A
difference between the ends of a diagonal is 100°C,
Temperature (T)
then the temperature difference between the ends B
of other diagonal will be C
(a) 0°C
100
(b) °C; where l is the length of each rod
l
Time (t)
100
(c) °C (a) A
2l
(b) B
(d) 100°C
(c) C
30. One end of a copper rod of length 1.0 m and area of (d) All have equal specific heat
cross-section 10-3 m 2 is immersed in boiling water
36. The adjoining diagram shows the spectral energy
and the other end in ice. If the coefficient of
density distribution El of a black body at two
thermal conductivity of copper is 92 cal/m-s-°C and
different temperatures. If the areas under the
the latent heat of ice is 8 ´ 104 cal/kg, then the
curves are in the ratio 16 : 1, the value of
amount of ice which will melt in one min is
temperature T is
(a) 9.2 ´ 10-3 kg (b) 8 ´ 10-3 kg
(c) 6.9 ´ 10-3 kg (d) 5.4 ´ 10-3 kg TK
Eλ
31. A solid copper sphere (density r and specific heat 2000 K
capacity c) of radius r at an initial temperature
200 K is supended inside a chamber whose walls
λ
are at almost 0 K. The time required (in ms) for the
temperature of the sphere to drop at 100 K is (a) 32000 K (b) 16000 K
72 rrc 7 rrc 27 rrc 7 rrc (c) 8000 K (d) 4000 K
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7 s 72 s 7 s 27 s 37. A body cools in a surrounding which is at a
32. An ice box used for keeping eatable cold has a total constant temperature of q 0 . Assume that it obeys
2
wall area of 1 m and a wall thickness of 5.0 cm. Newton’s law of cooling. Its temperature q is
The thermal conductivity of the ice box is K = 0.01 plotted against time t. Tangents are drawn to the
joule/metre-°C. It is filled with ice at 0°C along with curve at the points P (q = q 2 ) and Q(q = q 1). These
eatables on a day when the temperature is 30°C. tangents meet the time axis at angles of f2 and f1
as shown, then
The latent heat of fusion of ice is 334 ´ 103 J/kg.
The amount of ice melted in one day is (1 day
= 86.400 s) θ
(a) 776 g (b) 7760 g θ2 P
(c) 11520 g (d) 1552 g
θ1 Q
33. A cylindrical rod with one end in a steam chamber
and the other end in ice results in melting of 0.1 g of θ0 φ2 φ1
t
ice per second. If the rod is replaced by another with
half the length and double the radius of the first and tan f 2 q1 - q0 tan f 2 q2 - q0
if the thermal conductivity of material of second rod (a) = (b) =
tan f1 q2 - q0 tan f1 q1 - q0
is 1/4 that of first, the rate at which ice melts (in g/s)
will be tan f1 q1 tan f1 q2
(c) = (d) =
(a) 3.2 (b) 1.6 (c) 0.2 (d) 0.1 tan f 2 q2 tan f 2 q1
422 JEE Main Physics
38. Refer to the plot of temperature versus time 42. Temperature difference of 120°C is maintained
showing the changes in the state of ice on heating between two ends of a uniform rod AB of length 2L.
(not to scale) Another bent rod PQ, of same cross-section as AB
Which of the following is correct? [NCERT Exemplar] 3L
and length is connected across AB (see figure).
2
In steady state, temperature difference between P
Temperature (°C)
E
and Q will be close to [ JEE Main 2019]
100
C D
L
4
A B A B
0 P L Q
tm Time (min)
(a) The region BC represents ice and water in thermal (a) 45°C (b) 35°C
equilibrium (c) 75°C (d) 60°C
(b) At B, water starts boiling 43. Solids expand on heating because
(c) At C, all the water gets converted into steam (a) kinetic energy of the atoms increases
(d) C to D represents water and steam in equilibrium (b) potential energy of the atoms increases
at boiling point (c) total energy of the atoms increases
39. A block of metal is heated to a temperature much (d) the potential energy curve is asymmetric about the
higher than the room temperature and allowed to equilibrium distance between neighbouring atoms
cool in a room free from air currents. Which of the 44. An iron tyre is to be fitted on a wooden wheel 1 m
following curves correctly represents the rate of in diameter. The diameter of tyre is 6 mm smaller
cooling? than that of wheel. The tyre should be heated, so
that its temperature increases by a minimum of
Temperature
Temperature
Temperature
48. In an industrial process 10 kg of water per hour is 52. A brass boiler has a base area 0.15 m2 and
to be heated from 20°C to 80°C. To do this steam at thickness 1.0 cm. It boils water at the rate of
150°C is passed from a boiler into a copper coil 6.0 kg/min when placed on a gas stove. The
immersed in water. The steam condenses in the coil temperature of the part of the flame in contact with
and is returned to the boiler as water at 90°C. How the boiler will be (Take, thermal conductivity of
many kg of steam is required per hour? (Specific brass = 109 J/s-m-K, heat of vaporisation of water
heat of steam = 1 calorie per g°C, latent heat of = 2256 ´ 103 J/kg) [NCERT]
vaporisation = 540 cal/g) (a) 158°C (b) 208°C
(a) 1 g (c) 238°C (d) 264° C
(b) 1 kg
53. A sphere and a cube of same material and same
(c) 10 g volume are heated upto same temperature and
(d) 10 kg allowed to cool in the same surroundings. The ratio
49. A composite metal bar of uniform section is made of the amounts of radiation emitted will be
4p
up of length 25 cm of copper, 10 cm of nickel and (a) 1 : 1 (b) :1
3
15 cm of aluminium. Each part being in perfect 1/ 3 2/ 3
thermal contact with the adjoining part. The copper æpö 1 æ4 p ö
(c) ç ÷ :1 (d) ç ÷ :1
end of the composite rod is maintained at 100°C è6ø 2è 3 ø
and the aluminium end at 0°C. The whole rod is
54. A body initially at 80°C cools to 64°C in 5 min and
covered with belt, so that no heat loss occurs at the
to 52°C in 10 min. The temperature of the body
side. If K Cu = 2 K Al and K Al = 3 K Ni , then what
after 15 min will be
will be the temperatures of Cu-Ni and Ni-Al (a) 42.7°C (b) 35°C (c) 47°C (d) 40°C
junctions, repectively?
55. Two bodies A and B have thermal emissivities of
Cu Ni Al 0.01 and 0.81, respectively. The outer surface areas
100°C 0°C of the two bodies are the same. The two bodies emit
total radiant power at the same rate. The
(a) 23.33°C and 78.8°C
wavelength l B corresponding to maximum spectral
(b) 83.33°C and 20°C radiancy in the radiation from B is shifted from the
(c) 50°C and 30°C wavelength corresponding to maximum spectral
(d) 30°C and 50°C radiancy in the radiation from A, by 1.00 mm. If the
50. Three rods of identical area of cross-section and temperature of A is 5802 K, then
made from the same metal form the sides of an (a) the temperature of B is 1836 K
isosceles triangle ABC right angled at B. The points (b) lB = 1.5 mm
A and B are maintained at temperatures T and (c) the temperature of B is 11604 K
2 T, respectively. In the steady state, the (d) the temperature of B is 2901 K
temperature of the point C is TC . Assuming that
T Numerical Value Questions
only heat conduction takes place, C is equal to
T 56. An unknown metal of mass 192 g heated to a
1 3
(a) (b) temperature of 100°C was immersed into a brass
( 2 + 1) ( 2 + 1)
calorimeter of mass 128 g containing 240 g of water
1 1
(c) (d) at a temperature of 8.4°C. The specific heat of the
2 ( 2 - 1) 3 (2 - 1) unknown metal, if water temperature stabilises at
51. A metal rod AB of length 10 x has its one end A in . °C is ……… J kg -1K -1.
215
ice at 0°C and the other end B in water at 100°C. If (Take, specific heat of brass is 394 J kg -1K -1)
[JEE Main 2019]
a point P on the rod is maintained at 400°C, then it
is found that equal amounts of water and ice 57. A cylindrical rod with one end in a θ1
evaporate and melt per unit time. The latent heat steam chamber and the other end R2
of evaporation of water is 540 cal/g and latent heat in ice, results in melting of 0.1 g of θ
of melting of ice is 80 cal/g. If the point P is at a ice per second. If the rod is R1
θ2
distance of lx from the ice end A, find the value of replaced by another with half the
l (Neglect any heat loss to the surroundings). length and double the radius of
(a) 9 (b) 2 the first and if the thermal conductivity of the
(c) 6 (d) 1 material of the second rod is 1/4 that of the first,
the rate at which ice melts in gs–1 will be ……… .
424 JEE Main Physics
58. The maximum energy in the thermal radiation from 62. Two metallic spheres S1 and S2 are made of the
a hot source occurs at l = 11 ´ 10–5 cm. If same material and have identical surface finish.
temperature of another source is n times, for which The mass of S1 is three times that of S2 . Both the
wavelength of maximum energy is 5.5 ´ 10–5 cm, spheres are heated to the same high temperature
then n is ……… . and placed in the same room having lower
59. The latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 calg–1 and temperature but are thermally insulated from each
latent heat of steam is 540 calg–1. Change of state other. The ratio of the initial rate of cooling of S1 to
1/ m
that of S2 is found to be æç ö÷ , then the value of m
occurs only at melting point or boiling point of the 1
substance. There is no change in temperature è3 ø
during the entire change of state. For rise in is ……… .
temperature ( DT) heat required DQ = mcDT, where
63. Two substances A and B of equal mass m are
c is specific heat of the substance. Heat required (in
heated at uniform rate of 6 cal s -1 under similar
cal) to convert 1 g of ice at – 5°C to water at 0°C is
conditions. A graph between temperature and time
……… . (Take, specific heat of ice = 0.5 calg–1°C–1)
is shown in figure. Ratio of heat absorbed H A / H B
60. The temperature gradient in the Earth’s crust is by them for complete fusion is ……… .
32°C km–1 and the mean conductivity of earth is
0.008 cals–1cm–1°C -1. If considering Earth to be a 100
Temperature (°C)
sphere of radius 6000 km, the loss of heat by Earth A
80
everyday is 10x cal, then find the value of x.
60
61. 10 g of ice at –20°C is droped into a calorimeter 40 B
containing 10 g of water at 10°C; the specific heat of
20
water is twice that of ice. When equilibrium is t
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
reached, the difference of masses of ice and water in
calorimeter is x gram, then the value of x is …… .
Answers
Round I
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (c)
61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (a)
71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (a) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (a) 79. (b) 80. (a)
81. (a)
Round II
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. 916 57. 0.2 58. 2 59. 82.5 60. 18
61. 0 62. 3 63. 1.6
Solutions
Round I 7. Triple point of neon (T1 ) = 24.57 K
1. Given, triple point of water on scale A = 200 A Triple point of CO2 (T2) = 216.55 K
Triple point of water on scale B = 350 B On celsius scale, °C = K - 273.15
We know that, triple point of water on absolute scale Triple point of neon,
= 273.16 K t1° C = 24.57 - 273.15 = - 248.58°C
\ 200 A = 350B = 273.16 K Triple point of CO2, t2° C = 216.55 - 273.15
273.16 273.16 = - 56.60°C
\ 1A = K and 1 B = K
200 350 On Fahrenheit scale,
If TA and TB are the triple point of water on two scales K - 273.15 F - 32
=
A and B, then 5 9
273.16 273.16 9
TA = TB or F = (K 1 - 273.15) ´
+ 32
200 350 5
9
TA 200 4 Triple point of neon, F1 = (K 1 - 273.15) ´ + 32
\ = = 5
TB 350 7
9
= (24.57 - 273.15) ´ + 32
2. Let F = K = x 5
F - 32 K - 273 9
As, = = - 248.58 ´ + 32 = - 415.44°F
9 5 5
x - 32 x - 273 9
\ = Triple point of CO2, F2 = (K 2 - 273.15) ´ + 32
9 5 5
9
Þ 9x - 2457 = 5x - 160 = (216.55 - 273.15) ´ + 32
5
Þ 4x - 2457 + 160 = 0
9
2297 = - 56.6 ´ + 32 = - 69.88°F
Þ x= = 574.25 5
4
C x - lower fixed point 68 - 5 7 8. From l2 = l1 [1 + a (t2 - t1 )]
3. = = =
100 upper fixed point – lower point 95 - 5 10 l2 - l1 -103
Þ t 2 = t1 + = 20 +
700 l1a 1.0 ´ 2 ´ 10–5
Þ C= = 70°C
10 = -30° C
4. From graph, we note that for scale A, the lowest fixed 9. When a metallic rod is heated, it expands. Its moment
point is higher than 0° A and the highest point is of inertia (I) about a perpendicular bisector increases.
180°A. For scale B, the lowest point is 0°B and the According to law of conservation of angular
highest point is 100°B. Therefore, the relation momentum, its angular speed (w) decreases, since
tA - 30 t - 0 tB w µ1 / l (according to law of conservation of angular
= B = is correct.
150 100 100 momentum).
5. Since, a Al > asteel , so in bimetallic strip on heating, F L
10. As, DL = aL (DT ) =
aluminium strip will expand more than that of steel AY
strip. Due to it, aluminium strip will bend more on \ F = a (DT ) AY
convex side and steel strip on concave side. = 1.1 ´ 10–5 ´ (50 - 30) ´ 2 ´ 10-6 ´ 2 ´ 1011 = 88 N
Al 11. Here, r 0 = 10 g/cc
Steel
and r100 = 9.7 g /cc, a = ?
6. Here, DT = 20° C - 15° C = 5° C, From r 0 = r100 (1 + g ´ 100)
r -r 10 - 9.7
a = 0.000012° C–1 = 12 ´ 10-6° C–1 Þ g = 0 100 = = 3.09 ´ 10–4
r100 ´ 100 9.7 ´ 100
1
Time lost per day = a (DT ) ´ 86400 s g 3.09 ´ 10–4
2 Q a= = = 1.03 ´ 10–4° C–1
1 3 3
= ´ 12 ´ 10-6 ´ 5 ´ 86400 s
2 12. Here, a (steel) = 1.1 ´ 10–5 ° C–1
= 2.590 s ~
- 2.6 s a (copper) = 1.7 ´ 10–5 ° C–1
426 JEE Main Physics
l0 (S ) a (C) 1.7 ´ 10–5 16. Change in length for both rods are same,
As, = = = 1.545
l0 (C) a (S ) 1.1 ´ 10–5 Q Dl1 = Dl2
\ l0 (S ) = 1.545 l0 (C) Dl = alDT
Also, l0 (S ) - l0 (C) = 5 Þ la1DT1 = la 2DT2
0.545 l0 (C) = 5 a1 DT2
Þ =
5 a 2 DT1
Þ l0 (C) = = 9.17 cm
0.545 4 T - 30
\ = (given, a1 : a 2 = 4 : 3)
and l0 (S ) = 1.545 ´ 9.17 cm = 14.17 cm 3 180 - 30
13. Here, g ag = 10.30 ´ 10–4° C–1, 4 T - 30
=
g am = 10.06 ´ 10–4° C–1, 3 150
a a = 9 ´ 10-6 °C-1 , am = ? Þ T - 30 = 200
Now, g r = g ag + g glass = g am + gm
or T = 200 + 30 = 230°C
\ 10.30 ´ 10–4 + 3 ´ 9 ´ 10-6 = 10.06 ´ 10–4 + gm
DV 0.24
(Q g glass = 3 ´ a a ) 17. Here, g = = = 6 ´ 10-5 / °C
V ´ DT 100 ´ 40
\ gm = (10.30 + 0.27 - 10.06) 10–4 = 0.51 ´ 10–4 g
\Coefficient of linear expansion, a = = 2 ´ 10-5 /° C
1 0.50 ´ 10-4 3
Q am = gm =
3 3 18. Using g real = g app + vessel
= 0.17 ´ 10–4 = 17 ´ 10-6° C–1
\ g vessel = 3a
14. Given, h1 = 50 cm, T1 = 50° C,
For vessel A, g real = g1 + 3a
h2 = 60 cm and T2 = 100° C.
Let the density of the given liquid at STP is r 0. For vessel B, g real = g 2 + 3a 2
If both vertical columns balance each other, then their Hence, g1 + 3a1 = g 2 + 3a 2
pressure should be equal. Þ g1 - g 2 = 3a 2 - 3a1
i.e. p = rgh g1 - g 2
Þ = a 2 - a1
Þ r1 gh1 = r 2gh2 3
r1 h1 g - g2 g - g2
Þ = ……(i) Þ a2 = 1 + a1 = 1 +a
r 2 h2 3 3
If g be the coefficient of absolute expansion of liquid, 19. Here, Dl = 80.3 – 80.0 = 0.3 cm,
then l = 80 cm, a = 1.2 ´ 10–5 ° C–1
p0 r0
r1 = and r 2 = Dl
1 + g T1 1 + g T2 Rise in temperature, DT =
la
\ From Eq. (i), we have 0.3
r0 Þ DT = = 312.5° C
80 ´ 1.2 ´ 10-5
1 + g T1 h1 60
= = 20. g real = g app + g vessel
r0 h2 50
1 + g T2 So, (g app + g vessel )glass = (g app + g vessel )steel
1 + g T1 6 Þ 153 ´ 10-6 + (g vessel )glass = (144 ´ 10-6 + g vessel )steel
Þ =
1 + g T2 5 Further, (g vessel )steel = 3a = 3 ´ (12 ´ 10-6 )
Þ 5gT 2 - 6g T1 = 1 = 36 ´ 10-6/°C
1 1 Þ 153 ´ 10-6 + (g vessel )glass = 144 ´ 10-6 + 36 ´ 10-6
Þ g= =
5T2 – 6 T1 5 ´ 100 – 6 ´ 50 Þ (g vessel )glass = 3a = 27 ´ 10-6/°C
Þ g=
1
= 0.005/°C Þ a = 9 ´ 10-6/°C
200 21. Length of both strips will decrease
15. Let V be the volume of sphere of radius R at Q a A > aB
4
temperature, then V = pR3 . \ DL A > DLB
3
Increase in volume of sphere with rise in temperature
D T,
4
D V = g V D T = 3a ´ p R3
3
D T = 4 p R3 a D T Therefore, it bend towards the left.
Thermometry, Calorimetry and Heat Transfer 427
Þ 376 x = 15080 P R
condition for balanced Wheatstone bridge is =
or x = 40.10 g Q S
~ 40 g (in terms of resistances)
x-
1 / K1 1 / K3 K2 K4
40. Heat absorbed by water = Heat produced = or =
1 /K2 1 /K4 K1 K3
mgh
mc DT = or K 1K 4 = K 2 K 3
J
gh 980 ´ 500 ´ 100 45. Let interface temperature in steady state conduction is
DT = =
Jc 4.2 ´ 107 ´ 1 q, then assuming no heat loss through sides;
900 æ Rate of heat ö æ Rate of heat ö
= = 1.16° C ç ÷ ç ÷
420 çç flow through ÷÷ = çç flow through ÷÷
è first slab ø èsecond slab ø
41. Let m gram of water whose temperature is q ( > 30° C)
be added to 20 g of water at 30°C. Then, d q 3d
m ´ 1 (q - q0 ) = 20 ´ 1 (q0 - 30) θ2 3K K θ1
Þ (m + 20) q0 = 600 + mq (3K ) A (q2 - q) KA (q - q1 )
600 + mq Þ =
Þ q0 = d 3d
20 + m Þ 9(q2 - q) = q - q1
For q0 to be maximum, m should be small and q should
Þ 9 q2 + q1 = 10 q
be large. So, the correct option is (d).
9 1
Þ q= q2 + q1
42. .Using heat lost or gained without change in state is 10 10
DQ = msDT, where s is specific heat capacity and DQ æ DT ö
T = change in temperature. 46. From = KA ç ÷
Dt è Dx ø
Let final temperature of ball be T. DQ Dx
Then, heat lost by ball is, Þ Dt =
KA (DT )
DQ = 0.1 ´ 400(500 - T ) ...(i)
This lost heat by ball is gained by water and vessel In arrangement (ii), A is doubled and Dx is halved.
given as 1 /2 1
\ Dt ® ® time
Heat gained by water, 2 4
1
DQ1 = 0.5 ´ 4200(T - 30) ...(ii) i. e. ´ 4 min = 1 min
4
and heat gained by vessel,
DQ æ DQ ö æ DQ ö
DQ2 = heat capacity ´ DT 47. As, æç ö÷ +ç ÷ =ç ÷
è Dt ø inner è Dt ø outer è Dt ø total
= 800 ´ (T - 30) ...(iii)
K 1pr 2(T2 - T1 ) K 2p [(2 r )2 - r 2] (T2 - T1 )
According to principle of calorimetry, +
l l
total heat lost = total heat gained 2
K p (2 r ) (T2 - T1 )
Þ 0.1 ´ 400(500 - T ) = 0.5 ´ 4200(T - 30) + 800(T - 30) =
l
(2100 + 800)(T - 30)
Þ (500 - T ) = pr 2 (T2 - T1 ) K p 4 r 2(T2 - T1 )
40 or (K 1 + 3 K 2) =
l l
Þ 500 - T = 72 . 5(T - 30)
K1 + 3 K 2
Þ 500 + 217 .5 = 72 .5 T or T = 36.39 K or K =
4
So, percentage increment in temperature of water
36.39 - 30 48. Let the temperature of junction be q.
= ´ 100 » 20% æ DQ ö æ DQ ö
30 ç ÷ =ç ÷
è Dt ø copper è Dt ø steel
43. With increases in temperature, the effective length (l)
of simple pendulum increases even though its centre (100 - q) K 2 A (q - 0)
Þ K1 A =
of mass still remains at the centre of the bob. As time 18 6
period, T = 2 p l/g or T µ l. So, T increases as (100 - q)
Þ 9 K2 = K 2q
temperature increases. 3
44. The equivalent electrical circuit, figure in this case is or 3 q = 900 - 9 q
of Wheatstone bridge. No current would flow through or 12 q = 900
central rod CD when the bridge is balanced. The or q = 75°C
430 JEE Main Physics
49. For parallel combination of two rods of equal length Here, k = 0.1 W K - 1m- 1, l = 1 m,
and equal area of cross-section. T1 = 1000 K and T2 = 100 K
K + K2 0.1(1000 - 100)
K = 1 \ Energy flux = = 90 Wm-2
2 1
4 K1
K1 + 54. 2l
3 é 4K 1 ù
=
2 êë\ K 2 = 3 úû Keq
7 K1 l l 2l
= Reff = + =
6 K1 A K 2A K eq A
K 7
Hence, = 2K 1K 2
K1 6 K eq =
dQ dQ1 dQ2 K1 + K 2
50. As it is clear from figure, = +
dt dt dt DQ æ DT ö 2 DT
K ( A1 + A2) dT dT dT 55. = KA ç ÷ = K (pr )
= K 1 A1 + K 2 A2 Dt è Dx ø (l )
dx dx dx 2
K 1 A1 + K 2A2 æ DQ ö r
\ ç ÷ µ , which is maximum in case (a).
Þ K = è Dt ø l
A1 + A2
51. Growth of ice in a pond is conduction process governed 56. For the two sheets shown in figure, rate of heat
rL y2 transfer is same, i. e.
by the relation, t =
Kq 2 dQ1 dQ2
=
The ratio of times for thickness of ice from 0 to y is 1 : 3. dt dt
dT1 dT2
\ Time taken to increase the thickness from 1 cm to \ =
2 cm is equal to 3 ´ 7 = 21 h. R1 R2
q1 - q q - q2
52. Here, K A = 2 K B (dx)A = d (dx)B =
R1 R2
If q is temperature of junction, (dT )A = qA - q,
Þ q1R2 - qR2 = qR1 - q2 R1
(dT )B = (q - qB )
q R + q2R1
æ dQ ö æ dQ ö or q= 1 2
As, ç ÷ =ç ÷ R1 + R2
è dt ø A è dt ø B
æ DQ ö æ DQ ö
\ K AA
(dT )A
= KB
A (dT )B 57. As, ç ÷ =ç ÷
è D t øP è D t øQ
(dx)A (dx)B
Þ 2 K B (qA - q) = K B (q - qB ) (T1 - T2) (T - T2)
Þ K 1 A1 = K 2 A2 1
l l
Þ 2 qA - 2 q = q - qB
or K 1 A1 = K 2A2
Þ 2 qA + qB = 3 q …(i) A1 K 2
As, qA - qB = 48° or =
A2 K 1
Þ qA = 48 + qB
Put in Eq. (i), we get 58. For the same heat to be conducted, temperature
2 (48 + qB ) + qB = 3 q difference must be same.
Þ 96 + 3 qB = 3 q Initial temperature difference
Þ 96 = 3 (q - qB ) = 10 - (-10) = 20° C = 20 K
Outside temperature = -23° C = -23 + 273 = 250 K
\ q - qB = 96 /3 = 32° C
Inside temperature = 250 + 20 = 270 K
53. Energy flux is the rate of heat flow per unit area
Q KADq Dq Dq
through the rod. 59. As, = = = (R = thermal resistance)
t l (l / KA ) R
Also, rate of flow of heat per unit time through a
material of area of cross-section A and thermal t p R p R /2 1
Þ t µR Þ = = =
conductivity K between the temperatures T1 and ts Rs 2 R 4
T2 (T1 > T2) is given as
ts 4
DQ KA (T1 - T2) Þ tp = = = 1 min
= … (i) 4 4
Dt l
Energy flux using Eq. (i), we get 60. When temperature of a black body is increased by 50%,
1 DQ k(T1 - T2) 150 2
= × = T2 = T1 = T1
A Dt l 100 3
Thermometry, Calorimetry and Heat Transfer 431
Dl
Round II Þ = a ´ 100
KADqt l
1. mL = 0.01 = a ´ 100
Dx
0.0075 ´ 75 ´ (40 - 0)t Þ a = 10-4
Þ 500 ´ 80 =
5 Q Area of copper plate = 2l ´ l = 2l2
Þ t = 8.9 ´ 103 s = 2.47 h By area expansion theory,
2. Let the quantity of heat supplied per minute be Q. Þ DA = bADT
DA
Then, quantity of heat supplied in 2 min = mC (90 - 80) Þ = bDT
In 4 min, heat supplied = 2mC (90 - 80) A
L But b = 2a
\ 2mC (90 - 80) = mL Þ = 20 DA
C \ = 2 aDT
A
3. Rate of cooling æç -
dT ö
÷ µ Emissivity (e) = 2 ´ 10-4 ´ 100
è dt ø
= 2 ´ 10-2
æ dT ö æ dT ö
From graph, ç - ÷ > ç- ÷ Þ ex > ey DA
è dt ø x è dt ø y \ ´ 100 = 2 ´ 10-2 ´ 100
A
Further emissivity (e) µ Absorptive power (a ) = 2%
Þ ax > ay 9. According to Stefan's law, E = sT 4
(Q good absorbers are good emitters)
Þ ln E = ln s + 4 ln T
4. As, b = 2 a and g = 3 a Þ ln E = 4 ln T + ln s
b 2a 2 On comparing this equation with y = mx + c,
\ = =
g 3a 3 we find that graph between ln E and ln T will be a
g 3a 3 straight line, having positive slope (m = 4) and
and = =
a a 1 intercept on ln E axis equal to ln s.
5. According to Wien’s displacement law, Hence, graph shown in option (d) is correct.
1 10. 22 g of CO2 is half mole of CO2, i. e. n1 = 0.5
lm µ
T 16 g of O2 is half mole of O2, i. e. n2 = 0.5
Þ lm2 < lm1 (QT1 < T2) n T + n2T2
\ T= 1 1
Therefore, I-l graph for T2 has lesser wavelength (lm ) n1 + n2
and so curve for T2 will shift towards left side. 0.5 ´ (27 + 273) + 0.5 (37 + 273)
=
So, the graph shown in option (a) is correct. 0.5 + 0.5
dQ dq = 305 K = 305 - 273 = 32°C
6. = - KA D 1
dt dx 11. Here, 1 =
dQ D2 2
Q , K and A are constants for all points
dt A1 D12 1
\ = =
Þ dq µ - dx , i. e. temperature will decrease linearly A2 D22 4
with x. dx1 2
Þ =
So, the graph shown in option (c) is correct. dx2 1
A Area 25. Suppose, height of liquid in each arm before rising the
Þ Rµ µ
m Volume temperature is l.
1
For the same surface area, R µ
Volume
t1
Q Volume of cube < Volume of sphere
t2
Þ RCube > RSphere, i. e. cube cools down with faster rate. l1
l l
l2
22. Heat is lost by steam in two stages
(i) for change of state from steam at 100°C to water at
100°C is m ´ 540.
With temperature rise height of liquid in each arm
(ii) to change water at 100°C to water at 80°C is
m ´ 1 ´ (100 - 80), where m is the mass of steam increases, i. e. l1 > l and l2 > l
condensed. l1 l2
Also, l= =
Total heat lost by steam is m ´ 540 + m ´ 20 1 + gt1 1 + gt2
= 560 m(cals.) Heat gained by calorimeter and its
Þ l1 + gl1 t2 = l2 + gl2 t1
contents is
l -l
= (1.1 + 0.02) ´ (80 - 15) Þ g= 1 2 .
= 1.12 ´ 65cal l2t1 - l1t2
Using principle of calorimetry, heat gained = heat lost 26. Heat developed by the heater,
\ 560m = 1.12 ´ 65 V 2 t (200)2 ´ t
m = 0.130 kg H = × =
R J 20 ´ 4 .2
23. Initially ice will absorb heat to raise its temperature to
Heat conducted by the glass
0°C, then its melting takes place.
mi = initial mass of ice, 0.2 ´ 1 ´ (20 - q)t
If H =
mi ¢ = mass of ice that melts 0.002
and mw = initial mass of water. (200)2 ´ t 0.2 ´ (20 - q) t
Hence, =
By law of mixture, 20 ´ 4.2 0.002
heat gained by ice = heat lost by water Þ q = 15.24°C
Þ mi ´ c ´ (20) + mi ¢ ´ L = mw cw (20) 27. Energy received per second, i. e. power, P µ (T 4 - T04 )
Þ 2 ´ 0.5(20) + m1 ¢ ´ 80 = 5 ´ 1 ´ 20 Þ P µT4 (Q T0 << T )
Þ m1 ¢ = 1 kg 1
Also, energy received per sec (P ) µ 2 (inverse square
So, final mass of water d
= initial mass of water + mass of ice that melts law)
= 5 + 1 = 6 kg T4
Þ Pµ 2
24. If mass of the bullet is m gram, d
4 2
then total heat required for bullet to just melt down P1 æT ö æd ö
Þ = çç 1 ÷÷ ´ ç 2 ÷
Q1 = mcDq + mL = m ´ 0.03(327 - 27) + m ´ 6 P2 è T 2 ø è d1 ø
= 15 m cal = (15m ´ 4.2)J 4 2 2
P æT ö æ 2d ö æ 2d ö 1
Þ =ç ÷ ´ç ÷ ´ç ÷ =
Now, when bullet is stopped by the obstacle, the loss P2 è 2T ø è dø è dø 4
1
in its mechanical energy = (m ´ 10-3 )v2J Þ P2 = 4 P
2
(as mg = m ´ 10-3 kg) 28. Radiated power, P = AesT 4 Þ P µ AT 4
As, 25% of this energy is absorbed by the obstacle. 1
From Wien's law, lmT = constant Þ T µ
The energy absorbed by the bullet, lm
Q2 =
75 1 3
´ mv2 ´ 10-3 = mv2 ´ 10-3 J A r2
\ Pµ µ
100 2 8 (lm ) 4
(lm )4
Now, the bullet will melt, if Q2 ³ Q1
3 22 42 62
i. e. mv2 ´ 10-3 ³ 15 m ´ 4.2 Þ Qa : Qb : Qc = : :
8 (300) (400) (500)4
4 4
30. Heat transferred in one minute is utilised in melting 35. Substances having more specific heat take longer time
to get heated to a higher temperature and longer time
the ice, so
to get cooled.
KA (q1 - q2)t
=m ´ L T
l A
-3
10 ´ 92 ´ (100 - 0) ´ 60 B
Þ m=
1 ´ 8 ´ 104 C
-3
= 6.9 ´ 10 kg
dT sA
31. = (T 4 - T04 ) [in the given problem, fall in t
dt mcJ tA tB tC
temperature of body, dT = (200 - 100) = 100K,
If we draw a line parallel to the time axis, then it cuts
temperature of surrounding, T0 = 0K, initial
the given graphs at three different points.
temperature of body, T = 200 K] Corresponding points on the times axis shows that
100 s 4 pr 2 tC > tB > tA
= (2004 - 04 )
dt 4 3
pr rcJ Þ CC > CB > C A
3
rrcJ rrc 4.2 AT 16
Þ dt = ´ 10-6 s = ´ ´ 10-6 36. = (given)
48s s 48 A2000 1
7 rrc 7 rrc Area under E l -l curve represents the emissive power
= ms » ms (Q J = 4.2)
80 s 72 s of body and emissive power µ T 4.
dQ KA 0.01 ´ 1
32. = dq = ´ 30 = 6 J/s (Hence, area under E l -l curve) µ T 4
dt l 0.05 4
AT æ T ö
Heat transferred in one day (86400 s), Þ =ç ÷
A2000 è 2000 ø
Q = 6 ´ 86400 = 518400 J
4
Now, Q = mL 16 æ T ö
Þ =ç ÷
1 è 2000 ø
Q 518400
Þ m= =
L 334 ´ 103 Þ T = 4000 K
= 1.552 kg = 1552 g dq
37. For q-t plot, rate of cooling = = slope of the curve.
dt
Q KADq mL K (pr 2)Dq
33. = Þ = dq
t l t l At P , = tan f2 = k (q2 - q0 )
2
dt
æ m ö Kr
Rate of melting of ice ç ÷ µ where, k = constant.
è tø l
Thermometry, Calorimetry and Heat Transfer 437
3R 3 l0
TP - TQ = I ´ [using Eq. (i)] T = b = l 0T0
5 4
120 ´ 5 3R 4
= ´ = 45°C or T = T0
8R 5 3
4
43. The expansion of solids can be well understood by æ4ö
Power radiated, P = CT 4 = CT04 ç ÷
potential energy curve for two adjacent atoms in è3ø
crystalline solid as a function of their intermolecular 256 P 256
P = P0 ´ or =
separation (r ). 81 P0 81
U 46. As the coefficient of cubical expansion of metal is less
as compared to the coefficient of cubical expansion of
liquid, we may neglect the expansion of metal ball. So,
r when the ball is immersed in alcohol at 0°C, it
P3 displaces some volume V of alcohol at 0°C and has
E P2 FT
3 weight w1.
C P1 D T2
BT
\ w1 = w0 - vr 0 g
A
r0 1
where, w0 = weight of ball in air.
r1
r2 Similarly, w2 = w0 - vr 0 g
where, r 0 = density of alchohol at 0°C
T3 > T2 > T1
and r59 = density of alchohol at 59°C
At ordinary temperature Each molecule of the
solid vibrates about its equilibrium position P1 As r59 < r 0 ,
between A and B (r0 is the equilibrium distance of it Þ w2 > w1
from some other molecules) or w1 < w2
At high temperature Amplitude of vibration 47. Heat gain = Heat lost
increases (C « D and E « F ). Due to asymmetry in
C A (16 - 12) = CB (19 - 16)
the curve, the equilibrium positions (P2 and P3 ) of the
CA 3
molecule is displaced. Hence, its distance from other Þ =
molecules increases (r2 > r1 > r0 ). Thus, on raising the CB 4
temperature, the average equilibrium distance and CB (23 - 19) = CC (28 - 23)
between the molecules increase and the solid as a CB 5
whole expands. Þ =
CC 4
44. Initial diameter of tyre = (1000 - 6) mm = 994 mm C A 15
994 Þ = …(i)
Initial radius of tyre, R = = 497 mm CC 16
2
If q is the temperature when A and C are mixed, then
and change in diameter, DD = 6 mm
C A (q - 12) = CC (28 - q)
6
DR = = 3mm C A 28 - q
2 Þ = …(ii)
CC q - 12
After increasing temperature by Dq, tyre will fit on
wheel. On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get q = 20.2°C
Increment in the length (circumference) of the iron 48. Suppose m kg steam is required per hour.
tyre,
Heat is released by steam in following three steps
g æ gö
DL = L ´ a ´ Dq = L ´ ´ Dq çQ a = ÷ (i) When 150°C steam ¾® 100°C steam
3 è 3ø Q1
ægö Q1 = mcsteam Dq
2 p D R = 2 p Rç ÷ D q
è3ø = m ´ 1(150 - 100) = 50m cal
3 DR 3 ´3 (ii) When 100°C steam ¾® 100°C water
Þ Dq = = Q2
g R 3.6 ´ 10-5 ´ 497
Q2 = mLv = m ´ 540 = 540m cal
Þ Dq @ 500°C
(iii) When 100°C water ¾® 90°C water
Q2
45. Let T0 be the initial temperature of the black body. Q3 = mcw Dq = m ´ 1 ´ (100 - 90) = 10 m cal
\ l 0T0 = b (Wien’s law) Hence, total heat given by the steam
Power radiated, P0 = CT04, where C is constant. Q = Q1 + Q2 + Q3 = 600 m cal
If T is new temperature of black body, then
Thermometry, Calorimetry and Heat Transfer 439
Substituting the value of a in Eq. (i), we get 56. The principle of calorimetry states that total heat lost
Qsphere 4pr 2 4 pr 2 by the hotter body equals to the total heat gained by
= =
Qcube 6a 2 ì æ 4 ö 1/3 ü
2 colder body, provided that there is no exchange of heat
6í ç p ÷ rý with the surroundings.
è ø
î 3 þ Let specific heat of unknown metal be s and heat lost
4 pr 2 æpö
1/3 by this metal be DQ.
= =ç ÷ :1
æ4 ö
2/3
2
è6ø Heat lost and specific heat of a certain
6ç p ÷ r material/substance are related as DQ = msDT … (i)
è3 ø
For unknown metal, m = 192 g and
54. According to Newton’s law of cooling, DT = (100 - 21.5) º C
q1 - q2 é q + q2 ù \ DQ ¢ = 192(100 - 21.5) ´ s ...(ii)
= Kê 1 - q0 ú
t ë 2 û Now, this heat is gained by the calorimeter and water
1 5 min
inside it.
80ºC 64ºC
2 10 min
As, heat gained by calorimeter can be calculated by
52ºC Eq. (i).
3 15 min
θ=? So, for brass specific heat,
For first process, s = 394 J kg - 1 K - 1 (given)
(80 - 64) é 80 + 64 ù
= Kê - q0 ú ...(i) = 0.394 J g - 1 K - 1
5 ë 2 û
Mass of calorimeter, m = 128 g
For second process,
Change in temperature, DT = (21.5 - 8.4)º C
(80 - 52) é 80 + 52 ù
= Kê - q0 ú ...(ii) So, using Eq. (i) for calorimeter, heat gained by brass
10 ë 2 û
DQ1 = 128 ´ 0.394 ´ (21.5 - 8.4) …(iii)
For third process,
Heat gained by water can be calculated as follows
(80 - q) é 80 + q ù
= Kê - q0 ú ...(iii) mass of water, m = 240 g,
15 ë 2 û specific heat of water, s = 4.18 J g - 1K - 1,
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get change in temperature, DT = (21.5 - 8.4)º C
1
K = and q0 = 24° C Using Eq. (i) for water also, we get
15 heat gained by water,
Putting these values in Eq. (iii), we get DQ2 = 240 ´ 4.18 ´ (21.5 - 8.4) …(iv)
q0 = 42.7°C
Now, according to the principle of calorimeter, the
55. According to Stefan's law, E = eAsT 4 total heat gained by the calorimeter and water must be
equal to heat lost by unknown metal
Þ E A = eA AsTA4
DQ ¢ = DQ1 + DQ2
and EB = eB AsTB4
Using Eqs. (ii), (iii) and (iv), we get
Q E A = EB
Þ = 192(100 - 21.5) ´ s
\ eATA4 = eBTB4
1 1
= 128 ´ 0.394 ´ (21.5 - 8.4) + 240
æe ö4 æ 1 ö4 ´ 4.18 ´ (21.5 - 8.4)
Þ TB = ç A TA4 ÷ = ç ´ (5802)4 ÷
è eB ø è 81 ø Þ 15072 s = 660.65 + 13142
Þ TB = 1934 Þ s = 0.916 J g - 1 K - 1
and from Wiens law, or s = 916 J kg - 1K - 1
l A ´ TA = lB ´ TB Q KADq
57. Since, =
l A TB t l
Þ = mL K (pr 2)Dq
lB TA Þ =
t l
lB - l A TA - TB
Þ = m Kr 2
lB TA Þ µ
t l
1 5802 - 1934 3868 æmö
Þ = = ç ÷ 2
lB 5802 5802 è t ø 2 K 2 æ r2 ö l
Þ = ´ç ÷ ´ 1
Þ lB = 1.5 m m æmö K 1 è r1 ø l2
ç ÷
è t ø1
Thermometry, Calorimetry and Heat Transfer 441
14
θ
A r
Kinetic Theory
of Gases
Ideal Gas or Perfect Gas IN THIS CHAPTER ....
A gas which strictly obeys the gas laws such as Boyle’s law, Charles’ law, Ideal Gas or Perfect Gas
Gay-Lussac’s law, Avogadro’s law, etc., is known as an ideal gas or perfect gas. Equation of State of a Perfect Gas
These law (gaseous laws) are given below Kinetic Theory of Gases
Boyle’s Law According to this law, ‘‘for a given mass of an ideal gas at Degree of Freedom
constant temperature (called isothermal process), the volume of a gas is Internal Energy of an Ideal Gas
1
inversely proportional to its pressure.’’ i. e. V µ (if m and T = constant) Law of Equipartition of Energy
p
Specific Heat Capacity of
Graphical forms of such law are shown in following figure
Monoatomic, Diatomic and
p p pV 1/p Polyatomic Gases
m= constant m= constant m = constant m= constant
T = constant T = constant T =constant T =constant Mean Free Path
V 1/ V 1/V
(a) (b) (c) p or V (d)
Charles’ Law According to this law, ‘‘for a given mass of an ideal gas at
constant pressure (called isobaric process), volume of a gas is directly
proportional to its absolute temperature.’’
i.e. V µ T (if m and p = constant)
Graphical forms of such law are shown in following figure
V V/T 1/T V/T
m =constant
p =constant m =constant m =constant m =constant
p =constant p =constant p =constant
Gay-Lussac’s Law or Pressure Law According to this Work Done on Compressing a Gas
law, ‘‘for a given mass of an ideal gas at constant volume
(called isochoric process), pressure of a gas is directly Work done on compressing a gas can be written as
proportional to its absolute temperature.’’ mR (T2 - T1 )
W =
i.e. p µ T (if m and V = constant) 1- n
Graphical forms of such law are shown in following figure where, m = total mass of the gas,
R = universal gas constant,
p p/T
m = constant n = number of moles of the gas,
V =constant m = constant
V =constant T1 and T2 = initial and final temperature of the gas.
Example 3. Two moles of an ideal gas is contained in a When volume of gas is V0 , then by substituting V = V0 in Eq. (iii),
cylinder fitted with a frictionless movable piston, exposed to we get
the atmosphere, at an initial temperature T0. The gas is slowly Temperature of gas is
p V é 1 æV ö ù p V
2
heated so that its volume becomes four times the initial value.
The work done by the gas is T1 = 0 0 ê1 - ç 0 ÷ ú = 0 0
R ê 2 è V0 ø ú 2R
ë û
(a) zero (b) 2 RT0 (c) 4 RT0 (d) 6 RT0
Similarly, at volume, V = 2V0
Sol. (d) Given that gas is slowly heated, which means it remains
Temperature of gas is
in equilibrium with the atmosphere, i. e. the process takes place at
p (2V ) é 1 æ V ö ù 7 p0V0
2
constant pressure.
T2 = 0 0 ê1 - ç 0 ÷ ú =
R êë 2 è 2V0 ø úû 4 R
Piston So, change in temperature as volume changes from V0 to 2V0 is
Gas æ 7 1ö p V 5 p0V0
DT = T2 - T1 = ç - ÷ 0 0 =
è 4 2ø R 4 R
From the equation of ideal gas law, Example 5. A vessel contains two non-reactive gases
pV = nRT neon (monoatomic) and oxygen (diatomic). The ratio of their
For infinitesimal change, partial pressure is 3 : 2. The ratio of number of molecules
pdV = nR dT is [Given atomic mass of Ne = 20.2 u, molecular mass of
or pDV = nR DT O 2 = 32 u] [NCERT]
Also, pDV = work done by the gas = DW 2 3 4 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
\ DW = nRDT 3 2 3 4
Also, DV µ DT Sol. (b) Each gas (assumed ideal) obey the gas laws. Since, V and
\ DT µ DV µ V2 - V1 T are common to the two gases, we have
Given, V2 = 4 V1 p1V = m1 RT and p2V = m 2 RT
\ DT µ 4 V1 - V1 µ 3 V1 µ 3 T0 p1 m1
Also, it is given that, n = 2 moles =
p2 m 2
The expression for work done becomes
DW = nRDT Here, 1 and 2 refer to neon and oxygen gas respectively.
p1 3
DW = 2 R 3T0 = 6 RT0 Given, =
p2 2
Example 4. One mole of an ideal gas passes through a m1 3
=
process, where pressure and volume obey the relation m2 2
é 1 æV ö ù
2
N N
p = p 0 ê1 - ç 0 ÷ ú. Here, p 0 and V0 are constants. Calculate By definition, m1 = 1 and m 2 = 2
êë 2 è V ø úû NA NA
where, N1 and N2 are the number of molecules of two gases and
the change in the temperature of the gas if its volume changes NA is Avogadro’s number.
from V0 to 2V0. [JEE Main 2019] N1 m1 3
= =
1 p0V0 1 p0V0 3 p0V0 5 p0V0 N2 m 2 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 R 4 R 4 R 4 R
Sol. (d) Given process equation for 1 mole of an ideal gas is Kinetic Theory of Gases
é 1 æ V ö 2ù The kinetic theory of gases correlates the macroscopic
p = p0 ê1 - ç 0 ÷ ú …(i) properties of gases (e. g. pressure, temperature, etc) to the
êë 2 è V ø úû
microscopic properties of gas molecules (e. g. speed,
Also, for 1 mole of ideal gas, momentum, kinetic energy of molecules, etc). This theory
pV = RT attempts to develop a model of the molecular behaviour
RT of gas, which results in the observed behaviour of an
\ p= …(ii)
V ideal gas. The kinetic theory of gases is based on the
So, from Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have following assumptions
RT é 1 æ V ö 2ù (i) A gas consists of a large number of tiny, identical,
= p0 ê1 - ç 0 ÷ ú
V êë 2 è V ø úû spherical and electrically neutral, stable elastic
particles called molecules.
p V é 1 æV ö ù
2
\ T = 0 ê1 - ç 0 ÷ ú …(iii) (ii) The space occupied by the molecules of a gas is
R êë 2 è V ø úû extremely small as compared to the volume of the gas.
Kinetic Theory of Gases 445
1 2
T2>T1 rv = average kinetic energy of the gas per unit
Number of
Now,
2
volume = E.
2
\ p= E
3
(vmp) Molecular speed (v)
(iv) Each molecule behaves as an independent entity. Kinetic Energy and Temperature
There is no force of attraction among the 1
According to kinetic theory of gases, pV = mNv 2 …(i)
molecules. Thus, gas molecules have no potential 3
energy but possess only kinetic energy which is but according to equation of state for an ideal gas,
directly proportional to temperature of the gas.
pV = nRT …(ii)
(v) The pressure of a gas is due to elastic collision of
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
gas molecules with the walls of the container.
1 3 RT 3
(vi) The dynamics of the particles is governed by mv 2 = = kT
2 2 n 2
Newton’s laws of motion.
where, k is the Boltzmann’s constant. Its value is
(vii) The time of contact of a moving molecule with the
container walls at the time of collision is negligible 1.38 ´ 10–23 J mol–1 K –1.
as compared to the time between two successive \Mean translational kinetic energy of a gas molecule
collisions with the same wall of the container. 3
= kT , i. e. the mean translational kinetic energy of a gas
2
Concept of Pressure molecule depends only on its temperature and is
On the basis of above assumptions, we can perform independent of its nature or mass, etc.
mathematical calculations to find expression for pressure On this basis, we can define absolute zero temperature as
exerted by a gas. Accordingly, we find that the temperature at which translational kinetic energy of
1 a gas molecule becomes zero, i. e. at which the molecular
pV = mN ( v )2
3 motion ceases altogether.
where, m = mass of 1 gas molecule and N = total number
of gas molecules and v = root mean square velocity. Example 6. At what temperature does the average
1/ 2 translational kinetic energy of a molecule in a gas becomes
é v2 + v22 + ¼+ vN2 ù
vrms = v = ê 1 ú equal to the kinetic energy of an electron accelerated from
ë N û rest through 1 V potential difference (k = 1.38 ´ 10 –23 JK -1)
y (a) 7330 K (b) 7730 K
(c) 7530 K (d) 7430 K
Sol. (a) Root mean square velocity of hydrogen molecule is given For example In Fig. (a), block has one degree of freedom,
as because it is confined to move in a straight line and has
3kBT only one translational degree of freedom.
vrms =
m In Fig. (b), the projectile has two degrees of freedom
Escape velocity of hydrogen molecule from the earth is given as because it is confined to move in a plane and so it has two
v e = 2gRe translational degrees of freedom.
Given, vrms = v e In Fig. (c), the sphere has two degrees of freedom, i.e. one
rotational and another translational.
3kBT
or = 2gRe Similarly, a particle free to move in space will have three
m translational degrees of freedom.
2gRem
Þ T= ● Degrees of freedom for different gases according to
Since, volume of the cylinder is fixed, the heat required is Example 14. A vessel contains a mixture of 7 g of nitrogen
determined by CV .
and 11g of carbon dioxide at temperature T = 300 K. If the
\ Heat required = Number of moles ´ Molar specific heat
pressure of the mixture is 1 atm (1 ´ 10 5 N / m 2), its density is
at constant volume ´ Rise in temperature
= 2 ´ 1.5 R ´ 15 = 45 R
(Given, gas constant, R = 2513 J / mol K)
(a) 0.72 kg /m3 (b) 1.44 kg /m3
= 45 ´ 8.31= 374 J
(c) 2.88 kg /m3 (d) 5.16 kg /m3
Mean Free Path Sol. (b) The expression for density of a mixture of gases is given
pMmix
Every gas consists of a very large number of molecules. by, r mix =
These molecules are in a state of continuous rapid and RT
random motion. They undergo perfectly elastic collision where, Mmix is the mass of mixture of non-reactive gases, p is
against one another. Therefore, path of a single gas pressure, R is gas constant and T is temperature.
molecule consists of a series of short zig-zag paths of n1M1 + n2 M2
different lengths. The mean free path of a gas molecule is Mmix =
n1 + n2
the average distance between two successive collisions. Given, Mass of nitrogen gas, mN2 = 7 g = 7 ´ 10 -3 kg
1
Mathematically, it is expressed as l =
2 pd 2nV Mass of carbon dioxide, mCO2 = 11 g = 11 ´ 10 –3 kg
nV = number of molecules per unit volume. Molecular weight of carbon dioxide, MCO2 = 44 ´ 10 -3 kg
The number of molecules per unit volume can be mN2 mCO2
determined from Avogadro’s number and the ideal gas MN2 + MCO2
nN2MN2 MN2 MCO2
law leading to Mmix = =
nN2 + nCO2 mN2 mCO2
nN A nN A N p +
nV = = = A MN2 MCO2
V nRT RT
p mN2 + mCO2 (7 + 11) ´ 10 -3
Mmix = =
RT mN2 mCO2 æ 7 ´ 10 -3 11 ´ 10 -3 ö
\ l= + ç + ÷
2 p d 2N A p MN2 M CO2 è 28 ´ 10 -3 44 ´ 10 -3 ø
Sol. (a) Equilibrium of piston gives The gas absorbs 7000 J of heat as its temperature is increased
pS = pa S + mg + kx0 from 300 K to 1000 K is going from a to b. The quantity of
mg kx0 heat ejected by the gas. process ca is
p = pa + + (p = final pressure of gas)
S S (a) 4200 J (b) 5000 J
(c) 9800 J (d) 3500 J
paS
Sol. (c) Given that gas absorbs 7000 J of energy, hence
( DQ) ab = mCV DT
\ + 7000 = mCV (1000 - 300)
pS
For the process ca, Ta = 300 K
mg kx0
Tc = Tb = 1000 K
Work done by the gas is equal to work done against atmospheric
( DQ) ca = mC p DT
pressure + elastic potential energy stored in the spring + increase
in gravitational potential energy of the piston. = mC p (300 - 1000)
1 = - mC p ´ 700
= pa DV + kx02 + mgx0
2 Also, C p - CV = R
1 \ C p = R + CV
= pa Sx0 + kx02 + mgx0
2
( DQ) ca = -m (CV + R) 700
This is also the decrease in internal energy of the gas, because the
gas is thermally insulated and this work is done at the expense of 2 2 7
For carbon monoxide, g = 1 + = 1+ =
internal energy of the gas. n 5 5
R R 5R
CV = = =
Example 16. Carbon monoxide is carried around a closed g -1 7 -1 2
cycle abc, in which bc is an isothermal process, as shown. 5
Hence, we have ( DQ) ab = mCV 700
p2 b 5R
( DQ) ab = m ´ 700 = 7000
2
20
or mR = =4
p1 c 5
a
\ ( DQ) ca = - (7000 + 4 ´ 700) = -9800 J
O V Negative sign shows that heat is ejected.
V1 V2
Practice Exercise
ROUND I Topically Divided Problems
Ideal Gas, Kinetic Theory of Gases 7. The volume V of an enclosure contains a mixture of
and Degree of Freedom three gases : 16g of oxygen, 28 g of nitrogen and
44 g of carbon dioxide at absolute temperature T.
1. An oxygen cylinder of volume 30 L has an initial Consider R as universal gas constant. The pressure
gauge pressure of 15 atm and a temperature of of the mixture of gases is [JEE Main 2021]
27°C. After some oxygen is withdrawn from the 88 RT 3 RT 5 RT 4 RT
cylinder, the gauge pressure drops to 11 atm and (a) (b) (c) . (d)
V V 2 V V
its temperature drops to 17°C. Estimate the mass
of oxygen taken out of the cylinder. 8. rms velocity of a particle is c at pressure p. If
(Take, R = 8.31Jmol –1 K -1 and molecular mass of pressure is increased two times, then rms velocity
O2 = 32 u) [NCERT] becomes
(a) 0.14 g (b) 0.02 g (c) 0.14 kg (d) 0.014 kg (a) 0.5 c (b) c (c) 2 c (d) 3 c
2. At room temperature (27°C), the rms speed of the 9. Calculate the rms speed of smoke particles each of
molecules of a certain diatomic gas is found to be mass 5 ´ 10-17 kg in their Brownian motion in air
1920 ms–1.The gas is at NTP ( k = 1.38 ´ 10–23 JK –1 )
(a) Cl2 (b) O2 (c) N2 (d) H2 (a) 1.5 mm s–1 (b) 1.5 ms–1
(c) 1.5 cms–1 (d) 1.5 kms–1
3. The rms velocity of gas molecules is 300 ms–1. The
rms velocity of molecules of gas with twice the 10. If cs is the velocity of sound in air and c is the rms
molecular mass and half the absolute temperature velocity, then
is (a) cs < c (b) cs = c
1/ 2
(a) 300 ms–1 (b) 600 ms–1 ægö
(c) cs = c ç ÷ (d) None of these
(c) 75 ms–1 (d) 150 ms–1 è3ø
4. 8 g of O2 , 14 g of N2 and 22 g of CO2 is mixed in a 11. In a diatomic molecule, the rotational energy at a
container of 10 L capacity at 27°C. The pressure given temperature [NCERT Exemplar]
exerted by the mixture in terms of atmospheric (a) do not obey Maxwell’s distribution
pressure is (R = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1) (b) have the same value for all molecules
(a) 1.4 atm (b) 2.5 atm (c) equals the translational kinetic energy for each
(c) 3.7 atm (d) 8.7 atm molecule
5. At a certain temperature, the ratio of the rms (d) is (2/3)rd the translational kinetic energy for each
velocity of H2 molecules to O2 molecule is molecule
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 12. ABCDEFGH is hollow cube made of an insulator.
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 16 : 1 Face ABCD has positive charge on it. Inside the
6. Two containers of equal volume contain the same cube, we have ionized hydrogen.
gas at the pressures p1 and p2 and absolute B C
temperatures T1 and T2 respectively. On joining the +P
vessels, the gas reaches a common pressure p and a A D
common temperature T. The ratio p/T is equal to
p1T2 + p2T2 p1T2 + p2T1 G
(a) (b) F
T1 ´ T2 T1 + T2
E H
1 æ p1T2 + p2T1 ö p1T2 - p2T1
(c) ç ÷ (d) The usual kinetic theory expression for pressure
2è T1T2 ø T1 ´ T2
[NCERT Exemplar]
Kinetic Theory of Gases 453
(a) will be valid 18. A 25 ´ 10-3 m 3 volume cylinder is filled with 1 mole
(b) will be valid since the ions would experience forces of O2 gas at room temperature (300 K). The
larger than due to collisions with the walls molecular diameter of O2 and its root mean square
(c) will not be valid since collisions with walls would speed are found to be 0.3 nm and 200 m/s,
not be elastic respectively. What is the average collision rate (per
(d) will not be valid because isotropy is lost second) for an O2 molecule? [JEE Main 2019]
13. Consider a sample of oxygen behaving like an ideal (a) ~ 1010 (b) ~ 1012
gas. At 300 K, the ratio of root mean square (rms) 11
(c) ~ 10 0 (d) ~ 108
velocity to the average velocity of gas molecule
would be (Take, molecular weight of oxygen
19. Consider two ideal diatomic gases A and B at some
-1 temperature T. Molecules of the gas A are rigid and
= 32 g/mol and R = 8.3 JK - 1 mol ) [JEE Main 2021] have a mass m. Molecules of the gas B have an
3 8 m
(a) (b) additional vibrational mode and have a mass .
8 3 4
3p 8p The ratio of the specific heats (CVA andCVB ) of gas A
(c) (d) and B respectively is [JEE Main 2020]
8 3
(a) 5 : 9 (b) 7 : 9
14. N molecules, each of mass m, of gas A and 2 N (c) 3 : 5 (d) 5 : 7
molecules, each of mass 2 m, of gas B are contained
in the same vessel which is maintained at a 20. The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule at
temperature T. The mean square velocity of 27°C is 6.21 ´ 10–21 J. Its average kinetic energy at
molecules of B type is denoted by V2 and the mean 127°C will be
V (a) 12.2 ´ 10–21 J
square velocity of A type is denoted by V1, then 1
V2 (b) 8.28 ´ 10–21 J
(c) 10.35 ´ 10–21 J
is
(a) 2 (b) 1 (d) 11.35 ´ 10–21 J
(c) 1/3 (d) 2/3 21. The root mean square velocity of the molecules in a
sample of helium is 5/7th that of the molecules in a
15. If 1022 gas molecules each of mass 10-26 kg collide
sample of hydrogen. If the temperature of the
with a surface (perpendicular to it) elastically per
hydrogen as is 0°C, that of helium sample is about
second over an area 1 m2 with a speed 104 m/s, the
(a) 0°C (b) 4 K
pressure exerted by the gas molecules will be of the (c) 273°C (d) 100°C
order of [JEE Main 2019]
(a) 104 N /m2 (b) 108 N /m2 Internal Energy, Specific Heat
0 2
(c) 10 N /m (d) 1016 N /m2 Capacity and Mean Free Path
16. To raise the temperature of a certain mass of gas 22. The value of molar specific heat at constant volume
by 50°C at a constant pressure, 160 cal of heat is for 1 mole of polyatomic gas having n number of
required. When the same mass of gas is cooled by degrees of freedom at temperature T K is
100°C at constant volume, 240 cal of heat is (R = universal gas constant)
released. How many degrees of freedom does each nR nR
(a) (b)
molecule of this gas have (assume gas to be ideal)? 2T 2
[JEE Main 2020] nRT
(c) (d) 2 nRT
(a) 5 (b) 7 2
(c) 6 (d) 3
23. For a gas, if the ratio of specific heats at constant
17. The specific heats, C p and CV of a gas of diatomic pressure and constant volume is g, then the value
molecules, A are given (in units of J mol -1 K -1) by of degrees of freedom is
29 and 22, respectively. Another gas of diatomic g+1 g -1
(a) (b)
molecules B, has the corresponding values of C p g -1 g+1
and CV given as 30 and 21, respectively. If they are (g - 1) 2
(c) (d)
treated as ideal gases, then respectively. 2 g -1
[JEE Main 2019]
24. Two moles of monoatomic gas is mixed with three
(a) A has a vibrational mode but B has none
moles of a diatomic gas. The molar specific heat of
(b) both A and B have a vibrational mode each
the mixture at constant volume is
(c) A has one vibrational mode and B has two (a) 1.55 R (b) 2.10 R
(d) A is rigid but B has a vibrational mode (c) 1.63 R (d) 2.20 R
454 JEE Main Physics
A. The mean free path of the molecules decreases. 35. Number of molecules in a volume of 4 cm 3 of a
perfect monoatomic gas at some temperature T and
B. The mean collision time between the molecules at a pressure of 2 cm of mercury is close to
decreases. (Given, mean kinetic energy of a molecule at T is
C. The mean free path remains unchanged. 4 ´ 10-14 erg, g = 980 cm/s2 , density of mercury
D. The mean collision time remains unchanged. = 13.6 g/cm 3) [JEE Main 2020]
(a) B and C (b) A and B (a) 5.8 ´ 1016 (b) 4.0 ´ 1016
(c) C and D (d) A and D (c) 4.0 ´ 1018 (d) 5.8 ´ 1018
31. The plot that depicts the behaviour of the mean 36. Consider a mixture of n moles of helium gas and 2n
free time t (time between two successive collisions) moles of oxygen gas (molecules taken to be rigid) as
for the molecules of an ideal gas, as a function of an ideal gas. Its C p / CV value will be [JEE Main 2020]
temperature ( T), qualitatively is (graphs are (a) 40/27 (b) 23/15
schematic and not drawn to scale) (c) 19/13 (d) 67/45
Kinetic Theory of Gases 455
37. An HCl molecule has rotational, translational and by atoms. The internal energy of a mole of the gas
vibrational motions. If the rms velocity of HCl at temperature T is [JEE Main 2020]
molecules in its gaseous phase is v, m is its mass
and kB is Boltzmann constant, then its temperature
will be [JEE Main 2019]
mv 2 mv 2 mv 2 mv 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3kB 7kB 5kB 6kB
5 3
38. Consider a gas of triatomic molecules. The (a) RT (b) RT
2 2
molecules are assumed to be triangular and made 9
(c) RT (d) 3 RT
of massless rigid rods whose vertices are occupied 2
9. Half-mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is heated at 16. Consider an ideal gas confined in an isolated closed
constant pressure of 1 atm from 20° C to 90° C . chamber. As the gas undergoes an adiabatic
Work done by gas is close to expansion, the average time of collision between
(Take, gas constant, R = 8.31 J/mol-K) molecules increases as V q , where V is the volume of
(a) 291 J (b) 581 J [ JEE Main 2019] æ Cp ö
(c) 146 J (d) 73 J the gas. The value of q is ç g = ÷ [JEE Main 2015]
è CV ø
10. One kg of a diatomic gas is at a pressure of 3g + 5 3g - 5
8 ´ 104 Nm -2 . The density of the gas is 4 kgm -3. (a)
6
(b)
6
What is the energy of the gas due to its thermal g+1 g -1
motion? [AIEEE 2009]
(c) (d)
2 2
(a) 3 ´ 104 J (b) 5 ´ 104 J
(c) 6 ´ 104 J (d) 7 ´ 104 J
17. A gaseous mixture consists of 16 g of helium and
Cp
16 g of oxygen. The ratio of the mixture is
11. The potential energy function for the force between CV [AIEEE 2005]
two atoms in a diatomic molecule is approximately (a) 1.59 (b) 1.62 (c) 1.4 (d) 1.54
a b
given by U( x) = 12 - 6 , where a and b are
x x 18. A vertical closed cylinder is separated into two
constants and x is the distance between the atoms. parts by a frictionless piston of mass m and of
If the dissociation energy of the molecule is negligible thickness. The piston is free to move
D = [U( x = ¥) - Uat equilibrium ], D is [AIEEE 2010] along the length of the cylinder. The length of the
b2 b2 cylinder above the piston is l1 and that below the
(a) (b) piston is l2 , such that l1 > l2 . Each part of the
2a 12 a
cylinder contains n moles of an ideal gas at equal
b2 b2 temperature T. If the piston is stationary, its mass
(c) (d)
4a 6a m, will be given by (where, R is universal gas
constant and g is the acceleration due to gravity)
12. A 15 g mass of nitrogen gas is enclosed in a vessel at [ JEE Main 2019]
a temperature 27°C. Amount of heat transferred to nRT é l1 - l2 ù nRT é 1 1 ù
the gas, so that rms velocity of molecules is doubled is (a) (b) +
g êë l1l2 úû g êë l2 l1 úû
about (Take, R = 8.3 J/mol K) [ JEE Main 2019]
(a) 10 kJ (b) 0.9 kJ RT é 2l1 + l2 ù RT é l1 - 3l2 ù
(c) (d)
(c) 14 kJ (d) 6 kJ g êë l1 l2 úû ng êë l1 l2 úû
21. The number density of molecules of a gas depends hydrogen = 2.409 cal g -1° C-1 and molecular weight
on their distance
4
r from the origin as, of hydrogen = 2, then the magnitude of joule’s
n( r) = n0 e- ar .Then, the total number of molecules mechanical equivalent of heat (in Jcal –1) will
is proportional to [JEE Main 2019] be ...... .
(a) n0a -3/ 4 (b) n0 a1/ 2 27. Nitrogen gas is at 300°C temperature. The
(c) n0a1/ 4 (d) n0a -3 temperature (in K) at which the rms speed of a H2
molecule would be equal to the rms speed of a N2
Numerical Value Questions molecule is ………
22. The total number of air molecules (inclusive of (Molar mass of N2 gas is 28 g.) [JEE Main 2020]
oxygen, nitrogen, water vapour and other
constituents) in a room of capacity 25.0 m 3 at a 28. In an experiment on the specific heat of a metal, a
temperature of 27°C and 1 atm pressure, is found 0.20 kg block of the metal at 150°C is dropped in a
to be 6.1 ´ 1013x , then the value of x is ...... . copper calorimeter (of water equivalent 0.025 kg)
(Take, Boltzmann constant = 1.38 ´ 10-23 JK -1) containing 150 cc of water at 27°C. The final
temperature is 40ºC. If heat losses to the
23. A closed vessel contains 0.1 mole of a monatomic surroundings is not negligible, then the value of
ideal gas at 200 K. If 0.05 mole of the same gas at specific heat (in J/g°C) of the metal will be ...... .
400 K is added to it, the final equilibrium
temperature (in K) of the gas in the vessel will be 29. A geyser heats water glowing at the rate of
close to …… . [JEE Main 2020]
3.0 Lmin -1 from 27°C to 77°C. If the geyser
operates on a gas burner, then the rate of
24. If four molecules of a gas have speed combustion (in gmin -1) of fuel, when its heat of
2, 4, 6, 8 kms -1 respectively, then their average combustion is 4.0 ´ 104 Jg -1, will be ...... .
speed (in kms -1) and root mean square speed (in
kms -1) will be ...... and ......, respectively. 30. The molecules of a given mass of a gas have root
mean square speeds of 100 ms-1 at 27°C and
25. Initially a gas of diatomic molecules is contained in 1.00 atm pressure. If the root mean square speed of
a cylinder of volume V1 at a pressure p1 and the molecules of the gas at 127°C and 2 atm
temperature 250 K. Assuming that 25% of the 200
molecules get dissociated causing a change in pressure is found to be m/s, then find the value
n
number of moles. The pressure of the resulting gas
of n. [JEE Main 2021]
at temperature 2000 K, when contained in a
volume 2V1 is given by p2 . The ratio p2 /p1 is ......... . 31. An air bubble of volume 1.0 cm 3 rises from the
bottom of a lake 40 m deep at a temperature of 12°C.
[JEE Main 2020]
The volume of bubble when it reaches the surface,
26. From the following data, find the magnitude of which is at temperature of 3°C, is found to be
Joule’s mechanical equivalent of heat. If C p for 5.275 ´ 10- x m 3, then the value of x is ……… .
hydrogen = 3.409 cal g -1 ° C-1, CV for (Given, 1 atm = 1.01 ´ 105 Pa )
Answers
Round I
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (d)
Round II
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. 2 23. 266 24. 5, 5.48 25. 5 26. 4.11 27. 41 28. 0.1
29. 15.75 30. 3 31. 6
Solutions
Round I 6. For a closed system, the total number of moles
1. Absolute pressure, p1 = (15 + 1 ) atm remains constant.
n1R p1
[Q Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + 1 atm] So, p1V = n1RT1 Þ =
V T1
= 16 ´ 1.013 ´ 105 Pa
n2R p2
V1 = 30 L = 30 ´ 10-3 m3 and p2V = n2RT2 Þ =
V T2
T1 = 273.15 + 27 = 300.15 K
\ p (2 V ) = (n1 + n2) RT
Using ideal gas equation, pV = nRT
pV where, V is the volume of each vessel. When the
or n= vessels are joined.
RT
p (n1 + n2) 1æp p ö 1 æ p T + p2T1 ö
pV 16 ´ 1.013 ´ 105 ´ 30 ´ 10-3 \ = R = ç 1 + 2÷ = ç 1 2 ÷
= 1 1 = T 2V 2 è T1 T2 ø 2 è T1T2 ø
RT1 8.314 ´ 300.15
= 19.48 7. pV = (n1 + n2 + n3 ) RT
Final pressure, p2 = (11 + 1) = 12 atm Pa æ 16 28 44 ö
=ç + + ÷ RT
V 2 = 30 L = 30 ´ 10-3m3 è 32 28 44 ø
T2 = 273.15 + 17 = 290.15 K æ1 ö
= ç + 1 + 1÷ RT
pV 12 ´ 1.013 ´ 105 ´ 30 ´ 10-3 è2 ø
Number of moles = 2 2 =
RT2 8.314 ´ 290.15 5
Þ pV = RT
= 15.12 2
5 RT
Hence, moles removed = 19.48 - 15.12 = 4.36 Þ p= .
2 V
Mass removed = 4.36 ´ 32 g = 0.1396 kg » 0.14 kg
8. rms velocity does not change with pressure, till
temperature remains constant.
3 RT
2. As, crms = 3 kT 3 ´ 1.38 ´ 10–23 ´ 273
M 9. As, c = =
3 RT m 5 ´ 10-17
or M= 2
crms = 15 ´ 10-3 ms –1 = 1.5 cms –1
3 ´ 8.31 ´ 300 gp
= 10. As, cs =
(1920)2 r
= 2 ´ 10-3 kg = 2 g 3 pV 3p
and c = =
Since, M = 2 for the hydrogen molecule. Hence, the gas M r
is hydrogen. cs g g
= or cs = c
3 pV 3 RT c 3 3
3. As, c = =
M M 11. In a diatomic molecule, the rotational energy at a
and the new rms speed, given temperature obeys Maxwell's energy
3 R (T /2) 1 3 RT distribution law. As each such atom has three
c1 = =
(2 M ) 2 M translational degrees of freedom and two rotational
c 300 degrees of freedom, therefore, at a given temperature,
–1
= = = 150 ms 2
2 2 rotational energy is rd the translational KE of each
3
n RT + n2RT + n3 RT RT
4. As, p = 1 = (n1 + n2 + n3 ) molecule. Energy associated with each molecule per
V V æ 1 ö
degree of freedom is fixed ç = kB T ÷ .
æ 8 14 22 ö 0.082 ´ 300 è 2 ø
=ç + + ÷´ = 3.69 atm » 3.7atm
è 16 28 44 ø 10
12. As face ABCD has positive charge on it and the gas
3 RT consists of ionized hydrogen, therefore, isotropy is lost,
5. As, c =
M The usual expression for pressure on the basis of
cH MO 16 kinetic theory will not be valid as ions would also
So, = = =4 experience forces, other than the forces due to
cO MH 1
collisions with the walls of the container.
Kinetic Theory of Gases 459
1 3
So, for gas A, specific heat is CVA = 5R For an ideal gas, internal energy, E = nRT
2 2
1 3
and for gas B, specific heat is CVB = 7R p×V = (Q from pV = nRT )
2 2
\Ratio of specific heats of gas A and B is Substituting the given values, we get
CVA 5 3
= = ´ 3 ´ 106 ´ 2 = 9 ´ 106 J
CVB 7 2
RT
20. Given, T1 = 27° C = 300 K, 26. l=
2pd 2N AP
k1 = 6.21 ´ 10-21 J
l = 102 nm
and T2 = 127° C = 400 K.
k T 27. Here, n = 6,
We know that, 1 = 1
k2 T2 æ nö æ 6ö
C p = ç1 + ÷ R = ç1 + ÷ R = 4 R
T2 è 2 ø è 2ø
k2 = ´ k1
T1 28. At NTP, T = 273 K, p = 1.01 ´ 105 Nm–2
–21
= 6.21 ´ 10 ´ 400 /300 Here, d = 2.4 ´ 10–10 m
= 8.28 ´ 10–21 J kT
l=
æ cHe ö rH 1 1 2 pd 2 p
21. As, ç ÷= = =
è cH ø r He 4 2 (1.38 ´ 10–23 ) ´ 273
=
T 1.414 ´ 3.14 ´ (2.4 ´ 10–10 )2 ´ 1.01 ´ 105
(cHe )t = (cHe )0
T0 = 1.46 ´ 10–7 m
(cHe )t (cHe )0 T 5 Cp 2
\ = = 29. Q g = =1+
(cH )0 (cH )0 T0 7 CV f
or T » 2 T0 = 2 ´ 273 = 546° K where, f = degree of freedom.
= 273° C Now,
22. According to law of equipartition of energy, average (A) for monatomic gas, f = 3
kinetic energy per molecule per degree of freedom at 2 5
so, g =1 + =
1 3 3
temperature T is kT. The average kinetic energy per
2 (B) for diatomic rigid gas, f = 5
n
molecule of polyatomic gas molecule = kT 2 7
2 so, g =1 + =
5 5
(n = number of mole)
(C) for diatomic non-rigid gas, f = 7
The average kinetic energy per mol of polyatomic gas 2 9
n n so, g =1 + =
E = kT ´ N = RT 7 7
2 2
(D) for triatomic rigid gas, f = 6
d æn ö n
CV = ç RT ÷ = R 2 8 4
dT è 2 ø 2 so, g =1 + = =
6 6 3
2 2 2
23. As, g = 1 + or = g - 1 or n = Therefore,
n n g -1
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III.
24. Molar specific heat of the mixture at constant volume Hence, correct option is (a).
is V kT
n1CV1 + n2CV2 30. Mean free path, l = =
CV = 2pd 2N 2 pd 2 p
(n1 + n2)
where, V = volume of conductor,
æ3 ö æ5 ö N = number of molecules,
2 ç R÷ + 3 ç R÷
è2 ø è2 ø d = diameter of molecule,
= = 2.1 R
2+3 k = Boltzmann’s constant,
25. Internal energy of ‘n’ moles of a gas with degree of T = temperature
freedom f ( = 3 for an ideal gas), at temperature T is and p = pressure.
f 3 p nR
E = × n RT = nRT But from gas equation, =
2 2 T V
Kinetic Theory of Gases 461
p 1/ 2
For a constant n and V , = constant. t1 V1 æ T2 ö
T So, = .ç ÷ … (i)
t 2 V 2 è T1 ø
p
So, mean free path does not depends on or p and T. As the process is adiabatic,
T
So, in given condition (closed container), mean free T1V1g - 1 = T2V 2g - 1
g -1
path remains constant or unchanged. T2 æ V1 ö
Þ =ç ÷
\ Statement A is incorrect, but C is correct. T1 è V 2 ø
Also, mean time between two collisions is So, Eq. (i) becomes
mean free path l g -1
t= = t1 V1 æ V1 ö
vavg vavg = .ç ÷ 2
t 2 V2 è V2 ø
As, vavg µ T g +1
1
Þ Average time, t µ t1 æ V1 ö 2
T Þ =ç ÷
t 2 è V2 ø
As, the temperature is increasing, so mean collision
time (t ) decreases. Now, given V 2 = 2V1, so
g +1
\ Statement B is correct. t1 æ 1 ö 2
Hence, option (a) is correct. =ç ÷
t2 è 2 ø
31. Mean free time (t) for a gas molecule is time elapsed
between two successive collisions. 33. Mean free path for a gas,
Mean free path length (l ) 1
\ t= l=
Average speed (vav ) 2pnd 2
where, n = number density
æ 1 ö
ç ÷ and d = diameter of gas atom.
è 2 × pd 2 × n ø
=
æ 8 R ö Mean speed of a gas atom,
ç ×T ÷ 8 kT
è p M ø v=
1 p m
So, for an ideal gas, t µ
T where, k = Boltzmann’s constant,
1 T = temperature of sample
Thus, graph of t versus is a straight line as shown
T and m = atomic mass.
below Hence, mean relaxation time,
τ æ 1 ö
ç ÷
l è 2pnd 2 ø
T= =
v 8 kT
p m
1 m
√T tµ , when T and n are same.
d2
2 2
32. Mean free path (l) of a gas molecule and mean t mAr dXe mAr rXe
Hence, Ar = . 2 = . 2
relaxation time (or collision time) t are related as t Xe mXe dAr mXe rAr
1 kBT Here, mAr = 40, mXe = 140,
1/ 2
l 2 pd 2 p 1 æ kBm ö æ T 1/ 2 ö rAr = 0.07 nm, rXe = 0.1 nm
t= = = 2ç ÷ .ç ÷
vmean 8 kB 4d è p ø è p ø 2
× ×T t Ar 40 æ 0.1 ö
p m \ = ´ç ÷ = 1 .09
t Xe 140 è 0.07 ø
Using pV = nRT , we have
1 æ kBm ö
1/ 2
VT 1/ 2
34. When n1 moles of an ideal gas having specific heats
t= ×ç ÷ × C p and CV1 is mixed with n2 moles of another ideal
4d 2 è p ø nRT 1
gas with specific heats C p2 and CV2 , specific heats of
ì 1 æ k m ö 1/ 2 1 ü V mixture are given by
=í 2 ×ç B ÷ × ý×
è p ø nRþ T n1C p1 + n2C p2
î 4d C p(mix) =
V n1 + n2
Þt µ , as other quantities remains constant during
T n1CV1 + n2CV2
and CV (mix) =
the process. n1 + n2
462 JEE Main Physics
So, ratio of specific heats of mixture will be 36. For a mixture of two gases, ratio of specific heats is
C p (mix) n1C p1 + n2C p2 given by
= …(i)
CV (mix) n1CV1 + n2CV2 C pmixture
g mixture =
CVmixture
æ g ö R
Now, using C p = ç ÷ R and CV =
è g - 1ø g -1 n1Cp1 + n2C p2
= ....(i)
Cp n1CV1 + n2CV2
Note As, = g and C p - C V = R
CV
Here, gas 1 is helium which is monoatomic, so
Cp g R ù 5 3
So, C p - = R or C p = and C V = ú n1 = n, Cp1 = R , CV1 = R
g g -1 g - 1û 2 2
We can write Eq. (i) as and gas 2 is oxygen which is diatomic, so
æ g ö æ g ö 7 5
n1 ç 1 ÷ R + n2ç 2 ÷ R n2 = 2n, Cp2 = R , CV2 = R
C p (mix) è g1 - 1 ø è g2 - 1ø 2 2
=
CV (mix) æ R ö æ R ö Hence, from Eq. (i), we get
n1 ç ÷ + n2ç ÷
è g1 - 1 ø è g2 - 1ø 5R 7R
n´ + 2n ´
n1g1 (g 2 - 1) + n2g 2(g1 - 1) g mix = 2 2 = 19
= …(ii) 3R 5R 13
n1 (g 2 - 1) + n2(g1 - 1) n´ + 2n ´
2 2
Here, we are given
5 4 37. According to the law of equipartition of energy,
n1 = 2 , g1 =
, n2 = 3 and g 2 = 1 2 n
3 3 mvrms = kBT where, n is the degree of freedom.
2 2
Substituting the above values in Eq.(ii), we have
Since, HCl is a diatomic molecule that has rotational,
5 æ4 ö 4 æ5 ö
2 ´ ç - 1÷ + 3 ´ ç - 1÷ translational and vibrational motion.
C p(mix) 3 è3 ø 3 è3 ø
= So, n=7
CV (mix) æ4 ö æ5 ö
2 ´ ç - 1÷ + 3 ´ ç - 1÷ 1 2 7
è3 ø è3 ø Þ mvrms = kBT
2 2
10 24
+ Here, 2
vrms =v
= 9 9
mv 2
2 6 Þ T=
+
3 3 7kB
34 ´ 3 17 38. Internal energy U of a mole of the gas at temperature T
= = = 1 .42
9 ´ 8 12 is given by
f
35. Given, height, h = 2 cm U = RT
2
Kinetic energy, U = 4 ´ 10–14 erg
where, f = degree of freedom of gas molecule
Density of mercury, r = 13.6 g / cm3
and R = gas constant.
Volume, V = 4 cm3 g = 980 cm / s 2
According to gas equation, Y
pV
pV = NKT Þ N =
KT
For monoatomic gas,
3 2
Energy, U = KT Þ KT = U
2 3
X
3 pV
Now, N =
2U
Z
3 grhV
So, N = (Q pressure, p = rgh) …(i)
2U A triatomic triangular gas molecules can have
Substituting the given values in eq. (i), we get three-translational motions (translation along X , Y or
3 ´ 980 ´ 13.6 ´ 2 ´ 4 Z-axis) and three-rotational motions (rotation along
N = X , Y or Z-axis). So, it has total 6 degrees of freedom.
2 ´ 4 ´ 10–14
f 6
= 3.99 ´ 1018 So, internal energy, U = RT = RT = 3RT
2 2
» 4 ´ 1018
Kinetic Theory of Gases 463
10. Thermal energy corresponds to internal energy 13. According to Boyle’s law, pV = k (a constant)
Mass = 1 kg m pm
or p = k or r =
Density = 4 kgm-3 r k
Mass 1 p æ k ö
Þ Volume = = m3 or r= ç where, = k = constant÷
Density 4 k è m ø
Pressure = 8 ´ 104 Nm-2 p
So, r1 = 1
f f k
As internal energy = nRT = pV
2 2 p1 m1 m1 km1
and V1 = = =
Degree of freedom for diatomic = 5 k r1 p1/ k p1
5 km2
\ Internal energy = p ´ V Similarly, V2 =
2 p2
1 3
Putting the values of p = 8 ´ 104 Nm -2 and V = m , æm m ö
4 Total volume = V1 + V 2 = k ç 1 + 2 ÷
è p1 p1 ø
we get
5 1 Let p be the common pressure and r be the common
Internal energy = ´ 8 ´ 104 ´ = 5 ´ 104 J
2 4 density of mixture. Then
a b m + m2 m1 + m2
11. U (x) = - 6 r= 1 =
x12
x V1 + V 2 æ m1 m2 ö
kç + ÷
U (x = ¥ ) = 0 è p1 p2 ø
dU é 12a 6 b ù m1 + m2 p p (m + m2)
As, F = - = - 13 + 7 \ p = kr = = 1 2 1
dx êë x x úû m1 m2 (m1 p2 + m2p1 )
+
At equilibrium, F = 0 p1 p2
2a 14. Mean time elapsed between two successive, collisions
\ x6 =
b l
is t =
a b - b2 v
\ U at equilibrium = 2
- =
æ 2a ö æ 2a ö 4 a where, l = mean free path length and
ç ÷ ç ÷
è bø è bø v = mean speed of gas molecule
b2 æ kB t ö
\ D = [U (x = ¥ ) - U at equilibrium ] = ç ÷
4a è 2 p d 2p ø C T
\ t= Þ t=
12. We know that, from kinetic theory of gases, 8 kBT p
.
p M
3RT
vrms = 1 kB M
M where, C = = a constant for a gas.
4d 2 p
or vrms µ T
t2 T2 æ p1 ö
where, R is gas constant, T is temperature and M is So, = .ç ÷ … (i)
molecular mass of a gas. t1 T1 è p2 ø
Here, to double the vrms , temperature must be p1 1 T2 500 5
4 times of the initial temperature. Here given, = , = =
p2 2 T1 300 3
\ New temperature, T2 = 4 ´ T1
and t1 = 6 ´ 10-8 s
As, T1 = 27° C = 300 K
Substituting there values in Eq. (i), we get
Þ T2 = 4 ´ 300 = 1200 K
5 1
As, gas is kept inside a closed vessel. t2 = 6 ´ 10-8 ´ ´
3 2
\ Q = nCV × dT
15 5R = 3.86 ´ 10-8 s » 4 ´ 10-8 s
= ´ (1200 - 300)
28 2 15. Let molar specific heat of the mixture is CV .
é m 15 ù Total number of molecules in the mixture = 3 + 2 = 5
As, n = = for nitrogen
êë M 28 úû
\ CV can be determined using
15 5
= ´ ´ 8.3 ´ 900 n CV dT = n1 CV1 dT + n2 CV2 dT
28 2
[Given, R = 8.3 J/K-mol] or (n1 + n2) (CV )mix = n1CV + n2 CV2
1
or Q = 10004.4 J ~ - 10 kJ [here, n = n1 + n2]
Kinetic Theory of Gases 465
3R R
Here, CV1 = (for helium); n1 = 2 Now, CV =
2 g -1
5R R
CV2 = (for hydrogen); n2 = 3 Þ g -1 =
2 CV
3
[Because for monoatomic gases, CV = R and for R R
2 or g= +1= +1
CV 29
5 R
diatomic gases, CV = R] 18
2
Cp 18 18 + 29
æ 3 R ö æ 5R ö 21R Þ = +1= = 1.62
\ 5 ´ CV = ç2 ´ ÷ + ç3 ´ ÷ Þ 5CV = CV 29 29
è 2 ø è 2 ø 2
21R 21 ´ 8.3 174 .3 18. As piston is in equilibrium, so net force on piston is
or CV = = =
10 10 10 zero.
or CV = 17.4 J/mol-K When the piston is stationary, i.e. on equilibrium as
shown in the figure below
16. For an adiabatic process TV g - 1 = constant.
We know that average time of collision between p1 A mg
molecules
1
t=
np 2 vrms d 2
p2 A
where, n = number of molecules per unit volume
vrms = rms velocity of molecules then p1 A + mg = p2A
1 Þ mg = p2A - p1 A
As nµ and vrms µ T
V æ nRTA nRTA ö
or mg = ç - ÷
tµ
V è V2 V1 ø
T [Q pV = nRT (ideal gas equation)]
Thus, we can write n = K 1V -1 and vrms = K 2 T 1/ 2 æ A A ö æ l1 - l2 ö
= nRT ç - ÷ = nRT ç ÷
where, K 1 and K 2 are constants. è Al2 Al1 ø è l1l2 ø
For adiabatic process, TV g - 1 = constant. Thus, we can
nRT æ l1 - l2 ö
write or m= ç ÷
g è l1l2 ø
t µ VT -1/ 2 µ V (V 1 - g )-1/ 2
g +1 Cp
19. Mayer’s formula is given by, C p - CV = R and g =
or t µV 2
CV
n1CV1 + n2CV2 Therefore, using above two relations, we find
17. For mixture, CV = R
n1 + n2 CV =
g -1
For helium,
16 5 5
Number of moles, n1 = = 4 and g1 = For a mole of monatomic gas, g =
4 3 3
R 3
For oxygen, \ CV = = R
16 1 7 æ5ö 2
Number of moles, n2 = = and g 2 = ç ÷ -1
32 2 5 è3ø
R R 3 7
Then, CV1 = = = R For a mole of diatomic gas, g =
g1 - 1 5 - 1 2 5
3 R 5
\ CV = = R
R R 5 æ ö
7 2
and CV2 = = = R ç ÷ -1
g2 - 1 7 - 1 2 è5ø
5 When these two moles are mixed, then heat required
\ For mixture, 3 5
3 1 5 5 to raise the temperature to 1°C is CV = R + R = 4R
4 ´ R + ´ R 6R + R 2 2
CV = 2 2 2 = 4 4R
1 9 Hence, for one mole, heat required = =2R
4+ 2
2 2 \ CV = 2 R
29 R ´ 2 29 R R 3
= = Þ = 2 R or g =
9 ´4 18 g -1 2
466 JEE Main Physics
20. Here, change in internal energy of the system is zero, Also, when r = 0, t = 0 and when r = ¥, t = ¥
i.e. increase in internal energy of one is equal to substituting in Eq. (i), we get
¥ dt
decrease in internal energy of other. N = ò 4 p n0 e- t ×
0 3 1
4 a4 t 4
Box A Box B -
1
Thermal ¥
N = pa - 3 / 4 × n0 × ò e- t × t 4 dt
contact 0
A mole N2 A mole He 1
¥ -t -
Change in internal energy in box A, As value of definite integral ò e × t 4 dt is a constant
0
5 (= k let), we have
DU A = 1 ´ R (Tf - T0 )
2 N = p kn0a - 3 / 4
Change in internal energy in box B Þ N µ n0a -3 / 4
3R æ 7 ö
DU B = 1 ´ çTf - T0 ÷ 22. Here, V = 25.0 m3
2 è 3 ø
Now, DU A + DU B = 0 T = 27 + 273 = 300 K
5R 3R æ 7T0 ö k = 1.38 ´ 10-23 JK -1
Þ (Tf - T0 ) + çTf - ÷ =0
2 2 è 3 ø Now, pV = nRT = n (Nk)T
or 5 Tf - 5 T0 + 3 Tf - 7 T0 = 0 = (nN )kT = N ¢ kT
or 8 Tf = 12 T0 where, nN = N ¢ = total number of air molcules in the
12 3 given gas
or Tf = T0 = T0 pV (1.01 ´ 105 ) ´25
8 2 N¢ = =
kT (1.38 ´ 10-23 ) ´ 300
21. Number density of gas molecules,
= 6.10 ´ 1026 = 6.10 ´ 1013 ´ 2
Number of molecules
n= \ x=2
Volume of gas
Þ Number of molecules, N = n ´ Volume of gas 23. If T be the final equilibrium temperature, then
applying conservation of internal energy,
U 1 + U 2 = U 1 ¢ + U 2¢
dr n1CV T1 + n2CV T2 = (n1 + n2)CV T
r
n1T1 + n2T2 = (n1 + n2) T
(0.1) (200) + (0.05) (400) = (0.1 + 0.05) T
20 + 20 = (0.15) T
40
T= = 266.66 K ~
- 266 K
0 . 15
24. Here, c1 = 2 kms -1 ; c2 = 4 kms -1
Now, consider a shell of radius r and thickness dr with c3 = 6 kms -1 and c4 = 8 kms -1
centre at r = 0. (i) Average speed,
c + c2 + c3 + c4 2 + 4 + 6 + 8
Volume of shell of differentiable thickness (dr ), cav = 1 = = 5 kms -1
dV = surface area ´ thickness = 4pr 2 dr 4 4
Now, number of molecules in this shell is (ii) Root mean square speed,
4
dN = n (r ) × dV = n0e- ar × 4pr 2 dr c12 + c22 + c32 + c42 2 2 + 4 2 + 6 2 +8 2
c= =
So, total number of molecules present in given volume 4 4
(extending from r = 0 to r = ¥) is = 5.48 kms -1
¥ ¥ 4
N = ò n (r ) × dV = ò n0 e- ar × 4pr 2 dr 25.
0 0 p1, V1, µ1 p2, V2, µ2
¥ 4
= ò 4pn0 e- a r × r 2 dr …(i)
0
At 250 K At 2000 K
Here, we take ar 4 = t
-1
1
Let m1 = m 0, V 2 = 2V1 (given)
Þ r= t4 × a4 Þ 4 ar3 dr = dt
Total number of moles at 2000 K = Number of moles of
dt dt dt diatomic molecules + Number of moles of monoatomic
Þ r 2 dr = = =
4ar 1 1
-
1
m 2 = 0.75 m 0 + 2 ´ 0.25 m 0 = 1.25 m 0
4 a t4 × a 4 4 a3/ 4 t 4
Kinetic Theory of Gases 467
A
C Insulated wall
B
Diathermic wall
Therefore, there must be a certain scalar physical quantity which is identical
for all systems in thermal equilibrium. This quantity (scalar) is the
temperature.
Thermodynamics 469
Suppose for systems A, B and C are in thermal Important points related to internal energy
equilibrium, then TA = TB = TC (i) Change in internal energy is path independent
So for a body, temperature is that physical quantity and depends only on the initial and final states of
which decides the degree of hotness or coldness of a body the system.
and is responsible for heat flow. i. e. , DU = U f - U i
(ii) Change in internal energy in a cyclic process is
Work always zero as for cyclic process, U f = U i , so that
It is defined as the product of force and its displacement DU = U f - U i = 0
in the direction of force. Its unit is joule or N-m, i. e. (iii) In case of ideal gas, as there is no molecular
W = ò dW = F dx attraction U P = 0, i. e. so internal energy of an ideal
gas is totally kinetic and is given by
Work Done by a Gas During Expansion U = U K = nRT
3
Consider an ideal gas is enclosed in a perfectly insulated 2
3
cylinder fitted with a non-conducting and frictionless with DU = nR DT
piston. If p is the pressure exerted by the gas, V be the 2
volume of the gas at any particular instant and A be the where, n = number of moles
area of cross-section of the piston, then and R = gas constant.
(iv) In case of gases, whatever be the process,
nR DT
DU = nCV DT =
dx
( g - 1)
(v) The change in internal energy ( DU ) of a system in
case of gain is taken as positive, while it is taken
as negative in case of loss of energy.
Gas
Example 3. In the above example, if the system moves (c) The change in internal energy in the process AB is
from B to A, what is the change in internal energy? - 350 R.
(a) 300 J (b) - 300 J (d) The change in internal energy in the process BC is - 500R.
(c) 400 J (d) - 400 J Sol. (d) According to first law of thermodynamics, we get
Sol. (b) Consider a closed path that passes through the state A (i) Change in internal energy from A to B, i.e.
and B. Internal energy is a state function, so DU is zero for a 5R
D UAB = nCV (TB - TA ) = 1 ´ (800 - 400) = 1000 R
closed path. 2
Thus, DU = DUAB + DUBA = 0 (ii) Change in internal energy from B to C,
or DUBA = - DUAB = - 300 J 5R
DUBC = nCV (TC - TB) = 1 ´ (600 - 800) = - 500 R
2
Example 4. A certain amount of an ideal gas passes from (iii) D U total = 0
state A to B first by means of process 1, then by means of
(iv) Change in internal energy from C to A,
process 2. In which of the process, is the amount of heat
5R
absorbed by the gas greater? D UCA = nCv (TA - TC ) = 1 ´ ( 400 - 600) = - 500 R
2
p
Hence, option (d) is correct.
1
Example 6. A gas can be taken from A to B via two
A B different processes ACB and ADB.
2
V
W1 A
W2
V
V V
According to the first law of thermodynamics,
Example 5. One mole of diatomic ideal gas undergoes a Heat supplied, DQ = Work done (DW) + Internal energy (DU)
cyclic process ABC as shown in figure. The process BC is Þ DQCB = DWACB + (UB - UA ) [where, DU = UB - UA ]
adiabatic. The temperatures at A, B and C are 400 K, 800 K
Substituting the given values, we get
and 600 K, respectively.
Choose the correct statement. [JEE Main 2014]
UB - UA = 60 - 30 = 30 J ...(i)
Similarly for the ADB as shown in the figure below
p B 800 K
p B
600 K
C A D
A
400 K
V V
(a) The change in internal energy in whole cyclic process is DQ ADB = DWADB + (UB - UA )
250 R. Þ DQ ADB = 10 + 30 [using Eq. (i)]
(b) The change in internal energy in the process CA is 700 R. = 40 J
Thermodynamics 471
V2
W = 2.303 nRT log10
Thermodynamic Process V1
A thermodynamical process is said to take place when V2
W = 2.303( p1V1) log10 [using p1V1 = nRT ]
some changes occur in the state of a thermodynamic V1
system i.e. the thermodynamic parameters of the system 24
change with time. = 2.303(20 ´ 3) log10 L-atm
3
= [2.303 ´ 60 ´ log10 8] ´ 10 - 3 ´ 1.01 ´ 105
Reversible and Irreversible Processes = 1.26 ´ 10 4 J
Reversible Process A process which could be reserved
in such a way that the system and its surrounding
returns exactly to their initial states with no other
Adiabatic Process
changes in the universe is known as reversible process. In an adiabatic process, heat is neither allowed to enter
nor allowed to escape from the system. Specific heat in an
Irreversible Process Any process which is not
adiabatic process is zero.
reversible exactly is an irreversible process.
Since, dQ = 0
Isothermal Process \ dU = - p dV
In isothermal process, the temperature remains constant. So, let us read through the following graphs of p versus V
Melting and boiling points are examples of isothermal that what happens when adiabatic expansion and
process. Specific heat in isothermal process is infinity. compression happens.
Work done in an isothermal process, p p
V 2 dV
W = ò pdV = nRT ò
V1 V –ve work +ve work
V
= nRT loge 2
V1 Compression Expansion
V V V
= 2.303 nRT log 2
V1
p
= 2.303 nRT log 1 p p
Compression
p2
Isothermal Ad
Isothermal elasticity = p (Bulk modulus) iab
atic
Expansion
The pressure versus volume curve for isothermal process
is as follows Adiabatic Isothermal
V V
expanding isothermally from an initial volume of 3 L at (a) irreversible, isothermal (b) irreversible, adiabatic
20 atm to a final volume of 24 L? (c) reversible, adiabatic (d) reversible, isothermal
(a) 1.36 ´ 10 5 J (b) 1.26 ´ 10 4 J Sol. (b) Expansion after bursting of balloon is a fast process in
4
(c) 1.36 ´ 10 J (d) 2.36 ´ 10 5 J which helium presses the atmosphere. This expansion occurs at
the expense of internal energy of helium molecules.
Sol. (b) In isothermal process at temperature T,
So, this process is irreversible and adiabatic.
472 JEE Main Physics
Example 9. During an adiabatic expansion, the increase Example 11. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas
in volume is associated with which of the following undergoes thermodynamic cycle 1 ® 2 ® 3 ® 1 as shown in
possibilities w.r.t. pressure and temperature? the figure. Initial temperature of the gas is T0 = 300 K.
Pressure Temperature 3p0 2
(a) Increase Increase
p
(b) Decrease Decrease p0 1
3
(c) Increase Decrease
(d) Decrease Increase
Sol. (b) According to first law of thermodynamics, V0 3V0
DQ = DU + DW V
For an adiabatic process, DQ = 0 Process 1 ® 2 : p = aV
\ DU = - W Process 2 ® 3 : pV = constant
In adiabatic process, pµ g
1 Process 3 ® 1 : p = constant (Take ln|3| = 109
. )
V The net work done by the cycle is
1 (a) 3.27 RT0 (b) 6.83 RT0
and T µ g -1
V (c) 4.53 RT0 (d) 5.81 RT0
g > 1, because volume increases.
Then, p and T will decrease. Sol. (d) For process 1 ® 2,
2 3V0 a
W12 = ò aVdV = a ò VdV = (9V02 - V02) = 4 aV02
Example 10. A gasoline engine takes in 5 moles of air at 1 V0 2
20°C and 1 atm and compresses it adiabatically to (1/10) th p1V1 p2V2
of the original volume. Assume, air to be diatomic. The work Using gas law, =
T1 T2
done and change in internal energy is 2
p2V2 V2 æ 3V ö
(a) 46 kJ , - 46 kJ (b) 36 kJ , - 36 kJ Þ T2 = T1 = 22 T1 = ç 0 ÷ T0 = 9T0
(c) -46 kJ , 46 kJ (d) 36 kJ , - 46 kJ p1V1 V1 è V0 ø
For process 2 ® 3,
Sol. (c) Let p1 = 1 atm, n = 5 mol, T1 = 293 K
p2 3p
V W23 = RT2 log = R(9T0) log 0
V2 = 1 p3 p0
10
Using, T1V1g -1 = T2V2g -1 = 9RT0 log|3| = 9.81RT0
g -1 For isothermal process,
æV ö
Þ T2 = T1ç 1 ÷ = 293(10) 0.4 = 736 K p2V2 = p3V3
è V2 ø pV 3p
nR(T1 - T2) 5 ´ 8.3 ´ (293 - 736) \ V3 = 2 2 = 0 (3V0) = 9V0
Work done = = = - 46 kJ p3 p0
g -1 0.4
W31 = p0(V1 - V3) = p0(V0 - 9V0) = - 8p0V0
DU = DQ - W = 0 - W = 46 kJ
W31 = - 8RT0
Cyclic Process Applying gas law in process1 ® 2,
Figure shows a cyclic process ABCA, the work done p0V0 = RT
during the cycle can be calculated as or aV02 = RT
p
The net work,
\ Wnet = W12 + W23 + W31
p3 A
p2 C = 4RT0 + 9.81RT0 - 8RT0 = 5.81RT0
Dp p
Isobaric Process For isothermal process, =- ×
DV V
An isobaric process is one in which volume and Dp gp
temperature of system may change but pressure remain For adiabatic process, = - , i. e. it means that at a
constant, i. e. Dp = 0. DV V
● For this process, Charles’ law is obeyed.
particular point, slope (value) of adiabatic curve is more
than that for isotherm or we can say adiabatic curve is
V V
Hence, V µT Þ 1 = 2 more steep than an isotherm for expansion and just
T1 T2 reverse for compression.
● Specific heat of a gas during an isobaric process, It is clear from the figure that, for expansion that occurs
æf ö Q within same limits.
C p = ç + 1÷ R =
è2 ø nDT W isobaric > W isothermal > W adiabatic > W isochoric
● Work done in an isobaric process,
Important Points Related to
W = p (V f - V i ) = nR (T f - Ti ) = nRDT
Thermodynamic Process
● From first law of thermodynamics, ● For a reversible process, the first law of
DQ = DU + DW thermodynamics gives the change in the internal
Here, DW = nRDT energy of the system.
DU = nCV DT dU = dQ - dW
474 JEE Main Physics
p
Replacing work with a change in volume gives
dU = dQ - pdV
Since the process is isochoric, dV = 0, therefore the
above equation becomes
V
dU = dQ
● Work done on gas in some process For clockwise, DW = + ve
p p For anti-clockwise, DW = - ve
1 1 ● Work done is least for monoatomic gas expansion.
p
2 2 Isothermal
Polyatomic Adiabatic process
V V
Monoatomic
DV = 0 but dV ¹ 0 DW can be zero
Work done = + ve But dW ¹ 0 V
V1 V2
Example 13. A cylinder containing an ideal gas and reservoir. In other words, heat by itself can not pass from
closed by a movable piston is submerged in an ice-water a colder to a hotter body without an external agency.
mixture. The piston is quickly pushed down from position 1 to Refrigerator is based on this statement.
position 2 (process AB).
Heat Engine
1
A heat engine is a device which converts thermal energy
into another useful forms of energy and work.
2 The efficiency of heat engine,
Work done by working substance
h=
Heat given to working substance
The piston is held at position 2 until the gas is again at 0°C Source Working Sink
(process BC). Then the piston is slowly raised back to position T1 Q1 substance Q2 T2
1 (process CA). Which one of the following p-V diagrams
correctly represent the processes AB, BC and CA and the
cycle ABCA? W
p p W Q1 - Q2
h= =
A A C
Q1 Q1
W Q - Q2
( a) B C ( b) B %h = ´ 100 = 1 ´ 100
Q1 Q1
V V æ Q ö æ T ö
V2 V1 V1 V2 = ç1 - 2 ÷ ´ 100 = ç1 - 2 ÷ ´ 100
p p è Q1 ø è T1 ø
A Carnot’s cycle contains the following four processes Efficiency of the engine,
(i) Isothermal expansion (AB) æ T ö æ 300 ö
h = ç1 - 2 ÷ ´ 100 or h = ç1 - ÷ ´ 100 = 72.72%
è T1 ø è 1100 ø
(ii) Adiabatic expansion (BC)
(iii) Isothermal compression (CD)
Example 20. A Carnot engine has an efficiency of 1/6.
(iv) Adiabatic compression (DA) When the temperature of the sink is reduced by 62°C, its
The net work done per cycle by the engine is numerically efficiency is doubled. The temperatures of the source and the
equal to the area of the loop representing the Carnot’s sink are respectively, [JEE Main 2019]
cycle. (a) 62°C, 124°C (b) 99°C, 37°C
After doing the calculations for different processes, we (c) 124°C, 62°C (d) 37°C, 99°C
Q T
can show that 2 = 2 Sol. (b) Efficiency of a Carnot engine working between source of
Q1 T1 T
temperature T1 and sink of temperature T2 is given by h = 1 - 2
T2 T1
Therefore, efficiency of the cycle is h = 1 -
T1 1
Here, T2 and T1 are absolute temperatures. Initially, h =
Efficiency of Carnot engine is maximum (not 100%) for 6
1 T T2 5
given temperatures T1 and T2. But still Carnot engine is \ =1- 2 Þ =
not a practical engine because many ideal situations have 6 T1 T1 6
been assumed while designing this engine which can Finally, efficiency is doubled on reducing sink temperature by
practically not be obtained. 62°C.
2
\ h = , Tsink = T2¢ = T2 - 62
Carnot Theorem 6
T¢
According to Carnot theorem, So, h =1- 2
T ¢1
● A heat engine working between the two given
2 T2 - 62 T - 62 4
temperatures T1 of hot reservoir i. e. , source and T2 of Þ =1- Þ 2 =
6 T1 T1 6
cold reservoir i. e. , sink cannot have efficiency more
than that of the Carnot engine. T2 62 4 5 62 4 æ T2 5 ö
Þ - = Þ - = çQ = ÷
● The efficiency of the Carnot engine is independent of
T1 T1 6 6 T1 6 è T1 6 ø
the nature of working substance. Þ T1 = 6 ´ 62 = 372 K = 372 - 273 = 99° C
5
Þ T2 = ´ T1 ~ – 310 K = 310 - 273 = 37° C
6
Carnot’s Engine
Carnot engine is an ideal heat engine proposed by Sadi Example 21.Two ideal Carnot engines operate in cascade (all
Carnot in 1824. The reversible engine which operates heat given up by one engine is used by the other engine to
between two temperatures of source (T1 ) and sink (T2 ) is produce work) between temperatures T1 and T2. The
known as Carnot heat engine. temperature of the hot reservoir of the first engine is T1 and the
temperature of the cold reservoir of the second engine is T2. T is
The designed engine is a theoretical engine which is free temperature of the sink of first engine which is also the source
from all the defects of a practical engine. This engine for the second engine. How is T related to T1 and T2, if both the
cannot be realised in actual practice, however, this can be engines perform equal amount of work? [JEE Main 2020]
taken as a standard against which the performance of an 2T1T2 T + T2
actual engine can be judged. (a) T = 0 (b) T = (c) T = T1 T2 (d) T = 1
T1 + T2 2
Example 19. Carnot’s engine takes in a thousand kilo Sol. (d) Carnot engines given are operating in cascade
calories of heat from a reservoir at 827°C and exhausts it to a configuration as shown in the figure.
sink at 27°C. How much work does it perform? What is the
efficiency of the engine? T1 Hot reservoir
This Pdf Is
Download From
www.jeeneetadda.in
VISIT NOW !!
478 JEE Main Physics
Zeroth Law and First Law of 5. 1 cm3 of water at its boiling point absorbs
540 cal of heat to become steam with a volume =
Thermodynamics 1.013 ´ 105 Nm–2 and the mechanical equivalent of
1. In a certain process, 400 cal of heat are supplied to heat = 4.19 Jcal–1. The energy spend in this process
a system and at the same time 105 J of mechanical in overcoming intermolecular forces is
work was done on the system. The increase in its (a) 540 cal (b) 40 cal
internal energy is (c) 500 cal (d) zero
(a) 20 cal (b) 303 cal
6. In thermodynamics, heat and work are
(c) 404 cal (d) 425 cal
(a) path functions [JEE Main 2021]
2. If the heat of 110 J is added to a gaseous system (b) intensive thermodynamic state variables
and it acquires internal energy of 40 J, then the (c) extensive thermodynamic state variables
amount of internal work done is (d) point functions
(a) 40 J (b) 70 J
(c) 150 J (d) 110 J
7. Following figure shows two processes A and B for a
gas. If DQA and DQB are the amount of heat
3. In a thermodynamic process, pressure of a fixed absorbed by the system in two cases and DU A and
mass of gas is changed in such a manner that the DUB are changes in internal energies respectively,
gas releases 20 J of heat and 8 J of work is done on then [JEE Main 2019]
the gas. If internal energy of the gas was 30 J, then
the final internal energy will be f
p
A
(a) 42 J (b) 18 J
(c) 12 J (d) 60 J B
11. When an ideal monoatomic gas is heated at 18. A gas is expanded from volume V0 to 2 V0 under
constant pressure, fraction of heat energy supplied three different processes shown in figure.
which increases the internal energy of gas is Process 1 is isobaric process, process 2 is isothermal
(a) 2/5 (b) 3/5
and process 3 is adiabatic. Let DU1, DU2 and DU3 be
(c) 3/7 (d) 3/4 the change in internal energy of the gas in these
12. A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle three processes, then
PQRSP process. The net work done by the system is
p 1
p0
S R p 2
200 kPa
3
100 kPa Q V0 V 2V0
P
100 cc 300 cc
V (a) DU 1 > DU 2 > DU 3 (b) DU 1 < DU 2 < DU 3
(c) DU 2 < DU 1 > DU 3 (d) DU 2 < DU 3 < DU 1
(a) 20 J (b) –20 J
(c) 400 J (d) –374 J 19. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas
is found to be proportional to the cube of its
13. One mole of a monoatomic gas is heated at a absolute temperature. The ratio C p / CV for the gas
constant pressure of 1 atm from 0 K to 100 K. If the is
gas constant R = 8.32 Jmol–1 K–1, the change in 3 4 5
internal energy of the gas is approximately (a) (b) (c) 2 (d)
2 3 3
(a) 2.3 J (b) 46 J
(c) 8.67 × 103 J (d) 1.25 × 103 J 20. The adiabatic elasticity of hydrogen gas (g = 1.4) at
NTP is
14. For the same rise in temperature of one mole of gas (a) 1 ´ 105 N /m2 (b) 1 ´ 10-8 N /m2
at constant volume, heat required for a non-linear
(c) 1.4 N /m2 (d) 1.4 ´ 105 N /m2
triatomic gas is K times that required for
monoatomic gas. The value of K is 21. Consider two containers A and B containing
(a) 1 (b) 0.5 identical gases at the same pressure, volume and
(c) 2 (d) 2.5 temperature. The gas in container A is compressed to
half of its original volume isothermally while the gas
15. A gas expands with temperature according to the
in container B is compressed to half of its original
relation V = kT2 / 3, calculate work done when the
value adiabatically. The ratio of final pressure of gas
temperature changes by 60 K.
in B to that of gas in A is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 10 R (b) 30 R (c) 40 R (d) 20 R g -1 2 2
æ1ö æ 1 ö æ 1 ö
16. A system is taken through a cyclic process (a) 2g - 1 (b) ç ÷ (c) ç ÷ (d) ç ÷
è2ø è1 - g ø è g - 1ø
represented by an ellipse as shown. The heat
absorbed by the system is 22. The ratio of the slopes of p-V graphs of adiabatic
V (in cc) and isothermal is
g -1
(a) (b) g - 1 (c) 1/ g (d) g
40 g
30 23. The given diagram shows four processes, i.e.
20 isochoric, isobaric, isothermal and adiabatic. The
correct assignment of the processes, in the same
50 100 150 200 p (in kPa) order is given by [JEE Main 2019]
a
p
(a) p ´ 103 J (b) J (c) 4 p ´ 102 J (d) p J p
2
b
Different Thermodynamic Processes
c
17. During adiabatic expansion of 10 moles of a gas, d
the internal energy decreases by 50 J. Work done
during the process is V
(a) + 50 J (b) – 50 J (a) d a b c (b) a d b c
(c) zero (d) Cannot say (c) d a c b (d) a d c b
Thermodynamics 481
24. Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas occupies a 29. An ideal gas is taken from state A to state B
volume V at 27°C. The gas expands adiabatically to following three different paths as shown in p-V
a volume 2 V. Calculate (i) the final temperature of diagram. Which one of the following is true?
the gas and (ii) change in its internal energy. y
[JEE Main 2018] A C
(a) (i) 189 K (ii) 2.7 kJ p
(b) (i) 195 K (ii) -2.7 kJ
(c) (i) 189 K (ii) -2.7 kJ
D B
(d) (i) 195 K (ii) 2.7 kJ
O x
25. An ideal gas at a pressure 1 atm and temperature V
of 27°C is compressed adiabatically until its (a) Work done is maximum along AB
pressure becomes 8 times, the initial pressure. (b) Work done is minimum along AB
Then, the final temperature is æç g = ö÷
3 (c) Work done along ACB = work done along ADB
è 2ø (d) Work done along ADB is minimum
(a) 627°C (b) 527°C
30. Figure shows four p-V diagrams. Which of these
(c) 427°C (d) 327°C
curves represent isothermal and adiabatic process?
26. Which one is the correct option for the two different y
thermodynamic processes?
Isothermal p
A D
Adiabatic
p B C
(i) p (ii)
Isothermal
Adiabatic O x
V
V T (a) D and C (b) A and C
Isothermal
(c) A and B (d) B and D
Isothermal
V p 31. Which of the following is an equivalent cyclic
(iii) (iv)
Adiabatic process corresponding to the thermodynamic cyclic
Adiabatic given in the figure? where, 1 ® 2 is adiabatic.
T T (Graphs are schematic and are not to scale)
[JEE Main 2020]
(a) (iii) and (i) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) only (d) (ii) and (iii) 1
path ab and 60 J along the path bc. The work done 37. A cyclic process is shown in figure. Work done
by the gas along the path abc is [JEE Main 2019] during isobaric expansion is
c 2×102 A B
p
p
(Nm–2)
102 D C
a b
V O 3
1 2
(a) 120 J (b) 130 J (c) 100 J (d) 140 J V (Vm–3)
33. For the given cyclic process CAB as shown for a gas, (a) 1600 J (b) 100 J
the work done is [ JEE Main 2019] (c) 400 J (d) 600 J
C A
6.0 38. An ideal monoatomic gas is taken around the cycle
5 ABCD as shown in p versus V diagram. Work done
4 during the cycle is
p (Pa)
3 y
(V, 2p) (2V, 2p)
2 D C
1 B p
1 2 3 4 5 3
V (m )
A B
(a) 5 J (b) 10 J (c) 1 J (d) 30 J
(V, p) (2V, p)
x
34. A gas at pressure p is adiabatically compressed, so V
that its density becomes twice that of initial value.
Given that g = C p /CV = 7/5, what will be the final (a) pV (b) 0.5 pV
pressure of the gas? (c) 2 pV (d) 3 pV
7
(a) 2 p (b) p 39. Figure shows a thermodynamic process on one mole
5
of a gas. How does the work done in the process
(c) 2.63 p (d) p changes with time?
35. Two isothermal curves are shown in figure at y
temperatures T1 and T2 . Which of the following
B
relations is correct? p
p
A
O x
V
T1
T2 (a) decreases continuously
(b) increases continuously
V
(c) remains constant
(a) T1 > T2 (b) T1 < T2 (d) first increases and then decreases
1
(c) T1 = T2 (d) T1 = T2 40. A cylinder with a movable piston contains 3 moles
2
of hydrogen at standard temperature and pressure.
36. In the indicator diagram, net amount of work done The walls of the cylinder are made of heat insulator
will be and the piston is insulated by having a pile of sand
on it. By what factor does the pressure of the gas
p increase, if the gas is compressed to half of its
1 2 original volume? [NCERT Exemplar)
(a) 1.40
(b) 1.60
V (c) 2.64
(a) positive (b) zero (c) infinity (d) negative (d) 1.94
Thermodynamics 483
41. In the following p-V diagram, two adiabatic curves 47. The pressure inside a tyre is 4 atm at 27°C. If the
and two isothermal curves at T1 and T2 . The value tyre bursts suddenly, new temperature will be
of Vb/ Vc is (g = 7/5)
(a) 300 (4)7/2 (b) 300 (4)2/7
A B (c) 300 (2)7/2 (d) 300 (4)–2/7
p T1
48. A monoatomic ideal gas, initially at temperature T1
D C is enclosed in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless
T2
piston. The gas is allowed to expand adiabatically
Va Vd Vb Vc
to a temperature T2 by releasing the piston
V suddenly. If L1, L2 are the lengths of the gas column
(a) = V a / V d (b) < V a / V d before and after expansion respectively, then T1/ T2
(c) > V a / V d (d) Cannot say is given by
(a) (L1 / L 2) 2/ 3 (b) (L1 / L 2)
42. For an adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, the
fractional change in its pressure is equal to (where, (c) L1 / L 2 (d) (L 2 / L1 ) 2/ 3
g is the ratio of specific heats) [JEE Main 2021] 49. For adiabatic expansion of a perfect monoatomic
dV V
(a) - g (b) - g gas, when volume increases by 24%. What is the
V dV percentage decrease in pressure?
1 dV dV
(c) - (d) (a) 24% (b) 30%
g V V (c) 48% (d) 71%
43. One mole of an ideal gas expands adiabatically 50. Starting with the same initial conditions, an ideal
from an initial temperature T1 to a final gas expands from volume V1 to V2 in three different
temperature T2 . The work done by the gas would be ways. The work done by the gas is W1 if the process
(a) (C p - CV )(T1 - T2) is purely isothermal, W2 if purely isobaric and W3 if
(b) C p (T1 - T2) purely adiabatic. Then,
(c) CV (T1 - T2) (a) W 2 > W1 > W3
(d) (C p - CV )(T1 + T2) (b) W 2 > W3 > W1
(c) W1 > W 2 > W3
44. A gas at pressure 6 × 105 Nm–2 and volume 1 m 3.
5
Its pressure falls to 4 × 10 Nm when its volume is –2 (d) W1 > W3 > W 2
3m3.Given that the indicator diagram is a straight 51. One litre of dry air at STP is allowed to expand to a
line, work done by the system is volume of 3 L under adiabatic conditions. If g =
(a) 6 × 105 J (b) 3 × 105 J 1.40, the work done is (31.4 = 4.6555)
(c) 4 × 105 J (d) 10 × 105 J (a) 48 J (b) 60.7 J
(c) 90.5 J (d) 100.8 J
45. A thermodynamic system goes from state (i) (p, V)
to (2 p, V) and (ii) (p,V) to (p, 2V). Work done in the 52. An ideal gas is heated at constant pressure and
two cases is absorbs amount of heat Q. If the adiabatic
(a) zero, zero (b) zero, pV exponent is g, then the fraction of heat absorbed in
(c) pV, zero (d) pV, pV raising the internal energy and performing the
work, is
46. In the indicator diagram, Ta , Tb, Tc , Td represent 1 1
(a) 1 - (b) 1 +
temperatures of gas at A, B, C, D, respectively. g g
Which of the following is correct relation? 2 2
(c) 1 - (d) 1 +
g g
A
p 53. In changing the state of a gas adiabatically from an
B
equilibrium state A to another equilibrium state B,
D an amount of work equal to 22.3 J is done on the
C system. If the gas is taken from state A to B via a
process in which the net heat absorbed by the
V system is 9.35 cal, how much is the net work done
by the system in the latter case?
(a) Ta = Tb = Tc = Td (b) Ta ¹ Tb ¹ Tc ¹ Td (a) 15.6 J (b) 11.2 J
(c) Ta = Tb and Tc = Td (d) None of these (c) 14.9 J (d) 16.9 J
484 JEE Main Physics
54. During an isothermal expansion, a confined ideal 63. A Carnot’s engine works between a source at a
gas does –150 J of work against its surrounding. temperature of 27°C and a sink at – 123°C. Its
This implies that efficiency is
(a) 150 J of heat has been added to the gas (a) 0.5 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.75 (d) 0.4
(b) 150 J heat has been removed from the gas
64. Four engines are working between the given
(c) 300 J of heat has been added to the gas
temperatures ranges given below. For which
(d) No heat is transferred because the process is temperature range, the efficiency is maximum?
isothermal (a) 100 K, 80 K (b) 40 K, 20 K
(c) 60 K, 40 K (d) 120 K, 100 K
Second Law of Thermodynamics,
Refrigerator and Carnot Engine 65. In a refrigerator, the low temperature coil of
evaporator is at – 23°C and the compressed gas in
55. The efficiency of a Carnot engine working between the condenser has a temperature of 77°C. How
800 K and 500 K is
much electrical energy is spent in freezing 1 kg of
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.625 (c) 0.375 (d) 0.5
water already at 0°C ?
56. A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has an (a) 134400 J (b) 1344 J
efficiency of 40%. By how much should the (c) 80000 J (d) 3200 J
temperature of source be increased, so as to
66. A refrigerator absorbs 2000 cal of heat from ice
increase its efficiency by 50% of original efficiency ?
trays. If the coefficient of performance is 4, then
(a) 280 K (b) 275 K (c) 325 K (d) 250 K
work done by the motor is
57. An engine has an efficiency of 1/3. The amount of (a) 2100 J (b) 4200 J
work this engine can perform per kilocalorie of heat (c) 8400 J (d) 500 J
input is 67. A Carnot engine has same efficiency between
(a) 1400 cal (b) 700 cal (i) 100 K and 500 K , (ii) T K and 900 K. The value
(c) 700 J (d) 1400 J of T is
58. A Carnot engine whose low temperature reservoir (a) 180 K (b) 90 K (c) 270 K (d) 360 K
is at 27°C has an efficiency 37.5%. The high 68. A refrigerator works between temperature of
temperature reservoir is at melting ice and room temperatures (17°C). The
(a) 480°C (b) 327°C amount of energy (in kWh) that must be supplied to
(c) 307°C (d) 207°C freeze 1 kg of water at 0°C is
59. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator (a) 1.4 (b) 1.8 (c) 0.058 (d) 2.5
working between 10°C and 20°C is 69. A Carnot’s engine working between 400 K and
(a) 28.3 (b) 29.3 800 K has a work output of 1200 J per cycle. The
(c) 2 (d) Cannot be calculated amount of heat energy supplied to the engine from
60. A reversible heat engine converts (1/6)th of heat it the source in each cycle is [JEE Main 2021]
absorbs from source into work. When temperature of (a) 3200 J (b) 1800 J (c) 1600 J (d) 2400 J
source is 600 K, temperature at which heat exhausts 70. A Carnot engine used first ideal monoatomic gas
is and then an ideal diatomic gas, if the source and
(a) 500 K (b) 100 K sink temperatures are 411°C and 69°C, respectively
(c) 0 K (d) 600 K and the engine extracts 1000 J of heat from the
1 source in each cycle, then
61. A Carnot engine having an efficiency of is being
10 (a) area enclosed by the p-V diagram is 10 J
used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the (b) heat energy rejected by engine is 1st case is 600 J
refrigerator is 10 J, then the amount of heat while that in 2nd case in 113 J
absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature (c) area enclosed by the p-V diagram is 500 J
is: [JEE Main 2020] (d) efficiencies of the engine in both the cases are in
(a) 99 J (b) 100 J (c) 90 J (d) 1 J the ratio 21 : 25
62. An ideal Carnot engine whose efficiency is 40% 71. An ideal gas heat engine operates in Carnot cycle
receives heat at 500 K. If its efficiency were 50%, between 227°C and 127°C. It absorbs 6 × 104 cal of
then in take temperature for same exhaust heat at higher temperature. Amount of heat
temperature would be converted into work is
(a) 700 K (b) 900 K (a) 1.2 × 10 4 cal (b) 2.4 × 10 4 cal
(c) 800 K (d) 600 K (c) 6 × 10 4 cal (d) 4.8 × 10 4 cal
Thermodynamics 485
72. Two heat engines A and B have their sources at 74. What is the temperature of source in Carnot cycle
1000 K and 1100 K and their sinks are at 500 K of 10% efficiency, when heat exhausts at 270 K?
and 400 K, respectively. What is true about their (a) 400 K (b) 500 K
efficiencies? (c) 300 K (d) 600 K
(a) h A = hB (b) h A > hB
(c) h A < hB (d) Cannot say
75. A Carnot engine take 3 ´ 106 cal of heat from a
reservoir at 627°C and gives it to a sink at 27°C.
73. A Carnot engine has the same efficiency between The work done by the engine is
800 K to 500 K and x K to 600 K. The value of x is (a) 4.2 ´ 106 J (b) 8.4 ´ 106 J
(a) 100 K (b) 960 K (c) 846 K (d) 754 K (c) 16.8 ´ 106 J (d) zero
10. An ideal gas at 27°C is compressed adiabatically to 17. One mole of O2 gas having a volume equal to 22.4 L
8 5 at 0°C and 1 atmospheric pressure is compressed
of its original volume. If g = , then the rise of
27 3 isothermally, so that its volume reduces to 11.2 L.
temperature is The work done in this process is
(a) 450 K (b) 375 K (a) 1672.5 J (b) 1728 J
(c) 225 K (d) 405 K (c) –1728 J (d) –1572.5 J
11. A perfect gas goes from state A to state B by 18. The volume of an ideal gas is 1 L and its pressure is
absorbing 8 ´ 105 J of heat and doing 6.5 ´ 105 J of
equal to 72 cm of mercury column. The volume of
external work. It is now transferred between the
gas is made 900 cm 3 by compressing it
same two states in another process in which it
isothermally. The stress of the gas will be
absorbs 105 J of heat. In the second process,
(a) 8 cm (mercury) (b) 7 cm (mercury)
(a) work done on gas is 105 J
(c) 6 cm (mercury) (d) 4 m (mercury)
(b) work done on gas is –0.5 × 105 J
(c) work done by gas is 105 J 19. The pressure and density of a diatomic gas ( g = 7 / 5)
(d) work done by gas is 0.5 × 105 J d¢
change adiabatically from ( p, d) to ( p¢, d¢) if = 32,
12. At NTP, one mole of diatomic gas is compressed d
p¢
adiabatically to half of its volume and g = 1.41. The then should be
work done on gas will be p
(a) 1280 J (b) 1610 J (a) 1/128 (b) 32
(c) 1815 J (d) 2025 J (c) 128 (d) None of these
13. The p-V diagram of a diatomic ideal gas system 20. Ideal gas undergoes an adiabatic change in its state
going under cyclic process as shown in figure. The
from ( p1V1T1) to ( p2 V2 T2 ). The work done in the
work done during an adiabatic process CD is
process is (m = number of moles, C p and CV are
(Use, g = 1.4) [JEE Main 2021]
molar specific heats of gas)
(a) W = m (T1 - T2) C p (b) W = m (T1 - T2) CV
A D
200N/m2 (c) W = m (T1 + T2) C p (d) W = m (T1 + T2) CV
100N/m2
B C 21. 2 kg of water is converted into steam by boiling at
p atmospheric pressure. The volume changes from
2 ´ 10-3 m 3 to 3.34 m 3. The work done by the
1 3 4 system is about
V (m3) (a) –340 kJ (b) –170 kJ
(a) - 500 J (b) - 400 J (c) 170 kJ (d) 340 kJ
(c) 400 J (d) 200 J 22. The changes in pressure and volume of a gas when
14. 200 cal of heat is given to a heat engine, so that it heat content of the gas remains constant are called
reject 150 cal of heat. If source temperature is adiabatic changes. The equation of such changes is
400 K, then the sink temperature is pV g = constant. The changes must be sudden and
(a) 300 K (b) 200 K (c) 100 K (d) 50 K the container must be perfectly insulting to
disallow any exchange of heat with the
15. If the ratio of specific heat of gas at constant surroundings. In such changes, dQ = 0, then as per
pressure to that at constant volume is g. The first law of thermodynamics, dQ = dU + W = 0
change in internal energy of a mass of gas when Þ dU = - dW
the volume changes from V to 2 V at constant
pressure p is A gas in a container is compressed suddenly, its
R pV g pV temperature would
(a) (b) pV (c) (d) (a) increase
(g - 1) (g - 1) (g - 1)
(b) decrease
16. Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas at 27°C (c) stay constant
occupies a volume of V. If the gas is expanded (d) change depending upon surrounding temperature.
adiabatically to the volume 2 V, then the work done 23. In an adiabatic change, the pressure and
by the gas will be æç g = , R = 8.31 J/ mol K ö÷
5
temperature of a monoatomic gas are related as
è ø
3 p µ T - c , where c equals
(a) + 2767.23 J (b) 2627.23 J 2 5 3 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) 2500 J (d) –2500 J 5 2 5 3
Thermodynamics 487
24. The efficiency of a Carnot engine working between Such a process does not exist because
source temperature T1 and sink temperature T2 is
T p
h = 1 - 2 . The efficiency cannot be 100%, as we
T1 1
2
cannot maintain T2 = 0. Coefficient of performance
of a refrigerator working between the same two
temperature is 3
T2 1 -h V [NCERT Exemplar]
=
T1 - T2 h (a) heat is completely converted to mechanical energy
in such a process, which is not possible.
The efficiency of a Carnot engine is 40%. If
(b) mechanical energy is completely converted to heat
temperature of sink is 27°C, what is the source
in this process, which is not possible.
temperature?
(c) curves representing two adiabatic processes
(a) 300 K (b) 400 K
intersect.
(c) 600 K (d) 500 K
(d) curves representing an adiabatic process and an
25. Figure shows the p-V diagram of an ideal gas isothermal process don’t intersect.
undergoing a change of state from A to B. Four 28. p-V plots for two gases during adiabatic processes
different paths I, II, III and IV as shown in the are shown in figure. Plots 1 and 2 should
figure may lead to the same changes of state. correspond respectively to
[NCERT Exemplar]
p
I
p
IV
A II 1
B 2
III
V V
(a) He and O2 (b) O2 and He
(a) Change in internal energy is same in IV and III
(c) He and Ar (d) O2 and N2
cases, but not in I and II
(b) Change in internal energy is different in all the 29. Temperature of an ideal gas is 300 K. The change
four cases in temperature of the gas when its volume changes
(c) Work done is maximum in case I from V to 2 V in the process p = aV (here a is a
(d) Work done is minimum in case II positive constant) is
(a) 900 K (b) 1200 K
26. Consider a heat engine as shown in figure. (c) 600 K (d) 300 K
Q1 and Q2 are heat added to heat bath T1 and heat
T2 is taken from one cycle of engine. W is the 30. A gas under constant pressure of 4.5 ´ 105 Pa when
mechanical work done on the engine. If W > 0, then subjected to 800 kJ of heat changes the volume
possibilities are [NCERT Exemplar] from 0.5 m3 to 2.0 m3. The change in the internal
energy of the gas is
T1
(a) 6.75 × 105 J (b) 5.25 × 105 J
Q1 (c) 3.25 × 105 J (d) 1.25 × 105 J
W
31. A Carnot engine is made to work between 200°C
Q2 and 0°C first and then between 0°C to –200°C. The
T2 ratio of efficiencies of the engine in the two cases is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1
(a) Q2 < Q1 < 0 (c) 1.73 : 1 (d) 1 : 1.73
(b) Q2 > Q1 > 0
(c) Q1 < Q2 < 0 32. Pressure p, volume V and temperature T of a
(d) Q1 < 0, Q2 > 0 certain material are related by p = aT2 / V , where a
is constant. Work done by the material when
27. Consider a cycle followed by an engine (figure) temperature changes from T0 to 2 T0 and pressure
1 to 2 is isothermal remains constant is
2 to 3 is adiabatic 3
(a) 3 aT02 (b) 5 aT02 (c) aT02 (d) 7 aT02
3 to 1 is adiabatic 2
488 JEE Main Physics
33. When the ideal monoatomic gas is heated at 40. An ideal gas is taken through the cycle A ® B ® C
constant pressure fraction of heat energy supplied ® A, as shown in figure. If the net heat supplied to
which increases the internal energy of gas is the gas in cycle is 5J, work done by the gas in the
2 3 process C ® A
(a) (b)
5 5
2 C B
3 3
(c) (d)
7 4 V (m3) A
34. If a Carnot engine whose heat sink is at 27°C has 1
an efficiency of 40%. By how many degrees should
the temperature of the source be changed to
increase the efficiency by 10% of the original 0 5 10
efficiency? [JEE Main 2021] p(Pa)
45. An ideal gas expands isothermally from a volume 50. An ideal gas is taken from the state A (p, V) to the
V1 to V2 and then compressed to original volume V1 state B (p/2, 2 V) along a straight line path as
adiabatically. Initial pressure is p1, final pressure shown in figure. Select the correct statement from
is p3 and total work done is W. Then, the following.
(a) p3 > p1 ; W > 0 (b) p3 < p1 ; W < 0 p
(c) p3 > p1 ; W < 0 (d) p3 = p1 ; W = 0
p
A
46. One litre of dry air at STP expands adiabatically to
a volume of 3 L. If g = 1.40, the work done by air is
p/2
(31.4 = 4.6555) B
(Take, air to be an ideal gas) [JEE Main 2020] V V 2V V0
(a) 100.8 J (b) 90.5 J
(c) 48 J (d) 60.7 J (a) Work done by the gas in going from A to B exceeds
the work done in going from A to B under
47. Certain amount of an ideal gas is contained in a isothermal conditions.
closed vessel. The vessel is moving with a constant
velocity v. The rise in temperature of the gas when (b) In the T-V diagram, part AB would become a
hyperbola.
the vessel is suddenly stopped is (M is molecular
mass, g = C p / CV ) (c) In the p-T diagram, path AB would be part of
2 2 hyperbola.
Mv (g - 1) Mv (g + 1)
(a) (b) (d) In going from A to B, the temperature T of gas first
2R 2R
increases to a maximum value 1 and then
2 2
Mv Mv decreases.
(c) (d)
2Ry 2 R (g + 1)
51. Match the thermodynamic processes taking place
in a system with the correct conditions. In the
48. An ideal gas is made to go through a cyclic thermo-
table, DQ is heat supplied, DW is work done and DU
dynamical process in four steps. The amount of
is change in internal energy of the system.
heat involved are Q1 = 600 J, Q2 = -400 J,
[JEE Main 2020]
QB = -300 J and Q4 = 200 J, respectively. The
corresponding work involved are W1 = 300 J, Process Condition
W2 = -200 J, W3 = -150 J and W4 . What is the value A. Adiabatic p. DW = 0
of W4 ?
B. Isothermal q. DQ = 0
(a) –50 J (b) 100 J (c) 150 J (d) 50 J
C. Isochoric r. DU ¹ 0, DW ¹ 0 and DQ ¹ 0
49. A thermodynamic cycle xyzx is shown on a V -T
D. Isobaric s. DU = 0
diagram. The p -V diagram that best describes this
cycle is (diagrams are schematic and not to scale) A B C D
[JEE Main 2020] (a) q p s r
V (b) p p q r
z y (c) q s p r
(d) p q s s
52. n moles of an ideal gas undergoes a process A to B
x as shown in the figure. The maximum temperature
of the gas during the process will be [JEE Main 2016]
T
p p
p
x x y
A
2 p0
(a) (b)
y z z p0 B
V V
V
p p V0 2V0
x z x
9 p0V 0 3 p0V 0
(c) (d) (a) (b)
4 nR 2 nR
y z y 9 p0V 0 9p V
(c) (d) 0 0
V V 2 nR nR
490 JEE Main Physics
Round II
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (a)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (a) 53. 60 54. 21.14 55. 5 56. 10.82 57 4 58. 15, 3.1 ´ 1019 59. 9
60. 600 61. 548 62. 1819 63. 276.7 64. 14401.3 65. 5 66. - 62.7 67. 19
Solutions
Round I 6. Heat and work are treated as path functions in
1. Here, dQ = 400 cal, dW = - 105 J thermodynamics.
= - 105 /4.2 cal DQ = DU + DW
= - 25 cal; dU = ? Since work done by gas depends on type of process, i.e.
path and DU depends just on initial and final states,
Now, dU = dQ - dW so DQ i.e. heat, also has to depend on process is path.
dU = 400 - (-25) = 425 cal
7. According to the first law of thermodynamics,
Note dW is negative because work is done on the system. Heat supplied (DQ ) = Work done (W )
2. Here, dQ = 110 J, dU = 40 J, dW = ? + Change in internal energy of the system (DU )
DQA = DU A + W A
From dQ = dU + dW
Similarly, for process B,
dW = dQ - dU = 110 - 40 = 70 J
DQB = DU B + WB
3. As, DU = DQ - DW Now, we know that,
Work done for a process = Area under its p-V curve
\ DU = (-20) - (-8) = - 12 J
p p
DU = U f - U i = - 12
f
\ U f = - 12 + U i A f
= - 12 + 30 = 18 J
B
4. As indicator diagrams in all the three cases are closed i
curves, representing cyclic changes, therefore i
O V O V
U = constant and DU = 0 in all the cases. Vi Vf Vi Vf
So, from Eqs. (i) and (ii), we can conclude that 17. In adiabatic expansion, dQ = 0.
DQA > DQB
\ dW = - dU
8. Given, DQ = - 20 J ; DW = - 10 J = - (-50 J )
Now, DQ = (U f - U i ) + DW = 50 J
Þ -20 = (U f - 40) - 10 18. Process 1 is isobaric (p = constant) expansion.
Þ U f = - 10 + 40 = 30 J Hence, temperature of gas will increase.
9. According to the first law of thermodynamics, \ DU 1 = positive
DQ = DU + DW Process 2 is an isothermal process
Þ DQ = 0 + W = W \ DU 2 = 0
7 Process 3 is an adiabatic expansion.
10. Here, n = 5, g = , T1 = 0° C, T2 = 400° C
Hence, temperature of gas will fall.
5
nRdT æ nRdT ö \ DU 3 = negative
\ dU = çQ dU = ÷
7
-1 è g -1 ø \ DU 1 > DU 2 > DU 3
5
5 ´ 8.31 ´ (400 - 0) 19. Given, p µ T 3 but we know that, for an adiabatic
dU = = 41550 J process the pressure, p µ T g / g -1
7
-1 g
5 So, =3
dU = 41.55 kJ g -1
3 Cp 3
11. As,
dU CV dT CV
= = =
(3 / 2)R 3
= Þ g= Þ =
dQ C pdT C p (5 / 2)R 5 2 CV 2
(Here, number of moles of gas is constant) 20. We know that, E f = gp = 1.4 ´ (1 ´ 105 ) = 1.4 ´ 105 N/m 2
12. Work done by the system = Area of shaded portion on 21. When the compression is isothermal for gas in
the p-V diagram container A,
= (300 - 100)10- 6 ´ (100 - 200)103 p2V 2 = p1V1
= - 20 J pV V
p2 = 1 1 = p1 1 = 2 p1
13. As, dU = CV dT V2 V1/2
æ3 ö 3 For gas in container B, when compression is adiabatic,
= ç R÷ dT = ´ 8.32 ´ 100 = 1.25 ´ 103 J
è2 ø 2 p2¢ V 2g ¢ = p1V1g
g
14. For a non-linear triatomic gas, CV = 3R æV ö
p2¢ = p1 ç 1 ÷
3 è V 2¢ ø
and for monoatomic gas, CV ¢ = R
2 g
Q CV 3R æ V ö
\ = =K = =2 = p1 ç 1 ÷ = 2g p1
Q ¢ CV ¢ 3 è V1/2 ø
R
2 p2¢ 2g p1
23
/
\ = = 2g - 1
15. As V = kT p2 2 p1
2 22. Slope of p-V graph of adiabatics = g p / V
\ dV = k T -1/3 dT (after differentiating)
3
Slope of p-V graph of isothermal = p / V
2
kT -1/3 dT Required ratio = g
dV 3 2 dT
\ = =
V kT 23
/
3 T 23. Given processes are
T2 dV T2 2 dT p
Work done, W = ò RT = ò RT a
T1 V T1 3 T
2 2
W = R(T2 - T1 ) = R ´ 60 = 40R b
3 3
c
16. In cyclic process, DQ = Work done = Area inside the d
closed curve treat as an ellipse V
g
47. In adiabatic operation (e. g. bursting of tyre), p1 æ V 2 ö
= ç ÷ = (3)1.4 = 4.6555
p12- g T2g = p11- g T1g p2 è V1 ø
1 -g / g
æp ö p1 1.013 ´ 105
or T2 = T1 ç 1 ÷ \ p2 = =
è p2 ø 4.6555 4.6555
æ 1 -7/5 ö = 0.217 ´ 105 Nm-2
ç ÷
æ4öè 7/5 ø p V - p2V 2
= 300 ç ÷ = 300(4)-2/7 Now, work done = 1 1
è1ø g -1
(Q atmospheric pressure = 1 atm) 1.013 ´ 105 ´ 10-3 - 0.217 ´ 105 ´ 3 ´ 10-3
=
48. During adiabatic expansion. 1.4 - 1
TV g -1 = constant = 90.5 J
T2 Q2 Q1 - W
69. h = = = (Q W = Q1 - Q2) Round II
T1 Q1 Q1
1. According to first law of thermodynamics,
400 W
=1 - dQ = dU + dW …(i)
800 Q1
W 1 1 As, dW = - dU …(ii)
=1 - =
Q1 2 2 So from Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
Q1 = 2W = 2400 J Þ dQ = dU - dU = 0
70. Here, T1 = 411° C = (411 + 273) K = 684 K The change must be adiabatic.
= - 2a ê ú = 3aT02
27. In the given work, one complete cycle, 1 ® 2 ® 3 ® 1, 2
ë û T0
the system returns to its initial state.
Cp 5
\dU = 0 and dQ = dW , i. e. heat is completely 33. For monoatomic gas, g = =
converted into mechanical energy, which is not CV 3
possible in such a process. Further, the two adiabatic We know that, DQ = mC pDT
curves (2 ® 3) and (3 ® 1) cannot intersect each other. and DU = mCV DT
28. As it is clear from figure, DU CV 3
Þ = =
Slope of curve 2 > Slope of curve 1 DQ C p 5
(gp)2 > (gp)1 i.e. Fraction of heat energy required to increases
g 2 > g1 3
the internal energy will be ×
We know that, for monoatomic gas, g = 1.67 5
and for diatomic gas, g = 1.4
34. Given, T2 = 27 + 273 = 300 K, h = 40 %
\ Adiabatic curve 2 corresponds to helium T2
(monoatomic) and adiabatic curve 1 corresponds to As, h =1-
T1
oxygen (diatomic).
T2 40 60 3
29. The given relation is p = aV \ =1 -h =1 - = =
T1 100 100 5
Therefore, p µV 5 5
When V changes from V to 2V , pressure p is also Þ T1 = ´ T2 = ´ 300 = 500 K
3 3
doubled.
pV \ New efficiency, h¢ = 40 + 4 = 44%
For an ideal gas, = constant (Q Increase in efficiency = 10% of 40 = 4%)
T
\ T µ pV Let the new temperature of the source be T1 ¢ K , then
T 44 1 - 300
Hence, T becomes 2 ´ 2 = 4 times h¢ = 1 - 2 Þ =
T1¢ 100 T1 ¢
i. e. 4 ´ 300 K = 1200 K
300 44 56
30. Here, p = 4.5 ´ 105 Pa, Þ =1 - =
T1 ¢ 100 100
dV = (2.0 - 0.5) m3 = 1.5 m3 100 ´ 300
Þ T1 ¢ = = 535.7 K
and dQ = 800 kJ = 8 ´ 105 J, dU = ? 56
dW = pdV = 4.5 ´ 105 ´ 1.5 = 6.75 ´ 105 J \Increase in the temperature of the source,
dU = dQ - dW = 535.7 - 500 = 35.7 K or 35.7° C
= 8 ´ 105 - 6.75 ´ 105
35. Given, temperature of source, T1 = (36 + 273) K
= 1.25 ´ 105 J
= 309 K
31. Given, T1 = 200° C = 200 + 273 = 473 K
Temperature of sink, T2 = (9 + 273) K = 282 K
T2 = 0° C = 0 + 273 = 273 K
500 JEE Main Physics
DV Dp DV Dp 1 1
1 =1 +
+n +n DU = nCV DT = mv2 = (nM )v2
V p V p 2 2
DV Dp where, n is number of moles of the gas in the vessel
or = -n (neglecting the product)
V p and M is molecular weight of the gas.
- Dp p Mv2
Þ Bulk modulus, K = = \ DT =
DV / V n 2CV
R
45. As, slope of adiabatic process at a given state is more As, CV =
than the slope of isothermal process, therefore in g -1
figure, AB is isothermal and BC is an adiabatic. Mv2(g - 1)
\ DT =
2R
p3 C
p 48. From the first law of thermodynamics,
p1 DQ = DU + DW ..(i)
A
For a cyclic process, DU = 0
B \ DQ = DW
Now, DQ = Q1 + Q2 + Q3 + Q4
V1 V2 = 600 J - 400 J - 300 J + 200 J = 100 J
V
and DW = W1 + W 2 + W3 + W 4
In going from A to B, volume is increasing Þ DW = 300 J - 200 J - 150 J + W 4
\ W AB = positive = - 50 J + W 4
In going from B to C, volume is decreasing Substitute the value of DQ and DW in Eq. (i), we get
\ WBC = negative 100 J = - 50 J + W 4
As work done is area under p-V graph, therefore W 4 = 150 J
|WBC| > |W AB|
49. For the given V-T graph of thermodynamic cycle xyzx,
\ W = W AB + WBC = Negative, i. e.W < 0.
From the graph, it is clear that p3 > p1. V
z y
46. The given expansion process is adiabatic in nature
and we have the following data
Initial volume, V1 = 1 L = 10-3 m3 x
Final volume, V 2 = 3 L = 3 ´ 10-3 m3 T
Initial pressure, p1 = 1 atm = 1 .01 ´ 105 Pa
In process xy, V µ T Þ pressure is constant.
Final pressure, p2 = ?
Process zx is a isothermal compression process, so
Using p1V1g = p2V 2g , we have pressure increases in this process. Process yz is a
1 ´ 1g = p2 ´ (3)g isochoric process in which temperature decreases, so
Here, g = 1.40 and (3)1. 4 = 4.6555 pressure must decrease in this process. Hence, the p-V
1 graph is as shown in the figure
So, p2 = » 0.22 atm
4 .6555 Isobaric expansion
p
= 0.22 ´ 1.01 ´ 105 Pa
x y
Work done in an adiabatic expansion is
Isothermal Isochoric process
given by
compression
( p V - p2V 2)
W = 1 1 z
g -1
V
(1.01 ´ 105 ´ 1 ´ 103 - 0.22 ´ 1.01 ´ 105 ´ 3 ´ 10-3 )
= 50. Isothermal curve from A to B will be parabolic with
(1.40 - 1)
lesser area under the curve than the area under
= 0.85 ´ 1.01 ´ 105 ´ 10-3 straight line AB. Therefore, work done by the gas in
= 85.85 J going straight from A to B is more.
Closest value of work done, W » 90.5 J
If p0 , V 0 be the intercepts of curve on p and V axes,
1 then its equation is obtained from y = mx + c
47. KE of the vessel = Mv2
2 p RT p0V
When the vessel is suddenly stopped, the ordered i. e. p = 0 V + p0 or = + p0
V0 V V0
motion of the gas molecules is converted into
p pV
disordered motion of the molecules, thereby increasing or T = 0 V2 + 0
the internal energy of the gas. Thus, V 0R R
502 JEE Main Physics
which is the equation of a parabola. Hence T-V curve Equation of line AB, we have
is parabolic. Therefore (b) is incorrect. y - y1
y - y1 = 2 (x - x1 )
Also ( p / 2) ´ (2V ) = pV = constant, i. e. process is x2 - x1
isothermal. 2 p0 - p0
Þ p - p0 = (V - 2V 0 )
Hence, option (a) is correct. V 0 - 2V 0
- p0
51. I. Adiabatic process Þ p - p0 = (V - 2V 0 )
V0
No heat is transferred between system and
- p0
surroundings, therefore Þ p= V + 3 p0
V0
DQ = 0
- p0 2
II. Isothermal process pV = V + 3 p0V
V0
Temperature of the system remains constant.
-p
i.e. T = constant Þ DT = 0 nRT = 0 V 2 + 3 p0V
V0
So, change in internal energy,
1 æ - p0 2 ö
DU = nCV DT = nCV (0) = 0 T= ç V + 3 p0V ÷
nR è V 0 ø
III. Isochoric process
For maximum temperature,
Volume of system remains constant. ¶T
i.e. V = constant Þ DV = 0 =0
¶V
So, work done, - p0
(2V ) + 3 p0 = 0
DW = ò p dV = ò p (0) = 0 V0
- p0 3
(2V ) = - 3 p0 Þ V = V 0
IV. Isobaric process V0 2
Pressure of system remains constant. (condition for maximum temperature)
i.e. p = constant (C) Thus, the maximum temperature of the gas during the
Þ Dp = 0 process will be
So, change in internal energy, 1 æ - p0 9 2 3 ö
Tmax = ç ´ V 0 + 3 p0 ´ V 0 ÷
æ fR ö nR è V 0 4 2 ø
DU = nCV DT = n ç ÷ DT
è 2 ø 1 æ 9 9 ö 9 p0V 0
f f = ç - p0V 0 + p0V 0 ÷ =
= (nRDT ) = ( pDV ) nR è 4 2 ø 4 nR
2 2
f Alternate solution
= (CDV ) ¹ 0
2 Since, initial and final temperatures are equal, hence
and work done, maximum temperature is at the middle of line.
DW = ò p dV = ò C dV p
=C ò dV = C DV ¹ 0 2p0 T0
and heat transferred, 3p0
Tmax
2
é ( f + 2)R ù p0 T0
DQ = n C pDT = n ê úû DT
ë 2
V
æ f + 2ö æ f + 2ö V0 3V0 2V0
=ç ÷ (nRDT ) = ç ÷ ( pDV ) 2
è 2 ø è 2 ø
i.e. pV = nRT
æ f + 2ö
=ç ÷ (C DV ) ¹ 0 æ 3 ö æ 3V 0 ö
è 2 ø ç p0 ÷ ç ÷
è2 ø è 2 ø
So, A ® q, B ® s, C ® p, D ® r Þ = Tmax
nR
52. As, T will be maximum temperature where product of 9 p0V 0
= Tmax
pV is maximum. 4 nR
p T2
53. 1 - = 0.5 or T1 = 2T2 = 2 (17 + 273) = 580 K
A
T1
2p0
Temperature of hot body is increased by 145°C or 145 K,
p0 \ T1¢ = (580 + 145) = 725 K
B
and T 2 = (17 + 273) = 290 K
V æ 290 ö
V0 2V0 \ h = ç1 - ÷ ´ 100 = 60%
è 725 ø
Thermodynamics 503
For the given Carnot engine, we have work output, 63. Here, initial temperature,
W = Q1 - Q2 and ratio of heat taken and rejected is
T1 = 27° C = 273 + 27 = 300 K
Q1 T1
= Final temperature, T2 = 97° C = 273 + 97 = 370 K
Q2 T2
When a gas is compressed adiabatically, work done on
So, we have the gas is given by
1200 = Q1 - Q2 R
W = (T2 - T1 )
Q1 900 (1 - g )
and = =3
Q2 300 8.3 ´ (370 - 300)
=
On solving these, we get 1 - 1.5
Q2 = 600 J or W = - 11.62 ´ 102J
\Heat produced,
61. Here, temperature of the gas,
W 11.62 ´ 102
T = 273 + 127 = 400 K H = = = 276.7 cal
J 4.2
Let initial volume of the gas, V1 = V
\ Final volume of the gas, V 2 = 2V 64. Here, n = 5, T = 500K, VB = 2 V A ,
In an isothermal expansion, R = 8.31 mol-1 K -1
V VB
Work done (W ) = 2.3026 RT log10 2 Now, W iso = n ´ 2.303 ´ RT log
V1 VA
2V 2V A
= 2.3026 ´ 8.3 ´ 400 ´ log10 = 5 ´ 2.303 ´ 8.31 ´ 500 log
V VA
= 2.3026 ´ 8.3 ´ 400 ´ 0.3010
= 5 ´ 2.303 ´ 8.31 ´ 500 log 2
or W = 2.30 ´ 103 J
= 5 ´ 2.303 ´ 8.31 ´ 500 ´ 0.3010
The amount of heat absorbed,
= 14401.3 J
W 2.30 ´ 103
H = = 547.6 = 548 cal 65. Here, Q1 = 6 ´ 105 cal
J 4.2
T1 = 227° C = 227 + 273 = 500 K
62. Initially gas is compressed adiabatically.
T2 = 127° C = 127 + 273 = 400 K
Initial temperature, T1 = 300 K
Work done/cycle, W = ?
Number of moles = 1, g = 1.4
Q2 T2
Initial volume = V1 As, =
Q1 T1
V
Final volume = 1 T 400
16 \ Q2 = 2 ´ Q1 = ´ 6 ´ 105
T1 500
Process equation is
T1V1g - 1 = T2V 2g - 1 = 4.8 ´ 105 cal
æV ö
1. 4 – 1 As, W = Q1 - Q2 = 6 ´ 105 - 4.8 ´ 105
Þ 300V11. 4 - 1 = T2ç 1 ÷
è 16 ø W = 1.2 ´ 105 cal
8 = 1.2 ´ 105 ´ 4.2 J
Þ T2 = 300 ´ 25 ...(i) W = 5.04 ´ 105 J
In next process, gas is expanded isobarically. Initial = 5.04 ´ 10x J (given)
V
volume, V 2 = 1 \ x=5
16
æV ö V 66. Here, T1 = 0 + 273 = 273 K;
Final volume, V3 = 2ç 1 ÷ = 1
è 16 ø 8 p1 = 1.013 ´ 106 dyne cm -2; g = 1.4
Now, for isobaric expansion, and density of air at NTP, r = 1.29 ´ 10-3 gcm-3
V 2 V3 Mass 1
= \ V1 = = = 775.2 cm3
T2 T3 Density 1.29 ´ 10-3
V 775.2
Þ
V2
=
2V 2 and V2 = 1 = = 387.6 cm3
8
T3 2 2
g
300 ´ 25 æV ö
8 Now, p1V1g = p2V 2g or p2 = p1 ´ ç 1 ÷
è V2 ø
Þ T3 = 2 ´ 300 ´ 25 1× 4
13 æ V ö
or p2 = 1.013 ´ 106 ´ ç 1 ÷ = 1.013 ´ 106 ´ (2)1.4
= 300 ´ 2 5 = 1818.85 è V1 / 2 ø
or T3 = 1819 K = 1.013 ´ 106 ´ 2.639 = 2.673 ´ 106 dyne cm -2
Thermodynamics 505
Note There is no significant difference between oscillations and vibrations. When to and fro
motion of the body about a fixed position has small frequency, we call it oscillation such as the
oscillation of a simple pendulum.
When to and fro motion of the body about a fixed position has high frequency, we call it as
vibrations such as oscillation of a musical instrument.
Periodic Functions
Those functions which are used to represent periodic motion are known as
periodic functions.
A function f ( t ) is said to be periodic, if f ( t ) = f ( t + T ) = f ( t + 2 T ) …(i)
Q sine and cosine functions are example of periodic functions.
When T is the period of this periodic motion, then for periodic motion,
y = A sin wt = A sin w( t + T ) …(ii)
and x = A cos wt = A cos w( t + T ) …(iii)
Oscillations 507
Displacement (m)
T 4
X-axis. 2T/4
O Time (s)
The projection of OP on the X-axis at time t is given by T/4 3T/4 T 5T/4
æ 2p pö
x (t ) = A cos ç t+ ÷
èT 4ø
æ 2p pö
For, T = 4 s x (t ) = A cos ç t+ ÷ Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for this motion?
è 4 4ø
3T
which is a SHM of amplitude A, period 4 s and an initial phase A. The force is zero at t = .
p 4
= .
4 B. The acceleration is maximum at t = T .
T
Example 5. The periodic time of a body executing SHM is C. The speed is maximum at t = .
4
2 s. After what interval from t = 0, will its displacement be
half of its amplitude? D. The potential energy is equal to kinetic energy of the
T
(a) (1/5) s (b) (1/6) s (c) (1/10) s (d) (1/8) s oscillation at t = .
2
A
Sol. (b) Given, T = 2 s,t = ? ; x = (a) A, B and D (b) B, C and D
2
(c) A, B and C (d) A and D
2p
Now, x = A sin wt = A sin t
T Sol. (c) The displacement-time graph is as shown below,
A 2p y(m)
\ = A sin t = A sin pt
2 2
p 2T/4
Þ sin pt = sin 30° = sin t (s)
6 T/4 3T/4 T 5T/4
p 1
or pt = or t = s
6 6
Energy
p U(t)
or f= (a)
3 K (t)
then, y 2 = A cos f sin 3pt + A sin f cos 3pt
O t
= A sin (3pt + f) T/ 2 T
æ pö
= 10 sin ç3pt + ÷ 1
E = kA 2
U, K
1
è 3ø 2 U = kx 2
2
Now, we find that A1 = 10 and A2 = 10
or A1 : A2 = 10 : 10 = 1 : 1
(b) 1
Differential Equations of SHM K= k(A2 – x2)
2
d 2x
For linear SHM, + w2x = 0
dt 2 −A O +A
or a = - w2x Displacement (Dashed line curve
showing KE)
In SHM, F = - kx or a = - w2x, i. e. F-x graph or a-x graph
is a straight line passing through the origin with Example 9. A particle executes SHM of amplitude A. At
negative slope. The corresponding graphs are shown what distance from the mean position is its KE equal to its PE?
below. (a) 0.71 A (b) 0.61 A (c) 0.65 A (d) 0.8 A
F a 1
Sol. (a) As, KE = mw2 ( A2 - x2)
2
a =– ω2x 1
F =– kx and PE = mw2x2
2
x x
As, KE = PE
1 1
\ mw2( A2 - x2) = mw2x2
2 2
(a) (b)
or A2 - x2 = x2
Slope = – k Slope = – ω2
or x2 = A2/ 2
or x = A / 2 = 0.71 A
Energy in SHM
A particle executing SHM possesses two types of energy. Example 10. A block of mass m attached to a massless
If a particle executes SHM, its kinetic energy changes spring is performing oscillatory motion of amplitude A on a
into potential energy and vice-versa keeping total energy frictionless horizontal plane. If half of the mass of the block
constant (if friction of air is neglected). breaks off when it is passing through its equilibrium point, the
1 amplitude of oscillation for the remaining system becomes fA.
Kinetic energy K = mv2
2 The value of f is [JEE Main 2020]
1 1 1 1
=mA2w2 cos2 ( wt + f ) = mw2 ( A2 - x 2 ) (a) 2 (b) (c) (d) 1
2 2 2 2
(because x = A sin( wt + f ) Sol. (c) In the equilibrium position, the velocity is maximum and
1 it is equal to v max = w A
2 2
Potential energy U = mw x k
2 where, w = = angular frequency
1 m
= mA2w2 sin2 ( wt + f ) and k = spring constant.
2
Now, kinetic energy in equilibrium position,
Thus, total energy = kinetic energy + potential energy 1 1 ækö
1 E = mw2A2 = mç ÷ A2 …(i)
orE = mw2A 2 (constant) 2 2 è mø
2
When half of the mass of the block breaks off, also the kinetic
The total energy is constant and is proportional to the energy of the system will become half, i.e. E/2.
square of amplitude (A) of motion. The angular frequency will become,
Figures show the variations of total energy (E), potential k
w¢ =
energy (U) and kinetic energy (K) with displacement (x). (m / 2)
Oscillations 511
It says that the torque t is proportional to the angular The moment of inertia I at point O,
displacement q from the equilibrium position but tends to m æ 2l ö
2
ælö
2
m m
T = 2p T ¢ = 2p
k k
m1m2
1 k where, m = = reduced mass.
or n= m1 + m2
2p m
If the spring is not light but has a definite mass ms , then Example 14. A block with a mass of 2 kg hangs without
it can be easily shown that period of oscillation will be vibrating at the end of a spring of spring constant 800 Nm–1,
m which is attached to the ceiling of an elevator. The elevator is
m+ s going upwards with an acceleration g/3. At a certain instant,
T = 2p 3
the acceleration suddenly ceases and elevator starts moving
k
with constant velocity. What is the angular frequency of
oscillation of block when the acceleration ceases?
Oscillations of Spring Combination (a) 12 rad s-1 (b) 20 rad s-1 (c) 21 rad s-1 (d) 19 rad s-1
For different combinations of spring block system,
following cases occurs k 800
Sol. (b) Angular frequency, w = = = 20 rads–1
● If a spring pendulum is constructed by using two springs m 2
in series and a mass m as shown in Fig. (a), the resultant
spring constant of the combination is given by Example 15. In the above example, by what amount is the
1 1 1 k1 + k2 spring stretched during the time when the elevator is
= + = , and hence accelerating?
ks k1 k2 k1k2
(a) 2.3 cm (b) 3.3 cm
m ( k1 + k2 )
T = 2p = 2p (c) 5.3 cm (d) 4.4 cm
ks k1k2
Sol. (b) When the elevator is accelerating upwards with an
acceleration a = g /3, the equation of motion of the block is
æ gö
k1 k1 çky - mg = ma = m ÷
è 3ø
k1 k2 m
k2 k2
m k = 800 Nm–1
m
(a) (b) (c)
● If in a spring pendulum, two springs are joined in 2 kg
parallel arrangement as shown in Fig. (b) and (c), then
m mg 4
kp = k1 + k2, and hence, T = 2p Þ ky = mg + = mg
k1 + k2 3 3
4 mg 4 ´ 2 ´ 10
These rules are applicable for horizontal motion of Þ y= = = 0.033 m or 3.3 cm
spring mass systems too. 3k 3 ´ 800
514 JEE Main Physics
Example 16. In the above example, what is the amplitude Example 19. When a particle of mass m is attached to a
-2 vertical spring of spring constant k and released, its motion is
of oscillation? (Take, g = 10 ms )
described by y(t) = y0 sin2 wt, where y is measured from the
(a) 0.1 cm (b) 0.7 cm (c) 0.8 cm (d) 0.5 cm
lower end of unstretched spring. Then w is [JEE Main 2020]
Sol. (c) In equilibrium, when the elevator has no acceleration, the 1 g g g 2g
equation of motion is (a) (b) (c) (d)
2 y0 y0 2y 0 y0
ky 0 = mg
mg 2 ´ 10 Sol. (c) Given that, displacement of particle at any instant
Þ y0 = = = 0.025 m or 2.5 cm
k 800 æ1 - cos 2wt ö
y(t ) = y 0 sin 2 wt , y = y 0 ç ÷
\ Amplitude of oscillation, è 2 ø
A = y - y 0 = 3.3 - 2.5 = 0.8 cm y0 y0
y- = - cos 2wt or Y = A cos 2wt
2 2
Example 17. A spring whose unstretched length is l has a
force constant k. The spring is cut into two pieces of
unstretched lengths l1 and l 2 where, l1 = nl 2 and n is an
integer. The ratio k1 / k2 of the corresponding force constants
k1 and k2 will be [JEE Main 2019]
1 1 y0
(a) n (b) (c) (d) n 2 2 m
n2 n
Equilibrium
Sol. (c) If parameters like material, number of loops per unit
length, area of cross-section, etc., are kept same, then force y0
where, amplitude (displacement), A =
constant of spring is inversely proportional to its length. 2
In given case, all other parameters are same for both parts of k
and 2w = …(i)
spring. m
1 1 y 0 mg
So, k1 µ and k2 µ Maximum displacement, = (see figure)
l1 l2 2 k
k1 l2 l2 1 2mg
\ = = = [Q l1 = nl2] or k= …(ii)
k2 l1 nl2 n y0
Example 18. An object of mass m is suspended at the end Putting the value of k from Eq. (ii) in Eq. (i), we get
of a massless wire of length L and area of cross-section A. 2mg 1 g
2w = ´ or w =
Young modulus of the material of the wire is Y. If the mass is y0 m 2y 0
pulled down slightly its frequency of oscillation along the
vertical direction is [JEE Main 2020] Example 20. A spring mass system (mass m, spring
constant k and natural length l) rests in equilibrium on
1 mL 1 YA
(a) f = (b) f = horizontal disc. The free end of the spring is fixed at the
2p YA 2p mL
centre of the disc. If the disc together with spring mass
1 mA 1 YL system, rotates about it’s axis with an angular velocity
(c) f = (d) f =
2p YL 2p mA w, (k >> mw2), the relative change in the length of the spring is
Sol. (b) best given by the option [JEE Main 2020]
Simple Pendulum
x
Given figure shows simple pendulum in which a small
(force exerted by the spring on the left side, trying to pull the mass bob of mass m tied to an in extensible massless string of
towards the mean position) length L. The other end of the string is fixed to a support
Fl = - kx in the ceiling. The bob oscillates in a plane about the
(force exerted by the spring on the right side, trying to push the vertical line through the support.
mass towards the mean position)
Rigid
F2 = - kx support
The net force, F acting on the mass is then
F = -2 kx L
m
k θ L
T
m
(a) 0.19 J (b) 0.0625 J mg sin θ mg cos θ
(c) 0.09 J (d) 0.25 J mg
516 JEE Main Physics
Taking torque about point O. The time period of a simple pendulum which ticks seconds is 2 s.
t = - mgL sin q Therefore, for g = 9.8 ms–2 and T = 2 s, L is
t = - mgLq (for small angular displacement sin q ~
- q) 9.8 ´ 4
L= » 1m
Ia = - mgLq 4 p2
- mgLq
a= Example 25. The bob of a simple pendulum executes
I
SHM in water with a period t, while the period of oscillation
-mgL æ - gö g of the bob is t 0 in air. Neglecting frictional force of water and
a= q=ç ÷q Þ w=
mL 2 è L ø L æ 4ö
given that the density of the bob is ç ÷ ´ 1000 kgm -3. What
è3ø
So, the time period of the simple pendulum can be given as
relationship between t and t 0 is true?
L
T = 2p (a) t = t 0 (b) t = 4 t 0
g t
(c) t = 2t 0 (d) t = 0
2
Example 23. A ball is suspended by a thread of length
4
l at the point O on the wall PQ. Another wall OR is Sol. (c) Here density of bob, r = ´ 1000 kgm-3
inclined to the vertical by a. The thread with the ball is 3
displaced by a small angle b away from the vertical and and density of water, s = 1000 kgm-3
also away from the wall OR. If the ball is released, L
assuming the collision to be perfectly elastic the period of \ In air t 0 = 2p and in water
g
oscillation of the pendulum for b > a is
L
P O Q t = 2p
æ sö
g ç1 - ÷
α β è rø
L
= 2p
æ 3ö
g ç1 - ÷
è 4ø
R A C
L
B
= 2 ´ 2p = 2t 0
g
L é bù L é aù
(a) p + 2 cos-1 ú (b) p + 2 sin -1 ú
g êë aû g êë bû Important Points Related to Simple Pendulum
● The time period of a simple pendulum is
g é aù g é -1 b ù
(c) p + 2 tan -1 ú (d) êë2p + 2 tan a úû
T = 2p l/ g
L êë bû L
1 l
Þ T µ l or T µ Þ T µ
Sol. (b) When b > a times taken by pendulum from B to C and C g g
to B is
T 1 L L
Using these relations. We may conclude
t1 = = ´ 2 p =p (a) The graph between T 2 and l is a straight line.
2 2 g g
2 æ aö Y
and t2 = 2 t = sin -1 ç ÷
w èbø T2
Using, q = q0 sin wt
a = b sin wt
1 æ aö
or t = sin -1 ç ÷ O X
w èbø l
Y
● If the time period of simple pendulum is 2s, then it is
called as second’s pendulum.
● If the simple pendulum is placed in some non-inertial
T2
frame of reference like an accelerated lift, g is replaced
by geff whose value can be computed by considering the
inertial force. In these cases, the equilibrium position
O X may also change.
1/g ● If the length of simple pendulum is very large, then g
2
(d) The graph between T and g is a rectangular can’t be taken along vertical direction.
hyperbola. 1
Y In this case, T = 2p
æ1 1 ö
gç + ÷
T2 è l Rø
where, R = Radius of length of the pendulum.
● If temperature of system changes, then time period of
simple pendulum changes due to change in length of
O g X
the simple pendulum.
● In the case of water oscillating in a U-tube ● If a simple pendulum is in a carriage which is
accelerating with an acceleration a, then
geff = g - a
e. g. , if the acceleration a is upwards, then
l
|geff|= g + a and T = 2p
h g+a
If the acceleration a is downwards, then ( g > a )
l
|geff| = g - a and T = 2p
g-a
æhö
T = 2p ç ÷ If the acceleration a is in the horizontal direction, then
è gø
where, h is the height of liquid column in each limb. |g eff| = a 2 + g 2
● When a pendulum is kept in a car which is sliding In a freely falling lift, geff = 0 and T = ¥, i. e. the
down, then pendulum will not oscillate.
æ l ö ● If in addition to gravity one additional force F (e. g.
T = 2p ç ÷ electrostatic force Fe ) is also acting on the bob, then in
è g cos q ø
that case
where, q is the angle of inclination. geff = g +
F
● If a simple pendulum oscillates in a non-viscous liquid m
of density r, then its time period is Here, m is the mass of the bob.
Example 27. A simple pendulum oscillating in air has where, I = Moment of inertia of the object,
period T. The bob of the pendulum is completely immersed in phr n
C = Torsional constant of wire = ,
1 2l
a non-viscous liquid. The density of the liquid is th of the
16 h = Modulus of elasticity of wire,
material of the bob. If the bob is inside liquid all the time, its r = Radius of wire
period of oscillation in this liquid is [JEE Main 2019] and l = Length of wire.
1 1 1 1
(a) 2T (b) 2T (c) 4T (d) 4T
10 14 14 15 Physical Pendulum
Sol. (d) We know that, When a rigid body of any shape is capable of oscillating
Time period of a pendulum is given by about an axis (may or may not be passing through it), it
T = 2p L / g eff …(i) constitutes a physical pendulum.
Here, L is the length of the pendulum and g eff is the effective
P
acceleration due to gravity in the respective medium in which bob
is oscillating. θ
Initially, when bob is oscillating in air, g eff = g . d
L
So, initial time period, T = 2p …(ii) C
g
C
Let rbob be the density of the bob. mg
Torsional pendulum l0
In a torsional pendulum, an object is suspended from a 2 l0 O CM
wire. If such a wire is twisted due to elasticity, it exerts a
restoring torque t = C q
2l0 l0
(a) T = 3p (b) T = 4p
3g 3g
l
2l0 2l0
(c) T = 4p (d) T = 2p
3g 3g
θ Sol. (d) Here the rod is oscillating about an end point O. Hence,
moment of inertia of rod about the point of oscillating is
1
In this case, time period is given by I = ml02
3
l
T = 2p Moreover, length l of the pendulum = distance from the
C oscillation axis to centre of mass of rod = l0 /2
Oscillations 519
1. The displacement of a damped harmonic oscillator is (a) periodic but not simple harmonic
given by x( t) = e- 0.1tcos (10 pt + f). Here, t is in (b) non-periodic
seconds. (c) simple harmonic and time period is independent of
The time taken for its amplitude of vibration to drop the density of the liquid
to half of its initial value is close to [JEE Main 2019] (d) simple harmonic and time-period is directly
proportional to the density of the liquid
(a) 27 s
(b) 13 s 7. A particle is acted simultaneously by mutually
(c) 4 s perpendicular simple hormonic motions x = a cos wt
(d) 7 s and y = a sin wt. The trajectory of motion of the
2. The displacement of the particle varies with time particle will be [NCERT Exemplar]
11. Two pendulums have time period T and 5T/4. They 18. A body has a time period T1 under the action of one
start SHM at the same time from the mean force and T2 under the action of another force, the
position. What will be the phase difference between square of the time period when both the forces are
them after the bigger pendulum completed one acting in the same direction is
oscillation? (a) T12T22 (b) T12T 22
(a) 45º (b) 90º (c) 60º (d) 30º
(c) T12 + T22 (d) T12T22/ (T12 + T22)
12. The displacement of two particles executing SHM
are represented by equations 19. Two linear SHMs of equal amplitude A and angular
frequencies w and 2w are impressed on a particle
y1 = 2 sin (10 t + q ), y2 = 3 cos 10 t.
along the axes x and y respectively. If the initial
The phase difference between the velocity of these phase difference between them is p/2, the resultant
particles is path followed by the particle is
(a) q (b) - q (c) q + p /2 (d) q - p /2 (a) y2 = x2(1 - x2/ A 2) (b) y2 = 2x2(1 - x2/ A 2)
13. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with (c) y2 = 4x2(1 - x2/ A 2) (d) y2 = 8x2(1 - x2/ A 2)
an amplitude of 5 cm. When the particle is at 4 cm
from the mean position, the magnitude of its 20. A coin is placed on a horizontal platform, which
velocity in SI units is equal to that of its undergoes horizontal SHM about a mean
acceleration. Then, its periodic time (in seconds) is position O. The coin placed on platform does not
[JEE Main 2019] slip, coefficient of friction between the coin and the
4p 8p 7 3 platform is m. The amplitude of oscillation is
(a) (b) (c) p (d) p
3 3 3 8 gradually increased. The coil will begin to slip on
the platform for the first time
14. Two pendulums of length 121 cm and 100 cm start (a) at the mean position
vibrating. At some instant both are in the mean
position in the same phase. After how many (b) at the extreme position of oscillations
vibrations of the shorter pendulum, both will be (c) for an amplitude of mg/ w2
again in phase at the mean position? (d) for an amplitude of g/mw2
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 20 (d) 21
21. A particle in SHM is described by the displacement
15. The piston in the cylinder head of a locomotive has function x( t) = A cos( wt + f), w = 2p/ T. If the initial
a stroke (twice the amplitude) of 1.0 m. If the ( t = 0) position of the particle is 1 cm, its initial
piston moves with simple harmonic motion with an velocity is p cm s–1 and its angular frequency is ps–1,
angular frequency of 200 rad/min, what is its then the amplitude of its motion is
maximum speed? [NCERT] (a) p cm (b) 2 cm (c) 2 cm (d) 1 cm
(a) 100 m/min (b) 200 m/min
22. A cylindrical plastic bottle of negligible mass is
(c) 300 m/min (d) 50 m/min filled with 310 mL of water and left floating in a
16. Two points are located at a distance of 10 m and pond with still water. If pressed downward slightly
15 m from the source of oscillation. The period of and released, it starts performing simple harmonic
oscillation is 0.05s and the velocity of the wave is motion at angular frequency w . If the radius of the
300 m/s. What is the phase difference between the bottle is 2.5 cm, then w is close to
oscillations of two points? (Take, density of water = 103 kg/m 3) [JEE Main 2019]
p p 2p (a) 2 . 50 rad s -1 (b) 8.00 rad s -1
(a) p (b) (c) (d)
6 3 3 (c) 1.25 rad s -1 (d) 3.75 rad s -1
17. A horizontal plank has a rectangular block placed 23. A large horizontal surface moves up and down in
on it. The plank starts oscillating vertically and SHM with an amplitude of 1 cm. If a mass of 10 kg
simple harmonically with an amplitude of 40 cm. (which is placed on the surface) is to remain
The block just loses contact with the plank when continuously in contact with it, then the maximum
the later is momentarily at rest, then frequency of SHM will be
(a) the block becomes weighless (a) 5 Hz (b) 0.5 Hz
(b) the block weighs double its weight when the plank (c) 1.5 Hz (d) 10 Hz
is at one of the positions of momentary at rest 24. A horizontal platform vibrates with simple
(c) the block weighs 1.5 times its weight on the plank harmonic motion in the horizontal direction with a
at extreme position period 2 s. A body of mass 0.5 kg is placed on the
(d) the block weighs its true weight on the plank, at platform. The coefficient of static friction between
one of the positions of momentary at rest the body and platform is 0.3. What is the maximum
522 JEE Main Physics
frictional force on the body when the platform is 32. When the potential energy of a particle executing
oscillating with an amplitude 0.2 m? simple harmonic motion is one-fourth of its
Assume p2 = 10 = g. maximum value during the oscillation, the
(a) 0.5 N (b) 1 N displacement of the particle from the equilibrium
(c) 1.5 N (d) 2 N position in terms of its amplitude a is
a a a 2a
(a) (b) (c) (d)
25. The composition of two simple harmonic motions of 4 3 2 3
equal periods at right angle to each other and with
a phase difference of p results in the displacement 33. The potential energy of a particle (Ux ) executing
of the particle along SHM is given by
(a) circle (b) figure of eight k
(a) U x = (x - a )2 (b) U x = k1x + k2x 2 + k3 x 3
(c) straight line (d) ellipse 2
(c) U x = Ae-bx (d) U x = constant
26. The bob of a simple pendulum of length L is
released at time t = 0 from a position of small 34. A particle of mass m is executing oscillations about
angular displacement. Its linear displacement at the origin on the X-axis with amplitude A. Its
time t is given by potential energy is given as U( x) = a x4 , where a is
L g positive constant. The x-coordinate of mass where
(a) x = a sin 2p ´t (b) x = a cos 2p ´t potential energy is one-third of the kinetic energy
g L
of particle, is
g g
(c) x = a sin ´t (d) x = a cos ´t (a) ±
A
(b) ±
A
(c) ±
A
(d) ±
A
L L 3 2 3 2
27. Displacement-time equation of a particle executing 35. A particle starts SHM from the mean position. Its
SHM is , x = 3 sin w t + 4 sin (wt + p/ 3 ). Here x is in amplitude is a and total energy E. At one instant,
centimetre and t in second. The amplitude of its kinetic energy is 3E/4. Its displacement at this
oscillation of the particle is approximately instant is
(a) 5 cm (b) 6 cm a
(a) y = a / 2 (b) y =
(c) 7 cm (d) 9 cm 2
a
28. Which one of the following equations does not (c) y = (d) y = a
3 /2
represent SHM, x = displacement and t = time?
(parameters a, b and c are the constants of motion) 36. A point particle of mass 0.1 kg is executing SHM of
(a) x = a sin bt (b) x = a cos bt + c amplitude 0.1 m. When the particle passes through
the mean position, its kinetic energy is 8 ´ 10 -3 J.
(c) x = a sin bt + c cos bt (d) x = a sec bt + c cosec bt
The equation of motion of this particle, if its initial
29. A particle is performing simple harmonic motion phase of oscillation is 45°, is
along X-axis with amplitude 4 cm and time period ær pö æt pö
(a) y = 0.1sin ç + ÷ (b) y = 0.1sin ç + ÷
1.2 s. The minimum time taken by the particle to è4 4 ø è2 4 ø
move from x = + 2 to x = 4 cm and back again is
æ pö æ pö
given by (c) y = 0.1sin ç4 t - ÷ (d) y = 0.1sin ç4t + ÷
è 4ø è 4ø
(a) 0.4 s (b) 0.3 s (c) 0.2 s (d) 0.6 s
37. If a simple pendulum of length l has maximum
Energy in Simple Harmonic Motion angular displacement q, then the maximum kinetic
30. The angular velocity and the amplitude of a simple energy of bob of mass m is
pendulum is w and a respectively. At a 1 ælö 1 mg
displacement x from the mean position, if its (a) ´ç ÷ (b) ´
2 è gø 2 l
kinetic energy is T and potential energy is V, then 1
the ratio of T to V is (c) mgl ´ (1 - cos q) (d) ´ mgl sin q
2
(a) (a 2 - x2w2) / x2w2 (b) x2w2/ (a 2 - x2w2)
38. For a particle executing SHM, the kinetic energy K
(c) (a 2 - x2) / x2 (d) x2/ (a 2 - x2)
is given by K = K 0 cos2 wt. The equation of its
31. A particle is vibrating in a simple harmonic motion displacement can be
1/ 2 1/ 2
with an amplitude of 4 cm. At what displacement æ K ö æ 2K 0 ö
(a) ç 02 ÷ sin wt (b) ç ÷ sin wt
from the equilibrium position is its energy half è mw ø è mw2 ø
potential and half kinetic? 1/ 2 1/ 2
(a) 1 cm (b) 2 cm æ 2w2 ö æ 2K 0 ö
(c) ç ÷ sin wt (d) ç ÷ sin wt
(c) 3 cm (d) 2 2 cm è mK 0 ø è mw ø
Oscillations 523
Springs and their Oscillations 44. Time period of mass m suspended by a spring is T.
If the spring is cut to one-half and made to oscillate
39. Two springs of force constants k and 2 k are by suspending double mass, the time period of the
connected to a mass as shown below. The frequency mass will be
of oscillation of the mass is (a) 8T (b) 4T
T
(c) (d) T
k 2k 2
m
45. What will be the force constant of the spring
system shown in figure?
1 1
(a) k/ m (b) 2k/ m
2p 2p
1 3k 1 m k1 k1
(c) (d)
2p m 2p k
49. A mass M is suspended from a light spring. An 56. A heavy sphere of mass m is suspended by string of
additional mass m is added and displaces the length l. The sphere is made to revolve about a
spring further by a distance X. Now the combined vertical line passing through the point of
mass will oscillate on the spring with period suspension in a horizontal circle such that the
mg (M + m)X string always remains inclined to the vertical at an
(a) T = 2p (b) T = 2p angle q . What is its period of revolution?
X (M + m) mg
l l cos q
mg (M + m) (a) T = 2p (b) T = 2p
(c) T = p / 2 (d) T = 2p g g
X (M + m) mg
l sin q l tan q
50. Two blocks with masses m1 = 1 kg and m2 = 2 kg are (c) T = 2p (d) T = 2p
g g
connected by a spring of spring constant
k = 24 Nm–1 and placed on a frictionless horizontal 57. A ring is hung on a nail. It can oscillate without
surface. The block m1 is imparted an initial velocity slipping or sliding
v0 = 12 cms–1 to the right, the amplitude of (i) in its plane with a time period T1 and
oscillation is
(ii) back and forth in a direction perpendicular to
(a) 1 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 3 cm (d) 4 cm
its plane, with a period T2 .
51. A mass 1 kg suspended from a spring whose force T
constant is 400 Nm–1, executes simple harmonic The ratio 1 will be [JEE Main 2020]
T2
oscillation. When the total energy of the oscillator
2 2 3 2
is 2 J, the maximum acceleration experienced by (a) (b) (c) (d)
the mass will be 3 3 2 3
(a) 2 ms–2 (b) 4 ms–2 58. The mass and the diameter of a planet are three
(c) 40 ms–2 (d) 400 ms–2 times the respective values for the earth. The
period of oscillation of a simple pendulum on the
Simple Pendulum and Other earth is 2 s. The period of oscillation of the same
Oscillating Systems pendulum on the planet would be [JEE Main 2019]
52. A simple pendulum of length l and mass (bob) m is 2 3 3
suspended vertically. The string makes an angle q (a) s (b) s (c) 2 3 s (d) s
3 2 2
with the vertical. The restoring force acting on the
pendulum is 59. A simple pendulum has a length l. The inertial and
(a) mg tan q (b) - mg sin q gravitational masses of the bob are m1 and m g
(c) mg sin q (d) - mg cos q respectively. Then the time period T is given by
53. A man measures the period of a simple pendulum mg l mil
(a) T = 2p (b) T = 2p
inside a stationary lift and finds it to be T second. mi g mg g
If the lift accelerates upwards with an acceleration
g/4, then the period of pendulum will be mi ´ mg ´ l l
2T T (c) T = 2p (d) T = 2p
(a) 2T 5 (b) T (c) (d) g mi ´ mg ´ g
5 4
60. Four pendulums A, B, C and D are suspended from
54. A simple pendulum of length l has been set up
the same elastic support as shown in figure. A and
inside a railway wagon sliding down a frictionless
C are of the same length, while B is smaller than A
inclined plane having an angle of inclination q = 30°
and D is larger than A. [NCERT Exemplar]
with the horizontal. What will be its period of
oscillation as recorded by an observer inside the
wagon?
2l
(a) 2p (b) 2p 2l / g
3g B
3l A
(c) 2p l / g (d) 2p C
2g D
55. If a simple pendulum is taken to a place where g (a) D will vibrate with maximum amplitude
decreases by 2%, then the time period (b) C will vibrate with maximum amplitude
(a) increases by 0.5% (b) increases by 1% (c) B will vibrate with maximum amplitude
(c) increases by 2.0% (d) decreases by 0.5% (d) All the four will oscillate with equal amplitude
Oscillations 525
61. If the length of second’s pendulum is increased by 67. A and B are fixed points and the mass M is tied by
2%. How many seconds it will lose per day? strings at A and B. If the mass M is displaced
(a) 3927 s (b) 3427 s slightly out of this plane and released, it will
execute oscillations with period
(c) 3737 s (d) 864 s
(Given, AM = BM = L, AB = 2 d)
62. A pendulum bob of mass m is hanging from a fixed A B
point by a light thread of length l. A horizontal
speed v0 is imparted to the bob, so that it takes up
horizontal position. If g is the acceleration due to
gravity, then v0 is
(a) mgl (b) 2 gl M
72. Which of the following figure represent(s) damped 73. A particle of mass m is released from rest and
simple harmonic motions? follows a parabolic path as shown. Assuming that
the displacement of the mass from the origin is
Displacement
O (x)
Time
x(t) x(t)
(2)
(a) (b)
t t
Displacement
O O
Time
x(t) x(t)
(3)
(c) (d)
Displacement
O t O t
Time
KE KE
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Time (s)
(c) (d)
O T/4 T/2 T O T/2 T T
t t
Oscillations 527
6. For a simple pendulum, a graph is plotted between 12. Two pendulums begin to swing simultaneously.
its Kinetic Energy (KE) and Potential Energy (PE) The first pendulum makes 9 full oscillations when
against its displacement d. Which one of the the other makes 7. The ratio of lengths of the two
following represents these correctly? (graphs are pendulums is
schematic and not drawn to scale) [JEE Main 2015] (a) 9/7 (b) 7/9 (c) 49/81 (d) 81/49
E E
PE 13. A ball of mass (m) 0.5 kg is
KE
(a) (b) attached to the end of a string
PE KE having length (L) 0.5m. The ball L
d d
is rotated on a horizontal circular
E path about vertical axis. The
KE E maximum tension that string can
PE
(c) (d) bear is 324 N.The maximum m
d KE possible value of angular velocity
of ball (in rad/s) is
PE
(a) 9 (b) 18 (c) 27 (d) 36
7. Two simple harmonic motions act on a particle. 14. A point mass is subjected to two simultaneous
These harmonic motions are sinusoidal displacement in X-direction
x = A sin( wt + a ); y = A cos( wt + a ), then path of æ 2p ö
particle is X1( t) = A sin wt and X2 ( t) = A sin ç wt + ÷ .
è 3 ø
(a) an ellipse and the actual motion is counter
Adding a third sinusoidal displacement
clockwise
X 3( t) = B sin( wt + f) brings the mass to a complete
(b) an ellipse and the actual motion is clockwise
rest. The values of B and f are
(c) a circle and the actual motion is counter clockwise
3p 4p 5p p
(d) a circle and the actual motion is clockwise (a) 2 A, (b) A, (c) 3 A, (d) A,
4 3 6 3
8. A uniform cylindrical metal rod A of
length L and radius R is suspended at its 15. Average value of kinetic energy and potential
mid-point from a rigid support through a energy over entire time period is
strong metal wire of length l. The rod is 1 1
A (a) 0, mw 2A 2 (b) mw 2A 2,0
given a small angular twist and released 2 2
so that it oscillates to and fro about its 1 1 1 1
(c) mw 2A 2, mw 2A 2 (d) mw 2A 2, mw 2A 2
mean position with a time period T1. The rotational 2 2 4 4
inertia of metal rod about the wire as an axis is
ML 2 MR 2 16. A particle in SHM is described by the displacement
(a) (b) function x( t) = A cos ( wt + q ). If the initial ( t = 0)
12 2
position of the particle is 1 cm and its initial
é L2 R 2ù é L2 R 2ù velocity is p cms–1, what is its amplitude? The
(c) M ê + (d) M ê +
ë 12 2 úû ë 12 4 úû angular frequency of the particle is p s–1.
(a) 1 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 2 cm (d) 2.5 cm
9. A particle is having kinetic energy 1/3 of the
maximum value at a distance of 4 cm from the 17. The period of particle in SHM is 8 s. At t = 0,
mean position. Find the amplitude of motion. particle is at the mean position. The ratio of the
(a) 2 6 cm (b) 2 / 6 cm distances travelled by it in Ist second and 2nd
second is
(c) 2 cm (d) 6 / 2 (a) 1.6 : 1 (b) 2.4 : 1 (c) 3.2 : 1 (d) 4.2 : 1
10. If a spring extends by x on loading, then the energy 18. A simple pendulum of length l has a bob of mass m,
stored in the spring is (if T is the tension and k is with a charge q on it. A vertical sheet of charge,
the force constant of the spring) with surface charge density s passes through the
T2 T2 2k 2T 2 point of suspension. At equilibrium, the spring
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2x 2k T2 k makes an angle q with the vertical. Its time period
of oscillations is T in this position. Then
11. The period of oscillation of a mass m suspended sq sq
from a spring is 2 s. If along with it another mass (a) tan q = (b) tan q =
2e 0mg e 0mg
2 kg is also suspended, the period of oscillation
increases by 1 s. The mass m will be 1 1
(c) T > 2p (d) T = 2p
(a) 2 kg (b) 1 kg (c) 1.6 kg (d) 2.6 kg g g
528 JEE Main Physics
19. The time period of a particle in simple harmonic 26. A pendulum is executing simple harmonic motion
motion is 8 s. At t = 0, it is at the mean position. and its maximum kinetic energy is K 1. If the length
The ratio of the distances travelled by it in the first of the pendulum is doubled and it performs simple
and second, seconds is harmonic motion with the same amplitude as in the
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : ( 2 - 1) (d) 1 : 3 first case, its maximum kinetic energy is K 2 . Then
[JEE Main 2019]
20. The bob of a simple pendulum is of mass 10 g. It is K
(a) K 2 = 2K 1 (b) K 2 = 1
suspended with a thread of 1 m. If we hold the bob 2
so as to stretch the string horizontally and release K1
it, what will be the tension at the lowest position? (c) K 2 = (d) K 2 = K 1
4
(Take, g = 10 ms–2)
(a) Zero (b) 0.1 N (c) 0.3 N (d) 1.0 N 27. A simple harmonic motion is represented by
y = 5 (sin 3 pt + 3 cos 3 pt) cm. The amplitude and
21. A block of mass M is suspended from a light spring time period of the motion are [JEE Main 2019]
of force constant k. Another mass m moving 3 2
upwards with velocity v hits the mass M and gets (a) 10 cm, s (b) 5 cm, s
2 3
embedded in it. What will be the amplitude of 3 2
oscillation of the combined mass? (c) 5 cm, s (d) 10 cm, s
2 3
mv mv
(a) (b)
k (M - m) (M - m)k 28. A highly rigid cubical block A of small mass M and
mv mv side L is fixed rigidly on the another cubical block
(c) (d) of same dimensions and low modulus of rigidity h
k (M + m) (M + m)k
such that the lower face of A completely covers the
22. Lissajous figure shown below corresponds to which upper face of B. The lower face of B is rigidly held
one of the following? on a horizontal surface. A small force F is applied
perpendicular to one of the side faces of Z. After the
force is withdrawn, block A executes small
oscillations, the time period of which is given by
(a) 2p MLh (b) 2p Mh /L
(c) 2p ML / h (d) 2p M / h L
(a) Phase difference p/2 and period 1 : 2
(b) Phase difference 3p/4 and period 1 : 2 29. Two pendulums of length 1 m and 16 m start
(c) Phase difference p/4 and period 2 : 1 vibrating one behind the other from the same
(d) Phase difference 2p/3 and period 2 : 1 stand. At some instant, the two are in the mean
position in the same phase. The time period of
23. The amplitude of a damped oscillator decreases to shorter pendulum is T. The minimum time after
0.9 times its original magnitude in 5s. In another
which the two threads of the pendulum will be one
10s, it will decrease to a times its original
behind the other is
magnitude, where a equals [JEE Main 2013]
(a) T /4 (b) T/3 (c) 4 T/3 (d) 4 T
(a) 0.7 (b) 0.81 (c) 0.729 (d) 0.6
30. A particle is in linear simple harmonic motion
24. A silver atom in a solid oscillates in simple between two points A and B, 10 cm apart (Fig).
harmonic motion in some direction with a Take the direction from A to B as the +ve direction
frequency of 1012 per second. What is the force and choose the correct statements. [NCERT Exemplar]
constant of the bonds connecting one atom with the
other? (Take, molecular weight of silver = 108 and B O C A
Avogadro number = 602 . ´ 1023 g mol -1) AO = OB = 5 cm , BC = 8 cm
(a) 6.4 N/m (b) 7.1 N/m [JEE Main 2018] (a) The sign of velocity, acceleration and force on the
(c) 2.2 N/m (d) 5.5 N/m particle when it is 3 cm away from A going towards
B are positive
25. A particle moves with simple harmonic motion in a
straight line. In first t sec, after starting from rest, (b) The sign of velocity of the particle at C going
towards O is negative
it travels a distance a and in next t sec, it travels 2a
in same direction, then [JEE Main 2014]
(c) The sign of velocity, acceleration and force on the
particle when it is 5 cm away from B going towards
(a) amplitude of motion is 3a
A are positive
(b) time period of oscillations is 5 t
(c) amplitude of motion is 4a (d) The sign of acceleration and force on the particle
(d) time period of oscillations is 6 t when it is at point B is positive
Oscillations 529
31. A particle performs harmonic oscillation along the 34. A body of mass 4.9 kg hangs from a spring and
X-axis about the equilibrium position x = 0. The oscillates with a period 0.5 s on the removal of the
oscillation frequency is w = 4.00 s–1. At a body, the spring is shortened by
certain moment of time the particle has a (Take g =10 ms -2 , p2 = 10)
coordinate x0 = 25.0 cm and its velocity is equal to (a) 6.3 m (b) 0.63 m
n x = 100 cms–1. Find the equation of motion of the (c) 6.25 cm (d) 63.5 cm
0
particle.
æ pö æ pö 35. A simple pendulum of length l and having a bob of
(a) y = 13 3 sin ç4t + ÷ (b) y = 25 2 sin ç4t + ÷ mass M is suspended in a car. The car is moving on
è 4ø è 4ø
a circular track of radius R with a uniform speed v.
æ pö æ pö
(c) y = 27 2 sin ç4t + ÷ (d) y = 27 5 sin ç t + ÷ If the pendulum makes small oscillations in a
è 4ø è 2ø
radial direction about its equilibrium position,
32. A metal rod of length L and mass m is pivoted at what will be its time period?
one end. A thin disc of mass M and radius R ( < L) is 3l æ v4 ö
attached at its centre to the free end of the rod. (a) 2p (b) 2p l ç g 2 + 2÷
v2 è R ø
Consider two ways, the disc is attached (case A), g+
R
the disc is not free to rotate about its centre and
(case B) the disc is free to rotate about its centre. 2l 2l
(c) 2p (d) 2p
The rod-disc system perform SHM in vertical plane æ 2 v2 ö ( g 2 + v 2 /R)
after being released from the same displaced ç g + 2÷
è R ø
position in each case. Which of the following
statements is (are) true? 36. When a body of mass 1.0 kg is suspended from a
certain light spring hanging vertically, its length
increases by 5 cm. By suspending 2.0 kg block to
the spring and if the block is pulled through 10 cm
and released, the maximum velocity of it, (in ms–1)
is (Take, g = 10 ms–2)
(a) 0.5 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 4
(a) Restoring torque in case A = Restoring torque in 37. A simple pendulum of length 1 m is oscillating with
case B. an angular frequency 10 rad/s. The support of the
(b) Restoring torque in case A < Restoring torque in pendulum starts oscillating up and down with a
case B . small angular frequency of 1 rad/s and an
(c) Angular frequency for case A > Angular frequency amplitude of 10- 2 m. The relative change in the
for case B. angular frequency of the pendulum is best given by
(d) None of the above
[JEE Main 2019]
33. A mass m is suspended separately by two different (a) 1 rad/s (b) 10- 5 rad /s
springs in successive order, then time periods is t1 (c) 10- 3 rad /s (d) 10- 1 rad /s
and t2 respectively. If m is connected by both
springs as shown in figure, then time period is t0 , 38. A particle performs simple harmonic motion with
the correct relation is amplitude A . Its speed is trebled at the instant
2
when it is at a distance A from equilibrium
3
position. The new amplitude of the motion is
[JEE Main 2016]
k1 k2 A 7
(a) 41 (b) 3 A (c) A 3 (d) A
3 3
39. An ideal gas enclosed in a vertical cylindrical
m
container supports a freely moving piston of mass
(a) t 02 = t12 + t22 M. The piston and the cylinder have equal
cross-sectional area A. When the piston is in
(b) t 0-2 = t1-2 + t2-2
equilibrium, the volume of the gas is V0 and its
(c) t 0-1 = t1-1 + t2-1 pressure is p0 . The piston is slightly displaced from
(d) t0 = t1 + t2 the equilibrium position and released. Assuming
530 JEE Main Physics
that the system is completely isolated from its 44. A spring balance has a scale that reads from 0 to
surrounding, the piston executes a simple harmonic 50 kg. The length of the scale is 20 cm. A body
motion with frequency [JEE Main 2013] suspended from this balance, when displaced and
1 A g p0 released, oscillates with a period of 0.6 s. What is
(a)
2p V 0M the weight of the body? [NCERT]
1 V 0Mp0 (a) 222.13 N (b) 200.13 N
(b)
2p A 2g (c) 193.13 N (d) 219.13 N
Displacement
2p A g p0
n
Numerical Value Questions frequency of vertical oscillations will be Hz. Find
p
48. Two point masses of 3.0 kg and 1.0 kg are the value of n.
attached to opposite ends of a horizontal spring
whose spring constant is 300 Nm -1 as shown in
adjacent figure. The natural frequency (in Hz) of
vibration of the system is ……… .
P
k = 300 Nm–1
3 kg 1 kg
k
49. A particle performs simple harmonic motion with m
a period of 2 s. The time taken by the particle to
cover a displacement equal to half of its
amplitude from the mean position is (1/ a) s . The
value of a to the nearest integer is ……… . 53. Consider two identical springs each of spring
[JEE Main 2021]
constant k and negligible mass compared to the mass
50. Two springs of force constants 20 N/m and 10 M as shown in figure. Fig. 1 shows one of them and
N/m, have equal highest velocities when Fig. 2 shows their series combination. The ratios of
executing SHM, then the ratio of their amplitudes T
time period of oscillation of the two SHM is b = x ,
1 Ta
(given their masses are equal) will be . Find
x where value of x is ……… . (Rounded off to the
the value of x. nearest integer) [JEE Main 2021]
51. A particle of mass 4 cm is executing oscillations
about the origin on the X-axis. Its potential
energy is U( x) = k|x|3 , where k is a positive Ta Tb
constant. If the amplitude of oscillation is 4 cm,
then its time period T will be proportional to M
……… . M
Fig. 1 Fig. 2
52. As shown in figure, system consisting of massless
pulley, a light spring of force constant k = 16 N/m 54. A particle is executing SHM of amplitude 25 cm and
and a block of mass 0.01 kg. If the block is time period 3 s. The minimum time (in s) required for
slightly displaced vertically downwards from its the particle to move between two points 12.5 cm on
equilibrium position and released, then the either side of the mean position will be ……… s.
Answers
Round I
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (b)
61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (b) 65. (a) 66. (d) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (b) 70. (b)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (d)
Round II
1 (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (*)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. 3 49. 6 50. 2
51. 0.5 52. 20 53. 2 54. 0.5
Solutions
Round I 1
4. Given, y = sin3 wt = (3 sin wt - sin 3 wt )
1. Given, displacement is 4
As A µ y and - ve sign shows that it is directed 9. Weight kept on the system will separate from the
towards equilibrium (or mean position), hence particle piston, when the maximum force just exceeds the
will execute SHM. Comparing Eq. (i) with equation weight of the body. Hence,
y = r cos (f - w¢ t ) mw2y = mg
or y = g /w2 = 9.8 /(2p )2 = 0.25 m
we have, w¢ = 2 w
2p
10. Given, T = 30 s, OQ = B. The projection of the radius
or =2 w vector on the diameter of the circle when a particle is
T¢
moving with uniform angular velocity (w) on a circle of
p reference is SHM. Let the particle move from P to Q in
or T¢=
w time t, then ÐPOQ = wt = ÐOQP.
Oscillations 533
P (t = 0) or 10n = (n - 1)11
Q or n = 11
2pt y 2 or y2 = a 2 / 4
or cos = =
1.2 a 4 or y = a /2
2 pt 1 p 1
cos = = cos 36. Kinetic energy at mean position = mw2a 2 = 8 ´ 10-3
1.2 2 3 2
2 pt p 1/ 2 1/ 2
Þ = æ 2 ´ 8 ´ 10-3 ö é 2 ´ 8 ´ 10-3 ù
1.2 3 or w=ç ÷ =ê 2ú
= 4 rad/s
è ma 2 ø ë 0.1 ´ (0.1) û
2t 1
or =
1.2 3 Equation of SHM is,
1.2 æ pö
or t= = 0.2 s y = a sin(wt + q ) = 0.1sin ç4 t + ÷
6 è 4ø
Time taken to move from x = +2 cm to x = +4 cm and 37. From the figure, OC = l cos q
back again = 2t = 2 ´ 0.2 s = 0.4 s. O
1
30. Potential energy, V = mw2x2 θ
2
1 T
and kinetic energy E, T = mw2(a 2 - x2) l
2
T a 2 - x2 C B
\ =
V x2
31. Let x be point, where KE = PE A mg mg cos θ
1 1 mg sin θ
Hence, mw2(a 2 - x2) = mw2x2
2 2
\ AC = OA - OC
Þ 2 x2 = a 2
= l - l cos q
a y
Þ x= = = 2 2 cm = l (1 - cos q)
2 2
Maximum KE of bob at O or A = Maximum PE of bob
1
mw2y2 at B
U 2 1
32. As, = =
U max 1 mw2a 2 4 = ma ´ AC = mgl (1 - cos q)
2
38. If m is the mass and r is the amplitude of oscillation,
y2 1 a
= Þy= then maximum kinetic energy,
a2 4 2 1
K 0 = mw2r 2
33. Potential energy of body in SHM at an instant, 2
1 2 1/ 2
Ux = ky æ2 K0 ö
2 or r=ç ÷
è mw2 ø
If the displacement, y = (a - x), then
1 1 The displacement equation can be
U x = k (a - x)2 = k (x - a )2 1/ 2
2 2 æ 2K 0 ö
y = r sin wt = ç ÷ sin w t
è mw ø
34. Total energy of oscillation, E = aA 4
(at maximum displacement) 1 keffective 1 k+2k 1 3k
39. As, n = = =
Kinetic energy of mass at x = x is 2p m 2p m 2p m
K = E - U = a ( A 4 - x4 ) (for parallel combination of spring, keq = k1 + k2)
As K = 3U
a ( A 4 - x4 ) = 3 ax4 40. Let k be the force constant of spring of length l2. Since,
A l1 = nl2, where n is an integer, so the spring is made of
or x=±
2 (n + 1 ) equal parts in length, each of length l2.
1 1 (n + 1 )
35. Total energy, E = mw2a 2 …(i) \ =
2 k k
3E 1 or k = (n + 1 )k
KE = = mw2(a 2 - y2) …(ii)
4 2
The spring of length l1 = n l2 will be equivalent to n
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
spring connected in series where spring constant
3 a 2 - y2 k (n + 1) k
= k¢ = =
4 a2 n n
536 JEE Main Physics
Time spent by ball outside the tunnel on both the sides 70. When the cylinder is given a small downward
will be = 4 2h/g . displacement, say y, the additional restoring force is
Therefore, total time period of oscillation of ball is due to (i) additional extension y, which is, F1 = ky
R 2h (ii) additional buoyancy which is F2 = AYd g .
= 2p +4
g g Total restoring force,
- F = F1 + F2 = (k + Adg )Y
65. Let T1 and T2 be the time period of shorter length and
= new force constant
longer length pendulums respectively. As per
1 k¢
question, nT1 = (n - 1 )T2 \ n=
2p M
0.5 20
So n 2p = (n - 1) 2p 1 k + Adg
g g =
2p M
or n = (n - 1) 40 » (n - 1)6
Hence, 5n =6 71. Amplitude resonance takes place at a frequency of
external force which is less than the frequency of
Hence, after 5 oscillations they will be in same phase.
undamped maximum vibration, i.e. w1 ¹ w0.
66. In damped oscillation, amplitude goes on decaying Velocity-resonance takes place ( i. e. maximum energy),
exponentially, when frequency of external periodic force is equal to
a = a 0 e-bt natural frequency of undamped vibrations, i.e. w2 = w0.
where, b = damping coefficient initially 72. Fig. (1) alone represents damped SHM as
a0 displacement is decreasing regularly with time.
= a 0e-b´ 100T ,
3
73. Motion given here is SHM starting from rest.
T = time of one oscillation Therefore, the graph shown in option (a) is correct.
1
or = e-100bT …(i) 74. For damped motion, a = a 0e-bt
3
Finally, a = a 0e-b´ 200T For first case,
a0 1
or a = a 0 (e-100bt )2 = a 0e-b´ 2 or = e-2b
2 3 3
æ1ö a
or a = a0 ´ ç ÷ [ \from Eq. (i) ] For second case, 0 = a 0e- (b´ 6)
è3ø n
3
a0 1 æ1ö
a= or = e = (e-2b )3 = ç ÷ Þ n = 33
-6b
9 n è3ø
67. The motion of M is SHM, with length, l = L2 - d 2
Round II
d
A C B 1. A ball bearing when released a little above the lower
2d limit inside a smooth curved bowl, will execute SHM
with a definite period.
L L m
l
2. As, T = 2p
k
m T 5
M and T ' = 2p = = s = 2.5 s
4k 2 2
l (L2 - d 2)1/ 2
\Time period, T = 2p = 2p 3. Phase is the state of a particle as regards with its
g g position and direction of motion w.r.t. mean position.
68. Let the distance x of vertical side c of block be pushed In the given curve phase is same when t = 1 s and
in liquid, when block is floating, the buoyancy force t = 5 s. Also, phase is same when t = 2 s and t = 6 s.
= abxdw g = abxg (Q dw = 1 ) 1
4. Given, mw2r 2 = 80 J;
The mass of piece of wood = abcd 2
æ gö 2
So, acceleration = - abxg / abcd = - ç ÷ x 1 1 æ3 ö
è cd ø \ PE = mw2y2 = mw2 ´ ç r ÷
2 2 è4 ø
dc
Hence, time period, T = 2p 9 æ1 2 2ö 9
g = ç mw r ÷ = ´ 80 = 45 J
16 è 2 ø 16
69. We have, T ¢ = 2p l/( g / 6) = 6T
5. KE is maximum at mean position and minimum at
Hence, the clock will tick in one minute, æ Tö
extreme position çat t = ÷ , so correct graph is (c).
n = 60 / 6 = 24.5 times è 4ø
540 JEE Main Physics
6. During oscillation, (motion of a simple pendulum) KE 13. From the figure, T sin q = mL sin qw2
is maximum at mean position where PE is minimum. 324 = 0.5 ´ 0.5 ´ w2
At extreme position, KE is minimum and PE is 324
maximum. Thus, correct graph is depicted in w2 =
0.5 ´ 0.5
option (b).
324 18
7. Given, x = A sin (wt + a) …(i) Þ w= = = 36 rad/s
0.5 ´ 0.5 0.5
and y = A cos(wt + a ) ...(ii) 14. x2(t)
Squaring and adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
x2 + y2 = A 2[sin 2(wt + a ) + cos 2(wt + a )] = A 2
120°
It is an equation of a circle. The given motion is 240°
x1(t)
counter-clockwise.
8. The moment of inertia of a cylindrical rod about axis of
wire(i. e. an axis passing through the centre of rod and
x3(t)
perpendicular to its length) is
æ L2 R2 ö It is clear from figure that, magnitude of x3 (t ), must be
I=Mç + ÷ the resultant of x1 (t ) andx2(t ), to bring the mass at rest.
è 12 4 ø 4p
So, B = A and f = 240° = .
1 1 1 3
9. As, mw2(r 2 - y2) = ´ mw2r 2
2 3 2 1
15. Maximum KE = mw2A 2; minimum KE = 0
1 2 2
or r 2 - y2 = r 1
3 0 + mw2A 2
2 1
Average KE = = mw2A 2
or 3r 2 - 3 y2 = r 2 2 4
or 2r 2 - 3 y2 = 0 æ 1 2 2ö
ç 0 + mw A ÷ 1
Similarly, average PE = ç 2 2 2
3 3 ÷ = mw A
or r= ´y= ´ 4 = 2 6 cm ç 2 ÷ 4
2 2 è ø
10. In equilibrium, T = mg 16. Given, x (t ) = A cos (wt + q)
1 2
Work done = mg = mgx = kx dx
2 Velocity, v= = - Aw sin(wt + q)
2mg 2T dt
or x= = …(i)
k k = - Aw 1 - cos 2(wt + q)
Energy stored = mgx = T x Þ v = - A w 1 - x2/A 2 = - w A 2 - x2
2T 2T 2
=T ´ = [from Eq. (i)] Here, v = p cms -1 , x = 1 cm, w = p s -1
k k
So, p = -p A 2 - 12
m
11. Here, 2 = 2p
k or (-1)2 = A 2 - 1
m+2 or A2 = 2
and 3 = 2p or A = 2 cm
k
3 m+2 17. As, x1 = a sin(w ´ 1) = a sin w
So, =
2 m and x2 = a sin(w ´ 2) - a sin w
or 9m = 4m + 8 x2 sin(2 w) - sin w
Now =
or m = 1.6 kg x1 sin w
12. Since the time period of simple pendulum is = sin 2 ´ (2p / 8) - sin 2p / 8 (from question)
L 1 - (1 / 2 ) 2 -1
T = 2p = =
g (1 / 2 ) 1
x1 1 2 +1
t0 l1 t l2 or = =
= 2p and 0 = 2p x2 2 - 1 ( 2 - 1 )( 2 + 1 )
9 g 7 g
2 +1
2 =
l1 æ 7 ö æ 49 ö 2 -1
\ =ç ÷ =ç ÷
l2 è 9 ø è 81 ø = 2.414 = 2.4
Oscillations 541
1/ 2
18. Electric intensity at B due to sheet of charge, æ M + mö mv
or A¢ = ç ÷ ´
1 sq è k ø (M + m)
E=
2 e0 mv
=
O (M + m)k
b (5 )
when t = 2 s, y2 = r sin w ´ 2 = r sin 2w -
y1 r sin w After 5 s, 0.9 A0 = A0 e 2m
\ = b(5 )
y2 r sin 2w -
Þ 0.9 = e 2m …(i)
1 1
= = (15 )
2 cos w 2 cos 2p / T -b
After, 10 s, A = A0 e 2m
1
= -
5b
2 cos 2p / 8 2m)3
Þ A = A0 (e …(ii)
1 1 1
= = = From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
2 cos p / 4 2(1 / 2 ) 2
A = 0.729 A0
\ y2 = 2 y1
Hence, a = 0.729
Distance covered in 2nd second = y2 - y1 = ( 2 - 1 )y1
24. For a harmonic oscillator,
\ Ratio = 1 : ( 2 - 1 )
m
20. When the bob falls through a vertical height h, the T = 2p
k
velocity acquired at the lowest point, 1
-1 where, k = force constant and T = .
v = 2 gh = 2 ´ 10 ´ 1 = 20 ms f
mv2 0.01 ´ 20 \ k = 4p 2f 2m
Centrifugal force = = = 0.20 N
108 ´ 10-3
2
r 1 æ 22 ö
= 4 ´ ç ÷ ´ (1012)2 ´
Net tension = Weight + Centrifugal force è 7ø 6.02 ´ 1023
= (0.01 ´ 10 + 0.20) = 0.30 N Þ k = 7.1 N/m
21. v and v¢ are the velocities of the block of mass M and 25. In SHM, a particle starts from rest, we have
(M + m) respectively while passing from the mean
x = A cos wt, at t = 0, x = A
position when executing SHM.
When t = t, then x = A - a
Using law of conservation of linear momentum, we
have When t = 2t, then x = A - 3a
So, A - a = A cos w t
mv = (M + m) v¢
A - 3a = A cos 2w t
or v¢ = mv / (M + m)
As, cos 2wt = 2 cos 2 w t - 1
Also, maximum PE = maximum KE 2
1 1 A - 3a æ A - aö
\ k A ¢2 = (M + m) v¢2 Þ =2 ç ÷ -1
2 2 A è A ø
542 JEE Main Physics
Putting value of Dg in Eq. (iii) we get 40. For damped motion, A = A0e-rt
Dw 1 2 w12A w12A
(A = 10-2m )
bt
= × = ; -
w 2 g g 12 = 6e 2m
Dw 1 ´ 10-2 b
Þ = = 10-3 rad/s or ln 2 = ´ 120
w 10 2m
38. The velocity of a particle executing SHM at any 0.693 ´ 2 ´ 1
b=
instant, is defined as the time rate of change of its 120
displacement at that instant. = 1.16 ´ 10-2 kg s -1
v = w A 2 - x2 41. When a mass m is placed on mass M , the new system
is of mass = (M + m), attached to the spring. New time
where, w is angular frequency, A is amplitude and x is
period of oscillation,
displacement of a particle.
M +m
Suppose that the new amplitude of the motion T ¢ = 2p
be A¢. k
Initial velocity of a particle performing SHM, M
T = 2p
é k
æ 2A ö ù
2
v2 = w2 ê A 2 - ç ÷ ú ... (i) Let v = velocity of mass M while passing through the
ë è 3 ø û
mean position.
where, A is initial amplitude and w is angular
v¢ = velocity of mass (M + m), while passing through
frequency.
the mean position.
Final velocity,
é According to law of conservation of linear momentum,
æ2Aö ù
2
(3v)2 = w2 ê A ¢2 - ç ÷ ú ...(ii) Mv = (M + m)v'
ë è 3 ø û
At mean position, v = A w = and v¢ = A ¢w¢
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
\ MA w = (M + m) A ' w'
4 A2
A2 - æ M ö w
1
= 9 Þ A¢ =
7A or A¢ = ç ÷ A
2 è M + m ø w'
9 4A 3
A¢ 2 - M T¢
9 = ´ ´A
M +m T
39. Pressure applied by piston,
æ M ö M +m
Mg =ç ÷´ ´A
= p0 è M + mø M
A
æ M ö
=A ç ÷
x è M + mø
Restoring force, 2p p T
If t = , then, t =
F = - Weight of mercury column in excess of one arm T 2 4
= - (Volume ´ density ´ g) 2p 3p 3T
If t= , then t = (given)
= - ( A ´ 2h ´ r ´ g ) T 2 4
3T
= - 2 Argh = - k ´ Displacement in one arm (h ) So for t = , force is zero.
4
Clearly, 2 Arg = constant = k (say)
Acceleration is maximum, if cos wt = 1 or 2 p
As, F = - kx Þ F µ - h 2p 4T
Hence, motion is SHM. or t = 2p or t = T = s (given)
T 4
m m Velocity is maximum, if sin (wt + p ) = 1 or wt + p = p /2
\Time period, T = 2p = 2p
k 2 Arg p
or wt = - p = - p / 2
where, m = mass of the mercury column of length l. 2
2p p T
If r Hg is density of mercury, then or t = - or t = - s
T 2 4
m = Alr 1 2 2 1
Alr l PE = m w y = mw2a 2 cos 2 wt
\ T = 2p = 2p 2 2
2 Arg 2g 1
KE = m w a sin 2 wt
2 2
æ kl2 ö F = - [k ( y + y0 ) - mg ]
For small deflection, t = ç ÷q …(iv)
è 2 ø = [k ( y + y0 ) - ky0 ] = - ky
x F k
Q For small deflections, sin q = »q \ Acceleration, a = = y
(l / 2) m m
lq As acceleration is proportional to the displacement y
Þ x=
2 and opposite to y, the motion will be SHM. Frequency
Also, cos q » 1 of oscillations will be
Comparing Eqs. (iv) and (i), we get 1 k
n=
kl2 (kl2 / 2) 6k 2p m
C= Þ a= ×qÞ a = ×q
2 æ 1 2ö m 1 16
ç ml ÷ =
è 12 ø
2p 0.01
m 20
Hence, time period of oscillation is T = 2p = Hz
6k p
Frequency of oscillation is given by \ n = 20
1 1 6k
f = = M
T 2p m 53. Ta = 2p
k
mm 3 ´1
48. Here reduced mass of the system, m = 1 2 = k
m1 + m2 3 + 1 In series combination, k¢ =
2
= 0.75kg
M
\Vibrational frequency, Tb = 2p
k¢
1 k 1 300 20 10
n= = = = @ 3 Hz M 2M
2p m 2p 0.75 2p p = 2p = 2p
T 2 1 k/2 k
49. For half displacement, t = = = s Tb
12 12 6 = 2
\ a =6 Ta
50. At highest velocities, A1w1 = A2w2 \ x=2
Sol. (b) Here, speed of sound in air, v = 343 ms–1; Substituting the values, we have
Length of the wire, l = 12.0 m; 100
v=
Total mass of the wire, M = 2.10 kg æpö
( 4.2 ´ 10 ) ç ÷ ( 4.0 ´ 10 –3) 2
3
Therefore, mass per unit length of the wire, è 4ø
M 2.10 = 43.53 ms–1
m= =
l 12.0
w = 2 pf = 20 p rad/s
= 0.175 kgm–1
= 62.83 rad /s
T w
Now, v= k = = 1.44 m–1
m v
or T = v 2m = (343) 2 ´ 0.175 \ Equation of the waves along the string,
= 20588.6 N y ( x, t ) = A sin (kx - wt )
= 2.06 ´ 10 4 N = (10 -4 m) sin [(1.44 m–1) x - (62.83 rad s–1) t ]
Energy per unit volume of the string,
Example 4. Equation of travelling wave on a stretched 1
string of linear mass density 5 g/m is y = 0.03 sin( 450t - 9 x), u = energy density = rw2A2
2
where distance and time are measured in SI units. The tension
Substituting the values, we have
in the string is [JEE Main 2019]
æ 1ö
(a) 5 N (b) 12.5 N u = ç ÷ ( 4.2 ´ 10 3) (62.83) 2 (10 -4) 2
è2ø
(c) 7.5 N (d) 10 N
= 8.29 ´ 10 –2 Jm–3
Sol. (b) Given equation can be rewritten as Average energy flow per unit time,
æ 9x ö æ1 ö
y = 0.03 sin 450 çt - ÷ …(i) = ç rw2A2÷ ( Sv) = (u) ( Sv)
è 450 ø è2 ø
We know that, the general equation of a travelling wave is given Substituting the values, we have
as æpö
P = (8.29 ´ 10 –2) ç ÷ ( 4.0 ´ 10 –3) 2 ( 43.53)
y = A sin w (t - x / v) …(ii) è 4ø
–5 –1
Comparing Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get = 4.53 ´ 10 Js
450
Velocity, v = = 50 m/s
9
and angular velocity, w = 450 rad /s
Sound Waves
These waves are longitudinal in nature. They are
As, the velocity of wave on stretched string with tension (T) is
classified into three groups according to their range of
given as v = T /m frequencies, namely, infrasonic waves (below 20Hz),
where, m is linear density. audible waves (20Hz-20 kHz) and ultrasonic waves
\ T = mv 2 (above 20 kHz).
= 5 ´ 10 - 3 ´ 50 ´ 50 Speed of Sound Wave
=12.5 N (Q given, m = 5 g / m = 5 ´ 10 - 3kg / m) The speed of longitudinal wave (sound wave) in a
medium depends on the elastic and inertial properties of
Example 5. A stretched string is forced to transmit medium.
● Speed of sound wave in a medium is given as
transverse waves by means of an oscillator coupled to one
end. The string has a diameter of 4 mm. The amplitude of the B
v=
oscillation is 10 -4 m and the frequency is 10 Hz. Tension in r
the string is 100 N and mass density of wire is where, B is bulk modulus and r is the density of the
42. ´ 103 kgm -3. Then, medium.
(a) the equation of the waves along the string is ● Speed of longitudinal wave (sound wave) in a solid bar,
(10 -4 ) m sin [(1.44 m -1) ´ - (62.83 rads -1)] t Y
v=
(b) the energy per unit volume of the wave 8.29 ´ 10 -2 Jm -3 . r
(c) the average energy flow per unit time across any section where, Y is the Young’s modulus of the medium.
of the string 4.53 ´ 10 -5 Js -1. ● Speed of sound wave through a solid of bulk modulus B
(d) All of the above and modulus of rigidity h is given as
T B + ( 4 / 3)h
Sol. (d) Speed of transverse wave on the string, v = v=
rS r
Waves 551
I = I min = ( I1 - I 2 )2
In interference, Reflected wave
2
I max ( A1 + A2 )2 ( I1 + I 2 )
= = Reflection from free end
I min ( A1 - A2 )2 ( I1 - I 2 )2
(ii) In case of pressure wave, there is no phase change
Example 11. Two coherent sound sources are at when the wave is reflected from a denser medium
or fixed end.
distances x1 = 0.20 m and x 2 = 0.48 m from a point. The
intensity of the resultant wave at that point, if the Wave Transmission
Reflection
property (Refraction)
frequency of each wave is f = 400 Hz and velocity of wave
in the medium is v = 448 ms -1 is (Take, the intensity of v does not change changes
each wave is I 0 = 60 Wm -2 ) f, T, w do not change do not change
l, k do not change change
(a) 120 Wm–2 (b) 125 Wm–2
A, I change change
(c) 130 Wm–2 (d) 135 Wm–2
f Df = 0, from a rarer medium Df = 0
Sol. (a) Path difference, Dx = x2 - x1 = 0.48 – 0.20= 0.28 m Df = p ,from a denser medium
Phase difference, f =
2p
Dx = æ 2 pf ö Dx
ç ÷
l è v ø Note (i) The concept of rarer or denser medium for a wave is through
2 p ( 400) (0.28) p speed (and not density of medium). For example, water is rarer
= = for sound and denser for light than air, as for sound vw > v a ,
448 2 while for light vw < v a .
I = I1 + I2 + 2 I1I2 cos f
(ii) Multiple reflection of sound is called an echo. If the distance of
or I = I0 + I0 + 2 I0 cos ( p /2) reflector from the source is, d and t is the time of echo, then
= 2 I0 = 2 (60) = 120 Wm–2 d = .
vt
2
554 JEE Main Physics
Various modes of vibrations of a stretched string are ● Law of tension For a uniform wire of given length
shown below and material, the frequency of the wire varies directly
N A N as the square root of tension, i.e.
First harmonic
or fµ T
λ/2 = L Fundamental tone
(a) n = 1 f1 æT ö
or = ç 1÷
N N
f2 è T2 ø
A A
Second harmonic
or
where, L and m are constants.
2λ/2 = L First overtone ● Law of mass When L and T are constants, the
(b) n = 2 frequency of vibration of the wire varies inversely as the
N N square root of mass per unit length of the wire, i.e.
A A A Third harmonic
1
or f µ
3λ/2 = L Second overtone m
(c) n = 3 where, L and T are constants.
N N 1 1
A A A A Fourth harmonic So, fµ µ
or L m
4λ/2 = L Third overtone Hence, a graph between L and m is a straight line.
(d) n = 4
Example 12. A string 2.0 m long and fixed at its ends is
Possible wavelength of stationary wave are driven by a 240 Hz vibrator. The string vibrates in its third
2L harmonic mode. The speed of the wave and its fundamental
l= ; n = 1, 2, 3, ¼
n frequency is [JEE Main 2019]
\Natural frequencies of oscillations are (a) 180 m/s, 80 Hz
æ v ö n T (b) 320 m/s, 80 Hz
f = nç ÷=
è 2L ø 2L m (c) 320 m/s, 120 Hz
(d) 180 m/s, 120 Hz
So, fundamental frequency or first harmonic is
v Sol. (b) Frequency of vibration of a string in nth harmonic is
f1 =
2L given by
v
2v fn = n × … (i)
Similarly, f2 = = 2 f1 2L
2L
where, v = speed of sound and L = length of string.
(first overtone or second hermonic)
Here, f3 = 240 Hz, L = 2 m and n = 3
3v
f3 = = 3 f1 Substituting these values in Eq. (i), we get
2L v
240 = 3 ´
(second overtone or third harmonic) 2 ´2
(ii) When one end of the string is fixed and other 4 ´ 240
Þ v= = 320 ms- 1
end is free to move 3
Also, fundamental frequency,
Fundamental frequency of vibration or first harmonic is
v f f
f0 or n 0 = f= n = 3
4l n 3
240
3v = = 80 Hz
Frequency of third harmonic, n1 = = 3n 0 3
4l
5v Example 13. A wire of length 2L, is made by joining two
Frequency of fifth harmonic, n 2 = = 5n 0 wires A and B of same length but different radii r and 2r and
4l
made of the same material. It is vibrating at a frequency such
n 0 : n1 : n 2....... = 1 : 3 : 5 : ..... that the joint of the two wires forms a node. If the number of
Laws of Vibration of Stretched String antinodes in wire A is p and that in B is q, then the ratio p : q is
[JEE Main 2019]
● Law of length For a given wire under a given tension,
A B
the frequency of wire varies inversely as its vibrating
1
length, i.e. fµ L L
L
or f1L1 = f2L2 (a) 3 : 5 (b) 4 : 9
where, T and m are constants. (c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 4
556 JEE Main Physics
Example 18. Two tuning forks A and B sounded together Special Cases of Doppler’s
give 8 beat s-1. With an air resonance tube closed at one end,
the two forks give resonance when the two air columns are Effect in Sound
32 cm and 33 cm, respectively. The frequencies of forks are 1. Doppler’s effect in reflected sound
(a) 260 Hz, 250 Hz (b) 264 Hz, 256 Hz For a source of sound moving with velocity vs towards a
(c) 274 Hz, 256 Hz (d) 2709 Hz, 250 Hz wall which is itself moving in same direction and an
observer too moving in the same direction as shown in
Sol. (b) Let the frequency of the first fork be f1 and that of second
figure.
be f2. Then, we have
vwall
v v
f1 = and f2 = vo
4 ´ 32 4 ´ 33 vs v
We also see that f1 > f2
v v
\ f1 - f2 = 8 …(i)
f1 33 Source
and = …(ii) Observer Wall
f2 32
Solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
A descriptive explanation of this case of Doppler’s effect
f1 = 264 Hz can be understood by example given just below.
and f2 = 256 Hz
Example 19. Submarine A travelling at 18 km/h is being
Doppler’s Effect chased along the line of its velocity by another submarine B
travelling at 27 km/h. B sends a sonar signal of 500 Hz to
If a source of wave and the observer/receiver are in
detect A and receives a reflected sound of frequency n. The
relative motion to each other, then the frequency
value of n is close to (Speed of sound in water = 1500 ms -1)
observed ( fa ) by the observer is different from the actual
source frequency ( fo ). This phenomenon is called [JEE Main 2019]
Doppler’s effect. (a) 504 Hz (b) 507 Hz
(c) 499 Hz (d) 502 Hz
For different situations of the source and the observer the
apparent frequencies observed due to Doppler’s effect are Sol. (d) Given, velocity of submarine (A),
tabulated as follows 18000
v A = 18 km/h = m/s
3600
Observer (o ) Sources (s ) Apparent frequency or v A = 5 m/s …(i)
v + vo ö and velocity of submarine (B),
® vo Stationary (v s = 0) fa = æç ÷f 27000
è v ø o vB = 27 km/h = m/s
v - vo ö 3600
vo ¬ Stationary (v s = 0) fa = æç ÷f
è v ø o or vB = 7.5 m/s …(ii)
Stationary (vo = 0) ® vs æ v ö Signal sent by submarine (B) is detected by submarine (A) can be
fa = ç ÷ fo
èv + vs ø shown as
7.5 m/s 5 m/s
Stationary (vo = 0) vs ¬ æ v ö
fa = ç ÷ fo
èv - vs ø
® vo ® vs æ v + vo ö
fa = ç ÷ fo
èv + vs ø B A
æ1500 + 7.5 ö æ 1495 ö Beat frequency is the difference of both received frequencies.
=ç ÷ç ÷ 500 Hz
è 1500 + 5 ø è1492 .5 ø So, n beat = n1 - n 2
æ1507.5 ö æ 1495 ö æ v ö æ v ö
Þ f2 = ç ÷ç ÷ 500 Hz Þ n beat = n ç ÷ - nç ÷
è 1505 ø è1492.5 ø è v - vs ø è v + vs ø
Þ f2 = 1.00166 ´ 1.00167 ´ 500 2 nv s v 2 nv s
= =
Þ f2 = 501.67 Hz v 2 - v s2 æ1 - v s2 ö
vç 2 ÷
» 502 Hz è v ø
2 fv s
Example 20. A siren emitting a sound of frequency If v s < < v, then n beat =
v
1000 Hz moves away from you towards a cliff with a speed of
Here, n = 1400 Hz, v = 350 ms-1 and n beat = 2 s-1
10 ms-1. What is the frequency of the sound you hear coming
directly from the siren? 2 ´ 1400 ´ v s
So, 2=
(a) (33/34) ×1000 Hz 350
(b) (34/33) × 1000 Hz 1
Þ v s = ms-1
(c) (35/34) × 1000 Hz 4
(d) (34/35) × 1000 Hz
Example 22. A source S of acoustic wave of the
Sol. (a) Sound heard directly, frequency n 0 = 1700 Hz and a receiver R are located at the
æ v ö same point. At the instant t = 0, the source starts from rest to
f1 = fo ç ÷
èv + v s ø move away from the receiver with a constant acceleration a.
v s = 10 ms–1 The velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s. If a = 10 m / s2, the
æ 330 ö apparent frequency that will be recorded by the stationary
\ f1 = ç ÷ ´ 1000 receiver at t = 10 s will be
è 330 + 10 ø
33 (a) 1700 Hz (b) 1.35 Hz (c) 2.89 Hz (d) 1300 Hz
= ´ 1000 Hz
34 Sol. (b) Source frequency, n o = 1700 Hz. Source (coinciding
with observer at t = 0) moves away with uniform acceleration a.
Example 21. A stationary observer receives sound from Consider the wave which is received by the observer at instant
two identical tuning forks, one of which approaches and the t = t. It will have left the source at an earlier instant of time, say
other one recedes with the same speed (much less than the t ( < t), when the distance of source was r (say), if u be velocity of
speed of sound). The observer hears 2 beats/s. The oscillation æ 1ö
source at instant t, then r = ç ÷ at 2 and u = at . The relation
frequency of each tuning fork is n 0 = 1400 Hz and the è2ø
velocity of sound in air is 350 m/s. The speed of each tuning between t and t is
fork is close to [JEE Main 2020] r at 2
t =t + =t +
1 1 1 v 2v
(a) m/s (b) m/s (c) 1 m/s (d) m/s
8 2 4 This is a quadratic equation in t, giving the solution
Sol. (d) Due to Doppler’s effect, frequency of approaching - 2v + 4 v 2 + 8 vat
tuning fork is higher and receding tuning fork is lower than at =
2
emitted frequency.
æ 2 at ö
ν ν1 ν2 ν u = at = v ç 1 + - 1÷
è v ø
v v æ 2 ´ 10 ´ 10 ö
u = 340 ç 1 + - 1÷
Higher Lower è 340 ø
frequency frequency
æ 27 ö
= 340 ç - 1÷
Frequency received from tuning fork moving towards observer, è 17 ø
æ v ö Then, apparent frequency is given by
n1 = n ç ÷ æ v ö
è v - vs ø na = ç ÷n
èv + uø o
where, n = frequency emitted by tuning fork, v = speed of sound Putting the values v = 340 m/s, t = 10 s, a = 10 m/s2, we have
and v s = speed of tuning fork. æ 340 ö
na = ç ÷ 1700
Frequency received from receding tuning fork, è 340 + u ø
æ v ö 17
n2 = nç ÷ n a = 1700 = 1.35 Hz
è v + vs ø 27
Waves 561
2. Doppler’s effect when the source and observer opposite direction (i.e. from observer to source), take
v ® v - vw . Thus, the modified formula is
are not in same line of motion
æ v ± vw ± v o ö
From the figure, the position of a source is S and of f¢ = ç ÷f
observer is O. The component of velocity of source è v ± vw ± v s ø
towards the observer is v cosq. For this situation, the
approach frequency is Example 23. A person P is 600 m away from the station,
when train is approaching station with 72 km/h, it flows a
whistle of frequency 800 Hz when 800 m away from the
v P station. Frequency heard by the person is
v
S v
S
(Take, speed of sound = 340 ms–1)
v
T
s
Practice Exercise
ROUND I Topically Divided Problems
Wave Motion and Progressive Waves Then, which amongst the following option is
1. Which of the following statements are true for wave incorrect?
motion? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) The wave is travelling from right to left.
(a) Mechanical transverse waves can propagate (b) The speed of the wave is 20m/s.
through all mediums. (c) Frequency of the wave is 5.7 Hz.
(b) Longitudinal waves can propagate through solids (d) The least distance between two successive crests in
only. the wave is 2.5 cm.
(c) Mechanical transverse waves can propagate 5. A transverse wave is described by the equation
y = y0 sin 2p é ft - ù. The maximum particle
through solids only. x
(d) Longitudinal waves can propagate through êë l úû
vacuum. velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity, if
2. The figure shows three progressive waves A, B and (a) l = p y0/ 4
C moving in the same direction. What can be (b) l = 2 py0
concluded with respect to wave A from the figure? (c) l = p / y0
y (d) l = p y0/ 2
A C 6. For the wave shown in figure, write the equation of
B
ωt
this wave, if its position is shown at t = 0. Speed of
wave is v = 300 m /s.
π π 3π 2π y(m)
o 2 2
ωt 0.06
0.2
x (m)
(a) The wave C lags behind by a phase angle of p /2
v
and the wave B is ahead by a phase angle p /2
(b) The wave C is ahead by a phase angle of p /2 and
the wave B lags behind by a phase angle p /2 (a) y = (0.06) cos[(78.5m-1 )x + (23562s -1 )t ] m
(c) The wave C is ahead by a phase angle of p and the (b) y = (0.06)sin [(78.5 m- 1 )x - (23562 s -1 )t ] m
wave B lags behind by a phase angle p
(c) y = (0.06)sin [(78.5 m- 1 )x + (28562 s -1 )t ] m
(d) The wave C lags behind by a phase angle p and the
(d) y = (0.06)cos[(78.5m-1 )x - (28562s -1 )t ] m
wave B is ahead by a phase angle p
7. A travelling harmonic wave is represented by the
3. The equation of wave is represented by
equation y ( x, t) = 10-3 sin (50t + 2x), where x and y
sin é100t -
-4 xù
y = 10 m, then the velocity of wave are in metre and t is in second. Which of the
êë 10 úû following is a correct statement about the wave?
will be [JEE Main 2019]
(a) 100 ms–1 (a) The wave is propagating along the negative X-axis
(b) 4 ms–1 with speed 25 ms -1.
(c) 1000 ms–1 (b) The wave is propagating along the positive X-axis
(d) zero with speed 25 ms -1.
4. A transverse harmonic wave on a string is (c) The wave is propagating along the positive X-axis
described by y ( x, t) = 3.0 sin (36t + 0.018 x + p/4), with speed 100 ms -1.
where x and y are in cm and t is in second. The (d) The wave is propagating along the negative X-axis
positive direction of x is from left to right. with speed 100 ms -1.
Waves 563
8. In a transverse wave the distance between a crest 14. A transverse wave travels on a taut steel wire with
and neighbouring trough at the same instant is a velocity of v when tension in it is 2.06 ´ 104 N.
4.0 cm and the distance between a crest and trough When the tension is changed to T, the velocity
at the same place is 1.0 cm. The next crest appears changed to v/2. The value of T is close to
at the same place after a time interval of 0.4 s. The [JEE Main 2020]
maximum speed of the vibrating particles in the (a) 10.2 ´ 102 N (b) 5.15 ´ 103 N
medium is [JEE Main 2013] (c) 2 .50 ´ 104 N (d) 30.5 ´ 104 N
3p
(a) cm/s (b) 5p cm/s 15. The amplitude of wave disturbance propagating in
2
1
p positive direction of X-axis is given by y = at
(c) cm/s (d) 2p cm/s 1 + x2
2 1
t = 0 and by y = at t = 2 s,
9. A transverse mechanical harmonic wave is 1 + ( x - 1)2
travelling on a string. Maximum velocity and
where x and y are in metres. The shape of the wave
maximum acceleration of a particle on the string
disturbance does not change during propagation.
are 3 m/s and 90 m/s2 , respectively. If the wave is
The velocity of the wave is
travelling with a speed of 20 m/s on the string. (a) 0.5 ms–1 (b) 2.0 ms–1
The wave function describing the wave is (c) 1.0 ms–1 (d) 4.0 ms–1
(a) 0.1 cos (30t ± 1.5x) (b) 0.1 sin (30t ± 1.5x)
(c) 0.2 sin (1.5t ± 30x) (d) 0.2 cos (1.5t ± 30x) 16. A 100 Hz sinusoidal wave is travelling in the
positive x-direction along a string with a linear
10. A transverse sinusoidal wave moves along a string mass density of 3.5 ´ 10-3 kg/ m and a tension of
in the positive x-direction at a speed of 10 cm s - 1. 35 N. At time t = 0, the point x = 0, has maximum
The wavelength of the wave is 0.5 m and its displacement in the positive y-direction. Next when
amplitude is 10 cm. At a particular time t, the this point has zero displacement, the slope of the
snapshot of the wave is shown in the figure. The string is p /20. Which of the following expression
velocity of the point P when its displacement is represent(s) the displacement of string as a
5 cm, is function of x (in metre) and t (in second)?
Y (a) y = 0.025 cos (200pt - 2px)
P (b) y = 0.5 cos (200 pt - 2px)
X (c) y = 0.025 cos (100 pt - 10 px)
(d) y = 0.5 cos (100 pt - 10 px)
(a)
3p $
jms -1 (b) -
3p $
jms -1
Sound Waves
50 50 17. Speed of sound waves in a fluid depends upon
3p $ 3p $ (a) directly on density of the medium
(c) i ms -1 (d) - i ms -1
50 50 (b) square of bulk modulus of the medium
(c) inversely of the square root of density
11. From a point source, if amplitude of waves at a (d) inversely of the square root of bulk modulus of the
distance r is A, its amplitude at a distance 2r will medium
be
(a) A (b) 2 A (c) A/2 (d) A/4 18. v1 and v2 are the velocities of sound at the same
temperature in two monoatomic gases of densities
12. A simple harmonic progressive wave is represented r 1
by the equation y = 8 sin 2p (01
. x - 2 t) r1 and r2 , respectively. If 1 = , then the ratio of
r2 4
where x and y are in cm and t is in seconds. At any
instant, the phase difference between two particles velocities v1 and v2 will be
separated by 2.0 cm in the x-direction is (a) 1: 2 (b) 4 :1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1: 4
(a) 18° (b) 54° (c) 36° (d) 72° 19. If the temperature is raised by 1 K from 300 K, the
13. A string of mass 2.5 kg is under a tension of 200 N. percentage change in the speed of sound in the
The length of the stretched string is 20.0 m. If the gaseous mixture is (R = 8.31 J/mol-K)
transverse jerk is struck at one end of the string, (a) 0.167% (b) 0.334% (c) 1% (d) 2%
the disturbance will reach the other end in 20. The speed of sound in a mixture of 1 mole of helium
[NCERT Exemplar] and 2 mol of oxygen at 27°C is
(a) 1 s (b) 0.5 s (a) 800 ms–1 (b) 400.8 ms–1
(c) 2 s (d) Data is insufficient (c) 600 ms–1 (d) 1200 ms–1
564 JEE Main Physics
21. In brass, the velocity of longitudinal wave is 26. The displacement of a particle executing periodic
100 times the velocity of the transverse wave. If motion is given by y = 4 cos2 ( t / 2) sin (1000 t). This
Y = 1 ´ 1011 Nm–2, then stress in the wire is expression may be considered to be a result of
(a) 1 ´ 1013 Nm-2 (b) 1 ´ 109 Nm-2 superposition of
11
(c) 1 ´ 10 Nm -2
(d) 1 ´ 107 Nm-2 (a) two waves (b) three waves
(c) four waves (d) five waves
22. The displacement-time graphs for two sound waves
A and B are shown in figure, then the ratio of their 27. Four simple harmonic vibrations,
intensities I A / I B is equal to y1 = 8 cos wt
p
y2 = 4 cos æç wt + ö÷
è 2ø
2 A
1 y3 = 2 cos( wt + p)
3p ö
y4 = cos æç wt +
B
0 ÷
è 2 ø
–1 C
are superimposed on one another. The resulting
–2
amplitude and phase are respectively
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 16 æ1ö æ1ö
(a) 45 and tan -1 ç ÷ (b) 45 and tan -1 ç ÷
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 1 è2ø è3ø
23. A sound wave of frequency 245 Hz travel with the æ1ö
(c) 75 and tan -1 (2) (d) 75 and tan -1 ç ÷
speed of 300 ms-1 along the positive X-axis. Each è3ø
point of the wave moves to and fro through a total
distance of 6 cm. What will be the mathematical 28. Two pulses in a stretched string whose centres are
expression of this travelling wave? [JEE Main 2021]
initially 8 cm apart are moving towards each other
as shown in the figure. The speed of each pulse is
(a) y(x, t ) = 0.03 sin[5.1x - (0.2 ´ 103 )t ]
2cm s -1. After 2 s, the total energy of the pulses will
(b) y(x, t ) = 0.06 sin[5.1x - (1.5 ´ 103 )t ]
be
(c) y(x, t ) = 0.06 sin[0.8x - (0.5 ´ 103 )t ]
(d) y(x, t ) = 0.03 sin[5.1x - (1.5 ´ 103 )t ]
24. A plane longitudinal wave of angular frequency
1000 rad s - 1 is travelling along negative x-direction 8 cm
in a homogeneous gaseous medium of density (a) zero
r = 1 kg m - 3. Intensity of the wave is (b) purely kinetic
I = 10- 10 Wm - 2 and the maximum pressure (c) purely potential
change is 2 ´ 10–4 Nm –2 . Then, displacement (d) partly kinetic and partly potential
equation is
æ pö 29. When two sound waves travel in the same direction
(a) y = 10- 9 sin ç1000 t - 5x + ÷ in a medium, the displacement of a particle located
è 2ø
at X at time t is given by
(b) y = 10- 9 cos (1000 t + 5x)
(c) y = 10- 9 tan (1000 t - 5x)
y1 = 0.05 cos (0.50px - 100pt)
(d) y = 10- 9 cos (1000 t - 5x) y2 = 0.05 cos(0.46px - 92pt)
where, y1, y2 and x are in metres and t in seconds.
Stationary Waves in The speed of sound in the medium is [JEE Main 2013]
Strings and in Organ Pipes (a) 92 m/s (b) 200 m/s
25. Equation of a plane progressive wave is given by (c) 100 m/s (d) 332 m/s
31. A wave represented by the given equation 37. Two wires made up of same material are of equal
y = a cos( kx - wt) is superposed with another wave lengths but their radii are in the ratio 1 : 2. On
to form a stationary wave such that the point x = 0 stretching each of these two wires by the same
is a node. The equation for the other wave is tension, the ratio between the fundamental
(a) y = a sin (kx + wt ) (b) y = - a cos (kx + wt ) frequencies is
(c) y = - a cos (kx - wt ) (d) y = - a sin (kx - wt ) (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
32. A wave of wavelength 2 m is reflected from a 38. n waves are produced on a string in one second.
surface, if a node is formed at 3 m from the surface, When the radius of the string is doubled and the
then at what distance from the surface another tension is maintained the same, the number of
node will be formed? waves produced in one second for the same
(a) 3 m (b) 2 m harmonic will be
(c) 3 m (d) 4 m n n n
(a) (b) (c) 2n (d)
2 3 2
33. The displacement of a string is given by
y( x, t) = 0.06 sin (2px/3) cos (120 pt), where x and y 39. A string in a musical instrument is 50 cm long and
are in metre and t in second. The length of the its fundamental frequency is 800 Hz. If a
string is 1.5m and its mass is 3.0 ´ 10-2 kg. fundamental frequency of 1000 Hz is to be
(a) It represents a progressive wave of frequency 60 Hz. produced, then required length of string is
(b) It represents a stationary wave of frequency 120 Hz. (a) 62.5 cm (b) 50 cm (c) 40 cm (d) 37.5 cm
(c) It is the result of superposition of two waves of
40. Two identical strings X and Z made of same
wavelength 3 m, frequency 60 Hz each travelling
material have tensions TX and TZ in them. If their
with a speed of 180 m/s in opposite direction.
fundamental frequencies are 450 Hz and 300 Hz
(d) Amplitude of this wave is constant.
respectively, then the ratio of TX / TZ is
34. Amongst the following statements which is correct [JEE Main 2020]
for stationary waves? (a) 1.25 (b) 2.25 (c) 0.44 (d) 1.5
(a) Nodes and antinodes are formed in case of
41. A string of length 1 m and mass 5 g is fixed at both
stationary transverse wave only
ends. The tension in the string is 8.0 N. The string
(b) In case of longitudinal stationary wave, is set into vibration using an external vibrator of
compressions and rarefactions are obtained in
frequency 100 Hz. The separation between
place of nodes and antinodes respectively
successive nodes on the string is close to
(c) Suppose two plane waves, one longitudinal and the [JEE Main 2019]
other transverse having same frequency and (a) 16.6 cm (b) 33.3 cm (c) 10.0 cm (d) 20.0 cm
amplitude are travelling in a medium in opposite
directions with the same speed, by superposition of 42. Choose the correct statement from the following
these waves, stationary waves cannot be obtained options.
(d) None of the above (a) Under identical conditions of pressure and density,
the speed of sound is highest in a monoatomic gas.
35. Two identical sinusoidal waves travel in opposite (b) A sound absorber attenuates the sound level by
direction in a wire 15 m long and produce a 20 dB. The intensity decreases by a factor of 100.
standing wave in the wire. If the speed of the waves (c) A sound wave is passing through air column in the
is 12 ms - 1 and there are 6 nodes in the standing form of compression and rarefaction. In
wave. Find the frequency. consecutive compression and rarefactions, there is
(a) 4 Hz (b) 2 Hz no transfer of heat.
(c) 6 Hz (d) 9 Hz (d) All of the above
36. The transverse displacement of a string (clamped 43. A person blows into the open end of a long pipe. As
at its both ends) is given by a result, a high-pressure pulse of air travels down
y ( x, t) = 0.06 sin (2px/3) cos (120pt) the pipe. When this pulse reaches the other end of
All the points on the string between two the pipe,
consecutive nodes vibrate with (a) a high-pressure pulse starts travelling up the pipe,
I. same frequency if the other end of the pipe is open
II. same phase (b) a low-pressure pulse starts travelling up the pipe,
III. same energy if the other end of the pipe is open
IV. different amplitude (c) a low-pressure pulse starts travelling up the pipe,
(a) I, II, III (b) I, III only if the other end of the pipe is closed
(c) I, II, IV (d) II, IV only (d) Both (a) and (b)
566 JEE Main Physics
44. Which of the following is/are correct? 49. A granite rod of 60 cm length is clamped at its
(Velocity of sound in air)
middle point and is set into longitudinal vibrations.
. ´ 103 kg/m 3 and its
The density of granite is 27
Young’s modulus is 9.27 ´ 1010 Pa. What will be the
(a) (T = constant) fundamental frequency of the longitudinal
(Parabola) vibrations? [JEE Main 2018]
O (Pressure) (a) 5 kHz (b) 2.5 kHz
(Velocity of sound in air) 2 (c) 10 kHz (d) 7.5 kHz
50. An organ pipe open at one end is vibrating in first
(b) overtone and is in resonance with another pipe
open at both ends and vibrating in third harmonic.
Temperature The ratio of length of two pipes is
O (in °C)
(a) 3 : 8 (b) 8 : 3
(Velocity of transverse wave in a (c) 1 : 2 (d) 4 : 1
string)
51. A wave of frequency 100 Hz is sent along a string
(c) towards a fixed end. When this wave travels back
after reflection, a node is formed at a distance of
(Parabola)
O Tension 10 cm from the fixed end of the string. The speeds
of incident (and reflected) waves are
(Fundamental frequency of an (a) 5 ms–1 (b) 10 ms–1
organ pipe) (c) 20 ms–1 (d) 40 ms–1
(d) 52. The vibrating four air columns are represented in
the figure. The ratio of frequencies n p : nq : nr : ns is
Length of
O organ pipe
55. A closed organ pipe of length L and an open organ 62. A tuning fork of frequency 480 Hz is used in an
pipe contain gases of densities r1 and r2 , experiment for measuring speed of sound (v) in air
respectively. The compressibility of gases are equal by resonance tube method. Resonance is observed
in both the pipes. Both the pipes are vibrating in to occur at two successive lengths of the air column
their first overtone with same frequency. l1 = 30 cm and l2 = 70 cm. Then, v is equal to
The length of the open organ pipe is (a) 332 ms -1 [JEE Main 2019]
L 4L (b) 384 ms -1
(a) (b)
3 3 (c) 338 ms -1
4L r1 4L r2 (d) 379 ms -1
(c) (d)
3 r2 3 r1 63. Figure shows a stretched string of length L and
pipes of length L, 2L, L/2 and L/2 in options (a), (b),
56. A glass tube of length 1.0 m is completely filled (c) and (d), respectively. The string’s tension is
with water. A vibrating tuning fork of frequency
adjusted until the speed of waves on the string
500 Hz is kept over the mouth of the tube and the
equals the speed of sound waves in the air. The
water is drained out slowly at the bottom of the
fundamental mode of oscillation is then set up on
tube. If the velocity of sound in air is 330 ms–1, then
the total number of resonances that occur will be the string. In which pipe will the sound produced
(a) 2 (b) 3 by the string cause resonance?
(c) 1 (d) 5
57. A metre-long tube open at one end with a movable
piston at the other end, shows resonance with a L
fixed frequency source (a tunning fork of frequency
340 Hz) when the tube length is 25.5 cm or 79.3 cm. (a) (b)
Estimate the speed of sound in air at the L 2L
temperature of the experiment. The edge effect may
be neglected. [NCERT]
(a) 336 m/s (b) 331 m/s (c) (d)
(c) 356 m/s (d) 366 m/s L/2 L
58. A closed organ pipe has a fundamental frequency of 64. In a resonance tube experiment, when the tube is
1.5 kHz. The number of overtones that can be filled with water upto a height of 17.0 cm from
distinctly heard by a person with this organ pipe bottom, it resonates with a given tuning fork. When
will be (Assume that the highest frequency a the water level is raised, the next resonance with
person can hear is 20000 Hz) [JEE Main 2019] the same tuning fork occurs at a height of 24.5 cm.
(a) 7 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 If the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s, the tuning
fork frequency is [JEE Main 2020]
59. A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental
(a) 1100 Hz (b) 3300 Hz
frequency f in air. The pipe is dipped vertically in
water, so that half of it is in water. The (c) 2200 Hz (d) 550 Hz
fundamental frequency of the air column is now
[JEE Main 2016]
Beats
f 3f 65. When 2 tuning forks (fork 1 and fork 2) are
(a) (b) (c) 2 f (d) f
2 4 sounded simultaneously, 4 beats s -1 are heard.
Now, some tape is attached on the prong of fork 2.
60. In a resonance column first and second resonance
When the tuning forks are sounded again,
are obtained at depths 22.7 cm and 70.2 cm. The
6 beats s -1 are heard. If the frequency of fork 1 is
third resonance will be obtained at a depth of
200 Hz, then what was the original frequency of
(a) 117.7 cm (b) 92.9 cm
fork 2 ?
(c) 115.5 cm (d) 113.5 cm
(a) 196 Hz (b) 200 Hz
61. A pipe of length 85 cm is closed from one end. Find (c) 202 Hz (d) 204 Hz
the number of possible natural oscillations of air
column in the pipe whose frequencies lie below 66. In two similar wires of tensions 16 N and T, 3 beats
1250 Hz. The velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s. are heard, then T is equals to
[JEE Main 2014] (a) 49 N (b) 25 N
(a) 12 (b) 8 (c) 64 N (d) None of these
(c) 6 (d) 4
568 JEE Main Physics
67. A source of frequency n gives 5 beats s–1, when 75. A tuning fork of frequency 250 Hz produces a beat
sounded with a source of frequency 200 s–1. The frequency of 10 Hz when sounded with a sonometer
second harmonic (2n) gives 10 beats s–1, when vibrating as its fundamental frequency. When the
sounded with a source of frequency 420 s–1, then n tuning fork is filled, the beat frequency decreases.
is equal to If the length of sonometer wire is 0.5 m, the speed
(a) 200 s–1 (b) 205 s–1 (c) 195 s–1 (d) 210 s–1 of transverse wave is
(a) 260 ms–1 (b) 250 ms–1
68. Ten tuning forks are arranged in increasing order (c) 240 ms–1 (d) 500 ms–1
of frequency in such a way that any two nearest
tuning forks produce 4 beats s–1. The highest 76. The correct figure that shows schematically, the
frequency is twice that of the lowest. Possible wave pattern produced by superposition of two
highest and lowest frequencies are waves of frequencies 9Hz and 11 Hz, is
(a) 80 and 40 (b) 100 and 50 [JEE Main 2019]
(c) 44 and 32 (d) 72 and 36 y
88. A racing car moving towards a cliff sounds its horn. 93. A and B are two sources generating sound waves. A
The driver observes that the sound reflected from listener is situated at C. The frequency of the
the cliff has a pitch one octave higher than the source at A is 500 Hz. A now moves towards C with
actual sound of the horn. If v is the velocity of a speed 4 m /s. The number of beats heard at C is 6.
sound, the velocity of the car is When A moves away from C with speed 4 m /s, the
(a) v / 2 (b) v/2 number of beats heard at C is 18. The speed of
(c) v/3 (d) v/4 sound is 340 m /s. The frequency of the source at B
is [JEE Main 2013]
89. A stationary source emits sound waves of frequency
A C B
500 Hz. Two observers moving along a line passing
through the source detect sound to be of (a) 500 Hz (b) 506 Hz
frequencies 480 Hz and 530 Hz. Their respective
(c) 512 Hz (d) 494 Hz
speeds are in ms-1 (Take, speed of sound = 300 m/s)
[JEE Main 2019] 94. Two sources of sound S1 and S2 produce sound
(a) 12, 16 (b) 12, 18 waves of same frequency 660 Hz.
(c) 16, 14 (d) 8, 18 A listener is moving from source S1 towards S2 with
90. A train moves towards a stationary observer with a constant speed u m/s and he hears 10 beats/s. The
speed 34 m/s. The train sounds a whistle and its velocity of sound is 330 m/s. Then, u equal to
[JEE Main 2019]
frequency registered by the observer
is f1. If the speed of the train is reduced to 17 m/s, (a) 5.5 m/s (b) 15.0 m/s
the frequency registered is f2 . If speed of sound is (c) 2.5 m/s (d) 10.0 m/s
f
340 m/s, then the ratio 1 is 95. The driver of a bus approaching a big wall notices
f2 [JEE Main 2019] that the frequency of his bus’s horn changes from
19 21 20 18 420 Hz to 490 Hz, when he hears it after it gets
(a) (b) (c) (d)
18 20 19 17 reflected from the wall. Find the speed of the bus, if
speed of the sound is 330 ms -1. [JEE Main 2020]
91. A source of sound S is moving with a velocity of
50 m/s towards a stationary observer. The observer (a) 81 kmh -1 (b) 91 kmh -1
measures the frequency of the source as 1000 Hz. (c) 71 kmh -1 (d) 61 kmh -1
What will be the apparent frequency of the source 96. A vibrating tuning fork tied to the end of a string
when it is moving away from the observer after 1.988 m long is whirled round a circle. If it makes
crossing him? (Take, velocity of sound in air is the revolutions in a second, calculate the ratio of
350 m/s) [JEE Main 2019] the frequencies of the highest and the lowest notes
(a) 807 Hz (b) 1143 Hz (c) 750 Hz (d) 857 Hz heard by a stationary observer situated in the
92. A source of sound emitting a tone of frequency plane of rotation of tuning fork at a large distance
200 Hz moves towards an observer with a velocity v from the tuning fork. Speed of sound is 350 ms -1.
equal to the velocity of sound. If the observer also (In both, the observer is assumed to be along the
moves away from the source with the same velocity line of velocity sound)
(a) 1.732 (b) 1.154
v, the apparent frequency heard by the observer is
(a) 50 Hz (b) 100 Hz (c) 150 Hz (d) 200 Hz (c) 1.278 (d) 1.000
Waves 571
13. An observer starts moving with uniform 18. A band playing music at a frequency f is moving
acceleration a towards a stationary sound source of towards a wall at a speed vb. A motorist is following
frequency f0 . As the observer approaches the the band with a speed vm . If v is speed of sound, the
source, the apparent frequency (f ) heard by the expression for the beat frequency heard by the
observer varies with time (t) as motorist is
(v + vm ) f (v + vm ) f
f f (a) (b)
(a) (b) v + vb v - vb
2vb (v + vm ) f 2vm (v + vb ) f
(c) (d)
t t v2 - vb2 v2 - vb2
22. Two radio stations broadcast their programmes at trough is 1.5 m. The possible wavelengths (in
the same amplitude A and at slightly different metre) of the waves are [JEE Main 2020]
frequencies, w1 and w2 respectively, where w2 - w1 1 1 1
(a) 1, 2, 3,...... (b) , , ,.....
= 103 Hz. A detector is receiving signals from the two 1 3 5
stations simultaneously. It can only detect signals of 1 1 1
(c) 1, 3, 5,..... (d) , , , .....
intensity > 2 A2 . The time interval between successive 2 4 6
maxima of the intensity of the signal received by the
detector is Numerical Value Questions
(a) 103 s (b) 10–3 s 26. The mass of 1 mol of air is 29 ´ 10-3 kg, then the
(c) 10–4 s (d) 104 s speed of sound (in m/s) in air at standard
23. A musician produce the sound of second harmonics temperature and pressure is ……… .
from open end flute of 50 cm. The other person 27. A whistle of frequency 540 Hz rotates in a circle of
moves toward the musician with speed 10 km/h radius 2 m at a linear speed of 30 m /s. What is the
from the second end of room. If the speed of sound difference of lowest and highest frequency heard by
330 m/s, the frequency heard by running person an observer a long distance away at rest with
will be [JEE Main 2019] respect to the centre of circle (in Hz)? (Take, speed
(a) 666 Hz (b) 500 Hz of sound in air = 330 m/s)
(c) 753 Hz (d) 333 Hz 28. A closed organ pipe of length L and an open organ
24. A sound source S is moving along a straight track pipe contain gases of densities r1 and r2 ,
with speed v and is emitting sound of frequency n o respectively. The compressibility of gases are equal
(see figure). An observer is standing at a finite in both the pipes. Both the pipes are vibrating in
distance, at the point O, from the track. The time their first overtone with same frequency.
variation of frequency heard by the observer is best x r
The length of the open pipe is L 1 , where x is
represented by 3 r2
(Here, t0 represents the instant when the distance …… . (Round off to the nearest integer)
between the source and observer is minimum.) [JEE Main 2021]
[JEE Main 2020]
ν 29. Four harmonic waves of equal frequencies and
p 2p
equal intensities ( I 0 ) have phase angles 0, ,
3 3
(a) νo
and p. When they are superposed, the intensity of
the resulting wave is nI 0 . The value of n is ……… .
t0 t 30. A stretched rope having linear mass density
ν 5 ´ 10-2 kg m -1 is under a tension of 80 N. The
power (in watt) that has to be supplied to the rope
(b) νo to generate harmonic waves at a frequency of 60 Hz
and an amplitude of 6 cm is ……… .
t0 t
31. A one metre long (both ends open) organ pipe is
ν kept in a gas that has double the density of air at
STP. Assuming the speed of sound in air at STP is
(c) νo 300 m/s, the frequency difference between the
fundamental and second harmonic of this pipe is
…… Hz. [JEE Main 2020]
t0 t
32. An aluminium wire is clamped at each end and
ν under zero tension at room temperature. Reducing
the temperature, which results in a decrease in the
(d) νo wire’s equilibrium length, increases the tension in
the wire. The strain ( DL / L) that results in a
transverse wave speed of 100 m/s is 3.86 ´ 10- n ,
t0 t
then the value of n is ……… .
25. For a transverse wave travelling along a straight (Take, the cross-sectional area of the wire to be
line, the distance between two peaks (crests) is 5 m, 5.00 ´ 10 - 6 m 2 , the density to be 270
. ´ 103 kg /m 3,
while the distance between one crest and one and Young’s modulus to be 7.00 ´ 1010 N / m 2 )
Answers
Round I
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (a)
71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (a) 76. (a) 77. (b) 78. (b) 79. (c) 80. (b)
81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (c) 86. (a) 87. (c) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (a)
91. (c) 92. (d) 93. (c) 94. (c) 95. (b) 96. (b)
Round II
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. 332.5 27. 99
28. 4 29. 3 30. 518 31. 106.06 32. 4
Solutions
Round I Compare the given equation with the standard from
1. Mechanical transverse waves can propagate through é 2 pt 2 px ù
y = r sin ê + + fú
solids only as solids have elasticity of shape. ë T l û
2. In the figure, C reaches the position, where A already 2p
p = 36
reached, after w t = and A reaches the position, T
2 2p
where B already reached, after w t = p /2. = 0.018
l
é xù l 36
3. Given, y = 10- 4 sin ê100t - ú Speed of wave, v = = = 2000 cm /s = 20 m /s
ë 10 û T 0.018
Comparing it with the standard equation of wave 2p p
Again, T= =
motion 36 18
é 2p 2p ù 1 18
y = A sin ê t- x , we get Frequency, n = = Hz = 5.7 Hz
ëT l úû T p
2p dy é xù
= 100 5. As, = y0 cos 2p ê ft - ú ´ 2 pf
T dt ë lû
2p p æ dy ö
or T= = s Maximum particle velocity = ç ÷ = 2 pfy0 ´ 1
100 50 è dt ø max
2p 1 Wave velocity = f l
=
l 10
As, 2 pfy0 = 4 fl
or l = 20 p
2 py0 py0
l 20p \ l= =
and velocity, v = = = 1000 ms -1 4 2
T p / 50
4. The given equation is 6. From the wave shown in the given figure.
é pù The amplitude, A = 0.06 m
y (x, t ) = 3.0 sin ê36 t + 0.018x + ú 5
ë 4û l = 0.2 m
2
As positive direction is from left to right and x is
positive, therefore wave is travelling from right to left. \ l = 0.08 m
Waves 575
v 300 w 30
f = = = 3750 Hz Propagation constant, k = = = 1.5 m- 1
l 0.08 v 20
2p Equation of wave is y = A sin(wt ± kx) or wave function
k= = 78.5 m-1
l y = 0.1 sin(30t ± 1.5 x) wave x is in metres and t in
and w = 2pf = 23562 rad/s seconds.
dy Positive sign is for wave propagation along negative
At t = 0, x = 0, = positive
dx X-axis and negative sign for wave propagating along
and the given curve is a sine curve. positive X-axis.
Hence, equation of wave travelling in positive 10. Here, y = A sin(wt ± f )
x-direction should have the form Given, A = 10 cm and y = 5 cm,
y(x, t ) = A sin(kx - wt ) 1
\ sin(wt ± f ) = = sin 30°
Substituting the values, we have 2
y = (0.06) sin[(78.5 m- 1 ) x - 23562 s - 1 )t ] m Þ wt ± f = 30°
7. Wave equation is given by, y = 10-3 sin(50 t + 2x) 2p æ vö æ 10 cm s -1 ö 2p
Here, w = = 2p ç ÷ = 2p ç ÷= rad s -1
Speed of wave is obtained by differentiating phase of T è lø è 50 cm ø 5
wave. \The velocity of the point P is
Now, phase of wave from given equation is dy æ 2p - 1 ö
f = 50 t + 2x = constant vP = = Aw cos(wt ± f ) = (10 cm) ç s ÷ (cos 30° )
dt è 5 ø
Differentiating ‘f’ w.r.t. ‘t’, we get p 3
d d = 2p 3 cms -1 = m s-1.
(50 t + 2x) = (constant) 50
dx dt
p 3$
æ dx ö \ vP = j m s -1
Þ 50 + 2 ç ÷ = 0 50
è dt ø
dx -50 11. As, intensity = power/area
Þ = = - 25 ms -1 From a point source, energy spreads over the surface
dt 2
of a sphere of radius r.
So, wave is propagating in negative x-direction with a
P P 1
speed of 25 ms -1. \ Intensity = = 2
µ 2
A 4 pr r
Alternate Solution
But intensity = (amplitude)2
The general equation of a wave travelling in negative
1
x-direction is given as \ (Amplitude)2 µ 2
y = a sin(wt + kx) …(i) r
1
Given equation of wave is or Amplitude µ
y = 10-3 sin(50t + 2x) …(ii) r
Comparing Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get Clearly, at distance 2r, amplitude becomes A/2.
w = 50 and k = 2 12. Given, y = 8 sin 2p (0.1 x - 2 t )
w 50 Compare it with the equation of wave motion
Velocity of the wave, v = = = 25 m/s
k 2 æx t ö
l y = r sin 2p ç - ÷
8. Given, = 4 cm èl Tø
4
1
\ l = 16 cm and T = 0.4 s = 0.1 = 10 cm
l
As, fl ´ T = 2 p 2p 2p
2p 5 p -1 From f= Dx = ´ 2 = 0.4 ´ 180° = 72°
Þ f = = s l 10
16 ´ 0.4 16 2.5
5p
13. Here, m = kg /m, T = 200 N
Now, v= f l= ´ 16 = 5p cm /s 20
16 T 200
v= =
9. Maximum particle velocity, umax = wA …(i) m 2.5 /20
Maximum particle acceleration, a max = w2A …(ii) 200 ´ 200
v=
Dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (i), we get 25
a 90 200
Angular frequency, w = max = = 30 rad/s = = 40 m /s
umax 3 5
u 3 L 20
From Eq. (i), amplitude, A = max = = 0.1 m Time taken, t= = = 0.5 s
w 30 v 40
576 JEE Main Physics
14. Transverse wave speed over a string is given by 18. At given temperature and pressure,
T 1
v= … (i) vµ
m r
where, T = tension in string v1 r2 4
Þ = = = 2 :1
and m = mass per unit length of string. v2 r1 1
Here, when velocity is v, then tension, T1 = 2 .06 ´ 104 N g RT
v 19. From v =
Let when velocity is , then tension is T, hence from M
2 Dv 1 æ DT ö
Eq. (i), we get = ç ÷
v T1 v 2è T ø
=
v T Dv 1æ1ö
Þ ´ 100 = ç ÷ ´ 100
2 v 2 èT ø
T 2 .06 ´ 104 1 1
Þ T= 1 = = ´ ´ 100 = 0.167%
4 4 2 300
or T = 5.15 ´ 103 N 20. Molecular weight of mixture,
15. In a wave equation, x and t must be related in the form n1M1 + n2 M 2
(x - vt ). Therefore, we rewrite the given equation as M mix =
n1 + n2
1
y= 1 ´ 4 + 2 ´ 32 68
1 + (x - vt )2 = =
1 1 ´2 3
For t = 0, it becomes y = 68
1 + x2 = ´ 10 kg mol-1
-3
3
and for t = 2, it becomes 3
1 1 For helium, CV1 = R
y= = 2
[1 + (x - 2v)2] 1 + (x - 1)2
5
\ 2v = 1 For oxygen, CV2 = R
2
or v = 0.5 ms -1
3R 5R
16. Q w = 2pf = (2p ) (100) = (200 p ) rad /s n1CV1 + n2CV2 1´ +2´
(CV )mix = = 2 2 = 13R
w n1 + n2 1+2 6
\ v =
k
Now, (C p )mix = (CV )mix + R
w m
Þ k= =w 13R 19R
v T = +R=
6 6
3.5 ´ 10- 3 (C p )mix 19
= (200p ) = 2p m- 1 Þ g mix = =
35 (CV )mix 13
At zero displacement,
¶y g mix RT 19 8.31 ´ 300
vP = wA = - v Speed of sound, v = = ´
¶x M mix 13 68 ´ 10-3
3
æ ¶y ö æ Tö
vç ÷ ç ÷ (slope) = 400.8 ms –1
è ¶x ø è mø
\ | A| = = Y T T
w w 21. As, vL = and vT = =
r m pr 2r
æ 35 ö
ç -3
÷ (p /20) vL Y pr 2r Y Y
è 3.5 ´ 10 ø Q = ´ = =
= vT r T T / pr 2
stress
200p
Y 1 ´ 1011
Þ | A|= 0.025 m \ Stress = 2
= = 1 ´ 107 Nm-2
(vL / vT ) (100)2
Hence, y = 0.025 cos(200pt - 2px)
17. According to Newton’s formula for velocity of sound in 22. As, intensity µ a 2w2
a fluid, aA 2 w 1
Here, = and A =
Ba aB 7 wB 2
v= 2 2
r IA æ 2 ö æ 1 ö 1
Þ = ç ÷ ´ç ÷ =
v µ Ba IB è 1 ø è 2 ø 1
1 6
and vµ 23. Amplitude, A = = 3 cm = 0.03 cm
r 2
JEE NEET ADDA
This Pdf Is
Download From
www.jeeneetadda.in
VISIT NOW !!
Waves 577
(d) f0 =
v v æ lö
or 4 ç ÷ = L Þ 2l = L
2L 4L è2ø
1
Þ f0 µ or L = 2 ´ 4p 2 = 8p 2 [using Eq.(i)]
L
Hence, option (d) is correct. Now, p 2 » 10 Þ L » 80 m
1 1 49.
45. As, n µ or L µ λ
L n 4
and L = L1 + L2 + L3
1 1 1 1
Þ = + +
n n1 n2 n3
46. Resonant frequency for a stretched string is given by L
n T From vibration mode,
fn = nf1 =
2L m l
= L Þ l = 2L
Given, two consecutive resonant frequencies are 2
420 Hz and 490 Hz. Y
\Wave speed, v =
n T r
So, = 420 ...(i)
2L m v
So, frequency f =
n+1 T l
and = 490 ...(ii) 1 Y
2L m Þ f =
2L r
Subtracting Eq. (ii) from Eq. (i), we get
1 T 1 9.27 ´ 1010
= 490 - 420 = 70 = -2
» 5000 Hz
2L m 2 ´ 60 ´ 10 2.7 ´ 103
Here, T = 540 N, m = 6 ´ 10-3 kg m-1 f = 5 kHz
1 T 1 540 50. For an organ pipe open at one end,
So, L= = ´ 3v
2 ´ 70 m 2 ´ 70 6 ´ 10-3 frequency of 1st overtone, n1 =
4 L1
= 2.14 m ~
- 2 .1 m For the organ pipe open at both ends,
3v
47. Let m = mass per unit length of rope, frequency of 3rd harmonic, n2 =
2 L2
T = tension in the rope at a distance x from the
lower end As, n1 = n2
3v 3v
\ T = (mg ) x = weight of x metre of rope \ =
T mgx 4 L1 2 L 2
As v = , therefore v = = gx L1 2 1
m m or = =
L2 4 2
i. e. v µ x
48. Given equation of stationary wave is 51. As fixed end is a node, therefore distance between two
l
y = 0.3 sin (0.157x) cos (200pt ) consecutive nodes = = 10 cm
2
Comparing it with general equation of stationary
wave, i.e. y = a sin kx cos wt, we get l = 20 cm = 0.2 m
æ 2p ö Now, v=nl
k = ç ÷ = 0.157 \ v = 100 ´ 0.2 = 20 ms -1
è l ø
2p æ 1 ö 52. As is clear from figure of question,
Þ l= = 4p 2 çQ » 0.157÷ …(i) lp v v
0.157 è 2p ø L= , l p = 4 L, n p = =
4 lp 4 L
2p 1
and w = 200 p = ÞT = s lq
T 20 v v
L= , l q = 2 L, n q = =
As the possible wavelength associated with nth 2 lq 2 L
harmonic of a vibrating string, i.e. fixed at both ends is v v
given as L = lr , l r = 1, nr = =
lr L
2L æ lö
l= or L = n ç ÷ 3l s 4L v 3v
n è2ø L= , ls = , ns = =
4 3 ls 4 L
Now, according to question, string is fixed from both
ends and oscillates in 4th harmonic, so 3 ls 4L
L= , ls =
4 3
580 JEE Main Physics
v 2v
l f = , cannot match with f wire.
i.e. = 0.85 2(L /2) 2(L /2)
4
(d)
l = 4 ´ 0.85
v
As, we know, n =
l
340 v 3v
= = 100 Hz f = , , ... cannot match with fwire.
4 ´ 0.85 4(L /2) 4(L /2)
582 JEE Main Physics
64. Let l be the wavelength and L be the length of the 69. If we assume that all the three waves are in same
tube. phase at t = 0, we shall hear only one beat per second.
70. Here, w1 = 100p and w2 = 92p
100p
Hence n1 = = 50 Hz
2p
L
h2 92p
and n2 = = 46 Hz
h1 2p
\ Number of beats per second = n1 - n 2 = 50 - 46 = 4
n L 25 5
The resonance conditions for the given two cases are 71. 1 = 2 = =
n2 L1 30 6
nl l
L - h1 = + …(i) and n2 - n1 = 4
2 4
l l On solving, we get
L - h2 = (n – 1) + …(ii) n2 = 24 Hz
2 4
Subtracting Eq. (i) from Eq. (ii), we get n1 = 20 Hz
n1 L 2 51
nl l l l 72. As, = =
(L – h1 ) – (L - h2) = + – (n – 1) – n2 L1 50
2 4 2 4
l and n1 - n2 = 5
h2 – h1 = On solving, we get
2
n2 = 250 Hz, n1 = 255 Hz
Here, h1 = 17.0 cm and h2 = 24.5 cm
73. Two possible frequencies of source are = 100 ± 5
Substituting these values in above equation, we get = 105 or 95 Hz
l Frequencies of 2nd harmonic = 210 or 190 Hz
24.5 – 17.0 =
2 5 beats with source of frequency 205 Hz are possible
l only when 2nd harmonic has frequency = 210 Hz
Þ = 7.5 cm
2 \Frequency of source = 105 Hz
Þ l = 15.0 cm
T1 8 L1 36 D1 4
Now, the tuning fork frequency, 74. Here, = , = , =
T2 1 L 2 35 D2 1
v 330 r1 1
f = = = 2200 Hz =
l 15 ´ 10–2 r2 2
65. Here, n1 = 200 Hz and n1 = 360 Hz, n2 = ?
Number of beats s -1; m = 4 n2 L1D1 T2r1
Now, =
n1 L 2D2 r 2T1
\ n2 = 200 ± 4 = 204 or 196 Hz
n2 36 4 1 1 36
On loading fork 2, its frequency decreases. And = ´ ´ =
number of beats per second increases to 6. Therefore, n1 35 1 8 2 35
m is negative. Clearly, n2 > n1.
n2 = 200 - 4 = 196 Hz When n2 = 360 Hz, n1 = 350 Hz
Number of beats per second = n2 - n1 = 360 - 350 = 10
66. Here, T1 = 16 N, T2 = T = ?
75. Frequency of fork = 250 Hz.
As per the choice given, T2 > T1
Possible frequencies of sonometer wire = (250 ± 10) Hz
\ n2 > n1 and given that (n2 - n1 ) = 3 …(i)
On filling the fork, number of beats per second
Now, nµ T decreases.
n2 T T \ Frequency of sonometer wire,n = 260 Hz
\ = =
n1 16 4 v = nl = 260 (2 L ) = 260 (2 ´ 0.5)
= 260 ms -1
If n1 corresponds to 4, then n2 corresponds to 3 + 4 = 7,
which is T . Therefore, T = 49 N 76. When waves of nearby frequencies overlaps, beats are
produced.
67. Here, n = 200 ± 5 and 2 n = 420 ± 10. This is possible Beat frequency is given by, fbeat = f1 - f2
only when n = 200 + 5 = 205 Hz or s -1. Here, f1 = 11 Hz and f2 = 9 Hz
68. If n is frequency of first fork, then frequency of the last Þ Beat frequency is, f beat = 11 - 9 = 2 Hz
(10th fork) = n + 4 (10 - 1 ) = 2 n Hence, time period of beats or time interval between
\ n = 36 and 2 n = 72 beats,
Waves 583
T=
1 Df æ 2 cv ö
or ´ 100 = ç 2 s 2 ÷ ´ 100
fbeat f0 è c - vs ø
1
Þ T = = 0.5 s 2 ´ 320 ´ 20
2 = ´ 100
300 ´ 340
So, resultant wave has a time period of 0.5 s which is
2 ´ 32 ´ 20
correctly depicted in option (a) only. = = 12.54%
3 ´ 34
w (400p )
77. f1 = 1 = = 200 Hz = 12%
2p 2p
w 404 p 82. The given condition can be shown below as
f2 = 2 = = 202 Hz
2p 2p
f
20 ms–1 20 ms–1
\ fb = f2 - f1 = 2 Hz f0
A1 = 2 and A2 = 1
2 A B
I max æ A1 + A2 ö 9
=ç ÷ = Here, source and observer both are moving away from
I min è A1 - A2 ø 1 each other. So, by Doppler’s effect, observed frequency
78. From Doppler’s effect, is given by
æ v - vo ö æ v + vo ö
æ 340 - 10 ö f = f0 ç ÷ … (i)
n¢ = nç ÷ = nç ÷ = 1950 Hz (given) è v - vs ø
è v + vs ø è 340 + 10 ø
n = 2068 Hz where, v = speed of sound = 340 ms - 1,
79. Whistling train is the source of sound, vs = V . Before vo = speed of observer = - 20 ms - 1,
crossing a stationary observer on station, frequency vs = speed of source = - 20 ms - 1,
vn vn f0 = true frequency
heard is n ¢ = = = constant and n ¢ > n.
(v - vs ) v - V and f = apparent frequency = 2000 Hz
Here, v is velocity of sound in air and n is actual Substituting the given values in Eq. (i), we get
frequency of whistle. æ 340 - 20 ö
2000 = ç ÷ ´ f0
After crossing the stationary observer, frequency è 340 + 20 ø
vn vn
heard is n ¢ = = = constant and n ¢ < n. 2000 ´ 360
(v + vs ) v + V Þ f0 = = 2250 Hz
320
Therefore, the expected curve is given in option (c).
æ v + vo ö 3 æ 10t ö
80. As the observer is moving towards the source, so 83. f = f0 ç ÷ = 10 ç1 + ÷ (as vo = gt)
è v ø è v ø
frequency of waves emitted by the source will be given
by the formula 104
1/ 2
Hence, f versus t graph is a straight line of slope .
æ 1 + v / cö v
fobserved = factual × ç ÷ 104 100
è 1 - v / cø \ = slope =
v 1 v 3
Here, frequency, = \ v = 300 m /s
c 2
æ 3 /2 ö
1/ 2 84. As the listener on motor cycle is moving away from the
So, fobserved = factual ç ÷ n ¢ v - vL 94
è 1 /2 ø source (siren), therefore = =
n v 100
\ fobserved = 10 ´ 3 = 17.3 GHz
vL 94
81. Apparent frequency heard by the person before Þ 1- =
v 100
crossing the trains, vL 94 6
æ c ö æ 320 ö Þ =1- =
f1 = ç ÷ f0 = ç ÷ 1000 v 100 100
è c - vs ø è 320 - 20 ø
6 ´ v 6 ´ 330
Þ vL = = = 19.8 ms -1
Similarly, apparent frequency heard after crossing the 100 100
train,
vL2 19.8 ´ 19.8
æ c ö æ 320 ö Distance covered = = = 98 m
f2 = ç ÷ f0 = ç ÷ 1000 2a 2 ´2
è c + vs ø è 320 + 20 ø 85. n = 165 Hz and
(c = speed of sound) 335 + 5 335
n¢ = ´ ´ 165 = 170 Hz
æ 2 cv ö 335 330
Df = f1 - f2 = ç 2 s 2 ÷ f0
è c - vs ø \Number of beats per second = n , - n = 170 - 165 = 5
584 JEE Main Physics
86. Number of extra waves received per second Now, applying above formula to two different
u 2u conditions given in problem, we get
= - (- u / l ) =
l l f1 = Observed frequency initially
= Number of beats heard per second æ 340 ö
=f ç ÷
87. Large vertical plane acts as listener moving per è 340 - 34 ø
second. æ 340 ö
(c + v)n =f ç ÷
\ n¢ = è 306 ø
c
and f2 = Observed frequency when speed of
This is the number of waves striking the surface per
source is reduced
second.
æ 340 ö 340
88. Let n be the actual frequency of sound of horn. = fç ÷=
è 340 - 17 ø 323
If vs is velocity of car, then frequency of sound striking
the cliff (source moving towards listener) f 323 19
So, the ratio f1 : f2 is, 1 = = .
(v + vs )n ¢ (v + vs ) v´ n f2 306 18
n¢ = = ´
v v (v - vs ) 91. Initially,
n ¢¢ v + vs
or = =2
n v - vs
vs=50 ms–1
fobserved = 1000Hz
v + vs = 2 v - 2 vs
v Sound source Stationary observer
3vs = v, vs =
3 After sometime,
89. Given, frequency of sound source ( f0 ) = 500 Hz
Apparent frequency heard by observer 1, f1 = 480 Hz
vs = 50 ms–1
and apparent frequency heard by observer 2,
f2 = 530 Hz.
Stationary observer
Let vo be the speed of sound.
When observer moves away from the source, When source is moving towards stationary observer,
æ v - v¢ ö frequency observed is more than source frequency due to
Apparent frequency, f1 = fo ç o÷
… (i) Doppler’s effect, it is given by
ç v ÷
è ø æ v ö
fobserved = f ç ÷
When observer moves towards the source, è v - vs ø
æ v + v¢¢ ö where, f = source frequency,
Apparent frequency, f2 = fo ç o ÷
… (ii)
ç v ÷ fo = observed frequency = 1000 Hz,
è ø
v = speed of sound in air = 350 ms -1
Substituting the values in Eq. (i), we get
and vs = speed of source = 50 ms -1
æ 300 - v¢ ö f (v - vs ) 1000(350 - 50) 6000
480 = 500 ç o÷
So, f = obs = = Hz
ç 300 ÷ v 350 7
è ø
When source moves away from stationary observer,
Þ 96 ´ 3 = 300 - vo¢ observed frequency will be lower due to Doppler’s
Þ vo¢ = 12 m/s effect and it is given by
æ v ö
Substituting the values in Eq. (ii), we get f0 = f ç ÷
æ 330 + vo¢¢ ö è v + vs ø
530 = 500 ç ÷ 6000 ´ 350
è 300 ø =
Þ 106 ´ 3 = 300 + vo¢¢ 7 ´ (350 + 50)
Þ vo¢ ¢ = 18 m/s 6000 ´ 350
=
Thus, their respective speeds (in m/s) is 12 and 18. 7 ´ 400
90. When a source is moving towards a stationary = 750 Hz
observer, observed frequency is given by 92. As source and observer both are moving in the same
æ v ö direction with the same velocity, their relative velocity
fobserved = f ç ÷ is zero. Therefore, n ¢ = n = 200 Hz.
è v + vs ø
93. Here, frequency of source = 500 Hz
where, f = frequency of sound from the source,
v = speed of sound and vs = speed of source. Speed of source A = 4 m/s = u
Then, source is moving towards stationary observer,
Waves 585
102 97 Þ = =ç ÷
Q x- x=6 v2 æ Dl ö T è l ø
100 100 aç ÷
è l ø
6 ´ 100
Þ x= = 120 Hz Dl 1
5 We are given, =
102 l n
So, frequency of A = ´ 120 Hz = 122.4 Hz v1 æ 1 ö
-1/ 2
100 \ =ç ÷ = n
v2 è n ø
3. Frequency of 1st overtone of A,
2 T 2 T If f1 and f2 are the corresponding fundamental
n1 = = frequencies of longitudinal and transverse vibrations,
2L1 m L1 D1 pr
then
Frequency of 2nd overtone of B, v1 = f1 l
3 T 2 T and v2 = f2 l
n2 = =
2 L 2 m L 2 D2 pr v1 f1
\ = = n:1
As, n1 = n2 (resonance condition) v2 f2
Waves 587
T2 7p
Þ l 2 = l1 As, Dx =
T1 6x
2p p
8g Therefore, > Dx >
=6 ´ = 12 cm k k
2g 2p
But =l
15. Let m be the total mass of the rope of length l. Tension k
in the rope at a height h from lower end = weight of l
rope of length h, So, l > Dx >
2
mg
i. e. T= (h ) In case of a stationary wave, phase difference between
L any two points is either zero or p.
T \ f1 = p
As, v=
(m / L) 7p 7
and f 2 = kD x = k = p
mg (h ) 6k 6
\ v= = gh
L(m / L) f1 p 6
\ = =
v2 = gh f2 7 p 7
which is a parabola. Therefore, h versus v graph is a 6
parabola, hence option (a) is correct. 18. The motorist receives two sound waves, one directly
16. Speed of transverse wave over a string, from the band and second reflected from the wall
T which is shown in figure.
v= …(i)
m
Motorist Band master
where, T = tension or force on string Wall
(Listener) (Source)
m vm vb
and m = = mass per unit length.
L
Also, Young’s modulus of string,
TL
Y = For direct sound waves, apparent frequency,
ADL
(v + vm ) f
YADL f¢ =
Þ T= …(ii) v + vb
L
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have For reflected sound waves,
YADL frequency of sound wave, reflected from the wall,
v2 = v´ f
mL f ¢¢ =
mv2 v - vb
or DL = …(iii)
YA Frequency of reflected waves as received by the
Here, m = 6 g = 6 ´ 10-3 kg, L = 60 cm moving motorist,
= 60 ´ 10-2 m, A = 1 mm2 (v + vm ) f ¢¢ (v + vm ) f
= 1 ´ 10-6 m2, f ¢¢ = =
v v - vb
Y = 16 ´ 1011 Nm-2 and v = 90 ms -1
\ Beat frequency = f ¢¢¢ - f ¢
Substituting these given values in Eq. (iii), we get
(v + vm ) f (v + vm ) f
6 ´ 10-3 ´ (90)2 = -
DL = v - vb v + vb
16 ´ 1011 ´ 1 ´ 10-6
2 vb (v + vm ) f
= 3.03 ´ 10-5 m =
» 30 ´ 10-6 m = 0.03 mm v2 - vb2
17. Equation of stationary wave is 19. As is known, frequency of vibration of a stretched
y1 = a sin kx cos wt string,
and equation of progressive wave is n µ T µ mg µ g
y2 = a sin (wt - kx) 80
As, nw = na = 0.8 na
= a (sin wt cos kx - cos wt sin kx) 100
p 3p g ¢ æ nw ö
2
At x1 = and x2 = \ = ç ÷ = (0.8)2 = 0.64
3k 2k g è na ø
sin kx1 or sin kx2 is zero.
If r w = relative density of water (= 1),
So, neither x1 nor x2 is node.
3p p 7p rm = relative density of mass,
Dx = x2 - x1 = = =
2k 3k 6k r t = relative density of liquid, then
Waves 589
24. The situation can be shown for a stationary observer Now, on putting these values in Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
of height D, l =1
Stationary (II) m = 4 and n = 15
observer Now, on putting these values in Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
1
l=
3
θ D
os (III) m = 7 and n = 25
vc
Now, on putting these values in Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
S θ 1
Straight l = and so on.
Source v O
track 5
Source frequency = n o 1 1
So, possible values of l = 1, , ,.....
3 5
Using the concept of Doppler’s effect,
Hence, correct option is (b).
Observed frequency,
26. Here, p = 1 atmospheric pressure
æ vsound ö
n observed = ç ÷ no = 1.01 ´ 105 N /m2
è vsound - v cos q ø
Mass of one mole
When t < t 0 (0° < q < 90° ) Density of air, r =
Volume of one mole
Initially, q is less but increasing with time, so cos q
decreases continuously and n observed also decreases. 29.0 ´ 10-3 (kg)
=
When t = t0 ( q = 90° ) 22.4 ´ 10-3 (m3 )
cos q = cos 90° = 0, n observed = n o r = 1.29 kgm-3
When t > t0 (0° < q < 90° ) For air, g = 1.41
i.e. sound source is moving away from observer. According to corrected Newton’s formula,
So, in this case, expression of observed frequency will gp
be v=
vsound r
n observed = × no
vsound + v cos q 1.41 ´ 1.01 ´ 105
v= = 332.5 ms -1
With time q decrease and cos q increases, so n observed 1.29
decreases continuously. 27. Apparent frequency will be minimum when the source
So, correct graph is is at N and moving away from the observer.
ν
vs L
ν0 M K
O C
vs
N
t0 t
æ v ö æ 330 ö
25. Distance between any two crests, fmin = ç ÷ f=ç ÷ (540) = 495 Hz
è v + vs ø è 330 + 30 ø
nl = 5 (n is an integer) …(i)
Distance between any crest and any trough, Frequency will be maximum when source is at L and
l approaching the observer.
(2m + 1 ) = 1 . 5 (m is an integer) æ v ö
2 fmax = ç ÷ f
Þ (2m + 1) l = 3 …(ii) è v – vs ø
Dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii), we get æ 330 ö
=ç ÷ (540) = 594 Hz
nl 5 è 330 – 30 ø
=
(2m + 1) l 3 \ fmax - fmin = 594 - 495 = 99 Hz
3n = 5 (2m + 1) 28. Here, fc = fo
3n = 10m + 5 …(iii) 3vc 2vo
=
Now, putting the values of m and n in Eq. (iii), which 4L 2L ¢
satisfy the equation (only integral values of m and n 4L vo 4L r1
are acceptable). L¢ = =
3 vc 3 r2
(I) m = 1 and n = 5
\ x=4
Waves 591
29. The first and the fourth waves have phase difference \ Fundamental frequency,
p, so they interfere destructively leading to zero v
f1 = =
v
intensity. l 2L
The second and the third waves differ in phase by Second harmonic frequency f2 in tube,
æ 2p p ö p
ç - ÷ = . So the net intensity,
è 3 3ø 3
p
I net = I 0 + I 0 + 2 I 0 I 0 cos = 3I 0 L=λ
3
\ n =3 v
f2 = , f2 = v / L
1 2 2 1 l
30. P= rw A sv = mw2A 2v
2 2 So, frequency difference,
1 2 2 T v v v 150 2
= mw A Df = f2 - f1 = - = = (Q L = 1 m)
2 m L 2L 2L 2 ´1
1 2 2 = 75 2 = 106.06 Hz
or P= w A mT F /A
2 32. The expression for the elastic modulus, Y =
DL /L
1
= (2p ´ 60)2 (6 ´ 10-2)2 5 ´ 10-2 ´ 80 DL F / A
2 Þ = …(i)
L Y
~ 518 W
-
As, the wave speed,
31. Speed of sound in air by Laplace formula, T F
gp v= =
v= m m
r
where, tension T is the same as stretching force F.
So, ratio of speed of sound in a gas to that of air, m r ( AL )
vgas r air m= = = rA
= L L
vair r gas Substituting these values, we get
r air 1 F 1 æFö
Here, vair = 300 ms -1 and = v2 = = ç ÷
r gas 2 m r è Aø
So, we have æFö 2
or ç ÷ = rv …(ii)
vgas1 è Aø
=
300 2 From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
300 DL rv2
Þ vgas = = 150 2 ms -1 =
2 L Y
Now, for a tube open at both ends. 2.70 ´ 103 ´ 100
=
7.00 ´ 1010
= 3.86 ´ 10- 4
\ n =4
L=λ/2
18
Electrostatics
In this branch of Physics, we deals with static free charge, its properties and IN THIS CHAPTER ....
phenomenon exhibited by it. Charge which is static (not flowing in a
Electric Charge
conductor) and free (unbound unlike an electron of inner shell or proton in
nucleus), produces only an electric field. Coulomb’s Law : Force between
two Point Charges
Charge is the property associated with subatomic matter particles by virtue of Electric Flux
which they attract dissimilar particles or repels similar particles. Gauss’s Law
Charges are of two types namely Electric Potential
(i) Positive charge (ii) Negative charge Equipotential Surfaces
It is measured in coulomb (C). Motion of a Charged Particle in
Note Other units of charge are an Electric Field
1 microcoulomb = 10 - 6 coulomb and 1 picocoulomb = 10 - 12 coulomb Electric Dipole
Dielectric
Basic Properties of Electric Charge Electrostatics of Conductors
● Additivity of Charges Net electric charge on a body is equal to the Capacitor
algebraic sum of all electric charges distributed on different parts of body.
● Charge is Conservative Charge can neither be created nor be destroyed,
but can be transferred from one body to another body.
● Quantisation of Charge Charge on a body is always an integral multiple
of charge of an electron (e).
i.e. q = ne
where, n = 1, 2, 3, … and e = 1.6 ´ 10-19 C.
The charge on an electron is taken to be negative.
y
From quantisation of charge, q = ne
F12
Therefore, number of electrons transferred,
q - 3 ´ 10 - 7 q1
n= = = 1.8 ´ 10 12
e - 1.6 ´ 10 - 19
r21
r1 q2
Methods of Statically Charging a Body
To charge a body statically, we either remove electrons r2 F21
from body to make it positively charged or we add x
electrons to body to make it negatively charged which can
q1q2
be done by the following methods. Then, F21 = k r$12
r2
Methods of charging
where, r$12 is a unit vector pointing from q1 to q2.
qq
Charging by friction Charging by conduction Charging by induction
and F12 = k 1 2 2 r$21
r
where, r$21 is a unit vector pointing from q2 to q1.
Coulomb’s Law : Force between
\Force on q1 due to q2 = - Force on q2 due to q1
Two Point Charges or F12 = - F21
Coulomb’s law is a quantitative statement about the force Note The forces due to two point charges are parallel to the line
between two point charges. It states that “the force of joining the point charges; such forces are called central forces
interaction between any two point charges is directly
and so electrostatic forces are conservative forces.
proportional to the product of the charges and inversely
proportional to the square of the distance between them”.
Suppose two point charges q1 and q2 are separated in
Force between Multiple Charges :
vacuum by a distance r, then force between two charges Superposition Principle
is given by According to this principle, the net force on a given
k|q1q2| charge due to number of charges is equal to the vector
Fe =
r2 sum of individual forces exerted on it due to the presence
of other charges.
where, k is constant of proportionality. Its value depends
upon the system of units and on the nature of medium Consider a system of n-point charges q1 , q2 , q3 ..... qn
between the charges. distributed in space. Let the charges be q2 , q3 ... qn , exert
forces F12 , F13 ,..... F1n on charge q1. The total force on
When two charges are located in vacuum or air charge q1 is given by
1
k= = 9 ´ 109 (In SI unit) 1 æ q1q2 qq qq ö
4 pe 0 F1 = ç r$12 + 1 2 2 r$13 +.....+ 12 2 r$1n ÷÷
ç
4pe 0 è r12 2
r13 r1n ø
where e 0 is called absolute permittivity of free space and
its value is 8.85 ´ 10-12C -12N 2m -2. It is important to note here the force of two the charges
exert on each other is not changed by the presence of a
If there is another medium between the point charges third charge.
except air or vacuum, then e 0 is replaced by e 0K or e 0e r
or e.
Example 2. A charge Q is divided into two parts and then
Here, K or e r is called dielectric constant or relative they are placed at a fixed distance. The force between the two
permittivity of the medium. charges is always maximum when the charges are
e Q Q Q Q
K = er = (a) , (b) ,
e0 2 2 3 3
where, e = permittivity of the medium. (c)
Q
,
3Q
(d)
Q
,
4Q
For air or vacuum, K = 1 4 4 5 5
For water, K = 81 Sol. (a) Let the two charges be q and (Q - q).
For metals, K =¥ As, F = A q(Q - q) (where, A is a constant)
dF
Since, F is maximum when =0
Coulomb’s Law in Vector Form dq
Consider two point charges q1 and q2 separated by d
Þ A (qQ - q 2) = 0
distance r in vacuum. Let F21 be the force on q2 due to q1 dq
and F12 the force on q1 due to q2. or A(Q - 2q) = 0
594 JEE Main Physics
Sol. (b) Þ v µ x- 1/ 2
Y
–q/2
Continuous Charge Distribution
F θ θ F
X There are three types of continuous charge distribution
q a a q and according to charge distribution, there are three
types of charge density as given below
F sin θ F sin θ
(i) Linear charge density ( l ) If charge dq is
2F cos θ distributed uniformly along a line element dl then
Fnet = 2F cos q dq
the linear charge density, l = .
æq ö dl
2kq ç ÷
è2ø y Its unit is coulomb metre -1 (Cm –1 ).
\ Fnet = - ×
2 2 2
( y +a ) y + a2
2
(ii) Surface charge density (s ) If charge dq is
[negative sign indictate the net force is distributed over a surface element ds, then surface
towards the mean position] charge density, s = dq / ds.
æq ö Its unit is coulomb metre –2 (Cm –2 ).
2kq ç ÷ y
è2ø kq 2y
Fnet =- 2 2 3/ 2
Þ F~ - 3 µ -y (iii) Volume charge density (r ) If charge dq is
(y + a ) a distributed uniformly over the volume element DV ,
dq
Example 4. Two identical charged spheres suspended from then volume charge density, r = .
dV
a common point by two massless strings of length l are initially a
Its unit is coulomb metre -3 (Cm –3 ).
distance d (d << l ) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The
charge begins to leak from both the spheres at a constant rate.
As a result, charges approach each other with a velocity v. Then, Electric Field
as a function of distance x between them, is [AIEEE 2011] The space surrounding an electric charge q in which
(a) v µ x-1 (b) v µ x1/ 2 another charge q0 experiences a force of attraction or
(c) v µ x (d) v µ x-1/ 2 repulsion, is called the electric field of charge q. The
charge q is called the source charge and the charge q0
Sol. (d) At any instant, is called the test charge. The test charge must be
T cos q = mg …(i) negligibly small, so that it does not modify the electric
kq 2 field of the source charge.
T sin q = Fe = 2 …(ii)
x
Intensity of Electric Field (E)
θ The intensity of electric field at a point in an electric
l l field is the ratio of the forces acting on the test charge
T T placed at that point to the magnitude of the test charge.
æ Fö
Fe Fe E = lim ç ÷, where F is the force acting on q0.
x q0 ® 0 è q ø
0
mg mg It is a vector quantity.
Electrostatics 595
The direction of electric field is same as that of force acting Sol. (c) Here, q A = + 16 mC = + 16 ´ 10 -6 C; qB = - 9 mC
on the positive test charge. Unit of E is NC-1 or Vm -1. = - 9 ´ 10 -6 C; r = 8 cm = 0.08 m
\Dimensions of electric field are [MLT -3 A -1 ]. Now, the electric field cannot be zero between the two charges. It
F is because, the charges are of opposite signs. Also, the electric
From E = , we get F = qE field cannot be zero at a point to the left of charge q A . It is
q
because the magnitude of charge q A is greater than that of qB.
● If q is positive charge, F on it is in the direction of E. Suppose that the resultant electric field due to the two charges is
● If q is negative charge, F on it is opposite to the zero at point O located to the right of charge qB as shown in
direction of E. figure. If OB = x, then OA = x + 0.08.
F = +qE F = –qE qA = +16 µC qB = –9 µC EB EA
+ –
E E B O
r = 8 cm x
Electric Field due to a Point Charge The electric fields E A and EB due to the two charges at the point O
Electric field intensity due to a point charge q at a distance are in opposite directions. Since, resultant electric field is zero at
r is given by point O , E A and EB are equal in magnitude,
1 q 1 q 1 qB 16 ´ 10 -6 9 ´ 10 -6
E= i. e. × A2 = or =
4p e 0 r 2 4pe 0 OA 4pe 0 OB 2
( x + 0.08) 2 x2
( x + 0.08) x 0.24
Electric Field due to System of Charges or = ± or x = 0.24 m or - m
4 3 7
Electric field E at point P due to the systems of charges is 0.24
given by At, x=- m
7
Ei (at point to the left of point B ), the magnitudes of E A and EB are
En
Fi E2 equal but the two fields will not cancel each other. It is because at
Fn F2 this point, both the fields will be in the same direction. Hence,
r1 P
q1 E1 electric field is zero at a point at distance 0.24 m or 24 cm from
r2
O F1 the charge of - 9 mC as shown in figure.
ri q 0 rn
q2 qn Example 6. Charges Q1 and Q 2 are at points A and B of a
qi
right angle triangle OAB (see figure). The resultant electric
1 n
q field at point O is perpendicular to the hypotenuse, then
E(r ) =
4pe 0
å r 2i r$i Q1 / Q 2 is proportional to [JEE Main 2020]
i =1 i
Q1
A
Electric Field Due to Continuous
Charge Distribution x1
(i) Electric field due to the line charge distribution at
the location of charge q0 is Q2
O x2 B
1 l x13
4pe 0 Lò r 2
EL = dL r$ x2
(a) (b)
x23 x1
(ii) Electric field due to the surface charge distribution x x22
(c) 1 (d)
at the location of charge q0 is x2 x12
1 s
4pe 0 òS r 2
ES = dS r$ Sol. (c) Let electric field produced by charges Q1 and Q 2 at point
O be E1 and E 2, respectively.
(iii) Electric field due to the volume charge distribution The direction of fields are shown in the figure below and a
at the location of charge q0 is perpendicular is also drawn on side AB, that passes through point O.
1 r Q1 A
4pe 0 ò r 2
EV = dVr$
x1
Example 5. Two point charges of + 16 mC and - 9 mC are
placed 8 cm apart in air. What is the position of the point
θ
from - 9 mC charge at which the resultant electric field is O θ
E2 B
zero? x2 Q2
θ
(a) 9 cm (b) 16 cm
(c) 24 cm (d) 35 cm E1
596 JEE Main Physics
= 2pA( - a) [ e-2R/ a - 1]
+++++ +++ ++
or Q = 2pa A (1 - e-2R/ a ) (a) +
–– ––
––––
(b) +
–– –
–– ––
–
æ ö
a ç 1 ÷
or R = log ç ÷ ++ +++ ++++
–– –+
+
ç1 - Q ÷
+
2 (c) –– ––
–– ––
(d) ––––
–
è 2paA ø
Electrostatics 597
Sol. (a) Field lines should originate from positive charge and Flux through face BCGF,
terminate to negative charge. Thus, (b) and (c) are not possible. f2 = E × A 2 = ( 4x$i - (y 2 + 1) $j) × 4$i = 16x
Electric field lines cannot form corners as shown in (d). At face BCGF, x=3
Thus, correct option is (a). So, f2 = 16 ´ 3 = 48 units
\ f1 - f2 = 0 - 48 = - 48 N-m 2 C -1
Electric Flux
It is the measure of electric field through a surface. Gauss’s Law
1
Net flux over any a closed surface is times the net
e0
Perpendicular dS charge enclosed within the surface.
projection of 1
surface = dS cos θ θ i. e. f E = Oò E × dS = Sq
E e0
where, Sq = net charge enclosed in that surface.
Note If a closed body, not enclosing any charge, is placed in an
electric field (either uniform or non-uniform), total flux linked
Mathematically, electric flux is the product of an area with it will be zero.
element DS and normal component of E integrated over a
surface, f E = ò E × DS = ò E × n
$ DS = ò EDS cos q . Applications of Gauss’s Law
$ is the unit vector normal to area element DS. To calculate electric field by Gauss’s law, we will draw a
where, n
Gaussian surface (either sphere or cylinder according to
It is a scalar quantity and its SI unit is N-m 2 /C m 2 or V-m. situation) in such a way that electric field is
Example 9. An electric field E = 4x $i - (y 2 + 1) $j N/C passes perpendicular at each point of surface and its magnitude
is same at every point and then apply Gauss’s law.
through the box shown in figure. The flux of the electric field
Following are few application of this law
through surfaces ABCD and BCGF are marked as f I and f II ,
respectively. The difference between ( fI - fII ) is (i) Electric field due to a point charge Electric
(in N -m 2/C) [JEE Main 2020]
field due to a point charge at a distance r is
Z
A (0, 0, 2) B (3, 0, 2)
D C q E
(0, 2, 2) r
(3, 2, 2)
E F X
(0, 0, 0) (3, 0, 0)
H G
Y (0, 2, 0) (3, 2, 0)
1 q
(a) 45 (b) - 45 (c) 48 (d) - 48 E=
4pe 0 r
Sol. (d) Z (ii) Electric field due to infinitely long uniformly
E=4x i – (y2+1)j charged straight wire At a distance r from wire
A (0, 0, 2) B (3, 0, 2) electric field is
+
+
+
D C +
(0, 2, 2) Gaussian
(3, 2, 2)
surface
E F X
(0, 0, 0) (3, 0, 0) r
l
H G E E
(0, 2, 0) (3, 2, 0)
Y +
(iii) Electric field due to an plane sheet of Example 10. Two infinite planes each with uniform
charge For a thin sheet with charge density s, surface charged density +s are kept in such a way that the
electric field angle between them is 30°. The electric field in the region
s shown between them is given by [JEE Main 2020]
E=
2e 0 +σ
Gaussian y
+
+ + +
+ + + surface
+ + + + + + +
+ +
+ + + + + +
+ + + + + S0 30º
+ + + +
+ + + + +
+ + +σ x
+ + + + + + + E
E + + + + +
+ + + +
+ + + + + + s é x$ ù
ê(1 + 3) y - 2 ú
+ + +
+ + + + +
+ + + + (a) $
+ + + + +
+ + + +
+
2 e0 ë û
+ + +
+ + + + +
+ +
+ + + + + s éæ 3ö x$ ù
+ + (b) ê ç1 - ÷ y$ - ú
2 e 0 êë è 2 ø 2 ûú
(iv) Electric field near a charged conducting
surface For a charged conducting surface, field s é x$ ù
(c) ê (1 + 3) y$ + ú
near the surface is 2 e0 ë 2û
s é
E= s æ 3 ö x$ ù
e0 (d) ê ç1 + ÷ y$ + ú
e 0 êë è 2 ø 2 úû
Gaussian
surface Sol. (b) Electric field of an infinite plate is perpendicular to the
s
plane of plate and its magnitude is E = .
S0 2e 0
E E We are given with two positively charged plates with a set of
coordinate axes as shown in the figure.
Y
+ +
R
+
+
+
E2=Ey
Ex=E cos 60º (– x)
(vi) Electric field due to a uniformly charged X
60º
non-conducting solid sphere Inside the sphere Ey=E sin 60º (– y)
1 q E1=E
(r < R ), Einside = r
4pe 0 R3
Now, field of plate 1 can be resolved along X and Y-axes as
+ +
+ shown in above figure.
+ +
Now, Enet = E1 + E2 = E cos 60° ( - x$ ) + E sin 60° ( - y$ ) + Ey$
+
+
+
+ +
s
+
R
Here, E = and x$ & y$ are unit vectors along X & Y-axes.
+
2e 0
+
+
1 q s æ x$ 3 ö
On the surface (r = R ), Esurface = = ç- - y$ + y$ ÷
4pe 0 R 2 2e 0 è 2 2 ø
1 q s éæ 3ö x$ ù
At an external point (r > R ), Eoutside = = ê ç1 - ÷ y$ - ú
4pe 0 r 2 2e 0 êë è 2 ø 2 úû
Electrostatics 599
Electric Field Intensity of Various Systems Its SI unit is J/C or volt and its dimensions are
System Electric Field Intensity [ML2 T -3 A -1 ].
Isolated charge 1 q It is a scalar quantity.
E= ×
r E 4pe0 r 2
q p
Electric Potential Difference
A ring of charge 1 qx
q E= × The electric potential difference between two points A
4pe0 (R 2 + x2 )3 / 2 and B is equal to the work done by the external force in
moving a unit positive charge against the electrostatic
R P
x force from point B to A along any path between these two
points.
V
A disc of charge V
s é x ù B
q E= ê1 - ú V
2 e0 êë 2 2 ú q3
x +R û A V
R V
σ x P q2 q4
q1
Infinitely long line of charge l If V A and V B be the electric potentials at points A and B
E= respectively, then DV = V A - V B
+ 2 pe0 r
+
W
+ or DV = AB
+ r P q
+
+ The SI unit of potential difference is volt ( V ).
+
The dimensional formula for electric potential difference
Finite line of charge l
E^ = (sin a + sinb ) is given by [ML2T -3 A -1 ].
4 pe0 x
l Electric Potential due to a Point Charge
E|| = (cos a - cos b )
4 pe0 x Electric potential due to a point charge q at any point P
lying at a distance r as shown in the figure below, is
given by
∞
x
P′
At centre of semicircular ring l
E=
2 pe0 r r′ ∆ r′ +1 C
P
O r
r
Q
1 q
V = ×
4pe 0 r
λ
Electric Potential due to a
At centre of quarter circular ring 1 1
E= × System of Charges
2 2 pe0 r
Electric potential at any point P due to system of charges
l
Ex = is equal to the algebraic sum of potentials due to
r 4pe0 r individual charges.
l
Ex Ey = 1 æq q q ö
4pe0 r i.e. V = × ç 1 + 2 + .... n ÷
4pe 0 è r1P r2P rnP ø
Ey
E
5
q
1
q
q4
Electric Potential (V)
P
r5
r1P r 4P
Electric potential at any point is equal to the work done
per unit positive charge in carrying it from infinity to
that point in electric field. P r3P
r2P q3
W q2
Electric potential, V =
q
600 JEE Main Physics
Example 11. ABCD is a square of side 0.2 m. Charges of Electric Potential of Various Systems
-9 -9 -9
2 ´ 10 , 4 ´ 10 and 8 ´ 10 C are placed at the corners A, System Electrical Potential
B and C respectively. The work required to transfer a charge
q
of 2 ´ 10 -9 C from D to the centre of the square is Isolated charge V=
Q P 4 pe0 r
(a) 6.27 ´ 10 -7 J (b) 4.85 ´ 10 -5 J r
(c) 4.8 ´ 10 -4 J (d) 3.2 ´ 10 -2J A ring of charge 1 q
V= ×
q 4 pe0 R + x2
2
Sol. (a) The charges of q A = 2 ´ 10 -9 C; qB = 4 ´ 10 -9 C and
qC = 8 ´ 10 -9 C are placed at the corners A, B and C of the square P
R
ABCD of each side of length 0.2 m. x
Let VD be potential at point D due to point charges placed at A,B
and C, then
A disc of charge s
qC V= [ x 2 + R 2 - x]
q 2 e0
D C
R
P
A B
qA qB
VD = sum of the potentials due to the charges q A , qB and qC
1 q 1 q 1 q Infinitely long line of charge l
= . A + . B + × C V= loge r
4pe 0 AD 4pe 0 BD 4pe 0 CD 2 pe0
1 æ qA q q ö
= ç + B + C ÷ r P
4pe 0 AD BD CD ø
è
Here, AD = CD = 0. 2 m
Finite line of charge l é x2 + l 2 - l ù
and BD = 0. 2 2 + 0. 22 = 0. 2 2 m V= loge ê ú
x 2 pe0
æ 2 ´ 10 -9 4 ´ 10 -9 8 ´ 10 -9 ö êë x2 + l 2 + 1úû
\ VD = 9 ´ 10 9 ç + + ÷
è 0.2 0.2 2 0.2 ø
P
9 ´ 10 9 ´ 2 ´ 10 -9
= (1 + 2 + 4) = 577.26 V
0. 2
Now, potential at point O due to charges q A , qB and qC ,
1 æ qA q q ö
V0 = ç + B + C ÷ Charged spherical shell (a) Inside 0 £ r £ R, V =
q
4pe 0 AO BO CO ø
è
4 pe0 R
1 q
Now, AO = BO = CO = ´ diagonal of square (b) Outside r ³ R, V =
q
2 R
4 pe0 r
1
= ´ 0.2 2 = 0.1 2 m (Q BD = 0.2 2 m)
2
æ 2 ´ 10 -9 4 ´ 10 -9 8 ´ 10 -9 ö
\ V0 = 9 ´ 10 9 ´ ç + + ÷
è 0.1 2 0.1 2 0.1 2 ø
9 ´ 10 9 ´ 2 ´ 10 -9
= (1 + 2 + 4) = 890.82 V Solid sphere of charge (a) Inside 0 £ r £ R,
0.1 2
rR 2 é r2 ù
Potential difference between the points O and D, V= ê3 - 2 ú
R 6 e0 ë R û
VO - VD = 890.82 = 577.26 = 313.56 V
Therefore, work done to transfer a charge, (b) Outside r ³ R,
-9 rR 3 é 1ù
q = 2 ´ 10 C from point D to O is given by V=
3 e0 êë r úû
W = q ´ (VO - VD )
= 2 ´ 10 -9 ´ 313.56 = 6.27 ´ 10 -7 J
Electrostatics 601
Example 12. A solid conducting sphere, having a charge Sol. (a) In case of charged sphere,
Q, is surrounded by an uncharged conducting hollow C
spherical shell. Let the potential difference between the
B
surface of the solid sphere and that of the outer surface of the
hollow shell be V. If the shell is now given a charge of -4 Q, A
the new potential difference between the same two surfaces is a
[JEE Main 2019]
b
(a) -2 V (b) 2 V (c) 4 V (d) V
c
Sol. (d) Initially when uncharged shell encloses charge Q, charge
distribution due to induction will be as shown
1 q
+Q Vout =
4 pe 0 r
–Q
1 q sR
Q while Vin = Vs = [as, q = 4pR 2s]
4 pe 0 R e 0
VB VA b
a
So, (i) VA = (VA ) s + (VB) in + (VC ) in
1 sa -sb sc s
VA = + + = ( a - b + c)
4 pe 0 a e0 e0 e0
The potential on surface of inner shell is
kQ k( -Q) kQ where, q A = 4pa2s
VA = + + …(i)
a b b (ii) VB = (VA ) out + (VB) s + (Vc ) in
Potential on surface of outer shell is 1 q A -sb sc s é a2 ù
kQ k( -Q) kQ = + + = ê - b + cú
VB = + + …(ii) 4 pe 0 b e0 e0 e0 ë b û
b b b
Then, potential difference is where, q A = 4pa2s
æ 1 1ö (iii) VC = (VA ) out + (VB) out + (VC ) s
DVAB = VA - VB = kQ ç - ÷
è a bø 1 qA 1 qB sc
= + +
Given, DVAB = V 4 pe 0 c 4 pe 0 c e0
æ 1 1ö s é a2 - b 2 ù
So, kQ ç - ÷ = V …(iii) = + cú
è a bø ê
e0 ë c û
Finally after giving charge (- 4Q) to outer shell, potential
where q A = 4pa2s and qB = 4pb 2( - s ).
difference will be
DVAB = VA - VB
æ kQ k( -4Q) ö æ kQ k( -4Q) ö Equipotential Surfaces
=ç + ÷ -ç + ÷
è a b ø è b b ø Equipotential surface is an imaginary surface joining the
æ 1 1ö points of same potential in an electric field. So, we can
= kQ ç - ÷ = V [from Eq. (iii)] say that the potential difference between any two points
è a bø
on an equipotential surface is zero.
Hence, we obtain that potential difference does not depend on
the charge of outer sphere and so it remains same.
Example 17. In free space, a particle A of charge 1mC is fallen through a vertical height y (see figure), then (Assume the
held fixed at a point P. Another particle B of the same charge remaining portion to be spherical) [JEE Main 2020]
é qQ ù
When charged particle B is released due to mutual repulsion, it (c) v 2 = y ê + gú
ë 4pe 0R(R + y)m û
moves away from A. In this process, potential energy of system of
charges reduces and this change of potential energy appears as é qQR ù
(d) v 2 = 2y ê 3
+ gú
kinetic energy of B. ë 4pe 0(R + y) m û
Now, potential energy of system of charges at separation of 1 mm,
Kq q Sol. (b) Using law of conservation of total energy,
U1 = 1 2 1
r mv 2 = mgy + ( DPE)
2
Here, q1 = q 2 = 1 ´ 10 -6 C kQq kQq
Here, DPE = PEi - PEf = -
r = 1mm = 1 ´ 10 -3 m R R+y
1 é1 1 ù
9 ´ 10 9 ´ 1 ´ 10 -6 ´ 1 ´ 10 -6 Þ mv 2 = mgy + kQq ê – ú
\ U1 = =9J 2 ë R (R + y) û
1 ´ 10 -3
2kQq y
Potential energy of given system of charges at separation of 9 mm, Þ v 2 = 2gy +
m R(R + y)
9 -6 2
Kq1q 2 9 ´ 10 ´ (1 ´ 10 ) é qQ ù é 1 ù
U2 = = = 1J Þ v 2 = 2y ê + gú
r 9 ´ 10 -3 êQ k = 4pe ú
ë 4 pe 0R (R + y)m û ë 0û
By energy conservation,
Change in potential energy of system of A and B Electric Dipole
= Kinetic energy of charged particle B
An arrangement of two equal and opposite charges
1 separated by a fixed distance is known as an electric
Þ U1 - U2 = mBvB2
2 dipole.
where, mB = mass of particle B = 4 mg Dipole moment is a vector associated with a dipole which is
= 4 ´ 10 -6 ´ 10 -3 kg = 4 ´ 10 -9 kg given as
and vB = velocity of particle B at separation of 9 mm Dipole moment = Magnitude of any one charge
1 ´ Distance of separation between two charges
Þ 9 - 1 = ´ 4 ´ 10 -9 ´ vB2 or p = q ´ 2d
2
Þ vB2 = 4 ´ 10 9 SI unit of dipole moment is coulomb-metre (C-m).
Þ vB = 2 ´ 10 3 ms -1 +q –q
2d
A p B
Example 18. A solid sphere of radius R carries a charge
Q + q distributed uniformly over its volume. A very small
point-like piece of it of mass m gets detached from the bottom Dimensions of p = [M0LTA]
of the sphere and falls down vertically under gravity. This The dipole moment is always directed from negative
piece carries charge q. If it acquires a speed v when it has charge to the positive charge.
Electrostatics 605
Electric Field Intensity and Potential due Example 19. Determine the electric dipole moment of the
to an Electric Dipole system of three charges, placed on the vertices of an
(i) On Axial Line equilateral triangle as shown in the figure. [JEE Main 2019]
1 2 pr
Electric field intensity, E =
4p e 0 (r - a 2 )2
2
–2q
1 2p y
If r > > 2a, then E = .
4p e 0 r3 l l
1 p +q
Electric potential, V = +q
4p e 0 (r 2 - a 2 ) l x
$j - $i $i + $j
–q +q P →E (a) 3 ql (b) 2ql $j (c) - 3 ql $j (d) (ql)
2 2
A O B EA EB
2a Sol. (c) Given system is equivalent to two dipoles inclined at 60°
r
to each other as shown in the figure below
1 p y
If r > > 2a, then V = . A
– –
4p e 0 r 2
(ii) On Equatorial Line p 60° p
1 p
Electric field intensity, E =
4p e 0 (r 2 + a 2 )3/ 2 + + x
EB O B
Now, magnitude of resultant of these dipole moments is
θ
E
θ
pnet = p 2 + p2 + 2p × p cos 60° = 3p = 3ql
y
EA
r
p p
–q +q
θ θ
A B
O x
2a pnet
If r > > 2a, then As, resultant is directed along negative y- direction
1 p pnet = - 3p$j = - 3ql $j
E=
4p e 0 r3
Electric potential, V = 0. Example 20. An electric dipole of moment
(iii) At any Point along a Line Making q Angle p = ( - $i - 3$j + 2k$ ) ´ 10 -29 C-m is at the origin (0, 0, 0). The
with Dipole Axis electric field due to this dipole at r = + $i + 3$j + 5k$ (note that
Electric field intensity, r × p = 0) is parallel to [JEE Main 2020]
1 p (1 + 3 cos2 q ) (a) (+ $i - 3$j - 2k$ ) (b) (- $i - 3$j + 2k$ )
E=
4p e 0 r3 (c) (+ $i + 3$j - 2k$ ) (d) (- $i + 3$j - 2k$ )
E
M Sol. (c) Given, r × p = 0, so r ^ p , i.e. we have following situation
α N
EA Y
EB
K
θ
s E
r co
p r
A θ B 90º p
−q p +q X
p sin θ
So, we have to find direction of electric field at equatorial line. As
1 p cos q E is directed opposite to p at all equatorial points, so direction of E
Electric potential, V =
4p e 0 (r - a 2 cos2 q )
2 is along - p .
So, E = l( - p) = l[ -( - $i - 3$j + 2k$ ) ] = l( + $i + 3$j - 2k$ )
1 p cos q
If r > > 2a, then V = . \ Electric field due to dipole is parallel to ( + $i + 3$j - 2k$ )
4p e 0 r 2
606 JEE Main Physics
d
+ +
– – – – – – – – –
+ + Surface
+ 2
charge
Y Earthed
Capacitance in vacuum (or air) is given by density –σ
C = 4pe 0R Intensity of the electric field between the plates of a
If sphere is kept in a medium of dielectric constant K or capacitor,
e r , then capacity will be s q
E= =
e 0 Ae 0
C = 4pe 0e r R = 4pe 0KR
Potential difference between the plates,
Cylindrical Capacitor qd
V = Ed =
Ae 0
It consists of two-axial cylinders of a
radii a and b and length l. The where, d is the distance between the conductor plates.
electric field exists in the region e A
Its capacity, C = 0
between the cylinders. If K is the d
dielectric constant of the material Following are few important cases related to parallel
between the cylinders, then b plate capacitor
capacitance is given by (i) If both plates of parallel plate capacitor are
2pKe 0l connected by a metallic wire, then
C=
æ bö C=
q q
= =¥
loge ç ÷
èaø V 0
(ii) If both plates are earthed,
Example 23. A cylindrical capacitor has two coaxial
cylinders of length 15 cm and radii 1.5 cm and 1.4 cm. The V1 = 0 V2 = 0
outer cylinder is earthed and the inner cylinder is given a
charge of 3.5 mC. What will be the potential of the inner
cylinder? Neglect and effects (i. e. bending of field lines at the
ends). V = V1 – V 2 = 0
(a) 2. 8 ´ 10 2 V (b) 2. 8 ´ 10 3 V q q
C= = =¥
(c) 2.8 ´ 10 4 V (d) 2.8 ´ 10 5 V V 0
(iii) If two plates have different charges, then
Sol. (c) Here, l = 15 cm = 15 ´ 10 -2 m; a = 1.4 cm ( q - q2 ) ( q - q2 )d
= 1.4 ´ 10 -2 m; b = 1.5 cm q= 1 and V = 1
2 2 Ae 0
= 1.5 ´ 10 -2 m q1 q2
q2 – q1
-6
q = 3.5 mC = 3.5 ´ 10 C 2
2 pe 0 l q1 + q2 q 1 + q2
Now, C=
æ bö 2 2
2.303 log10 ç ÷
è aø q 1 – q2
2p ´ 8.854 ´ 10 -12 ´ 15 ´ 10 -2 2
= = 1.12 ´ 10 -10 F
1.5 ´ 10 -2 q e0 A
2.303 log10 \ C= =
1.4 ´ 10 -2 V d
Since, outer cylinder is earthed, the potential of the inner cylinder Example 24. A parallel plate capacitor has 1mF
will be equal to the potential difference between them. capacitance. One of its two plates is given + 2 mC charge and
Therefore, potential of inner cylinder, the other plate + 4mC charge. The potential difference
q 3.5 ´ 10 -6 developed across the capacitor is [JEE Main 2019]
V= = = 2.89 ´ 10 4 V
C 1.21 ´ 10 -10 (a) 1 V (b) 5 V (c) 2 V (d) 3 V
Electrostatics 609
Sol. (a) Net value of charge on plates of capacitor after steady Example 25. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance
state is reached is 90 pF is connected to a battery of emf 20 V. If a dielectric
q - q1 5
qnet = 2 material of dielectric constant K = is inserted between the
2 3
where, q 2 and q1 are the charges given to plates. plates, the magnitude of the induced charge will be
(Note that this formula is valid for any polarity of charge.) [JEE Main 2018]
(a) 1.2 nC (b) 0.3 nC (c) 2.4 nC (d) 0.9 nC
Here, q 2 = 4 mC, q1 = 2 mC
4 -2 Sol. (a) Magnitude of induced charge is given by
\Charge of capacitor is q = Dqnet = = 1mC
2 Q ¢ = (K - 1) CV0
Potential difference between capacitor plates is æ5 ö
= ç - 1÷ 90 ´ 10 -12 ´ 20 = 1.2 ´ 10 -9 C
Q 1 mC è3 ø
V= = = 1V
C 1 mF Þ Q¢ = 1.2 nC
Effect of Dielectric on Capacitor Example 26. Voltage rating of a parallel plate capacitor is
500 V. Its dielectric can withstand a maximum electric field of
When a dielectric slab of dielectric constant K and
thickness t is placed between the two plates. 106 V/m. The plate area is 10 -4 m 2. What is the dielectric
–q
constant, if the capacitance is 15 pF? (Take,
+q d
e 0 = 8.86 ´ 10 -12C 2/N -m 2) [JEE Main 2019]
(a) 3.8 (b) 8.5 (c) 4.5 (d) 6.2
Sol. (b) As we know, capacitance of a capacitor filled with
K
dielectric medium,
d
t
e0 A e0 A C
Then, C = =
d-t+
t æ 1ö
d - t ç1 - ÷ A=area
K è Kø
(i) If the slab completely fills the space between the V
plates, then t = d, and therefore e KA
C= 0 …(i)
Ke 0 A d
C=
d and electric field between plates is
(ii) If a conducting slab ( K = ¥ ) is placed between the V V
E= Þ d= …(ii)
plates, then d E
e A So, by combining Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
C= 0
d-t CV
K= …(iii)
e 0 AE
(iii) If the space between the plates is completely filled
with a conductor, then t = d and K = ¥. Given, C = 15pF = 15 ´ 10 -12 F,
Then, C = ¥ V = 500 V, E = 10 6 Vm -1,
(iv) When more than one dielectric slabs are placed
A = 10 -4m 2 and e 0 = 8.85 ´ 10 -12 C 2N -1m -2
fully between the plates, then
A e0 Substituting values in Eq. (iii), we get
C=
æ t1 t2 t t ö 15 ´ 10 -12 ´ 500
ç + + 3 + ¼+ n ÷ K= = 8.47 » 8.5
è K1 K 2 K3 Kn ø 8.85 ´ 10 -12 ´ 10 -4 ´ 10 6
t1 t2 t3 tn
Combination of Capacitors
Series Combination In series combination, capacitors
K1 K2 K3 Kn are connected one after another as shown in figure. If a
source of emf V volt is connected between points X and
Y , then charge on each capacitor is same, i. e. + q and - q
and the applied potential difference of the source are
d divided.
610 JEE Main Physics
If V1, V 2 , V3 , ... , V n are potential differences across of a material which give same capacitance when fully
capacitors C1, C2 , C3 , ... , Cn respectively, then inserted in above capacitor, would be [JEE Main 2019]
C1 C2 C3 Cn
+ – + – + – + –
+ – + – + – + – K1 K2 K3 3 mm
q –q q –q q –q q –q
V (a) 4 (b) 36
V = V1 + V 2 + V3 + ...+ V n (c) 12 (d) 14
If Cs = equivalent capacity in series combination, then
Sol. (c) In the given arrangement, capacitor can be viewed as
1 1 1 1 1
= + + + ... + three-different capacitors connected in parallel as shown below
Cs C1 C2 C3 Cn A
Parallel Combination In parallel combination,
capacitors are connected one upon another as shown in K1 K2 K3
figure. If a source of emf V volt is connected between
points X and Y , the potential difference across each Plate area A
capacitors is same but charges on different capacitors are B
different. A
C1
q1 +– – q1
+–
C Plate
q2 +–2 – q2
area A / 3 K K2 K3
+– 1
C3
+–
q3 +– – q3
Cn B
+–
qn +– – qn So, equivalent capacity of the system is
V C eq = C1 + C 2 + C3
If q1, q2, q3 , ... , qn are charges on capacitors C1 , C2 , C3 , ... Cn Ke 0 A K1e 0 A / 3 K2 e 0 A / 3 K3 e 0 A / 3
respectively, then charge delivered by source, Þ = + +
d d d d
q = q1 + q2 + q3 + ....+ qn K1 K2 K3
Þ K= + +
If C p = equivalent capacity in parallel combination, then 3 3 3
C p = C1 + C2 + C3 + ... + Cn Here K1 = 10 , K2 = 12 and K3 = 14
Mixed Combination If n capacitors each of capacity C 10 + 12 + 14
So, K=
are connected in a series to form n row and m such rows 3
are connected in parallel as shown in figure. Þ K = 12
C11 C12 C13 C1n
Example 28. A parallel plate capacitor with square plates
is filled with four dielectrics of dielectric constants
C21 C22 C23 C2n
K1, K 2, K3, K 4 arranged as shown in the figure. The effective
dielectric constant K will be [JEE Main 2019]
C31 C32 C33 C3n
K1 K2 L/2
Cm1 Cm2 Cm3 Cmn
Sol. (*) This capacitor system can be converted into two parts as Sol. (c) Let q 2 be the required charge on 5 mF capacitor. The given
shown in the figure circuit is shown below
C1 C2 L/2 2 µF q – q 4 µF
1 2
q2
L/2 q1
C3 C4 1 5 µF 2
d/2 d/2
1 é 1 1 ù
Energy Stored in a Conductor Þ DU = ´ (5 ´ 10 -6) 2 ê –6
- -6 ú
The work done in charging a conductor is stored as
2 ë 2 ´ 10 5 ´ 10 û
electrostatic potential energy of the charged conductor. 1 5 ´ 5 ´ 10 -12 3
= ´ ´
\ Electrostatic potential energy of the charged conductor 2 10 -6 10
or capacitor, 25 ´ 3 -6
= ´ 10 J
Q2 1 1 20
U = = Q ´ V = CV 2 Þ DU = 3.75 ´ 10 -6 J
2C 2 2
The energy stored per unit volume of space in a capacitor \ Work done in reducing the capacitance from 5 mF to 2 mF by
is called energy density. Charge on either plate of pulling plates of capacitor apart is 3.75 ´ 10 -6 J.
capacitor is
Q = sA = e 0EA Redistribution of Charge
Energy stored in the capaitor is When two isolated charged conductors are connected to
Q ( e EA)2 1 each other, then charge is redistributed in the ratio of
U = = 0 = e 0E 2 × Ad their capacitances.
2C 2 × e 0 A/ d 2
q + q2 C1V1 + C2V 2
Energy stored U Common potential, V = 1 =
Energy density, u = = C1 + C2 C1 + C2
Volume of capacitor Ad
1 C1C2 (V1 - V 2 )2
\
1
u = e 0E 2 Energy loss =
2 2 (C1 + C2 )
When the dielectric is introduced in between parallel This energy is lost in the form of heat in connecting
plate capacitor wires.
(i) and battery is removed When n small drops, each of capacitance C, charged to
potential V with charge q, surface charge density s and
C ¢ = KC, Q¢ = Q potential energy U coalesce to form a single drop.
V E
V¢= , E¢ = Then for new drop,
K K
Total charge = nq, total capacitance = n1/ 3C,
U
and U¢ = total potential = n 2 / 3 V , surface charge density = n1/ 3 s
K
and total potential energy = n 2/ 3 U .
(ii) and battery remains connected
C ¢ = KC, Q ¢ = KQ, V ¢ = V , E ¢ = E and U ¢ = KU Example 32. A 10 mF capacitor is fully charged to a
Note Force between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is potential difference of 50 V. After removing the source
sA Q2 CV 2 voltage, it is connected to an uncharged capacitor in parallel.
|F | = = =
2 e0 2 e0 A 2d Now, the potential difference across them becomes 20 V. The
capacitance of the second capacitor is [JEE Main 2020]
Example 31. A capacitor with capacitance 5 mF is (a) 15 mF (b) 30 mF
charged to 5 mC. If the plates are pulled apart to reduce the (c) 20 mF (d) 10 mF
capacitance to 2 mF, how much work is done? [JEE Main 2019] Sol. (a) Initially we have a capacitor of capacitance,C1 = 10 mF
(a) 6.25 ´ 10 -6 J . ´ 10 -6 J
(b) 216 and V1 = 50 V
(c) 2.55 ´ 10 -6 J (d) 3.75 ´ 10 -6 J Charge on capacitor is
Sol. (d) Potential energy stored in a capacitor is Q = C1V1 = 10 mF ´ 50 V = 500 mC
1 1 Q2 Now, another uncharged capacitor of capacity C 2 is connected in
U = QV =
2 2 C parallel with C1 as shown in figure.
1
So, initial energy of the capacitor, Ui = Q 2 / C1 C1
2
1
Final energy of the capacitor, Uf = Q 2 / C 2
2
A 20 V B
1 é 1 1ù
As we know, work done, W = DU = Uf - Ui = Q 2 ê - ú
2 ë C 2 C1 û
Here, Q = 5 mC = 5 ´ 10 -6 C, C2
(a) 4.5 mC on both (b) + 4.5 mC and - 4.5 mC Sol. (b) Before connecting the two capacitors in parallel,
(c) 3 mC and 6 mC (d) 6 mC and 3 mC Charge on capacitor C , Q1 = CV and charge on capacitor
2 C , Q 2 = 2 C ´ 2 V = 4 CV
Sol. (d) When both spheres are connected by a conducting wire,
charge from higher potential sphere flows to lower potential C, V
sphere till both spheres reach a common potential VC which is – +
given by
Q + Q2
VC = 1
C1 + C 2
+ –
For a sphere, capacitance, C = 4pe 0R 2C, 2V
12 ´ 10 -6 + ( -3 ´ 10 -6)
so, VC = After connecting the two capacitors in parallel,
4pe 0(R1 + R2)
Using law of conservation of charge,
9 ´ 10 -6 9 ´ 10 -6 4 CV – CV = (C + 2 C)Vcommon
= =
æ2 1 ö 4pe 0R 4 CV – CV
4pe 0 ç R + R ÷ Vcommon = =V
è3 3 ø 3C
Values of charges on spheres after redistribution are Vcommon = V
Q1 = charge on first sphere C, V1
(9 ´ 10 -6) + –
Q1 = C1VC = 4pe 0R1 × s
4pe 0R
æ 2 ö
ç 4pe 0 R ÷(9 ´ 10 -6)
è 3 ø + –
=
4pe 0R 2C, 2V1
2
= ´ 9 ´ 10 -6 C Now, final energy of the configuration,
3
1 1 3
2 Uf = CV 2 + ´ 2CV 2 = CV 2
= ´ 9 mC = 6 mC 2 2 2
3
Practice Exercise
ROUND I Topically Divided Problems
Electric Charge, Coulomb’s Force 6. If two charges are placed at a distance of 5 cm. If a
and Electric Field brass sheet is placed between them, the force
between two charges will be
1. Two identical spheres carrying charges -9 mC and (a) decrease to 0 (b) increase to ¥
5 mC respectively are kept in contact and then (c) increase to 0 (d) decrease to ¥
separated from each other. Which amongst the
following statement is (are) correct? 7. The electrostatic force of repulsion between two
13 positively charged ions carrying equal charge is
(a) 1.25 ´ 10 electrons are in excess.
(b) 1.25 ´ 1013 electrons are in deficit.
3.7 ´ 10-9 N, when they are separated by a distance
(c) 4.15 ´ 1012 electrons are in excess. of 5 Å. What are the number of electrons are
(d) None of the above missing from each ion?
(a) 2 (b) 4
2. A glass rod rubbed with silk is used to charge a (c) 0 (d) 10
gold leaf electroscope and the leaves are observed
to diverse. The electroscope thin charged leaf is 8. Two point charges + 3mC and + 8 mC repel each other
exposed to X-rays for short period, then with a force of 40 N. If a charge of - 5 mC is added to
(a) the leaves will diverge further each of them, then the force between them will become
(b) the leaves will melt (a) - 10 N (b) + 10 N
(c) the leaves will not be affected (c) + 20 N (d) - 20 N
(d) None of the above 9. A charged spherical conductor of radius R carries a
3. Two point charges repel each other with a force of charge q0 . A point test charge q0 is placed at a
100 N. One of the charges is increased by 10% and distance x from the surface of the conductor. The
other is reduced by 10%. The new force of repulsion force experienced by the test charge will be
at the same distance would be proportional to
(a) 100 N (b) 121 N (a) (R + x) 2 (b) (R - x) 2
1 1
(c) 99 N (d) None of these (c) (d)
(R - x) 2 (R + x) 2
4. Three charges each of + 1mC are placed at the corners
of an equilateral triangle. If the force between any two 10. Charge q1 = + 6.0 nC is on Y-axis at y = + 3 cm and
charges be F, then the net force on either charge charge q2 = - 60
. nC is on Y-axis at y = - 3 cm.
will be Calculate force on a test charge q0 = 2 nC placed on
(a) 2F (b) F 3 X-axis at x = 4 cm.
(c) 2F (d) 3F (a) - 51.8 $j mN (b) + 51. 8 $j mN
(c) - 5. 18 $j mN (d) 5. 1 8 $j mN
5. Three charges +Q, q and + Q are placed respectively
d 11. Two point charges exert on each other a force F
at distance 0, and d from the origin on the when they are placed r distance apart in air. If they
2
X-axis. If the net force experienced by +Q placed at are placed R distance apart in a medium of
x = 0 is zero, then value of q is [JEE Main 2019] dielectric constant K, they exert the same force. The
+Q +Q distance R equals
(a) (b) r
2 4 (a) (b) rK
-Q -Q K
(c) (d) r
2 4 (c) r K (d)
K
Electrostatics 615
12. In figure, two positive charges q2 and q3 fixed 17. In the electric field shown in figure, the electric
along the Y -axis, exert a net electric force in the lines in the left have twice the separation as that
+ x-direction on a charge q1 fixed along the X-axis. between those on right. If the magnitude of the
If a positive charge Q is added at ( x, 0), the force field at point A is 40 NC -1, the force experienced by
on q1 [NCERT Exemplar] a proton placed at point A is
y y
q2 q2
Q A
x x
q1 O q1 O (x, 0)
q3 q3
(a) (b) (a) 6.4 ´ 10-18 N (b) 3.2 ´ 10-15 N
(a) shall increase along the positive X-axis (c) 5.0 ´ 10-12 N (d) 1.2 ´ 10-18 N
(b) shall decrease along the positive X-axis 18. Two conducting sphere of radii r1 and r2 are charged
(c) shall point along the negative X-axis
to the same surface charge density. The ratio of
(d) shall increase but the direction changes because of
electric field near their surface is
the intersection of Q with q 2 and q3
(a) r12 / r22 (b) r22 / r12
-5
13. A pitch ball A of mass 9 ´ 10 kg carries a charge (c) r1 / r2 (d) 1 : 1
of 5 mC. What must be the magnitude and sign of 19. Figure shows the electric lines of force energy from
the charge on a pitch ball B held 2 cm directly a charged body. If the electric field at A and B are
above the pitch ball A, such that the pitch ball A, E A and EB , respectively and the displacement
remains stationary? between A and B is r, then
(a) 5 ´ 10-6 C (b) 5 ´ 10-12 C
(c) 8 ´ 10-6 C (d) 7.84 ´ 10-12 C
14. There are two charged identical metal spheres A and
B repel each other with a force 3 ´ 10-5 N. Another
A r B
identical uncharged sphere C is touched with A and
then placed at the mid-point between A and B. Net
force on C is
(a) 1 ´ 10-5 N (b) 2 ´ 10-5 N
-5
(c) 1.5 ´ 10 N (d) 3 ´ 10-5 N
(a) E A < EB (b) E A > EB
15. Two small conducting sphere of equal radii have
(c) E A = EB (d) E A = 2EB
charges + 10 mC and - 20 mC respectively and placed
at a distance R from each other experience force F1. 20. Two point charges -q and + q/2 are situated at the
If they are brought in contact and separated to the origin and at the point ( a, 0, 0), respectively. The
same distance,they experience force F2 . The ratio of point along the X-axis, whereas the electric field
F1 to F2 is vanished, is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) –8 : 1 2a
(c) 1 : 8 (d) –2 : 1 (a) x = (b) X = 2a - 2 - 1
2 -1
16. Figure shows the electric field lines around three (c) x = ( 2 - 1) 2a (d) None of these
point charges A, B and C. Which charge has the
largest magnitude? [NCERT Exemplar]
21. The maximum field intensity on the axis of a
uniformly charged ring of charge q and radius R will
B
be
1 q
(a) ×
A 4pe 0 3 3R 2
C 1 2q
(b) ×
4pe 0 3R 2
1 2q
(a) Charge A (c) ×
4pe 0 3 3R 2
(b) Charge B
1 3q
(c) Charges A and B (d) ×
4pe 0 2 3R 2
(d) Charge C
616 JEE Main Physics
22. An insulated sphere of radius R has charge density 28. A point positive charge brought near an isolated
r. The electric field at a distance r from the centre of conducting sphere (figure). The electric field is best
the sphere (r < R) given by [NCERT Exemplar]
rr rR
(a) (b)
3 e0 3 e0
rr rR
(c) (d)
e0 e0
25. A metallic solid sphere is placed in a uniform 29. In a region of space, the electric field is given by
electric field. The lines of force follow the paths
E = 8 $i + `4 $j + 3 k
$ . The electric flux through a surface
shown in figure
of area of 100 units XY-plane is
1 1 (a) 800 units
2 2
(b) 300 units
3 3 (c) 400 units
(d) 1500 units
4 4
(a) 1 (b) 2 Electric Flux and Gauss’s Theorem
(c) 3 (d) 4 30. A cylinder of radius R and length L is placed in a
uniform electric field E parallel to the cylinder axis.
26. A point charge + q is placed at a distance d from an The total flux for the surface of the cylinder is given by
isolated conducting plane. The field at a point P on (a) zero
the other side of the plane is [NCERT Exemplar] (b) pR 2 / E
(a) directed perpendicular to the plane and away from (c) 2 pR 2E
the plane
(c) None of the above
(b) directed perpendicular to the plane but towards
the plane 31. Suppose an imaginary cube is with a charge
(c) directed radially away from the point charge situated at the centre of it. The total electric flux
(d) directed radially towards the point charge passing through each of the faces of the cube will be
27. A hemisphere is uniformly charged positively. The q
(a)
electric field at a point on a diameter away from the 6e 0
centre is directed [NCERT Exemplar] q
(b)
(a) perpendicular to the diameter 2e 0
(b) parallel to the diameter q
(c)
(c) at an angle tilted towards the diameter 12e 0
(d) at an angle tilted away from the diameter (c) None of the above
Electrostatics 617
32. In finding the electric field using Gauss’s law, the 35. The adjacent diagram shows a charge + Q held on
qenc an insulating support S and enclosed by a hollow
formula|E|= is applicable. In the formula, e 0
e 0|A| spherical conductor, O represents the centre of the
is permittivity of free space, A is the area of spherical conductor and P is a point such that
Gaussian surface and qenc is charge enclosed by the OP = x and SP = r. The electric field at point, P will
Gaussian surface. This equation can be used in be
Charge + Q
which of the following situation? [JEE Main 2020]
(a) Only when the Gaussian surface is an r
equipotential surface and|E|is constant on the S P
x
surface.
O
(b) Only when the Gaussian surface is an
equipotential surface.
(c) For any choice of Gaussian surface.
(d) Only when|E| = constant on the surface. Q
(a) zero (b)
33. The electric flux through the surface 4pe 0x 2
Q
[NCERT Exemplar] (c) (d) None of these
S e 0x 2
S S
S
36. The electrostatic potential inside a charged
spherical ball is given by f = ar2 + b, where r is the
+q +q +q
+q distance from the centre, a and b are constants.
Then, the charge density inside the ball is
(a) - 24p a e 0r
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) - 6ae 0
(a) in Fig. (iv) is the largest (c) -24 p e 0
(b) in Fig. (iii) is the least (d) - 6 ae 0 r
(c) in Fig .(ii) is same as fig. (iii) but is smaller than 37. In infinite parallel plane sheet of a metal is
Fig. (iv) charged to charge density s coulomb per square
(d) is the same for all the figures metre in a medium of dielectric constant K.
34. Five charges q1, q2 , q3, q4 and q5 are fixed at their Intensity of electric field near the metallic surface
will be
positions as shown in figure, S is a Gaussian s K
q (a) E = (b) E =
surface. The Gauss’s law is given by ò E × dS = . e 0K 3 e0
e0
s K
Gaussian surface (c) E = (d) E =
2 e 0K 2 e0
40. Which one of the following graphs shows the 45. A charge +q is fixed at each of the points x = x0 ,
variation of electric field strength E with distance d x = 3 x0 , x = 5x0 ...¥, on the X-axis and a charge -q is
from the centre of the hollow conducting sphere? fixed at each of the pointsx = 2x0 , x = 4 x0
x = 6x0 K ¥. Here, x0 is the constant. Take, the
electric potential at a point due to a charge Q at a
distance r from it to be Q / 4 pe 0 r. Then, the potential
(a) (b) at the origin due to the above system of charges is
q q
(a) log e 2 (b) log e 2
4pe 0x0 8pe 0x0
r r (c) 0 (d) ¥
10
46. The charge of + ´ 10-9 C are placed at each of the
3
four corners of a square of side 8 cm. The potential
(c) (d) at the point of intersection of the diagonals, is
(a) 1500 2 V (b) 1800 2 V
(c) 600 2 V (d) 900 2 V
r r
47. A cube of side b has a charge q at each of its
41. A positive point charge q is carried from a point B vertices. Determine the potential due to this charge
to a point A in the electric field of a point charge array at the centre of the cube.
4q 3q
+ Q at O. If the permittivity of free space is e 0 , the (a) (b)
work done in the process is given by (where, a = OA 3 pe 0b 2 p e 0b
and b = OR) 3q 2q
(c) (d)
qQ æ 1 1 ö qQ æ 1 1ö 2 pe 0b2 3 pe 0b
(a) ç + ÷ (b) ç - ÷
4 pe 0 è a b ø 4 pe 0 è a bø
qQ æ 1 1 ö qQ æ 1 1 ö 48. The tangential component of electrostatic field is
(c) ç - ÷ (d) ç 2 + 2÷ continuous from one side of a charged surface to
4 pe 0 è a 2 b 2 ø 4 pe 0 èa b ø
another is [NCERT]
42. The electrostatic potential on the surface of a 1 æ1 1 1ö
charged conducting sphere is 100 V. Two
(a) ç + - ÷ (b) zero
4pe 0 è rA rB rC ø
statements are made in this regard.
1 æ1 1 1ö 1 æ1 1 1ö
S1 : At any point inside the sphere, electric intensity (c) ç - + ÷ (d) ç + + ÷
4pe 0 è rA rB rC ø 4pe 0 è rA rB rC ø
is zero.
S2 : At any point inside the sphere, the electrostatic 49. Four equal point charges Q each are placed in the
potential is 100 V. XY -plane at (0, 2), (4, 2), (4, -2) and (0, - 2). The
Which of the following is a correct statements. work required to put a fifth charge Q at the origin
[NCERT Exemplar]
of the coordinate system (in joule) will be
(a) S1 is true but S 2 is false. [JEE Main 2019]
(b) Both S1 and S 2 are false. Q2 Q2 æ 1 ö
(c) S1 is true, S 2 is also true and S1 is the cause of S 2. (a) (b) ç1 + ÷
4pe 0 4pe 0 è 3ø
(d) S1 is true, S 2 is also true but the statements are
independent. Q2 Q2 æ 1 ö
(c) (d) ç1 + ÷
2 2pe 0 4pe 0 è 5ø
43. A hollow conducting sphere of radius R has a
charge (+Q) on its surface. What is the electric 50. A charge Q is distributed over two concentric
potential within the sphere at a distance r = R/3 conducting thin spherical shells of radii r and R
from its centre? ( R > r). If the surface charge densities on the two
1 Q 1 Q shells are equal, the electric potential at the
(a) × (b) ×
4pe 0 r 4 pe 0 r 2 common centre is [JEE Main 2020]
1 Q
(c) × (d) Zero
4pe 0 R
44. n small drops of same size are charged to V volt r
each. If they coalesce to form a single large drop,
then its potential will be R
(a) Vn (b) Vn -1
(c) Vn1/3 (d) Vn 2/3
Electrostatics 619
B
D E
45°
C C A
d
(a) least along the path AE
(b) least along the path AC
(c) zero along any of the paths (a) Ed (b) E/d
(d) least along AB (c) 2 Ed (d) Ed/2
620 JEE Main Physics
Electric Potential and Electric 66. A particle of mass m and charge q is released from
rest in a uniform electric field. If there is no other
Potential Energy force on the particle, the dependence of its speed v
61. A non-conducting ring of radius 0.5 m carries total on the distance x travelled by it is correctly given
. ´ 10-10 C distributed non-uniformly on
charge of 111 by (graphs are schematic and not drawn to scale)
its circumference producing an electric field [JEE Main 2020]
everywhere in space.
l=0
The value of the line integral òl = ¥ - E × dl (l = 0,
O
(a) v
being centre of ring) in volt is
(a) + 2 (b) –1 x
(c) – 2 (d) zero
62. The variation of potential V with distance x from a
(b) v
fixed point charge is shown in figure. The electric
field strength between x = 0.1 m and 0.3 m is
y x
3 v
(c)
2
x
1
x
0.1 0.2 0.3
(d) v
(a) + 0.4 Vm -1 (b) - 0.4 Vm -1
(c) + 10 Vm -1 (d) - 10 Vm -1 x
63. The electric potential V at any point (x, y, z) in 67. Figure shows electric field lines in which an electric
space is given by V = 4 x2 . The electric field at dipole p is placed as shown. Which of the following
(1, 0, 2) m in Vm -1 is statements is correct? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 8, along negative X-axis
(b) 8, along positive X-axis
(c) 16, along negative X-axis p
–q +q
(d) 16, along positive Z-axis
64. A ball of mass 1 kg carrying a charge 10-8 C moves
from a point A at potential 600 V to a point B at (a) The dipole will not experience any force.
zero potential. The change in its kinetic energy is (b) The dipole will experience a force towards left.
(a) -6 ´ 10-6 erg (c) The dipole will experience a force towards right.
(d) The dipole will experience a force upwards.
(b) -6 ´ 10-6 J
(c) 6 ´ 10-6 J 68. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 60° with
(d) 6 ´ 10-6 erg an electric field of intensity 105 NC -1. It
experiences a torque equal to 8 3 N-m. Calculate
65. A charge – q and another charge + Q are kept at the charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is
two points A and B, respectively. Keeping the 2 cm.
charge + Q fixed at B, the charge – q at A is moved (a) -8 ´ 103 C (b) 8.54 ´ 10-4 C
to another point C such that ABC forms an (c) 8 ´ 10- 3 C (d) 0.85 ´ 10-6 C
equilateral triangle of side l. The net work done in
moving the charge – q is 69. A point Q lies on the perpendicular bisector of an
1 Qq 1 Qq
electrical dipole of dipole moment p. If the distance
(a) (b) of Q from the dipole is r (much larger than the size
4 p e0 l 4 p e0 l 2
of the dipole), then the electric field intensity E at
1 Q is proportional to
(c) Qql (d) zero
4 p e0 (a) r -2 (b) r -4 (c) r -1 (d) r -3
Electrostatics 621
70. A given charge situated at a certain distance from 76. Two identical electric point dipoles have dipole
an electric dipole in the end on position, moments p1 = p i$ and p2 = - p $i are held on the
experiences a force F. If the distance of charge is X-axis at distance a from each other. When
doubled, the force acting on the charge will be released, they move along the X-axis with the
(a) 2 F (b) F/2 direction of their dipole moments remaining
(c) F/4 (d) F/8 unchanged. If the mass of each dipole is m, their
speed when they are infinitely far apart is
71. Two point charges of 1 mC and -1 mC are separated by [JEE Main 2020]
a distance of 100 Å. A point P is at a distance of 10 cm
from the mid-point and on the perpendicular bisector p 1 p 1
(a) (b)
of the line joining the two charges. The electric field a p e 0ma a 2p e 0ma
at P will be
p 2 p 3
(a) 9 NC -1 (b) 0.9 Vm -1 (c) (d)
(c) 90 Vm -1 (d) 0.09 NC -1 a p e 0ma a 2p e 0ma
72. A point dipole p = - p0 x$ is kept at the origin. The Capacitors and Capacitance
potential and electric field due to this dipole on the
Y-axis at a distance d are respectively (Take, V = 0 77. A capacitor connected to a 10 V battery collects a
at infinity) [JEE Main 2019]
charge of 40 mC with air as dielectric and 100 mC with
p p -p a given oil as dielectric. The dielectric constant of the
(a) , (b) 0, oil is
4pe 0d 4pe 0d3
2
4pe 0d3
(a) 1.5 (b) 2.0
p p -p (c) 2.5 (d) 3.0
(c) 0, (d) ,
4pe 0d3 4pe 0d 2 4pe 0d3
78. A slab of copper of thickness b is inserted in
73. Two electric dipoles A, B with respective dipole between the plates of parallel plate capacitor as
moments d A = - 4 qa i$ and d B = - 2 qa $i are placed shown in figure. The separation between the plates
on the X-axis with a separation R, as shown in the is d, if b = d/2, then the ratio of capacities of
figure capacitors after and before inserting the slab will
R be
X d
A B
The distance from A at which both of them produce
the same potential is [JEE Main 2019]
2R 2R
(a) (b)
2+1 2 -1
b
R R
(c) (d) (a) 2 : 1 (b) 2 : 1
2+1 2 -1
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
74. An electric dipole has a fixed dipole moment p, 79. The capacitance of a spherical condensers is 1 mF. If
which makes angle q with respect to X-axis. When
the spacing between two spheres is 1 mm, the radius
subjected to an electric field E1 = E$i , it experiences of the outer sphere is
a torque T1 = tk$ . When subjected to another electric (a) 3 m (b) 7 m
field E2 = 3 E1$j, it experiences a torque T2 = - T1. (c) 8 m (d) 9 m
The angle q is [JEE Main 2017]
80. Two identical metal plates are given positive charges
(a) 45° (b) 60°
Q1 and Q2 (< Q1), respectively. If they are now
(c) 90° (d) 30°
brought close together to form a parallel plate
75. Two electric dipoles of moment p and 64 p are capacitor with capacitance C, the potential
placed in opposite direction on a line at a distance difference between them is
of 25 cm. The electric field will be zero at point Q1 + Q 2 Q1 + Q 2
(a) (b)
between the dipoles whose distance from dipole of 2C C
moment p is Q1 - Q 2 Q1 - Q 2
(a) 10 cm (b) 5 cm (c) (d)
C 2C
(c) 8 cm (d) 20 cm
622 JEE Main Physics
81. A parallel plate capacitor is made of two dielectric 85. Seven capacitors each of the capacitance 2 mF are
blocks in series. One of the blocks has thickness d1 connected in a configuration to obtain an effective
and dielectric constant K 1 and the other has 10
capacitance of mF. Which of the combination(s)
thickness d2 and dielectric constant K 2 as shown in 11
figure. This arrangement can be thought as a shown in figure will achieve the desired result?
dielectric slab of thickness d( = d1 + d2 ) and
effective dielectric constant K . The K is
[NCERT Exemplar]
(a)
d1 K1
d2 K2
(d)
(a) 2 mF (b) 4 mF
(c) 7 mF (d) 9 mF
83. In the arrangement of capacitors shown in figure, 86. Consider the arrangement of three metal plates A,
each capacitor is of 9 mF, then the equivalent B and C of equal surface area and separation d as
capacitance between the points A and B is shown in figure. The energy stored in the
B arrangement, when the plates are fully charged, is
A C1 A
d
B – +
C2 C3 d V
C
C4
e 0 AV 2 e 0 AV 2
(a) 9 mF (a) (b)
2d d
(b) 18 mF 2 e 0 AV 2 3 e 0 AV 2
(c) 4.5 mF (c) (d)
d 2d
(d) 15 mF
84. An electrical technician requires a capacitance of 87. The equivalent capacitance of the combination of
three capacitors, each of capacitance C as shown in
2 mF in a circuit across a potential difference of
figure between points A and B is
1 kV. A large number of 1 mF capacitors are
available to him each of which can withstand a
C1
potential difference of not more than 400 V. C3
A B
Suggest a possible arrangement that requires the
minimum number of capacitors. [NCERT]
C2
(a) Six rows having 3 capacitors in each row C 3C
(b) Three rows having 6 capacitors in each row (a) (b)
2 2
(c) Nine rows having 2 capacitors in each row 1
(d) Two rows having 9 capacitors in each row (c) (d) 2C
3C
Electrostatics 623
88. Figure shows charge ( q) versus voltage ( V ) graph for 92. The force on each plate of parallel plate capacitor
series and parallel combination of two given 1
has a magnitude equal to QE, where Q is the
capacitors. The capacitances are [JEE Main 2019] 2
q(µC) charge on the capacitor and E is the magnitude of
A
electric field between the plates. Then, [NCERT]
E
(a) contributes to the force against which the plates
500 B
2
are moved
80 E
(b) contributes to the force against which the plates
O 10 V V(volt) 3
are moved
(a) 60 mF and 40 mF (c) E contributes force against which the plates are
(b) 50 mF and 30 mF moved
(c) 20 mF and 30 mF (d) None of the above
(d) 40 mF and 10 mF
93. In the circuit shown in the figure, the total charge is
89. In the given circuit, the charge on 4 mF capacitor 750 mC and the voltage across capacitor C2 is 20 V.
will be [JEE Main 2019] Then, the charge on capacitor C2 is [JEE Main 2020]
1 mF C2
4 mF C1=15 µF
5 mF
C3=8 µF
3 mF
+ –
V
10 V
(a) 450 mC
(a) 5.4 mC
(b) 590 mC
(b) 9.6 mC
(c) 160 mC
(c) 13.4 mC
(d) 650 mC
(d) 24 mC
94. A capacitor C is fully charged with voltage V0 . After
90. Two condenser one of capacity C and other of
capacity C/2 are connected to 9V battery as shown disconnecting the voltage source, it is connected in
in figure. The work done in charging fully both parallel with another uncharged capacitor of
C
condensers is capacitance . The energy loss in the process after
2
V the charge is distributed between the two
+ capacitors is [JEE Main 2020]
C C/2 1
– (a) CV 02
3
1
(b) CV 02
(a) (1 / 4) CV 2 6
(b) 2 CV 2 1
(c) CV 02
(c) (3 / 4) CV 2 2
1
(d) (1 / 2) CV 2 (d) CV 02
4
91. Two identical capacitors have the same capacitance
C. One of them is charged to potential V1 and the 95. Two identical parallel plate capacitors of
other to V2. The negative ends of the capacitors are capacitance C each, have plates of area A,
connected together. When the positive ends are also separated by a distance d. The space between the
connected, the decrease in energy of the system is plates of the two capacitors, is filled with three
dielectrics of equal thickness and dielectric
1 1
(a) C (V12 - V 22) (b) C (V12 + V 22) constants K 1, K 2 and K 3. The first capacitor is
4 4
filled as shown in Fig. I, and the second one is filled
1 1 as shown in Fig. II. If these two modified capacitors
(c) C (V1 - V 2) 2 (d) C (V1 + V 2) 2 are charged by the same potential V, the ratio of
4 4
624 JEE Main Physics
the energy stored in the two, would be (E1 refers to 96. A capacitor is made of two square plates each of
capacitor (I) and E2 to capacitor (II)) : [JEE Main 2019] side a making a very small angle a between them
as shown in figure. The capacitance will be close to
K1 [JEE Main 2020]
V1
K2 K1 K2 K3
α
K3
d
(I) (II)
a V2
E1 K 1K 2K 3
(a) = 2
E 2 (K 1 + K 2 + K 3 )(K 2K 3 + K 3 K 1 + K 1 K 2) e 0a æ aa ö
(a) ç1 - ÷
d è 4d ø
E1 (K 1 + K 2 + K 3 )(K 2K 3 + K 3 K 1 + K 1 K 2)
(b) = e a2 æ aa ö
E2 K 1K 2K 3 (b) 0 ç1 + ÷
d è d ø
E1 9 K 1K 2K 3 e a2 æ aa ö
(c) = (c) 0 ç1 -
E 2 (K 1 + K 2 + K 3 )(K 2K 3 + K 3 K 1 + K 1 K 2) ÷
d è 2d ø
E1 (K 1 + K 2 + K 3 )(K 2K 3 + K 3 K 1 + K 1 K 2) e 0a 2 æ 3aa ö
(d) = (d) ç1 - ÷
E2 9 K 1K 2K 3 d è 2d ø
X Y
C1 C2 C3
(a) increase
C5
(b) decrease
(c) not change (a) 1 mF (b) 3 mF (c) 4 mF (d) 5 mF
(d) first increase and then decrease
6. The four capacitors, each of 25 mF are connected as
3. Two particles of equal mass m and charge q are
placed at a distance of 16 cm. They do not shown in figure. The DC voltmeter reads 200 V. The
q charge on each plate of capacitor is
experience any force. The value of is
m V
pe 0 G
(a) (b)
G pe 0 – + – +
7. Three charges - q1, + q2 and -q3 are placed as shown 12. For the circuit shown in figure, which of the
in figure. The x-component of the force on -q1 is following statements is true?
proportional to S1 V 1 =30V S3 V 2 =20V S 2
–q 3 y
C1 = 2pF C2 = 3pF
b
(b) With S3 closed, V1 = V 2 , V 2 = 20V.
–q1 x (c) With S1 and S3 closed, V1 = V 2 = 0.
+q2
q2 q3 q2 q3 (d) With S1 and S3 closed, V1 = 30V , V 2 = 20V.
(a) - sin q (b) - cos q
b2 a2 b2 a2 13. Consider the force F on a charge q due to a
q2 q3 q2 q3 uniformly charged spherical shell of radius R
(c) + sin q (d) + cos q
b2 a2 b2 a2 carrying charge Q distributed uniformly over it.
Which one of the following option is correct for F, if
8. Three large parallel plates have uniform surface q is placed at distance r from the centre of the
charge densities as shown in the figure. Find the
shell? [JEE Main 2020]
electric field at point P. 1 Qq
(a) F = (for r < R)
^
k 4 p e 0 R2
σ z=a 1 Qq
P (b) > F > 0 (for r < R)
–2 σ
4 p e 0 R2
z = –a
1 Qq
(c) F = (for r > R)
–σ 4p e 0 r 2
z = –2a
1 Qq
- 4s $ 4s $ (d) F = (for all r)
(a) k (b) k 4 p e 0 R2
e0 e0
(c)
- 2s $
k (d)
2s $
k
14. Point charges 4 ´ 10-6 C and 2 ´ 10-6 C are placed
e0 e0 at the vertices A and B of a right angled triangle
ABC, respectively. B is the right angle,
9. A 100 eV electron is fired directly towards a large
AC = 2 ´ 10-2 m and BC = 10-2 m. Find the
metal plate having surface charge density 2 ´ 10-6 cm -2 .
magnitude and direction of the resultant electric
The distance from where the electrons be projected
intensity at C.
so that it just fails to strike the plate is
(a) 0.22 mm (b) 0.44 mm (a) 1.73 ´ 104 NC-1 ; 34 .7° (b) 2.38 ´ 108 NC-1 ; 40.9°
(c) 0.66 mm (d) 0.88 mm (c) 4.28 ´ 109 NC-1 ; 45° (d) 4.9 ´ 1010 NC-1 ; 34.7°
10. A uniform electric field pointing in positive 15. A parallel plate capacitor of area A, plate
x-direction exists in a region. Let A be the origin, B separation d and capacitance C is filled with three
be the point on the X-axis at x = + 1 cm and C be the different dielectric materials having dielectric
point on the Y-axis at y = + 1 cm. Then, the constants K1 , K 2 and K 3 as shown in figure. If a
potentials at the points A, B and C satisfy the single dielectric material is to be used to have the
condition same capacitance C is this capacitors, then its
(a) V A < VB (b) V A > VB dielectric constant K is given by
(c) V A < VC (d) V A > VC A/2 A/2
16. A large insulated sphere of radius r charged with If D >> d, the potential energy of the system is best
Q units of electricity is placed in contact with a given by [JEE Main 2019]
small insulated uncharged sphere of radius r¢ and 1 é q2 2qQd ù
in then separated. The charge on smaller sphere
(a) ê- + ú
4pe 0
ë d D2 û
will now be
Qr ¢ 1 é q2 qQd ù
(a) Q (r + r ¢ ) (b) (b) ê+ + ú
r¢ + r 4pe 0 ë d D2 û
(c) Q (r + r ¢ ) (d)
Q 1 é q2 qQd ù
r¢ + r
(c) ê- - ú
4pe 0 ë d 2D 2 û
17. Two charged thin infinite plane sheets of uniform 1 é q2 qQd ù
(d) ê- - ú
surface charge densities s + and s - , where|s +|> |s -| 4pe 0 ë d D2 û
, intersect at right angle. Which of the following
best represents the electric field lines for this 20. Two spherical conductors A and B of radii 1 mm
system? [JEE Main 2020] and 2 mm are separated by a distance of 5 cm and
σ– σ– are uniformly charged. If the spheres are connected
by a conducting wire, then in equilibrium condition,
the ratio of the magnitude of the electric fields at
the surfaces of spheres A and B is
(a) σ+ (b) σ+
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
21. A charge Q is uniformly distributed over a long rod
σ– σ– AB of length L as shown in the figure. The electric
potential at the point O lying at distance L from the
end A is [JEE Main 2013]
O A B
(c) σ+ (d) σ+
L L
Q 3Q
(a) (b)
8p e 0L 4p e 0L
Q Q ln 2
(c) (d)
18. In the circuit arrangement shown in figure, the 4p e 0L ln 2 4p e 0L
value of C1 = C2 = C3 = 30 pF and C4 = 120 pF. If the
combination of capacitors is charged with 140V DC 22. Concentric metallic hollow spheres of radii R and
supply, the potential differences across the four 4R hold charges Q1 and Q2 , respectively. Given that,
capacitors will be respectively surface charge densities of the concentric spheres
C3 are equal. The potential difference V ( R) - V ( 4 R) is
[JEE Main 2020]
C1 C4
3Q2 3Q1
C2 (a) (b)
4pe 0R 16pe 0R
3Q1 Q2
(c) (d)
4pe 0R 4pe 0R
+ –
140 V 23. A 2mF capacitor is charged as shown in figure. The
(a) 80 V, 40V, 40V and 20 V percentage of the stored energy dissipated after the
(b) 20V, 40V, 40V and 80 V switch S is turned to position 2 is
(c) 35V, 35V, 35V and 35 V 1 2
(d) 80V, 20V, 20V and 20 V
S
19. A system of three charges are placed as shown in V 8µ F
the figure
2µ F
D
24. Two parallel plane sheets 1 and 2 carry uniform If Q is now moved along the equatorial line to P¢
such that OP ¢ = æç ö÷, the force on Q will be close to
charge densities s1 and s2 , as shown in figure. The y
magnitude of the resultant electric field in the è3 ø
region marked III is (s1 > s 2 ) æ y >> 2a ö
ç ÷
è3 ø [JEE Main 2019]
σ1 σ2 F
+ + (a) (b) 3F (c) 9F (d) 27F
+ + 3
+ +
+ + 27. A parallel plate capacitor is made of two square
I + II III
+ plates of side a separated by a distance d (d<<a).
+ +
+ + The lower triangular portions is filled with a
+ + dielectric of dielectric constant K , as shown in the
Sheet 1 Sheet 2
figure. Capacitance of this capacitor is
[JEE Main 2019]
s + s2 s s
(a) 1 (b) 1 2
2 e0 e0
s1 s2 d
(c) (d)
2 s 2 e0 2 e0 K
L L
(a) 2p (b) 2p (a) (b)
2
æ qE ö q2E 2
g2 + ç ÷ g2 -
èmø m2
L L
(c) 2p (d) 2p (c) (d)
æ qE ö æ qE ö
çg + ÷ çg - ÷
è mø è mø
29. A parallel plate capacitor has plate of length l,
26. Charges –q and +q located at A and B respectively, width w and separation of plates is d. It is
constitute an electric dipole. Distance AB = 2a, O is connected to a battery of emf V. A dielectric slab of
the mid-point of the dipole and OP is perpendicular the same thickness d and of dielectric constant
to AB. A charge Q is placed at P, where OP = y and K = 4 is being inserted between the plates of the
y > > 2a. The charge Q experiences an electrostatic capacitor. At what length of the slab inside plates,
force F. will the energy stored in the capacitor be two times
P the initial energy stored? [JEE Main 2020]
2l l l l
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 4 2
Q P′
30. The parallel combination of two air filled parallel
O plate capacitors of capacitance C and nC is
A B connected to a battery of voltage V. When the
–q +q
capacitors are fully charged, the battery is removed
and after that a dielectric material of dielectric
628 JEE Main Physics
constant K is placed between the two plates of the 34. Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear
first capacitor. The new potential difference of the charge densities l1 and l2 respectively are placed
combined system is [JEE Main 2019] at a distance of R metres. The force per unit length
(n + 1)V nV æ 1 ö
(a) (b) on either wire will be ç K = ÷
(K + n ) K+n è 4 pe 0 ø
V 2 l1l 2 2 l1l 2
(c) V (d) (a) K (b) K
K+n R2 R
l1l 2 ll
(c) K (d) K 1 2
31. A charged particle (mass m and charge q) moves R2 R
along X-axis with velocity v0 . When it passes 35. In the figure below, what is the potential difference
through the origin, it enters a region having between the points A and B and between B and C
uniform electric field E = -E $j which extends upto respectively, in steady state?
x = d. Equation of path of electron in the region
3µF 1µ F
( x > d) is [JEE Main 2020] B
y
3µF 1µF
E
1µF
O x 10Ω
v0 100V
20Ω
d A C
AK e 0 æ ad ö A e 0K æ a 2d 2 ö
(c) ç1 + ÷ (d) ç1 + ÷
d è 2 ø d è 2 ø A B
now disconnected and the capacitors are connected 42. In a parallel plate capacitor set up, the plate area
in parallel to each other in such a way that the of capacitor is 2m 2 and the plates are separated by
positive terminal of one is connected to the negative 1 m. If the space between the plates are filled with
terminal of the other. The final energy of the a dielectric material of thickness 0.5 m and area
configuration is 2m2 (see figure) the capacitance of the set up will
(a) infinite (b) zero be ……… e 0 . (Dielectric constant of the material
3C V 2 6C V 2
= 3.2)
(c) (d)
2 2 (Round off to the nearest integer)
d
39. A point charge q moves from point P to point S
along the path PQRS in a uniform electric field E
pointing parallel to the positive direction of the
K
X-axis as shown in figure.
Y
E
P(a, b, 0) d/2 [JEE Main 2021]
X
43. A 10 mF capacitor and a 20 mF capacitor are connected
(0, 0, 0)S
Q(2a, 0, 0) in series across 200 V supply line. The charged
capacitors are then disconnected from the line and
R(a, –b, 0) reconnected with their positive plates together and
negative plates together and no external voltage is
The coordinates of the points P, Q, R and S are applied. What is the potential difference (in volt)
( a, b, 0) (2a, 0, 0), (a, – b, 0) and (0, 0, 0), across each capacitor?
respectively. The work done by the field in the
44. A 5 mF capacitor is charged fully by a 220V supply.
above process is given by the expression
(a) qE (b) - qaE It is then disconnected from the supply and is
2 2 2 2 connected in series to another uncharged 2.5 mF
(c) q ( a + b ) + E (d) 3qE ( a + b )
capacitor. If the energy change during the charge
X
40. The electron is projected from a distance d and with redistribution is J, then value of X to the
initial velocity u parallel to a uniformly charged 100
flat conducting plate as shown in figure. It strikes nearest integer is ……… . [JEE Main 2020]
the plate after travelling a distance l along the 45. A 60 pF capacitor is fully charged by a
direction. The surface charge density of conducting 20 V supply. It is then disconnected from the
plate is equal to supply and is connected to another uncharged
P u 60 pF capacitor in parallel. The electrostatic energy
that is lost in this process by the time, the charge is
redistributed between them is(in nJ) ……… .
X [JEE Main 2020]
l
46. A parallel plate capacitor whose capacitance C is
Y 14pF is charged by a battery to a potential
2de 0m u 2
2de 0m u difference V = 12V between its plates. The charging
(a) (b) battery is now disconnected and a porcelain plate
el 2 el
de m u 2 de 0m u with K = 7 is inserted between the plates, then the
(c) 0 (d) plate would oscillate back and forth between the
el el
plates with a constant mechanical energy of
Numerical Value Questions ……… pJ. (Assume no friction) [JEE Main 2021]
41. 27 identical drops of mercury are charged 47. A parallel plate capacitor is made of two circular
simultaneously to the same potential of 10 V each. plates separated by a distance of 5 mm with a
Assuming drops to be spherical, if all the charged dielectric of dielectric constant 22. between them.
drops are made to combine to form one larger When the electric field in the dielectric is
drop, then the potential (in volt) of larger drop 3 ´ 104 V/m, the charge density of the positive plate
would be ……… . will be close to 6 ´ 10- x C/m2 , where the value of x
is …… .
Answers
Round I
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (d)
51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (c) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (a)
61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (d) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (d)
71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (b) 76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (a) 80. (d)
81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (a) 85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (d) 88. (d) 89. (d) 90. (c)
91. (c) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (d) 96. (c)
Round II
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. 90 42. 3 43. 88.89 44. 4 45. 6 46. 864 47. 7
Solutions
Round I Then, according to the Coulomb’s law, the electrostatic
force between two charges q1 and q2 such that the
1. Each sphere having -2 mC.
distance between them is (r ) given as
q 2 ´ 10-6 1 q1q2
\ n= =- = 1.25 ´ 1013 F = ×
e -1.6 ´ 10–19 4pe 0 r 2
Thus, 1.25 ´ 1013 electrons are in excess.
\Net force on charge Q placed at origin, i.e.
2. Charge on the glass rod is positive, so charge on the at x = 0 in accordance with the principle of
gold leaves will also be positive. Due to X-rays, more superposition can be given as
electrons from leaf will be emitted, so leaf becomes 1 Q´q 1 Q ´Q
more positive and diverse further. Fnet = × + ×
4pe 0 æ d ö 2
4pe 0 (d )2
qq ç ÷
3. \ 100 = k 1 2 2 è2ø
r
Since, it has been given that, Fnet = 0.
Now, q1 = 0.9q1 (decrease by 10%)
1 Q ´q 1 Q ´Q
and q2 = 1.1q2 (increase by 10%) Þ × + × =0
4pe 0 æ d ö 2 4pe 0 (d )2
k(0.9 q1 )(1.1 q2) ç ÷
Q F¢ = è2ø
r2
F ¢ 0.9 ´ 1.1 1 Q´q 1 Q ´Q
Þ = Þ × =- ×
100 1 4pe 0 æ d ö 2 4pe 0 (d )2
ç ÷
\ F ¢ = 99 N è2ø
3 4 2 cm
q0 FAB
3 θ θ
F2
F1 A
5 F q1
θ
q2 m 1g
r = 4 cm (on equatorial line)
Let q2 be charge on the pitch ball B held 2 cm above
= 4 ´ 10-2 m
the pitch ball A, so that the pitch ball A remains
and q0 = 2 nC = 2 ´ 10-9 C, F = ? stationary. It can be possible only, if the charges on
\ F = F1 cos q + F2 cos q two pitch balls are of opposite signs,
1 qq0 i. e. if charge on pitch ball A is positive, charge on B
=2´ cos q
4pe 0 r 2 must be negative. Then, the force on pitch ball A due
to B, i. e. FAB will act vertically upwards (figure). For
6 ´ 10-9 ´ 2 ´ 10-9 3
= 2 ´ 9 ´ 109 ´ ´ charge q1 to remain stationary,
(5 ´ 10-2)2 5 1 qq
FAB = m1 g or × 1 2 = m1 g
or F = 5.18 ´ 10–5 N 4pe 0 AB2
Clearly, this force is along $j. Here, AB = 2 cm = 0.02 m
So, F = -51.8 $j mN 5 ´ 10-6 ´ q2
\ 9 ´ 109 ´ = 9 ´ 10-5 ´ 9.8
q1 q2 (0.02)2
11. As, F =
4pe 0r 2 or q2 = 7.84 ´ 10-12 C
e
In a medium of dielectric constant, K = 14. If same charges on spheres A and B are q, then
e0
q1 q2 1 q2
F¢ = force, F = = 3 ´ 10-5 N
4peR2 4pe 0 r 2
632 JEE Main Physics
Let E1 and E2 are the values of electric field due to q1 the charge and an equal positive charge develops on
and q2, respectively. opposite side of the plane.
1 q 1 10 ´ 10-6
Here, E1 = × 12= ´ – +
4pe 0 AC 4pe 0 (12 + 32)
– +
= 9 ´ 109 ´ 10 ´ 10-7 P
– +
= 9 10 ´ 102 +q
\ E1 = 9 10 ´ 102[cos q1 (- $i ) + sin q1$j ] – +
–
From DOAC, +
C
Hence, the field at a point P on the other side of the
√ 10 plane is directed perpendicular to the plane and away
3 from the plane as shown in figure.
θ1 27. When the point is situated at a point on diameter
O A
1 away from the centre of hemisphere charged
3 uniformly positively, the electric field is perpendicular
sin q1 = to the diameter. The components of electric intensity
10
parallel to the diameter cancel out.
1
and cos q1 =
10 28. Electric field lines always move from positive to
negative charge and is always normal to the surface of
é 1 3 $jù
\ E1 = 9 10 ´ 102ê (- $i ) + úû conductor.
ë 10 10
29. Here, E = 8i$ + 4$j + 3k
$
= 9 ´ 102 [- $i + 3$j]
S = 100 k $
= (-9 $i + 27$j) ´ 102 V/m (direction of area is perpendicular to XY-plane)
-6
1 - 25 ´ 10 \ f = E × S = (8$i + 4$j + 3k
$ ) × 100 k
$ = 300 units
and E2 = ×
4pe 0 (42 + 32)
30. Flux through surface A,
= 9 ´ 103 V /m
dS
From DOBC,
C
A B
3 5
θ2 f A = E ´ p R2
O B and fB = - E ´ pR2
4
3 Electric flux through the curved surface,
sin q2 = f = ò E × dS = ò E dS cos 90° = 0
5
4 \ Total flux = EpR2 - EpR2 + 0 = 0
and cos q2 =
5 q q
32. Equation|E| = enc gives ò E × dA = enc
\ E2 = 9 ´ 103 [cos q2$i - sin q2$j] e 0 | A| e0
é4 3 ù Now, in finding the electric field by above equation,
E2 = 9 ´ 103 ê $i - $jú
ë 5 5 û the integral is easy to evaluate, if|E| = constant. Also,
if|E| = constant for the surface, then surface is
= (72 i$ - 54 $j) ´ 102 equipotential.
\ E = E1 + E2 33. The electric flux through a surface depends only on
= (63 $i - 27$j) ´ 102 V/m amount of charge enclosed by that surface. It does not
depend on size and shape of the surface, as per
25. In a uniform electric field, field lines should be Gauss’s theorem in electrostatic. Therefore, electric
straight but line of force cannot pass through the body flux through the given surfaces is the same for all the
of metal sphere and must end/start from the sphere figures.
normally. All these conditions are fulfilled only in
34. According to Gauss’s theorem in electrostatics,
option (d). q
26. When a point charge + q is placed at a distance (d )
ò E × dS = e 0 × Here, E is due to all the charges q1,
from an isolated conducting plane, some negative q2, q3 , q4 and q5 . As, q is charge enclosed by the
charge developes on the surface of the plane towards Gaussian surface, therefore q = q2 + q4.
634 JEE Main Physics
or E=
Q 40. Inside hollow sphere, E = 0. On the surface of hollow
4pe 0x2 sphere, E = maximum and outside the sphere, E µ 1 /r 2.
So the variations are correctly shown in option (d).
36. Here, f = ar 2 + b
41. As, work done, WBA = q (V A - VB )
df
As, E=- = - 2ar æ Q
dr Q ö qQ æ 1 1 ö
= qç - ÷= ç - ÷
q è 4pe 0a 4pe 0b ø 4pe 0 è a b ø
\ ò E × dS = e 0
42. As we know, at any point inside a charged
q kq
- 2ar × 4pr 2 = conducting sphere, E = 0 and V = = potential on the
e0 R
surface = 100 V
Þ q = - 8 e 0apr3 …(i)
dV d
q Also, E=- =- (constant) = Zero
\ r= dr dr
4 3
pr 43. Electric potential inside the hollow conducting sphere
3
is constant and equal to potential at the surface of the
Þ r = - 6 ae 0 [from Eq. (i)] Q
sphere, i. e. .
s s æ e ö 4pe 0R
37. We have, E = = çQ = K÷
2 e 2 e 0K è e0 ø 4 4
44. As, pR3 = n ´ pr3
3 3
38. The charge on cylinder A, q = ll
\ R = n1/3 r
Long charged
nq
cylinder New potential, V ¢ = = n 2/3V
4pe 0r
45. As we have,
– –
–
+ r + – q æ 1 1 ö q æ1 1 1 ö
V = ç1 + + + ¼÷ - ç + + ¼÷
– + + – l 4pe 0x0 è 3 5 ø 4pe 0 x0 è 2 4 6 ø
– A + a –
– + + – q æ 1 1 1 ö q
= ç1 - + - + ¼÷ = log e 2
B – + b+ – 4pe 0x0 è 2 3 4 ø 4pe 0x0
– + + –
46. Potential at the centre O,
Hollow co-axial,
conducting cylinder 1 q
V =4´ ×
4pe 0 a 2
Total charge = Linear charge density ´ Length 10
where, q= ´ 10-9 C, in magnitude
This charge spreads uniformly on A and a charge -q is 3
induced on B. Let E be the electric field produced in and a = 8 cm = 8 ´ 10-2 m
the space between the two cylinders. Consider a
Gaussian cylindrical surface of radius r between the +q –q
two given cylinders.
Electric flux linked with the Gaussian surface, a/√2
a
fE = ò E × dS = ò E × dS cos 0° = E òdS = E ´ 2prl
rA R
B Q2
rB Q1
q r
X
O
Z
Let E be the electric field at point P, thus E cos q is the Let Q1 and Q2 be the charges over inner and outer
tangential component of electric field E. shells, such that charge densities are equal on both
shells.
To prove that E cos q is continuous from one to another Q
side of the charge surface, we have to find the value of Charge density of inner shell, s = 1 2
4 pr
ò E × dl. If it comes to be zero, then we can say that
ABA Q2
tangential component of E is continuous. Charge density of outer shell, s =
4 p R2
636 JEE Main Physics
We know that, change in kinetic energy = Work done 72. The given problem can be shown as clearly potential
= q(V A - VB ) difference at point P due to dipole is
= 10- 8 (600 - 0) = 6 ´ 10- 6 J
P
65. As, net work done = final PE - initial PE
Qq Qq
= - = zero
4pe 0l 4pe 0l r
A p B
66. mq –q +q
a a
F=qE
V = V AP + VBP (scalar addition)
k(- q) k(q)
E Þ V = + …(i)
AP BP
F q Here, AP = BP = a 2 + r 2
Acceleration of the particle, a = = ×E
m m kq kq
\ V =- + =0 …(ii)
Velocity v and distance x can be related using 2
a +r 2
a 2 + r2
v2 - u 2 = 2ax
Now, electric field at any point on Y -axis, i.e.
æq ö
Þ v = 2ç E ÷ x (Q u = 0 ) equatorial line of the dipole can be given by
èm ø kp
E=- 3 (standard expression)
æq ö r
or v2 = 2ç E ÷ x
èm ø 1 p
Þ E=-
This equation resembles a parabola y2 = 4ax. So, the 4pe 0 r3
graph between v and x will be as shown in option (c). Given, r=d
1 p
67. In figure, spacing between electric lines of force \ E=- …(iii)
increases from left to right. Therefore, E on left is 4pe 0 d3
greater that E on right. Force on + q charge of dipole 73. As, dipole moments point in same direction
is smaller and to the right. Force on - q charge of dA dB
dipole is bigger and to the left. Hence, the dipole will + − + −
A B
experience a net force towards the left.
So, potential of both dipoles can be same at some point
68. Here, q = 60° , E = 105 NC–1, between A and B.
t = 8 3 N-m, q = ?,2 a = 2 cm = 2 ´ 10-2 m Let potentials are same at P, distant x from B as
shown below
From, t = pE sin q = q (2a ) E sin q
A P B
t
or q=
2 aE sin q
R–x x
8 3
= 4qa 2qa
2 ´ 10-2 ´ 105 ´ sin 60° Then, 2
=
(R - x) (x)2
8 3
= Þ 2 x2 = (R - x)2 Þ 2x=R-x
2 ´ 103 ´ 3 /2 R
Þ x=
or q = 8 ´ 10-3 C 2+1
1
69. On equatorial line of electric dipole, E µ Distance from A is
r3
1 R 2R
70. In case of an electric dipole, F µ 3 R - x= R - =
r 2+1 2+1
\ New force = F /23 = F /8
74. Y
71. The point lies on equatorial line of a short dipole.
p
\ E=
4pe 0r3 p
90° – q
9 ´ 109 (10-6 ´ 10-8 )
= q
(10-1 )3 X
-2 –1 –1
= 9 ´ 10 NC = 0.09 NC
638 JEE Main Physics
Considering both dipoles as a system, we find that net 80. On bringing the charged metal plates closer, electric
external force on system is zero, i.e. Fext = 0. field E in the intervening space is
So, total mechanical energy = constant Q1 Q2
( ME )i = ( ME )f
or ( KE )i + ( PE )i = ( KE )f + ( PE )f
As, initially they are released from rest, so initial KE
is zero and finally they are infinite apart, so final PE E
is zero.
æ 2kp1 p2 ö 1 1
0 + ç- cos 180° ÷ = m1v12 + m2v22 + 0
è r3 ø 2 2
d
Here, m1 = m2 = m, p1 = p2 = p, r = a
s1 s Q1 Q2
1 1 2kp2 \ E= - 2 = -
mv12 + mv22 = 3 …(i) 2 e 0 2 e 0 2 Ae 0 2 Ae 0
2 2 a
JEE NEET ADDA
This Pdf Is
Download From
www.jeeneetadda.in
VISIT NOW !!
Electrostatics 639
88. In the given figure, So, potential difference across upper branch = 10 V
slope of OA > slope of OB Using Q = C ´ V , charge delivered to upper branch is
Since, we know that, Q = C eq¢ ×V
net capacitance of parallel combination > net = 2.4 mF ´ 10V = 24 mC
capacitance of series combination As we know, in series connection, same charge is
\ Parallel combination’s capacitance, shared by capacitors, so charge on 4 mF capacitor and
500 mC 6 mF capacitor would be same,
C p = C1 + C 2 = = 50 mF ... (i) i.e. Q4¢ mF = 24 mC
10 V
Series combination’s capacitance, 90. The two condensers are connected in parallel, we have
C1C 2 80 mC C 3C
Cs = = = 8 mF … (ii) Cp = C +
=
C1 + C 2 10 V 2 2
\Total work done in charging both the condensers,
or C1C 2 = 8 ´ (C1 + C 2) = 8 ´ 50 mF
1 1 3C 2 3
= 400 mF [using Eq. (i)] …(iii) W = C pV 2 = ´ V = CV 2
2 2 2 4
From Eqs. (i) and (iii), we get
91. On sharing of charges loss in electrical energy,
C1 = 50 - C 2 and C1C 2 = 400
C1C 2
Þ C 2 (50 - C 2) = 400 DU = (V1 - V 2)2
2(C1 + C 2)
Þ 50 C 2 - C 22 = 400 In present case, C1 = C 2 = C
or C 22 - 50 C 2 + 400 = 0 C2 1
\ DU = (V1 - V 2)2 = C (V1 - V 2)2
+ 50 ± 2500 - 1600 + 50 ± 30 2(2C ) 4
Þ C2 = =
2 2 92. Let the distance between the plates be increased by a
Þ C 2 = + 40 mF or + 10 mF very small distance Dx. The force on each plate is F.
∆x
Also, C1 = 50 - C 2 A
Þ C1 = + 10 mF or + 40 mF
Hence, capacitance of two given capacitors is 10 mF
d
and 40 mF.
89. Given circuit is The amount of work done in increasing the separation
1µ F by Dx
= Force × Increased distance
4µ F
= F × Dx …(i)
5µ F
Increase in volume of capacitor
3µ F = Area of plates × Increased distance
= A × Dx
Energy
u = Energy density =
+ – Volume
10V Energy = u ´ Volume = u × A × Dx …(ii)
As, energy = work done
In parallel, C eq = 5 + 1 = 6 mF u × A × Dx = F × Dx [from Eqs. (i) and (ii)]
6 ´4 Þ F = u× A
¢ =
and in series, C eq = 2.4 mF
6+4 1
= e 0E 2 × A æçQ u = 1 e E 2 and E = V ö
è ÷
dø
0
This is equivalent to 2 2
2.4µF
1 V2
= e0 × 2 × A
2 d
æe A ö V 1 æçQ C = e 0 A , CV = q ö÷
3µ F = ç 0 ×V ÷ ´
è d ø d 2 è d ø
1
= × E ×C ×V
+ –
2
1
10V = QE
2
Electrostatics 641
1 1
The factor of in the force can be explained by the fact = CV 02 + 0
2 2
that the field is zero inside the conductor and outside 1
the conductor, field is E. So, the average value of the = CV 02
2
E
field, i. e. contributes to the force against which the and final electrical energy,
2
plates are moved. 1æ Cö 2
Uf = çC + ÷VC
2 è 2ø
93. C2
2
C1=15 µF 1 æ3C ö æ2 ö
C = ç ÷ ç V0 ÷
B 2 è 2 ø è3 ø
1 3C 4 2
C3=8 µF =
´ ´ V0
2 2 9
+ – 1
A D = CV 02
V 3
In given arrangement, Loss in electrical energy,
VBC = potential drop across C 2 = 20V DU loss = U i - U f
As combination of capacitors C 2 and C3 is in parallel, so 1 1
potential drop across C3 is also 20 V. = CV 02 - CV 02
2 3
So, Q3 = charge on C3 = C3 ´ V 1 2
= CV 0
= 8 ´ 10-6 ´ 20 = 160 mC 6
Also, total charge given by cell, Q = 750 mC
95. A capacitor filled with dielectrics can be
As combination of capacitors C 2 and C3 is in series treated/compared as series/parallel combinations of
with capacitor C1, so charge on capacitor having individual dielectric. e.g.
C1 = charge on combination of capacitors
C 2 and C3 = total charge given by cell.
A/3
Hence, Q2 + Q3 = 750 mC KK11
C1 d é K 2K 3 + K 1K 3 + K 1 K 2 ù
=
3e 0 A êë ú
K 1K 2K 3 û
C2
≈
3e 0 A é K1 K 2 K3 ù
C II = …(ii)
d êë K 1 K 2 + K 2 K 3 + K 3 K 1 úû
C3 On dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii), we get
CI e A d (K 1K 2 + K 2K 3 + K 3 K 1 )
= 0 (K 1 + K 2 + K 3 ) ´
Capacitance in the equivalent circuit are C II 3d 3e 0 A (K 1K 2K 3 )
æ Aö (K 1 + K 2 + K 3 )(K 1 K 2 + K 2K 3 + K 3 K 1 )
e0 ç ÷ =
è3ø e A 9K 1K 2K 3
C1 = K1 = 0 K1
d 3d 1
Now, energy stored in capacitor, E = CV 2
æ Aö 2
e0 ç ÷
è3ø e A Þ E µC
C2 = K2 = 0 K2
d 3d EI C
\ = I
æ Aö EII CII
e0 ç ÷
è3ø e A 96. For given capacitor, consider a small width dx at a
and C3 = K3 = 0 K3
d 3d distance x from origin O.
So, equivalent capacitance,
C I = C1 + C 2 + C3 α
d+αx
e A e A e A d
= 0 K1 + 0 K 2 + 0 K3
3d 3d 3d x
dx
e0 A
CI = (K 1 + K 2 + K 3 ) …(i) dx
3d a
Case II
d/3 d/3 d/3 α
C1 C2 C3
K1 K3 K2 ⇒
For this elemental capacitor, we have
A
Area of each plate = a ´ dx
Distance between plates = d + ax
e adx
d Capacity of this elemental capacitor, dC = 0
d + ax
Total capacity of arrangement is sum of capacitances
Capacitance of equivalent circuit are
of all such elemental capacitors because they all are in
e A 3e A parallel.
C1 = 0 × K 1 = 0 K 1
æ ö
d d a a e a e a æ aa ö
ç ÷ Hence, Csystem = ò dC = ò 0
× dx = 0 ln ç1 + ÷
è3ø 0 0 d + ax a è d ø
e0 A 3e A aa
C2 = K2 = 0 K2 As, for small values of ,
æ ö
d d d
ç ÷ aa ö aa 1 æ aa ö
2
è3ø æ
ln ç1 + ÷» - ç ÷
è d ø d 2è d ø
e0 A 3e A
and C3 = K3 = 0 K3
æ ö
d d e 0a 2 æ aa ö
ç ÷ So, Csystem = ç1 - ÷
è3ø d è 2d ø
Electrostatics 643
4K e 0 A
Round II C¢ =
3+ K d
1. In an equilateral triangle, distance of centroid from all
4K æ e Aö
the vertices is same (say r). = C0 çQ C 0 = 0 ÷
K +3 è d ø
\ V = V1 + V 2 + V3
1 é q1 q2 q3 ù 1 é 2q q q ù 5. The arrangement shows a Wheatstone bridge.
= + + ú= - - =0
4pe 0 êë r r r û 4pe 0 êë r r r úû C1 C 4
As = = 1, therefore the bridge is balanced.
A
C3 C5
2q 1 1 1 2
= + = , C s1 = 2 mF
r C s1 4 4 4
r Similarly, C s2 = 2 mF
r O
\Effective capacitance
B C
–q –q = C p = C s1 + C s2
1 2q = 2 + 2 = 4 mF
But EA = × along AO,
4pe 0 r 2 6. Charge on each plate of capacitor will be
1 q Q = ± CV
EB = × 2 along OB
4pe 0 r = ± 25 ´ 10-6 ´ 200
1 q
and EC = × along OC = ± 5 ´ 10-3 C
4pe 0 r 2
Obviously, EB + EC will also be in the direction of AO 7. Force on - q1 due to q2,
(extended) and hence, EA and (EB + EC ) being in same kq1 q2
F12 = , along X-axis
direction will not give zero resultant. b2
2. Bob will experience an additional force, F = q E in kq1 q3
Force on - q1 due to - q3 , F13 = ,
vertically upward direction and hence, effective a2
acceleration due to gravity is reduced from g to ( g - a ). at Ð q with negative direction of Y -axis.
Consequently, time period of oscillation will become \x-component of force on - q1 is
l Fx = F12 + F13 sin q
T = 2p
(g - a)
éq q ù
i. e. time period will increase. = kq1 ê 22 + 32 sin qú
ëb a û
3. They will not experience any force, if|FG |=|Fe| éq q ù
i. e. Fx µ ê 22 + 32 sin qú
m2 1 q2 ëb a û
Þ G = ×
(16 ´ 10-2)2 4pe 0 (16 ´ 10-2)2
8. Here, E = E1 + E2 + E3
q
Þ = 4 pe 0G æ s ö $ æ 2s ö $ æ s ö $
m = ç+ ÷ (- k) + ç ÷ (- k) + ç ÷ (- k)
è 2e 0 ø è 2e 0 ø è 2e 0 ø
4. The given situation can be shown as a combination of
æ 2s ö $
two capacitors =-ç ÷k
è e0 ø
3d/4 d/4
9. Here, KE = 100 eV = 100 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19 J = 1.6 ´ 10-17 J.
K This is lost when electron moves through a distance
(d) towards the negative plate.
\ KE = Work done
C1 C2 æs ö
= F ´ s = qE ´ s = e ç ÷ d
è e0 ø
The equivalent capacitance is
(KE)e 0
1
=
1
+
1 d=
C ¢ C1 C 2 es
1.6 ´ 10-17 ´ 8.86 ´ 10-12
3d / 4 d / 4 Þ d=
= + 1.6 ´ 10-19 ´ 2 ´ 10-6
eKA e0 A
d æ3 + K ö = 4.43 ´ 10-4m
= ç ÷ = 0.44 mm
4e 0 A è K ø
644 JEE Main Physics
dV 1 qA
10. As, electric field is along positive x-axis and E = - × EA = ´
dx 4pe 0 ( AC )2
Hence, potential at A must be greater than that at B,
4 ´ 10-6
i. e.V A > VB . = 9 ´ 109 ´
(2 ´ 10-2)2
C(0, 1)
= 9 ´ 107 NC -1 (along AC)
B E
E
A(0, 0) (1, 0)
EB
11. Due to additional charge of -3Q, given to external EA
C
spherical shell, the potential difference between
2×10–2 m
conducting sphere and the outer shell will not change
because by presence of charge on outer shell, potential
everywhere inside and on the surface of the shell, will A B
change by same amount. Therefore, the potential qA=4×10–6 C qB=2×10–2 m
difference between sphere and shell will remain
unchanged. 1 q 2 ´ 10-6
EB = ´ B 2 = 9 ´ 109 ´
4pe 0 BC (10-2)2
12. With S1 and S3 closed, the capacitors C1 and C 2 are in
series arrangement. In series arrangement, potential = 18 ´ 107 NC-1 (along BC)
difference developed across capacitors are in the If q is angle between the directions of E A and EB ,
inverse ratio of their capacities. Hence,
then
V1¢ C 2 3 pF 3
= = = and
V 2¢ C1 2 pF 2 E = E A2 + EB2 + 2E AEB cos q
Ke 0 A 120
If resultant capacitance be taken as C = , then Þ C= pF
d 7
1 1 1 120
= + \ Total charge, Q = CV = ´ 140 pC = 2400 pC
C C1 C 2 7
d d d /2 Q 2400 pC
\ = + \ V1 = = = 80 V
Ke 0 A (K 1 + K 2)e 0 A K 3 e 0 A C1 30 pF
Q 2400 pC
1 1 1 V 2 = V3 = V 23 = = = 40 V
Þ = + C 23 60 pF
K (K 1 + K 2) 2K 3
Q 2400 pC
and V4 = = = 20 V
16. Common potential, C4 120 pF
Total charge Q+0
V = = 19. The system of two charges, i.e. + q and - q that are
Total capacity 4pe 0 (r + r ¢ )
separated by distance d can be considered as a dipole.
\ Charge on smaller sphere Thus, the charge Q would be at D distance from the
Qr ¢ centre of an electric dipole on its axial line.
= 4 pe 0 r ¢ ´ V =
r + r¢ So, the total potential energy of the system will be due
17. Electric field in each quadrant will look like this to two components.
σ– (1) Potential energy of dipole’s own system,
E+
Enet Enet E+ Kq 1q2 Kq2
(PE)1 = =- …(i)
d d
–q +q
E– d
E–
σ+ σ+ (2) Potential energy of charge Q and dipole system,
E– E– KQq
(PE)2 = - ×d …(ii)
D2
Hence, total potential energy of the system,
Kq2 KQq
E+ Enet Enet E+ (PE)total = (PE)1 + (PE)2 = - - ×d
d D2
σ–
1 é q2 Qqd ù
Q |s + | > |s - | Þ (PE)total = - ê + ú
4pe 0 ë d D2 û
\ | E + | >| E - |
So, the final electric field will become as shown below r 1 mm 1
20. Here, 1 = = . When the spheres are connected
σ– r2 2 mm 2
by a conducting wire, then V1 = V 2
q1 q2
or =
σ+ σ+ 4pe 0r1 4pe 0r2
q1 r1 1
Þ = =
q2 r2 2
σ– 2 2
E1 q1 æ r2 ö 1 æ2ö 4
So, the nearest matching option is Now, = . ç ÷ = ´ ç ÷ = = 2 :1
E 2 q2 è r1 ø 2 è 1 ø 2
σ–
21. L L
O A B
x dx
σ+ σ+
Let an element of length dx, charge dq, at distance x
from point O.
dq
σ– dV = k
x
Hence, correct option is (c).
Q
where, dq = dx
18. Here, C 23 = 30 + 30 = 60 pF. L
Total equivalent capacitance is given by æQö
2L kdq
ç ÷ dx
2L è L ø
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 7
= + + = + + = \ V =ò = kò
C C1 C 23 C 4 30 60 120 120 L x L x
646 JEE Main Physics
Q 2Læ 1 ö V2
4pe 0L òL è x ø
= ç ÷ dx V2-
U i -U f 5 ´ 100
Now, ´ 100 = 2
Q Ui V
= [log e x]L2L
4pe 0L 4 V 2/ 5
Q = ´ 100 = 80%
= [log e 2L - log e L ] V2
4pe 0L
24. The resultant electric field is given by
Q é 2L ù
= log 2e E = E1 + E2
4pe 0L êë L úû
s s s + s2
Q or E= 1 + 2 = 1
= ln (2) 2 e0 2 e0 2 e0
4pe 0L
22. Potential due to a hollow spherical charge distribution 25. When pendulum is oscillating between capacitor
is plates, it is subjected to two forces
ì kq (i) Weight downwards (ma1 ) = mg
ï , r > R (outside points)
(ii) Electrostatic force acting horizontally (ma 2) = qE
V =í r
kq
ï , r = R (at surface) So, net acceleration of pendulum bob is resultant of
îR accelerations produced by these two perpendicular
ì kq forces.
í , r < R (inside points)
îR
Given arrangement is
Potential on the surface of inner sphere,
Q2
qE
Q1
R
anet
mg
4R
2kp e 0a é1ù
Þ y2 + a 2 » y2 or E1 = … (ii) Þ C= ln ê ú
y3 æ1 - K ö d ëK û
ç ÷
è K øa
So, force on the charge in its position at P will be
2kpQ e 0a 2K ln K
F = QE1 = … (iii) Þ C=
y3 (K - 1) d
Þ l + 3x = 2l Along Y -axis, vy = a y × t $j
Þ 3x = l where, t = time in which particle crosses region of field.
l F - qEt $
Þ x= Þ vy = × t $j Þ vy = j …(ii)
3 m m
Now, if particle crosses region of field in time t, then
30. When a dielectric slab is inserted to fill the space d
between the plates, then the charge on the capacitor d = vx t Þ t = …(iii)
plates remains same. However, the capacitance v0
increase, i.e. C = KC 0, where C 0 is the capacitance of So, from Eqs. (ii) and (iii), we get
the capacitor without slab and K is the dielectric - qEd $
vy = ×j
constant of slab. mv0
When parallel combination is fully charged, charge on |vy| qEd
Hence, angle a is given by tan a = =
the combination is |vx| mv02
C So, slope of path (straight line) of particle when it
comes out of region of field is
m¢ = tan q = tan (180° - a )
-qEd
nC = - tan a = …(iv)
mv02
+
– Now, y-coordinate at point of exit is
V
1
Q = C eqV = C (1 + n ) V y= ayt2
2
When battery is removed and a dielectric slab is
placed between two plates of first capacitor, then -1 æ qE ö 2 1 qEd 2
Þ y= ç ÷×t = -
charge on the system remains same. Now, equivalent 2 èmø 2 mv02
capacitance after insertion of dielectric is So, the intercept length c is - y as shown in figure.
æ 1 qEd 2 ö
K KC c=ç ÷ …(v)
è 2 mv02 ø
y
nC
α
x
C eq = KC + nC = (n + K ) C α
Intercept (c)
If potential value after insertion of dielectric is V ¢, α
then charge on system is
Q ¢ = CeqV ¢ = (n + K ) CV ¢
\ Equation of path will be
As Q = Q ¢, we have
y = m¢x + c [from Eqs. (iv) and (v)]
C (1 + n )V = (n + K ) CV ¢
(1 + n ) V - qEdx 1 qEd 2 qEd æd ö
\ V¢= Þ y= + = ç - x÷
mv02 2 mv02 mv02 è2 ø
(n + K )
Electrostatics 649
dx 1 Q (R + r )
=
4pe 0 (R2 + r 2)
Þ V =
Q1
=
C1V1 Þ s = 2.2 ´ 8.58 ´ 10-12 ´ 3 ´ 104
C1 + C 2 C1 + C 2 = 6.6 ´ 8.85 ´ 10-8
60 ´ 10-12 ´ 20 = 5.841 ´ 10-7
= = 10 V
60 ´ 10-12 + 60 ´ 10-12 = 6 ´ 10-7 C/m 2
19
Current
Electricity
The directional flow of charge in a conductor under a potential difference IN THIS CHAPTER ....
maintained between the ends of the conductor constitutes an electric current.
Electric Current
It is defined as the amount of charge flowing across any section of wire per unit Colour Code for Carbon Resistors
time. If charge Dq passes through the area in time interval Dt at uniform rate, Combination of Resistors
then current i is defined as Electric Cell
Dq
i= Kirchhoff’s Laws
Dt
Electrical Energy
If rate of flow of charge is not steady, then instantaneous current is given by
Electrical Power
Dq dq
i = lim = Heating Effects of Current
Dt ® 0 D t dt
Electricity Consumption
The SI unit of current is ampere (A). Smaller currents are more conveniently
expressed in milliampere (mA) or microampere ( mA ). Wheatstone Bridge
Current Density
Current density at any point inside a conductor is defined as ‘‘the amount of
charge flowing per second through a unit area held normal to the direction of
the flow of charge at that point.’’
Current density is a vector quantity and its direction is along the motion of the
positive charge.
Current Electricity 653
b
Vector Form of Ohm’s Law
Ohm’s law in vector form is given as
E = rJ l dx
Resistance, dR = r Þ dR = r
or J = sE A 4px2
æ ne2t ö So, resistance of complete arrangement is
\Current density, J = ç ÷E b b dx r b -2
R = ò dR = ò r
4p òa
è m ø = x dx
a a 4 px2
ne2t b
æ x-1 ö b
Conductivity, s = r r æ 1ö
m Þ R= ç ÷ = ç- ÷
4p è -1 ø a 4 p è x ø a
1 m
and resistivity, r = = 2 r æ 1 æ 1ö ö
s ne t = ç- - ç- ÷÷
4p è b è aø ø
Example 3. A copper wire is stretched to make it 0.5% r æ 1 1ö
= ç - ÷ ohm
longer. The percentage change in its electrical resistance, if its 4p è a bø
volume remains unchanged is [JEE Main 2019]
(a) 2.0% (b) 1.0% (c) 0.5% (d) 2.5% Example 5. In a conductor, if the number of conduction
electrons per unit volume is 8.5 ´ 10 28 m -3 and mean free
Sol. (b) Electrical resistance of wire of length l, area of
time is 25 fs (femto second), it’s approximate resistivity is
cross-section A and resistivity r is given as
(Take, me = 91 . ´ 10 -31 kg) [JEE Main 2019]
l
R =r ...(i) (a) 10 -7 W-m (b) 10 -5 W-m
A
(c) 10 -6 W-m (d) 10 -8 W-m
Since we know, volume of the wire is V = A ´ l ...(ii)
Current Electricity 655
Example 10. A metal wire of resistance 3 W is elongated to The equivalent resistance across AB,
10000 ´ 400
make a uniform wire of double its previous length. This new RAB =
wire is now bent and the ends joined to make a circle. If two 10000 + 400
10000 ´ 400
points on this circle make an angle 60º at the centre, the =
equivalent resistance between these two points will be 10400
[JEE Main 2019] 40000
=
7 5 12 5 104
(a) W (b) W (c) W (d) W
2 2 5 3 = 384.6 W » 385 W
\ Total circuit resistance = 385 + 800 = 1185 W
Sol. (d) Initial resistance of wire is 3 W. Let its length is l and area
V 6
is A. Hence, circuit current is i = = = 5.06 ´ 10 -3 A
Req 1185
l
Then, Rinitial = r = 3 W … (i)
A Now, potential drop across points A and B is
When wire is stretched twice its length, then its area becomes A¢, VAB = i × RAB
on equating volume, we have = 5.06 ´ 10 -3 ´ 385
A = 1946
. V~
- 195
. V
Al = A¢2l Þ A¢ =
2
So, after stretching, resistance of wire will be
Electric Cell
l¢ l
R ¢ = Rfinal = r = 4 r = 12 W [using Eq. (i)] It is a device which maintains a continuous flow of
A¢ A charge (or electric current) in a circuit by a chemical
Now, this wire is made into a circle and connected across two reaction. It converts chemical energy into electrical
points A and B (making 60º angle at centre) as energy.
R2 Electromotive Force (emf) of a Cell (e) Electric cell
has to do some work in maintaining the current through
300° a circuit. The work done by the cell in moving unit
positive charge through the whole circuit (including the
60°
cell) is called the electromotive force (emf) of the cell.
If during the flow of q coulomb of charge in an electric
A B circuit, the work done by the cell is W, then
R1
Now, above arrangement is a combination of two resistances in W
emf of the cell, e =
parallel, q
60 ´ R ¢ 1 Its unit is joule/coulomb or volt.
R1 = = ´ 12 = 2 W
360 6
Internal Resistance (r) Internal resistance of a cell is
300 5 defined as the resistance offered by the electrolyte of the
and R2 = ´ R ¢ = ´ 12 = 10 W
360 6 cell to the flow of current through it. It is denoted by r. Its
Since, R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. unit is ohm.
Terminal Potential Difference (V ) Terminal
R1R2 10 ´ 2 5
So, RAB = = = W potential difference of a cell is defined as the potential
R1 + R2 12 3 difference between the two terminals of the cell in a
closed circuit (i.e. when current is drawn from the cell).
Example 11. Two resistors 400 W and 800 W are connected It is represented by V and its unit is volt.
in series across a 6 V battery. The potential difference
Terminal potential difference of a cell is always less than
measured by a voltmeter of 10 kW across 400 W resistor is
the emf of the cell.
close to [JEE Main 2020]
Relation between Terminal Potential Difference,
(a) 1.95 V (b) 2 V (c) 1.8 V (d) 2.05 V
emf of the Cell and Internal Resistance of a Cell
Sol. (a) The circuit diagram is ● If no current is drawn from the cell, i.e. the cell is in
R
Total resistance = nr + R 1.5 V, 1.5 V
Net emf rΩ rΩ
\Current in the circuit = (a) 1.5 W (b) 0.5 W
Total resistance
(c) 1 W (d) 0 W
ne
or i=
nr + R Sol. (b) For the given circuit,
i A 15Ω B 2Ω i
Note If polarity of m cells is reversed, then equivalent emf
( n - 2m) e i1
eeq = ( n - 2m)e while total resistance is still nr + R, so i = . i2
10Ω
nr + R
Parallel Grouping Let n cells each of emf e and
internal resistance r are connected in parallel as shown rΩ rΩ
in figure, then net emf = e
ε r 1.5 V 1.5 V
Given, VAB = 2V
ε r
Equivalent resistance between A and B is
1 1 1 1
= + =
RAB 10 15 6
ε r
Þ RAB = 6 W
i i
\Equivalent resistance of the entire circuit is,
R
R eq = 6 W + 2 W + 2 r = 8 + 2r
Now, current passing through the circuit is given as
r
Total resistance = +R e e
n i = net = net
R + req Req
Net emf
\ Current in the circuit, i = where, R is external resistance, req is net internal resistance and
Total resistance
e net is the emf of the cells.
e
or i= Here, enet = 15. + 15. = 3V
R + r/ n
req = r + r = 2r
Mixed Grouping If n identical cells are in a row and 3
Þ i=
such m rows are connected in parallel as shown, then net 8 + 2r
emf = ne
Also, reading of the voltmeter,
ε r ε r ε r
1 V = 2V = i × RAB
æ 3 ö
2 2=ç ÷ ´6
è 8 + 2r ø
Þ 8 + 2r = 9
m i i 1
R or r = = 0.5 W
2
Current Electricity 659
In figure, i1 + i2 = i3 + i4 V=0
660 JEE Main Physics
Assuming that the colour code for the carbon resistors gives
Wheatstone Bridge their accurate values, the colour code for the carbon resistor
It is an arrangement of four resistances used to measure used as R3 would be [JEE Main 2019]
one of them in terms of other three. (a) brown, blue, black
i1 B
(b) brown, blue, brown
P Q (c) grey, black, brown
P i1
(d) red, green, brown
A C
G Q Sol. (b) The value of R1 (orange, red, brown)
i2 i2
S2 = 32 ´ 10 = 320 W
R S
I i Given, R2 = 80 W and R4 = 40 W
D In balanced Wheatstone bridge condition,
E
R1 R3
=
S1 R2 R4
The bridge is said to be balanced when deflection in R
Þ R3 = R4 ´ 1
galvanometer is zero, i.e. i g = 0. So, we have the balanced R2
condition as 40 ´ 320
Þ R3 =
P R 80
=
Q S or R3 = 160 W
= 16 ´ 10 1
Example 20. Four resistances of 15 W, 12 W, 4 W and
Comparing the value of R3 with the colours assigned for the
10 W respectively in cyclic order to form Wheatstone’s carbon resistor, we get
network. The resistance that is to be connected in parallel 1
R3=16 × 10
with the resistance of 10 W to balance the network is
Brown
[JEE Main 2020] Blue Brown
(a) 4 W (b) 7 W
(c) 10 W (d) 12 W
Meter Bridge
A meter bridge is slide wire bridge or Carey Foster
Sol. (c) Cyclic order and resistance X W which is connected to bridge. It is an instrument which work on the principle
obtain balance condition is as shown in the figure. of Wheatstone bridge.
B It consists of a straight and uniform wire along a meter
15 Ω 12 Ω scale (AC) and by varying the taping point B as shown in
figure, the bridge is balanced.
A C
R S
4Ω
10 Ω B
X
D
G
æ 10 X ö
ç ÷
15 è10 + X ø 10 X A D C
For balance, = Þ =5
12 4 10 + X I1 I1
Þ X = 10 W
Meter scale
Example 21. The Wheatstone bridge shown in figure here,
gets balanced when the carbon resistor is used as R1 has the
colour code (orange, red, brown). The resistors R2 and R4 are V K
80 W and 40 W, respectively. R l1
In balanced condition, =
S (100 - l1 )
R1 R2
l1
or R=S
G 100 - l1
R3 R4 where, l1 is the length of the wire from one end, where null
point is obtained. The bridge is most sensitive, when null
+ – point is somewhere near the middle point of the wire.
Current Electricity 663
K
Example 22. In a meter bridge experiment, the circuit E
diagram and the corresponding observation table are shown – + + –
A
in figure [JEE Main 2019] Rh
X 400
R
B
Resistance
box 300
Unknown
G resistance
200
l
K A 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90
E
Meter rod R
● Determination of Internal Resistance of a Cell Now, 1.02 V is balanced against 51 cm length, so potential
using Potentiometer The arrangement is shown in gradient of wire PQ is;
figure 1.02 V
Potential gradient = Fall of potential per unit length =
51 cm
ε′ K1 = 0.02 V/cm
– + + –
A
Rh Example 24. In the circuit shown, a four-wire
400 potentiometer is made of a 400 cm long wire, which extends
B between A and B. The resistance per unit length of the
J 300 potentiometer wire is r = 0.01 W/cm. If an ideal voltmeter is
connected as shown with jockey J at 50 cm from end A, the
200 expected reading of the voltmeter will be [JEE Main 2019]
1.5 V, 1.5 V, V
0.5 Ω 0.5 Ω
A 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 A
50 cm
ε
G R
K2 R=1Ω
S
B
When K 2 is kept out, e = xl1i 100 cm
But if by inserting key K 2 and introducing some
(a) 0.20 V (b) 0.75 V
resistance S (say), then potential difference V is balanced
(c) 0.25 V (d) 0.50 V
by a length l2, where V = kl2
e-V l - l2 Sol. (c) In given potentiometer, resistance per unit length is
Internal resistance of cell, r = R= 1 R x = 0.01 Wcm-1.
V l2
1.5 V, 1.5 V, V
Example 23. A potentiometer wire PQ of 1 m length is 0.5 Ω 0.5 Ω A
connected to a standard cell e1. Another cell e 2 of emf 1.02 V
is connected with a resistance r and switch S (as shown in 50 cm
figure). With switch S open, the null position is obtained at a
distance of 49 cm from Q. The potential gradient in the
R=1Ω
potentiometer wire is [JEE Main 2020]
ε1 B
100 cm
Electric Current and Drift Velocity 7. The resistance of a 10 m long wire is 10W. Its length
1. The current flowing through a wire depends on time is increased by 25% by stretching the wire uniformly.
as i = 3 t2 + 2 t + 5. The charge flowing the The resistance of wire will change to (approximately)
cross-section of the wire in time from t = 0 to t = 2 s is (a) 12.5 W (b) 14.5 W (c) 15.6 W (d) 16.6 W
(a) 21 C (b) 10 C (c) 22 C (d) 1 C 8. Masses of the three wires of same material are in
2. There is a current of 0.21 A in a copper wire whose the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3 and their lengths in the ratio of
area of cross-section is 10-6 m 2 . If the number of 3 : 2 : 1. Electrical resistance of these wires will be
free electrons per m 3 is 8.4 ´ 1028 , then find the in the ratio of
(a) 1 : 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 3
drift velocity. (Take, e = 1.6 ´ 10–19 C)
-5 -1 -5 -1 (c) 9 : 4 : 1 (d) 27 : 6 : 1
(a) 2 × 10 ms (b) 1.56 × 10 ms
(c) 1 × 10 -5 ms -1 (d) 0.64 × 10 -5 ms -1 9. Two conductors are made of the same material and
have the same length. Conductor A is a solid wire
3. Two wires of the same material but of different of diameter 1 mm. Conductor B is a hollow tube of
diameters carry the same current i. If the ratio of outer diameter 2 mm and inner diameter 1mm.
their diameters is 2 : 1, then the corresponding What is the ratio of resistances R A to RB ?
ratio of their mean drift velocities will be (a) 1 : 3 (b) 3 : 1
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 4
(c) 2 : 3 (d) 3 : 2
4. Every atom makes one free electron in copper. If 10. A metal rod of length 10 cm and a rectangular
1.1 A current is flowing in the wire of copper 1
having 1 mm diameter, then the drift velocity cross-section of 1 cm ´ cm is connected to a
2
(approx.) will be (Take, density of copper battery across opposite faces. The resistance will be
= 9 ´ 103 kg m -3 and atomic weight of copper = 63 )
(a) maximum when the battery is connected across
(a) 0.1 mms -1 (b) 0.2 mms -1 1
1 cm ´ cm
(c) 0.3 mms -1 (d) 0.2 cms -1 2
(b) maximum when the battery is connected across
5. A straight conductor of uniform cross-section
10 cm ´ 1 cm faces
carries a current i. If s is the specific charge of an
(c) maximum when the battery is connected across
electron, the momentum of all the free electrons per 1
10 cm ´ cm faces
unit length of the conductor, due to their drift 2
velocity only is (d) same irrespective of the three faces
(a) is (b) i /s (c) i /s (d) (i /s) 2
11. Consider four conducting materials copper,
tungsten, mercury and aluminium with resistivity
Resistance and Resistivity r C , r T , r M and r A , respectively. Then, [JEE Main 2020]
6. The current i and voltage V graphs for a given (a) r A > rT > rC (b) r A > rM > rC
metallic wire at two different temperatures T1 and (c) rC > r A > rT (d) rM > r A > rC
T2 are shown in the figure. It is concluded that
12. A resistance is shown in the figure. Its value and
i
T2 tolerance are given respectively by [ JEE Main 2019]
Red Orange
T1
V Violet Silver
(a) 270 W, 5% (b) 27 k W, 20%
(a) T1 > T2 (b) T1 < T2 (c) T1 = T2 (d) T1 = 2T1
(c) 27 k W, 10% (d) 270 k W, 10%
666 JEE Main Physics
13. Resistance of a resistor at temperature t° C is 18. The resistance across R and Q in the figure.
Rt = R0 (1 + at + bt2 ) A
Here, R0 is the resistance at 0°C. The temperature
coefficient of resistance at temperature t° C is
(1 + at + bt 2) r r
(a) (b) (a + 2 bt )
a + 2bt r r
r
a +2 bt (a + 2 bt )
(c) (d)
(1 + at + bt 2) 2(1 + at + bt )
R B r C Q
14. A silver wire has a resistance of 2.1 W at 27.5 °C
and a resistance of 2.7 W at 100 °C. Determine the (a) r/3 (b) r/2 (c) 2 r (d) 6r
temperature coefficient of resistivity of silver. 19. What is the equivalent resistance across the points
(a) 0.049/°C A and B in the circuit given below ?
(b) 0.0049/°C
(c) 0.0039/°C C
(d) 0.039/°C 10Ω
B
15. A copper wire of length 1 m and radius 1 mm is
joined in series with an iron wire of length 2 m and 10Ω 16Ω
radius 3 mm and a current is passed through the
wires. The ratio of the current density in the copper 12Ω
and iron wires is 10Ω 2.5Ω A
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 6 : 1 D E
(c) 9 : 1 (d) 18 : 1
(a) 8 W (b) 12 W
Grouping of Resistors (c) 16 W (d) 32 W
16. Six equal resistances each of 4W are connected to 20. The current i1 (in ampere) flowing through 1W
form a figure. The resistance between two corners resistor in the following circuit is
A and B is 1Ω
i1
4Ω 2Ω
A B 1Ω
4Ω
4Ω
O 2Ω
4Ω
4Ω 1V
[JEE Main 2020]
D C (a) 0.25 (b) 0.4
4Ω
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.2
(a) 4 W (b) (4/3) W
(c) 12 W (d) 2 W Grouping of Cells
17. The effective resistance between points A and B is 21. The strength of current in a wire of resistance R
R C 2R B
will be the same for connection in series or in
A
parallel of n identical cells each of the internal
resistance r, when
(a) R = nr (b) R = r /n
2R
(c) R = r (d) R ® ¥ , r ® 0
R
22. n identical cells, each of emf e and internal
resistance r, are connected in series, a cell A is
joined with reverse polarity. The potential
D difference across each cell, except A is
R 2 ne (n - 2)e
(a) R (b) (a) (b)
3 n -2 n
2R 3R (n - 1)e 2e
(c) (d) (c) (d)
3 5 n n
Current Electricity 667
23. Two cells of emf 2E and E with internal resistances 28. In the circuit shown the current through 2 W
r1 and r2 respectively are connected in series to an resistance is
external resistor R (see figure). The value of R, at
+ +
which the potential difference across the terminals 5W 10 W 20 V
10 V – –
of the first cell becomes zero is [JEE Main 2021]
2E E 2W
(a) 5 A (b) 2 A (c) 0 (d) 4 A
29. In the given circuit diagram, a wire is joining
points B and D. The current in this wire is
[JEE Main 2020]
R 1Ω B 2Ω
r1 r1
(a) r1 + r2 (b) - r2 (c) + r2 (d) r1 - r2 A C
2 2 4Ω 3Ω
24. To get a maximum current through a resistance of D
2.5 W, one can use m rows of cells each row having
n cells. The internal resistance of each cell is 0.5W.
What are the values of m and n, if the total number 20 V
of cells are 20? (a) 0.4 A (b) zero (c) 2A (d) 4A
(a) m = 2 , n = 10 (b) m = 4, n = 5
30. For the given circuit,
(c) m = 5 , n = 4 (d) n = 2 , m = 10 + –
25. The series combination of two batteries, both of the 20 V, 1.5 W
same emf 10 V, but different internal resistance of 3W 2W
P
20 W and 5 W, is connected to the parallel
combination of two resistors 30 W and R W. The
voltage difference across the battery of internal
2W Q 3W
resistance 20 W is zero, the value of R(in W) is
[JEE Main 2020] If internal resistance of cell is 1.5 W, then
(a) 15 (b) 30 (c) 45 (d) 60 (a) VP - VQ = 0 (b) VP - VQ = 4 V
(c) VP - VQ = - 4 V (d) VP - VQ = - 2.5 V
Kirchhoff’s Law
31. In the given circuit, the cells have zero internal
26. In the given circuit diagram, the currents
resistance. The currents (in ampere) passing
i1 = - 0.3 A, i4 = 08
. A and i5 = 0.4 A, are
through resistances R1 and R2 respectively are
flowing as shown. The currents i2 , i3 and i6
[JEE Main 2019]
respectively are [JEE Main 2019]
P i6 Q
i3 R1 20 Ω R2 20 Ω
– + + –
i5 i2 i1
S i R 10 V 10 V
4
(a) 0.5, 0 (b) 1, 2 (c) 2, 2 (d) 0, 1
(a) 1.1 A, 0.4 A, 0.4 A (b) 1.1 A, - 0.4 A, 0.4 A
(c) 0.4 A, 1.1 A, 0.4 A (d) - 0.4 A, 0.4 A, 1.1 A 32. In the circuit shown in figure, if the ammeter reads
2 A. Then, i1 and i2 are
27. For the given circuit, terminal potential differences
15 V
of cells are around
+ –
18 V
– + 7W
r2 = 2 W
A
R = 6.6 W 5W
r1 = 1 W + –
– + 2W E
12 V (a) i1 = 1.8 A, i 2 = 0.2 A (b) i1 = 0.8 A, i 2 = 1.2 A
(a) 15 V, 10 V (b) 12 V, 15 V
(c) i1 = 0.75 A, i 2 = 1.25 A (d) i1 = 0.714 A, i 2 = 1.29 A
(c) 6 V, 12 V (d) 17 V, 13 V
668 JEE Main Physics
33. For the given network, mark the correct statement. 37. For two incandescent bulbs of rated power P1 and
3W P2 , if P1 > P2 , then
i2 i3 (a) filament of bulb 1 is more thicker than filament of
i1 bulb 2
5W 1W (b) filament of bulb 1 is thinner than the filament of
8W bulb 2
1W (c) filament of both bulbs is of same thickness
+
+ (d) rated power of a bulb is independent of filament
– 12 V
–4V thickness
(a) Current through 8 W resistor is 846 mA. 38. A heating filament of 500 W, 115 V is being
(b) Current through 1 W resistor is 846 mA. operated at 110 V, percentage drop in output power
(c) Current through 1 W resistor is 400 mA. (with comparison to rated output power) is
(d) Current through 3 W resistor is 2 A. (a) 10.20% (b) 8.1% (c) 8.6% (d) 7.6%
34. For the given circuit, potential difference between 39. Power of a heater is 500 W at 800°C. What will be
points c and f is its power at 200°C, if a = 4 ´ 10-4 per°C?
4 kW (a) 484 W (b) 672 W (c) 526 W (d) 620 W
b c d
+ i2 + + 40. A wire when connected to 220 V mains supply has
E
– 70 V – 60 V – 80 V power dissipation P1. Now, the wire is cut into two
i3 equal pieces which are connected in parallel to the
i1 3 kW
same supply. Power dissipation in this case is P2 .
a Then, P2 : P1 is
2 kW f e
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 4 : 1
(a) V c - V f = 69.2 V (b) V c - V f = - 69.2 V (c) 2 : 1 (d) 3 : 1
(c) V c - V f = 48.3 V (d) V c - V f = - 48.3 V 41. In a large building, there are 15 bulbs of 40 W,
35. For the circuit given below, the charge on the 5 bulbs of 100 W, 5 fans of 80 W and 1 heater of
capacitor is 1 kW. The voltage of the electric mains is 220 V.
– + The minimum capacity of the main fuse of the
5W 4V building will be [JEE Main 2014]
3W (a) 8 A (b) 10 A
5W (c) 12 A (d) 14 A
8V
+ – 42. An electrical power line, having a total resistance of
2 W, delivers 1 kW at 220 V. The efficiency of the
– + + –
6 mF transmission line is approximately [JEE Main 2020]
3V (a) 91% (b) 85%
(a) 45 mC (b) 75 mC (c) 96% (d) 72%
(c) 66 mC (d) 78 mC 43. Two electric bulbs rated at 25 W, 220 V and 100 W,
220 V are connected in series across a 220 V voltage
Electrical Energy and Power source. If the 25 W and 100 W bulbs draw powers P1
36. For the circuit shown, energy stored by the and P2 respectively, then [JEE Main 2019]
capacitor is (a) P1 = 16 W, P2 = 4W (b) P1 = 4 W, P2 = 16W
1A (c) P1 = 9 W, P2 = 16W (d) P1 = 16 W, P2 = 9W
3W
44. The resistive network shown below is connected to
+ – 3W 5W
a DC source of 16 V. The power consumed by the
2A 4V network is 4 W. The value of R is [JEE Main 2019]
4 mF 1W
4R 6R
1W R R
2A 2W 4W 4R 12 R
3W
1A ε = 16 V
(a) around 0.3 mJ (b) around 0.5 mJ (a) 6 W (b) 8 W
(c) around 0.8 mJ (d) around 0.1 mJ (c) 1 W (d) 16 W
Current Electricity 669
45. A resistor develops 500 J of thermal energy in 20s 49. In a Wheatstone bridge (see figure), resistances P
when a current of 1.5 A is passed through it. If the and Q are approximately equal. When R = 400 W,
current is increased from 1.5 A to 3A, what will be the bridge is balanced. On interchanging P and Q ,
the energy developed in 20 s? [JEE Main 2021] the value of R for balance is 405 W. The value of X
(a) 1500 J (b) 1000 J (c) 500 J (d) 2000 J is close to
B
46. A torch battery of length l is to be made up of a thin
P Q
cylindrical bar of radius a and a concentric thin
cylindrical shell of radius b is filled in between with G
A C
an electrolyte of resistivity r (see figure). If the
battery is connected to a resistance R, the K2
R X
maximum Joule’s heating in R will takes place for
D
K1
[JEE Main 2019]
l ρ (a) 404.5 W (b) 401.5 W (c) 402.5 W (d) 403.5 W
50. On interchanging the resistances, the balance point
of a meter bridge shifts to the left by 10 cm. The
a
resistance of their series combination is 1 kW. How
b [JEE Main 2020] much was the resistance on the left slot before
r æ bö r æ bö
(a) R = ç ÷ (b) R = ln ç ÷ interchanging the resistances? [JEE Main 2018]
2 pl è a ø 2 pl è a ø (a) 990 W (b) 505 W (c) 550 W (d) 910 W
r æ bö 2r æ b ö
(c) R = ln ç ÷ (d) R = ln ç ÷ 51. In the experimental set up of meter bridge shown
pl è a ø pl è a ø
in the figure, the null point is obtained at a
Measuring Instruments distance of 40 cm from A. If a 10 W resistor is
connected in series with R1, the null point shifts by
47. Which of the following statements is false? 10 cm. The resistance that should be connected in
[JEE Main 2017]
parallel with ( R1 + 10) W such that the null point
(a) In a balanced Wheatstone bridge, if the cell and shifts back to its initial position is [JEE Main 2019]
the galvanometer are exchanged, the null point is
R1 R2
disturbed.
(b) A rheostat can be used as a potential divider.
(c) Kirchhoff ’s second law represents energy G
conservation. A B
(d) Wheatstone bridge is the most sensitive when all
the four resistances are of the same order of ()
magnitude.
(a) 60 W (b) 20 W (c) 30 W (d) 40 W
48. The four arms of a Wheatstone bridge have
52. In a meter bridge, the wire of length 1m has a
resistances as shown in the figure. A galvanometer
non-uniform cross-section such that the variation
of 15 W resistance is connected across BD. Calculate dR dR 1
the current through the galvanometer when a of its resistance R with length l is µ .
dl dl l
potential difference of 10 V is maintained across
Two equal resistance are connected as shown in the
AC. [JEE Main 2021]
figure. The galvanometer has zero deflection when
B
the jockey is at point P. What is the length AP?
0Ω
10
A G C
R′ R′
60
5Ω
Ω
D G
P
10 V A B
l 1– l
(a) 2.44 mA (b) 2.44 mA (c) 4.87 mA (d) 4.87 mA (a) 0.3 m (b) 0.25 m (c) 0.2 m (d) 0.35 m
670 JEE Main Physics
53. The length of a wire of a potentiometer is 100 cm 56. The resistance of the potentiometer wire AB in
and the emf of its stand and cell is e volt. It is given figure is 4 W. With a cell of emf e = 05
. V and
employed to measure the emf of a battery whose rheostat resistance Rh = 2 W . The null point is
internal resistance is 0.5 W. If the balance point is obtained at some point J. When the cell is replaced
obtained at l = 30 cm from the positive end, the emf by another one of emf e = e2 , the same null point J
of the battery is is found for Rh = 6 W. The emf e2 is [JEE Main 2019]
30e ε
(a)
100.5
30e
(b)
100 - 0.5 A B
J
30 (e - 0.5 i )
(c) , where i is the current in the
100
potentiometer wire 6V Rh
30e (a) 0.6 V (b) 0.3 V (c) 0.5 V (d) 0.4 V
(d)
100
57. A potentiometer wire AB having length L and
54. In a potentiometer experiment, the balancing with resistance 12 r is joined to a cell D of emf e and
a cell is at length 240 cm. On shunting the cell with e
internal resistance r. A cell C having emf and
a resistance of 2 W, the balancing length becomes 2
120 cm. The internal resistance of the cell is internal resistance 3 r is connected. The length AJ
(a) 1 W (b) 0.5 W at which the galvanometer as shown in figure
(c) 4 W (d) 2 W shows no deflection is
D (ε,r)
55. In a potentiometer experiment, it is found that no + –
current passes through the galvanometer when the
terminals of the cell are connected across 52 cm of A
J B
the potentiometer wire. If the cell is shunted by a
resistance of 5 W, a balance is found when the cell is +–
connected across 40 cm of the wire. Find the Cε G
,3 r
internal resistance of the cell. [JEE Main 2018] 2
(a) 1 W (b) 1.5 W 5 11 13 11
(a) L (b) L (c) L (d) L
(c) 2 W (d) 2.5 W 12 12 24 24
6. A current of 10 A exists in a wire of cross sectional 12. A 5 V battery with internal resistance 2 W and a 2 V
area of 5 mm2 with a drift velocity of 2 ´ 10-3 ms-1. battery with internal resistance 1 W are connected
The number of free electrons in each cubic meter of to a 10 W resistor as shown in the figure
the wire is [JEE Main 2021]
P2
(a) 2 ´ 106 (b) 625 ´ 1025
(c) 2 ´ 1025 (d) 1 ´ 1023
7. A material B has twice the specific resistance of A. 5V
10 Ω
2V
A circular wire made of B has twice the diameter of 2Ω 1Ω
a wire made of A. Then, for the two wires to have
the same resistance, the ratio lB / l A of their
respective lengths must be P1
(a) 1 (b) 2/1 The current in the 10 W resistor is
(c) 1/4 (d) 2 (a) 0.27 A, P2 to P1 (b) 0.03 A , P1 to P2
8. A carbon resistor has a following colour code. What (c) 0.03 A , P2 to P1 (d) 0.27 A , P1 to P2
is the value of the resistance? [JEE Main 2019]
13. When 5V potential difference is applied across a
wire of length 0.1m, the drift speed of electrons is
G O Y Golden . ´ 10- 4 ms -1 . If the electron density in the wire is
25
(a) 5.3 MW ± 5% (b) 64 kW ± 10% 8 ´ 1028 m - 3 the resistivity of the material is close
(c) 6.4 MW ± 5% (d) 530 kW ± 5% to [JEE Main 2015]
(a) 1.6 ´ 10- 8 W-m (b) 1.6 ´ 10- 7 W-m
9. The value of current i1 flowing from A to C in the (c) 1.6 ´ 10- 6 W-m (d) 1.6 ´ 10- 5 W-m
circuit diagram is [JEE Main 2020]
14. The supply voltage to room is 120 V. The resistance
of the lead wires is 6 W. A 60 W bulb is already
8V B
switched on. What is the decrease of voltage across
i i the bulb, when a 240 W heater is switched on in
2Ω 2Ω
5Ω parallel to the bulb? [JEE Main 2013]
4 Ω i1 4 Ω (a) Zero (b) 2.9 V
A C
5Ω (c) 13.3 V (d) 10.04 V
2Ω 2Ω
15. Two equal resistances when connected in series to a
battery consume electric power of 60 W. If these
D
resistances are now connected in parallel
(a) 1 A (b) 5 A
combination to the same battery, the electric power
(c) 2 A (d) 4 A
consumed will be [JEE Main 2019]
10. In a Wheatstone’s bridge, three resistances (a) 60 W (b) 30 W
P, Q and R are connected in the three arms and the (c) 240 W (d) 120 W
fourth arm is formed by two resistances S1 and S2
16. Two sources of equal emf are connected to an
connected in parallel. The condition for the bridge
external resistance R. The internal resistances of
to be balanced will be
P 2R the two sources are R1 and R2 ( R2 > R1). If the
(a) = potential difference across the source having
Q S1 + S 2
internal resistance R2 is zero, then
P R (S1 + S 2) R2 ´ (R1 + R2)
(b) = (a) R = (b) R = R2 - R1
Q S1S 2 (R2 - R1 )
P R (S1 + S 2) R1R2 R1R2
(c) = (c) R = (d) R =
Q 2 S1S 2 (R1 + R2) (R2 - R1 )
P R
(d) =
Q S1 + S 2 17. An ideal battery of 4 V and resistance R are
connected in series in the primary circuit of a
11. A 2 W carbon resistor is colour coded with green, potentiometer of length 1 m and resistance 5 W.
black, red and brown, respectively. The maximum The value of R to give a potential difference of
current which can be passed through this resistor 5 mV across 10 cm of potentiometer wire is
is [JEE Main 2019] [JEE Main 2019]
(a) 0.4 mA (b) 63 mA (a) 395 W (b) 495 W
(c) 20 mA (d) 100 mA (c) 490 W (d) 480 W
672 JEE Main Physics
18. In the given circuit diagram, when the current 23. In the given circuit, the internal resistance of the
reaches steady state in the circuit, the charge on 18 V cell is negligible. If R1 = 400 W, R3 = 100 W and
the capacitor of capacitance C will be R4 = 500 W and the reading of an ideal voltmeter
ε r across R4 is 5 V, then the value of R2 will be
[JEE Main 2019]
r1
R3 R4
C r2
[JEE Main 2017] R1 R2
r1 r2
(a) Ce (b) Ce
(r2 + r ) (r + r2)
r1
(c) Ce (d) Ce 18 V
(r1 + r )
(a) 550 W (b) 230 W
19. The total current supplied to the circuit by the (c) 300 W (d) 450 W
battery is
24. The actual value of resistance R , shown in the
figure is 30 W. This is measured in an experiment
2Ω V
6V 6Ω as shown using the standard formula R = , where
3Ω i
V and i are the readings of the voltmeter and
1.5 Ω ammeter, respectively. If the measured value of R
is 5% less, then the internal resistance of the
voltmeter is
(a) 1 A (b) 2 A (c) 4 A (d) 6 A
V
20. The current i drawn from the 5 V source will be
A
10Ω R
27. Fig. (a) shows a meter bridge (which is nothing but 30. In the circuit shown, the potential difference
a practical Wheatstone bridge) consisting of two between A and B is [JEE Main 2019]
resistors X and Y together in parallel with one 1Ω 1V
metre long constant wire of uniform cross-section. M
5Ω 1Ω 2V 10Ω
X Y
A D C B
B 3V
1Ω
N
G
(a) 3 V (b) 1 V (c) 6 V (d) 2 V
A D C
31. Two cells of emf’s 2V and 1V and of internal
(a) resistances 1 W and 2W respectively, have their
positive terminals connected by a wire of 10W
With the help of a movable contact D, one can
resistance and their negative terminals by wire of
change the ratio of the resistances of the two
4W resistance. Another coil of 10W is connected
segments of the wire, until a sensitive
between the middle points of these wires. The
galvanometer G connected across B and D shows to
potential difference across the 10W coil is
deflection. The null point is found to be at a (a) 1.07 V (b) 2.03 V (c) 3.45 V (d) 4.25 Vs
distance of 33.7 cm from the end A. The resistance
Y is shunted by a resistance Y ¢ of 12.0 W [Fig. (b)] 32. Determine the charge on the capacitor in the
and the null point is found to shift by a distance of following circuit.
18.2 cm. Determine the resistances of X and Y.
X Y 6Ω 2Ω
B 12Ω 72V 4Ω 10Ω 10 µF
G
[JEE Main 2019]
A D C (a) 2 mC (b) 200 mC (c) 10 mC (d) 60 mC
Find the emf e1 (in volts). 37. Two wires of same length and thickness having
ε3=30 V ε2
specific resistance 6W cm and 3W cm respectively
1 2 are connected in parallel. The effective
S
resistivity is r W cm. The value of r, to the nearest
G
integer is ……… . [JEE Main 2021]
A B
C
38. The circuit shown in the figure consists of a
R=10 Ω charged capacitor of capacity 3 mF and a charge of
ε1 30 mC. At time t = 0, when the key is closed, the
value of current flowing through the 5 MW
36. An ideal cell of emf 10 V is connected in circuit resistor is x m-A. The value of x to the nearest
shown in figure. Each resistance is 2 W. The potential
integer is ………… .
difference (in volt) across the capacitor when it is
fully charged is C=3µF 5MΩ
8V
R1
q=30µC
C
R2 R5
R3
R4
[JEE Main 2021]
Answers
Round I
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (c)
Round II
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. 453 34. 10 35. 150 36. 8 37. 4 38. 2
Solutions
Round I Given, R = 10 = rl / A
dq rl r 5l / 4 25 rl
1. We have, i = = 3t 2 + 2t + 5 and R1 = 1 = =
dt A1 4 A / 5 16 A
Þ dq = (3t 2 + 2t + 5)dt 25 250
2 or R1 = ´ 10 = = 15.6 W
\ q = ò (3t + 2t + 5) dt
2
16 16
0
2
æ 3t3 2t 2 ö é 3(2)3 (2)2 ù 8. Mass, M = Volume ´ Density = Al ´ d
=ç + + 5t ÷ =ê +2 + 5 ´ 2ú
è 3 2 ø or A = M / ld
0 ë 3 2 û
rl2d
= 8 + 4 + 10 = 22C Resistance, R = rl / A = rl / (M / ld ) =
M
2. \ vd = i /nAe = 0.21 / (8.4 ´ 1028 ´ 10-6 ´ 1.6 ´ 10–19 ) So, R µ l 2/ M
= 1.56 ´ 10 ms –5 –1
l12 l22 l32
Thus, R1 : R2 : R3 = : :
i i ´4 1 M1 M 2 M3
3. \ vd = = Þ vd µ 2
nAe npD 2e D 32 22 12
2 = : :
vd1 D2 æ 1 ö 1 1 2 3
Q = 22 = ç ÷ =
vd2 D1 è 2 ø 4 = 27 : 6 : 1
4. \ vd = i / n Ae rl ¢
9. We have, RA = -3
p (10 ´ 0.5)2
where, n = Nr / M
rl
= 6.023 ´ 1026 ´ 9 ´ 103 /63 RB =
p [(10–3 )2 - (0.5 ´ 10–3 )2]
= 0.860 ´ 1029 = 8.6 ´ 1028
22 RA (10-3 )2 - (0.5 ´ 10–3 )2
and A = pD 2/ 4 = ´ (10-3 )2/4 m2 Q = =3
7 RB (0.5 ´ 10–3 )2
11 \ RA : RB = 3 : 1
= ´ 10-6 m2
14 rl
1.1 10. We know that, R =
vd = A
11
8.6 ´ 1028 ´ ´ 10-6 ´ 1.6 ´ 10–19 (a) When the battery is connected across 1 cm ´ 1/2 cm
14 faces, then
1 100 ´ 10-4 r ´ 10
= = = 0.1 mms –1 l = 10 cm ; A = 1 ´ 1 /2 cm2, R1 = = 20 rW
9.6 ´ 10 +3
96 1 ´ 1 /2
5. \i = nAevd
i 1 cm
or vd = 2 1cm
nAe
Total number of free electrons in the unit length of 10cm
conductor, (b) When the battery is connected across 10 cm ´ 1 cm
N = nA ´ 1 1 r ´ 1 /2 r
faces, then l = cm ; A = 10 ´ 1 cm2, R2 = = W
Total linear momentum of all the free electrons per 2 10 ´ 1 20
unit length 1
i i i (c) When the battery is connected across 10cm ´ cm
= (Nm) vd = nAm ´ = = 2
nAe (e / m) s faces, then l = 1 cm;
6. Slope of the graph will give us reciprocal of resistance. r ´1 r
A = 10 ´ 1 /2 cm2, R3 = = W
Here, resistance at temperature T1 is greater than (10 ´ 1 /2) 5
that at T2. Since, resistance of metallic wire is more at
higher temperature, then at lower temperature, hence 11. Aluminium is more resistive than copper and mercury
T1 > T2. is most resistive of all.
25 5l So, rM > rA > rC
7. Given, l1 = l + l = . Since, volume of wire remains
100 4 12. Using colour code, resistance is
unchanged on increasing length, hence R = 27 ´ 103 W, ± 10%
Al = A1 ´ 5 l / 4 = 27 k W, ± 10%
or A1 = 4 A / 5
676 JEE Main Physics
D C A B
2Ω
Total resistance between A and B will be + –
1 1 1 1 3 V=1V
= + + =
R 4 4 4 4 In given circuit V AB = 1 V, so upper branch of circuit is
4 as shown in below figure.
or R= W
3 i1 1Ω
i 2Ω
17. Here, points B and D are common. So, 2 R in arm DC
C
and 2 R in arm CB are in parallel between C and B.
1Ω
2 R ´2 R A B
Their effective resistance = =R
2R+2R Equivalent resistance of upper branch,
The modified and simpler circuit will be as shown in 1 5
Req = (1 W ||1 W ) + 2 W = + 2 = W
figure. The effective resistance between A and B is 2 2
R
So, current in upper branch,
A C V V AB 1 2
i= = = = A
R Req 5 / 2 5
At point C, this current is equally divided into two parts.
R 1 æ2ö
R So, i1 = ç ÷ = 0.2 A
2 è5ø
ne
B 21. In series combination of cells current, i =
nr + R
R ´ (R + R) 2 e
Reff = = R In parallel combination of cells, i ¢ =
R + (R + R) 3 (r /n ) + R
Current Electricity 677
R
i5=0.4 A
3E
i= i2
R + r1 + r2 S
R i1=0.3 A
i4=0.8 A
Total potential difference = 2E - ir1 = 0
2E = ir1 From Kirchhoff’s junction rule, Si = 0
3E ´ r1
2E = At junction S, i 4 = i5 + i3
R + r1 + r2
Þ 0.8 = 0.4 + i3
2R + 2r1 + 2r2 = 3r1
r Þ i3 = 0.4 A
R = 1 - r2
2 At junction P, i5 = i 6 Þ i 6 = 0.4 A
24. Here, mn = 20 At junction Q, i 2 = i1 + i3 + i 6 = 0.3 + 0.4 + 0.4 = 1 .1 A
For maximum current, R = nr/m 27. From Kirchhoff’s loop rule,
or 2.5 = n ´ 0.5 /m - i (2) + 18 - i (6.6) - 12 - i (1) = 0
or n =5m 6
Þ i= A
From Eq. (i), we get 9.6
m ´ 5 m = 20 Terminal voltage of 18 V battery,
or m2 = 4 V = e - ir1
or m =2 = 18 - i ´ 2
Therefore, n = 5 ´ 2 = 10 = 18 -0.625 ´ 2
25. Given arrangement of batteries and resistances is = 16.75 » 17 V
shown below For 12 V battery,
R
V = e + ir2 = 12 + 1 ´ 0.625
A i1 B
= 12.625 » 13 V
30 Ω
i2 28. In loop 1,
i 5 1
i1 = = A
ε1=10V ε2=10V 10 2
r1=20Ω r2=5Ω i1
+
+ 1 5 W 10 W 2 20 V
–
V=0 10 V –
Let i = circuit current, then it is given that potential
difference across battery of 10V and 20 W is zero. 20
ln loop 2, i2 = =2 A
i.e. e1 - ir1 = 0 10
1 But both currents are confined to separate loops and
Þ 10 - i(20) = 0 Þ i = = 0.5A so current through 2 W resistor is zero.
2
678 JEE Main Physics
29. In given circuit, current distribution following 31. By Kirchhoff’s loop rule in the given loop ABEFA, we
Kirchhoff’s law will be as shown in the figure. get
A i1 B C
4i 3i i 1 +i 2
1Ω 5 B 5 2Ω i2
A 1i C R1=20Ω
R2=20Ω
4Ω 5 3Ω
1 D 2 i i2
i1
i 5i 5 – + + –
_ F D
+ 10 V E 10 V
20 V 10 - (i1 + i 2)R1 = 0
Þ 10 - (i1 + i 2) 20 = 0
Since, the current flows in inverse ratio of the 1
resistance of branch. or i1 + i 2 = …(i)
2
Now, total circuit resistance, and from loop BCDEB, we get
Req = (1W ||4W ) + (2W ||3W) 10 - (i1 + i 2)R1 - i 2R2 = 0
æ1 ´ 4ö æ2 ´ 3ö Þ 10 - (i1 + i 2 + i 2) 20 = 0
=ç ÷ +ç ÷
è1 + 4ø è2 + 3ø 1
Þ i1 + 2i 2 = …(ii)
4 6 2
=+ From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
5 5
10 i2 = 0
= W = 2W and i1 = 0.5 A
5
So, current drawn from cell, 32. Given,
7Ω 15 V
V 20V + –
i= = = 10 A
Req 2W – +
i1 1 i1
Hence, current through BD arm is (refer to circuit 5Ω
+ – A
diagram), i 1 + i2
i2 i2
i 10
iBD = = =2A
5 5 + –
2Ω E
5
30. Req = + 1.5 = 4 A Given, i1 + i 2 = 2 A
2
V 20 In loop 1, by Kirchhoff’s rule, SV = 0
Current through cell = = =5 A
R 4 15 - 7i1 - 2 ´ 5 = 0
i 5
So, current through each branch = = 2.5 A Þ i1 = A
2 7
Now, considering loop Þ i1 = 0.714 A
3Ω 2Ω Also, i1 + i 2 = 2 A
P
5 9
+ – Þ i2 = 2 - = A
2.5 A 7 7
5A Þ i 2 = 1.29 A
V2 \ Current in circuit is
40. Case I Using the formula, P = …(i)
R V 220 1
i= = = A
where, R is resistance of wire, V is voltage across wire Rtotal (220)2 (220)2 11
and P is power dissipation in wire +
25 100
rl
and R= …(ii) Power drawn by bulbs are respectively,
A
2
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have æ1ö 220 ´ 220
P1 = i 2R1 = ç ÷ ´ = 16 W
V2 è 11 ø 25
P1 =
rl/A 2
220 ´ 220
æ1ö
2 and P2 = i 2R2 = ç ÷ ´ =4W
or
V
P1 =
×A …(iii) è 11 ø 100
rl
44. Given circuit is
Case II Let R2 be net resistance of two wires in
parallel, then 4R 6R
R´R R R R
R2 = = A B
R+ R 2 4R 12R
where, R is the resistance of half wire
ælö
r×ç ÷
è2ø rl
Þ R2 = = ε=16 V
A×2 4A
2 Equivalent resistance of part A,
V
or P2 =× 4A …(iv)
rl 4R ´ 4R
RA = = 2R
On dividing Eq. (iii) by Eq. (iv), we get 4R + 4R
P1 1 P2 4
= Þ = Equivalent resistance of part B,
P2 4 P1 1
6R ´ 12R
RB =
41. Total power (P ) consumed 6R + 12R
= (15 ´ 40) + (5 ´ 100) + (5 ´ 80) + (1 ´ 1000) 72
=R = 4R
= 2500 W 18
As we know power, i.e. P = Vi \Equivalent circuit is
2500 125 2R R 4R R
Þ i= A= = 11.3 A
220 11
Hence, minimum capacity should be 12 A.
42. Given, P = 1 kW = 1000 W, ε = 16 V
V = 220 V, R = 2 W \Total resistance of the given network is
P 1000
Current, i= = A Rs = 2R + R + 4R + R = 8R
V 220
æ 1000 ö
2 As we know, power of the circuit,
Power loss, Ploss = i 2R = ç ÷ ´ 2 = 41.32 W e 2 (16)2 16 ´ 16
è 220 ø P= = = …(i)
Now, the efficiency of transmission line, Rs 8R 8R
æ P ö æ 1000 ö 8R
h=ç ÷ ´ 100 = ç ÷ ´ 100
è P + Ploss ø è 1000 + 41 . 32 ø
h = 96.03% » 96%
43. Resistance of a bulb of power P and with a voltage
source V is given by ε=16 V
2 According to question, power consumed by the
V
R= network, P = 4 W
P
Resistance of the given two bulbs are From Eq. (i), we get
V 2 (220)2 V 2 (220)2 16 ´ 16
R1 = = and R2 = = \ =4
P1 25 P2 100 8R
16 ´ 16
Since, bulbs are connected in series. This means same Þ R= = 8W
8 ´4
amount of current flows through them.
Current Electricity 681
45. We have, H = i 2Rt Þ 500 = (1.5)2 ´ R ´ 20 On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
x = 0.865 Þ y = 0.792
E = (3)2 ´ R ´ 20
DV = x - y = 0.073 and R = 15 W
E = 2000 J
DV
i= = 4.87 mA
46. By maximum power theorem, maximum Joule’s heating R
in external resistance R takes place when internal
resistance of battery is equal to external resistance R. 49. For a balanced Wheatstone bridge,
P Q
– =
Inner bar
+
R X
dr
In first case when R = 400 W, the balancing equation
b will be
R +
P Q
l =
a R X
P Q
– Þ =
400 W X
Outer shell 400 ´ Q
Þ P= …(i)
Now, resistance of an elemental cylinder of radius r X
and thickness dr is In second case, P and Q are interchanged and
r × dr R = 405 W
(dR) internal =
2prl Q P Q P
\ = Þ = …(ii)
Þ Rinternal = ò (dR) R X 405 X
internal
r=b Substituting the value of P from Eq. (i) in
rdr r b dr r Eq. (ii), we get
ò òa r = 2pl [ln r ] a
b
= =
r= a
2 p rl 2 p l Q Q ´ 400
=
r 405 X2
= (ln b - ln a )
2 pl Þ X 2 = 400 ´ 405
r æ bö
= × ln ç ÷ Þ X = 400 ´ 405 = 402.5
2 pl èaø
The value of X is close to 402.5 W.
So, the maximum Joule’s heating in R will takes place
when its value is 50. We have, X + Y = 1000 W
r æ bö
= Rinternal = × ln ç ÷ X Y=1000 – X
2 pl èaø
G
47. In a balanced Wheatstone bridge, there is no effect on 100 – l
position of null point, if we exchange the battery and l
galvanometer. So, option (a) is incorrect.
X 1000 - X
48. x Initially, = …(i)
B l 100 - l
0Ω
10
A G C Y=1000 – X X
10 0
60
G
5Ω
Ω
D
y
(l – 10) (110 – l)
1000 - X X
10 V =
l - 10 100 - (l - 10)
x - 10 x - y x - 0
+ + =0 1000 - X X
100 15 10 or = …(ii)
l - 10 110 - l
53x - 20 y = 30 …(i)
y - 10 y - x y - 0 From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
+ + =0 100 - l l - 10
60 15 5 =
17 y - 4x = 10 …(ii) l 110 - l
682 JEE Main Physics
e R + r 52 5 + r 52
Þ = = Þ = Round II
V R 40 5 40
Þ
3
r = W Þ r = 1.5 W
1. As, we know Cu is a conductor, so when there is
2 increase in temperature, resistance will increase
56. Let length of null point J be x and length of the linearly. Then, Si is semiconductor, so with increase in
potentiometer wire be L. temperature, resistance will decrease linearly.
6 e
In first case, current in the circuit, i1 = =1 A 2. i=
4+2 R+ r
1 ´4 e
\ Potential gradient = i ´ R = Þ i = = constant
L R
1 ´4 where, R = external resistance
Þ Potential difference in part ‘AJ’ = ´ x = e1
L r = internal resistance = 0
4x x 1
Given, e1 = 0.5 = or = …(i) 3. Given, l ¢ = l + 100% l = 2 l
L L 8
6 Initial volume = Final volume
In second case, current in the circuit, i 2 = = 0.6 A
4+6 i.e. pr 2l = pr ¢2 l ¢
0.6 ´ 4 r 2l l
\ Potential gradient = or r ¢2 = = r2 ´
L l¢ 2l
Þ Potential difference in part ‘AJ’ r2
or r ¢2 =
0.6 ´ 4 2
= ´ x = e2
L l¢ 2l æ rl ö
\ R¢ = r =r çQ R = ÷
0.6 ´ 4 L A¢ p r ¢2 è Aø
Þ e2 = ´ [using Eq. (i)]
L 8 r × 4l
Þ e 2 = 0.3 V = = 4R
pr 2
57. Given, length of potentiometer wire ( AB) = L Thus, DR = R¢ - R = 4R - R = 3 R
Resistance of potentiometer wire ( AB) = 12 r 3R
\ % DR = ´ 100% = 300%
emf of cell D of potentiometer = e R
Internal resistance of cell D = r 4. As per the question,
e 2l
emf of cell C =
2
Internal resistance of cell C = 3r A/2
Current in potentiometer wire
emf of cell of potentiometer r (2l) 4rl
i= Resistance = =
total resistance of potentiometer circuit ( A / 2) A
e e V VA
Þ i= = Þ Current = =
r + 12r 13r R 4rl
Potential drop across the balance length AJ of
potentiometer wire is V AJ = i ´ RAJ
5. Let resistances be R1 and R2, then
R1R2
Þ V AJ = i (Resistance per unit length of S = R1 + R2 and P =
R1 + R2
potentiometer wire ´ length AJ)
n ´ R1R2
æ 12r ö \ (R1 + R2) = (Q S = nP )
Þ V AJ = i ç ´ x÷ R1 + R2
è L ø
where, x = balance length AJ. or (R1 + R2)2 = nR1R2
é R2 + R22 + 2 R1R2 ù é R1 R2 ù
As null point occurs at J, so potential drop across Þ n=ê 1 ú =ê + + 2ú
balance length AJ = emf of the cell C . ë R 1 R2 û ë R2 R1 û
e æ 12r ö e We know, Arithmetic Mean ³ Geometric Mean
Þ V AJ = Þ i ç ´ x÷ =
2 è L ø 2 R1 R2
+
e 12r e R2 R1 R1 R2 R R
Þ ´ ´x= ³ ´ Þ 1 + 2 ³2
13r L 2 2 R2 R1 R2 R1
13
Þ x= L So, n (minimum value) = 2 + 2 = 4
24
684 JEE Main Physics
6. Given, i = 10 A, A = 5 mm 2 = 5 ´ 10-6 m 2 11. Colour code of carbon resistor is shown in the figure
and vd = 2 ´ 10-3 m/s below
Green Black Red Brown
We know that, i = neAvd
\ 10 = n ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19 ´ 5 ´ 10-6 ´ 2 ´ 10-3
Þ n = 0.625 ´ 1028 = 625 ´ 1025
7. Let (rA , lA , rA , AA ) and (rB , lB , rB , AB ) be specific So, resistance value of resistor using colour code is
resistances, lengths, radii and areas of wires A and B, R = 502 ´ 10 = 50.2 ´ 102 W
respectively. Here, we must know that for given carbon resistor
r l r l first three colours give value of resistance and fourth
Resistance of A , RA = A A = A 2A
AA prA colour gives multiplier value.
rB lB rB lB Now using power, P = i 2R, we get
Resistance of B, RB = =
AB prB2 P 2
Þ i= =
From given information, R 50.2 ´ 102
rB = 2 r A
rB = 2 rA ~ 20 ´ 10- 3 A
–
and RA = RB = 20 mA
r AlA rB lB
\ = 12. Let potential at P1 be 0 V and potential at P2 be V 0.
prA2 prB2
r AlA 2 r A ´ lB Now, apply KCL at P2 ,
or =
prA2 p (2 rA )2 S i =0
lB 2 P2
or = = 2 :1
lA 1
2Ω 1Ω
8. Using colour code, we have 10Ω
R = 53 ´ 104 ± 5% W 5V –2V
or R = 530 ´ 103 W ± 5% 5V 2V
or R = 530 kW ± 5% P1
9. 8V V 0 - 5 V 0 - 0 V 0 - (-2)
+ – + + =0
2 10 1
B 5
i i or V0 =
2Ω 2Ω 16
5Ω
V
A C So, current through 10 W resistor is 0 (~
- 0.03 A) from
10
i1 5Ω
2Ω 2Ω i1 P2 to P1.
4Ω D 4Ω 13. According to the question,
i1
0.1m
8V
18. In steady state, no current flows through the which is a balanced Wheatstone’s bridge and hence, no
capacitor. So, resistance rp becomes ineffective. current flows in the middle resistor, so equivalent
e circuit would be as shown below
So, the current in circuit, i =
r + r2
30Ω
Q Potential drop across capacitor = Potential drop
er2
across r2 = ir2 =
r + r2 i 15Ω
r
\ Stored charge of capacitor, Q = CV = Ce 2
r + r2
19. The equivalent circuit can be drawn as 6 W and 2 W are 5V
in parallel. 30Ω || 15Ω= 10Ω
2 ´6
R¢ = = 1.5 W
8
i
1.5Ω
2Ω
3Ω 6Ω
5V
– + V 5
6V i= = = 0 .5 A
R 10
As, 1 . 5 W and 1 . 5 W are in series. (as shown in above 21. Assume the current in branches as shown in figure
circuit)
5Ω i2
R¢ ¢ = 1 . 5 + 1 . 5 = 3 W
(i1+i2)
1.5Ω 1.5Ω
+
i1 10 Ω 10 V
1 –
3Ω + – 2
20 V 2 Ω i1 i2 4 Ω
– +
6V Applying KVL in loop 1,
Now, 3 W and 3 W are in parallel. +20 - 5i1 - 10(i1 + i 2) - 2i1 = 0
3 ´3
Req = = 1 .5 W 17i1 + 10i 2 = 20 …(i)
6
Applying KVL in loop 2,
3Ω 1.5Ω
+10 - 10(i1 + i 2) - 4i 2 = 0
5i1 + 7i 2 = 5 …(ii)
3Ω
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
i 2 = - 0 . 214 A
– + – + or i2 -~ - 0.21 A
6V 6V
It means the direction of current is from positive to
Hence, current supplied by the battery is negative terminal of battery inside it.
V 6
i= = =4 A 22. For parallel combination of cells,
Req 1.5
e1 e 2
+
20. The given circuit can be redrawn as r r2
e eq = 1
10Ω 20Ω 1 1
+
r1 r2
10Ω 10 Ω
+12V
i 5Ω 10Ω –
1Ω
–
+ – +
13V 2Ω
5V
Current Electricity 687
26. The resistors 40 W and 60 W are connected in series 28. Let the length of each side of square ABCD is a.
combination. Similarly, the resistors 90 W and 110 W R
\Resistance per unit length of each side =
are also connected in series combination. 4a
A B
B
R2
40 Ω 60 Ω
i1 i1
i A C i
i2 i2
90 Ω 110 Ω
i i D E R1 C
D
R R a R
+– Now, R1 = (EC ) = ´ =
4a 4a 2 8
i i
40V
R R 7a 7R
Similarly, R2 = (EDABC ) = ´ =
V AC 4a 4a 2 8
So, i1 = R1
RAB + RBC
40 40 2
= = = A E
40 + 60 100 5 C
V AC
and i2 =
RAD + RDC R2
40 40 1 Now, effective resistance between E and C is the
= = = A equivalent resistance of R1 and R2 that are connected
90 + 110 200 5
in parallel as shown below.
For path BAD, using KVL (Kirchhoff's voltage law),
R1R2 (R / 8) ´ (7R / 8) 7R2 8 7
VB + i1 ´ 40 - i 2 ´ 90 = VD REC = = = ´ = R
R1 + R2 (R / 8) + (7R / 8) 64 8R 64
2 1
Þ VB + ´ 40 - ´ 90 = VD 29. Given circuit is redrawn and can be simplified as
5 5
R1=15Ω R3=20Ω
Þ VB + 16 - 18 = VD
Þ VB - 2 = VD In series,
ε=15 V
R4=5Ω
+ Req = R3+R4+R5
Þ VB - VD = 2 V R2=10Ω
–
= 20+5+25
So, the potential difference across BD (in volt) is 2. = 50Ω
27. Since, the wire is of uniform cross-section, the R6=30Ω R5=25Ω
⇒
resistance changes,
Y ¢ = 12Y /(Y + 12) R1=15Ω
In series,
Since, Y ¢ is less than Y , the ratio X /Y ¢ is greater than R′′eq =R1+R′eq+R6
′ = —Ω
X
ε=15 V
50
6
6
Req
i. e. 320 160
= —— =—— Ω
æ X ö æ 51. 9 ö 6 3
ç ÷=ç ÷ R6=30Ω
èY ¢ ø è 48. 1 ø
So, current drawn through cell is
or X (Y + 12) / 12Y = (51.9 / 48.1)
Voltage
Y + 12 æ 51 .9 ö 66. 3 i=
i. e. =ç ÷´ Net resistance of the circuit
12 è 48. 1 ø 33. 7
V 15 9
= = = A
which give Y = 13. 5 W and X = 6. 86 W using Eq. (i) R¢eq¢ (160 / 3) 32
Current Electricity 689
30. In the given circuit, let’s assume currents in the arms or i 2 ´ 2 + i 2 ´ 5 + (i1 + i 2) ´ 10 + i 2 ´ 2 = 1
are i1, i 2 and i3 , respectively. or 10i1 + 19i 2 = 1 …(ii)
i1 1Ω 1V Solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have
M
14 1
2V
i1 = A and i 2 = - A
5Ω i2 1Ω 10Ω 121 121
A B
D C
Therefore, current through resistance R,
3V
i3 1Ω 14 æ 1 ö 13
N i1 + i 2 = + ç- ÷= A
121 è 121 ø 121
V1 1
Now, i1 =
= =1 A Potential difference across the resistance,
R1 1
13
2 3 R = (i1 + i 2)R = ´ 10 = 1.07 V
Similarly, i 2 = = 2 A and i3 = = 3 A 121
1 1
Total current in the arm DA, 32. Given circuit is
i = i1 + i 2 + i3 = 6 A
6Ω 2Ω
As all three resistors between D and C are in parallel.
\ Equivalent resistance between terminals D and C, 72V 4Ω 10Ω 10µF
1 æ1 1 1ö
=ç + + ÷
RDC è 1 1 1 ø
1 To find charge on capacitor, we need to determine
\ RDC = W voltage across it. In steady state, capacitor will acts as
3
So, potential difference across D and C, open circuit and circuit can be reduced as
1 6Ω 2Ω
VDC = iRDC = 6 ´ Þ VDC = 2 V
3
Now, V AD and VCB = 0 (in case of open circuits, i = 0) 72V 4Ω 10Ω
So, V AB = V AD + VDC + VCB = VDC
So, V AB = 2V
In series, Req = 2 W + 10 W = 12 W
31. The positive terminals of the cells e1 and e 2 are ⇒
72V
E D
ε2 = 1V r2 = 2 Ω
8A 6Ω P i1 2Ω Q e2 3 æ VCB lCB 3 ö
Þ = çQ = = ÷
i2 30 2 è V AC lAC 2 ø
72V 4Ω 10Ω 10µF Þ e 2 = 45 V
G G G G \ V AB = 30 + 45 = 75 V
V=0 V=0 V=0 V=0 Q RAB = 2 ´ 5 = 10 W
Current in 4 W branch, 75
\Current through AB is = 7.5 A
V - 0 24 - 0 10
i2 = P = =6A
4 4 \ e1 = 7.5 ´ (RAB + R) = 150 V
So, current in 2 W resistance, 36. When capacitor is fully charged, circuit is reduced to
i1 = 8 - i 2 (Q i = i1 + i 2) as shown below
= 8 - 6 = 2A
2Ω Series
\Potential difference across 10 W resistor, A R=2+2=4Ω
VQG = 2A ´ 10 W = 20 V
Same potential difference will be applicable over the i/3 2Ω
capacitor (parallel combination). 2Ω 2Ω
B
So, charge stored in the capacitor will be i E
2i/3 + – i
Q = CV = 10 ´ 10-6 ´ 20
Þ Q = 2 ´ 10-4 C = 200 mC 10 V
VCB = e 2 …(ii) r =4
V 30 /3
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 38. Q i 0 = = = 2 ´ 10-6 A = 2 m A
R 5 ´ 106
e 2 VCB
=
30 V AC \ x=2
20
Magnetic Effects
of Current
In the year 1820, Oersted realised that electricity and magnetism were related IN THIS CHAPTER ....
to each other. He showed experimentally that the electric current through a
straight wire causes noticeable deflection of the magnetic compass needle held Magnetic Field
near the wire. Biot-Savart’s Law
This shows that the magnetic field is associated with a moving charge or a Ampere’s Circuital Law
current carrying conductor. The branch of physics which deals with the Force on a Moving Charge in a
magnetism due to electric current is called electromagnetism. Uniform Magnetic Field
Lorentz Force
Magnetic Field Cyclotron
The space around a magnet, moving charges or current carrying conductor in
Force on a Current Carrying
which its magnetic effect can be experienced, is called magnetic field ( B). It is a
Conductor in a Magnetic Field
vector quantity. The SI unit for magnetic field is tesla or weber/m 2 and its CGS
unit is gauss (1 tesla = 104 gauss) or maxwell/cm 2. Moving Coil Galvanometer
This Pdf Is
Download From
www.jeeneetadda.in
VISIT NOW !!
692 JEE Main Physics
æm ö æ i ö
B = ç 0 ÷ ç ÷q
B è 4p ø è a ø
m 0i Here, q is to be substituted in radians.
B= (sin q 1 + sin q 2 )
4pd (iii) Magnetic field on the axis of a circular coil
having N turns is
● For an infinitely long straight wire,
m 0NiR 2
q 1 = q 2 = 90° B=
m i 2( R 2 + x 2 )3/ 2
Þ B= 0
2pd
R
● When wire is semi-infinite (at the foot of long i P
x B
wire),
p
q 1 = 0° and q 2 =
2 Here, R = radius of the coil,
m 0i x = distance of point P from centre
Þ B=
4pd
and i = current in the coil.
● For axial position of wire, i.e. point P lies on ● At the centre of the loop, x = 0
^ 1
Example 1. An element DL = Dx × i is placed at the origin and r= ´ altitude
3
and carries a large current I = 10 A. The magnetic field on the 1 3
Y-axis at a distance of 0.5 m is (Dx = 1cm) = ´ ´ side length
3 2
1
= ´1
P
2 3
1
= m
2 3
0.5m æ 3ö
3 ´ 10 -7 ´ 10 ´ 2ç ÷
è 2 ø
x
So, Bnet = = 18 ´ 10 -6 T
æ 1 ö
∆x ç ÷
è2 3 ø
(a) 2 ´ 10 -8 T (b) 6 ´ 10 -8 T Þ Bnet = 18 mT
-8
(c) 8 ´ 10 T (d) 4 ´ 10 -8 T
Example 3. One of the two identical conducting wires of
Sol. (d) According to Biot-Savart law, length L is bent in the form of a circular loop and the other
m idl sin q one into a circular coil of N identical turns. If the same
| dB| = 0
4p r2 current is passed in both, the ratio of the magnetic field at the
-2
Given, Dx = dl = 10 m, l = 10 A, r = 0. 5 m = y B
centre of the loop BL to that at the centre of the coil BC , i.e. L
BC
q = 90°, sin q = 1
10 -7 ´ 10 ´ 10 -2
will be [JEE Main 2019]
\ |dB| = = 4 ´ 10 -8 T 1
25 ´ 10 -2 (a) (b) N
N
1
Example 2. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the (c) 2 (d) N 2
centre of an equilateral triangular loop of side 1 m which is N
carrying a current of 10 A is [Take, m 0 = 4p ´ 10 - 7 NA - 2] Sol. (c) Let consider the length of first wire is L, then according to
[JEE Main 2019] question, if radius of loop formed is R1, then
(a) 9 mT (b) 1mT For first wire,
(c) 3 mT (d) 18 mT
A i B i
Sol. (d) For a current carrying wire, from result obtained by ⇒ ⇒
R1 A,B
Biot-Savart’s law, magnetic field at a distance r is given by L
B L
L = 2pR1 Þ R1 =
θ1 2p
θ2
The magnetic field due to this loop at its centre,
r
m i m i
i BL = 0 = 0 ´ 2p …(i)
2R1 2L
l
Now, second wire is made into a coil of N turns.
m 0i
B= (sin q1 + sin q2) A i B
4 pr ⇒ ⇒
Now, in given case, L i R2
(R2=radius of coil
having N loops)
i L
θ2 Thin, L = N(2pR2) Þ R2 =
r 2 pN
θ1
The magnetic field due to this circular coil of N turns,
æm iö m i × (2pN)
BC = ç 0 ÷N = N × 0 …(ii)
Due to symmetry of arrangement, net field at centre of triangle is è 2R2 ø 2L
Bnet = Sum of fields of all wires (sides) BL
Using Eqs. (i) and (ii), the ratio of is
m i BC
= 3 ´ 0 (sin q1 + sin q2)
4 pr m 0i m 0i
× (2p )
Here, q1 = q2 = 60° BL 2R1 1
Þ = = 2L =
3 m BC N m 0i m 0i × (2p )N 2 N 2
\ sin q1 = sin q2 = , i = 10 A, 0 = 10 -7NA -2
2 4p 2R2 2L
Magnetic Effects of Current 695
iA = 2 A
2
ò B × dl = m 0( inet )
Its simplified form is Bl = m 0inet
RA = 2 cm = 2 ´ 10 -2 m
This simplified equation can be used under the following
B conditions
(i) At every point of the closed path, B|| d l.
A
(ii) Magnetic field has the same magnitude B at all
places on the closed path.
2A O
(iii) Ampere circuital law holds for steady currents
m
2c
90°
60° Magnetic Field due to a Cylindrical Wire
● Outside the cylinder (r > R)
For wire B, m i
5p In all the cases, Bsurface = 0
qB = 360° - 60° = 300° = rad 2pR
3
iB = 3 A P Amperian loop
P
RB = 4 cm = 4 ´ 10 -2 m
R r R r
So, the ratio of magnetic fields due to wires A and B at the
common centre O is i i
m 0 qAiA
BA 4pRA qi R (a) Solid cylinder (b) Thin hollow cylinder
= = AA B P
BB m 0 qBiB qBiBRA R1 r R
4pRB R2
i
3p
´ 2 ´ 4 ´ 10 -2
= 2
(c) Thick hollow cylinder
5p
´ 3 ´ 2 ´ 10 -2
3
12 6
● Inside the hollow cylinder (r < R) Magnetic field
= = inside the hollow cylinder is zero because no current is
10 5
So, BA : BB = 6 : 5 enclosed by Amperian loops as shown below
● Inside the solid cylinder (r < R) Current i ¢ enclosed Magnetic field due to a straight solenoid can be
by Amperian loop is lesser than the total current i. given as
Amperian
r loop
R r
Amperian i Solenoid i
P i
loop
P ● Finite Length Solenoid If N = total number of
turns, l = length of the solenoid and n = number of
At inside point, ò Bin × d l = m 0i ¢ turns per unit length = N / l, then
m ir
Þ Bin = 0 × 2
2p R
● Inside the thick portion of hollow cylinder Current r α β
enclosed by the Amperian loop of radius r is given by
P
(r 2 - R12 )
i¢ = i ´
( R22 - R12 )
Magnetic field inside the solenoid at point P is given by
P
m ni
B = 0 [sin a + sin b ]
P R2 r R1 Loop 2
r ● Infinite Length Solenoid If the solenoid is of infinite
R1 i
R2 length and the point is well inside it,
i.e. a = b = (p / 2)
m 0i ( r 2 - R12 ) So, Bin = m 0ni
Bin = ×
2pr ( R22 - R12 ) If the solenoid is of infinite length and the point is near
one end, i.e. a = 0 and b = ( p/ 2), so
Variation in Magnetic Field with Radius
1 æ 1 ö
● The variation in magnetic field due to infinite long Bend =
(m 0ni ) çQ Bend = Bin ÷
solid cylindrical conductor along its radius is as shown 2 è 2 ø
in figure Variation in magnetic field with distance d from its
centre
B
B
B max B/2
r 1
∝ B∝ End of solenoid d End of solenoid
B r
r<R
O
r=0 r=R r>R
Toroid
It is a hollow circular ring in which a large number of
● The variation in magnetic field due to infinite long turns of a wire are closely wound.
hollow cylindrical conductor along its radius is as
shown in figure It can be viewed as a solenoid which has been bent into a
circular shape to close on itself as shown below
B
i
Bmax
i
1
Bmax ∝
B=0 r b
B
a B
O r
r=0 r=R r
Solenoid
It consists of a long wire wound in the form of a helix, Magnetic field due to toroidal solenoid can be given
where the neighbouring turns are closely spaced. The net as
● In the open space, exterior of toroidal solenoid,
magnetic field is the vector sum of the fields due to all
the turns. B= 0
Magnetic Effects of Current 697
● Inside the toroidal solenoid, Sol. (a) In case of solenoid, the field at a point on the axis as
m Ni m
B= 0 shown in figure is given by B = 0 2pni (sin a + sin b)
2pr 4p
where, N = total number of turns = 2prn.
Then, B = m 0 ni α β α β h
Note Ampere’s law is valid only for steady current. Further, it is useful
B B
only for calculating the magnetic fields of current configurations with high L/2
degrees of symmetry, just as Gauss’s law is useful only for calculating the
electric fields of highly symmetric charge distributions. (a) α=β
(b)
Example 6. A long, straight wire of radius a carries a
r β
current distributed uniformly over its cross-section. The ratio C
a
of the magnetic fields due to the wire at distance and 2a B
3
L
respectively, from the axis of the wire is [JEE Main 2020]
3 2 1
(a) (b) 2 (c) (d) α=0
2 3 2 (c)
N 1000
Sol. (c) By Ampere’s circuital law, magnetic field inside and Here, n= = = 2.5 ´ 10 3 turns m-1
outside a wire carrying a uniformly distributed current are L 0.4
m i So, B = 10 -7 ´ 2p ´ 2.5 ´ 103 ´ 5 ´ 10 -3(sin a + sin b)
Bout = 0 …(i)
2 pr
m ir i. e. B = 2.5p ´ 10 -6(sin a + sin b)
Bin = 0 × 2 …(ii)
2p R So, (a) when the point is at the middle on the axis a = b with
L
r sin a = sin b =
R L + 4r 2
2
0.4 4
= =
r (0.4) 2 + 4(0.3) 2 7.2
4
Then, B = 2.5p ´ 10 -6 ´ 2 ´
7.2
= 8.7 ´ 10 -6 T
and (b) when the point is at the end on the axis a = 0 with
In given case, radius of wire is a. So, magnetic field due to wire at L 0.4 4
a sin b = = =
a distance from centre, 2 2 2 2 5
3 L +r (0.4) + (0.3)
æ aö 4
iç ÷ Then, B = 2.5p ´ 10 -6 ´ = 6.28 ´ 10 -6 T
m 0 è 3 ø m 0i 5
B1 = = [from Eq. (ii)]
2 p a2 6 pa
and magnetic field at a distance 2a from centre,
Example 8. A coil wrapped around a toroid has inner
m 0i m i radius of 20.0 cm and an outer radius of 25.0 cm. If the wire
B2 = = 0 [from Eq. (i)] wrapping makes 800 turns and carries a current of 12.0 A.
2p(2a) 4pa
Find the ratio of maximum and minimum values of the
Ratio of fields will be
magnetic field within the toroid.
æ m 0i ö
ç ÷ (a) 2 (b) 1.25 (c) 3 (d) 4.29
B1 è 6pa ø 2
= =
B2 æ m 0i ö 3 Sol. (b) Let a and b denote the inner and outer radii of the toroid,
ç ÷
è 4 pa ø then maximum value of magnetic field,
m N 4p ´ 10 -7 ´ 800 ´ 12.0 æ N ö
Example 7. A solenoid of length 0.4 m and diameter Bmax = m 0ni = 0 i = çQ n = ÷
2 pa 2p ´ 20.0 ´ 10 -2 è 2p rø
0.6 m consists of a single layer of 1000 turns of fine wire
carrying a current of 5 ´ 10 -3 A. Calculate the magnetic field = 9.6 ´ 10 -3 T = 9.6 mT
on the axis at the middle and at the end of the solenoid. Ni
-6 -6
Minimum value of magnetic field, Bmin = m 0ni = m 0
(a) 8.7 ´ 10 T , 6.28 ´ 10 T 2 pb
(b) 6.28 ´ 10 -6T , 8.7 ´ 10 -6T 4p ´ 10 -7 ´ 800 ´ 12.0
Bmin = = 7.68 ´ 10 -3 T = 7.68 mT
(c) 5.7 ´ 10 -6 T , 6.28 ´ 10 -6T 2p ´ 25.0 ´ 10 -2
(d) 8.7 ´ 10 -6T , 8.28 ´ 10 -6T Þ Bmax /Bmin = 9.6 / 7.68 = 1.25
698 JEE Main Physics
2pm
Force on a Moving Charge ● Time period, T =
Bq
in a Uniform Magnetic Field Bq
For a particle carrying a positive charge q and moving ● Frequency, f =
2pm
with velocity v enters a magnetic field B, then it
experiences a force Fm which is given by the expression
● Pitch is defined as the distance travelled along
magnetic field in one complete cycle.
Fm = q ( v ´ B)
2pm v cos q
i. e. P = v|| T =
Motion of Charged Particle in a Bq
Uniform Magnetic Field
Example 9. A charged particle carrying charge 1 mC is
When a charged particle q is thrown in magnetic field B
with a velocity v. The magnetic force acting on the moving with velocity (2 i$ + 3$j + 4k$ ) ms -1. If an external
particle is given by F = Bqv sinq, where q is the angle magnetic field of (5 $i + 3$j - 6 k$ ) ´ 10 -3 T exists in the region,
between the velocity and the magnetic field. where the particle is moving, then the force on the particle is
Depending on the initial conditions, the charged particle F ´ 10 -9 N. The vector F is [JEE Main 2020]
can follow different trajectories in a region of uniform (a) - 0.30 $i + 0.32$j - 0.09k$
magnetic field.
(b) - 30 $i + 32$j - 9k$
Case I When q = 0° or 180°
(c) - 300 $i + 320 $j - 90 k$
The magnetic force is F = 0.
(d) - 3.0 $i + 3.2$j - 0.9k$
Hence, path of the charged particle is a straight line
(undeviated) when it enters parallel or antiparallel to Sol. (b) Force on a charged particle moving in region of a
magnetic field. magnetic field is given by
Case II When q = 90° F = q( v ´ B)
The magnetic force is F = Bqv. Here, q = 1 mC = 1 ´ 10 -6 C,
This magnetic force is perpendicular to the velocity at v = (2$i + 3$j + 4k$ ) ms-1
every instant. Hence, path is circle. Then,
mv 2q Vm and B = (5$i + 3$j - 6k$ ) ´ 10 -3 T
● Radius of the circle, r = =
Bq Bq So, force on the particle is
2 $i $j
p k$
Here, K = kinetic energy of particle = or p = 2Km -9 -6
2m F ´ 10 = 1 ´ 10 2 3 4
where, p = momentum of particle. 5 ´ 10 -3 3 ´ 10 -3 -6 ´ 10 -3
2pm
● Time period of the circular path, T = $i $j k$
Bq
-9
● Angular speed of the particle, = 10 2 3 4
Bq 5 3 -6
\ w=
m
Þ F = -30 $i + 32$j - 9k$
Bq
● Frequency of rotation, f =
2pm
Example 10. A proton, an electron and a helium nucleus,
Case III When q is other than 0°, 180° or 90°, have the same energy. They are in circular orbits in a plane
then velocity of charged particle can be resolved in two due to magnetic field perpendicular to the plane. Let rp , re
components one along B and another perpendicular to B. and rHe be their respective radii, then [JEE Main 2019]
B v sin θ (a) re < rp = rHe
v (b) re > rp = rHe
(c) re < rp < rHe
θ v cos θ (d) re > rp > rHe
q, m
Sol. (c) When a moving charged particle is placed in a magnetic
v|| = v cos q and v^ = v sinq field B, then the net magnetic force acting on it is
Hence, the resultant path will be helical. Then, Fm = q( v ´ B)
● The radius of this helical path, Fm = q vB sin q
mv^ mv sinq Here, q = 90°
r= =
Bq Bq Fm = q vB
Magnetic Effects of Current 699
Also, due to this net force, the particle transverses a circular path, simultaneously. The force experienced by the charged
whose necessary centripetal force is being provided by Fm, i.e. particle is given by the expression,
mv 2 F = q( v ´ B) + qE = Fm + Fe
= q vB
r Here, magnetic force Fm = q( v ´ B) = Bqv sinq and electric
mv 2 mv force Fe = qE.
Þ r= = Þ r µm
qvB qB This force is known as Lorentz force.
mv
So, for electron re = e or re µ me The direction of magnetic force is same as v ´ B, if charge
eB is positive and opposite to v ´ B, if charge q is negative.
mpv
For proton rp = or rp µ mp Case I When vB and B are all collinear.
eB
4mpv 2mpv
In this, magnetic force on the particle will be zero. So,
For He-particle rHe = = qE
2eB eB a=
m
Clearly, rHe > rp (Q rHe = 2rp)
The particle will pass through the field following a
æQ mp » 10 -27kg,ö
and we know that, mp > me ç ÷ straight line path with change in its speed.
ç ÷
è me » 10 -31 kg ø Case II When v, E and B are mutually perpendicular.
\ rp > re Þ rHe > rp > re In this, F = Fe + Fm = 0
or a=0
Example 11. A beam of protons with a velocity
4 ´ 10 5ms-1 enters a uniform magnetic field of 0.3 T at an The particle will pass through the field with same
angle of 60° to the magnetic field. Find the pitch of the helix. velocity without any deviation in it’s path.
(Take, mass of the proton = 1.67 ´ 10 -27 kg) Thus, Fe = Fm
(a) 2.35 cm (b) 5.35 cm E
or v=
(c) 4.35 cm (d) 6.35 cm B
This principle is used in velocity selector to get a charged
Sol. (c) When a charged particle is projected at an angle q to a
beam having a specific velocity.
magnetic field, the component of velocity parallel to the field is
v cos q while perpendicular to the field is v sin q, so the particle Example 12. An electron is moving along +x-direction
will move in a circle of radius with a velocity of 6 ´ 106 ms -1. It enters a region of uniform
mv sin q electric field of 300 V/cm pointing along +y-direction. The
r=
qB magnitude and direction of the magnetic field set up in this
1.67 ´ 10 -27 ´ 4 ´ 105 ´ ( 3 / 2) region such that the electron keeps moving along the
= x-direction will be
1.6 ´ 10 -19 ´ 0.3 [JEE Main 2020]
v E
High frequency S
F oscillator
v The period of revolution is given by
F
1 2pm
F T = =
nc qB
v qB
or nc =
2pm
Here, B = 0.5 T
R = radius of circular path = 0.5 cm =0.5 ´ 10 -2 m
This frequency is called the cyclotron frequency.
The frequency n a of the applied voltage is adjusted, so
Now, the magnetic force is
that the polarity of the dees is reversed in the same time
Fm = q(v ´ B) = q vB sin 90° that it takes the ions to complete one-half of the
Fm = qvB …(i) revolution. The requirement n a = n c is called the
When the electric field applied, then the particle moves in a resonance condition.
straight path, then this is the case of velocity selector.
The velocity of the charged particle or ions when it leave
+ + + + + +Q the system via an exit slit,
× × × qBR
v=
q
m
× × × where, R is the radius of the trajectory at exit and equals
– – – – – –Q the radius of a dee.
The kinetic energy of the ions,
Here, the electric force on charge, 1 q 2B2R 2
Fe = q E …(ii) E = mv 2 =
2 2m
In velocity selector, Maximum energy of charged particle is
Fm = Fe æ q 2B2 ö 2
Emax = ç ÷r0
Þ qvB = qE Þ v = E /B …(iii) è 2m ø
Initially particle moves under the magnetic field, so the radius of where, r0 is maximum radius of the circular path followed
circular path taken by the particle is by positive ion.
mv
R= …(iv)
qB Important Points Related to Cyclotron
From Eqs. (iii) and (iv), we get ● Cyclotron is suitable only for accelerating heavy
qB2R particles like proton, deutron, a-particle, etc. Electrons
m=
E cannot be accelerated by the cyclotron because the
1 .6 ´ 10 -19 ´ 0.25 ´ 0.5 ´ 10 -2 mass of the electron is small and a small increase in
m= energy of the electron makes the electrons move with a
10 2
-24 very high speed. As a result of it, the electrons go
m = 2 ´ 10 kg
quickly out of step with oscillating electric field.
Magnetic Effects of Current 701
● When a positive ion is accelerated by the cyclotron, it Rules to Find the Direction of Force
moves with greater and greater speed. As the speed of ● Right hand palm rule If we stretch the right hand
ion becomes comparable with that of light, the mass of palm such that the fingers and the thumb are mutually
the ion increase according to the relation perpendicular to each other and the fingers point in the
m0
m = direction of magnetic field and thumb points in the
æ v2 ö direction of motion of positive charge, then the
ç1 - 2 ÷
è c ø direction of force will be along the outward normal on
the palm.
where m0 = the rest mass of the ion,
Force F
m = the mass of the ion while moving velocity v Current or motion
and c = velocity of light. Field B
i of positive charge
Now, the time taken by the ion to describe semicircular
path is
pm p m0
t= = ×
qB qB æ v2 ö ● Fleming’s left hand rule If we spread the
ç1 - 2 ÷ forefinger, central finger and thumb of our left hand in
è c ø
such a way that all three are perpendicular to each
From the above relation, we can conclude that, the ion other then, if forefinger is in the direction of magnetic
cannot move with a speed beyond a certain limit in a field, central finger is in the direction of current, then
cyclotron. thumb will represent the direction of force.
(Direction of force on conductor)
Force on a Current Carrying F
m
Thumb
Conductor in a Magnetic Field
When a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic
field, the conductor experience a force in a direction B
perpendicular to both the direction of magnetic field and (Direction of magnetic field)
the direction of current flowing in the conductor. i or I Forefinger
i (Direction of current)
Central finger
F
Note To learn this rule, remember the sequence of Father, Mother, Child.
B
Thumb ® Father ® Force
Forefinger ® Mother ® Magnetic field
Central finger ® Child ® Current of direction of positive charge
Therefore, force will be maximum when the conductor Example 14. A straight wire of length 30 cm and mass
carrying current is perpendicular to magnetic field. 60 mg lies in a direction 30° east of north. The earth’s
● If q = 0° or sinq = 0, then F = ilB ´ 0 = 0. magnetic field at this site is horizontal and has a magnitude of
0.8 G. What current must be passed through the wire, so that
Thus, the force will be zero, when the current carrying
it may float in air?
conductor is parallel to the field.
(a) 10 A (b) 20 A
The direction of this force can be found out either by
(c) 40 A (d) 50 A
Fleming’s left hand rule or by right hand palm rule.
702 JEE Main Physics
Sol. (d) As shown in figure, if a current i is passed through the Example 16. Two wires A and B are carrying currents i1
wire from end A towards B it will experience a force BiL sin q and i2 as shown in the figure. The separation between them is
vertically up and hence will float, if d. A third wire C carrying a current i is to be kept parallel to
them at a distance x from A such that the net force acting on it
is zero. The possible values of x are
B A C B
F i
A B
mg i1 i2
x
Fba i1
b i2
ia
ib L x d–x
Ba
m 0ia ib 1 3 2
The force Fba per unit length, fba = F13 + F23 = 0
2pd
The direction of force depends on the direction of current Using thumb rule, direction of B at inside region of wires A and B
in them as will be same.
m 0i1 i m 0i2 i
(i) attractive, if current flow in same direction. \ + =0
2px 2p (d - x)
(ii) repulsive, if current flow in opposite direction.
i1 i i i
Þ + 2 =0 Þ 1 = 2
Definition of Ampere x d-x x x-d
One ampere is the current which flows through each of or ( x - d) i1 = x i2 Þ x (i1 - i2) = di1
the two parallel uniform long linear conductors, which i1
Þ x= ×d … (i)
are placed in free space at a distance of 1 m from each (i1 - i2)
other and attract or repel each other with a force of Second case of balanced force can be as shown
2 ´ 10-7 N/ m. A B
d
Example 15. The force between two parallel current
carrying conductor is F. If the current in each conductor is i1
i2
doubled, then the force between them becomes
(a) 4F (b) 2F (c) F (d) F/4 x
Sol. (a) The force between two parallel current carrying d–x
conductor is
m II 3 1 2
F = 0 1 2 ´l
4p d Using thumb rule, directions of B at any point on wires A and B
When currents in each conductor are doubled, then force will be will be opposite, so net force,
m 2I ´ 2I2 m II m 0i1i m 0i2i
F¢ = 0 1 ´ l = 4 0 1 2 ´ l = 4F - = 0
2p d 2p d 2px 2p (d + x)
Magnetic Effects of Current 703
Substituting values in Eq. (i), we get Note (i) Percentage error in measuring the potential difference by a
10 - 6 ´ 22 æ ö
B= ç ÷
1 ´ 10 ´ 175 ´ 7 ´ 180 ´ 10 - 4
-3
voltmeter = ç
1 ÷ ´ 100
ç1 + r ÷
= 0.998 ´ 10 - 3 ç ÷
è RV ø
- 10 - 3 T
~
(ii) Resistance of voltmeter, RV = R + G
So, igG = (i - ig ) S
Here, ig = 0.002 A,
A G B
i ig i = 0.5 A,
G = 50 W
ig ´ G = (i - ig ) ´ S So, shunt resistance required,
æ ig ö igG 0.002 ´ 50
Þ S=ç ÷G S= = » 0.2 W
è i - ig ø i - ig (0.5 - 0.002)
Note (i) Percentage error in measuring a current through an ammeter is Example 19. A moving coil galvanometer has resistance
æ RA ö
=ç ÷ ´ 100 50 W and it indicates full deflection at 4 mA current. A
è R + RA ø voltmeter is made using this galvanometer and a 5 kW
GS resistance. The maximum voltage, that can be measured using
(ii) Resistance of ammeter, R A =
G+S this voltmeter, will be close to [JEE Main 2019]
(a) 40 V (b) 10 V (c) 15 V (d) 20 V
Conversion of Galvanometer to Sol. (d) Given, resistance of galvanometer, Rg = 50 W
Voltmeter Current, ig = 4 mA = 4 ´ 10 -3 A
A voltage measuring device is called a voltmeter. It
measures the potential difference between two points. A Resistance used in converting a galvanometer in voltmeter,
galvanometer can be converted into voltmeter by connecting R = 5 kW = 5 ´ 10 3 W
a high resistance R in series with it.
If a galvanometer of resistance G shows full scale
deflection for current i g , then required high resistance R, ig Rg R
connected in series for converting it into a voltmeter of Voltmeter
range V is given by
Voltmeter \Maximum current in galvanometer,
E
ig =
R R + Rg
G
A ig B \ E = ig (R + Rg )
= 4 ´ 10 -3 ´ (5 ´ 103 + 50)
V = i g (G + R ) = 5050 ´ 4 ´ 10 -3
V = 20.2 V
Þ R= -G
ig ~
- 20 V
Practice Exercise
ROUND I Topically Divided Problems
Magnetic Field, Biot-Savart’s Law 4. A horizontal overhead power line carries a current
and its Applications of 90 A in east to west direction. What are the
magnitude and direction of the magnetic field due
1. Which of the following graph represents the to the current 1.5 m below the line? [NCERT]
variation of magnetic flux density B with distance r
(a) 1.2 × 10−5 T, perpendicularly outward to the plane
for a straight long wire carrying an electric of paper
current?
(b) 1.9 × 10−5 T, perpendicularly outward to the plane
B B of paper
(c) 2.6 × 10−5 T, perpendicularly inward to the plane of
(a) (b) paper
(d) 2.6 × 10−5 T, perpendicularly inward to the plane of
r r paper
B B
5. Two wires PQ and QR, carry equal currents i as
shown in figure. One end of both the wires extends
(c) (d) to infinity ∠PQR = θ. The magnitude of the
magnetic field at O on the bisector angle of these
r r two wires at a distance r from point Q, is
P
2. Biot-Savart law indicates that the moving electrons
(velocity v) produce a magnetic field B such that
i O
(a) B⊥v [NCERT Exemplar]
(b) B|| v
(c) it obeys inverse cube law
Q i
(d) it is along the line joining the electron and point of R
observation µ i θ µ i
(a) 0 sin (b) 0 cot θ
3. Find the magnitude and direction of magnetic field 4π r 2 4π r
at point P due to the current carrying wire as µ i θ µ i (1 + cos θ/2)
(c) 0 tan (d) 0
shown in figure. 4π r 2 2π r (sin θ/2)
a
6. A pair of stationary and infinite long bent wires are
30° placed in the xy-plane. The wires carrying currents
P 60
° of 10 A each are shown in figure. The segments L and
M are parallel to X-axis. The segments P and Q are
parallel to Y -axis, such that OS = OR = 0.02 m. The
i magnetic field induction at the origin O is
y
µ i
(a) B = 0 [−1 /2 − 3 /2]
4 πa i Q
µ i L i R M
(b) B = 0 [1 /2 + 3 /2] x
4 πa P O S
µ i i
(c) B = 0 [−1 /2 + 3 /2]
4 πa
µ i
(d) B = 0 [−1 /2 + 5 /2]
4 πa (a) 10−3 T (b) 4 × 10−3 T (c) 2 × 10−4 T (d) 10−4 T
706 JEE Main Physics
7. A length l of wire carries a steady current i. It is 11. Magnitude of magnetic field (in SI unit) at the
bent first to form a circular plane coil of one turn. centre of a hexagonal shaped coil of side 10 cm, 50
The same length is now bent more sharply to give µ i
turns and carrying current i ampere in units of 0
three loops of smaller radius. The magnetic field at π
the centre caused by the same current is is [JEE Main 2020]
(a) one-third of its initial value (a) 250 3 (b) 50 3
(b) unaltered (c) 500 3 (d) 5 3
(c) three times of its initial value
(d) nine times of its initial value 12. The magnetic field normal to the plane of a wire of
n turns and radius r which carries a current i is
8. Equal current i flows in two segments of a circular measured on the axis of the coil at a small distance
loop in the direction shown in figure. Radius of the h from the centre of the coil. This is smaller than
loop is r. The magnitude of magnetic field induction the magnetic field at the centre by the fraction
at the centre of the loop is (a) (2 / 3)r 2/ h 2
i
C
(b) (3 / 2)r 2/ h 2
A B (c) (2 / 3)h 2/ r 2
r (d) (3 / 2)h 2/ r 2
O 13. A very long wire ABDMNDC is shown in figure
carrying current i. AB and BC parts are straight,
D long and at right angle. At D, wire forms a circular
µ 0 iθ turn DMND of radius R. AB, BC parts are
(a) zero (b) tangential to circular turn at N and D. Magnetic
3 πr
µ0 i µ0 i field at the centre of circle is [JEE Main 2020]
(c) (π − θ ) (d) (2π − θ )
2π r 2π r M
P 30°
µ 0i 1 µ 0i
(a) π + (b)
D 2 πR 2 2R
µ i µ i 1
E (c) 0 (π + 1) (d) 0 π −
−6 2 πR 2 πR 2
(a) 2.62 × 10 T (b) 2.62 × 10−7 T
(c) 3.62 × 10−7 T (d) 2.62 × 10−8 T 14. The magnetic field at the centre of the circular loop
10. A current loop, having two circular arcs joined by as shown in figure, when a single wire is bent to
two radial lines as shown in the figure. It carries a form a circular loop and also extends to form
current of 10 A. The magnetic field at point O will straight section is
be close to [JEE Main 2019]
O
R
°
θ=45
3c
m
3c
B
Q R 90° C
m
2c
I
2c
P S A
µ i µ 0i 1
(a) 0 (b) 1 +
i=10 A 2R 2R π 2
(a) 1 .0 × 10−5 T (b) 1 . 0 × 10−7 T µ 0i 1 µ i 1
(c) 1 − (d) 0 1 −
(c) 1 . 5 × 10−7 T (d) 1 . 5 × 10−5 T 2R π 2 R π 2
Magnetic Effects of Current 707
15. Two concentric coils, each of radius equal to 2π cm, 20. A closely wound solenoid 80 cm long has 5 layers of
are placed at right angle to each other. Currents of windings of 400 turns each. The diameter of the
3 A and 4 A respectively, are flowing through the solenoid is 1.8 cm. If the current carried is 8.0 A,
two coils. The magnetic induction (in Wbm −2 or T) estimate the magnitude of B inside the solenoid
at the centre of the coils will be near its centre. [NCERT]
(Take, µ 0 = 4 π × 10−7 Wb (Am) −1) (a) 1.5 × 10−2T, opposite to the axis of solenoid
(a) 5 × 10−5 (b) 7 × 10−5 (b) 2.5 × 10−2T, along the axis of solenoid
−5 (c) 3.5 × 10−2T, along the axis of solenoid
(c) 12 × 10 (d) 10−5
(d) 1.5 × 10−2T, opposite to the axis of solenoid
16. A hair pin like shape as shown in figure is made by
bending a long current carrying wire. What is the Force on Charged Particle in
magnitude of a magnetic field at point P which lies Electric and Magnetic Fields
on the centre of the semi-circle? [JEE Main 2021] 21. An electron is projected with uniform velocity along
I the axis of a current carrying long solenoid. Which
I of the following is true? [NCERT Exemplar]
P r (a) The electron will be accelerated along the axis
(b) The electron path will be circular about the axis
I (c) The electron will experience a force at 45° to the
µ 0I µ 0I axis and hence execute a helical path
(a) (2 − π ) (b) (2 + π ) (d) The electron will continue to move with uniform
4 πr 4 πr
velocity along the axis of the solenoid
µ I µ I
(c) 0 (2 + π ) (d) 0 (2 − π )
2 πr 2 πr 22. An electron gun is placed inside a long solenoid of
radius R on its axis. The solenoid has n
17. The magnetic flux density B at a distance r from a
turns/length and carries a current I. The electron
long straight rod carrying a steady current varies
with r as shown in figure. gun shoots an electron along the radius of the
solenoid with speed v. If the electron does not hit
B B the surface of the solenoid, maximum possible
value of v is (all symbols have their standard
(a) (b) meaning) [JEE Main 2020]
R
r r
z
B B
y
(c) (d)
x
r r
2eµ 0nIR
(a)
Ampere’s Circuital Law and Solenoid m
eµ 0nIR
18. A current of i ampere flows along an infinitely long (b)
4m
straight thin walled tube, then the magnetic eµ 0nIR
induction at any point inside the tube is (c)
2m
(a) infinite (b) zero eµ 0nIR
µ 2i µ i (d)
(c) 0 T (d) 0 T m
4 πr 2r
23. A particle of charge q and mass m is moving with a
19. A solenoid of 1000 turns per metre has a core with
relative permeability 500. Insulated windings of velocity −v$i(v ≠ 0) towards a large screen placed in
the solenoid carry an electric current of 5A. The the YZ-plane at a distance d. If there is a magnetic
magnetic flux density produced by the solenoid is field B = B0 k$ , the minimum value of v for which the
(Take, permeability of free space = 4 π × 10−7 H/m) particle will not hit the screen is [JEE Main 2020]
[JEE Main 2021] qdB0 2qdB0
(a) (b)
(a) πT (b) 2 × 10−3 πT 3m m
π
(c) T (d) 10−4 πT (c)
qdB0
(d)
qdB0
5 m 2m
708 JEE Main Physics
24. An electron moving along the X-axis with an initial 29. A charge Q is moving dl distance in the magnetic
energy of 100 eV, enters a region of magnetic field field B. Find the value of work done by B.
. × 10−3 T) k
B = (15 $ at S (see figure). The field
[JEE Main 2021]
extends between x = 0 and x = 2 cm. The electron is (a) 1 (b) Infinite (c) Zero (d) −1
detected at the point Q on a screen placed 8 cm
30. Two charged particles M and N enter a space of
away from the point S. The distance d between P
uniform magnetic field, with velocities
and Q (on the screen) is
perpendicular to the magnetic field. The paths are
. × 10−19 C, mass of
(Take, electron’s charge = 16 as shown in figure. The possible reason (s) is/are
−31
electron = 9.1 × 10 kg) [JEE Main 2019]
Q
M N
S P
(a) the charge of M is greater than that of N
(b) the momentum of M is greater than that of N
2 cm
8 cm (c) specific charge of M is greater than that of N
(d) the speed of M is greater than that of N
(a) 11.65 cm (b) 12.87 cm
(c) 1.22 cm (d) 2.25 cm 31. An electron, a proton and an alpha particle having
the same kinetic energy are moving in circular
25. In an experiment, electrons are accelerated, from orbits of radii re , rp , rα respectively, in a uniform
rest by applying a voltage of 500 V. Calculate the magnetic field B. The relation between re , rp , rα is
radius of the path, if a magnetic field 100 mT is [JEE Main 2018]
then applied. (Take, charge of the electron (a) re > rp = rα (b) re < rp = rα
. × 10−19 C and mass of the electron
= 16 (c) re < rp < rα (d) re < rα < rp
= 9.1 × 10−31 kg) [JEE Main 2019]
32. A proton of mass 1.67 × 10−27 kg and charge
(a) 7.5 × 10−2 m (b) 7.5 × 10−4 m
1.6 × 10−19 C is projected with a speed of 2 × 106 ms −1
(c) 7.5 × 10−3 m (d) 7.5 m
at an angle of 60° to the x-axis. If a uniform
26. A proton and an α-particle (with their masses in magnetic field of 0.104 T is applied along y-axis,
the ratio of 1 : 4 and charges in the ratio of 1 : 2) the path of proton is
are accelerated from rest through a potential (a) a circle of radius = 0.2 m and time period
difference V. If a uniform magnetic field B is set up = 2π × 10−7 s
perpendicular to their velocities, the ratio of the (b) a circle of radius = 0.1 m and time period
radii rp : rα of the circular paths described by them = 2π × 10−7 s
will be [JEE Main 2019] (c) a helix of radius 0.1 m and time period
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 = 2π × 10−7 s
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 2 (d) a helix of radius 0.2 m and time period
= 2π × 10−7 s
27. A deuteron of kinetic energy 50 keV is describing a
circular orbit of radius 0.5 m, is plane 33. A beam of protons with speed 4 × 105 ms−1 enters a
perpendicular to magnetic field B. The kinetic uniform magnetic field of 0.3 T at an angle of 60° to
energy of proton that describes a circular orbit of the magnetic field. The pitch of the resulting helical
radius 0.5 m in the same plane with the same path of protons is close to
magnetic field B, is . × 10−27 kg and
(Take, mass of the proton = 167
(a) 200 keV (b) 50 keV charge of the proton = 1.69 ×10−19 C) [JEE Main 2020]
(c) 100 keV (d) 25 keV (a) 2 cm (b) 4 cm
28. An electron and a proton enter a magnetic field (c) 5 cm (d) 12 cm
perpendicularly. Both have same kinetic energy, 34. The figure shows a region of length l with a
which of the following statement is true ? uniform magnetic field of 0.3 T in it and a proton
(a) Trajectory of electron is less curved.
entering the region with velocity 4 × 105 ms−1
(b) Trajectory of proton is less curved.
making an angle 60° with the field. If the proton
(c) Both trajectories are equally curved.
completes 10 revolutions by the time it cross the
(d) Both move on straight line path.
Magnetic Effects of Current 709
region shown, l is close to (Take, mass of proton 39. A current i1 carrying wire AB is placed near an
. × 10−27 kg, charge of the proton
= 167 another long wire CD carrying current i2 as shown
. × 10−19 C)
= 16 [JEE Main 2020] in figure. If free to move, wire AB will have
B D
i1
i2 A B
60º
C
l
(a) rotational motion only
(a) 0.11 m (b) 0.88 m (b) translational motion only
(c) 0.44 m (d) 0.22 m (c) rotational as well as translational motion
35. A particle of mass m and charge q is in an electric (d) neither rotational nor translational motion
and magnetic field is given by 40. Two long and parallel straight wires A and B
E = 2$i + 3 $j, B = 4 $j + 6k
$. carrying currents of 8.0 A and 5.0 A in the same
direction are separated by a distance of 4.0 cm.
The charged particle is shifted from the origin to Estimate the force on a 10 cm section of wire A.
the point P( x = 1; y = 1) along a straight path. The (a) 1.5 × 10−5 N (b) 2 × 10−5 N
magnitude of the total work done is [JEE Main 2019]
(c) 4 × 10−5 N (d) 3.2 × 10−5 N
(a) 0.35 q (b) (0.15) q
(c) 2.5 q (d) 5 q 41. In the given diagram, two long parallel wires carry
equal currents in opposite direction. Point O is
36. A particle of charge q and mass m starts moving situated mid-way between the wires and the
from the origin under the action of an electric field, XY -plane contains the two wires and the positive
E = E0 ^i and B = B0 ^i with a velocity, v = v0 ^j. The Z-axis comes normally out of the plane of paper.
5 The magnetic field B at O is non-zero along
speed of the particle will become v0 after a time
2 i Y
mv0 mv0 i
(a) (b)
qE 2qE
O
3mv0 5mv0 X
(c) (d) x = –d x = +d
2qE 2qE Z
2d
Force on a Current Carrying
Conductor/Coil in a Magnetic Field (a) X , Y and Z-axes (b) X-axis (positive)
(c) Y -axis (negative) (d) Z-axis (negative)
37. A long horizontal wire P carries a current of 50 A.
It is rigidly fixed. Another fine wire Q is placed 42. A rigid square loop of side a and carrying current i2
directly above and parallel to P. The weight of wire is lying on a horizontal surface near a long current
Q is 0.075 Nm −1 and carries a current of 25 A. Find i1 carrying wire in the same plane as shown in
the position of wire Q from P, so that wire Q figure. The net force on the loop due to the wire will
remains suspended due to the magnetic repulsion. be [JEE Main 2019]
1 1
(a) × 10−2 m (b) × 10−2 m i1
i2
2 3
1 1
(c) × 10−2 m (d) × 10−2 m a
4 5
38. A metal wire of mass m slides without friction on
a
two rails placed at a distance l apart. The track lies
in a uniform vertical magnetic field B. A constant µ 0i1i 2
(a) repulsive and equal to
current i flows along the rails across the wire and 2π
breakdown the other rail. The acceleration of the µ 0i1i 2
(b) attractive and equal to
wire is 3π
B mi
(a) (b) mBi l (c) zero
l µ ii
Bil mil (d) repulsive and equal to 0 1 2
(c) (d) 4π
m B
710 JEE Main Physics
43. Two very long straight parallel wires carry currents 48. An ammeter has resistance R0 and range I. What
i and 2i in opposite directions. The distance between resistance should be connected in parallel with it to
the wires is r. At a certain instant of time, a point increase its range by nI ?
charge q is at a point equidistant from the two (a) R0 / (n − 1) (b) R0 / (n + 1)
wires in the plane of the wires. Its instantaneous (c) R0 /n (d) None of these
velocity v is perpendicular to this plane. The
49. A moving coil galvanometer allows a full scale
magnitude of the force due to the magnetic field
current of 10−4 A. A series resistance of 2 MΩ is
acting on the charge at this instant is
3 µ 0 iqv required to convert the above galvanometer into a
(a) zero (b) voltmeter of range 0-5 V. Therefore, the value of
2π r
shunt resistance required to convert the above
µ 0 iqv µ 0 iqv
(c) (d) galvanometer into an ammeter of range 0.10 mA is
π r 2π r [JEE Main 2019]
44. Two parallel long wires A and B carry currents i1 (a) 100 Ω (b) 500 Ω
and i2 (< i1). When i1 and i2 are in the same (c) 200 Ω (d) 10 Ω
direction, the magnetic field at a point mid-way 50. A galvanometer having a coil resistance 100 Ω gives
between the wires is 10µT. If i2 is reversed, the a full scale deflection when a current of 1 mA is
field becomes 30 µT. The ratio, i1/ i2 is passed through it. What is the value of the
(a) 1 (b) 2 resistance which can convert this galvanometer
(c) 3 (d) 4 into a voltmeter giving full scale deflection for a
potential difference of 10 V? [JEE Main 2020]
45. Two parallel long straight conductors are placed at
(a) 8.9 kΩ (b) 10 kΩ
right angle to the meter scale at the 2 cm and 6 cm
(c) 9.9 kΩ (d) 7.9 kΩ
marks as shown in the figure. If they carry currents
i and 3i respectively in the same direction, then 51. A voltmeter has resistance of 2000 Ω and it can
they will produce zero magnetic field at measure upto 2 V. If we want to increase its range
i 3i by 8 V, then required resistance in series will be
(a) 4000 Ω (b) 6000 Ω
(c) 7000 Ω (d) 8000 Ω
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11121314 15
52. A galvanometer of resistance 100 Ω has 50
(a) zero mark divisions on its scale and has sensitivity of
(b) 9 cm mark 20 µA/division. It is to be converted to a voltmeter
(c) 3 cm mark with three ranges of 0-2 V, 0-10 V and 0-20 V. The
(d) 7 cm mark appropriate circuit to do so is [JEE Main 2019]
R1 R2 R3
46. A square coil of side 10 cm consists of 20 turns and G
carries a current of 12 A. The coil is suspended R1 = 2000 Ω
vertically and the normal to the plane of the (a) R2 = 8000 Ω
coil makes an angle of 30° with the direction of a R3 = 10000 Ω
uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 2V 10 V 20 V
0.80 T. What is the magnitude of torque
experienced by the coil? [NCERT Exemplar] G
R1 R2 R3 R1 = 1900 Ω
(a) 0.96 N-m (b) 2.06 N-m R2 = 9900 Ω
(b)
(c) 0.23 N-m (d) 1.36 N-m R3 = 19900 Ω
2V 10 V 20 V
Moving Coil Galvanometer, Its R1 R2 R3
Conversion into Ammeter and G
R1 = 1900 Ω
Voltmeter (c) R2 = 8000 Ω
47. A galvanometer having a coil resistance of R3 = 10000 Ω
100 Ω gives a full scale deflection when a current of 2V 10 V 20 V
1 mA is passed through it. The value of the
resistance which can convert this galvanometer G
R1 R2 R3 R1 = 19900 Ω
into ammeter giving a full scale deflection for a (d) R2 = 9900 Ω
current of 10 A, is [JEE Main 2016]
R3 = 1900 Ω
(a) 0.01 Ω (b) 2 Ω
20 V 10 V 2V
(c) 0.1 Ω (d) 3 Ω
Magnetic Effects of Current 711
53. A microammeter has a resistance of 100 Ω and full and (ii) into a voltmeter of range 0 to V ( V = Gi0 ) by
scale range of 50µA. It can be used as a voltmeter connecting a series resistance RV to it. Then,
or as a higher range ammeter provided a resistance [JEE Main 2019]
is added to it. Pick the correct range and resistance 2
i0 − ig RA ig
combinations (a) RARV = G 2 and =
(a) 50 V range with 10 kΩ resistance in series Ig RV (i 0 − i g )
(b) 10 V range with 200 kΩ resistance in series 2
10 mA range with 1 Ω resistance in parallel RA i g
(c) (b) RARV = G 2 and =
(d) 10 mA range with 0.1 Ω resistance in parallel RV i 0 − i g
2
54. A moving coil galvanometer, having a resistance G, ig R i − ig
(c) RARV = G 2 and A = 0
produces full scale deflection when a current ig i0 − ig RV i g
flows through it. This galvanometer can be
R ig
converted into (i) an ammeter of range 0 to (d) RARV = G 2 and A =
i0 ( i0 > ig) by connecting a shunt resistance R A to it RV (i 0 − i g )
Q
S
(a) experiences no force P
R
(b) experiences a force towards wire
(c) experiences a force away from wire
(d) experiences a torque but no force
(a) couple on loop P will be maximum
3. Three infinite straight wires A, B and C carry (b) couple on loop Q will be maximum
currents as shown in figure. The net force on the (c) couple on loop R will be maximum
wire B is directed (d) couple on loop S will be maximum
6. An electron is revolving around a proton in a
circular path of diameter 0.1 nm. It produces a
1A 2A 3A
magnetic field 14 T at a proton. Then the angular
speed of the electron is
(a) 8.8 × 106 rad s −1
(a) towards A
(b) 4.4 × 1016 rad s −1
(b) towards C
(c) 2.2 × 1016 rad s −1
(c) normal to plane of paper
(d) zero (d) 1.1 × 1016 rad s −1
712 JEE Main Physics
7. A pulsar is a neutron star having magnetic field at 13. Consider the following statements regarding a
1012 G at its surface. The maximum magnetic force charged particle in a magnetic field
experienced by an electron moving with velocity (i) starting with zero velocity, it accelerates in a
0.9 c is direction perpendicular to the magnetic field.
(a) 43.2 N (b) 4.32 × 10−3 N (ii) while deflecting in the magnetic field, its energy
(c) 4.32 × 103 N (d) zero gradually increases.
8. An electron is shot in steady electric and magnetic (iii) only the component of magnetic field
fields such that its velocity v, electric field E and perpendicular to the direction of motion of the
magnetic field B are mutually perpendicular. The charged particle is effective in deflecting it.
magnitude of E is 1 Vcm −1 and that of B is 2 T. Now (iv) direction of deflecting force on the moving
if it so happens that the Lorentz (magnetic) force charged particle is perpendicular to its velocity.
cancels the electrostatic force on the electron, then Amongst these statements,
the velocity of the electron is (a) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(a) 50 ms −1 (b) 2 cms −1 (b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) 0.5 cms −1 (d) 200 cms −1 (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
9. An electron having kinetic energy E is moving in a
circular orbit of radius R perpendicular to a 14. When a current of 5 mA is passed through a
uniform magnetic field induction B. If kinetic galvanometer having a coil of resistance 15 Ω, it
energy is doubled and magnetic field induction is shows full scale deflection. The value of the
tripled, the radius will become resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer
to convert it into a voltmeter of range 0-10 V is
(a) R 9 / 4 (b) R 3 / 2
[JEE Main 2017]
(c) R 2 / 9 (d) R 4 / 3 (a) 2.045 × 103 Ω (b) 2.535 × 103 Ω
10. Two coaxial solenoids of different radii carry (c) 4.005 × 103 Ω (d) 1.985 × 103 Ω
current i in the same direction. Let F1 be the 15. An equilateral triangle of side l is formed from a
magnetic force on the inner solenoid due to the piece of wire of uniform resistance. The current i is
outer one and F2 be the magnetic force on the outer fed as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the
solenoid due to the inner one. Then, [JEE Main 2015] magnetic field at its centre O is
(a) F1 = F2 = 0 Q
(b) F1 is radially inwards and F2 is radially outwards
(c) F1 is radially inwards and F2 = 0
O
(d) F1 is radially outwards and F2 = 0
P R
11. Two identical current carrying coaxial loops, carry
i i
current i in an opposite sense. A simple amperian
loop passes through both of them once. Calling the
loop as C, [NCERT Exemplar] 3 µ 0i 3 3 µ 0i
(a) (b)
2π l 2 πl
(a) ∫ B ⋅ dl = 2 µ 0i
µ i
C (c) 0 (d) zero
(b) the value of ∫ B ⋅ dl is not independent of sense of C 2 πl
C 16. Consider a wire carrying a steady current, i placed
(c) there may be a point on C where B and dl are in a uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to its
perpendicular. length. Consider the charges inside the wire. It is
(d) B vanishes everywhere on C known that magnetic forces do no work. This
12. A particle of mass m and charge q released from the implies that, [NCERT Exemplar]
origin in a region occupied by electric field E and (a) motion of charges inside the conductor is
magnetic field B, unaffected by B since they do not absorb energy
B = − B0 ^j, E = E0 ^i (b) some charges inside the wire move to the surface
The velocity of the particle will be as a result of B
(c) if the wire moves under the influence of B, no work
2qE 0 qE 0
(a) (b) is done by the force
m m
(d) if the wire moves under the influence of B, then
qE 0 work is done by the magnetic force on the ions,
(c) (d) None of these
2m assumed fixed within the wire
Magnetic Effects of Current 713
17. Two wires A and B carry currents as shown in 21. A galvanometer of resistance G is converted into a
figure. The magnetic interactions voltmeter of range 0-1V by connecting a resistance
Y R1 in series with it. The additional resistance that
should be connected in series with R1 to increase
B i2 the range of the voltmeter to 0-2V will be
A [JEE Main 2020]
X
i1 (a) R1 + G (b) R1 (c) G (d) R1 − G
22. A uniform electric and magnetic fields are produced
pointing in the same direction. If an electron is
(a) push i 2 away from i1 (b) pull i 2 closer to i1 projected with its velocity pointing in the same
(c) turn i 2 clockwise (d) turn i 2 counter-clockwise direction, [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) the electron velocity will decrease in magnitude
18. A current i carrying circular wire of radius R is (b) the electron velocity will increase in magnitude
placed in a magnetic field B perpendicular to its (c) neither (a) nor (b)
plane. The tension T along the circumference of
(d) None of the above
wire is
23. Net magnetic field at the centre of the circle O due
i to a current through a loop as shown in figure
(θ < 180° )
R
B i
26. In the figure, ABCDEFA was a square loop of side l, 29. As shown in the figure, two infinitely long,
but is folded in two equal parts so that half of it lies identical wires are bent by 90° and placed in such a
in the XZ-plane. The origin O is centre of the way that the segments LP and QM are along the
frame also. The loop carries current i, the magnetic X-axis, while segments PS and QN are parallel to
field at the centre is the Y -axis. If OP = OQ = 4 cm and the magnitude of
y D the magnetic field at O is 10−4 T and the two wires
carry equal currents (see figure), the magnitude of
C the current in each wire and the direction of the
B
magnetic field at O will be
(Take, µ 0 = 4 π × 10−7 NA −2) [JEE Main 2019]
S y
E x
O
Q
O
L P M x
F A
Z
N
µ 0i $ $ µ i
(a) (i − j ) (b) 0 (− $i + $j) (a) 40 A, perpendicular out of the page
2 2 πl 4 πl
(b) 20 A, perpendicular into the page
2 µ 0i $ $ µ 0i $ $
(c) (i + j) (d) (i + j) (c) 20 A, perpendicular out of the page
πl 2 πl (d) 40 A, perpendicular into the page
27. A thin ring of 10 cm radius carries a uniformly 30. An elliptical loop having resistance R, of
distributed charge. The ring rotates at a constant semi-major axis a and semi-minor axis b is placed
angular speed of 40π rad s −1 about its axis, in a magnetic field as shown in the figure. If the
perpendicular to its plane. If the magnetic field at loop is rotated about the X-axis with angular
its centre is 3.8 × 10−9 T, then the charge carried by frequency ω , then the average power loss in the
the ring is close to (µ 0 = 4 π × 10−7 N/A2 ). loop due to joule’s heating is [JEE Main 2020]
[JEE Main 2019]
(a) 2 × 10−6 C Z B
(b) 3 × 10−5 C
(c) 4 × 10−5 C b X
(d) 7 × 10−6 C X
a
32. Two identical wires A and B, each of length l, carry 36. A thin disc having radius r and charge q distributed
the same current i. Wire A is bent into a circle of uniformly over the disc is rotated n rotations per
radius R and wire B is bent to form a square of side second about its axis. The magnetic field at the
a. If BA and BB are the values of magnetic field at centre of the disc is
the centres of the circle and square respectively, µ 0qn µ 0qn µ 0qn 3 µ 0qn
B (a) (b) (c) (d)
then the ratio A is 2r r 4r 4r
BB [JEE Main 2016]
37. A particle of charge + q and mass m moving under
π2 π2
(a) (b) the influence of a uniform electric field E$i and a
8 16 2 $ follows a trajectory from
uniform magnetic field Bk
π2 π2 P to Q as shown in figure. The velocities at P and Q
(c) (d)
16 8 2 are v$i and −2v$i, respectively. Which of the following
statement(s) is/are correct?
33. Proton with kinetic energy of 1 MeV moves from
y
south to north. It gets an acceleration of 1012 m/s2
E
by an applied magnetic field (west to east). The
P
value of magnetic field (rest mass of proton is v B
. × 10−27 kg)
16 [JEE Main 2020]
a
(a) 71 mT (b) 0.071 mT
(c) 0.71 mT (d) 7.1 mT Q x
2a
34. An infinitely long wire carrying current i is along 2v
Y -axis such that its one end is at point (0, b) while
1 µv 2
the wire extends upto ∞. The magnitude of (a) E =
magnetic field strength at point P( a, 0) is 4 qa
x
(b) Rate of work done by the electric field at P is
1 mv2
= .
i 4 a
40. A straight conductor of mass m and carrying a Then, which of the following statements ( A, B, C, D)
current i is hinged at one end and placed in a plane are the correct? (Trajectory shown is schematic and
perpendicular to the magentic field of intensity B as not to scale)
y
shown in the figure. At any moment if the
conductor is left free, then the angular acceleration
E
of the conductor will be (Assume gravity free
region) will be P B
v
× × × ×B a
× × × ×i X
O 2a Q
× × × × 2v
× × × ×
3 mv 2
l I. E =
4 qa
iB 3iB
(a) (b)
m 2m II. Rate of work done by the electric field at P is
2m 2m 3 mv 3
(c) (d) .
iB 3iB 4 a
41. The region between y = 0 and y = d contains a III. Rate of work done by both the fields at Q is zero.
magnetic field B = Bk $ . A particle of mass m and
IV. The difference between the magnitude of
charge q enters the region with a velocity v = vi$. If angular momentum of the particle at P and Q is
mv
d= then the acceleration of the charged 2 mav. [JEE Main 2020]
2qB (a) I, III,IV (b) I, II, III
particle at the point of its emergence at the other (c) I, II, III, IV (d) II, III, IV
side is [JEE Main 2019]
44. A thin strip 10 cm long is on an U-shaped wire of
qvB 3 $ 1 $ qvB 1 $ 3 $
(a) i + j (b) i− j negligible resistance and it is connected to a spring of
m 2 2 m 2 2
spring constant 0.5 Nm −1 (see figure). The assembly
qvB − $j + i$ qvB i$ + $j is kept in a uniform magnetic field of 0.1 T. If the
(c) (d)
m 2 m 2 strip is pulled from its equilibrium position and
released, the number of oscillations it performs
42. An infinitely long current-carrying wire and a before its amplitude decreases by a factor of e is N. If
small current carrying loop are in the plane of the the mass of the strip is 50 g, its resistance 10 Ω and
paper as shown in figure. The radius of the loop is a air drag negligible, N will be close to
and distance of its centre from the wire is d( d >> a).
If the loop applies a force F on the wire, then
[ JEE Main 2019] 10 cm
B
y
magnetic field when a current of 0.5 A is flowing
through it, the strength of the field (in T) is ........... . 2
[JEE Main 2020] 4
47. In a square loop PQRS made with a wire of 3 P i
Answers
Round I
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (*) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (*) 50. (c)
51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (b)
Round II
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (*) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. 0 46. 20 47. 0 48. 3 49. 1
Solutions
Round I µ0 i
B= [sin(90° − θ / 2) + sin 90° ] × 2
1. Magnetic field induction at a point due to a long current 4π a
carrying wire is related with distance r by relation θ
1 + cos
1 µ0 i θ µ0 i 2
B∝ . = cos + 1 =
r 2π r sin θ 2 2π r
sin
θ
Therefore, graph given in option (c) is correct. 2 2
2. According to Biot Savart’s law, the magnetic field B at a 6. Total magnetic field induction at O,
point distance r from a charge q moving with a velocity v B = BLR + BRP + BMS + BSQ
is given by µ i µ i µ 2i
=0 + 0 + 0 + 0 = 0
µ q (v × r ) 2π r 2π r 2π r
B= 0
4π r3 2 × 10−7 × 2 × 10
= = 2 × 10−4 T
µ qv sin θ 0.02
or B= 0
4π r2 7. Magnetic field induction at the centre of circular coil
µ 0 2πni
The direction of B is along (v × r ), i. e. perpendicular to carrying current, B = , i. e. B ∝ n / r
4π r
the plane containing v and r. B at a point obeys inverse
r
square law and not inverse cube law. But, 2πr = 3 × 2πr1 or r1 =
3
µ i 3×r
3. As, B = 0 [sin θ1 + sin θ 2] So,
B1 n1 r
= × = =9
4 πa B r1 n r
θ1 = − 30° , θ 2 = 60° ×1
Here, 3
1 3 B1 = 9B
sin θ1 = − and sin θ 2 =
2 2 The magnetic field at the centre caused by the same
Putting these values, we get current is nine times of its initial value.
µ i
B = 0 [−1 /2 + 3 /2] 8. Magnetic field induction at O due to current through
4 πa µ 0 iθ
ACB is B1 =
4. Given, i = 90 A and r = 1.5 m 4 πr
It is acting perpendicular to the paper downwards.
Here, point P is below the power line, where we have to
Magnetic field induction at O due to current through
find the magnetic field and its direction.
ABD is
The magnitude of magnetic field, µ i (2π − θ )
B2 = 0
µ 2i 4π r
B= 0⋅
4π r It is acting perpendicular to paper upwards.
Overhead line
∴ Total magnetic field at O due to current loop is
90 A
µ i µ i
West East B = B2 − B1 = 0 (2π − θ ) − 0 θ
4π r 4π r
1.5 m
µ i
= 0 (π − θ )
2π r
P
10− 7 × 2 × 90 9. Magnetic field at centre of the circular loop,
= = 1.2 × 10− 5 T µ 0Ni
1.5 B=
2R
The direction of magnetic field is given by Maxwell’s
right hand rule, so the direction of magnetic field at Magnetic field due to an arc of a circle at the centre,
point P due to the flowing current is perpendicularly θ µ i µ i
B = 0 = 0 θ
outwards to the plane of paper. 2 π 2 R 4 π R
10. From the given figure as shown below So, magnetic field due to complete 1 turn of loop of six
O sides is
6 µ 0i × 2 sin 30°
B2 = 6B1 =
3 cm 3 cm 4π (5 3 × 10−2)
θ = 45°
Magnetic field of 50 such turns at centre is
Q R
50 × 6 × µ 0i × 2 sin 30°
2 cm 2 cm B3 = 50B2 =
4π (5 3 × 10−2)
P S
µ i
= 500 3 0 T
i=10 A π
The magnetic field at point O due to wires PQ and RS µ 0i
will be zero. = 500 3 in units of
π
Magnetic field due to arc QR at point O will be µ 0 2πni µ 2πnir 2
θ µ 0i 12. B1 = and B2 = 0 2
B1= 4π r 4π (r + h 2)3/ 2
2π 2a − 3/ 2
π B2 r3 h 2
Here, θ = 45° = rad, i = 10 A So, = 2 = 1 +
4 B1 (r + h 2)3 / 2 r2
and a = 3 cm = 3 × 10− 2 m Fractional decrease in the magnetic field will be
π µ 0 × 10 B − B2 B
⇒ B1 = = 1 = 1 − 2
2π × 4 2 × 3 × 10− 2 B1 B1
µ0 ×5 5 × µ 0 × 102 −3 / 2
= = h 2
2 × 12 × 10 −2
24 = 1 − 1 + 2
r
Direction of field B1 will be coming out of the plane of
figure. 3 h 2 3 h 2
= 1 − 1 − =
Similarly, field at point O due to arc SP will be 2 r2 2 r2
π 1 µ 0 × 10
B2 = − 2 13. Given arrangement consists of two current carrying
4 2π 2 × (2 + 3) × 10
wires and one current loop as shown in the question
µ × 102 figure.
= 0
8 For wire ABN, magnetic field at O is given by
Direction of B2 is going into the plane of the figure.
µ i
∴ The resultant field at O is B1 = 0 × (sin φ1 + sin φ2)
4π R
1 5 ×µ0 µ0 Here, φ1 = + 90° and φ2 = − 45°.
B = B1 − B2 = −
2 12 × 10− 2 4 × 10− 2
R
O
4π × 10− 7
= ≅ 1 × 10− 5 T 45º
12 × 10− 2 90º
B
11. Magnitude of magnetic field due to one side of
hexagonal loop at the centre is
µ i
B1 = 0 ⋅ 2 sin φ
4 πr
µ 0i µ 0 3 × 102
B2 = (sin φ1 + sin φ2) ∴ Bx = ⋅ = 3 × 10−5 T
4 πR 2 2π
Here, φ1 = 45° and φ2 = 90°. µ0 i2
µ i 1 By = ⋅ , i2 = 4 A
∴ B2 = 0 + 1 u 2 2π × 10−2
4 πR 2
By = 4 × 10−5 T
Magnetic field of circular coil at O,
µ i ∴ Bnet = Bx2 + By2 = (32 + 42) × 10−10
B3 = 0 u
2R
Bnet = 5 × 10−5 T
Hence, net field at O,
16. As, total magnetic field is due to two straight paths and
Bnet = B1 ⊗ + B2 u + B3 u
the circular loop.
µ i 1 µ 0i 1 µ i
= 0 1 − − + 1 − 0 Btotal = 2 × Bst + Bloop
4 πR 2 4 π R 2 2R
2µ I µ I π
µ 0i 1 1 1 1 = 0 + 0
= − − − − 1 4 πr 2r 2π
2R 2π 2 ⋅ 2π 2 ⋅ 2π 2π
µ I
− µ 0i 1 µ 0i 1 = 0 (2 + π )
= π + = π + . 4 πr
2 πR 2 2 πR 2
17. Magnetic flux inside rod, B ∝ r and outside the rod,
Negative sign is taken for outward field. i
B∝ ⋅ Therefore, the graph shown in option (d) is
14. From the figure, magnetic field due to AB, r
µ 0i π π µ 0i 1 correct.
B1 = sin − sin = 1−
4πR 2 4 4πR 2 18. For a point inside the tube, using Ampere law,
Magnetic field due to circular loop, ∫ B ⋅ dl = µ 0i. Here, we have i = 0 for inside the tube.
µ i
B2 = 0 ∴ B =0
2R
Magnetic field due to straight wire BC,
19. Magnetic field inside solenoid is
µ i π π B = µnI = µ 0µ rnI = 4π × 10−7 × 500 × 1000 × 5 = πT
B3 = 0 sin + sin
4πR 2 4 20. The length of solenoid, l = 80 cm = 0.8 m
µ i 1 Number of layers = 5
= 0 1+
4 πR 2 Number of turns per layer = 400
∴Resultant magnetic field, B = B1 + B2 + B3 Diameter of solenoid = 1.8 cm
µ i 2µ 0i 1 Current in solenoid, i = 8 A
= 0 +
2 R 4 πR 2 ∴The total number of turns, N = 400 × 5 = 2000
µ 0i 1 2000
= and number of turns/length, n = = 2500
2R 1 + 2 π 0.8
The magnitude of magnetic field inside the solenoid
15. Field at the centre of the loop is given by
B = µ 0ni = 4 × 3.14 × 10− 7 × 2500 × 8 = 2.5 × 10− 2 T
µ i
B= 0 The direction of magnetic field is along the axis of
2R
solenoid.
where, R is radius given, R = 2 πcm = 2π × 10−2 m
Y 21. There is a uniform magnetic field B inside the current
2π carrying long solenoid acting along the axis of solenoid.
The magnitude of force on the electron of charge (− e)
i1 = 3A moving with velocity v in a magnetic field B is
O X | F| = − e| v × B| = − evB sin θ
2π
Here angle θ between v and B is zero, i. e. θ = 0° and
i2 = 4A
sin θ = 0. Therefore, F = 0.
It means the electron will continue to move with a
µ i1 uniform velocity along the axis of the solenoid.
Bx = 0
2 2π × 10−2
22. In given arrangement, electron gun shoots electron
i1 = 3 A perpendicularly to the direction of magnetic field.
Magnetic Effects of Current 721
Here, we are showing cross-section of solenoid. When electron enters the region of magnetic field, it
experiences a magnetic force which rotates electron in
Cross-section a circular path of radius R.
of solenoid So, magnetic force acts like a centripetal force and we
v
have
mv2
r
Path of = Bqv
electron R
where, m = mass of electron, q = charge of electron,
As electron is moving at 90° to magnetic field, its path v = speed of electron, R = radius of path
is a circle. Maximum value of radius of path taken by and B = magnetic field intensity.
electron, such that it does not collide with solenoid
R Radius of path of electron,
wall is . mv
2 R=
R mvmax Bq
So, rmax = =
2 eB Now, from geometry of given arrangement, comparing
Here, B = µ 0nI values of tan θ, we have
L d
ReB eµ 0nIR tan θ = =
So, vmax = = R D
2m 2m LD Bq LD
⇒ d= =
23. As we know that, if a charge particle moves in a uniform R mv
magnetic field, then its path is always circular. BqLD
Considering the charge positive,the direction of ⇒ d= (Qmv = 2mK )
2mK
magnetic force acting on it, has been shown by dotted
where, K = kinetic energy of electron
line.
Here, B = 1.5 × 10−3 T,
⊗ B0
q = 1 . 6 × 10−19 C, L = 2 × 10−2 m, D = 6 × 10−2 m,
m = 9.1 × 10−31 kg, K = 100 × 1.6 × 10−19 J
(1.5 × 10−3 × 1 . 6 × 10−19 × 2 × 10−2 × 6 × 10−2)
v (q, m) So, d =
(2 × 9.1 × 10−31 × 100 × 1.6 × 10−19 )
d
= 5.34 cm
No option is matching.
Screen
25. During the circular motion of accelerated electron in the
As, charge particle should not hit the screen this presence of magnetic field, its radius is given by
means radius of circular path must be less than screen
mv 2meV
distance d. r= =
i.e. R≤d Be eB
mv mv where, v is velocity and V is voltage.
⇒ ≤d Q R =
qB0 qB0 After substituting the given values, we get
qB0d 2 × 9.1 × 10− 31 × 1.6 × 10− 19 × 500
or v≤ =
m 1.6 × 10− 19 × 100 × 10− 3
qB0d
Maximum value of v = 2 × 9.1 × 500
1/ 2
m = 10 × 10− 12 ,
1.6
24. r = 7.5 × 10− 4 m
26. Radius of path of charged particle q in a uniform
θ
magnetic field B of mass m moving with velocity v is
R d mv m (2qV / m)
θ r= =
Bq Bq
q, m
m
v ⇒ r∝
q
L So, required ratio is
D rp mp qα 1 2 2 1
= × = × = =
rα mα qp 4 1 2 2
722 JEE Main Physics
2 Em B
or r= or r ∝ m
Bq v sin θ