DASH-8 Q400 LEVEL - III SHEET December 21, 2020

1. How many major zones has 8- DASH Q400 airplane?

A. Four
B. Eight
C. Six

2. Where is the location of aft baggage compartment door?

A. Left side of aft fuselage
B. Right side of aft fuselage
C. Left side of forward fuselage

3. What parameters are displayed on EIS?

A. Navigation, engine and system parameters
B. Navigation, engine and flight data
C. Engine, flight data and autopilot

4. Where is the location of FLIGHT DATA RCDR toggle switch?

A. On the captain instrument panel
B. In the flight compartment on the overhead panel
C. On the forward attendant panel

5. ______ light show malfunctions and safe and normal operation.

A. Caution and warning lights
B. Advisory lights
C. Warning lights

6. When supplies a take-off warning system an aural warning?

A. Due to electrical power loss
B. During left engine failure
C. During incorrect take-off configuration

7. Where is the location of IFC?

A. In the avionic rack
B. On the glareshield
C. On the center instrument console

8. _______ shows navigation, engine and system parameters.

A. CDS
B. EIS
C. PFDS

9. What show malfunctions and safe and normal system operation?

A. Advisory lights
B. warning lights
C. caution lights

10. Which of the following device records A/C parameter data store in a crash protected
memory for future retrieval?
A. SSFDR
B. PFDS
C. EIS

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DASH-8 Q400 LEVEL - III SHEET December 21, 2020

11. Where is the location of SSFDR?

A. Under floor in the flight compartment
B. Behind forward cargo compartment
C. In the empennage the left of the centerline

12. What are the sub-systems of Central maintenance system (CMS)?

A. CDS and PMS
B. ND and MFD
C. EFIS and ESID

13. What is the first family message?

A. needs immediate action by the pilot
B. Need of pilot awareness and an action may be necessary
C. gives an information of normal operating condition

14. The TRU HOT caution light comes on when the TRU temperature is more than__.
A. 71°
B. 166° C
C. 65° C
15. Which condition can cause on the bottom part of the engine display (ED), the “AVIONICS”
caution light comes on?
A. when there is avionics no dispatch condition
B. when there is avionics any go item malfunction.
C. in all conditions of Avionics item malfunction

16. What is done by EPCU for both DC starter generators, When DC external
power is used?
A. It connects the generator in parallel
B. It prevents both generators coming on-line
C. EPCU does not respond during this time

17. What parameters are controlled by the AC Gen. control unit?

A. The output voltage, current and speed
B. AC generator resistance
C. The strength of field current

18. When is the standby battery caution light comes on?

A. Battery is supplying power
B. The battery is not connected for charging
C. The battery master switch is opened

19. Where is the location of main and auxiliary batteries?

A. Left lower nose compartment
B. Right lower nose compartment
C. Aft of forward cargo compartment

20. Which of the following systems are powered by APU starter-generator?

A. System buses and battery charger
B. Engine starting
C. Emergency power

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DASH-8 Q400 LEVEL - III SHEET December 21, 2020

21. The loss of two DC starter-generators and one TRU cannot power
the whole DC systems. The statement is
A. True
B. False

22. The electrical power control unit (EPCU) supplies indication data
through ____.
A. IOM1 & IOM2
B. IOP1 & IOP2
C. IFC1 & IFC2

23. If the TRU voltage is less than 15vdc for more than 7 seconds, EPCU
considers as TRU malfunction. The statement is
A. True
B. False

24. Aft baggage compartment light comes on when the door is

A. opened
A. closed
B. nocked

25. All emergency lights, except emergency_____ are powered by four 6.4 Vdc Ni-Cad battery
packs.
A. path lights
B. exit lights
C. Ceiling Lights

ATA 28,49,71,72,73,76,77,79,80
1. How is fuel normally returned from surge bay to main tank?
• As the surge bay is pressurized in flight, through the NACA vents, any fuel in
the surge bay is scavenged by the outboard vent lines back into the main tank.

2. Which unit controls opening and closure of the outboard vent lines?
A. Vent float valves
B. Refuel vent valves
C. Pressure difference between surge bay and main tank

3. Which unit primarily provides a constant low−pressure fuel supply to the respective
engine driven fuel pump? A primary ejector pumps.

4. What ensures gravity fed fuel flow into the collector bay in the event that the scavenge
flow is insufficient?
A. Scavenge ejector pumps
B. Vent float valves
C. Flapper check valves

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DASH-8 Q400 LEVEL - III SHEET December 21, 2020

5. Where is the digital fuel quantity of each tank shown? RDP and ED

6. What is the cause for white dashes to replace fuel tank temperature digital display on
the fuel page of MFD?
A. Invalid fuel tank temperature
B. Fuel temperature difference between tanks exceeds 600lb
C. Faulty fuel tank temperature indicator

7. When does the preselect display on the RDI show “MANUAL”?

A. Rotary selector switch points to “PRESELECT DEFUEL”
B. Rotary selector switch points to “OFF” center position
C. Rotary selector switch points to “DEFUEL”

8. which one of the RDP indications lights turn off in response to rotary selector switch
position change from “OFF” to “PRESELECT REFUEL” position?
A. MASTER VALVE CLOSED light
B. REFUEL SHUT OFF light
C. DUMP VALVE OPEN light

9. When does #1 TANK FUEL LOW caution light come on?

There are less than 306 lbs. (139 kgs) in the left fuel tank collector bay

10. Which one of the following is true about APS 1000?

A. The overspeed limit is 105 %
B. It can only be operated up to a maximum Altitude of 1500 ft
C. It produces 28vac electrical power at 95% plus 3 seconds
11. In which one of the following Turbine modules of the APU is the radial compressor and
Turbine wheel positioned?
A. Air inlet housing
B. Balanced rotor assembly
C. Turbine nozzle/containment assembly

12. Which one of the following conditions does not close the APU shutoff valve?
A. Weight off wheel signal
B. “PWR” switch selected on
C. APU fire bottle low pressure

13. At what rpm does the Ignition system of the APU turn off? 85% RPM

14. How many start fuel valves does the APU engine have? 1 start fuel valve

15. How many main fuel valves does the APU engine have? 1 main fuel valve

16. Which one of the following APU controls is a momentary switch?

A. Power run\fail push button annunciator switch
B. Starter pushbutton annunciator switch
C. Bleed air open pushbutton annunciator switch

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DASH-8 Q400 LEVEL - III SHEET December 21, 2020

17. Which one of the following is not true regarding APU bleed air system?
A. The bleed air valve is electrically controlled and pneumatically actuated
B. Selection of a single engine bleed results in closure of the bleed air valve
C. The APU system provides higher priority for bleed air than the electrical
power

18. Which one of the following is true regarding the oil system of the APU?
A. The oil pressure relief valve is not adjustable.
B. The oil filter has no pop out indicator.
C. The oil returns by a scavenging pump to the oil sump.

19. What will the position of de-prime valve be during an engine start?
A. De-energized closed
B. Energized open
C. The de-prime valve has no purpose during an engine start

20. Which one of the following APU status page is always a single page?
A. APU status
B. APU status present faults
C. APU status Fault history

21. Which system severity level (SSL) has a no-fault operational effect?
• SSL 6 - Normal Operation

22. Which one of the following cowlings provides mount for PEC?
A. Lower cowl
B. Forward cowl
C. Lower cowl assembly
D. Spine cowl

23. Which one of the five engine mounts are linked with the HTCS? FORWARD SIDE
MOUNTS

24. How many bearings support the low-pressure spool of the PW150A engine? 1 Bearing
• No.3 bearing: Low pressure spool thrust (Forward)

25. Which one of the following engine and propeller shafts rotate to the same direction
(pilot view)?
A. LP & HP rotor
B. LP rotor and propeller shaft
C. Power turbine rotor and propeller shaft

26. Which one of the following turbine blades do not feature a cooling design?
A. HP blade
B. LP blade
C. PT blade

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DASH-8 Q400 LEVEL - III SHEET December 21, 2020

27. When does the oil fuel heat exchanger oil bypass valve keep the valve fully opened?
A. Fuel temperature below 90 F (32 C)
B. Fuel temperature below 120 F (49 c)
C. Fuel temperature in the range between 90 F (32 C) - 120 F (49)

28. What allows the selection of power ratings that differ from the standard mode of
operation?
A. Rating selection
B. ECS bleed selection
C. PLA and CLA selection

29. Which one of the following outer control loop is the primary control loop in flight
(takeoff/climb cruise) and in reverse?
A. Power governing loop
B. NPT under speed governing loop
C. NPT overspeed governing loop
D.
30. Which one of the following engine types of faults needs an immediate pilot action?
A. Critical fault
B. Cautionary fault
C. Advisory fault
31. Which one of the following is not true regarding engine torque and speed sensors?
A. There are two torque sensors on the air inlet case
B. There are two low pressure rotor speed sensors with dual coil
C. There are two high pressure rotor speed sensors, each with dual coil

32. Where is the ITT trim resistor located? MOT

33. Which sensor provides propeller RPM indication to flight compartment?

A. Torque sensor on the turbomachinery module
B. Magnetic pick-up unit (MPU) on front RGB housing
C. NL sensor

34. Which one of the following indications is sent directly to cockpit without being
processed by FADEC?
A. Low oil pressure
B. Main oil temperature
C. Main oil pressure

35. The primary ejector is formed between Exhaust nozzle and Jet pipe.

36. Which chip detector sends caution light to the caution and warning panel?
A. RGB chip detector
B. AC generator chip detector
C. Turbomachinery chip detector
D. No chip detector sends caution light to the caution and warning panel

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DASH-8 Q400 LEVEL - III SHEET December 21, 2020

37. Which bearing of the turbomachinery module uses jet pump for scavenging?
A. No. 1 bearing
B. No. 2 & 2.5 bearing
C. No. 3 & 4 bearing
D. No. 4 & 5
E. No. 7

38. Which one of the following bearing’s oil return through external tubes?
A. No. 5 bearing
B. No. 7 bearing
C. No. 2 & 2.5 bearing

39. How many scavenging vane pumps are available in the pump pack of PW-150A?
A. 1
B. 8
C. 9

40. The main oil pressure cockpit indication is

A. An absolute pressure at the outlet of a pressure vane pump
B. The differential pressure measured between the pump output and no. 5
bearing cavity pressure
C. An absolute pressure at the outlet of a high pressure and overspeed pump

41. Where is the breather tube attached to, at its front end?
A. Cyclonic de-aerator
B. Retimet breather
C. Fuel metering unit

42. At what temperature does ACOC bypass valve fully bypasses oil?
• A thermal function lets the engine oil fully bypass the oil cooler at temperatures below
170 F (77 C). Above 185 F (85.0 C) the engine oil continues to go through the oil cooler
• A pressure relief function lets the engine oil release if the oil cooler becomes blocked
during cold oil operation. The pressure relief operates at 23 psid (158.6 kPad).

43. What are the possible positions of the oil cooler air outlet flap inflight?
A. 5 degrees and 10 degrees open
B. 0 degree and 32 degree open
C. Fully open and 10 degree open

44. Which one of the following indications is a warning indication displayed on the caution
and warning panel?
A. Oil filter bypass indication
B. PEC light
C. Low oil pressure

45. When does the start segment of start push light come on?
When the [START] switch is selected on the ENGINE START pane.

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46. Which one of the following is true regarding inflight start of PW150A engine?
A. Auto abort feature is disabled
B. FADEC shutdown engine if ITT is more than 9200c
C. Only one igniter is commanded on

47. When does the beta lockout tone generated?

• Radio altimeter output is more than 20 ft (6.1 m)
• PLA is at flight idle or lower
• Power lever trigger is lifted.

48. How may lift stops are there on power and condition levers quadrant? PLA 1 AND CLA 2
• Power lever has these settings: 4
I. RATING (rated power detent)
II. FLIGHT IDLE (detent and gate)
III. DISC (detent)
IV. MAX REVERSE (detent and stop).
• The condition lever detents are: 5
I. MAX (1020)
II. 900RPM
III. MIN (850)
IV. START FEATHER
V. FUELOFF.

49. To which junction/connector of FADEC is the characterization plug connected?

A. J1
B. J3
C. J5

50. Variation in individual torque shat stiffness will be corrected by:

A. Bias trim resistor
B. ITT trim resistor
C. Gain trim resistor

51. Which air is used to actuate P2.2 handling bleed of valve?

• Low pressure compressor
• FADEC Controls the P2.2 Handling Bleed Off Valve to prevent compressor stall.

52. Which one of the following PW150A engine rotor has a centrifugal compressor and an
axial turbine?
A. High pressure rotor
B. Low pressure rotor
C. Power turbine rotor

53. How many ball bearings support the propeller shaft?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

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DASH-8 Q400 LEVEL - III SHEET December 21, 2020

54. Which one of the following Engine rotors rotate in opposite direction?
A. High pressure rotor & low pressure rotor
B. High pressure rotor & power turbine
C. Power turbine rotor & propeller shaft

55. Which lever controls beta mode of operation? RATING Power Lever (PLA).
• The Beta range is from a power lever position above FLIGHT IDLE (called flight beta) to the
full reverse (MAX REV) position. When the propeller is in the Beta mode, blade angle is set
by the power lever input.
56. when power lever is between above flight idle and below disc, this mode of propeller
system is known as:
A. Constant speed mode
B. Beta control mode
C. Reverse speed control mode

57. Which one of the following feathering actions is not controlled by PEC?
A. Autofeathering
B. Routine feathering
C. Alternate feathering

58. What function in the PEC protects the aircraft from lack of thrust caused by a common
software problem in both PEC?
• Automatic Underspeed Protection Circuit (AUPC): Is to protect the
aircraft from lack of thrust caused by a common software problem in both
PEC.