Countdown Mock - 22 (CLAT) 2022 English

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Countdown Mock - 22 (CLAT) 2022
English
Directions for questions 1 to 30: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage.
Please
answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage.
In some instances,
more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please
choose the option that most
accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Passage – 1

In 1970, Allen Jones exhibited Hatstand, Table, and Chair: three sculptures of women wearing fetish
clothing,
posed as pieces of furniture. The sculptures were met with protests and stink-bomb attacks,
particularly from
feminists, who argued that the works objectified women. Despite the artist's
intentions for this piece - he has
since identified as a feminist - the installation became part of an
artistic narrative that has, historically, reduced
women to passive objects in painting and sculpture.

In 2014, Brett Bailey's Exhibit B (2012) was shut down at the Barbican in London after protests
caused 'security
concerns'. The installation, based on 19th- and early 20th-century 'human zoos',
showed Black people on display,
chained and restrained. Even though the artist - a white South
African man - intended the work to expose historic
racist and imperialist violence, protesters implored
the gallery to censor it: 'Caged Black People Is Not Art' read
one banner.

And in 2019, an exhibition of Gauguin's portraits opened at the National Gallery in London with a
public debate to
address ethical concerns about the artist and his work. Paul Gauguin was a sexual
predator, and when in the
South Pacific - where he created some of his best-known paintings - he
used his colonial and patriarchal privilege
to sexually abuse girls as young as 13, knowingly infecting
them with syphilis. Indeed, many of us struggle to
reconcile an artist's appalling behaviour with their
art: Pablo Picasso was, like Gaugin, a sexual predator, and a
misogynist; Leni Riefenstahl was a Nazi
and exploited Romani people in her filmmaking; and the sculptor Eric Gill
was a paedophile. Often, we
can sense the artist's moral character in their works: Picasso's views about women,
for example, can
be detected in many of his late portraits due to his manner of depiction.

These cases, among many more, show that, far from being innocuous objects hidden away in
museums and
white cubes, artworks are historically informed objects that do things and say things.
Artworks are created by
people in particular times, responding to specific events and ideals. In The
Transfiguration of the Commonplace
(1981), the philosopher Arthur Danto observed this with his
thought experiment: a series of indiscernible red
canvases could conceivably constitute completely
different artworks, depending on their title, context of presentation,
and so on. There is more to a
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painting or sculpture than its aesthetic forms of colour, line and shape. External
properties, such as
the artist's identity and relevant events during the work's creation, must be considered to fully
understand the work. Just how much the artist's intentions for their art determine that artwork's
meaning is a deep
question - one that I can't answer here. But, in general, most philosophers agree
that an artwork can admit of
many interpretations, and its meaning often diverges from what the artist
intended. Crucially, artworks are
communicative objects, the messages of which are partly determined
by the surrounding context and are sometimes
different to what the artist had in mind.
Q 1. 11740286 What comes closest to the meaning of the word 'fetish'?
a) b) c) d) A form of spirituality

Symbolising love for A form of sexual desire Symbolising hatred for
women women
Q 2. 11740286 Which among the following can be inferred based on the information given in the
passage?
a) The paintings of the artist Allen Jones were regularly misinterpreted by the general public.
b) Pablo Picasso, the pioneer of painting, was wrongly perceived to be a feminist.
c)
The intention of Brett Bailey in his work Exhibit B was different from what was perceived by the public.
d)
The security concerns caused due to the protests against Exhibit B were ill-advised and not genuine.
Q 3. 11740286 The author's style of writing best represents which among the following styles?
a) The author presents a few incidents and then lists his findings from the incidents.
b) The author presents his analysis before enlisting three similar incidents.
c) The author summarises the three incidents that he describes in the last paragraph.
d) The author draws lessons from three incidents and summarises them last.
Q 4. 11740286 What is the similarity between the artwork of Brett Bailey and Allen Jones?
a) Both of their artworks were inaccurately perceived to be misogynist by the protesters.
b) Both of their artworks had a substantially different intention than what was perceived.
c) Both of their artworks were intended to bring to the fore the plight of the weaker sections of society.
d) None of the above
Q 5. 11740286 Which among the following has not been suggested by the author in the passage?
a) The message of the artwork from the perspective of the artist and others may be different.
b) Artworks containing misogynist ideas need to be censored by the authorities, or the people.
c) The perception of the artwork may change and it may be perceived differently by different people.

d) Relevant events must be kept in mind to fully understand the artwork.
Please
In some instances,

Passage – 2

Every morning when I wake up, I lean out my window to say hello to Mom. She doesn't reply, but
that's okay. She
never was a good listener, even before she was buried in our backyard.

My only sibling, a little brother, Dill, plays there most afternoons. When other kids his age run to the
playground
after school, shrieking and chasing each other like little monkeys, he always comes
straight home to me. He's a
loner like his sister, and I'm a little bit proud of that.

Wildflowers sprout from the bumpy soil where Mom sleeps. I'd like to picture them emerging from her
eyes and
hands and heart; those flowers will be the only beautiful things Mom's given birth to other
than Dylan-Dyl-Dill, but
that image is all wrong. I know for a fact she's buried face down. The closest
thing to a flower is her caved-in skull.
The blood blossomed there like nothing I'd ever seen.

Dill doesn't know he's walking above his mother's body, just as she used to trample all over us. I sit on
the back
porch and watch him care for his worm farm. The little writhe creatures flourish under his
five-year-old fingers.
Sometimes I like to imagine he tells those worms secrets, and they crawl to
Mom's empty ears, whispering them
back.

She's jealous when she learns how happy we've been without her. The worms say I'm much better
than she'd
ever been, anyway. I sign my brother's notes from school, tuck him in, feed him his greens,
Dill Pickle, here
comes the aeroplane.

Dill runs up to me. I ruffle his hair and give him a glass of freshly-squeezed lemonade. He sits on my
lap and
drinks it while we look out at our backyard.

I ask him, "Aren't we happy?"

He nods his head with vigour.

The worms nod, too.

Q 6. 11740286 The author's brother nods his head with 'vigour'. Select the closest meaning of this
term.
a) Nod head lazily b) c) d)

Nod head with Nod head with Nod head with energy
hesitation acceptance
Q 7. 11740286 According to the given passage, what was the reason behind the death of the author'
mother?
a) The author's mother died due to a heavy blow on her head.
b) The author's mother was killed by the worms who fed on her unconscious body.
c) The author's mother has not died and lives in the cave.
d) Insufficient information
Q 8. 11740286 The information given in the passage indicates which of the following?
a) The gender of the author is female.
b) The author mourns regularly for her mother's death.
c) The author has a problem that is signified by her action every morning.
d) None of the above is true
Q 9. 11740286 What is the author suggesting by pointing out that worms nod?
a) The worms nod by seeing the two siblings enjoy.
b) The author signifies that probably her mother is happy at seeing her children.
c) The worms are happy that they are able to feed on the mother of the author.
d) The author is pointlessly trying to suggest that her mother is alive.
Q 10. 11740286 What is the correct meaning of the term 'trample'?
a) b)
To walk over someone/something without hurting To walk on somebody/something and damage or
him/her/it. hurt him/her/it
c) To teach someone a life lesson d) To take revenge for a past misconduct
Please
In some instances,

Passage – 3

I ignored him until he throttled down. That was not normal.

It was a pleasant night, but an hour after curfew. City lights from Saigon to the east turned the dark a
velvety
purple, and the sweet smell of paddy shoots perfumed the air. Traffic had died and the sooty
fumes of military
vehicles had settled. A breeze gave the night a silky feel and I was taking my time

walking from the main gate at

Tan Son Nhut Airfield to my apartment off Le Van Duyet Avenue.
The only sound was my footsteps crunching gravel at the highway edge, careful not to twist an ankle
by slipping
into the open culvert beside me. About five hundred yards ahead at the intersection was
the Korean compound
with its prison-yard lighting and rolled concertina wire barricade.

I knew I had to be alert when nearing it; the ROKs did not fool around. During the Tet Offensive four
months earlier,
a drunken American solider got his jeep stuck in those razor coils, began swearing,
and the Koreans cut him
apart with their machine gun. Their English was not particularly good, and
they were not discerning after hours.

I had been at the airbase to see a movie and stayed for a beer in the bar. Even meandering leisurely, I
would be at
my room in twenty minutes.
A motorbike pulled alongside me, and its driver asked the usual question: "You go? Where you go?"

[1] Such independent taxi services flourishes, making fares off American GIs, and the best way to be
rid of them
was to ignore them-which I did. That's when he eased his ride to a putt-putt, keeping pace
with my stride. About
six feet ahead, he adjusted the accelerator with one hand and with the other
one, he pointed toward me-holding
something.

He was a teenager dressed in a short-sleeve shirt and tan chino pants. The light-colored clothing
reflecting the
night's glow illuminated his features. He smiled as he leaned back toward me. The
object in his outstretched arm
looked like a gun: a rectangular .45 caliber automatic pistol. But it was
still too indistinct to be certain.
Q 11. 11740286 Out of the following, which one is the correct meaning of 'culvert'?
a) b) An open pit

A structure that channels water past an obstacle c) Sewage that is left open
d) A water channel used in irrigating plants
Q 12. 11740286 Which among the following is true about the teenager?
a) He is not a native English speaker. b)

He pulled out his gun to take his aim at the
author.
c) d) Both a and b are correct
He liked the author and wanted to get close to
her.
Q 13. 11740286 All of the following is true according to the passage except?

a) The author could reach her home well within twenty minutes if she tried to.
b) The author had committed a big mistake by taking a stroll to her room at an odd hour.
c) The place where the author was walking was away from the city of Saigon.
d) Independent taxi services were available in the place where the author lived.
Q 14. 11740286 " (a) Such independent taxi services flourishes, (b) making fares off American GIs,
(c) and the best way to
be rid of them (d) was to ignore them-which I did." Which part of this sentence
marked as [1] contains a
grammatical error?
a) Such independent taxi services flourishes b) making fares off American GIs
c) and the best way to be rid of them d) was to ignore them-which I did.
Q 15. 11740286 What could be the purpose of the author in mentioning the incident of the American
soldier being killed by
the Koreans?
a) b)
To highlight the cruelties committed by the To signify that there is a war between Korea and
Koreans America
c) d)
To signify that she should be careful with her To demand justice for the deceased American
actions soldier
Please
In some instances,

Passage – 4

India has been in the grip of what seems like an eternity of heat waves. April temperatures over north-
west and
central India are the highest in 122 years. During April 1 to 28, the average monthly
maximum temperature over
northwest India was 35.9° Celsius and the same over central India was
37.78° C. These averages belie
measurements at the district and sub-divisional level where several
parts of Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, Gujarat,
and Maharashtra have seen temperatures inch towards
the mid-40s and breach normals. There is little respite
expected in May, which is anyway the hottest
month, though the India Meteorological Department (IMD) says that
while north and west India will
continue to sizzle on expected lines, and must likely brace for more heat waves, the
rest of the
country is unlikely to see the levels of March and April. The proximate causes for the searing heat are
an absence of rain-bearing Western Disturbances, or tropical storms that bring rain from the
Mediterranean over
north India. Cool temperatures in the central Pacific, or a La Niña, that normally
aid rain in India, too have failed to
bolster rainfall this year. This is an unusual occurrence.


Despite five Western Disturbances forming in April, none was strong enough to bring significant rain
and depress
temperatures. The IMD has forecast a 'normal' monsoon or 99% of the Long Period
Average (LPA) of 87 cm and
is expected to forecast the monsoon's arrival over Kerala later in May.
On the surface, there is no direct bearing
between the intensity of heat waves and the arrival and
performance of the monsoon. While individual weather
events cannot be linked to greenhouse gas
levels, a warming globe means increased instances of extreme rain
events and extended rain-less
spells. What is better known is it helps to have disaster management plans in
place that help States
better deal with heat waves and their impact on health. The official toll due to heat waves in
the last 50
years is put at over 17,000 people, according to research from the IMD. The heat island effect means
urbanisation adds degrees to the already searing conditions; and so, heat wave deaths must be
treated as a
disaster that merits compensation. Private and public workplaces too must be better
equipped to factor heat
wave risk.
Q 16. 11740286 What is the central purpose of the author in the passage?
a) b)
To encourage people to take precautions against To highlight the 'disaster' that is caused due to
heat wave heat wave
c) d)
To explain how the present heat wave is a man- To reason out the instances of extreme heat
made disaster waves in India
Q 17. 11740286 Based on the passage, it can be said that
a)
Extreme heat waves in the country should make the authorities work on disaster management plans
related to it.
b) The month of May would bring in respite from the heat waves for most parts of India.
c) The kinds of heat waves observed in the month of April have not been witnessed before in India.
d) All of the above
Q 18. 11740286 Why does the author think that heat wave deaths merit compensation?
a) Because the heat waves are induced completely by the actions of humans
b) Because heat wave deaths merit compensation on moral grounds
c) Because urbanisation plays a role in exaggerating heat waves
d) Because it is the job of the state to compensate the kin of the deceased
Q 19. 11740286 What is the correct interpretation of the term 'bearing' as used in the passage?
a) Friction (Physics) b) Enmity c) Relationship d) Networking
Q 20. 11740286 The author of the passage would not agree with which of the following?
a) Most parts of India would see relief from the heat waves in May.
b) La Niña disrupts rainfall in India.
c) Western Disturbances can tackle the ill-effects of all heat waves at once.
d) All of the above
Please
In some instances,

Passage – 5

Ethnicity refers to genetics, and ethnic identity is an organic construct occurring within a social
context, developing
over time and space. Measuring ethnicity is complicated as interpretations differ,
but is usually based on own/
parents' country of birth, nationality and home language, leading to a
shared past and group identity. Social
scientist Phinney proposed two dimensions to measure ethnic
identity: (i) the extent to which an individual explores
the meaning of his/her ethnicity (ethnic
exploration), and (ii) the extent to which an individual is committed to the
ethnic group (ethnic
commitment). As individuals or families with different ethnic backgrounds display different
decision-
making patterns, ethnicity has a bearing on travel experiences. Diaspora is often a cultural minority in
host countries and this grouping of minority populations creates confusion with the interchangeable
meaning of
culture. Minorities should rather be considered by ethnicity, and thereafter the culture
pertaining to that specific
ethnic group. Culture, in turn, encompasses a range of implicit widely
shared beliefs, traditions, values, and
expectations among a particular group of people. Building
blocks of culture are language, religion, behaviour, technology and cultural heritage; showcasing
harmony, closeness and connectivity. Travelling allows individuals
to reconcile issues of identity,
culture and place as many diasporas have a dual sense of loyalty towards both the
home and host
countries. While they tend to connect their heritage to host countries, their identities are continually
redefined and transformed and different levels of acculturation manifest. At the extreme ends,
individuals either
remain "diasporic" with their identity based on ethnicity regardless of nationality or
integrate and adapt to such an
extent as to lose their original cultural identity in exchange for the
national identity. Midway one finds multicultural
migrants that simultaneously remain connected to
their original culture and interact with other cultures within the
host country.

Individuals with strong connections to their home identity and culture are more likely to undertake
diasporic travel
for reconnection and belonging, while integrated and multicultural individuals have
less desire or sense of urgency
to return. Desire to return is also often related negatively with
generational distance. Once in the destination, their
level of connectedness will determine the extent
to which they interact [1] ______ the homeland culture in tourism
settings. This interaction is said to
consist of engagement (behavioural) and connectedness (stable, objective
stance) with the culture.

These two dimensions relate to the two dimensions of ethnic identity as identified by
Phinney namely
ethnic identity exploration (behavioural) and ethnic commitment (objective stance).
Q 21. 11740286 Out of the following options, which one is a synonym of the word 'reconcile' as used
in the passage?
a) Create hostility b) Restore relations c) d) Vindicate someone

Compensate someone
Q 22. 11740286 In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that:
a) Every expatriate will look forward to visiting his or her home country.
b) Every expatriate tries to settle in a foreign country permanently by learning the local language.
c) Every expatriate may not have the same longing to return to their home country.
d) Every expatriate has the same longing to return to their home country.
Q 23. 11740286 The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following
statements:
a) b) Diasporic cultures are often xenophobic.

Culture refers to only beliefs and values of c) Culture is a term used only in social science.
people.
d)
Culture can refer to certain traditions of some
people.
Q 24. 11740286 Out of the following options, which one will appropriately fill the blank space marked
as [1]?
a) With b) On c) Off d) Against
Q 25. 11740286 Out of the following options, which one is factually correct in the light of the
passage?
a) Ethnic identity owes its origin to the Marxian definition of diaspora.
b) Diasporas are usually loyal only to their host countries.
c) Meaning of culture is mutative.
d) Ethnic identity is uni-dimensional.
Please
In some instances,

Passage – 6


Various aspects of performance engender the experience of 'savouring' among spectators. Artists,
whether
musicians or dancers, will typically play with time, occasionally suspending the rhythmic flow
of time embodied in
the beats of ta¯la, slowing down the 'action' of a narrative or a text, in order to
dwell on the improvisatory possibilities
of a single line. Ra¯gas, distinctive melodic shapes entailing a
selection of ascending and descending pitches,
are typically introduced in this slow improvisatory
fashion, with no textual content, simply in order to explore the
possibilities of melody within the given
set of constraints. But a single line of text can also be 'repeated' as sung
melody by the accompanying
musician, and occasionally, in the older traditions, by the dancer herself or himself;
today he or she
will silently mouth the words. That single line can be furnished with new interpretative inflections.

Moments when this occurs can attain the status of the legendary in the body of an accomplished
artist. Bala
Saraswati was one such legendary exponent of the art of the devada¯sis, perhaps the only
one who managed to
remain in the public eye after the series of calamities that afflicted her art: the
withdrawal of patronage from
temples, courts, and private patrons, and the severe dictates of social
reform. She was able to secure her
reputation within India by making herself known internationally,
teaching a school of dance for many years in the
United States. A vivid description from the Sangeet
Natak archives of Bala performing the exquisite song 'Krishna
nee begane baro' ('Krishna, quickly
come to me') describes her interpreting the text from the subject position of
Yashoda, the mother of
Krishna. In the confluence of the music and danced interpretation, the audience is enabled
to re-
create for itself a succession of images: Krishna beautifully decorated in silk and sandalwood paste,
flute in
hand; Krishna as the child eating dirt; Krishna opening his mouth and confusing his mother by
showing her the
entire universe spinning in his mouth. The original line of text as well as its
interpretation through different episodes
all come from narratives that are pre-known to the audience:
there is nothing fresh about these aspects. The
dancer provides an opportunity for the audience to re-
remember and re-savour these episodes, but also to see
them brought to life in new ways through
nuances of gesture and facial expression, new forms of emotion that are
brought to bear as the
performer shifts from one episode to another. This savouring is thus a tasting of the
emotions
themselves and is intrinsic to performance, not a derivative of a particular Sanskrit theory. But being
invoked as a rasika 'fits' central features of performance. Rasa theory also offers explicit guidance to
performers
on the affective 'hooks' by which spectators can be brought to involve themselves in what
is going on in the
performance. The theory takes for granted that emotions are central for the way in
which we grasp the world's
significance in the first place. It simply assumes this, and builds on this
premise to explore how one might allow
experience and narratives of all kinds to be grasped by
spectators and enjoyed as specifically aestheticized
experiences. In order to convey to the audiences
the significance of an act or event, performers foreground the
emotional colouring of each act and
explore it from a number of different angles and subject positions.
Q 26. 11740286 In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that:

a) b)
The Rasa theory is greatly influenced by the The Rasa theory accords great importance to
Panchtantra. human emotions.
c) d)
The Rasa theory accords great importance to the The Rasa theory finds mention in the Bhagavad
Vedas. Gita.
Q 27. 11740286 As per the passage:
a)
The rasa theory mentions the ways in which the involvement of the spectators in the performance can
be ensured.
b) The rasa theory mentions the ways in which the performance can be turned into a satiric one.
c) The rasa theory considers nature to be supreme in a performance.
d) A lot of international research has been done on the rasa theory.
Q 28. 11740286 The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following
statements:
a) In an artistic performance, the pace of the narrative often loses focus.
b) The pace of the narrative in an artistic performance gets faster with the progress of events.
c) The pace of the narrative remains the same in an artistic performance.
d) The pace of the narrative may vary in an artistic performance.
Q 29. 11740286 In the light of the passage, it can be understood that:
a) The rendition by Bala Saraswati can be defined as polemic.
b) The rendition by Bala Saraswati can be categorised as prosaic.
c) The rendition by Bala Saraswati is full of various imageries.
d) The rendition by Bala Saraswati can be categorised as a modern piece of art.
Q 30. 11740286 Out of the following options, which one is an antonym of the word 'afflicted' as used
in the passage?
a) Atrophied b) Benefitted c) Affected d) Beguiled
Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

Passage – 1

Inaugurating a string of projects in Jammu and Kashmir as part of a strong infrastructure push, Prime
Minister
Narendra Modi assured the youth of Kashmir Valley that they "will never face the kind of
sufferings" their parents
and grandparents faced in the past.

The newly launched projects worth Rs 20,000 crore -which PM Modi inaugurated from village Palli in
Samba
district of Jammu and Kashmir - include the Banihal-Qazigund road tunnel that is expected to
reduce travel time
between Jammu and Srinagar by two hours, and a 500 KV solar power plant at
Palli. Foundation stones were laid
for the Rattle and Kwar hydel projects on river Chenab, and the
Delhi-Amritsar-Katra Expressway, among others.

Referring to a change in work culture in the Union Territory, the PM, speaking on the occasion of
Panchayati Raj
Diwas, said that there was a time when a government file from Delhi used to take two
to three weeks to reach
Jammu and Kashmir. "Today, I feel happy that a 500 KV solar power p lant
gets commissioned within three weeks
and also starts generating power,'' he said, adding that all the
houses in Palli village will now get solar power,
making it carbon-neutral and self-reliant in energy.

While this is PM Modi's first outreach to the people of J&K since August 2019, when J&K was stripped
of its special
status and made Union Territory, he has twice visited Army troops to mark Diwali - in
Rajouri on October 27, 2019,
and later, Nowshera on November 3, 2021.
Q 31. 11740286 National Panchayat Raj Day is celebrated every year on______________.
a) March 24 b) April 24 c) May 3 d) April 18
Q 32. 11740286 On 5 August 2019, Home Minister Amit Shah announced in the Rajya Sabha (upper
house of the Indian
Parliament) that the President of India had issued The Constitution (Application to
Jammu and Kashmir)
Order, 2019 (C.O. 272) under Article 370, superseding the Constitution
(Application to Jammu and Kashmir)
Order, 1954. The order stated that______________.
a) All the provisions of article 370 temporarily suspended.
b) All the provisions of the Indian Constitution applied to Jammu and Kashmir.
c) Jammu and Kashmir reorganised into two union territories.
d) Jammu and Kashmir will be functioning like Delhi with legislative assembly
Q 33. 11740286 After the Government of India repealed the special status accorded to Jammu and
Kashmir under Article
370 of the Indian constitution in 2019, the Parliament of India passed the
Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation
Act, 2019 which came into existence on____________.
a) 15 August 2019 b) 31 September 2019 c) 31 October 2019 d) 31 November 2019
Q 34. 11740286 Who is the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
a) b) Manoj Sinha c) Rajiv Mehrishi d) Satya Pal Malik

Girish Chandra Murmu

Q 35. 11740286 Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution empowered the erstwhile
Jammu and Kashmir
state's legislature to define "permanent residents" of the state and provide
special rights and privileges to
them?
a) Article 357A b) Article 35A c) Article 36A d) Article 358A
Passage – 2

In the wake of the Russian invasion of Ukraine, the European Union has prohibited global
transactions with Russian
entities using euro-denominated banknotes, while the U.S. has cut off
Russia's access to the U.S. Dollar. This has
made India, which continues to trade with Russia,
consider reviving the Rupee-Rouble mechanism, previously
used in [1].

On March 24, 2022, External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar told Parliament that a multi-ministerial
group had been
convened to look into how to overcome challenges in trade with Russia, including
managing payments for exporters
and importers - indicating a possible revival of the 'Rupee-Rouble
trade'.

"There is a group within the government composed of different Ministries. It is led by the Finance
Ministry to
examine these matters," he added. Russian delegation may visit India in May to discuss
Rupee-Rouble payment
mechanism.

Over 40 U.S. and European allies have imposed economic sanctions against Russian banks and
entities amid the
war in Ukraine. As per Bloomberg, Indian exporters are awaiting payments of about
$500 million that have been
delayed amid the sanctions.

According to the Department of Commerce, India currently has imports worth Rs. 64,623 crore from
Russia in
2021-22, which is 59.04% growth from last year. This constituted 1.58% of the total imports
of India.
Q 36. 11740286 The Rupee-Rouble trade was first conceived in [1] under the Indo-Soviet trade
agreement. Which of the
following years has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) 1953 b) 1963 c) 1977 d) 1991
Q 37. 11740286 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Rupee-Rouble trade
mechanism?
a)
It is a payment mechanism between India and Russia to settle trade payments in rupees and rubles,
instead of dollars and euros.
b)
Goods imported to India will be paid for in rupees and goods imported by Russia will be paid for in
rubles.

c)
This is being done to reduce dependence on the dollar and makes the countries less vulnerable to US
sanctions.
d) All of the above
Q 38. 11740286 A rupee-rial payment mechanism had successfully worked in India's trade with
_____________when
economic sanctions were imposed on the country by a number of Western
nations in 2012.
a) Iran b) Iraq c) Italy d) Brazil
Q 39. 11740286 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the importance of Rupee-
Rouble trade?
a)
It is important for India to have an alternative payment mechanism in place with Russia as the US, the
EU
and the UK have blocked at least seven Russian banks from accessing the Society for Worldwide
Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT).
b)
Since transaction with Russia cannot be carried out in international currencies such as the dollar or
the
euro, a rupee payment mechanism could play a pivotal role in deciding whether Indian exporters
will get
their payments and if trading can be continued with Russia.
c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
d) Neither a nor b are correct
Q 40. 11740286 Tourists or migrants to the ____________with Indian bank accounts will be able to
make UPI payments at
shops, retail establishments and other merchants in the gulf nation.
a) b) USA c) France d) Germany

United Arab Emirates
(UAE)
Passage – 3

In the 2022 edition of the World Press Freedom Index published by [1], India fell to the [2] position, its
lowest ever,
out of 180 countries. In the last edition, India was ranked eight positions higher, at 142.
The ranking is based on a
country's performance in five broad categories: political context, legal
framework, economic context, sociocultural
context and safety of journalists. Of the five, India's
ranking was lowest in the safety of journalists category (163)
and best in the legal framework category
(120).

The chart shows the rankings of 180 countries in the 2022 Press Freedom Index. India has been
ranked [2].
Countries ranked lower than India include Sudan (151), Russia (155), Pakistan (157),
Bangladesh (162) and

China (175).
The chart shows India's rankings across various categories in 2022. India ranked best in the legal
framework
category and worst in the safety of journalists category. The definition of each category is
expanded in the bottom.
The chart shows India's rank in the Press Freedom Index. While India has
ranked consistently low over the past
few years, its rank in 2022 plunged to the lowest the country has
ever seen.
Q 41. 11740286 The 2022 edition of the World Press Freedom Index is published by [1], which of the
following has been
redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) International Amnesty b) Reporters Without Borders
c) United Nations Human Rights Council d) Freedom International Group
Q 42. 11740286 What is the India rank in the World Press Freedom Index 2022 which has been
redacted with [2] in the
passage above?
a) 150 b) 149 c) 160 d) 165
Q 43. 11740286 Which of the following countries has been placed at the top of the World Press
Freedom Index 2022?
a) Austria b) Norway c) Finland d) New Zealand
Q 44. 11740286 Which of the following countries has been placed at the bottom of the World Press
Freedom Index 2022?
a) Syria b) Ghana c) Algeria d) North Korea
Q 45. 11740286 Which of the following statements is Not true?
a)
The Constitution of India guarantees freedom of speech and expression under Article 19, which deals
with 'Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.
b)
Freedom of press is not expressly protected by the Indian legal system but it is impliedly protected
under
article 19(1) (a) of the constitution.
c)
In 1950, the Supreme Court in K. S. Puttaswamy vs State of Kerala observed that freedom of the
press
lay at the foundation of all democratic organisations.
d) The Freedom of press is not absolute in India.
Passage – 4

Home-, auto- and other loan EMIs are likely to increase after the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) hiked its

key interest
rate by 40 bps in a surprise move on May 4 in an effort to tame inflation that has remained
stubbornly above target
in recent months.

The increase in repo rate - the rate at which RBI lends to commercial banks - to 4.40% from a record
low of 4% is
the first since August 2018 as well as the first instance of the RBI governor-headed
monetary policy committee
(MPC) holding an unscheduled meeting for raising interest rates.

The RBI also hike the cash reserve ratio (CRR) by 50 basis points to 4.5%, which will now require
banks to park
more money with the Central bank and leave them with less to loan to consumers. This
would drain Rs.87,000
crore of liquidity from the banking system, RBI governor Shaktikanta Das said
in a video address announcing the
rate hike decision.

The MPC retained its accommodative monetary policy stance - meaning it can cut interest rates to
support growth
- at a time when globally inflation is rising alarmingly. Persistent inflation pressures are
becoming more acute,
particularly on food, Mr. Das said, adding that there is a risk if prices stay at
this level for "too long" and expectations
become unanchored. "Inflation must be tamed in order to
keep the Indian economy resolute on its course to
sustained and inclusive growth," he said.

Increases in fuel and food prices, exacerbated by the war in Ukraine and sustained pandemic-related
supply chain
disruptions, have been above the RBI comfort zone of 2-6% for three months in a row.
Headline inflation in March
rose to a 17-month high of 6.95% and it may be above the target band in
April too. The MPC is scheduled to meet
on June 8 and analysts expect it to again raise the repo rate
by at least 25 bps.

The governor, however, added that the monetary stance remains accommodative and actions will
remain calibrated.
"In the MPC's view, monetary policy response at this juncture would help to
preserve macro-financial stability
amidst increasing volatility in financial markets," he added.
Q 46. 11740286 An increase in Repo Rate can______________.
a) Increase the cost of borrowing b) Decrease the cost of lending to the banks
c) Encourage the public to borrow money d) Both a and b are correct
Q 47. 11740286 What happens when CRR is increased?
a) b) It will increase the money supply

Banks will have low lending capacity in terms of c) It decreases the inflation
funds.
d)
It will encourage borrowers from applying for
loans
Q 48. 11740286 The rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends money to commercial banks in
India if they face a scarcity
of funds is______________.
a) Bank rate b) Reverse repo rate c) Repo Rate d)

Marginal Standing
Facility
Q 49. 11740286 Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the Monetary Policy
Committee?
a)
The current mandate of the committee is to maintain 3% annual inflation until 31 March 2025 with an
upper tolerance of 6% and a lower tolerance of 2%.
b)
The committee is answerable to the Government of India if the inflation exceeds the range prescribed
for
three consecutive quarters.
c) Decisions are taken by majority with the Governor having the casting vote in case of a tie.
d)
The committee comprises six members - three officials of the Reserve Bank of India and three
external
members nominated by the Government of India.
Q 50. 11740286 The instruments of monetary policy which directly affect the quantity of money
supply are
a) b) c) Rationing of credit d) Moral Suasion

Qualitative instruments Quantitative instruments
Passage – 5

Since Russia invaded Ukraine on February 24, Finland and [1] have considered applying for NATO
membership,
in what would be a major policy shift for the Nordic countries. Russia has repeatedly
warned of military escalation
and even the potential deployment of nuclear weapons in the Baltic
region if the two countries join the Trans-
Atlantic alliance. If the countries do join NATO, it will be a
political game-changer and bolster the alliance's defenses.
When NATO was established in 1949, two
years into the Cold War, Finland and [1] did not join.

Finland shares a [2] border with Russia and gained independence from the nation in 1917. The
countries have
fought two wars against each other. In 1948, Finland signed an agreement of
Friendship, Cooperation, and Mutual
Assistance with Russia. The pact included an agreement that
Finland isolate itself militarily from Western Europe.
However, at the end of the Cold War in 1991, the
threat from Russia toward Finland decreased and the Nordic
country was able to operate more
independently.

[1], meanwhile, has not fought a war for 200 years due to its policy of neutrality. Along with Finland,
the country
switched from a policy of formal neutrality to military non-alignment when it joined the

European Union in 1995.
However, both have acted as key partners to NATO over the years and have shared intelligence and
military drills
with them-particularly as Russia's foreign policy has become more belligerent under
President Vladimir Putin. The
below chart by Statista shows which European countries are currently
members of NATO, and which are considering
joining Finland and [1].

The war in Ukraine has killed thousands and displaced millions. Rising security concerns in Europe
and fears that
the conflict could spill over to other countries have pushed Finland and [1] into seeking
NATO membership. Members
of the alliance benefit from Article [3], which guarantees that an attack
on one NATO ally is an attack on all.
Q 51. 11740286 Since Russia invaded Ukraine on February 24, 2022, Finland and [1] have
considered applying for NATO
membership, in what would be a major policy shift for the Nordic
countries. Which of the following countries
has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Norway b) Denmark c) Sweden d) Netherlands
Q 52. 11740286 Finland shares a [2] border with Russia and gained independence from the nation in
1917. Which of the
following has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) 900km b) 1,300km c) 1,500km d) 1,700km
Q 53. 11740286 The Members of the NATO alliance benefit from Article [3], which guarantees that an
attack on one NATO
ally is an attack on all. Which of the following articles has been redacted with [3]
in the passage above?
a) Article 5 b) Article 6 c) Article 7 d) Article 8
Q 54. 11740286 Russia is bordered by how many countries?
a) 8 b) 10 c) 12 d) 14
Q 55. 11740286 Which of the following statements is true regarding the North Atlantic Treaty
Organization (NATO)?
a) It is an intergovernmental military alliance between 33 member states.

b) It is established by the London Treaty of April, 1949.
c)
Jens Stoltenberg is an American politician serving as the current and 13th secretary general of NATO.
d) The most recent member state to be added to NATO was North Macedonia on 27 March 2020.
Passage – 6

In a speech at an election campaign rally in the northern Indian state of Uttarakhand on December 30,
India's
Prime Minister Narendra Modi said that India had built and is expanding a road via disputed
Lipulekh to Manas
Khand, a gateway to [1], a Hindu pilgrimage site in Tibet. While his speech was
aimed at wooing Hindu voters in
Uttarakhand, it created a furor in Nepal as the road he spoke about
passes through Lipulekh, territory claimed by
Nepal.

Following protests in Nepal, the Indian Embassy in Kathmandu issued a terse press release on
January 15. India's
position on the boundary dispute was "consistent and unambiguous," it said
adding that New Delhi was of the view
that "established inter-governmental mechanisms and
channels were the most appropriate avenue for
communication and dialogue."

Nepal's foreign ministry responded with a press statement on January 17. It reaffirmed Nepal's claim
over
Limpiyadhura, Lipulekh, and Kalapani, and called on India to cease unilateral construction or
development works
in those territories. It also reiterated Nepal's commitment to solving the issue
diplomatically in the spirit of close
friendly relations with India.

Nepal's territorial dispute with India over Lipulekh came to the forefront in May 2015, when India and
[2] agreed to
develop transit and trade via the region. Nepal then sent diplomatic notes to India and
China protesting against the
agreement, alleging violations of Nepal's territorial integrity.

The issue resurfaced in November 2019 when India issued a new political map that included the
disputed territories
within India's international borders. The issue united the Nepali public and
parliamentarians against India's occupation.
The Nepali government, then led by Prime Minister
Khadga Prasad Oli, amended the Nepali Constitution to include
these disputed territories. India-Nepal
relations, which had been under strain since 2015, when India imposed an
unofficial economic
blockade on Nepal, frayed further. Current Prime Minister [3] has remained silent in response
to the
controversy over Modi's recent statement on Lipulekh.

Although [3] formed a committee to study Nepal's border dispute with China - incidentally, both
countries have
denied the existence of a border dispute - he has not taken any similar initiative in the
border dispute with India yet.
Q 56. 11740286 Which of the following Hindu pilgrimage sites has been redacted with [1] in the
passage above?
a) Mansarovar b) Amarnath c) Vaishno Devi d) Ranbireshwar
Q 57. 11740286 Nepal's territorial dispute with India over Lipulekh came to the forefront in May 2015,
when India and [2]
agreed to develop transit and trade via the region. Which of the following countries
has been redacted with
[2] in the passage above?
a) Pakistan b) Bhutan c) China d) Myanmar
Q 58. 11740286 Who is the current Prime Minister of Nepal whose name has been redacted with [3]
in the passage above?

a) Sher Bahadur Deuba b) c) Pushpa Kamal Dahal d) Girija Prasad Koirala
Bijay Kumar Gachhadar
Q 59. 11740286 Which of the following statements is Not true?
a) Kalapani is located in the easternmost corner of Uttarakhand's Pithoragarh district.
b)
Kalapani region is placed in between Limpiyadhura, Lipulekh, and Kalapani trijunction between Nepal-
India and China (Tibet).
c)
Treaty of Sagauli was an agreement between the Gurkha chiefs of Nepal and the British Indian
government
that ended the Anglo-Nepalese (Gurkha) War (1814-16).
Q 60. 11740286 India and Nepal signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for construction of
a motorable bridge with
the Indian grant assistance over the ___________River connecting
Dharchula in Uttarakhand with Darchula
in Nepal.
a) Arun b) Mahakali c) Sarda d) Sunkoshi
Passage – 7

Remarks by a Hindi actor to the effect that Hindi is the national language of India sparked a
controversy recently
over the status of the language under the Constitution. Many were quick to point
out that there is no national
language for India, and that Hindi is the official language of the Union.
Under Article [1] of the Constitution, the
official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari
script. The international form of Indian numerals will be
used for official purposes. The official
language issue was hotly debated in the Constituent Assembly, and the
provisions relating to it were
formulated only after a compromise that English shall continue to be used for [2]
years.

The Constituent Assembly was bitterly divided on the question, with members from States that did not
speak Hindi
initially opposing the declaration of Hindi as a national language. Proponents of Hindi
were insistent that English
was the language of enslavement and that it should be eliminated as early
as possible. Opponents were against
English being done away with, fearing that it may lead to Hindi
domination in regions that did not speak the language.

Ultimately, it was decided that the Constitution will only speak of an 'official language'. And that
English would
continue to be used for a period of [2] years. The Constitution said that after [2] years,
Parliament may by law
decide on the use of English and the use of the Devanagari form of numbers
for specified purposes.

The [3] Schedule contains a list of languages in the country. Initially, there were 14 languages in the

schedule, but
now there are 22 languages. There is no description of the sort of languages that are
included or will be included
in the [3] Schedule. There are only two references to these languages in
the text of the Constitution. One is in
Article 344(1), which provides for the formation of a Commission
by the President, which should have a Chairman
and members representing these scheduled
languages. The purpose of the Commission is to make
recommendations for the progressive use of
Hindi for official purposes of the Union and for restricting the use of
English.

The second reference, found in Article [4], says it is the Union government's duty to promote the
spread of Hindi so
that it becomes "a medium of expression for all elements of the composite culture
of India" and also to assimilate
elements of forms and expressions from Hindustani and languages
listed in the [3] Schedule.
Q 61. 11740286 Under Article [1] of the Constitution, the official language of the Union shall be Hindi
in Devanagari script.
Which of the following articles has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
Q 62. 11740286 The Constitution of India said that after [2] years, Parliament may by law decide on
the use of English and
the use of the Devanagari form of numbers for specified purposes. Which of
the following has been redacted
with [2] in the passage above?
a) 5 years b) 10 years c) 15 years d) 20 years
Q 63. 11740286 Which of the following Schedules of the Indian Constitution contains a list of 22
languages which has been
redacted with [3] in the passage above?
a) Fourth Schedule b) Seventh Schedule c) Eighth Schedule d) Ninth Schedule
Q 64. 11740286 It is the Union government's duty to promote the spread of Hindi so that it becomes
"a medium of expression
for all elements of the composite culture of India" mentioned under the
article [4]. Which of the following
articles has been redacted with [4] in the passage above?
Q 65. 11740286 The Government of India has awarded the distinction of classical language to six
languages. Which of the
following is Not a classical language?
a) Malayalam b) Odia c) Telugu d) Hindi
Legal Aptitude
Directions for questions 66 to 105: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning
and arguments,
or facts and principles set out in the preceding passage. Some of these principles
may not be true in the real or
legal sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the
purposes of this Section. Please answer
each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the

corresponding passage. Do not rely on any principle

of law other than the ones supplied to you, and
do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when
answering the questions. In some
instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a
case, please choose
the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Disclaimer

All names and facts mentioned are hypothetical and are being used for educational purposes. Any
resemblance
with any person, institution or situation is purely coincidental and unintentional.

Passage – 1

There is no specific legal definition of 'hate speech'. Provisions in law, specifically the Indian Penal
Code (IPC),
criminalise speeches, writings, actions, signs and representations that foment violence
and spread disharmony
between communities and groups and these are understood to refer to 'hate
speech'. The Law Commission of
India, in its 267th Report, says: "Hate speech generally is an
incitement to hatred primarily against a group of
persons defined in terms of race, ethnicity, gender,
sexual orientation and religious belief. Thus, hate speech is
any word written or spoken, signs, visible
representations within the hearing or sight of a person with the intention
to cause fear or alarm, or
incitement to violence."

In general, hate speech is considered a limitation on free speech that seeks to prevent or bar speech
that exposes
a person or a group or section of society to hate, violence, ridicule or indignity. Under
Section 153A of IPC, 'promotion
of enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place
of birth, residence and language, and doing
acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony', is an offence
punishable with three years' imprisonment. It attracts a
five-year term if committed in a place of
worship, or an assembly engaged in religious worship or religious
ceremonies.
Q 66. 11740286 Mr. X, is a Class XII Accounts teacher. While addressing the class, he says, "Boys!
focus on your career and
do not get into romantic relationships with girls. At this age you have
tremendous energy and channelize it
towards your career and later when you are settled you should
get an appropriate girl for marriage." Decide.
a) Mr. X has made a hate speech. b) Mr. X has not made a hate speech.
c) d) Mr. X should give similar advise to girls also.

Mr. X has discriminated students based on
gender.
Q 67. 11740286 'X' is a local in Andaman Islands. He says, "These Hindi speaking people come to
our land, relish the
picturesque sights, eat delicious food and later leave our land without paying any
royalty to us. They don't
know our language or culture. This is disrespectful to us. We will force them
to pay obeisance to us by
bowing their heads before every local person in our Island." Decide.

a)
This is hate-speech based upon the Law Commission's 267th Report and not Section 153A of Indian
Penal Code.
b) This is hate-speech based upon Section 153A of IP(c)
c) This is not hate-speech as there is no incitement to violence.
d) This is not hate-speech as locals deserve respect.
Q 68. 11740286 'Z' is the leader of a culturally conservative outfit. He addresses students of Delhi
University saying, "Marriage
is a sacrament meant for producing a progeny. Some people who are
mentally ill say they are attracted to
same-sex persons. They must be boycotted from colleges and if
don't mend their ways must be socially
ostracized.". Decide.
a) b) 'Z' must be publicly shamed.

'Z' made comments appropriate to the Indian c) 'Z' is guilty of hate-speech.
society.
d) 'Z' is not guilty of hate-speech.
Q 69. 11740286 'Y' is a popular leader in Raipur. While speaking to his followers, he says, "Most of
these non-Raipur people
have set up shacks on almost all road in Raipur. This city should give
precedence to locals. So, my dear
friends, wherever you find a shack run by non-local, ransack it".
Decide.
a) 'Y' has made a hate-speech.
b) 'Y' has not made a hate-speech.
c)
India is a quasi-federal country and every person has right to do business in any part he/she wishes.
d) Locals must be given precedence over non-locals.
Q 70. 11740286 'Richie Rich' is a hard-core religious preacher. On one such religious congregation
he says, "People of 'x'
community are not fit to live in India. India belongs only to 'y' community and so
all people who practice 'x'
faith must either convert to 'y' faith or leave the country". Decide.
a)
'Richie Rich' is not liable for making a hate-speech as no one in todays world takes such speeches
seriously.
b)
'Richie Rich' is not liable for making a hate-speech as his comments would not lead a reasonable man
to violence.
c) 'Richie Rich' is liable for making a hate-speech as he is from 'y' community.
d)
'Richie Rich' is liable for making a hate-speech as he is causing fear and hatred toward the members
of
'x' community.
and arguments,
case, please choose

Disclaimer

resemblance

Passage – 2

Freedom of press is not explicitly mentioned under Fundamental Rights of the Constitution. It is
derived from
Article 19(1)(a) that reads - All citizens have a right to freedom of speech and
expression. 'All citizens' includes
'Press'. The right is not absolute and subject to reasonable
restrictions mentioned under Article 19(2). Some of
these restrictions are - sovereignty and integrity of
India, security of state, friendly relations with foreign countries,
public order, decency/ morality,
contempt of court and incitement to an offence.

In Sakal Papers v. Union of India (1961), the Hon'ble Supreme Court struck down a government order
which fixed
the maximum number of pages a newspaper can print and also the size of advertisements
and related price for it.
The Supreme Court declared these restrictions as unreasonable. The court
held that Article 19(1)(a) cannot be
curtailed 'in the interest of general public' for this ground is not
mentioned under Article 19(2).
Q 71. 11740286 Kennett Koleman & Co. is a leading national newspaper publishing company in
India. It published an article
showing the increasing porn use among adolescents in India. Beside the
article, a picture was attached of
a man and woman engaging in sexual intercourse. The private parts
of the couple were completely blurred.
Decide.
a) Kennett Koleman & Co. must not have published any picture as the article was sufficient.
b)
Right to watch porn within the four walls of the room is a right to privacy and leading newspapers
should
not make adverse comments over it.
c) Kennett Koleman & Co. can be restricted from publishing such pictures in future.
d) Kennett Koleman & Co. cannot be restricted from publishing such pictures in future.

Q 72. 11740286 'KION' a leading news channel in India showcased a show in which strategic
locations of Indian Army along
the Line of Actual Control (LAC) with China were published.
Management of border areas is highly sensitive
and is always classified. Decide.
a) The Indian government can block this show from being telecast by 'KION'.
b) The Indian government will make a law in Parliament to regulate news channels.
c)
The Indian government will not take any action against 'KION' as it telecast the show under right to
speech and expression.
d) Freedom of Press is absolute and 'KION' can telecast any show it wishes to.
Q 73. 11740286 Sporadic violent clashes erupted in Ganganagar, Rajasthan between members of

two castes. A person,
Ramprakash belonging to one caste is killed. This enraged the members
belonging to one caste to take
revenge from another. The entire district was tensed. The district
administration issued prohibitory orders
over publication of names of the castes or members injured or
killed in the violence for 2 days. A local
journalist, Mridul, published the news about Ramprakash's
death. Decide.
a) Mridul's license must be suspended and he be fined.
b) Mridul cannot take the defence of free speech.

c) Mridul can take the defence of free speech.
d) Mridul's channel must be permanently blocked and he be imprisoned.
Q 74. 11740286 The Prime Minister of New Zealand was scheduled for a visit to India for a
discussion on a Free Trade
Agreement (FTA). A national daily in India published an extremely critical
unsubstantiated article about the
New Zealand PM's private life. Decide.
a)
The government of New Zealand will publish similar unsubstantiated article about Indian PM's private
life.
b) The government of New Zealand can restrict the publication of the article.
c) The government of India can restrict the publication of the article.
d) The government of New Zealand will take the matter to the United Nations.
Q 75. 11740286 Mr. Naman published a video on YouTube asking Indian citizens to make India a
Hindu nation. He says that
only Hindus should be allowed in India and all other person - Jain,
Buddhist, Muslims, Sikhs, etc. must leave
the country. Decide presuming that promotion of religious
enmity is an offence in India.
a) Naman has right to speak whatever he wishes under Article 19(1)(a).
b) No action can be taken against Naman as Indians don't take YouTube seriously.

c) No action can be taken against Naman as YouTube is a free platform.
d) Naman's YouTube account may be suspended.
and arguments,
case, please choose

Disclaimer

resemblance

Passage – 3

The government on Sunday released a draft national policy for air sports in the country that will
require entities
providing these services and their equipment to be registered, as well as be liable for
penalties. The policy proposes
a two-tier governance structure for air sports in the country, which will
include an apex governing body called the
Air Sports Federation of India (ASFI) and associations for
each air sport. It will cover activities like aerobatics,
aeromodelling, amateur-built and experimental
aircraft, ballooning, drones, gliding, hang gliding, paragliding,
microlighting, paramotoring, skydiving,
and vintage aircraft.

The ASFI will be an autonomous body under the Ministry of Civil Aviation and will represent India at
the Lausanneheadquartered Fédération Aéronaautique Internationale (FAI) and other global
platforms related to air sports. It will
provide governance over various aspects of air sports, including
regulation, certification, competitions, awards
and penalties, etc. Each air sports association will lay
down its safety standards for equipment, infrastructure,
personnel and training, and specify the
disciplinary actions to be taken in case of non-compliance. Inability to do so
may lead to penal action
by the ASFI.

All persons and entities providing air sports services will be required to register as members of the
respective air
sports associations. Key equipment used will also have to be registered. The draft
policy also aims to promote
domestic design, development and manufacturing of air sports equipment
under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan;
waive import duty on equipment for a few years; as well as
request the GST Council to consider rationalising the
GST rate on air sports equipment to 5% or less.

Note - Answer presuming the Draft National Sports Air Policy has become law.
Q 76. 11740286 Tarun Enterprises organized a mini-drone air fight competition. Teams from across
the nation participated.
The mini-drones had different types of weapons like fire, pellets, water-canon,
etc. to cause maximum
damage to the opposite team's drone. Decide.
a) This is a mini-drone competition and safety standards need not be followed.

b) The safety standards relating to drones have to be followed by all the teams participating.
c) Minor sports events do not need an oversight agency.
d) Drones are not covered under the Draft National Air Sports Policy
Q 77. 11740286 Shivani went to Manali for paragliding. A local shepherd, Kamal, was offering the
paragliding service for Rs.
2500 which was one-third the market price. There was no infrastructure in
place to ensure the paraglider's
safety. Decide.
a)
No action can be taken against Kamal as he is offering the paragliding services at a much lower price.
b)
No action can be taken against Kamal as paragliding does not come within the Draft National Air
Sports
Policy.
c) Kamal is liable for penal action.
d) Kamal is liable under Section 300 of IPC for endangering the life of paragliders.
Q 78. 11740286 Divyang went to Sikkim for sky diving along with his sister Isha. The trained
personnel were on leave and
therefore, in order to not lose out on profits, the sky diving service
owner, Karan, recruited some locals and
instructed them briefly about safety standards. Decide.
a) Karan is liable for penal action as the personnel were not properly trained.
b) Karan is liable for penal action as he belongs to private sector.
c)
Karan is not liable for penal action as it is a common practice to recruit locals when the trained
personnel
take leave.
d) Karan is not liable as Divyang and his sister Isha have filled the 'No Objection Form'.
Q 79. 11740286 Akshay went to Hyderabad Flying Club (HFC) to learn 'microlighting'. HFC had
shifted to new premises and
the construction work was in progress. Certain safety measures like road
inspection, aircraft maintenance,
new personnel safety gear, etc. were either not procured or in
process. HFC started operation on the new
premises ignoring the above concerns. Decide.
a) HFC is not liable for action.
b) HFC is liable for action.
c) HFC is shifting and therefore, certain relaxations can be given to it.

d) HFC has to bribe officials to get scot-free.

Q 80. 11740286 The Municipal Corporation of Bhopal added a new sport 'Paramotoring' in its list of
adventure sports activities
in the city. It allows the user to get a bird's eye view of the city. Decide.
a) All the major equipments related to paramotoring have to be registered.
b) All the personnel associated with the operation of the sport have to be registered.
c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
d) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct.
and arguments,
case, please choose

Disclaimer

resemblance

Passage – 4

United Nations Convention on Law Of Seas (UNCLOS) is a very comprehensive document covering
almost every
aspect of the law of the seas. It is considered as the 'Constitution of the Ocean'.
According to Article 3 of the
UNCLOS, 'Territorial Waters' is an area upto 12 nautical miles measured
from the sea baseline. A coastal state
exercises absolute sovereignty over its territorial waters.

A foreign vessel has a right of innocent passage through the territorial waters of another state. There
is no prior
authorization required for it. The foreign vessel can use the territorial waters of another
state for docking, traversing
or moving from territorial waters to high seas. In case of a distress or
force majeure, the foreign vessel has right
to stoppage and anchorage over the territorial waters of
another state. The use of another state's territorial waters
should not be prejudicial to the peace or
security or good order of that state. Moreover, it must not adversely affect
the security of such state.

According to Article 86 of UNCLOS, 'High Seas' is an area in oceans which is beyond 200 nautical
miles from the
coast of any country. High Seas commonly belongs to all states and no single or group
of countries can lay
exclusive claim over it.
Q 81. 11740286 A vessel named 'Havana' belonging to USA destined to Australia sailed near the Sri
Lankan coast and was at
a distance of around 6 nautical miles from it. Decide.
a)
The vessel will be allowed passage from the Sri Lankan coast provided it does not cause any threat to
Sri
Lanka.
b)
The vessel will be allowed passage from the Sri Lankan coast even if it causes any danger to Sri
Lanka.
c)
The vessel will be allowed passage from Sri Lanka as it belongs to USA, the most financially and
militarily
powerful country of the world.
d) The vessel will be allowed passage from Sri Lanka as it was destined to Australia.
Q 82. 11740286 A Spanish vessel was sailing through the territorial waters of United Kingdom (UK).
Due to the adverse
climatic conditions, it was forced to anchor on UK territorial waters without taking
the permission from UK
authorities. Decide.
a) UK can seize the vessel.

b)
UK will not seize the vessel as it belongs to Spain and both UK and Spain are part of European
Union.
c) UK will not seize the vessel as it has a Free Trade Agreement with Spain.
d) UK cannot seize the vessel as it anchored due to adverse climatic condition.
Q 83. 11740286 A South African vessel was passing through the territorial waters of Malaysia. The
vessel was hit by a rock
and was sinking. It stopped on the Malaysian coast. Decide.
a) The Malaysian authorities can seize the vessel.

b) The Malaysian authorities cannot seize the vessel.
c) The South African government has to pay compensation to Malaysian government.
d) United Nations has to mediate in this unique matter.
Q 84. 11740286 'Piquet' was a vessel registered in Mexico. It was passing through the territorial
waters of India. Pawan, an
Indian Coast Guard officer noticed that 'Piquet' was clandestinely
transporting wanted criminals out of India.
Decide.
a) India can seize the vessel.
b) India cannot seize the vessel.

c) Pawan will be given Gallantry award.
d) The Mexican government will take action against 'Piquet' captain and crew.
Q 85. 11740286 A vessel belonging to Canada found a subterranean shale gas reserve in High Seas.
Decide.
a) The gas reserve will be allotted to Canada for exclusive exploitation.
b)
The gas reserve will be allotted to all the countries which are at 200 nautical miles from the gas
reserve.
c) The gas reserve will be allotted to all countries equally.
d) The gas reserve cannot be exploited as it causes marine pollution.
and arguments,
case, please choose

Disclaimer

resemblance

Passage – 5

Dowry Prohibition Act, an Indian law, enacted on May 1, 1961, intended to prevent the giving or
receiving of a dowry.
Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, dowry includes property, goods, or money
given by either party to the marriage,
by the parents of either party, or by anyone else in connection
with the marriage. The Dowry Prohibition Act applies
to persons of all religions in India.

The original text of the Dowry Prohibition Act was widely judged to be ineffective in curbing the
practice of dowry.
Moreover, specific forms of violence against women continued to be linked to a
failure to meet dowry demands. As
a result, the legislation underwent subsequent amendment. In
1984, for example, it was changed to specify that
presents given to a bride or a groom at the time of a
wedding are allowed. The law required, however, that a list be
maintained describing each gift, its
value, the identity of the person giving it, and the person's relation to either party
to the marriage. The
act and relevant sections of the Indian Penal Code were further amended to protect female
victims of
dowry-related violence. Another layer of legal protection was provided in 2005 under the Protection of
Women from Domestic Violence Act.

The original text of the Dowry Prohibition Act was widely judged to be ineffective in curbing the
practice of dowry.
Moreover, specific forms of violence against women continued to be linked to a

failure to meet dowry demands. As

a result, the legislation underwent subsequent amendment. In
1984, for example, it was changed to specify that
presents given to a bride or a groom at the time of a
wedding are allowed. The law required, however, that a list be
maintained describing each gift, its
value, the identity of the person giving it, and the person's relation to either party
to the marriage. The
act and relevant sections of the Indian Penal Code were further amended to protect female
victims of
dowry-related violence. Another layer of legal protection was provided in 2005 under the Protection of
Women from Domestic Violence Act.
Q 86. 11740286 Gopalan got an advertisement published in a local newspaper in Chennai wherein
he demanded Rs. 1 crore
in exchange for marriage to his son, Pradeep, who is a Class-I officer in
Tamil Nadu government. Decide.
a) b)
Gopalan will face public shame for doing such an Gopalan is not liable under the new Dowry
act. Prohibition Act.
c) Gopalan is a blot on Indian culture. d)
Gopalan is liable under the new Dowry Prohibition
Act.
Q 87. 11740286 Zara, a Muslim girl is getting married to Sohail, a Muslim boy. Sohail's parents
demand Rs. 50 Lakhs from
Zara's parents. Decide.
a) Sohail's parents are liable under the Domestic Violence Act.

b) Sohail's parents are liable under the Dowry Prohibition Act.
c) Sohail's parents will face public dishonour for demanding dowry.
d) Zara must not get married to money minded in-laws.
Q 88. 11740286 Suzzanne is getting married to Amer. Amer's mother demanded a 'Fortuner' Car
from Suzzanne's parents.
Decide.
a)
The situation is exempted from Dowry Prohibition Act as the person involved in demanding dowry is a
'woman' herself.
b) Suzzanne must annual the marriage and search for someone who loves her and not her money.
c) Amer's mother will be liable under Dowry Prohibition Act.
d) Amer's mother be liable under the Domestic Violence Act.
Q 89. 11740286 Sukriti went to her friend, Jagriti's marriage. Sukriti gifted Jagriti a Swiss perfume
during the photoshoot on
stage. Decide.
a) Sukriti is not liable under the Dowry Prohibition Act.
b) Sukriti should not give gifts to a childhood friend.
c) Sukriti is liable under the Dowry Prohibition Act.

d)
Gifting is a part of Hindu marriages and no legislation could abridge essential religious practices of
Hindu
religion.
Q 90. 11740286 Ishani was physically abused by her in-laws after marriage. She secretly made a
video which shows her
mother-in-law and husband slapping her for refusing to budge in to the
demand of a car as dowry. Decide.
a) Ishani should file a case of cruelty against her husband and in-laws.
b) Ishani should get divorce and find a suitable match for her.
c) Ishani should not do anything as it is common for in-laws to abuse and demand dowry in India.
d) Ishani can get justice under the Dowry Prohibition Act.
and arguments,
case, please choose

Disclaimer

resemblance

Passage – 6

'Mahbub Shah v. Emperor' is a landmark case on 'common intention' under Section 34 of Indian Penal
Code. The
court laid in detail the criteria where Section 34 will be attracted and where it will not be
attracted. The court laid that
if two or more persons intend to do an act jointly, it is same as if each had
done it individually. This is known as the
principle of 'Common Intention' or 'Constructive Criminality' or
Joint Liability' under criminal law. Section 34 of
Indian Penal Code contains it. A pre-arranged plan
also tantamounts to a common intention. Common intention is
not equal to 'same' intention. In
'common' intention, there is a pre-meditated meeting of minds to do a particular
act, which is absent in
the case of 'same' or 'similar' intention.

Physical participation is not mandatory to attract Section 34. All that is required is that there must be
some active
involvement of the accused which advances the common cause. A person may be
physically absent from the
crime scene and still be a part of common intention.

Q 91. 11740286 Rahul, Karan and Lakhan are friends. They plan to rob a bank. Rahul will finance the
crime. Karan will get the
required vehicles and guns. Lakhan will hack the bank's security camera and
the safe locker. The robbery is
committed. Decide.
a) Only Rahul and Karan are liable under Section 34 of IPC.

b) Rahul, Karan and Lakhan are liable under Section 34 of IPC.
c) Only Karan and Lakhan are liable under Section 34 of IPC.
d) Neither Rahul nor Karan nor Lakhan is liable under Section 34 of IPC.
Q 92. 11740286 Amjad had enmity against Sahil. He asks his friend Varun to arrange a car for him.
Amjad plans to use this
car to kill Sahil of which Varun is not aware. Amjad with an intention to kill
Sahil runs over him driving the
same car. Sahil dies. Decide.
a) b)
Amjad and Varun are not liable under constructive Amjad and Varun are liable under constructive
liability. liability.
c) Amjad is liable for murder. d) Varun is liable for abetment to murder.
Q 93. 11740286 Joseph and Ankur decide to beat Bhuvnesh. Joseph bought a wooden stick. Ankur
had given the money to
Joseph for buying this stick. Joseph beats Bhuvnesh near an empty road.
Ankur was out of town the same
day. Decide.
a) Common intention is not applicable here as Ankur was out of town.
b) Only Joseph is liable for beating Bhuvnesh.
c) Only Ankur is liable for providing the money to purchase the wooden stick.
d) Both Joseph and Ankur are equally liable.
Q 94. 11740286 Five terrorists A, B, C, D and E were trained by 'Z' to attack a hotel in Mumbai. 'Z'
was not in India. The five
terrorist visit Mumbai and lay siege to the hotel and take guests as
hostages. All this while 'Z' was instructing
them on satellite phone from a neighbouring country.
Decide.
a) A, B, C, D, E and Z are equally liable.
b) A, B, C, D and E are liable under common intention but not 'Z'.
c) Only Z is liable.
d) A, B, C, D and E are liable under common intention and 'Z' for abetment.
Q 95. 11740286 Ritu is going to college. She is assaulted by Raj, who was passing by on a bike. A
few minutes down the
road, another boy Raja makes indecent comments over Ritu's body. Decide.
a) Both Raj and Raja are liable under Section 34 of Indian Penal Code.

b)
Only Raj is liable under Section 34 of IPC while Raja is liable under other provision of Indian Penal
Code.
c)
Only Raja is liable under Section 34 of IPC while Raj is liable under other provision of Indian Penal
Code.
d) Common intention is not applicable here.
and arguments,
case, please choose

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Passage – 7

Judicial appointments in India follow a complicated procedure, involving both judges and the
government. A
committee of judges known as the collegium puts forwards names and the government
is generally expected to
approve them. This process is governed by a Memorandum of Procedure.
The Memorandum of Procedure (MoP)
is a document framed by the government in consultation with
the Chief Justice of India (CJI), which lays down the
procedure for the appointment of judges to the
Supreme Court and various High Courts. It was first issued in
November 1947 and has been updated
since.

The Memorandum of Procedure for the Supreme Court judges' appointment says that all
appointments must be
recommended by the collegium, composed of the Chief Justice of India and the
four senior-most judges of the
Supreme Court. "The Chief Justice of India would ascertain the views
of the seniormost Judge in the Supreme
Court, who hails from the High Court from where the person
recommended comes," it adds. This recommendation
is then sent to the Central government - via the
law minister and then the prime minister before ending up at the
President's desk - for approval and
appointment.


The Memorandum of Procedure for High Court appointments is a bit more complicated. A High Court
collegium -
the chief justice of the High Court along with its two senior-most judges - must send a
recommendation to the
chief minister and the governor of the state. The governor, based on the
advice received from the chief minister,
will send the recommendation to the Union Minister of Law
and Justice, who after consideration will forward the
recommendation to the Chief Justice of India.
Then, the Chief Justice of India, after being informed by the two
senior-most judges of the Supreme
Court should send the recommendation to the Union Minister of Law and
Justice who will put the
recommendations before the Prime Minister who will advise the President about the
appointment.
Q 96. 11740286 Mr. X was an advocate practicing in the High Court of Madhya Pradesh. The Chief
Justice of Madhya Pradesh
High Court, without consulting any other judge of the High Court, sent the
name of Mr. X to the Chief Minister
and Governor of Madhya Pradesh for appointment as a judge of
Madhya Pradesh High Court. Decide.
a)
Mr. X can be appointed as Madhya Pradesh High Court judge as proper procedure has been followed
for
his appointment.
b)
Mr. X cannot be appointed as Madhya Pradesh High Court judge as proper procedure was not
followed.
c)
Mr. X cannot be appointed as Madhya Pradesh High Court judge as he does not have enough
experience
in judicial matters.
d)
Mr. X can be appointed as Madhya Pradesh High Court judge as he has requisite qualifications for
such
appointment.
Q 97. 11740286 A recommendation for appointment of Mr. Y as High Court judge came before the
Chief Justice of India, who
after consultation with the two senior-most judges of the Supreme Court,
forwarded it to the Union Law
Ministry for further action. Decide.
a)
Union Law Ministry is bound by the opinion of High Court Chief Justice for appointment of Supreme
Court
judges.
b) CJI has exclusive powers for choosing the Supreme Court judges.
c) The Memorandum of Procedure has not been followed.
d) The Memorandum of Procedure has been followed.
Q 98. 11740286 Mr. Z was a sitting judge in Gujarat High Court. The Chief Justice of India
recommended him to be appointed
as a Supreme Court judge without discussing the same with any
of the Supreme Court judges. Decide.
a) Mr. Z must have given some bribe to the CJI for considering his name.
b) CJI has to take the consent of the Chief Justice of the High Court of Gujarat.
c)
Mr. Z cannot be appointed as Supreme Court judge as the CJI does not have absolute powers for
appointment of Supreme Court judges.
d) Mr. Z can be appointed as Supreme Court judge.
Q 99. 11740286 Mrs. G is a sitting judge in the High Court of Tamil Nadu. She is being recommended
for appointment as
Supreme Court judge. The Chief Justice of India consulted the four seniormost
judges of the Supreme
Court and straightaway forwarded the recommendations to the Union Law
Ministry. Decide.
a) Memorandum of Procedure has been violated.
b) Memorandum of Procedure is not applicable in case of Supreme Court judges' appointments.
c)
Mrs. G cannot be appointed to Supreme Court as only men are allowed to be judges in the Supreme
Court.
d)
Mrs. G has to take consent from the Tamil Nadu Chief Minster and Governor before being appointed
as
Supreme Court judge.
Q 100. 11740286 The Chief Justice of India and the Chief Justice of Karnataka High Court jointly
recommended Mr. K, a sitting
judge of Karnataka High Court, for appointment as Supreme Court
judge and the appointment of Mrs. H, an
advocate practicing in Karnataka High Court for appointment
as judge in Karnataka High Court. Decide.
a) Neither Mr. K nor Mrs. H can be appointed to higher judicial posts.

b) Only Mr. K can be appointed but not Mrs. H.
c) Only Mrs. H can be appointed but not Mr. K.
d) Both Mr. K and Mrs. H can be appointed to higher judicial posts.
and arguments,
case, please choose

Disclaimer


resemblance

Passage – 8

Trespass can be to a person or a property. False imprisonment is a type of trespass to a person.

False imprisonment
means imposition of total restraint upon another person without lawful
justification. It is a criminal offence as well
as a tort. There are certain essentials to satisfy a tort of
false imprisonment as laid in the case of Bird v. Jones.
Firstly, the restraint must be total and not
partial. In other words, there should not be any alternate route available
to the plaintiff during false
imprisonment. The duration of false imprisonment is however, irrelevant. It could be very
short or very
long. The alternate available must be from the perspective of an ordinary prudent man and not a
specialist. The knowledge that the plaintiff has been falsely imprisoned is immaterial. The second
requirement is
that the restraint must be without lawful justification. This condition can be waived in
cases where the plaintiff
accepts reasonable conditions of entering a place or in cases where the
plaintiff has committed or appears to
have committed some offence.
Q 101. 11740286 Isha, a major, was in love with Ishan. Her parents objected and locked her in her
bedroom. The bedroom had
one main door and another emergency exit. Decide.
a)
Isha's parents are not liable for false imprisonment as it is there right to decide the life-partner of Isha.
b) Isha's parents are not liable for false imprisonment as there is an emergency exit route.
c)
Isha's parents are liable for false imprisonment as everyone is free to do whatever one wishes as
India is
a democratic country.
d) Isha's parents are liable for false imprisonment as they locked Isha who is a major.
Q 102. 11740286 Mohan and Shyam went on a road trip. A fight ensued and Shyam locked Mohan in
his car. Due to the child
lock feature, there was no way for Mohan to get out of the car. After an hour
of tiring attempts to move out,
Mohan apologized and Shyam let Mohan free. Decide.
a) Shyam is liable for false imprisonment as he locked Mohan in his car.

b) Shyam is liable for false imprisonment as he had a fight with Mohan.
c) Shyam is not liable for false imprisonment as he locked Mohan for just one hour.
d) Shyam is not liable for false imprisonment as he later let Mohan free.
Q 103. 11740286 Shalini and Mohini went to a five-star restaurant. After having a sumptuous meal,
they realized they did not
have enough money. The restaurant manager restricted them from leaving
the place and asked them to
make the payment. Decide.
a) The restaurant manager is liable for false imprisonment as Shalini and Mohini are women.

b)
The restaurant manager is liable for false imprisonment as he restrained Shalini and Mohini without
lawful justification.
c)
The restaurant manager is not liable for false imprisonment as he has every right to do whatever he
wishes to customers who don't pay the bill.
d)
The restaurant manager is not liable for false imprisonment as Shalini and Mohini had not paid the bill.
Q 104. 11740286 Jasmeet snatched a chain from a woman, Preeti, who was returning from a
wedding function. Unknown to
Jasmeet, Preeti was a trained Karata champion. Preeti chased down
Jasmeet, took her chain back and tied
him (Jasmeet) to a pole and called the police. Decide.
a) Preeti is liable for false imprisonment as she took the law into her own hands.
b) Preeti is liable for false imprisonment as she unnecessarily punched Jasmeet.
c) Preeti is not liable for false imprisonment as Jasmeet had committed an offence.
d) Preeti is not liable for false imprisonment as all chain-snatchers must be physically tortured.
Q 105. 11740286 Meghali was sleeping. Her friend, Gunjan, was not aware of this. Gunjan locked
Meghali's room. Next morning
Gunjan unlocked the room before Meghali woke up. Decide.
a) Meghali is liable for false imprisonment.
b) Gunjan is liable for false imprisonment.
c) Gunjan is not liable for false imprisonment.

d) False imprisonment is not attracted in case of naughty acts between friends.
Logical Reasoning
and
arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what
is stated or
implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than
the ones supplied to you.
In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the
question; in such a case, please choose the
option that most accurately and comprehensively
answers the question.

Passage – 1

India's domestic gaming market is expected to grow to over $2 billion by 2023, with more than 400
million Indian
gamers. We have already seen the emergence of multiple unicorns in this segment-

Dream11, MPL, and

Games24x7. [1] _____, Prime Minister Modi himself has endorsed India's gaming
industry as a potential world
leader, highlighting their socio-economic and cultural significance in
today's globalised and digitised economy.
The Indian gaming industry is way behind global leaders
Microsoft, Sony, Tencent, and Nintendo, whose combined
revenue for FY21 is $90 billion. India is in a
unique position to build a global leadership position in the mobile
gaming industry.

However, the industry is hamstrung by disparate and archaic laws and is subject to uncertainty and
lack of
uniformity. So far, online games have been assessed against gambling laws like the Public
Gambling Act, 1867,
whose primary intention was to prohibit gambling and betting in the physical
world. Despite court rulings to the
contrary, online games of skill have faced restrictions on grounds of
being synonymous with gambling and bettinga
misconception.

Courts in various instances relied on the 'dominant factor test' to uphold different formats as games of
skill. For
instance, the Punjab and Haryana High Court in the case of Varun Gumber v. UT of
Chandigarh opined that
fantasy sports require a considerable amount of skill, and winning a game is
not simply a matter of chance-a
complete contrast to the idea of gambling. This view has also been
echoed by other High Courts, including the
Bombay High Court's decision in Gurdeep Singh Sachar v.
Union of India, and the Rajasthan High Court's decision
in Chandresh Sankhla v. the State of
Rajasthan.

Rather than resorting to extreme measures by imposing bans and disrupting the growth of a dynamic
segment,
the need of the hour is to create a gaming ecosystem with a national level uniform
regulatory framework that
would thrive under rational regulations and vigilance. The challenge is real
but not a dead end.
Q 106. 11740286 Which of the following would logically fit in the blank in [1]?
a) In fact b) However c) Thereby d) Nonetheless
Q 107. 11740286 The author of the passage would agree with which one of the following?
a)
Games that are based dominantly on chance should be outrightly banned by the courts in order to
discourage them.
b) The government and the judiciary are wrong in restricting the online games that require a skill.
c)
All online games should be regulated since all of them are dominantly based on chance rather than
skill.
d) Games that are based largely on chance are more likely to be banned by the courts in India.
Q 108. 11740286 Which of the following would be a logical course of action according to the author of
the passage?

a)
The Union government brings in a uniform light-touch regulatory framework for the gaming industry.
b) The states bring in their own regulatory framework for the online gaming industry.
c)
The government announces that online games would be regulated under the Information Technology
Act, 2000 which is known for being iron-heavy in regulation.
Q 109. 11740286 The author has used which among the following as a premise in the passage?

i. Courts in various instances have relied on the dominant factor test.

ii. The Indian Gaming industry is way behind in value than that of other industries.

iii. Winning most online games is completely dependent on chance.
a) Both i and ii b) Both i and iii c) Both ii and iii d) Only ii
Q 110. 11740286 Which among the following options strengthens the arguments made by the
author?
a) The penetration of the internet in India at present is less than half of its potential users.
b)
Almost all potential users in India have at some time or the other tried their hands on online games.
c)
According to a study, online games that may be perceived to be based on skill can easily be
manipulated
through algorithms.
d) 50% of the online gamers lose their money whereas 50% book profits.
and
is stated or

Passage – 2

Last week, India heaved a sigh of relief when the India Meteorological Department (IMD) predicted a
normal
monsoon. The rainfall is likely to be "normal" at 99% of the long period average (LPA) with an
error margin of +/-
5%, and if all goes well, will be the fourth consecutive monsoon that has been
"normal" or "above normal". The
last time India had such good fortune was between 2005 and 2008.
However, IMD's forecast of 868.6 mm is
based on 1971-2020 data and replaces the earlier normal of

880.6 mm based on 1961-2010 data. This means

that while the rainfall would be "normal", India may
well get less rain than it used to a decade ago. IMD termed this
decrease part of a natural "multi-
decadal epochal variability" of dry and wet epochs of rainfall.

A good monsoon ensures sufficient yield in agriculture (40% of India's net-sown area does not have
access to
irrigation), and half of all Indians depend on farm-derived income; it replenishes 100 large
reservoirs critical for
drinking water, irrigation and power generation; and it keeps the pressure on
overall retail inflation low. This year,
a normal monsoon is crucial also because global food prices
have hit record highs due to food shortages amid
the Ukraine conflict.

While agriculturists know how to make the best use of the monsoon, it is high time for others to
harvest the rains.
Last year, Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the Jal Shakti Abhiyan and urged
the nation to take up water
conservation. But citizens often take the monsoon for granted. This is
imprudent for a country facing a terrible
water crisis and the climate crisis, which could make the
monsoons erratic, and also volatile.
Q 111. 11740286 Which of the following cannot be validated from the passage?
a) India will get standard rainfall in the coming decade from the projected data.
b) This year, IMD has said that India will receive above normal rainfall.
c) From 2005-2008, India have received long period average rainfall.

d) Due to dry and wet epochs of rainfall India might receive less than normal rainfall.
Q 112. 11740286 Why according to the author normal monsoon is required this year?
a) Because of Covid 19 pandemic, for the last two years agriculture has suffered a setback.
b) It will reduce the pressure on retail inflation flow.
c) Food prices all around the world have gone up because of the Ukraine war.
d) More than 40% of India does not have access to drinking water.
Q 113. 11740286 Which of the following can be inferred from the last paragraph?
a) Agriculturists should harvest rain water for future use.
b) Prime Minister's Jal Shakti Abhiyan is the 1st step towards water conservation.
c) People seldom takes water conservation lightly.
d) None of them.
Q 114. 11740286 Should India install another 100 reservoirs for drinking water?

I. Yes, it will ensure more people getting access to clean water.

II. No, because rainfall is limited every year, it will further create insufficiency.
a) I b) II c) I and II d) None of them.

Q 115. 11740286 Which of the following is a valid assumption?
a) People in India are nonchalant about rain water harvesting.

b) For a country like India, harvesting of water can reduce the ill effects of climate and water crisis.
c) Both (a) and (b).
d) None
and
is stated or

Passage – 3

Rapid urbanisation is greatly influencing people's food consumption patterns with inclinations
increasing toward
packaged and processed food items. India's consumption is still pretty low when
compared to western countries
especially the US, wherein such foods make up for almost 70% of the
country's diet; however, consumer
preferences seem to indicate a growing preference for western
packaged foods over Indian foods. There is also
a move to label foods in India based on their fat, salt,
and sugar content. Most traditional and indigenous Indian
foods usually contain salt, sugar, jaggery,
ghee, oil, and spices that are essential for not only their taste but also
have elements uniquely
required for the Indian climate. For the past few years, in India, the Food Safety and
Standards
Authority of India (FSSAI) has been pushing for the proposal of interpretative food labels under the
front
package labelling regulations i.e., marking food items as 'good-food', 'not-good food', 'one-star
food', 'red-marked
food', etc., based on their salt, sugar, and fat content.

Most of the snacks like bhujiya or banana chips will contain salt and fat, and sweets like rasgulla and
mysore pak
will contain sugar. Even summer beverages like jaljeera, nimbu pani, lassi, and chaach
will have sugar/salt and
food accompaniments like pickle or chutney will have salt and fat contents.
Another category of other indigenous
traditional foods such as parathas and thepla may contain salt
and fat. Therefore, if one were to peek into what is
in store in future, you may most likely see your
favourite Indian indigenous foods and specialities emerging from
different states being marked in red
and labelled as 'not good food' and getting levied higher tax rate making them
costly and beyond
reach of common man.

Since all packed food items in the Indian market already carry a nutrition table and classification dots
for vegetarian
or non-vegetarian food further information may only confuse consumers and
manufacturers. There needs to be
capacity-building and education besides the practicality of food
consumption patterns, weather, and tourism
optics that are equally essential to be considered, else
the traditional Indian packaged food market runs into the

risk and dilemma of being branded bad and
taxed.
Q 116. 11740286 Out of the following, what could be a logical implication of labelling the food?
a) Foreign tourists may avoid eating traditional Indian food if cautioned by a label.
b) Those who do not eat traditional food would start incorporating them into their diet.
c) Local tourists may eat unhealthy food and get unwell as a result of it.
d) People eating traditional foods would increase their intake of such food.
Q 117. 11740286 The information in the given passage support which of the following inferences?
a) Profits of the shopkeepers are likely to decrease on foods labelled as good.
b) People's food consumption patterns are subject to change with time.

c) A nutrition table is of less utility to the general public than food scientists.
d) Both a and b are correct
Q 118. 11740286 The central concern of the passage is best represented by which one of the
following?
a)
Food labels would decrease the consumption of traditional foods and hence the idea should be
dropped.
b)
The move to label foods based on their content should be reconsidered, given the brand image they
carry.
c)
Traditional foods are healthy to consume even though one may find high sugar or salt content in some
of
them.
d) One must not be too concerned about eating traditional food - they have stood the test of time.
Q 119. 11740286 What role does the following statement play in the passage mentioned above?
"Anything consumed in
excess is bad for one's health and consumers should ideally know what they
are consuming and how
much they should."
a) This piece of statement strengthens the claim made by the author.

b) This piece of statement weakens the claim made by the author.
c) This piece of statement qualifies the claim made by the author.
d) This piece of statement does not substantially play a role in the passage.
Q 120. 11740286 What makes the authorities label foods as good, not-good, or red? Choose the
most probable answer.

a) The government is truly concerned about making sure that only healthy foods are encouraged.
b)
Foods with red label would be discouraged to be consumed by the customers due to being unhealthy.
c) Foods that are labelled red can be taxed more than those marked good.
d) None of the above is correct
and
is stated or

Passage – 4

Ten years ago, an event that almost mirrored Kalimedu happened in Gudiyatham, Vellore district,
killing five
persons. What is disturbing is the regularity with which these events occur during religious
or temple festivals.
The fact that the State has such a dubious record should compel the authorities to
adhere to the rule book as the
protection of human life is a must.

Even as the findings of a one-member official panel and the police investigation are eagerly awaited,
there are a
number of questions that the authorities need to probe. These include whether the
organisers, who have been
holding the festival for over 90 years, had permission from the local
officials; why there had to be a procession
during the early hours; whether such an event could take
place without the knowledge or the approval of the local
authorities, and why power supply from the
overhead HT line was not switched off, whereas this was not the case
with regard to low-tension lines
in the area. What is obvious is the lack of coordination among the electricity,
highways, local
administration and revenue departments, which ought to have been there for an event such as
this.
The height of the road was raised since the time of the last procession, but evidently the organisers
did not
account for this. The scope for such events occurring can be reduced drastically, if not
eliminated, if the authorities
strictly enforced existing guidelines. Though the institution which had
organised the festival is said to be outside
the purview of the Hindu Religious and Charitable
Endowments Department, the authorities can still be proactive,
at least in sensitising organisers of
such events about safety guidelines and insisting that devotees who accompany
a temple car or
chariot are aware of the risks. The Government should make public the reports submitted by
agencies
that inquire into such events and issue regular updates in the follow up action. It is incumbent upon
devotees to ensure that safety norms are implemented in letter and spirit. It is only through collective
efforts that
tragedies such as the one in Kalimedu can be averted.
Q 121. 11740286 What is the central idea in the passage as conveyed by the author?
a) The tragedy could have been averted had rationalism prevailed.

b) Places of worships are converting into theatres of tragedy due to fanatic worshippers.
c) Adherence to proper safety norms could have averted the tragedy.

d) Tamil Nadu is prone to such tragic occurrences at places of worship.
Q 122. 11740286 As per the passage, which of the following approaches can be most effective to
curb such tragedies during
religious festivals?
a) b) My making festivals virtual.

Sensitising organizers on safety guidelines and c) By cordoning off temple spaces.
measures.
d)
By taking help from the Disaster Management
teams.
Q 123. 11740286 Which of the following is true about the event discussed in the passage?
a) The event was organised illegally.
b) The event suffered from a lack of coordination between relevant officials.

c) The event is a reflection on the unregulated sectors of Tamil Nadu.
d) The event suffered due to the presence of inexperienced organizers.
Q 124. 11740286 Which of the following is a valid criticism against Tamil Nadu?
a) It lacks coordination between its public works departments.
b) Hindu religious festivals are not handled with enough care compared with other religions' festivals.
c) Tamil Nadu has a poor record of successfully managing religious festivals.
d)
Tamil Nadu jeopardises Hindu devotees by not including experienced organizers of religious festivals.
Q 125. 11740286 According to the given passage, which of the following statements is correct?
a) For public safety, the public need to strictly follow government's stipulated rules.
b) Ensuring the safety of private events is not incumbent on the public.
c) Local officials must not interfere in festival organizations.
d)
Maintaining safety in public spaces requires private agencies to work in tandem with government
ones.
and
is stated or



Passage – 5

India has an employment problem which has been exacerbated by the pandemic. One indication of
the building
crisis is the continuing increase, over the years, in work demanded by households under
the MGNREGA. In 2014-
15, 4.13 crore households got work under the scheme. By 2019-20, just
prior to the pandemic, this had risen to
5.48 crore. In 2020-21, at the peak of the economic distress,
the number of households that worked under the
scheme had risen to 7.55 crore. While that figure
declined to 7.26 crore in the subsequent year, it remains
considerably higher than the pre-pandemic
level, indicating perhaps the continuing absence of alternatives. This
growing divergence between the
demand and supply of jobs manifests in a myriad of ways - from louder demands
for reservation in the
public sector by various caste groups, and for including the private sector in its ambit, to
state
governments exploring ways to ensure job quotas for locals. All this is indicative of a wide and
deepening
anxiety over employment prospects.

The deterioration in the employment scenario can be tracked at many levels. One, over the years,
there has been
a sharp fall in the labour force participation rate in India. Data from CMIE suggests
that the labour force participation
rate has fallen to around 40 per cent. For comparable countries, it is
significantly higher. This decline suggests
that despite India's young population, many have simply
opted out of the labour force, perhaps feeling let down by
the absence of remunerative, productive
jobs. The situation is even more dire for women who had a considerably
lower participation rate to
begin with. India's female labour force participation is not only lower than the global
average, but also
lower than countries like Bangladesh. Two, even as the unemployment rate has declined from
the
highs observed during the initial phase of the pandemic, it remains elevated, suggesting that among
those
looking for jobs, those unable to find jobs remains high. Three, the unemployment rate is higher
among the
younger and more educated. Four, while there are signs of increasing formalisation as
indicated by the EPFO
data, a substantial share of the labour force continues to remain employed in
the informal sector, lacking a safety
net.

While successive governments have taken steps to address the issue, the jobs crisis is in large part
the result of
the absence of a labour-intensive manufacturing sector which can not only absorb the
millions entering the labour
force each year, but also those moving out of agriculture. For a country of
the young, in the midst of a demographic
transition, the employment problem is perhaps the most
formidable challenge before the government.
Q 126. 11740286 The information given in the passage allows making which of the following
inferences?
a) Educated and well-off people don't ask for jobs under the MGNREGA Scheme.

b)
Labour force participation rate is likely above 50% in Pakistan, if it is considered a comparable
country.
c) The number of people moving out of agriculture has seen a dip in recent years.
d) The number of jobs created each year for women is less than that of men in most parts of India.
Q 127. 11740286 The arguments made by the author in the given passage require which of the
following to be assumed?
a) The female labour force participation in Bangladesh is lower than the global average.
b) The female labour force participation in Bangladesh is expected to be lower than that of India.
c) People generally don't demand work under the MGNREGA if they have a viable alternative.
d) All of the above
Q 128. 11740286 What role does the following piece of evidence play in the context of the given
passage? "As per the
periodic labour force surveys, the unemployment rate is higher among those in
the 15-29 age group (22.5
per cent in September 2019), and those educated up to at least the
secondary level (11 per cent)."
a) This piece of evidence strengthens the arguments made by the author.
b) This piece of evidence weakens the arguments made by the author.
c) This piece of evidence lends support to the claim of India's government.

d) This statement can be inferred based on the information given in the passage.
Q 129. 11740286 Out of the following, which claim has not been made by the author in the given
passage?
a) The dip in the employment sphere of India can be attributed to many factors.
b) The situation for women's labour force is more acute than that of their male counterparts.
c) People have been demanding more work under the MGNREGA scheme.
d) None of the above is correct
Q 130. 11740286 Which of the following is a statement of opinion rather than an opinion of fact?
a) The number of households that worked under the MGNREGA scheme has risen to 7.55 crore.
b) There has been a decrease in the employment scenario in the country.
c) There has been a sharp fall in the labour force participation rate in India.
d) Data from CMIE suggests that the labour force participation rate has fallen to around 40 per cent.
and
is stated or

Passage – 6

The people of Udupi have played a significant role in the Non-Cooperation Movement launched by
Mahatma
Gandhi in August 1920. For Udupi, this was the first mass movement wherein locals actively
took part in large
numbers. The early meetings were held on the rocks at Ajjarakad and Mukund
Nivas. Later on, public meetings
were held at Car Street of Sri Krishna Mutt.

During the Non-Cooperation Movement, Hiriyadka Ramaraya Mallya had started 'Satyagrahi', a
cyclostyled
newspaper of nationalist temper. Its editors and the team had to face tough penal action
by the government. As
there was a call to withdraw students from government-controlled or aided
schools during the Non-Cooperation
Movement, many nationalist schools were started in Udupi after
September 1920. Likewise, lawyers boycotted
courts and foreign-made clothes were dumped in
bonfires.

Among the prominent people who took part in the movement were R S Shenai, Santyaru
Ananthapadmanabha
Bhat, Kubera Panduranga Rao, S U Paniyadi, Tonse Mukunda Pai, M Vittal
Kamath, Satyamitra Bangera, Kochikar
Pandurang Pai, Nayampalli Anand Rao, Udupi Govind Rao, A
V Baliga, Tonse Raghunath Pai, Tonse Upendra Pai
and Nanalal Govindji.
The Salt Satyagraha was observed in Udupi from April 13, 1930. It was launched with a massive
gathering of
Satyagrahis marching from Car Street to the sea shore at Vadabhandeshwara in Malpe.
In August 1942, the
tempo of the just-launched Quit India Movement reached a high in Udupi.

A young man named U Shesha had defied the curfew and hoisted the Tricolour on the 40-foot-high
monolith pillar
of Sri Anantheshwara Temple in Udupi, according to U Vineeth Rao, researcher,
Gandhian Study and Research
Center, MGM College, Udupi.
Q 131. 11740286 Which of the following is a valid assumption?
a) Udupi before this has never participated in a mass movement involving the locals
b) Udupi's involvement in the non-cooperation movement does not add much to the movement.
c) Gandhiji was looking for people participation so visited Udupi to encourage the locals
d) Udupi's locals played an important role in the movement.
Q 132. 11740286 Which of the following can be inferred from the last paragraph?
a) U Vineeth Rao's description of U Shesha's heroic act is subject to verification.

b) U Shesha's defiance of the curfew is more significant than hoisting the national flag.
c) None of them
d) Both of them
Q 133. 11740286 Which of the following is implicit in the 2nd paragraph?
a) Students were forced to participate in the Non cooperation movement.

b) Nationalistic schools were given more importance than government schools.
c)
Lawyers who passed the barrister exam from London gave up their government jobs and supported
the
locals
d)
Hiriyadka Ramaraya Mallya had started 'Satyagrahi' to protest against the penal action taken against
his
team.
Q 134. 11740286 Read the following arguments and select the correct option.

I. It took 12 years from 19030-1942 for the movement to reach its peak in Udupi.

II. The foreign made clothes were burnt in the fire to promote khadi cladded dresses.
a) I is true b) II is true c) Both are true d) Both are false.
Q 135. 11740286 The author here may seem to__________________ with the non-cooperation
movement.
a) Strongly agree b) Agree c) Strongly disagree d) Disagree
Mathematics
Directions for questions 136 to 140: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

The line graph given below shows the production of paper (in thousand tonnes) by three different
factories – A, B
and C over the years 2014 to 2020.


Q 136. 11740286 Total production of paper of the three factories together is equal for the years
a) 2014, 2016 b) 2015, 2016 c) 2017, 2018 d) 2019, 2020
Q 137. 11740286 In which of the following years for the factory B, the percentage rise or fall in the
production from the
previous year is maximum?
a) 2015 b) 2016 c) 2017 d) 2018
Q 138. 11740286 Average production per year for factory A is what percentage (approx.) of average
production per year for
factory C?
a) 125 b) 119 c) 105 d) 80
Q 139. 11740286 Ratio of total production of paper by factory A to the total production by factory C is
a) 20 : 21 b) 21 : 20 c) 80 : 67 d) 83 : 79
Q 140. 11740286 In how many years the production of paper (in thousand tonnes) by factory C is
less than the average
production of paper by factory B over the years?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
below.


The bar graph and line graph given below shows the income of company (in Rs. crores) and
percentage profit
over the years 2013 to 2018 respectively.

Income – Expenditure = Profit

Profit % = (Income – Expenditure)/Expenditure × 100

Q 141. 11740286 In which year was the amount of profit maximum?
a) 2014 b) 2016 c) 2017 d) 2018
Q 142. 11740286 Approximate difference in the amount of profit for 2015 and 2018 is
a) 2.3 crores b) 1.87 crores c) 1 crore d) 1.67 crores

Q 143. 11740286 Approximately what was the average expenditure (in Rs. crores) for the given
years?
a) 81.94 b) 82.34 c) 96.76 d) 98.76
Q 144. 11740286 The expenditure (in Rs. crores) in 2016 is
a) 83.3 b) 75 c) 65.3 d) 56
Q 145. 11740286 If the profit percent in 2018 was 25, what would have been the expenditure (in Rs.
crores) in that year ?
a) 75 b) 75.8 c) 80 d) 83.3
below.

In XYZ college, there was a workshop for 3 hours. 100% students of the college attended the
workshop but all the
students were not punctual to the workshop nor did all the students attended the
entire workshop. Of all the
students who arrived early for the workshop, 20% of them left early but
40% of them left late and rest of them left
on time. Of the students who arrived late for the workshop,
50% of them left late but 25% of them left on time and
rest of them left early. Of the students who
arrived on time, 37.5% of them left early and an equal number of them
left late but rest of them left on
time. The number of students who arrived early was equal to the number of
students who left on time
and the number of students who left early was 39 more than the number of students
who arrived late
for the workshop. The number of students who didn't leave on time was 144.
Q 146. 11740286 How many students left on time?
a) 63 b) 60 c) 81 d) 24
Q 147. 11740286 What is the difference between the total number of students who left early and the
total number of students
who left late?
a) 18 b) 16 c) 20 d) 22
Q 148. 11740286 What is the total number of students?
a) 208 b) 212 c) 204 d) 210
Q 149. 11740286 Find the respective ratio of the number of students who arrived early, the number of
students who arrived
on time, and the number of students who arrived late?
a) 5 : 10 : 2 b) 5 : 8 : 4 c) 10 : 9 : 8 d) 5 : 8 : 5
Q 150. 11740286 The total number of students who arrived on time was how much percent (approx.)
more/less than the total
number of students who didn't leave early?
a) 17% b) 21% c) 15% d) 13%


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Countdown Mock - 22 (CLAT) 2022

a) b) c) d) A form of spirituality

a) Both of their artworks were inaccurately perceived to be misogynist by the protesters.

https://www.aspiration.link/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=2k6 tvDseoU%3D 2/53

d) Relevant events must be kept in mind to fully understand the artwork.

I ask him, "Aren't we happy?"

He nods his head with vigour.

The worms nod, too.

a) Nod head lazily b) c) d)

a) The author's mother died due to a heavy blow on her head.

Q 8. 11740286 The information given in the passage indicates which of the following?

a) The gender of the author is female.

b) The author mourns regularly for her mother's death.

d) None of the above is true

Q 9. 11740286 What is the author suggesting by pointing out that worms nod?

a) The worms nod by seeing the two siblings enjoy.

Q 10. 11740286 What is the correct meaning of the term 'trample'?

I ignored him until he throttled down. That was not normal.

https://www.aspiration.link/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=2k6 tvDseoU%3D 4/53

walking from the main gate at

a) b) An open pit

d) A water channel used in irrigating plants

Q 12. 11740286 Which among the following is true about the teenager?

a) He is not a native English speaker. b)

Q 13. 11740286 All of the following is true according to the passage except?

https://www.aspiration.link/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=2k6 tvDseoU%3D 5/53

https://www.aspiration.link/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=2k6 tvDseoU%3D 6/53

Q 17. 11740286 Based on the passage, it can be said that

d) All of the above

b) Because heat wave deaths merit compensation on moral grounds

c) Because urbanisation plays a role in exaggerating heat waves

a) Friction (Physics) b) Enmity c) Relationship d) Networking

b) La Niña disrupts rainfall in India.

d) All of the above

https://www.aspiration.link/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=2k6 tvDseoU%3D 8/53

a) Create hostility b) Restore relations c) d) Vindicate someone

Q 22. 11740286 In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that:

a) b) Diasporic cultures are often xenophobic.

a) With b) On c) Off d) Against

a) Ethnic identity owes its origin to the Marxian definition of diaspora.

b) Diasporas are usually loyal only to their host countries.

c) Meaning of culture is mutative.

d) Ethnic identity is uni-dimensional.

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https://www.aspiration.link/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=2k6 tvDseoU%3D 10/53

Q 27. 11740286 As per the passage:

c) The rasa theory considers nature to be supreme in a performance.

d) The pace of the narrative may vary in an artistic performance.

Q 29. 11740286 In the light of the passage, it can be understood that:

a) The rendition by Bala Saraswati can be defined as polemic.

b) The rendition by Bala Saraswati can be categorised as prosaic.

c) The rendition by Bala Saraswati is full of various imageries.

d) The rendition by Bala Saraswati can be categorised as a modern piece of art.

a) Atrophied b) Benefitted c) Affected d) Beguiled

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

a) March 24 b) April 24 c) May 3 d) April 18