PW-AITS_NT-03

PHYSICS

1. Two sphere of mass m and M are situated in air and
the gravitational force between them is F. The
space around the masses is now filled with a liquid
of specific gravity 3. The gravitational force will
now be
6. A wooden block, with a coin placed on its top,
floats in water as shown in figure. The distance l
and h are shown there. After some time the coin
falls into the water. Then

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F
(A) F (B)
3

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F

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(C) (D) 3 F
9
(A) l decreases and h increases

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(B) l increases and h decreases
2. The Young's modulus of a wire of length L and
(C) both l and h increases

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radius r is Y N/m2. If the length and radius are
(D) both l and h decreases
reduced to L/2 and r/2, then its Young's modulus
will be
(A) Y/2 (B) Y
7.
h_
The work done to get n smaller equal size spherical
drops from a bigger size spherical drop of water is
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(C) 2Y (D) 4Y proportional to :
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 1   1 
(A)  2 / 3  – 1 (B)  1/ 3  – 1
n  n 
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3. A uniform wire is elongated by a stress of

106 Nm–2 and the strain produced is 10–4. The (C) n –1
1/3
(D) n4/3 – 1
energy per unit volume due to strain of the wire is
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(A) 108 Jm–3 (B) 5 × 105 Jm–3 8. The distance of the centres of moon and earth is D.
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–3 –3 The mass of earth is 81 times the mass of the moon.

(C) 50 Jm (D) 100 Jm
At what distance from the centre of the earth, the
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gravitational force will be zero

4. The figure shows the motion of a planet around the D 2D
sun in an elliptical orbit with sun at the focus. The (A) (B)
e/

2 3
shaded areas A and B are also shown in the figure 4D 9D
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which can be assumed to be equal. If t1 and t 2 (C) (D)

3 10
represent the time for the planet to move from a to
//t

b and d to c respectively, then

9. A ball is dropped from a spacecraft revolving
b
s:

a around the earth at a height of 120 km. What will

A
happen to the ball
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S (A) It will continue to move with velocity v along

the original orbit of spacecraft
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B
d c (B) It will move with the same speed tangentially
to the spacecraft
(A) t1 < t2 (B) t1 > t2
(C) It will fall down to the earth gradually
(C) t1 = t2 (D) t1  t2 (D) It will go very far in the space

5. The surface tension of soap solution is 0.03 N/m. 10. Two water pipes P and Q having diameters 2×10–2
The work done in blowing to form a soap bubble of m and 4 × 10–2 m, respectively are joined in series
surface area 40 cm2 is :- with the main supply line of water. The velocity of
water flowing in pipe P is :
(A) 1.2 × 10–4 J (B) 2.4 × 10–4 J
(A) 4 times that of Q (B) 2 times that of Q
(C) 12 × 10–4 J (D) 24 × 10–4 J
(C) ½ times that of Q (D) ¼ times that of Q
11. If the acceleration due to gravity at earth is ‘g’ and 18. A thread is tied slightly loose to a wire frame as in
mass of earth is 80 times that of moon and radius of figure and the frame is dipped into a soap solution
earth is 4 times that of moon, the value of and taken out. The frame is completely covered
acceleration due to gravity at the surface of moon with the film. When the portion A is punctured with
will be :- a pin, the thread
(A) g (B) g/20
(C) g/5 (D) 320g

12. The ratio of the lengths of two wires A and B of

same material is 1 : 2 and the ratio of their diameter
is 2 : 1. They are stretched by the same force, then
the ratio of increase in length will be
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 4
(C) 1 : 8 (D) 8 : 1 (A) becomes concave towards A

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(B) becomes convex towards A

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(C) either (a) or (b) depending on the size of A
13. A rectangular tank is placed on a horizontal ground
with respect to B

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and is filled with water to a height H above the base.
(D) remains in the initial position
A small hole is made on one vertical side at a depth

D below the level of the water in the tank. The
19.
distance x from the bottom of the tank at which the
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In a capillary tube experiment, a vertical 30 cm long
capillary tube is dipped in water. The water rises up

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water jet from the tank will hit the ground is :
to a height of 10cm due to capillary action. If this
(A) 2 D  H – D  (B) 2 DH

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experiment is conducted in a freely falling elevator,
1 the length of the water column becomes
(C) 2 D  H  D  (D) DH (A) 10 cm (B) 20 cm
2 h_
(C) 30 cm (D) zero
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14. If the distance between two masses is doubled, the 20. The gravitational potential at the centre of a square
gravitational attraction between them of side a and four equal masses (m each) placed at
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(A) Is doubled the comers of a square is :

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(B) Becomes four times Gm

(C) Is reduced to half (A) 0 (B) 4 2
a
(D) Is reduced to a quarter Gm Gm 2
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(C) –4 2 (D) –4 2
a a
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15. When the temperature increases, the viscosity of

(A) gases decreases and liquid increases
21. If mass of earth is M, radius is R and gravitational
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(B) gases increases and liquid decreases

constant is G, then work done to take 1 kg mass
(C) gases and liquids increases
from earth surface to infinity will be
e/

(D) gases and liquids decreases

GM GM
(A) (B)
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16. The depth d at which the value of acceleration due 2R R

1
to gravity becomes times the value at the surface,
//t

n 2GM GM
(C) (D)
is [R = radius of the earth] R 2R
s:

R  n –1
tp

(A) (B) R   22. The height of mercury barometer is h when the

n  n 
atmospheric pressure is 105 Pa. The pressure at x in
ht

R  n  the shown diagram is

(C) (D) R  
n2  n 1

17. If a man at the equator would weight (3/5)th of his

weight at the pole, then the angular speed of the
earth would be
2g g
(A) (B)
5R R
R 2R (A) 105 Pa (B) 0.8 × 105 Pa
(C) (D)
g 5g (C) 0.2 × 105 Pa (D) 120 × 105 Pa
23. If the gravitational acceleration at surface of Earth 30. A square of 0.1 m side moves parallel to a second
is g, then increase in potential energy in lifting an plate with relative velocity of 0.1 m/s, both plates
object of mass m to a height equal to half of radius being immersed in water. If the viscous force is
of earth from surface will be:- 0.002 N and the coefficient of viscosity is 0.01
mgR 2mgR poise, distance between the plates in metre is:-
(A) (B) (A) 0.1 (B) 0.5
2 3
mgR mgR (C) 0.005 (D) 0.0005
(C) (D)
4 3
31. The Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.5. If a force is
applied to a wire of this material, there is decrease
24. Equal masses of water and a liquid of relative
in the cross-sectional area by 6%. The percentage
density 2 are mixed together, then the mixture has
increase in the length is
a density of
(A) 11% (B) 12%
(A) 2/3 (B) 4/3
(C) 3% (D) 6%
(C) 3/2 (D) 3

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32. The bulk modulus of water if its volume changes
25. Two satellites A and B go round a planet P in from 100 L to 99.5 L under a pressure of 100 atm

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circular orbits having radii 4R and R respectively. is: (Take one atm = 105 Nm–2)
If the speed of the satellite A is 3V, the speed of the (A) 2 ×109 Nm–2 (B) 2 × 1010 Nm–2

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satellite B will be. 8
(C) 2 × 10 Nm –2
(D) 2 × 107 Nm–2
(A) 12 V (B) 6 V

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4 3 33. A force F is needed to break a copper wire having
(C) V (D) V
3 2 radius R. The force needed to break a copper wire

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of radius 2R will be
26. The escape velocity for the earth is v e . The escape (A) F/2 (B) 2F
velocity for a planet whose radius is four times and
density is nine times that of the earth, is
h_
(C) 4F (D) F/4
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(A) 36 ve (B) 12 ve 34. If pressure at half the depth of a lake is equal to 2/3
(C) 6 ve (D) 20 ve pressure at the bottom of the lake then what is the
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depth of the lake (Assume atmospheric pressure to

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27. A missile is launched with a velocity less than the be 105Pa and g = 10 m/s2)
escape velocity. The sum of its kinetic and potential (A) 10 m (B) 20 m
energy is (C) 60 m (D) 30 m
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(A) Positive
(B) Negative 35. In a hydraulic jack as shown, mass of the car W =
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(C) zero 800 kg, A1 = 10 cm2, A2 = 10 m2. The minimum

(D) May be positive or negative depending upon force F required to lift the car is (g = 10 m/s2)
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its initial velocity

e/

28. A solid sphere falls with a terminal velocity ‘v’ in

CO2 gas. If it is allowed to fall in vacuum:-
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(A) terminal velocity of sphere = v

(B) terminal velocity of sphere > v
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(C) terminal velocity of sphere < v

(D) sphere never attains terminal velocity
s:

(A) 1 N (B) 0.8 N

(C) 8 N (D) 16 N
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29. Two different types of rubber are found to have the

stress-strain curve as shown : 36. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius
ht

I. To absorb vibrations one would prefer rubber A R is T, the period of another satellite in a circular
II. For manufacturing car tyre one would prefer B orbit of radius 4R is
(A) 4T (B) T/4
(C) 8T (D) T/8

37. According to Archimedes' principle the loss of

weight is equal to (V is the volume displaced by the
body,  is the density of liquid in which body is
immersed)
(A) I, II are true
(B) I is true, II is false (A) V g (B) 2Vg
(C) I is false, II is true Vg Vg
(C) (D)
(D) I, II are false 2 4
38. Water from a tap emerges vertically downwards 42.
with an initial speed of 1.0 m/s. The cross-sectional
area of tap is 10–4 m2. Assume that the pressure is
constant throughout the stream of water and that the
flow is steady, the cross-sectional area of stream
0.15 m below the tap is: (take g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 5.0 × 10–4 m2 (B) 1.0 × 10–4 m2
–5
(C) 5.0 × 10 m 2
(D) 2.0 × 10–5 m2
39. A fluid is in streamline flow across a horizontal
pipe of variable area of cross section. For this which
of the following statements is correct? 43.
(A) The velocity is maximum at the narrowest part
of the pipe and pressure is maximum at the
Two soap bubbles have different radii but their
surface tension is the same. Mark the correct
statement
(A) Internal pressure of the smaller bubble is
higher than the internal pressure of the larger
bubble
(B) Pressure of the larger bubble is higher than the
smaller bubble
(C) Both bubbles have the same internal pressure
(D) None of the above
A liquid does not wet the sides of a solid, if the
angle of contact is
(A) Zero

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widest part of the pipe. (B) Obtuse (More than 90°)

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(B) Velocity and pressure both are maximum at (C) Acute (Less than 90°)
the narrowest part of the pipe. (D) 90°

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(C) Velocity and pressure both are maximum at
the widest part of the pipe. 44. Two capillaries of same material but of different

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(D) The velocity is minimum at the narrowest part radii are dipped in a liquid. In one of the capillary
of the pipe and the pressure is minimum at the the liquid rises to a height of 22 cm and in other to

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widest part of the pipe. 66 cm. The ratio of their radii is:-
(A) 9 : 1 (B) 3 : 1

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40. According to stokes law, the relation between (C) 1 : 9 (D) 1 : 3
terminal velocity (vt) and viscosity of the medium
(n) is
(A) vt = n (B) vt  n
45. h_
A steel of face area 1 cm2 and thickness 4 cm is
fixed rigidly at the lower surface. A tangential force
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1 F = 10 kN is applied on the upper surface as shown
(C) v t  (D) vt is independent of n. in the figure. The lateral displacement x of upper
al

n
surface w.r.t. the lower surface is (Modulus of
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41. A thin liquid film formed between a U-shaped wire rigidity for steel is 8 × 1011 N/m2)
and a light slider supports a weight of 1.5 × 10–2N
(see figure). The length of the slider is 30 cm and
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its weight negligible. The surface tension of the

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liquid film is:

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(A) 5 × 10–5 m (B) 5 × 10–6 m

(C) 2.5 × 10֪–3 m (D) 2.5 × 10–4 m
e/
.m
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(A) 0.0125 Nm–1 (B) 0.1 Nm–1

(C) 0.05 Nm–1 (D) 0.025 Nm–1
s:
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 CHEMISTRY

46. Out of the following which is not the set of 54. Na(s)  Na(g), the heat of reaction is called as
intensive properties? (A) Heat of vaporisation
(A) Boiling point, pH, molarity (B) Heat of atomisation
(B) Volume, area, length (C) Heat of sublimation
(C) Freezing point, boiling point, molar volume (D) Both (B) and (C)
(D) Molarity, molality, density
55. The following reactions are given:
47. In an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, the work CH 4( g )  2O2( g ) 
 CO2( g )  2 H 2O( g )

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done is equal to- H = –x ….(i)

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(A) Heat released out of the system
C( s )  O2( g ) 
 CO2( g ) H = –y ….(ii)

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(B) Heat absorbed by the system
(C) Zero 1
 H 2O( g ) H = –z
H 2( s )  O2( g )  ….(iii)

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(D) None of them 2
Calculate the heat of formation of CH4?
48. Which of the following is correct option for free (A) x + y + z (B) y + 2z – x

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expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic (C) x – y – 2z (D) None of the above

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condition?
56. From the following bond energies:
(A) q = 0, T < 0, W  0
H – H bond energy = 420 KJ mol–1
(B) q = 0, T  0, W = 0 h_
C  C bond energy = 601 KJ mol–1
(C) q  0, T = 0, W = 0 C – C bond energy = 340 KJ mol–1
(D) q = 0, T = 0, W = 0
la
C – H bond energy = 425 KJ mol–1
Enthalpy change for the reaction:
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49. Which of the following reaction is expected never C2H2 + 2H2  C2H6
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to be spontaneous ? (A) –599 KJ mol–1 (B) –580 KJ mol–1

(A) 2O3(g)  3O2(g) H = –ve, S = +ve (C) –625 KJ mol –1
(D) –325 KJ mol–1
(B) Mg(s) + H2(g)  MgH2 H = –ve, S = –ve
ic

57. 1 mole of H2SO4 is mixed with 2 moles of NaOH.

(C) Br2(l)  Br2(g) H = +ve, S = +ve The heat evolved will be
(D) 2Ag(l) + 3N2(g)  2AgN3 H = +ve, S = –ve
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(A) 57.3 kJ (B) 2 × 57.3 kJ

57.3
(D) Can’t be predicted
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50. What is the change in internal energy when a gas (C) kJ

2
contracts from 377 ml to 177 ml under a constant
pressure of 1520 torr. While at the same time being What will be the melting point of benzene if Hfusion
e/

58.
cooled by removing 124 J heat ? = 9.95 kJ/mol and Sfusion = 35.7 J/K mol ?
.m

(A) 40.52 J (B) –83.48 J (A) 278.7ºC (B) 278.7 K

(C) –248 J (D) None of these (C) 300 K (D) 298 K
//t

51. For the reaction FeCO3(s) 

 FeO(s) + CO2(g); 59. Based on the following thermochemical equation:
s:

H2O(g) + C(s)  CO(g) + H2(g);  H = 131 kJ

H = 82.8 kJ at 25ºC, what is U at 25ºC?
CO(g) + 1/2O2(g)  CO2(g);  H = –282 kJ
tp

(A) 82.8 kJ (B) 80.32 kJ

H2(g) + 1/2O2(g)  H2O(g); H = –242 kJ
(C) –2394.77 kJ (D) 85.28 kJ
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C(s) + O2(g)  CO2(g); H = X kJ

The value of X will be
52. Which of the following will have zero standard
(A) –393 kJ (B) –655 kJ
molar enthalpy of formation?
(C) +393 kJ (D) +655 kJ
(A) P4(s) (B) P(g)
(C) P4(g) (D) Na(g) 60. Work in reversible adiabatic process is:
(A) W = nCv (T2 – T1)
53. The standard enthalpy of formation of NH3(g) is – (B) W 
n
(T2  T1 )
91.8 kJ mol–1. The amount of heat required to  1
decompose 34 g of NH3(g) into its component V2
elements N2, H2 will be (C) W = –2.303 nRT log10
V1
(A) 183.6 kJ (B) 91.8 kJ P1
(C) 45.9 kJ (D) 137.7 kJ (D) W = –2.303 nR log10
P2
61. The ratio of total kinetic energy of 1.87 gm of H2 71. How much should the pressure be increased in
and 5.53 gm O2 at 300 K is order to decrease the volume of a gas by 5% at a
(A) 5.4 : 1 (B) 1 : 5.4 constant temperature?
(C) 2.7 : 1 (D) 1 : 2.7 (A) 5% (B) 5.26%
(C) 10% (D) 4.26%
62. The percentage increase in temperature of gas when
it is heated at constant pressure to increase the 72. I, II, III are three isotherms respectively at T 1, T2
volume by 30% is and T3. Temperature will be in order
(A) 20% (B) 30%
(C) 23.08% (D) 40.15%

63. For the graph,

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(A) T1 = T2 = T3 (B) T1 < T2 < T3

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(C) T1 > T2 > T3 (D) T1 > T2 = T3

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73. Which mixture of gases at room temperature does
not obey Dalton’s law of partial pressure?

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(A) P1 < P2 < P3 (B) P1 = P2 = P3
(C) P1 > P2 > P3 (D) P1 < P2 > P3 (A) NO2 and O2 (B) NH3 and HCl
(C) CO and CO2 (D) SO2 and SO3

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64. The ratio of density of CO2 and N2O gases at same

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conditions is 74. The partial pressure of hydrogen in a flask
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 3 containing 2g H2 and 32g SO2 is
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 3 : 2 (A) 1/16th of total pressure
65. van der Waals constant ‘a’ is least for
h_
(B) 1/9th of total pressure
(C) 2/3rd of total pressure
la
(A) H2(g) (B) CO2(g)
(C) CO(g) (D) NH3(g) (D) 1/8th of total pressure
al
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66. Charle’s law is expressed as 75. The two bulbs of volume 5 litre and 10 litre
 dV  containing an ideal gas at 9 atm and 6 atm
(A)   C (B) V  T ( K ) respectively are connected. What is the final
 dT  P
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pressure in the two bulbs if the temperature remains

 dV  constant?
  C
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(C)  (D) Both (A) and (B)

 dT  P (A) 15 atm (B) 7 atm
(C) 12 atm (D) 21 atm
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67. Hydrogen gas diffuses 3 3 times to that of a

76. Which of the following relation is correct for an
e/

hydrocarbon (CnH2n–2), under identical conditions

ideal gas?
of temperature and pressure, n is
.m

V P MV P
(A) 2 (B) 3 (A)  (B) 
(C) 4 (D) 5 n RT m RT
//t

d P
68. Among the following, the most viscous liquid is (C)  (D) All of these
M RT
s:

(A) Ethanol (B) Glycerol

(C) Acetic acid (D) Ethylene glycol
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77. A bottle of dry ammonia and a bottle of dry

hydrogen chloride connected through a long tube
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69. Root mean square speed of a gas is

are opened simultaneously at bottom ends, the
3RT 3RT white ammonium chloride ring first formed will be
(A) (B)
M M (A) At the centre of the tube
2RT 8RT (B) Near the hydrogen chloride bottle
(C) (D) (C) Near the ammonia bottle
M M
(D) Throughout the length of the tube
70. What percentage of the gas will be escaped out if
open vessel is heated from 300 K to 500 K? 78. van der Waal’s constant ‘a’ has the dimensions of
(A) 20% (B) 40%
(C) 50% (D) 70% (A) mol L–1 (B) atm L2 mol–2
(C) litre mol–1 (D) atm L mol–2
79. Which one is correct relation for 1 mole of real 85. In a certain chemical reaction H = 150 kJ and S
gases? = 10 JK–1 at 300 K. The value of G would be:
 a  (A) –2850 J (B) Zero
(A)  P  2  (V  b)  RT (C) +2850 J (D) 147 kJ
 V 
RT a
(B) P   2 86. For the given reaction: CO2(g) + H2(g) 

(V  b) V
CO(g) + H2O(g); H = 40 kJ. The H is
 a   R T 
(C)  P  2     specifically called
 V   V b  (A) Heat of formation of CO
(D) Both (A) and (B) (B) Heat of combustion
(C) Heat of reaction
80. For a real gas, Z shows (D) Heat of hydrogenation of C = O bond
(A) Z < 1, gas is less compressible
(B) Z > 1, gas is more compressible 87. Which of the following equation represents the

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(C) Z = , for an ideal gas standard heat of formation?

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(D) PV  nRT, for real gas (A) C(diamond) + 2H2(g)   CH4(g)

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(B) C(graphite) + 2H2(g) 
 CH4(g)
81. In an adiabatic process which of the following is

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true: (C) C(diamond) + 4H(g) 
 CH4(g)
(A) q = +w (B) –U = –w (D) C(graphite) + 4H(g) 
 CH4(g)

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(C) PV = 0 (D) q = U

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88. 1 mole of methanol, when burnt in oxygen, gives
82. In an isochoric process, the increase in internal
out –723 kJ mol–1 heat. If 1 mole of oxygen is used
energy is:
what will be the amount of heat evolved?
(A) Equal to the heat absorbed
(B) Equal to the heat evolved
h_
(A) 723 kJ (B) 964 kJ
(C) 482 kJ (D) 241 kJ
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(C) Equal to the work done
(D) Equal to zero
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89. Combustion of methane:

(A) is an exothermic reaction
For the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g)   2NH3(g)
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83. (B) is an endothermic reaction

which of the following is valid: (C) requires a catalyst
(A) H = U (B) H < U (D) gives H2
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(C) H > U (D) None of these

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90. Enthalpy of neutralisation of acetic acid with KOH

84. In any natural process, occurring in the universe: will be numerically:
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(A) Entropy is conserved (A) = 57.2 kJ (B) > 57.2 kJ

(B) Entropy increases (C) < 57.2 kJ (D) unpredictable
(C) Entropy decreases
e/

(D) Entropy remains unchanged

.m

BIOLOGY
//t

91. As compared to slime moulds, Euglenoids show 94. In penicillium, sexual reproduction results in the
s:

(1) Chloroplasts formation of

(2) Photosynthetic nutrition (A) Zygospore (B) Oospore
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(3) Proteinaceous pellicle (C) Basidiospore (D) Ascospore

(4) Contractile vacuole
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(A) 1 & 2 (B) 2 & 3 95. In Streptococcus, the respiratory enzymes are
(C) 1, 2 & 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 & 4 situated in the
92 . First zygotic organisms of R. H Whittaker (A) Cytoplasm (B) Mesosome
classification belong to (C) Ribosomes (D) Mitochondria
(A) Fungi (B) Algae
(C) Monera (D) Protista 96. The photosynthetic protists are
93. Choose the incorrect match (A) Diatoms, euglenoids, and slime molds
(A) Basidiomycetes - Puffball (B) Amoeba, dinoflagellates, and diatoms
(B) Puccinia - Rust Fungi (C) Euglenoids, diatoms, and dinoflagellates
(C) Claviceps - Conidia present (D) Ciliates, zooflagellates, and dinoflagellates
(D) Alternaria - Endogenously produced Asexual
spore
97. If hyphae are continuous tube filled with 110. Ribosomes of Mycoplasma are of ------type
multinucleated cytoplasm it is known as (A) 50 S (B) 60 S
(A) Septate hyphae (B) Coenocytic hyphae (C) 70 S (D) 80 S
(C) Mycelium (D) None of these
111. Among - Diatom, Dinoflagellates, Albugo,
98. Dikaryon and dikaryophase is in the case of Mycoplasma , Agaricus , TMV and Morels. How
(A) Ascomycetes (B) Basidiomycetes many are Unicellular:
(C) Phycomycetes (D) Both (A) and (B) (A) Three (B) Four
(C) Five (D) Six
99. Ascomycetes are mostly 112. Vast majority of prokaryotes are
(A) Acellular (B) Unicellular (A) Symbiotic (B) Autotrophic
(C) Multicellular (D) All of these (C) Heterotrophic (D) Saprophytic
100. The commonly known form of basidiomycetes are 113 Which character indicates that Cyanobacteria are

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(A) Mushrooms (B) Bracket fungi similar to higher green plants:-

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(C) Puffballs (D) All of these (A) Type of cell wall
(B) Nitrogen fixation ability

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101. Karyogamy and meiosis occurs in basidium (C) Presence of chlorophyll 'a'
produces ____ basidiospores.

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(D) Presence of gelatinous sheath
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4 114 Select correct matched pair / pairs:-

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(A) Claviceps – Ascomycetes
(B) Morels – Ascomycetes

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102. Which of the following fungi only reproduce by
Endogenously produce asexual spores? (C) Agaricus – Basidiomycetes
(A) Alternaria (B) Colletotrichum (D) All the above
(C) Trichoderma (D) Rhizopus h_
115. Pick out the correct statement from the following:
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103. Which of the following releases toxins that may (A) The Meristimatic cells undergo differentiation
during plant tissue culture
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even kill other marine animals like fishes?

(A) Gonyaulax (B) Paramecium (B) The tissues arising out of same meristem have
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(C) Euglenoids (D) Sporozoans always same structures at maturity

(C) The products of meristematic cells retain the
104. When glycocalyx in bacteria is thick and tough it is power of cell division by redifferentiation
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called ______ . (D) Epidermis is a product of dedifferentiation

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(A) Slime layer (B) Capsule

(C) Cell wall (D) Mesosome 116. Wound healing in the matured part of the secondary
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stem occurs due to

(A) Differentiation
105. Which enzyme specifically occurs in Heterocyst of
(B) De-differentiation
blue green Algae :–
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(C) Re – differentiation
(A) Cytochrome oxidase
(D) None of the above
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(B) Nitrogenase
(C) Zymase 117. Plasticity refers to
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(D) Peptidyl transferase (A) Ability of the plants to undergo different

pathways of metabolism suitable to the
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106. Bacterial flagella are made of- environments

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(A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid (B) Ability to exhibit different phases of life to
(C) Protein (D) Amide produce different types of structures
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(C) Ability of plants to grow throughout their life

107. Which of the following are not considered in five (D) (A) & (B)
kingdom system of classification ?
(A) Lichen (B) Virus 118. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
(C) Viroid (D) All the above matched?
(A) Adenine derivative – Kinetin
108 Viroid was discovered ………… in …………..year
(B) Carotenoid derivative – ABA
(A) Haeckel (B) Pasteur ,1975 (C) Terpenes – IAA
(C) T.O. Diener,1971 (D) T.O. Diener,1981 (D) Indole compounds – IBA
109 Bacteriophages are generally:- 119. Triple Response Assay is meant for:
(A) ss DNA virus (B) ds DNA virus (A) Auxins (B) Cytokinins
(C) ss RNA virus (D) ds RNA virus (C) Gibberellins (D) C2H4
120. Sprouting of potato is promoted by: 131. Which is incorrect about photoperiodism-
(A) Auxins (B) Cytokinins (A) The critical duration is different for different
(C) Ethylene (D) ABA plants.
(B) There are many plants, however, where there is
121 Which of the following discovered in mid-1960s no such correlation between exposure to light
(A) GA (B) ABA duration and induction of flowering response
(C) Zeatin (D) IAA (C) Some plants require a periodic exposure to light
to induce flowering.
(D) Some non -hormonal substances migrates from
122. Winter cereals are usually planted in:
leaves to shoot apices for inducing flowering
(A) Spring (B) Winter only when the plants are exposed to the necessary
(C) Autumn (D) Summer inductive photoperiod

123. Which PGR removes the inhibition effect of para 132. One of the synthetic auxin is
ascorbic acid on seed dormancy? (A) NAA (B) IAA

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(A) Ethylene (B) GA (C) GA3 (D) IBA

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(C) 2, 4- D (D) Cytokinins

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133. If a plant breeder or grower is interested in obtaining
124. Gibberellins can promote barley seed germination a good crop of tea leaves from a single plant, he or

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because of their influence on she should
(A) rate of cell division (A) Cut off the tip of the plant and then apply auxins

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(B) production of hydrolysing enzymes to the cut end
(C) synthesis of abscisic acid (B) Feed auxin to the plant through soil

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(D) absorption of water through hard seed coat. (C) Supply auxin from the tip of the plant as well as
through roots
125. Environment heterophylly is seen in
(A) cotton (B) coriander
h_
(D) Remove the apical bud of the main shoot and the
branches
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(C) larkspur (D) buttercup
134 Which of the following is a hypothetical hormone?
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126. Development in plants is influenced by both intrinsic (A) Gibberellin (B) Auxin
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and extrinsic factors. Which of the following is (C) Cytokinin (D) Florigen
included under intrinsic factors?
(A) Growth regulators (B) Oxygen 135. Long day plants flower specially when
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(A) Light period is lesser than the critical length

(C) Water (D) All of these
(B) Light period is greater than the critical period
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(C) Dark period is less than the critical light length

127. Development includes (plants) (D) Dark period is more than the critical length
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I. Differentiation
II. Redifferentiation 136. A fall in GFR can activate the JG cells to release
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III. Dedifferentiation _______, which can stimulate the glomerular blood

Select the right combination from the given option flow and thereby the GFR back to normal
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(A) I and II (B) II and III (A) Renin (B) Angiotensin-II

(C) III and I (D) I, II and III (C) Rennin (D) Erythropoietin
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128. The ability of plants to follow different pathway or 137. Presence of glucose (glycosuria) and ketone bodies
s:

phases of life to form different structures in response (ketonuria) in urine are indicative of_____
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to environment is called (A) Renal failure (B) Diabetes mellitus

(A) plasticity (B) elasticity (C) Uremia (D) Renal stone
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(C) growth (D) development

138. Which of the following is a powerful
129. Geometric Growth plotted against time gives a vasoconstrictor that increases the glomerular blood
pressure and thereby the GFR?
(A) parabolic curve (B) sigmoid curve
(A) Renin (B) Angiotensin-II
(C) upright line (D) horizontal line
(C) Aldosterone (D) ANF
130. Fruits can be left on the tree longer, so as to increase 139. Protonephridia or flame cells are the excretory
the market period. This is due to the function of structures present in
(A) delay senescence by auxin (A) Prawns, cockroaches
(B) delay senescence by CH2 – CH2 (B) Earthworm, Ascaris
(C) delay senescence by cytokinin (C) Rotifers, earthworm
(D) delay senescence by GA (D) Planaria, Amphioxus
140. Antennal glands help in removal of nitrogenous
wastes in 148. Liver secretes bile containing substances like
(A) Spider (B) Prawn bilirubin, biliverdin, cholesterol, degraded steroid
(C) Silverfish (D) Scropion hormones, vitamins and drugs. Most of these
substances ultimately pass out along with
141. The renal cortex extends between the medullary (A) Urine
pyramids as (B) Sweating
(A) Renal pelvis (C) Digestive wastes
(B) Renal corpuscle (D) Secretion of sebum
(C) Columns of Bertini
(D) Calyx 149. Renal calculi refers to the condition in which
(A) tumour is present in renal pelvis
142. Nearly all of the essential nutrients and 70-80 (B) stone is formed in kidney
percent of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed in (C) infection occurs in the pelvis region
which segment of nephron?

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(D) urea accumulates in the blood
(A) PCT

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(B) Ascending loop of Henle
150. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

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(C) Descending loop of Henle
(A) The medullary zone of kidney is divided into a
(D) DCT

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few conical masses called medullary pyramids
projecting into the calyces.
143. Which hormone does not lead to reabsorption of Na+
(B) Inside the kidney the cortical region extends in

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and water from the distal parts of the renal tubule?
(A) ANF (B) ADH between the medullary pyramids as renal

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(C) Aldosterone (D) Renin pelvis.
(C) Glomerulus along with Bowman's capsule is
called the renal corpuscle.
144. Select the correction option:
a. Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed by
h_
(D) Renal corpuscle, proximal convoluted tubule
(PCT) and distal convoluted tubule (DCT) of
the afferent arteriole which is a fine branch of
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renal vein. the nephron are situated in the cortical region
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b. Glomerulus along with Bowman's capsule of the kidney.

forms renal corpuscles.
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c. Vasa recta is a fine branch of efferent arteriole 151. The outline of principal events of urination is given
which runs parallel to the Henle's loop. below in random manner.
d. In human kidney, cortical nephrons and (i) Stretch receptors on the wall of urinary bladder
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juxtamedullary nephrons are in equal send signals to the CNS.

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proportion. (ii) The bladder fills with urine and becomes

(A) a and b are correct distended.
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(B) b and c are correct (iii) Micturition

(C) a, b and d are correct (iv) CNS passes on motor messages to initiate the
contraction of smooth muscles of bladder and
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(D) a and d are correct

simultaneous relaxation of urethral sphincter.
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145. Read the following statements: The correct sequence of the events is:
Statement A: Ultrafiltration of blood occurs in (A) (i)  (ii)  (iii)  (iv)
(B) (iv)  (iii)  (ii)  (i)
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renal corpuscles.
Statement B: During ultrafiltration, almost all the (C) (ii)  (i)  (iv)  (iii)
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constituents of blood plasma except the proteins (D) (iii)  (ii)  (i)  (iv)
pass into the lumen of Bowman's capsule.
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(A) Statement A is incorrect and B is correct

152. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
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(B) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect

(A) Mammals have the ability to produce
(C) Both statements A and B are correct
concentrated urine.
(D) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(B) Counter current is due to the flow of filtrate in
two limbs of Henle's loop in opposite direction.
146. Which of the following plays a major role in
(C) Henle's loop and vasa recta play a significant
maintaining osmolarity gradient in medulla of
kidney? role in concentrating the urine.
(A) NaCl and KCl (B) Urea and HCl (D) Flow of filtrate through vasa recta also follow
(C) HCl and KCl (D) NaCl and Urea the counter current pattern.

147. Which of the following is the most toxic excretory 153. Collecting ducts converge and open into ______
product? through medullary pyramids in the calyces
(A) CO2 (B) Ammonia (A) renal pelvis (B) renal cortex
(C) Urea (D) Amino acids (C) vasa recta (D) convoluted tubules
154. Read the following statements: 162. Which of the following disorders is characterised by
(1) In tubular reabsorption, substances like rapid spasm in muscles due to lack of Ca2+ in body
glucose, amino acid, Na+, nitrogenous wastes fluids?
etc. are reabsorbed by active transport, while (A) Tetany
reabsorption of water occur by passive (B) Muscle atrophy
transport (C) Muscular dystrophy
(2) 50 – 60% of electrolytes and water are (D) Myasthenia gravis
absorbed by PCT
(3) Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and selective 163. Among the following proteins:
secretion of H+ and K+ occurs in DCT Tropomyosin, Troponin, F-actin, Meromyosin
(4) Filtrate gets concentrated as it moves upwards
How many are present in I-band and H-zone
in ascending limb of loop of Henle
respectively?
Find the true or false statement:
(A) 3, 1 (B) 3, 2

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1 2 3 4
(C) 4, 1 (d) 1, 3

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(A) T T F F
(B) F T F F 164. The type of joint between the human skull bones is

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(C) F F T F called
(D) T F T F (A) Cartilaginous joint

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(B) Hinge joint
155. Epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsules are (C) Fibrous joint

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(A) JG cells (B) Macula densa (D) Synovial joint
(C) Podocytes (D) Renal corpusele

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165. Microfilaments are involved in
156. In ammonotelic organisms, NH3 is generally (A) Amoeboid movement
excreted by
(A) body surface (B) gill surface
h_
(B) Ciliary movement
(C) Muscular movement
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(C) kidney (D) both (A) and (B) (D) Both (A) and (B)
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157. Excretion is a continuous process but urine is not 166. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
passed out continuously because of (A) Smooth muscles are found in urinary bladder,
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(A) Urinary bladder (B) Cloaca alimentary canal and genital tract
(C) Rectum (D) Ureter (B) A striated muscle is a syncytium, i.e., a
multinucleate structure
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158. Which statement is incorrect? (C) The cytoplasm of striated muscle is called
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(A) Adult human excretes 1 – 1.5L urine per day endoplasm

(B) Urine is slightly acidic pH 6.0 (D) The plasma membrane and ER of striated
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(C) Urine does not have characteristic odour muscles are called sarcolemma and
(D) 25 – 30 gm of urea is excreted out per day sarcoplasmic reticulum respectively
e/

159. The thick filaments in the ‘A’ band are also held 167. 11th and 12th pair of ribs do not reach the sternum are
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together in the middle of this band by a thin fibrous called

membrane called: (A) pseudo ribs (B) false ribs
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(A) Z-line (B) M-line (C) floating ribs (D) visceral ribs
(C) H-line (D) Myosin
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168. The joint of humerus with pectoral girdle is

(A) hinge joint (B) non-movable joint
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160. Which of the following events leads to the

(C) pivot joint (D) ball and socket joint
breakdown cross-bridges during muscle
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contraction?
169. The flat bone of axial skeleton lying on the ventral
(A) ATP hydrolysis
midline of thorax is
(B) Binding of ATP to troponin
(A) Ribs (B) Sternum
(C) Binding of myosin head to new ATP
(C) Clavicle (D) Hyoid
(D) Binding of ATP to actin
170. Which one of the following is the correct description
161. Red muscle fibres can be distinguished from white of the given part of human skeleton?
muscle fibres as the former have (A) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called
(A) Less amount of mitochondria vertebrosternal ribs
(B) Less myoglobin (B) First vertebra is atlas which articulates with the
(C) Less sarcoplasmic reticulum occipital condyles
(D) Anaerobic respiration as main mode to ATP (C) Each pelvic girdle consists of one clavicle and
generation one scapula
 (D) The number of sacral vertebrae is five in adults 176. Scapula is situated between
171. Among the following, limited movement is (A) 2nd and 7th ribs (B) 3rd and 7th ribs
permitted by joint present at/between st th
(C) 1 and 6 ribs (D) 4th and 9th ribs
(A) Adjacent vertebrae
(B) Junction of carpal and metacarpal of thumb 177. A cup shaped bone called____cover the knee
(C) Atlanto-occipital joint ventrally:
(D) Femur and acetabulum (A) Clavicle (B) Ulna
(C) Patella (D) Tibia
172. Decreased level of estrogen in the females after
menopause is implicated as a common causative 178. According to sliding filament theory, there is
factor of
(A) Sliding of thick filaments over the thin
(A) Osteoarthritis filaments
(B) Osteoporosis (B) Sliding of thin filaments over the thick

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(C) Rheumatoid arthritis filaments

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(D) Muscular dystrophy (C) Sliding of both filaments

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(D) None of these
173. A single, U-shaped bone present at the base of the

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buccal cavity is 179. Myasthenia gravis characterised by
(A) Hyoid (B) Mandible (A) Autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular

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(C) Sphenoid (D) Occipital junction

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(B) Fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal
174. Ions essential for muscle contraction are stored in muscle
(A) Sarcoplasm (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
h_
(D) Genetic disorder
(C) Myofibril
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(D) Sarcolemma 180. The coxal bone of the pelvic girdle is formed by the
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fusion of
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175. How much percentage of body weight of a human (A) ilium, ischium and pubis
adult is contributed by muscles? (B) scapula and clavicle
(A) 40 – 50% (B) 30 – 40% (C) ilium and scapula
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(C) 50 – 60% (D) 20 – 30% (D) ilium, scapula and ischium

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