TEST YOURSELF 1 PRACTICE 38 FOR GRADE 9TH

A. LISTENING
Section 1: Questions 1-10:
Questions 1-4: Complete the table below: write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Health Centres
Name of centre Doctor’s name Advantage
especially good with (1) ___________
The Harvey Clinic Example: Dr_Green__
The (2) ___________ Health
Dr Fuller offers (3) ___________ appointmenAts
Practice
The Shore Lane Health Centre Dr (4) ___________
Questions 5 - 6: Choose TWO letters, A – E. Which two of the following are offered free of charge at
Shore Lane Health Centre?
A. acupuncture B. employment medicals C. sports injury therapy
D. travel advice E. vaccinations
Questions 7- 10: Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER
for each answer.
Talks for patients at Shore Lane Health Centre
Subject of talk Date/Time Location Notes
25th February at useful for people with asthma or
Giving up smoking Room 4
7pm (7) ______________ problems
st the (8) ______________
Healthy eating 1 March at 5pm anyone welcome
(Shore Lane)
Avoiding injuries
9th March at (9)
during exercise room 6 for all (10) ______________
______________
SECTION 2; Questions 11 – 20
Questions 11 – 16: Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER
for each answer.
THE NATIONAL ARTS CENTRE
Well known for: (11) _______________
Complex consists of: concert rooms
theatres
cinemas
art galleries
public library
restaurants
a (12) _______________
Historical background: 1940 – area destroyed by bombs
1960s – 1970s – Centre was (13) _______________ and built
in (14) _______________ - opened to public
Managed by: the (15) _______________
Open: (16) _______________ days per year
Questions 17 – 20: Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer.
Day Time Event Venue Ticket price
Monday and “The Magic Flute” (17)
7.30 p.m. from £ 8.00
Tuesday (opera by Mozart) _______________
(18)
(19) £
Wednesday 8.00 p.m. _______________ Cinema 2
_______________
(Canadian film)
(20)
Saturday and 11 a.m. to
_______________ Gallery 1 Free
Sunday 10p.m.
(art exhibition)

B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

I. Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your
answer.
1. A few years after you buy it, a house is usually _______ much more than it originally costs you.
A. expensive B. worth C. worthy D. valueless
2. 3/4 means _______

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 A. third quarters B. three quarters C. three fourths D. thirth fourths
3. Vitamin C _______ by the human body, it gets into the blood stream quickly.
A. absorbs easily B. is easily absorbed
C. is being absorbed easily D. absorbed easily
4. Those kids are always _______ troubles.
A. looking up to B. getting into C. finding about D. putting
with
5. Herbs _______ in soups and sauces
A. are used to be B. are often used C. often use D. get used to being
6. Jack always offers _______ my bags when I go shopping, but I always refuse _______.
A. to carry/ to help B. carrying/ helping
C. to carry/ to be helped D. carrying/ to be helped
7. Let’s throw these old clothes away. Let’s _______ these old clothes.
A. get rid of B. take off C. keep away D. tear out
8. Hoa: We need better traffic rules. Ba: Yes, _______ wouldn’t be so many accidents.
A. Then it B. Then they C. Then D. Then there
9. Hoa: I saw you studying in the library last night. Ba: You _______ . I wasn’t there.
A. wouldn’t have B. couldn’t have C. might have D. have
10. Hoa: How is this game played? Ba: Well, the team _______ the highest score wins.
A. gets B. is getting C. got D. that gets
II. There are 5 mistakes in the following passage. Underline the mistakes and Write the correct ones in
the numbered spaces provided. There is an example at the beginning (0).
The main reason of the widespread demand for English is its present-day importance as an international
language. Besides serving the infinite needs of its native speakers, English is a language in that some of the
most important works in science, technology, and other fields are being producing, and not always by native
speakers. It is widely used for such purposes as meteorological and airport communications, international
conferences, and the dissemination of informations over the radio and television network of many nations. It is
a language of wider communication for a number of developing countries, especially former British colonies.
Many of these countries have been multi-lingual population and need a language for internal communication in
such matters as government, commerce, industrial, law and education as good as for international
communication and for access to the scientific and technological developments in the West.
Your answers: example: 0- reason of -> reason for
III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided
below. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Look into the crystal ball to see some problems facing the (0-nature) _____ world which could be (1-disaster)
_____ for the human race. Most people are in agreement that it is time to make some important decisions
about how to deal with these different problems. Natural resources are (2-scarce) _____ than ever before. Food
production is falling and, if there is no improvement by the beginning of the next millennium, the world will be (3-
danger) _____ near to running out of supplies. It is now time to put traditional differences to one side and
concentrate on giving all countries of the world real (4-courage) _____ to work together in an understanding
and friendly way to (5-sure) _____ that they do all they can to find a solution to our planet’s problems.
C. READING
I. This passage has 6 Paragraphs, 1-6. The first paragraph has been given a heading. Read the passage
and choose the correct heading for the remaining 5 paragraphs from the list below. There are more
headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all the headings.
RISING SEA
Paragraph 1. INCREASED TEMPERATURES
The average air temperature at the surface of the earth has risen this century, as has the temperature
of ocean surface waters. Because water expands as it heats, a warmer ocean means higher sea levels. We
cannot say definitely that the temperature rises are due to the greenhouse effect; the heating may be part of a
"natural" variability over a long time-scale that we have not yet recognized our short 100 years of recording.
However, assuming the build up of greenhouse gases is responsible, and that the warming will continue.
Scientists and inhabitants of low-lying coastal areas would like to know the extent of future sea level rises.
Paragraph 2.
Calculating this is not easy. Models used for the purpose have treated the oceans as passive, stationary
and one-dimensional. Scientists have assumed that heat simply diffused into the sea from the atmosphere.
Using basic physical laws, they then predict how much a known volume of water would expand for a given
increase in temperature. But the oceans are not one-dimensional, and recent work by oceanographers, using a
new model which takes into account a number of subtle facets of the sea-including vast and complex ocean
currents-suggests that the rise in sea level may be less than some earlier estimates had predicted.
Paragraph 3
An international forum on climate change, in 1986, produced figures for likely sea-level rises of 20 cm
and 1.4 m, corresponding to atmospheric temperature increases of 1.5 and 4.5C respectively. Some scientists
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estimate that the ocean warming resulting from those temperature increases by the year 2050 would raise the
sea level by between 10 cm and 40 cm. This model only takes into account the temperature effect on the
oceans; it does not consider changes in sea level brought about by the melting of ice sheets and glaciers, and
changes in groundwater storage. When we add on estimates of these, we arrive at figures for total sea-level
rises of 1 5 cm and 70 cm respectively.
Paragraph 4
It's not easy trying to model accurately the enormous complexities of the ever-changing oceans, with
their great volume, massive currents and sensitively to the influence of land masses and the atmosphere. For
example, consider how heat enters the ocean. Does it just "diffuse" from the warmer air vertically into the water,
and heat only the surface layer of the sea? (Warm water is less dense than cold, so it would not spread
downwards). Conventional models of sea-level rise have considered that this is the only method, but
measurements have shown that the rate of heat transfer into the ocean by vertical diffusion is far lower in
practice than the figures that many models have adopted.
Paragraph 5
Much of the early work, for simplicity, ignored the fact that water in the oceans moves in three
dimensions. By movement, of course, scientists don't mean waves, which are too small individually to consider,
but rather movement of vast volumes of water in huge currents. To understand the importance of this, we now
need to consider another process-advection. Imagine smoke rising from a chimney. On a still day it will slowly
spread out in all directions by means of diffusion. With a strong directional wind, however, it will all shift
downwind, this process is advection-the transport of properties (notably heat and salinity in ocean) by the
movement of bodies of air or water, rather than by conduction or diffusion.
Paragraph 6
Massive oceans current called gyres do the moving. These currents have far more capacity to store
heat than does the atmosphere. Indeed, just the top 3 m of the ocean contains more heat than the whole of the
atmosphere. The origin of the gyres lies in the fact that more heat from the Sun reaches the Equator than the
Poles, and naturally heat trends to move from the former to the latter. Warm air rises at the Equator, and draws
more air beneath it in the form of winds (the "Trade Winds") that, together with other air movements, provide the
main force driving the ocean currents.
List of Headings Paragraph 2 ________
A. The gyre principle Paragraph 3 ________
В. The Greenhouse Effect Paragraph 4 ________
C. The advection principle Paragraph 5 ________
D. Estimated figures Paragraph 6 ________
E. The diffusion model
F. Diffusion versus advection
G. Figuring the sea level changes
Decide the following information is T , F or NG ?
6. The surface layer of the oceans is warmed by the atmosphere.
7. Advection of water changes heat and salt levels.
8. A gyre holds less heat than there is in the atmosphere.
9. The process of subduction depends on the water density.
10. The sea level is expected to rise evenly over the Earth's surface
II. Read the passage carefully and choose the best option to complete each numbered blank.
A personal computer (PC) is any computer (1) _______ original sales price, size, and capabilities
make it (2) _______ for individuals, and which is intended to be operated directly by an end user, with no
intervening computer operator.
Today a PC
may be a desktop computer, a laptop computer or a tablet computer. The most (3) _______ operating
systems are Microsoft Windows, Mac OS and Linux, while the most common microprocessors are x86-
compatible CPUs. Software applications for personal computers (4) _______ word processing, spreadsheets,
databases, games, and a myriad of personal productivity and special-purpose software. Modern personal
computers often have (5) _______ or dial-up connections to the Internet, allowing (6) _______ to the World
Wide Web and a wide range of other resources.
A PC may be a home computer, or may be found in an office, often connected to a local area network.
The distinguishing characteristics are that the computer is primarily used, interactively, by (7) _______ person
at a time. This is in contrast to the batch processing or time-sharing models which allowed large expensive
systems (8) _______ used by many people, usually at the same time, or large data processing systems which
required a full-time staff to operate efficiently.
(9) _______ early PC owners usually had to write their own programs to do anything useful with the
machines, today's users have access to a wide range of commercial and non-commercial (10) _______ which
is easily installed.
1. A. which B. where C. that D. whose
2. A. use B. usefully C. useful D. using
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 3. A. common B. commonly C. popularly D. wide
4. A. contain B. includes C. contains D. include
5. A. high B. fast C. high-speed D. big
6. A. access B. connection C. approach D. look for
7. A. one B. two C. three D. four
8. A. being B. is C. are D. to be
9. A. Anyway . While C. Therefore D. So
10. A. hardware B. software C. equipment D. technology
III. Read the passage then choose the best answer from A, B, C or D for each question.
In the folklore of the Navajo people, it was said that frogs and toads fell from the sky when it rained. The
phenomenon that gave rise to this belief involved the spade foot toad, which remains dormant beneath the Sonorant Desert
of Arizona, avoiding the heat and drought for as long as eight or nine months. With the onset of summer thunderstorms,
however, the toads respond to the vibrations of drumming raindrops and emerge, as if fallen from the sky with the rain, to
begin their brief and frantic mating season.
The male spade foot sits in a muddy pool and fills the night with his calls, attempting to attract a female of the same
species. Once a female joins him, she may lay as many as 1,000 eggs in the small pool of life-sustaining rainwater. From
that point it’s a race against the elements for the young, who must hatch and mature with remarkable speed before the pool
evaporates beneath the searing desert sun. As the pool grows smaller and smaller, it becomes thick with tadpoles fighting for
survival in the mud, threatened not only by the loss of their watery nest but also by devouring insects and animals. In as few
as nine days after fertilization of the eggs, those lucky enough to survive develop through each tadpole stage and finally
emerge as fully formed toads. After gorging themselves on insects, the young toads, like their parents, burrow underground,
where they will lie dormant awaiting the next summer’s storms.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Navajo folklore. B. Weather in the Sonorant Desert of Arizona.
C. The habits of the spade foot toad. D. The mating rituals of the male spade foot.
2. According to the passage, the spade foot toad
A. is dormant for as long as nine months. B. reproduces during winter rains.
C. eats leaves and grasses. D. develops very slowly.
3. Which of the following is NOT true of the spade foot?
A. They are active only three to four months a year. B. The female lays her eggs in pools of water.
C. The searing desert sun is their only enemy. D. Many tadpoles die before they reach maturity.
4. The word “elements” could best be replaced by
A. weather. B. time. C. environment. D. thunderstorms.
5. The author is most likely a _________
A. botanist. B. biologist. C. chemist. D. geographer.
D. WRITING
I. For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the
original sentence, using the words in brackets. These words MUST NOT be altered in any way.
1. I lost my keys once before this month. SECOND
=> This is the .............................................................................................................
2. It’s a waste of time denying that you did it when we’ve got proof. POINT
=> There ....................................................................................................................
3. Chocolate can be good for you but you must not eat too much of it. PROVIDED
=> Chocolate ............................................................................................................
4. “Does your brother want to go to the cinema with us?” asked my friend. FELT
=> My friend asked me if ...........................................................................................
5. She has always had a good relationship with the children. GOT
=> She has ................................................................................................................
6. A child cannot sit still for 15 minutes. IMPOSSIBLE
=> It ...........................................................................................................................
7. It is difficult for him to drive in heavy traffic every day. USED
=> He is .....................................................................................................................
8. She helped him and he passed the final exam easily. WOULDN’T
=> If ..........................................................................................................................
II. Rewrite the sentence, using the word given in the brackets as long as it has similar meaning to the
first one. Do not change the given words in any way. You must use no more than 5 words, including the word
given.
1. I did not have time to open all my Christmas presents because I got so many! SUCH
=> I got……………. ……………Christmas presents that I didn’t have time to open them all.
2.When did the boss cancel the meeting? Off
=> Why did the boss…………….……………..the meeting?
3.If I eat tomatoes, I get bad stomach problems. ALLERGIC
=> I………………………..tomatoes; if I eat them, I get bad stomach problems.
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4. I didn’t dare to tell him what I really thought. COURAGE
=> I didn’t have ………………………………..him what I really thought.
5. The heavy fog prevented us from driving to work in time. IMPOSSIBLE
=> It was ……………………………………..to work in time because of the heavy fog.
6. I don’t really know a lot about the work that Greenpeace does FAMILIAR
=> I…………………………………………..the work that Greenpeace does
7. After being in Australia for a year, I still find driving on the left difficult. GET
=> After being in Australia for a year, I still can’t ……………………………………. on the left.
III. Essay writing
1.Topic 1: there is an excessive number of cars on our roads today and this leads to many problems.
Individuals and governments should ensure that public transport plays a more important role in
modern to tackle these problems.
To what extent do you agree with this statement?
2. Topic2: Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? “With the help of technology,
students nowadays can learn more information and learn it more quickly.? Use your specific reasons
and examples to support your answer.
Note: make detailed outline for each given topic.

TEST YOURSELF 2
Questions 1-10: Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR NUMBERS for each
answer.
Basic Details of Project
Example
Involves selecting rooms & 1. …………………………
Pre-phase
• time needed: 3 days
Phase 1:
• staff involved: Jenna, Marco, & 2. …………………………
• time needed: 3. …………………………
Phase 2: • staff involved: 4. ………………………… , with assistance from 5.
…………………………
Questions 6-10: Choose the correct letter A, B, or C
6. The main form of data collection will be
A. questionnaires. B. Internet polling. C. face-to-face interviews.
7. To finish in time, the staff will have to
A. work late. B. come in early. C. take some work home.
8. The final report will contain
A. three appendices. B. material from the company website. C. a supplementary booklet.
9. The final report will be handed in on the
A. 5th. B. 15th. C. 25th.
10. At the end, there will be
A. an office party. B. a restaurant dinner. C. presents for all involved.
LISTENING 2: Questions 11 – 15: Answer questions 11 - 15 below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
OR A NUMBER for each answer.
11. What subject does Professor Cameron teach?
___________________________
12. What time will next week’s seminar be?
___________________________
13. To what problem of Maggie’s does Professor Cameron refer?
___________________________
14. Who has the students’ extended essays from the last semester?
___________________________
15. How many students did badly in last semester’s extended essay?
___________________________
Questions 16 – 20: Complete the sentences below. Write MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for
each answer.
16. The students will have a choice of _______________ titles for this semester’s extended essay
17. Professor Cameron says that he will look at _______________ until the end of April.
18. This semester’s extended essay word limit range is between _______________.
19. The students extended essay for this semester will be based on _______________ at the university’s
facilities
20. Rob will be able to help students at _______________.

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PART B: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
I. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences.
1. Although he was completely ………..…as a furniture maker, he produced the most beautiful chairs.
A. unable B. untrained C. incapable D. uneducated
2. There is no point in telephoning him. He’s certain ………..… by now.
A. to leave B. to have left C. left D. having left
3. ………..…, dolphins have no sense of smell.
A. As known as far B. As far as is known
C. It is known as far D. Known as far as it is
4. When I finish writing this composition, I’m going to………..…and go to bed.
A. make time B. hit the day C. hit the big time D. call it a day
5. It could have been a lot worse ………..…there.
A. when he was not B. whether or not he had been
C. for he had not been D. had he not been
6. ………..… kind of organization throughout the world uses computers to conduct business.
A. Virtually every B. Virtually all C. Nearly most D. Nearly all
7. After a lengthy debate, the spokesman announced the board had ………..…a unanimous conclusion.
A. committed B. solved C. reached D. compromised
8. Not only………..…in the project, but he also wanted to become the leader.
A. did Jack involve B. had Jack been involved
C. was Jack involved D. was involved Jack
9. The factory is closed today. The workers are ………..…strike because their demand ______ increase
………..…pay has not been met.
A. on - for - in B. in - for - in C. for - on - in D. on - in - for
10. ………..… snow that covers ………..… top of ………..…mountain is ………..… beautiful sight.
A. The - the - the - the B. The - the - the - a
C. Ø - the - the - the D. Ø - Ø - the - the
II. There are 05 errors in the following passage. Identify the errors, write the line number and correct
them. Write your answers in the numbered spaces below. Number (00.) is done as an example.

Line Passage
KEEPING OUR TEETH HEALTHY
1 It’s very important to have health teeth. Good teeth help us to chew our food. They
2 also help us to look nicely. How does a tooth go bad? The decay begins in a little crack in
3 the enamel covering of the tooth. This happens after germs and bits of food have collected
4 there. Then the decay slowly spreads inside the tooth. Eventually, poisonous goes into the
5 blood, and we may feel quite ill. How can we keep our teeth healthy? First, we ought to visit
6 our dentist twice a year. He can fill the small holes in our teeth before they destroy the
7 teeth. He can examine our teeth to check that they are growing in the right way.
8 Fortunately, many people wait until they have toothache before they see a dentist.
9 Secondly, we should brush our teeth with a toothbrush and fluoride toothpaste at least
10 twice a day once after breakfast and once before we go to bed. We can also use wood
11 toothpicks to clean between our teeth after a meal. Thirdly, we should eat food that is good
for our teeth and our body: milk, cheese, fish, brown bread, potatoes, red rice, raw
vegetables and fresh fruit. Chocolate, sweets, biscuits and cakes are bad, especially when
we eat
it between meals. They are harmful because they stick to our teeth and cause decay.
III. Give the correct form of the words in capital letters. Write your answers in the blanks.
1. They entered the areas without (PERMIT)_____________________.
2. The giant panda is a(n) (DANGER)________________________ species.
3. What makes the computer a (MIRACLE)______________________ device?
4. Street noise is one of the (ADVANTAGE)_____________________ of living in a big city.
5. He didn't feel happy because he worked (SUCCESS) ____________________________.
PART C. READING
Part 1: Fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word.
a/ SAFE CAMPING
Camping in the country is usually great fun, but sometimes things can go wrong. Accidents can happen,
so it is essential to think about safety both before you go (1) ______________ while you are there. This will
prevent your fun camping trip turning into something less pleasant.
Firstly, you need to plan ahead. Check out the weather forecast a few days in advance and watch out for
any reports of fires in the area you are thinking of going to. Bring an emergency kit in (2)
______________________ you or anyone with you has an accident or illness while you are there.
Choose your camp site carefully, avoiding any places where there is risk of flooding before you put up
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your tent, make
(3) ________________ there are no sharp objects on the ground, or ants' or wasps' nests nearby.
In order to keep insects out of the tent, close it whenever you go in or out. If you need a camp fire for
cooking, be careful not to build it anywhere near your tent, and before you go to bed, remember to put it (4)
_______________ completely, preferably with lots of water.
After meals, pick up any bits of food that may be left on the ground, as these can attract insects - or larger
creatures. It also makes senses, for the same reason, to keep unused food in closed containers away from the
camp. You don't want a hungry bear or another (5) _____________ suddenly appearing in your tent!
b/ Psychologists have long been interested in how we judge intelligence in strangers. Now scientists
have designed tests (1) ______try to discover which cues help people to judge IQ accurately, and which cause
them to get (2) ______wrong. High school pupils were videotaped answering thought-provoking questions and
the videos were (3) ______shown to groups of ‘judges’ who were asked to assess the students’ physical type
and monitor a variety of behavioral cues. Next the judges were asked to rate the students’ intelligence. At the
(4) ______time, each student was also required to sit a standard IQ test
Certain cues matched the (5) ______of the IQ tests more closely than others. While speaking quickly,
using a lot of words or displaying ease (6) ______understanding caused the judges to rate the students’
intelligence highly, and was reflected in the IQ tests, (7) ______cues seemed to give the judges an entirely
false impression of intelligence as measured by the IQ test. Among the cues that led judges to assess students
as dull were factors (8) ______as using halting speech or slang. Cues that led judges to view students as bright
included talking loudly (9) ______using proper English. (10) ______of these traits correlated with measured IQ,
however.
Part 2: Read the following passage and choose A, B, C or D to answer the questions below it
Australians place a high value on independence and personal choice. This means that a teacher or
course tutor will not tell students what to do, but will give them a number of options and suggest they work out
which one is the best in their circumstances. It also means that they are expected to take action if something
goes wrong and seek out resources and support for themselves.
Australians are also prepared to accept a range of opinions rather than believing there is one truth. This
means that in an educational setting, students will be expected to form their own opinions and defend the
reasons for that point of view and the evidence for it.
Australians are uncomfortable with differences in status and hence idealize the idea of treating everyone
equally. An illustration of this is that most adult Australians call each other by their first names. This concern
with equality means that Australians are uncomfortable taking anything too seriously and are even ready to joke
about themselves.
Australians believe that life should have a balance between work and leisure time. As a consequence,
some students may be criticalof others who they perceive as doing nothing but study.
Australian notions of privacy mean that areas such as financial matters, appearance and relationships are
only discussed with close friends. While people may volunteer such information, they may resent someone
actually asking them unless the friendship is firmly established. Even then, it is considered very impolite to ask
someone what they earn. With older people, it is also rude to ask how old they are, why they are not married or
why they do not have children. It is also impolite to ask people how much they have paid for something, unless
there is a very good reason for asking.
1. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The story about Australia B. Australian culture
C. Australian culture shock D. What should we do when we come to Australia?
2.The word “critical” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______
A. faultfinding B. complimentary C. grateful D. appreciative
3.In paragraph 3, most adult Australians call each other by their first names because
A. Australians are difficult to remember people’s surnames.
B. Australians get on well with each other.
C. Calling each other by their first names make them more friendly.
D. Australians restrict class discrimination.
4.The word “status” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. position B. marriage C. qualification D. job
5. The word “them” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. Australians B. circumstances C. students D. options
6. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. A teacher or course tutor will not tell students what to do.
B. Australians are always prepared to believe that there is one truth.
C. Australians are also prepared to accept a range of opinions.
D. Students in Australia will be expected to form their own opinions.
7. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5?
A. It is polite when Australians ask each other about their salary.
B. It is unacceptable to discuss financial issues with people you do not know well.
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C. Australians often ask each other their ages and tell each other about children.
D. It is wise to ask how old they are.
PART D. WRITING
I. Question 1-5: Finish each second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence, using
the clues at the beginning of each sentence.
1. The result of the match was never in doubt.
At no ........................................................................................................................
2. I didn't know you were coming, so I didn't wait for you.
If I ..............................................................................................................................
3. When I picked up my pen I found that the nib had broken
On............................................................................................................................
4. Sally finally managed to get a job.
Sally finally succeeded...............................................................................................
5. Fiona was so disappointed that she could not keep on working.
Such ...........................................................................................................................
II. Question 6-10: Complete the second sentence using the word given so that it has a similar meaning to
the following sentence. Write between two and six words in the space provided on the answer sheet. Do
NOT change the word given in brackets in any way.

6. I haven't decided to continue my study in a foreign country. (made)

I haven't ..… my study in a foreign country.
7. I can't understand Doris and what she has done. (sense)
I can't ..…….... Doris and what she has done.
8. I think you should complain about that horrible meal. (were)
If I ..………….. a complaint about that horrible meal.
9. I have a good relationship with my neighbors. (on)
My neighbors ..….... together
10. I don't usually remember people's surnames. (memory )
I don't ..…………… people's surnames.
III. Question 11-15: Use the given word to write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the
original sentence. Do NOT change the word given in brackets in any way.
11. The two theories appear to be completely different. (COMMON)
..............................................................................................
12. His rude behaviour is too much for me. (PUT)

13. I find his handwriting very hard to read. (DIFFICULTY)

.............................................................................................
14. He doesn’t have money to go on holiday. He doesn’t have time, either. (NEITHER)
..............................................................................................
15. You’d feel better if you had a quiet holiday. (DO)
ESSAY WRITING : (220-250 WORDS)
Topic 1: A lot of places in the world rely on tourism as a main source of income. Unfortunately, tourism
can also be a source of problems if it is not managed correctly. Do you think that benefits of tourism
outweighs its drawbacks?
Topic 2: Ecotourism is now defined as responsible travel to natural areas that conserves the
environment. What are the advantages and ecotourism? How can we make tourism more popular?
Topic 3: Some people believe that to protect local culture, tourism should be banned in some areas
whereas others think that change is inevitable and banning tourism will have no benefits. Discussion
both views and give your opinion.

 NOTE: make a detailed outlines for each given topic.

TEST YOURSELF 3
LISTENING

I. SECTION 1:
You will hear a man who needs to apply for social security. Listen to the conversation and do questions 1-10.
Questions 1- 5: Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for
each answer.

8
 Name John 1.________________

Social Security Number 2. ________________

Address 3. ________________Road

Telephone: 4. _______________

Status 5. _____________

Questions 6-10: Listen and answer the following questions. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each
answer.

1. How many children does Mr John have?

_________________________________________.
2.When was his baby girl born?
_________________________________________.
3.Which type of accommodation is his family living?
_________________________________________.
4.How much is their monthly rent?
_________________________________________.
5. How much does he pay approximately for gas, and electricity monthly?
_________________________________________.
II. SECTION 2:
Questions 1- 5: You are going to listen to a telephone conversation between two people, Hannah and her
father. Circle A, B or C for the correct answer
1. How long did Hannah think it would take her to find a place to live?
a. three weeks b. less than three weeks
c. more than three weeks d. more than four weeks
2. There is not enough accommodation to rent because_____
a. Hannah is a new student. b. the town is small.
c. the area has lots of new technology companies. d. it is the end of the academic year.
3. £400 a month for rent is________
a. not cheap for the area. b. higher than Hannah has paid before.
c. cheap for the area. d. lower than Hannah has paid before.
4. At the moment, Hannah is living_____
a. in a flat b. in a hostel c. in a hotel. d. in a suitcase.
5. Hannah's new flat____
a. has a large roof terrace b. has two bedrooms c. is on the second floor d. is a bit noisy.
Questions 6 and 7: Now listen to the rest of the conversation and answer questions 6-10
Complete Dad's note.
Hannah's address:
6. _________________________Whitehart Road
7. ____________________________ RJ.

Questions 8-10
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS to complete each space.
8. Hannah plans to travel to her parents' house on Friday evening____________________________

9. Hannah's Dad will return the van on _________________________

10. The journey time is about ______________________________

PART B: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

I. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences.
1. - Linh: Would you mind moving your suitcase?
- Ngoc: _________
A. Yes, please! B. No, not at all. C. Of course! D. Oh, I am sorry to hear.
2. In order to keep our school clean, littering is strictly _________.
A. restricted B. promoted C. prohibited D. encouraged
3. Mr. Jones, _________ I was working, was very generous about overtime payments.

9
 A. he B. for whom C. for him D. whom
4. I have so many routines that sometimes I feel ........... I am an automatic robot.
A. as if B. even if C. even though D. like
5. I object to ....... like this.
A. be treating B. treating C. being treated D. have been treated
6. To get a passport, you must send in your birth ________ and two photos.
A. certificate B. license C. paper D. card
7. She tries to set ________ an hour a week for practice.
A. about B. down C. aside D. in
8. Each of the guests ________ a bunch of flowers.
A. are given B. is given C. were given D. give
9. I opened the door quietly ……………. my father up.
A. to not wake B. so as not to wake
C. so that I don’t wake D. not to waking
10. I do feel rather ashamed…………having told a lie.
A. on B. up C. of D. with
II. Each of the following sentences has ONE mistake. Underline the mistake and write the correction in
the provided blank on the right. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Sentences Corrections
0. He collided with a car because he was driving too fastly. fast

1. The work performed by these officers are not worth our paying them any
longer.
2. Nobody is interested in the missing jet planes, aren’t they?

3. The customs in his country are more traditional than that in the United
States

4. It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before
attempting to pass the exam.
5. The pull of the earth is too strong that no one can jump as high as three
meters.

III. Give the correct form of the words in capital letters. Write your answers in the blanks.
1. Burning coal is an _________________way of heating a house. Gas is much cheaper. (ECONOMY)
2. _________________has caused many so-called man-made disasters. (FOREST)
3. It is a good book because it is very _________________ (INFORM).
4. The media help increase the _________________ (POPULAR) of sports and games.
5. How do you _________________he real painting from the fake one? (DIFFERENT)

PART C. READING (3.0 POINTS)

I. Read the text below then circle one answer (A, B, C, or D) that best fits each space.
Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant
language of international communication. English as we know it today (1)_______ around 1350, after having
incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman (2)______ of 1066.
Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not (3)______ even as
far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland. (4)________, during the course of the next two centuries, English began to
spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary
(5)________. Thus small enclaves of English speakers became establish work and grew in (6)________ parts
of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually (7) _______ the primary language of
international business, banking, and diplomacy.
Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored (8)________ computer systems worldwide is in
English. Two (9)________ of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of
technology, advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic controllers. Today there (10)________ more
than 700 million English users in the world.

1. A. hailed B. frequented C. emerged D. engaged

2. A. invader B. invasion C. invade D. invasive
3. A. experienced B. conferred C. stretched D. extended
4. A. Therefore B. However C. So D. but
5. A. work B. job C. employment D. career

10
6. A. various B. variety C. varying D. varied
7 A. became B.developed C.grew D.got
8. A. in B. on C. into D. onto
9. A. third B. thirds C. threes D. three
10. A. have been B. has been C. is D. are
II. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. Write the words in the spaces provided.
SMOKING
Smoking is harmful to health. This is known to many people worldwide. But men and women who began
to smoke some thirty years ago or so did not have much research on how smoking can (1)______ the body and
threaten health. It was known that smoking could discolor the teeth and fingers, dull the appetite, and be a very
expensive (2)______ to maintain. But people who began to smoke did not know that smoking, especially
cigarette smoking, could be extremely (3)______ to their health.
Medical studies have shown that smoking is a great health hazard because of its effects on the body.
These studies show that the (4)______ life expectancy of a smoker is three to four years less than that of a
nonsmoker. The life expectancy of a person who smokes two or more packs of cigarettes a day may be as
much as eight years (5)______ than that of a nonsmoker. In addition, research has shown that people who
smoke are more (6)______ to develop lung cancer and other serious diseases than nonsmokers.
(7)______ warnings that cigarettes are a health hazard, smoking gains popularity among youth.
Frequently, young people tend to ignore the warnings about smoking (8) _________ they plan to stop in five
years or so. “I can always (9)______ before real damage is done” is the reason they give. But recent
experiments prove that damage (10)______ the lungs becomes measurable almost (15)______ a person
starts to smoke.
III. Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions.
Madison Square Garden, a world-famous sporting venue in New York City, has actually been a series of
buildings in varied locations rather than a single building in one spot. In 1873, P.T. Barnum built Barnum’s
Monster Classical and Geological Hippodrome at the corner of Madison Avenue and 26th Street, across from
Madison Square Park. Two years later, the bandleader Patrick Gilmore bought the property, added statues and
fountains, and renamed it Gilmore’s Gardens. When Cornelius Vanderbilt bought the property in 1879, it was
renamed Madison Square Garden.
A second very lavish Madison Square Garden was built at the same location in 1890, with a ballroom, a
restaurant, a theater, a rooftop garden, and a main arena with seating for 15,000. However, this elaborate
Madison Square Garden lasted until 1924 when it was torn down to make way for a forty-storey skyscraper.
When the second Madison Square Garden had been replaced in its location across from Madison
Square Park, the boxing promoter Tex Rickard raised six million dollars to build a new Madison Square Garden.
This new Madison Square Garden was constructed in a different location, on 8th Avenue and 50th Street and
quite some distance from Madison Square Park and Madison Avenue. Rickard’s Madison Square Garden
served primarily as an arena for boxing prize fights and circus events until it outgrew its usefulness by the late
1950s.
A new location was found for a fourth for Madison Square Garden, a top Pennsylvania Railroad Station,
and plans were announced for its construction in 1960. This current edifice, which includes a huge sports
arena, a bowling center, a 5,000-seat amphitheater, and a twenty-nine-storey office building, does retain the
traditional name Madison Square Garden. However, the name is actually quite a misnomer. The building is not
located near Madison Square, nor does it have the flowery gardens that contributed to the original name.
1. The main point of this passage is that Madison Square Garden ________.
A. has had a varied history in various locations B. was P.T. Barnum’s major accomplishment
C. is home to many different sporting events D. was named after and adjacent park
2. Which paragraph discusses the third location of Madison Square Garden?
A. The third paragraph. B. The second paragraph.
C. The first paragraph. D. The last paragraph.
3. According to the passage, Patrick Gilmore did all of the following EXCEPT that he ________.
A. purchased the property at the corner of Madison Avenue and 26th Street
B. made improvements to the property that he bought
C. named the property that he bought Madison Square Garden
D. sold the property to Cornelius Vanderbilt
4. The word “lavish” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. simple B. modern C. elaborate D. outlandish
5. How long did the second Madison Square garden last?
A. 11 years B. 34 years C. 45 years D. 60 years
6. Which of the following would most likely have taken place at Rickard’s Madison Square Garden?
A. A balloon dance B. A theater production C. A basketball game D. a tiger show
7. An “edifice” in paragraph 3 is most likely________.
A. an address B. an association C. a competition D. a building
11
8. Monster Classical and Geological Hippodrome was renamed Gilmore’s Gardens in ________.
A. 1890 B. 1879 C. 1875 D. 1874
9. What can be inferred about the current Madison Square Garden?
A. It is on Madison Avenue. B. It is across from Madison Square Park.
C. It has incredible gardens. D. It is above a transportation center.
10. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Madison Square Garden has been rebuilt for the fourth time.
B. Lots of flowers have been planted inside Madison Square Garden.
C. The Madison Square Garden building is far from Madison Square.
D. Madison Square Garden still has its original name.

PART D. WRITING
I. Question 1-5: Finish each second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence, using
the clues at the beginning of each sentence.

1. It was wrong of you to allow a 4-year-old child to walk home alone.

You should ___________________________________________________________________________
2. He said that he had been a long way from the scene of the crime at the time.
He denied ___________________________________________________________________
3. Success depends on hard work.
The harder __________________________________________________________________________
4. Although Richard is competent in his work, he does not know how to deal with this client.

Competent _______________________________________________________________________________
5. I haven’t decided to continue my study in a foreign country.
I haven’t made___________________________________________________________________
II. Question 6-10: Complete the second sentence using the word given so that it has a similar meaning
to the following sentence. Write your answers in the space provided on the answer sheet. Do NOT
change the word given in brackets in any way.

6. Scientists say forests are being destroyed by air pollution. BLAME

Scientists________________________________________________________
7. What astounds me is that he paid the money before having a look at the goods. IT
I find ________________________________________________________ before he paid for them.
8.As my roommate continues to give me a lift to work, I shan’t learn to drive. STOP
Were _________________________________________________________, I would learn to drive.
8.“I’m sorry, I know nothing about computer programming,” said the interviewee. HAVING
The interviewee admitted to _____________________________________ computer programming.
9. Please do not disturb the contestants under any circumstances. ACCOUNT
On _________________________________________________________________ to be disturbed.
10.I was just about to leave the office when the phone started ringing. POINT
I was __________________________________________________ when the phone started ringing.

III. Question 11-15: Use the given word to write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the
original sentence. Do NOT change the word given in brackets in any way.

11. I am telling you this for you not to make a mistake. FEAR
____________________________________________________________________________________
12. I'd rather you didn't stay long at the party. BETTER
___________________________________________________________________________________
13. I now think differently about this matter. MIND
____________________________________________________________________________________
14. I am going to write and complain to the council. COMPLAINT
____________________________________________________________________________________
15. She was just as good as they had thought. CAME
____________________________________________________________________________________
.
IV. Writing
In about 220-250 words, write an essay on the following question. “Computers may be considered the most
important tool in modern society.” Do you agree? Give reasons to support your answer.
Your essay should have a good organization, clearly present your point of view and show your fluent command
of English.

12
MORE EXERCISES
EX 1: SENTENCE REWRITING
70 Was it Paul’s idea to go to the cinema?-came
Was it Paul ……...........................…………..........................…… the idea of going to the cinema?
71 The boats began to move slowly out of the harbour.-way
The boats slowly ……...........................…………...........................…… out of the harbour.
72 One runner did not succeed in finishing the race.-able
One runner ……...........................…………...........................…… the race.
73 It is not my fault that the glass broke.-blame
You cannot ……...........................…………...........................…… the glass.
74 I am starting to find watching television boring.-fed
I am beginning to get ……...........................…………...........................……television.
75 Bad weather makes me feel really unhappy in the winter.-down
Bad weather ……...........................…………...........................…… in the winter.
76 Fog delayed my flight to Moscow this morning.-up
My flight to Moscow ……...........................…………...........................…… this morning.
77 Help was urgently needed in the flooded area of the country.-need
They were ……...........................…………...........................…… in the flooded area of the country.
78 I went to Italy with the intention of learning Italian. -that
I went to Italy ……...........................…………...........................…… Italian.
79 Remember to return the videos you have rented.-back
Don’t ……...........................…………...........................…… the videos you have rented.
80 While we were going home yesterday we got caught in a thunderstorm.-way
We got caught in a thunderstorm while we were .…………...........................…… yesterday.
81 Has Mary altered her decision about moving to the countryside?-mind
Do you know if Mary ……...........................…………...........................…… about moving to the countryside?
82 I’d like Kevin to stop telling me what to do. -wish
I ……...........................…………...........................…… telling me what to do!
83 ‘Are you pleased it’s nearly half-term?’ said the teacher to us.-know
The teacher wanted ……...........................…………...........................…… pleased it was nearly half-term.
84 We are earning less than we are spending, I’m afraid.-expenditure
Our ……...........................…………...........................…… our income, I’m afraid.
85 I don’t think having luxuries in life is necessary. -necessity
I don’t ……...........................…………...........................… having luxuries in life.
86 I don’t earn anything like the amount I did before.-nowhere
I earn ……...........................…………...........................…… as I did before.
87 The date for the Barcelona Conference is the 23rd of March.-place
The Barcelona Conference ……...........................…………...........................……the 23rd of March.
88 The house was not very attractive in appearance when we first saw it.-much
The house was ……...........................…………...........................…… at when we first saw it.
89 No-one wants to buy this type of music any more. -longer
There ……...........................…………...........................…… for this type of music.
90 Looking back, I think I was right to study mathematics at university.-regret
Looking back, I ……...........................…………...........................…… mathematics at university.
91 Our spending will have to be reduced next year.-back
We will have ……...........................…………...........................…… our spending next year.
92 The children were absolutely certain that the film would be fantastic.-doubt
There ……...........................…………...........................…… minds of the children that the film would be fantastic.
93 Did anyone raise the subject of the school trip?-brought
Can you tell me ……...........................…………...........................…… the subject of the school trip?
94 I started learning English three years ago.-been
I ……...........................…………...........................…… three years.
95 They are moving our oral examination to an earlier date.-forward
Our oral examination ……...........................…………...........................…… to an earlier date.
96 ‘Do you want to go for a walk?’ asked Bob.-felt
Bob asked me ……...........................…………...........................…… for a walk.
-97 Olivia did not concentrate so she made a lot of mistakes.-would
If Olivia ……...........................…………...........................… made fewer mistakes.
98 Do you happen to know the time of the next train to London? -could
I wonder ……...........................…………...........................…… me the time of the next train to London.
99 The children are always fascinated by nature programmes on TV. -find
The children ……...........................…………...........................…… when they watch them on TV.
100 ‘What about going for a swim?’ said John to me.-should
13
John ……...........................…………...........................…… for a swim.
READING
EX 1:
There are two factors which determine an individual's intelligence. The first is the sort of brain he is born with.
Human brains differ considerably, some being more capable than others. But no matter how good a brain he
has to begin with, an individual will have a low order of intelligence unless he has opportunities to learn. So the
second factor is what happens to the individual–the sort of environment in which he is reared. If an individual
is handicapped environmentally, it is likely that his brain will fail to develop and he will never attain the level of
intelligence of which he is capable.
The importance of environment in determining an individual's intelligence can be demonstrated by the case
history of the identical twins, Peter and Mark X. Being identical, the twins had identical brains at birth, and their
growth processes were the same. When the twins were three months old, their parents died, and they were
placed in separate foster homes. Peter was reared by parents of low intelligence in an isolated community with
poor educational opportunities. Mark was reared in the home of well–to–do parents who had been to college.
He was read to as a child, sent to good schools, and given every opportunity to be stimulated intellectually.
This environmental difference continued until the twins were in their late teens, when they were given tests to
measure their intelligence. Mark's I. Q. was 125, twenty– five points higher than the average and fully forty
points higher than his identical brother. Given equal opportunities, the twins, having identical brains, would
have tested at roughly the same level.
Question 1. Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. human brains do not differ considerably right from birth.
B. the brain a person is born with is important in determining his intelligence.
C. environment is crucial in determining a person's intelligence.
D. persons having identical brains will have roughly the same intelligence.
Question 2. The word “which” in the first paragraph refers to_________.
A. second factor B. sort of environment C. his brain D. level of intelligence
Question 3. The case history of the twins appears to support the conclusion that_________.
A. individual with identical brains seldom test at same level
B. an individual's intelligence is determined only by his environment
C. lack of opportunity blocks the growth of intelligence
D. changes of environment produce changes in the structure of the brain
Question 4. According to the passage, the average I. Q.is_________.
A. 85 B. 100 C. 110 D. 125
Question 5. This selection can best be titled_________.
A. Measuring Your Intelligence B. Intelligence and Environment
C. The Case of Peter and Mark D. How the Brain Influences Intelligence

EX 2:
The countryside of Britain is well known for its beauty and many contrasts: its bare mountains and
moorland, its lakes, rivers and woods, and its long, often wild coastline. Many of the most beautiful areas are
national parks and are protected from development. When British people think of the countryside they think of
farmland, as well as open spaces. They imagine cows or sheep in green fields enclosed by hedges or stone
walls, and fields of wheat and barley. Most farmland is privately owned but is crossed by a network of public
footpaths.
Many people associate the countryside with peace and relaxation. They spend their free time walking or
cycling there, or go to the country for a picnic or a pub lunch. In summer people go to fruit farms and pick
strawberries and other fruit. Only a few people who live in the country work on farms. Many commute to work
in towns. Many others dream of living in the country, where they believe they would have a better and
healthier lifestyle.
The countryside faces many threats. Some are associated with modern farming practices, and the use of
chemicals harmful to plants and wildlife. Land is also needed for new houses. The green belt, an area of land
around many cities, is under increasing pressure. Plans to build new roads are strongly opposed by
organizations trying to protect the countryside. Protesters set up camps to prevent, or at least delay, the
building work.
America has many areas of wild and beautiful scenery, and there are many areas, especially in the West in
states like Montana and Wyoming, where few people live. In the New England states, such as Vermont and
New Hampshire, it is common to see small farms surrounded by hills and green areas. In Ohio, Indiana, Illinois
and other Midwestern states, fields of corn or wheat reach to the horizon and there are many miles between
towns.
Only about 20% of Americans live outside cities and towns. Life may be difficult for people who live in the
country. Services like hospitals and schools may be further away and going shopping can mean driving long
distances. Some people even have to drive from their homes to the main road where their mail is left in a box.

14
In spite of the disadvantages, many people who live in the country say that they like the safe, clean, attractive
environment. But their children often move to a town or city as soon as they can.
As in Britain, Americans like to go out to the country at weekends. Some people go on camping or fishing
trips, others go hiking in national parks.
Question 1. We can see from the passage that in the countryside of Britain _________.
A. it is difficult to travel from one farm to another B. only a few farms are publicly owned
C.none of the areas faces the sea D. most beautiful areas are not well preserved
Question 2. The word “enclosed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. surrounded B. embraced C. blocked D. rotated
Question 3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an activity of relaxation in the countryside of Britain?
A. Riding a bicycle B. Going for a walk C. Going swimming D. Picking fruit
Question 4. What does the word “they” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Those who dream of living in the country B. Those who go to the country for a picnic
C. Those who commute to work in towns D. Those who go to fruit farms in summer
Question 5. Which of the following threatens the countryside in Britain?
A. Protests against the building work B. Plants and wildlife
C. Modern farming practices D. The green belt around cities
Question 6. The phrase “associated with” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. separated from B. supported by C. related to D. referred to
Question 7. According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT _________.
A. the green belt is under pressure because of the need for land
B. the use of chemicals harms the environment of the countryside
C. camps are set up by protesters to stop the construction work
D. all organizations strongly oppose plans for road construction
Question 8. The phrase “reach to the horizon” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. are varied B. are endless C. are horizontal D. are limited
Question 9. According to the passage, some Americans choose to live in the country because _________.
A. their children enjoy country life
B. B .hospitals, schools and shops are conveniently located there
C.they enjoy the safe, clean, attractive environment there
D. life there may be easier for them
Question 10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Both British and American people are thinking of moving to the countryside.
B. Towns in some Midwestern states in the US are separated by long distances.
C. Many British people think of the country as a place of peace and relaxation.
D. The majority of American people live in cities and towns.
EX 3:
Pollution is the degradation of natural environment by external substances introduced directly or indirectly.
Human health, ecosystem quality and aquatic and terrestrial biodiversity may be affected and altered
permanently by pollution.
Pollution occurs when ecosystems cannot get rid of substances introduced into the environment. The
critical threshold of its ability to naturally eliminate substances is compromised and the balance of the
ecosystem is broken.
The sources of pollution are numerous. The identification of these different pollutants and their effects on
ecosystems is complex. They can come from natural disasters or the result of human activity, such as oil
spills, chemical spills, nuclear accidents... These can have terrible consequences on people and the planet
where they live: destruction of the biodiversity, increased mortality of the human and animal species,
destruction of natural habitat, damage caused to the quality of soil, water and air...
Preventing pollution and protecting the environment necessitate the application of the principles of
sustainable development. We have to consider satisfying the needs of today without compromising the ability
of future generations to meet their needs. This means that we should remedy existing pollution, but also
anticipate and prevent future pollution sources in order to protect the environment and public health. Any
environmental damage must be punishable by law and polluters should pay compensation for the damage
caused to the environment.
Question 1. What is the topic of the passage?
A. Pollution: causes, effects and solutions. B. Pollution - a big problem.
C. What is pollution? D. What should we do to protect environment?
Question 2. The phrase "get rid of" in paragraph 2 is closest meaning to:
A. remove B. replace C. reuse D. recycle
Question 3. According to the passage, these are sources of pollution, EXCEPT
A. natural disasters B. oil spills C. killing animals D. nuclear accidents
Question 4. Which sentence is TRUE?
A. Human race is the only species affected by pollution.
15
 B. It is not easy to identify the pollutants and their effects on ecosystem.
C. Pollution is harmless to natural habitat. D. Human activity doesn't cause pollution.
Question 5. The pronoun “they" in paragraph 3 refers to
A. natural disasters B. people C. consequences D. nuclear accidents
Question 6. According to the passage, what should be done to protect the environment?
A. We should try our best to meet our needs of today.
B. We should not care for the existing pollution.
C. People who damage the environment should be rewarded.
D. People should be made to pay compensation if they damage the environment.
Question 7. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that
A. We cannot prevent the sources that may cause pollution in the future.
B. Future generations may not meet their needs because of pollution we cause today.
C. We can do nothing to remedy pollution.
D. Biodiversity will not be influenced if animals are killed.
EX 4:
No educational medium better serves as a means of spatial communication than the atlas. Atlases deal
with such invaluable information as population distribution and density. One of the best, Pennycooke’s World
Atlas, has been widely accepted as a standard owing to the quality of its maps and photographs, which not
only show various settlements but also portray them in a variety of scales. In fact , the very first map in the
atlas is a cleverly designed population cartogram that projects the size of each country if geographical size
were proportional to population. Following the proportional layout , a sequence of smaller maps shows the
world’s population density, each country’s birth and death rates, population increase and decrease ,
industrialization, urbanization , gross national product in terms of per capita income, the quality of medical
care, literacy, and language. To give readers a perspective on how their own country fits in with the global
view, additional projections despite the world’s patterns in nutrition, calorie and protein consumption, health
care, number of physicians per unit of population, and life expectancy by region. Population density maps on a
subcontinental scale, as well as political maps, convey the diverse demographic phenomena of the world in a
broad array of scales.
Question 1. What is the main topic of this passage ?
A. The educational benefits of atlases. B. Physical maps in an atlas.
C. The ideal in the making of atlases. D. Partial maps and their uses.
Question 2. According to the passage, the first map in Pennycooke’s World Atlas shows_________.
A. the population policy in each country. B. the hypothetical sizes of countries.
C. geographical proportions of each country. D. national boundaries relative to population.
Question 3. In the passage, the word “invaluable” is closest in meaning to_________.
A. invalid B. priceless C. shapeless D. incremental
Question 4. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. calorie consumption. B. population decline.
C. a level of education. D. currency exchange rate.
Question 5. The word “layout” in the passage refers to_________.
A. the cartogram B. the geographical size C. population D. each country
Question 6. It can be inferred from the passage that maps can be used to_________.
A. identify a shortage of qualified labour. B. pinpoint ethnic strife in each country.
C.show readers photographs in a new form. D. give readers a new perspective on their own
country.
Question 7. The author of the passage implies that_________..
A. atlases provide a bird’s eye view of country. B. atlases can be versatile instruments.
C.maps use a variety of scales in each projection. D. maps of countries differ in size.
EX 5:
In the history of technology, computers and calculators were innovative developments. They are essentially
different from all other machines because they have a memory. This memory stores instructions and
information. In a calculator, the instructions are the various functions of arithmetic, which are permanently
remembered by the machine and cannot be altered or added to. The information consists of the numbers
keyed in.
An electronic pocket calculator can perform almost instant arithmetic. A calculator requires an input unit to
feed in numbers, a processing unit to make the calculation, a memory unit, and an output unit to display the
result. The calculator is powered by a small battery or by a panel of solar cells. Inside is a microchip that
contains the memory and processing units and also controls the input unit, which is the keyboard, and the
output unit, which is the display.
The input unit has keys for numbers and operations. Beneath the key is a printed circuit board containing a
set of contacts for each key. Pressing a key closes the contacts and sends a signal along a pair of lines in
the circuit board to the processing unit, in which the binary code for that key is stored in the memory. The

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 processing unit also sends the code to the display. Each key is connected by a different pair of lines to the
processing unit, which repeatedly checks the lines to find out when a pair is linked by a key.
The memory unit stores the arithmetic instructions for the processing unit and holds the temporary results
that occur during calculation. Storage cells in the memory unit hold the binary codes for the keys that have
been pressed. The number codes, together with the operation code for the plus key, are held in temporary
cells until the processing unit requires them.
When the equals key is pressed, it sends a signal to the processing unit. This takes the operation code-for
example, addition-and the two numbers being held in the memory unit and performs the operation on the two
numbers. A full adder does the addition, and the result goes to the decoder in the calculator's microchip. This
code is then sent to the liquid crystal display unit, which shows the result, or output, of the calculation.
Question 1. The word "innovative" in line 1 could best be replaced by .
A. recent B. important C. revolutionary D. complicated
Question 2. What can be inferred about machines that are not calculators or computers?
A. They can not store information in a memory.
B. They are less expensive than computers.
C. They have simple memory and processing units.
D. They are older than computers.
Question 3. In what part of the calculator are the processing and memory units?
A. the battery B. the solar cells C. the output unit D. the microchip
Question 4. According to the passage, one function of the memory unit is _________.
A. to control the keyboard B. to store temporary results during calculation
C. to send codes to the display unit D. to alter basic arithmetic instructions
Question 5. The word "This" in paragraph 5 refers to_________.
A. the plus key B. the processing unit C. the memory unit D. the equals key
Question 6. The word "contacts" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. commands B. codes C. locations D. connections
Question 7. Which of the following could NOT be said about calculators?
A. The calculator's "thinking" takes place in the processing and memory units.
B. Calculators require a lot of instructions to operate quickly.
C. Calculators and computers are similar. D. Pressing a key activates a calculator.
Question 8. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To discuss innovative developments in technology
B. To compare computers and calculators with other machines
C. To summarize the history of technology D. To explain how a calculator works

EX 6: HEADING MATCHING
Tea and Industrial Revolution
A. Alan Macfarlane thinks he could rewrite history. The professor of anthropological science at King's
College, Cambridge has, like other historians,
spentdecadestryingtounderstandtheenigmaoftheIndustrialRevolution.Why did this particular important event -
the world-changing birth of industry – happen in Britain? And why did it happen at the end ofthe18thcentury?
B. Macfarlane compares the question to a puzzle. He claims that there were about 20 different factors and
all of them needed to be present before the revolution could happen. The chief conditions are to be found in
history textbooks. For industry to 'take off', there needed to be the technology and power to drive factories,
large urban populations to provide cheap labour easy transport to move goods around, an affluent middle-class
willing to buy mass-produced objects, a market-driven economy, and a political system that allowed this to
happen. While this was the case for England, other nations, such as Japan, Holland and France also met some
of these criteria. All these factors must have been necessary but not sufficient to cause the revolution. Holland
had everything except coal, while China also had many of these factors.
C. Most historians, however, are convinced that one or two missing factors are needed to solve the puzzle.
The missing factors, he proposes, are to be found in every kitchen cupboard. Tea and beer, two of the nation's
favorite drinks, drove the revolution. Tannin, the active ingredient in tea, and hops, used in making 130 beer,
both contain antiseptic properties. This -plus the fact that both are made with boiled water- helped prevent
epidemics of waterborne diseases, such as dysentery, in densely populated urban areas. The theory initially
sounds eccentric but his explanation of the detective work that went into his deduction and the fact his case has
been strengthened by a favorable appraisal of his research by Roy Porter (distinguished medical historian) the
skepticism gives way to wary admiration.
D. Historians had noticed one interesting factor around the mid-18th century that required explanation.
Between about165D and 1740,the population was static. But then there was a burst in population. The infant
mortality rate halved in the space of 20 years, and this happened in both rural areas and cities, and across all
classes. Four possible causes have been suggested. There could have been a sudden change in the viruses
and bacteria present at that time, but this is unlikely. Was there a revolution in medical science? But this was a
century before Lister introduced antiseptic surgery. Was there a change in environmental conditions? There
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were improvements in agriculture that wiped out malaria, but these were small gains. Sanitation did not become
widespread until the 19th century. The only option left was food. But the height and weight statistics show a
decline. So the food got worse. Efforts to explain this sudden reduction in child deaths appeared to draw a
blank.
E. This population burst seemed to happen at just the right time to provide labor for the Industrial
Revolution. But why? When the Industrial Revolution started, it was economically efficient to have people
crowded together forming towns and cities. But with crowded living conditions comes disease, particularly from
human waste. Some research in the historical records revealed that there was a change in the incidence of
waterborne disease at that time, the English were protected by the strong antibacterial agent in hops, which
were added to make beer last. But in the late 17thcentury a tax was introduced on malt. The poor turned to
water and gin, and in the 1720s the mortality rate began to rise again.
F. Macfarlane looked to Japan, which was also developing large cities about the same time, and also had
no sanitation. Waterborne diseases in the Japanese population were far fewer than those in Britain. Could it be
the prevalence of tea in their culture? That was when Macfarlane thought about the role of tea in 131 Britain.
The history of tea in Britain provided an extraordinary coincidence of dates. Tea was relatively expensive until
Britain started direct hade with China in the early 18th century. By the 1740s, about the time that infant mortality
was falling, the drink was common. Macfarlane guesses that the fact that water had to be boiled, together with
the stomach-purifying properties of tea so eloquently described in Buddhist texts, meant that the breast milk
provided by mothers was healthier than it had ever been. No other European nation drank tea so often as the
British, which, by Macfarlane's logic, pushed the other nations out of the race for the Industrial Revolution.
G. But, if tea is a factor in the puzzle, why didn't this cause an industrial revolution in Japan? Macfarlane
notes that in the 17th century, Japan had large cities, high literacy rates and even a futures market. However,
Japan decided against a work-based revolution, by giving up laborsaving devices even animals, to avoid putting
people out of work. Astonishingly, the nation that we now think of as one of the most technologically advanced,
entered the 19thcenturyhaving almost abandoned the wheel. While Britain was undergoing the Industrial
Revolution, Macfarlane notes wryly, Japan was undergoing an industrious one.
Questions 1-7 Reading passage 1 has seven paragraphs, A-G Choose the correct heading for
paragraphs A-G from the list of headings below.
List of headings PARAGRAPHS
i Cases of Japan, Holland and France 1 Paragraph A
ii City development in Japan 2 Paragraph B
iii Tea drinking in Japan and Britain 3 Paragraph c
iv Failed to find a plausible cause for mystery about lower mortality rate 4 Paragraph D
V Preconditions necessary for industrial revolution 5 Paragraph E
vi Time and place of industrialization vii Conclusion drawn from the 6 Paragraph F
comparison with Japan 7 Paragraph G
viii Relation between population and changes of drink in Britain
ix Two possible solutions to the puzzle
Questions 8-13 Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage?
Write
TRUE if the statement is true
FALSE if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage
8 The industrialization did not happen in China because of its inefficient railway transportation.
9 Tea and beer contributed to protect people from water borne disease.
10 Roy Porter disagreed with the proposed theory about the missing factors
11 The reason of lower child deaths is fully explained by food.
12 The British made beer by themselves.
13 Tax on malt in directly affected the increase of population in late 17thcentury
EX 7: COMPLETE THE SECOND SENTENCE
33. I can’t really remember how many girlfriends Bob has had. TRACK
I can’t ………………………………………………how many girlfriends Bob has had.
34. He was rather depressed because she had been fired. . LOW
He was …………………………………………because he had been fired
35. He had nothing to do so he decided to see a movie. END
He ………………………………………………… so he decided to see a movie.
36. He is never completely relaxed in the presence of his teacher. EASE
He is never ……………………………………… in the presence of his teacher
37. When I was awarded the first prize, I didn’t know what so say. WORDS
When I was awarded the first prize……………………………………………….
51. Since my wife left me, I am about to lose my mind. WITS
Since my wife left me, ………………………………..
52. I did everything I could to help him POWER
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 I did ……………………………………………………to help him.
53. I didn’t intend to upset you MY
It ……………………………………………………………… upset you.
54. It’s been over a month since the missing businessman was last seen. TIME
The ……………………………………………………………………… over a month ago
55. Paula is likely to leave before you get there. TIME
By ………………………………………………………….. Paula is likely to have left.
56. His handwriting is illegible. I can’t understand anything. HEAD
His handwriting is illegible. I can’t …………………………………………it.
57. She doesn’t earn enough to make a living. ENDS
She doesn’t earn enough t …………………………………………..
58. I don’t make decisions here, so there’s nothing I can do. HANDS
I don’t make decisions here so ………………………………………………………………
59. Whatever happens, don’t open the door. SHOULD
Under. ………………………………..…………………open the door.
60. He was so afraid of spiders, that he fainted whenever he saw one. FEAR
Such ………………………………………………… that he fainted whenever he saw one
61. If you come first, leave the keys on the table. COME
Should ……………………………………………, leave the keys on the table.
62. Don’t treat it as unimportant. It’s serious. LIGHT
Don’t ……………………………………………It’s serious.
63. The woman’s actions deserved praise, not criticism. BEEN
The woman’s actions……………………………………………………, not criticized.
67. I don’t even know whether he’s in town. ALL
For ……………………………………………………… be in town.
68. Tina might not agree with the idea. DOUBT
It’s ………………………………………………………………Tina will agree with the idea.
69. We were all shocked when he died. CAME
His …………………………………………………………………….. to us all.
70. Without her assistance, I’d have failed. BEEN
Had …………………………………………….., I’d have failed.
71. If you went back, you would find out the truth. TO
Were ……………………………………., you would find out the truth.
72. I’d sooner go out, than stay at home.
Rather ……………………………………….. I’ll stay at home.
73. You should read the instructions before turning it on. HAD
You ……………………………………… instructions before turning it on.
74. The room urgently needs cleaning. HIGH
It’s ……………………………………………… your room.
75. I regret going out with him. HIGH
I’d ……… ………………………………………..out with him
76. He regretted the fact that they had stayed for dinner. HADN’T
He’d.. …….. ………………………………………… for dinner.
77. I’d prefer to live in the country rather than a city. SOONER
I’d …………………………………………………….……a city
78. I like rock climbing more than swimming. PREFER
I ……………………………………………………swimming.
79. What I would really like is a slice of pizza. NOTHING
There’s …………………………………………… a slice of pizza
80. It’s doubtful whether they’ll sign the contract. OPEN
It’s ………………………………………… they’ll sign the contract
81. It’s out of the question that Tony lied to us. CAN’T
Tony …………………………………………… l us.
82. What I pity I left my bag at home. ONLY
If ………………………………………… my bag at home
83. She has never lied to us. NO
On ……………………………………… lied to us.
84. He both sings and dances. ONLY
Not ……………………………………………………………..dances.
85. The only way to meet him is to make an appointment. BY
Only ………………………………………………………… meet him.
86. He phones her practically every day. GOES
Hardly ……………………………………………………phoning her.
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 87. I can’t understand her behaviour. LOSS
I am ………………………………………………………her behaviour.
88. If you weren’t advising me, I’d never get through this. ADVICE
Were it ……………………………………………… I’d never get through this.
89. I’ll leave the door open because the cat may want to go out. CASE
I’ll leave the door open ……………………………………………… out.
90. Providing you pay in cash, you’ll receive a discount. AS
So ………………………………………, you’ll receive a discount.
91. I would like you to call me Joe. BE
I’d ………………………………………………………Joe.
92. He regretted the fact that he had stayed for dinner. NOT
He’d rather ………………………………………………for dinner.
93.I don’t want to stay any longer. NOT
I’d …………………………………………………… any longer.
94. Your room urgently needs cleaning. HIGH
It’s …………………………………………………… your room.
95. If necessary, I’ ll stay longer. BE
If ………………………………………………………… longer.
96. I said I ‘d rather we departed early. EXPRESSED
I …………………………………………………………departure.
97. If only I hadn’t bought that expensive car. REGRET
I ……………………………………………………that expensive car.
98. He was imprisoned for having such revolutionary ideas. EXTENT
To such ………………………………………………… he was imprisoned.
99. Instead of waiting, I took the bus. WAIT
Rather ……………………………………………..……… I took the bus
100. It’s a pity she didn’t change her mind. WISH
I ………………………………………………………………… her mind.
EX 8
1. When you go abroad, don’t forget to write to me. DROP
When you go abroad, don’t forget ………………………………………………………
2. We went out together because I wanted to find out about her news CATCH
We went out together because I wanted to ………………………………………news
3. The new film was barely similar to the book I had read. BORE
The new………………………………………………………………….. the book I had read.
4. She didn’t try to hide her feelings, but said his new plan was “silly” WORDS
She didn’t ………………………………………………., but said his new plan was “silly”
5. Please say what you really think about the plan, even if you disagree. SPEAK
Please …………………………………………………………. about the plan, even if you disagree.
6. The truth about the stolen money was revealed in the investigation. LIGHT
The truth about the stolen money …………………………………………the investigation
7. The woman I had just met told me to use her first name when they spoke to her. BY
The woman I had just met told me to ………………………………………………… name when I spoke to her.
8. The recent poor examination results raise the issue of the effectiveness of our teaching methods.
QUESTION
The recent poor examination results ………………………………………… the effectiveness of our teaching
methods.
9. Jim is progressing too slowly with his school project. BEHIND
Jim has ………………………………………………………………………work.
10. It was really embarrassing when your asked what her age was! FOOT
You really ……………………………………………… when your asked what her age was!
11. I think you should take the responsibility for what happened. SHOULDER
I think you ………………………………………………what happened.

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