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Was appeasement the most critical factor in the Second World War?

World dominance was the primary target of the Third Reich. Germany, the United Kingdom, and
France had all lost a generation of young men in World War I. Is it shocking that the Western
Allies tried to make Hitler's demands a reality? In retrospect, it's convenient to argue that
appeasement was the only way to deter Hitler. Other nations were able to join the Third Reich
after seeing Hitler's "miracles" in Germany, whether we want to believe it or not. Hitler did the
same thing that FDR did: he restored men's confidence by putting them back to work. One must
immerse oneself in the Great Depression of the time. Will the unemployed stop to challenge
Hitler's petty hatreds if he gave them a job? No, it's not true. They accepted the work offered by
the Third Reich and prioritized feeding their families. Hitler's proposals for a "cleansing" of
Europe were seen as streamlining steps. Can we say with certainty that if an ethnic German saw
Jews, Gypsies, Slavs, Poles, mentally ill, homosexual people, and others persecuted by the Nazis
would suffer, we would not have gone along? From the bottom of the economic rung of the
ladder, Hitler devised his plans. "My Struggle," as the title suggests. The Treaty of Versailles had
effectively ended Germany's economic recovery. Hitler did have some foresight in recognizing
that, as Patton put it, “Victory belongs to the bold!” He was bold, and for a time, he made
educated assumptions on how to proceed, and miraculously, his guesses were right, despite what
his generals thought. He was victorious, and he took advantage of it.

In retrospect, we can both blame the German people and the Western Allies for yielding to Herr
Hitler's demands. However, I would advise you to reserve your judgment until you have
experienced the same.

Many people believe that if Hitler knew there would be a real response from France and Britain,
he would not invade Poland. But, since the appeasement strategy had kept them from responding
to anything from the remilitarization of Rheinland to the dismemberment and colonization of
Czechoslovakia, Hitler assumed that no one would object to his assault on Poland. Hitler was
inspired by Britain's appeasement strategy to reclaim lost "German" territories such as the
Rhineland, Austria (Hitler was Austrian), and the Sudetenland. After Hitler absorbed the Czech
region, Britain finally decided to form an alliance with Poland in order to prevent Hitler from
reclaiming Danzig. Because of British policy, Hitler felt free to demand more and more,
knowing that Britain would do little to deter him.

If the British and French had opposed Hitler from the beginning, when he militarized the
Rhineland, his regime would have crumbled and the Second World War would not have
occurred.
So at the end: Was appeasement the most critical factor in the Second World War?

No, it's not the case. The ethnic German minority in Danzig was subjected to Polish hostility.
Czechoslavakia was still heavily influenced by Germany, and opposition to the German takeover
was weak.

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