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16 ON 2020 GI Lower WB
16 ON 2020 GI Lower WB
16 ON 2020 GI Lower WB
LEARNING OBJECTIVES
At the end of the presentation and after reviewing the accompanying reading materials, the participant
should be able to:
1. Design an appropriate patient-specific treatment, supportive care, and monitoring plan taking
into consideration efficacy and safety outcomes from clinical trials and current treatment
guidelines for patients with lower gastrointestinal (GI) or pancreatic cancers.
2. Discuss short- and long-term treatment goals, including post-therapy and survivorship, with a
patient with lower GI or pancreatic cancers and his or her caregiver.
3. Assess the impact of pharmacogenomics on the efficacy and toxicity of relevant anticancer and
supportive-care agents for a patient with lower GI or pancreatic cancers.
4. Select relevant information and guidance for the public regarding lower GI and pancreatic
cancer-related issues (e.g., risk factors, prevention, screening).
5. Develop an appropriate plan for preventing, monitoring, and treating adverse reactions
associated with pharmacotherapy for lower GI or pancreatic cancers, including chemotherapy-
induced diarrhea, hand-foot syndrome, hand foot skin reaction, neurotoxicity from oxaliplatin,
and dermatologic toxicities from epidermal growth factor receptor inhibitors.
NCCN Clinical Practice Guidelines in Oncology (NCCN Guidelines®) referenced with permission from the
National Comprehensive Cancer Network® (NCCN®). To view the most recent and complete version of
the guideline, go online to NCCN.org. NATIONAL COMPREHENSIVE CANCER NETWORK®, NCCN®, NCCN
GUIDELINES®, and all other NCCN Content are trademarks owned by the National Comprehensive
Cancer Network, Inc.
NCCN makes no warranties of any kind whatsoever regarding their content, use or application and
disclaims any responsibility for their application or use in any way.
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COLON AND RECTAL CANCER
I. Genomics1
c. Autosomal dominant trait caused by germline mutations in DNA mismatch repair (MMR) genes
MLH1, MSH2, MSH6, and PMS2
3) Increased risk (1-13%) for other malignancies such as ovarian, hepatobiliary, genitourinary,
pancreatic, and small intestine
b. Manifested by hundreds to thousands of adenomatous polyps that cover the colon and rectum
c. Autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutation in APC (adenomatous polyposis coli) gene
1) About 30% of patients have a de novo APC germline mutation (no prior family history)
1. Up to 19% of colorectal cancers develop due to defective function of DNA mismatch repair system
a. Patients with dMMR status are biologically the same as those with high level microsatellite
instability (MSI-H) status though dMMR is determined by immunohistochemistry (IHC) testing
and microsatellite status is determined by next generation sequencing (NGS). This is discussed in
more depth in the Pharmacogenomics module.
2. dMMR/MSI-H status predicts decreased benefit from adjuvant therapy with a fluoropyrimidine in
patients with stage II disease
a. Multiple retrospective reviews have investigated the benefit of using fluorouracil (5-FU)-based
adjuvant chemotherapy versus observation in MSI-H/dMMR patients after curative resection of
stage II or stage III colon cancer
1) Patients with MSI-H/dMMR tumors have significantly increased overall survival (OS),
increased disease-free survival (DFS), and lower rates of tumor recurrence than patients with
MSI-L, MSS, or pMMR who were observed after surgery (IE, no adjuvant therapy)4-6
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2) In patients with MSI-H/dMMR stage II disease, adjuvant therapy was associated with
decreased OS and higher risk of death compared to observation4, 5; however patients with
MSI-H/dMMR stage III disease still experienced benefit from adjuvant therapy over
observation6
b. Patients with stage II MSI-H/dMMR tumors may have a good prognosis and do not benefit from
adjuvant 5-FU therapy2
c. Patients with stage III MSI-H/dMMR tumors can still benefit from 5-FU-based adjuvant therapy
and therefore should be considered for treatment over observation alone6
3. dMMR/MSI-H status also predicts increased benefit from programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1)
inhibitors in patients with progressive metastatic disease (further discussed in Treatment of
metastatic colon and rectal cancer)
b. Both pembrolizumab and nivolumab with or without ipilimumab have shown encouraging
response rates and progression-free survival in heavily pretreated metastatic colorectal cancer
that is dMMR/MSI-H7-9
c. Pembrolizumab and nivolumab with or without ipilimumab have FDA approved indications for
patients with MSI-H or dMMR metastatic colorectal cancer that has progressed following
treatment with a fluoropyrimidine, oxaliplatin, and irinotecan
C. Enzymatic deficiencies
1) 20% anabolic
b. DPD is an enzyme that is involved in the initial and rate-limiting step of 5-FU catabolism
1) Varying concentrations of DPD in humans may affect 5-FU bioavailability and account for
varying patient response to 5-FU
c. DPD deficiency
1) Genetic abnormality in the DPYD gene; partial deficiency occurs in 3-5% and complete
deficiency occurs in 0.2% of general population
3) Low concentration of DPD = increased levels of 5-FU that may result in severe GI toxicities
(mucositis, diarrhea), myelosuppression, neurologic toxicity, and possibly death
4) Screening for DPD deficiency prior to 5-FU exposure is not routinely performed
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a) There are numerous DPYD variants, and only a few have clearly established relationships
to DPD function
a) Testing options range from targeted analysis of specific variants to full coding regions
a) Activity Score 2
ii. Avoid the use of fluoropyrimidines; if these agents are required, the starting dose
should be significantly decreased and early drug monitoring should be implemented
2) Carboxylesterases in the liver and gastrointestinal (GI) tract cleave the side chain to form the
metabolite SN-38
3) SN-38 is then glucuronidated by UGT1A1 in the liver, creating the inactive SN-38G which is
eliminated via biliary excretion into the GI tract
4) SN-38G can be “reactivated” back to SN-38 via bacterial β-glucuronidase enzymes that
remove the glucuronide group
3) Irinotecan dose reductions are recommended for patients who are UGT1A1*28 homozygous
in the prescribing information16
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a) A reduction of at least one level from the starting dose is recommended, however
modifications should also consider the specific dosing regimen and individual patient
characteristics
4) FDA-approved test is available to evaluate for UGT1A1 polymorphisms, however there are
no official guidelines for the use of this test in clinical practice
D. Predictive biomarkers17-21
1. Testing does not demonstrate predictive value for response to anti-EGFR monoclonal antibody (MAB)
therapy and therefore routine testing for EGFR is not recommended
b. Several trials have demonstrated these agents only work in RAS-wild type (WT) disease
c. NCCN Guidelines® and ASCO guidelines recommend testing all patients with metastatic disease
prior to starting an anti-EGFR MAB for treatment
1) All patients with metastatic colorectal cancer who are candidates for anti-EGFR MAB therapy
should have their tumor tested for the following:
iv. RAS mutations in exons 2, 3, or 4 are associated with lack of benefit from anti-EGFR
MAB therapy and may be associated with worse outcomes when added to
chemotherapy
b) Treatment with anti-EGFR MAB therapy should only be considered in patients whose
tumor does not have one of the above mutations (IE, these agents are only appropriate
for wild-type disease)
3. BRAF20
a. BRAF V600E mutation occurs in 5-15% of colorectal cancers and results in poorer prognosis
c. Data suggest lack of activity for anti-EGFR MAB therapy in the presence of V600E mutations
1) The NCCN panel® recommends all patients at diagnosis of stage IV disease undergo
genotyping for BRAF2, 22
d. Unlike other disease states with BRAF V600E mutations responsive to BRAF +/- MEK inhibition,
colorectal cancers with these mutations show limited, if any, response to BRAF inhibitors23
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1) Response rates for single-agent BRAF inhibitors in BRAF V600E-mutated melanomas have
been reported up to 80%, vs <5% seen in BRAF-mutated colorectal cancers
2) The lack of response is hypothesized to be due to feedback activation of EGFR, which leads
to MAPK signaling pathway reactivation, which could in turn result in further progression of
the tumor rather than control
a) Colorectal cancer cells are of epithelial origin and express EGFR; melanoma cells do not
3) In order to overcome this reactivation of the MAPK pathway, BRAF inhibition therapies have
been evaluated with the addition of anti-EGFR MAB therapies
4) This dual inhibition has led to improved response rates, and promising survival outcomes
that are still maturing
e. The NCCN Guidelines® support various regimens containing anti-EGFR MABs and BRAF ± MEK
inhibitors for use in patients with BRAF V600E-mutated metastatic colorectal cancer
1) Colorectal cancer patients with BRAF mutations should not be treated with either an anti-
EGFR MAB alone or a BRAF ± MEK inhibitor alone
A. Chemoprevention
1. Diet
a. Vitamin supplementation24, 25
1) Observational studies associated increase calcium and vitamin D intake with decreased
colorectal cancer risk
b) After 7 years of follow-up, calcium and vitamin D had no effect on the risk of colorectal
cancer (HR 1.08, 95% CI, 0.86 – 1.34)
3) Baron and colleagues confirmed that calcium and vitamin D supplementation did not have a
significant effect on the risk of adenoma
b. High fiber26
1) High fiber diet thought to dilute carcinogens in stool, decrease colon transit time and create
favorable environment in colon
2) Increased fiber intake does not significantly reduce colon cancer risk
2. Cyclooxygenase inhibition27
1) Data have shown the efficacy of using COX-2 inhibitors to decrease the incidence of
colorectal adenomas,28, 29 however due to the risk of cardiovascular events associated with
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their use, COX-2 inhibitors are not recommended routinely for prevention of sporadic
adenomas30
b. NSAIDs27
1) Women who regularly used aspirin (≥2 325 mg tablets per week) had a multivariate risk
reduction (RR) for colorectal cancer of 0.77 (95% CI, 0.67-0.88)
a) Grade B for adults aged 50 to 59 years with a ≥10% 10-year cardiovascular disease (CVD)
risk
b) Grade C for adults aged 60 to 69 years with a ≥10% 10-year CVD risk
ii. Conclusion: COX-2 inhibition in FAP results in reduction of the number of colorectal
polyps, decreases risk of developing colorectal adenocarcinoma, and may also delay
need for a prophylactic colectomy
iii. Due to lack of phase IV data however, the FDA indication for use of celecoxib in FAP
was removed in 201130
b) NSAIDs
i. The use of sulindac or aspirin has not shown to significantly decrease the
development of colorectal adenomatous polyps in patients with FAP30
ii. There are some data that the use of sulindac in combination with erlotinib can
decrease duodenal polyp burden compared to placebo33
B. Screening
1. Various sources have published recommendations for screening including the NCCN Guidelines®,
American Cancer Society (ACS), U.S. Preventative Services Task Force (USPSTF), and the U.S. Multi-
Society Task Force on Colorectal Cancer (USMSTF)
a. The ACS and USPSTF do not have screening guidelines specifically for people at increased or high
risk of colorectal cancer
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Colon Cancer Screening Recommendations2, 30, 34-39
NCCN Guidelines®, ACS, USPSTF, & USMSTF
Average Risk Any one of the following options is appropriate
NCCN®, USPSTF, & Colonoscopy every 10 years
USMSTF: Age ≥50 years
ACS: Age ≥45 years Fecal occult blood test OR Fecal immunohistochemical test (FIT) every 1 year
2. Other high risk patients include those with classical and attenuated FAP, Cowden syndrome, Li-
Fraumeni syndrome, MUTYH-associated polyposis, Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, juvenile and serrated
polyposis syndrome, and colonic adenomatous polyposis of unknown etiology. Refer to the NCCN
Guidelines® for Genetic/Familial High-Risk Assessment: Colorectal for specific screening
recommendations for these patients.
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Screening modalities for colorectal cancer 34, 39, 40
Method Procedure Advantages Disadvantages
Fecal occult Checks for occult (hidden) • No bowel preparation • Colonoscopy needed if abnormal
blood test (FOBT) blood in stool • Inexpensive results
• Easy to use; test can be performed • 50% of colorectal cancers go
at home undetected due to no bleeding at the
• Noninvasive and no sedation time of examination
needed • Certain foods and medications may
alter results
Fecal Uses antibodies to detect • No bowel preparation • Colonoscopy needed if abnormal
immunochemical hemoglobin in stool • No drug or food interactions results
test (FIT) • Improved accuracy compared with
FOBT
• Easy to use; test can be performed
at home
• Noninvasive and no sedation
needed
FIT-DNA test Screens stool samples for • No bowel preparation • May miss diagnosis of polyps
(Cologuard®; aka presence of red blood • No pre-test dietary restrictions • May produce false positive results
stool DNA test) cells and DNA mutations • Easy to use; test can be performed • Colonoscopy needed if abnormal
that may indicate at home results
presence of cancer • Noninvasive and no sedation • Limited data on optimal interval
needed between screening
• Insufficient evidence regarding follow-
up after abnormal tests
Flexible Visualizes distal portion • Can be used for biopsy or excision • Views only lower 1/3 of colon and can
sigmoidoscopy of the colon (lower 35- of polyps miss ~50% of lesions if not done past
60%) and rectum via a • Minimal bowel preparation the sigmoid colon
sigmoidscope • Does not require a specialist • Test availability has declined in the
United States
Colonoscopy Visualizes the entire • Provides information on the • Inability to detect small lesions
colon using a mucosa of the entire colon because of mucosa folds, blind
*Preferred due to
colonoscope • Can be used for biopsy or excision corners, and cecum may not be
its superior ability
of polyps reached
to detect lesions
in proximal or • Highly sensitive diagnostic tool • Full bowel preparation, expensive,
right side of the • Best method for screening high- sedation needed
colon risk patients • Risk of bowel tears or infection
CT colonography Examines the entire colon • Views entire colon • Requires full bowel preparation
(aka virtual via series of X-rays used • Does not require sedation • If polyps or other suspicious lesions
colonoscopy) to produce 2-D and 3-D are detected, a colonoscopy is needed
images for biopsy and/or excision
• Can miss small polyps, some false
positive results
• Expensive
• Unclear follow up for potential of
extracolonic findings
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Patient Case #1 (ARS Question 1):
TG is a 52-year old female who recently underwent her first screening colonoscopy which revealed a sigmoid
mass. Biopsy was consistent with malignancy. Staging scans did not reveal metastatic disease, and therefore she
underwent resection. Pathology revealed moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma, with invasion through the
muscularis propria into the pericolonic tissue, negative margins, and no evidence of perineural or
lymphovascular invasion; 2 of 19 lymph nodes were positive, thus it was staged T3 N1b M0. She presents to the
oncologist for discussion of adjuvant treatment. Her performance status is 1 and she is 6 weeks out from
surgery.
Which of the following is the most appropriate care plan for TG’s stage IIIB colon cancer?
A. Capecitabine
B. FOLFOX
C. FOLFIRI
D. Observation
A. Principles of Surgery 1, 2, 22
4. 12 lymph nodes necessary for adequate sampling to determine node positive or negative disease
a. Transanal excision may be performed for superficial rectal tumors meeting specific criteria
b. Transabdominal resection
1) Abdominoperineal resection (APR) – performed for tumors located in the lower one-third of
the rectum involving the anal sphincter or the levator muscles, and in cases where negative
margin resection of primary tumor results in loss of anal sphincter function and incontinence
a) APR generally removes distal sigmoid colon, rectum, and anus, which requires creation
of a permanent colostomy
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2) Low anterior resection (LAR) – used for tumors located in the mid to upper rectum, leaves
the anal sphincter intact
a) Generally removes primary tumor and 4-5 cm below distal edge of the tumor using TME
(see below) and creation of colorectal anastomosis
3) Total mesorectal excision (TME) – removal of the mesorectum including vascular and
lymphatic structures, fatty tissue, and mesorectal fascia, sparing autonomic nerves
1. Colon cancer - minimal role as rates of distant recurrences are higher than local recurrences
a. May use radiation for a T4 lesion, perforation, incomplete resection or palliative therapy if
unresectable or inoperable - bleeding, obstruction
2. Rectal cancer
a) Utilized to improve resectability of primary tumor (decrease risk for positive margins
and increase opportunity for LAR resection) and to decrease risk of local recurrence
b) Radiation alone after surgery has been found to be inferior to concurrent radiation and
chemotherapy in rectal cancer
3) Metastatic disease
a. Acute toxicity
1) Diarrhea, small bowel disease, proctitis, enteritis, pelvic fractures/decreased bone density,
infertility, sexual dysfunction, erectile dysfunction, urinary incontinence/frequency/urgency
C. Principles of chemotherapy2, 22
1. For recommendations on dosing and schedules of chemotherapy regimens, please refer to the NCCN
Guidelines® for Colon Cancer and NCCN Guidelines® for Rectal Cancer for the most up-to-date
information
1) FOLFOX
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a) There are multiple iterations of FOLFOX. The current standards are mFOLFOX6 and
mFOLFOX7.
b) mFOLFOX6 Q 14 days
i. Bolus 5-FU IV 400 mg/m2, leucovorin IV 400 mg/m2, and oxaliplatin IV 85 mg/m2 Day
1
ii. Infusional 5-FU continuous IV infusion (CIVI) 1200 mg/m2/day x 2 days (over 46-48
hours)
c) mFOLFOX7 Q 14 days
ii. Infusional 5-FU continuous IV infusion (CIVI) 1200 mg/m2/day x 2 days (over 46-48
hours)
3) FOLFIRI Q 14 days
a) Bolus 5-FU IV 400 mg/m2, leucovorin IV 400 mg/m2, and irinotecan IV 180 mg/m2 Day 1
4) FOLFOXIRI Q 14 days
a) Leucovorin IV 400 mg/m2, irinotecan IV 165 mg/m2, and oxaliplatin IV 85 mg/m2 Day 1
i. NCCN® strongly recommends a starting dose of CIVI 5-FU consistent with the
FOLFIRI or FOLFOX regimens, as the higher dose used in original trials is associated
with poorer tolerance in U.S. patients
2. Neoadjuvant
a. Colon cancer
1) For localized disease, regimens usually contain a fluoropyrimidine with or without oxaliplatin
b. Rectal cancer
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1) Used in combination with radiation to increase radiation sensitization and improve systemic
control of disease
3. Adjuvant
b. Results in a 2 - 5 % absolute risk reduction for recurrence of stage II and a 20 - 25 % absolute risk
reduction for recurrence of stage III
c. Adjuvant therapy typically begins 4 to 8 weeks after surgery and lasts for 6 months
1) Certain patients with stage III, low-risk disease may be eligible for 3 months of therapy (see
below)
a) Infusional 5-FU more commonly associated with hand-foot syndrome and GI toxicity
a) Capecitabine associated with significantly lower incidence of grade 3/4 neutropenia and
stomatitis; however also associated with significantly higher incidence of grade 3/4
hand-foot syndrome
a) The MOSAIC trial compared 5-FU/leucovorin to FOLFOX4 in patients with resected stage
II and stage III colon cancer49, 50
ii. There was no difference in disease-free survival (DFS) or OS for stage II disease: DFS
HR 0.84 (95% CI, 0.62-1.14) and OS HR 1.00 (95% CI, 0.7-1.41)
4) Irinotecan is not used in the adjuvant setting for early stage patients
5) No targeted agents are approved for use in the adjuvant setting for early stage patients
4. Metastatic disease
a. Used for palliation of symptoms and to prolong life in patients with unresectable, incurable
disease
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c. Includes either a combination of chemotherapy or single agents in sequential, continuous fashion
(see Treatment of metastatic colon and rectal cancer below for detailed discussion)
2. Stage I
3. Stage II53
3) Presence of one or more of the following high-risk features guides therapy per NCCN
Guidelines®:
b) Lymphovascular invasion
c) Perineural invasion
d) Bowel obstruction
e) Localized perforation
4. Stage III
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c. Can consider capecitabine or 5-FU/leucovorin for patients in whom oxaliplatin may not be a
suitable option
1) The IDEA consortium of trials showed that for patients with low-risk stage III disease (T1-3,
N1), 3 months of CAPEOX is non-inferior to 6 months of CAPEOX in terms of disease-free
survival
i. CAPEOX x3 months
Correct answer is B. Patients with stage III disease are recommended to receive adjuvant chemotherapy for 3-6
months with an oxaliplatin-containing regimen. FOLFOX and CAPEOX are the preferred, Category 1 regimens in
the NCCN Guidelines®.
Answer A is incorrect because TG does not have a contraindication to receive an oxaliplatin-containing regimen
Answer C is incorrect as irinotecan-containing regimens have not been shown to provide survival benefit in the
adjuvant setting
Answer D is incorrect because TG has stage III disease with no known contraindications to chemotherapy
KV is a 73-year old male who presents to his PCP with complaints of bleeding with bowel movements. A
colonoscopy reveals a 3 cm fungating mass at the anal verge. Biopsy of the mass displayed moderately
differentiated adenocarcinoma. An MRI of the pelvis revealed a T3 lesion with involvement of the internal anal
sphincter and intersphincteric fat. CT scans were negative for metastatic disease. He has no other pertinent
medical comorbidities and can perform all of his ADLs.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial therapy for KV’s clinical stage II rectal cancer?
A. Transabdominal resection
B. Radiation alone
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E. Treatment of early stage rectal cancer (stages I, II, III)22
3. Clinical stage
a. Upon diagnosis, patients are staged clinically by endorectal ultrasound (EUS) or MRI of pelvis
a. Findings after resection determine the patient’s pathologic stage, which determines appropriate
post-operative therapy
b. Restaging also helps assess treatment response if neoadjuvant treatment was given
5. Post-operative therapy (adjuvant therapy) is indicated in all patients who receive preoperative
(neoadjuvant therapy) regardless of surgical pathology results for non-metastatic disease
6. Chemoradiation (chemoRT)55-57
a. The addition of chemotherapy to radiation either pre- or postoperatively improves local radiation
sensitization and systemic control of disease
b. Preoperative chemoRT also has increased rates of pathologic complete response, leading to
sphincter preservation
c. Despite improvements in local control, most trials have not shown improvements in DFS or OS
1) The addition of oxaliplatin to chemoRT for rectal cancer is not supported or recommended
2) Bolus 5-FU/RT
3) Refer to the NCCN Guidelines® for Rectal Cancer for information on dosing and schedules of
chemoradiation regimens
7. Chemotherapy
a. Acceptable regimens include:
2) 5-FU/LV or Capecitabine
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NCCN Guidelines® Treatment Pathways for Early Stage Rectal Cancer22
Pathologic Stage I
without high-risk Observation
features
Transanal
excision (if Transabdominal
appropriate) resection (then Consider
follow algorithm observation
Pathologic Stage I below)
with high risk
features
Transabdominal
ChemoRT resection, then
chemotherapy
Clinical Stage I
Pathologic
Observation Chemotherapy
Stage I
Observation
Transabdominal Pathologic
Resection Stage II
Sequential
regimen Option
1*
Pathologic Sequential
regimen Option 1
Stage III or Option 2*
Transabdominal
Chemotherapy
resection
ChemoRT
OR
Clinical Stage II Radiation alone Systemic therapy
Resection
or III for advanced
contraindicated
OR disease
Locally
unresectable or
medically Transabdominal
Observation
inoperable resection
Chemotherapy ChemoRT
OR
Radiation alone Chemotherapy Systemic therapy
Resection
for advanced
contraindicated
disease
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Patient Case #2 (ARS Question 2):
Answer B could be considered if KV had a contraindication to chemotherapy, however the addition the
chemotherapy to radiation has shown significant decreased tumor size, pathologic TN stage, and lymphatic,
vascular, and perineural invasion rates
Answer D is not correct. Addition of oxaliplatin to chemoRT has been studied, and results show no difference in
pathologic response with greater adverse events. The addition of oxaliplatin to neoadjuvant radiation is not
recommended at this time.
2. Principles
a. Chemotherapy is used for palliation of symptoms and to prolong life in patients with metastatic
disease
1) Refer to the NCCN Guidelines® for Colon Cancer and NCCN Guidelines® for Rectal Cancer for
detailed information on dosing and schedules of chemotherapy regimens
c. Liver-directed therapy may also be considered for liver metastases (refer to Locoregional
Therapy section in the Upper Gastrointestinal and Hepatocellular Carcinomas module for more
detailed information)
d. Surgical resection of the primary tumor may be performed for palliation or symptom
management in patients with bleeding, obstruction, or localized abdominal pain due to large or
bulky primary tumor
a) The high morbidity and mortality, as well as conflicting efficacy, make this intervention a
controversial issue
a) Capecitabine is associated with less stomatitis, alopecia, and neutropenia, and higher
incidence of hand-foot syndrome and grade 3/4 hyperbilirubinemia60
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2) The addition of oxaliplatin or irinotecan to 5-FU (FOLFOX or FOLFIRI, respectively) was shown
to increase PFS and TTP, and OS for irinotecan, vs 5-FU alone
a) Concerns about exposing patients to 5-FU, oxaliplatin, and irinotecan in 1st line setting,
leaving limited options beyond 1st progression
5) Either FOLFOX or FOLFIRI may be used 1st line, followed by the other regimen in 2nd line, as
PFS has not been shown to be significantly different; toxicities associated with each regimen
may help determine the sequence66
a) FOLFOX associated with significantly more neurotoxicity, grade 3/4 neutropenia and
thrombocytopenia
b. Bevacizumab
1) Bevacizumab has demonstrated improved response rates and survival outcomes when
added to fluoropyrimidine-based regimens
1) Cetuximab and panitumumab have demonstrated improved response rates and PFS when
added to FOLFOX73-75 or FOLFIRI76, however the addition has not shown to significantly
increase OS
2) The addition of cetuximab or panitumumab to FOLFOX and FOLFIRI for 1st line therapy of
metastatic colon and rectal cancer with RAS wild-type tumors is supported in the NCCN
Guidelines®
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a) FOLFIRI + panitumumab is listed as an option for first-line therapy in the NCCN
Guidelines® based on extrapolation from data in second-line treatment2, 22
3) Cetuximab is associated with rash, infusion reactions, and diarrhea and panitumumab is
associated with rash, diarrhea, paronychia, low magnesium, and mucositis
4) Dosing
b) Cetuximab IV 400 mg/m2 for first infusion, then 250 mg/m2 weekly OR 500 mg/m2 Q 14
days
a) Right-sided tumors occur from cecum to hepatic flexure, and left-sided tumors occur
from splenic flexure to rectum
b) A growing body of evidence77-80 has shown that patients with right-sided, RAS wild-type
primary tumors confer little to no benefit from cetuximab or panitumumab in first-line
therapy
c) The NCCN panel recommends that only patients whose primary tumors originate on the
left side of the colon with RAS wild-type be offered an anti-EGFR monoclonal antibody
for front-line treatment of metastatic disease
i. Until data are more definitive, cetuximab or panitumumab can still be offered for all
RAS wild-type patients in subsequent line therapy
d. Bevacizumab with chemotherapy vs cetuximab with chemotherapy in the front-line setting has
shown no significant difference in overall survival, therefore either targeted therapy is an
appropriate addition to front-line chemotherapy regimens81
b) FOLFIRI ± bevacizumab
c) FOLFOXIRI ± bevacizumab
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c) Nivolumab ± ipilimumab; pembrolizumab (dMMR/MSI-H only) [Category 2B]
a. Principles2, 22
1) In general, metastatic colorectal cancers are treated continuously with systemic therapy in a
sequential fashion upon progression
a) Therapy is stopped either upon change in level of care (IE, hospice) or patient
preference for a treatment “holiday”
3) Please refer to the NCCN Guidelines® for Colon Cancer2 and NCCN Guidelines® for Rectal
Cancer22 sections on Continuum of Care – Systemic Therapy for Advanced or Metastatic
Disease for full algorithm on specific recommendations to sequencing therapy
b. Anti-vascular therapy
c. Anti-EGFR MABs
2) Either agent may also be given alone as monotherapy, as this has shown to improve PFS and
OS compared to best supportive care87, 88
3) If cetuximab or panitumumab is used with initial therapy, then the other agent should not be
used in subsequent lines of therapy. After clinical failure of an anti-EGFR MAB, there are no
data to support the use of the other agent and the NCCN® panel recommends against this
practice2, 22.
d. BRAF-targeted regimens
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1) Patients with BRAF V600E mutation positive disease have worse outcomes compared to
those without the mutation2, 22
a) Blockade with BRAF inhibitors with or without MEK inhibitors has resulted in feedback
upregulation of EGFR via the MAPK pathway, and therefore these agents have been
utilized with anti-EGFR therapies
b) The addition of vemurafenib improved PFS (4.4 vs 2.0 months, P<0.001) and response
rates (16% vs 4%, p=0.08)
c) Toxicities were increased in the vemurafenib arm, including neutropenia, anemia, and
nausea
b) No dose-limiting toxicities were observed and the most common side effects were
acneiform rash and diarrhea
a) A safety lead-in from the BEACON trial91 with encorafenib + binimetinib + cetuximab in
30 patients who had received at least one prior regimen revealed common adverse
effects of diarrhea (77%), acneiform rash (67%), fatigue (63%), and nausea (63%)
c) Six patients discontinued as least one study drug due to adverse effects
d) Efficacy was also assessed, and revealed an overall response rate of 48%, progression-
free survival of 8.0 months (95% CI, 5.6 to 9.3 months), and overall survival of 15.3
months (95% CI, 9.6 months to not reached)
e) This combination was granted a breakthrough therapy designation by the FDA in August
201892
5) These regimens are only appropriate in patients with a BRAF V600E mutation and who have
not previously received an anti-EGFR MAB or a BRAF/MEK inhibitor combination
e. HER2-targeted regimens
1) Based on positive outcomes in HER2-amplified breast and gastric cancers, HER2 regimens
are being evaluated in HER2-amplified colorectal cancers
2) Trastuzumab + lapatinib
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a) The HERACLES trial93 included patients with HER2-positive metastatic colorectal cancer
who had progressed on at least one prior standard of care regimen
c) Median PFS was 21 weeks (95% CI 16-32) and OS was 46 weeks (95% CI 33-68)
d) Toxicities were expected, including diarrhea (78%), rash (48%), fatigue (48%),
paronychia (33%), and conjunctivitis (19%)
3) Trastuzumab + pertuzumab
i. Patients were included who had received at least 1 standard regimen, and no
previous HER2-directed therapy
i. The majority of patients were heavily pretreated, with the median number of prior
treatments of 4
c) Estimated PFS was 2.9 months (95% CI 1.4-5.3) and OS was 11.5 months (95% CI 7.7
months to not reached)
4) These regimens are recommended for HER2-amplified and RAS wild-type patients who have
not received any previous treatment with HER2-targeted therapy
1) Regorafenib (CORRECT95)
b) Regorafenib significantly increased OS (6.4 vs 5.0 months; p=0.0052) and PFS (1.9 vs 1.7
months; p<0.0001) compared to best supportive care
c) Dose modifications required in 76% of patients, of which 70% required more than 1
dose interruption due to adverse events
d) Regorafenib associated with grade 3/4 adverse events of hand-foot skin reaction (17%),
fatigue (9%), diarrhea (7%), hypertension (7%), and rash or desquamation (6%)
e) Administration
(a) Can also titrate dose during 1st cycle to attenuate toxicities per the ReDOS
trial96:
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• First cycle: 80 mg PO daily days 1-7, then 120 mg PO daily days 8-14, then
160 mg PO daily on days 15-21 as tolerated
b) TAS-102 significantly increased OS (7.1 vs 5.3 months; p<0.001), PFS (p<0.001), and
disease control rate (44% vs 16%; p<0.001) compared to best supportive care
c) In TAS-102 group, 53% of patients had a delay in beginning of next cycle by ≥4 days due
to toxicity
d) Grade 3/4 adverse events: neutropenia (38%), anemia (18%), and thrombocytopenia
(5%)
e) Administration
3) Larotrectinib or entrectinib are treatment options for patients with cancers that are NTRK
gene fusion positive98
g. Immunotherapy
1) Pembrolizumab7
b) Patients had treatment refractory progressive metastatic cancer (97.5% patients had ≥2
previous lines of therapy)
c) The dMMR cohorts had increased ORR (40% and 71% vs 0%) and PFS at 20 weeks (78%
and 67% vs 11%) than those in the pMMR cohort
d) These data support the hypothesis that tumors with dMMR are more responsive to PD-1
inhibitors than tumors with pMMR
2) Nivolumab ± ipilimumab8, 9
a) Authors evaluated the efficacy of nivolumab ± ipilimumab in patients with MSI-H and
non-MSI-H metastatic colorectal cancer
c) Responses were observed in the MSI-H group regardless of PD-L1 expression or BRAF or
KRAS mutation status
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3) Based on these data, both pembrolizumab and nivolumab ± ipilimumab have gained FDA
approval as well as support from the NCCN Guidelines® for treatment of patients with
metastatic colorectal cancer that is MSI-H/dMMR for subsequent therapy after failure on
standard lines of treatment
4) Patients progressing of either of these immunotherapy regimens should not be offered the
other2, 22
b. Conversion to resectability
3) If patients are deemed resectable, options for post-resection therapy are adjuvant
chemotherapy or observation
c. Perioperative chemotherapy
3) Pre-operative chemotherapy with oxaliplatin and irinotecan has been associated with
steatosis, steatohepatitis, portal hypertension, and sinusoidal injury, which may affect
outcomes after liver resection103
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b) FOLFIRI or FOLFOX + panitumumab or cetuximab
7) The NCCN® panel recommends to limit neoadjuvant chemotherapy for potentially resectable
metastatic disease to 2-3 months, with adjuvant chemotherapy limited to maximum of 3
months (for a total of perioperative chemotherapy of 6 months)
EH is a 65-year old male with newly diagnosed, KRAS-mutated metastatic colorectal cancer to his liver. He
presents today to begin treatment with FOLFIRI + bevacizumab. During the irinotecan infusion, he experiences
abdominal cramping and diaphoresis. He also experiences an episode of diarrhea.
A. Give atropine, and consider pre-medication with atropine for future cycles
B. Give loperamide, and counsel EH to take loperamide around the clock at home
C. Give octreotide, and consider pre-medication with octreotide for future cycles
D. Give tincture of opium, and counsel EH to take tincture of opium around the clock at home
1. Any chemotherapeutic agent may cause diarrhea, but higher rates of diarrhea are reported with
irinotecan, 5-FU, methotrexate, cytarabine, tyrosine kinase inhibitors, immune checkpoint inhibitors
and stem cell transplant conditioning
a. Underlying malignancy
b. Infection
c. Radiation
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e. Medications other than chemotherapy (antibiotics, opiate withdrawal, SSRIs)
f. Inflammatory disorders
g. Malabsorption
h. Neuroendocrine factors
i. Psychological factors
3. Assessment
c. Severity of symptoms
1) Grading based on Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) Version 5.0108
2) Complicated
b) Grade 3 or 4 diarrhea
4. Management53, 106
a. Uncomplicated CID
3) Frequent small meals and oral hydration (e.g., 8-10 glasses of clear fluids such as water,
sport drinks, broth)
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4) Instruct patients to record number of stools and report any symptoms described above
5) Initiate loperamide 4 mg x 1 followed by 2 mg every 4 hours or after every loose stool (not to
exceed 16 mg/day; 24 mg/day for irinotecan-induced diarrhea)
6) If diarrhea resolves:
c) Patients with radiation-induced diarrhea should continue taking loperamide for the
duration of radiation therapy
7) If mild to moderate diarrhea persists >24 hours on loperamide, increase dose of loperamide
to 2 mg every 2 hours and consider starting oral antibiotics as prophylaxis for infection
8) If mild to moderate diarrhea persists for more than 48 hours on loperamide (24 hours after
starting high-dose loperamide):
a) Discontinue loperamide
c) Patients with chemotherapy-induced diarrhea should undergo complete stool and blood
work-up and replace fluids and electrolytes as needed
b. Complicated CID
2) Octreotide 100 to 150 mcg subcutaneously TID or continuous infusion (25 to 50 mcg/hour) if
patient severely dehydrated, with dose escalation up to 500 mcg subcutaneously TID until
diarrhea is controlled
5) Discontinue any cytotoxic chemotherapy until all symptoms resolve and consider dose
reductions for future cycles
c. Patients who progress to grade 3 or 4 diarrhea while on loperamide therapy for 24 to 48 hours
should be treated as described above
a. Refer above to Metabolism and Pharmacokinetics of Irinotecan in the Genomics section for
background on irinotecan
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1) Acute phase
2) Delayed phase
a) Dose-limiting toxicity
iii. Irinotecan itself can cause severe colonic damage or an increase in mucin secretion
c. Management
1) Acute: atropine
d) May also be given as secondary prophylaxis in a patient with prior acute diarrhea
2) Delayed
a) Loperamide110, 111
c) Supportive management
(b) Goal: drink 3 or more liters of clear liquids/day, which should consist of
electrolyte-containing fluids (sport drinks, broth, decaffeinated tea, etc.)
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(c) Route of rehydration (IV or PO) is dependent upon severity of dehydration and
electrolyte abnormalities
ii. Nutrition
(d) Severe diarrhea may require bowel rest with parenteral nutrition
iii. In addition, follow principles outlined above for treatment based upon severity
Tincture of Contains various opioid Deodorized formulation Alternative second Recommended, despite lack
opium alkaloids including morphine, (10 mg/mL) choice for of literature in CID
which is primary agent for persistent,
10-15 drops in water Pay close attention to
mechanism. Decreases uncomplicated
every 3 to 4 hours formulation being used, as
digestive secretions and
concentrations and dosing
increases gastrointestinal Camphorated
differs
muscle tone, resulting in formulation AKA
reduction in intestinal transit paregoric (0.4 mg/mL)
time. 5-10 mL in water 1 to 4
times daily
Octreotide Decreases secretion of 100 to 150 mcg Persistent Patients may also be
various hormones, such as subcutaneous three uncomplicated or transitioned to octreotide
vasoactive intestinal peptide times daily initially, then first-line for LAR
up titrate to symptom complicated
Prolongation of intestinal May be more beneficial for
control
transit time radiation-induced diarrhea vs
oral opioids
Reduced secretion and
increased absorption of fluid Optimal dosage not well
and electrolytes defined
Budesonide Inhibitory effect on mucosal 9 mg PO once daily Second-line for Effective in loperamide-
prostaglandins persistent, refractory diarrhea
uncomplicated
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Diphenoxylate Decreases intestinal motility 1-2 tablets PO every 6-8 In combination Little published data for CID
via direct action on the hours with loperamide
smooth muscle of the for uncomplicated
intestine
Absorbents Absorbs excess fluid to form 7.5-30 g PO daily Alternative Large volume and abdominal
(psyllium, a gelatinous mass to increase bloating limit use
methylcellulose) density of fecal matter
Correct answer is A. Acute irinotecan-associated diarrhea is a cholinergic reaction; therefore atropine is the
most appropriate treatment to alleviate EH’s symptoms.
Answer B is incorrect because loperamide will not alleviate the cholinergic reaction of acute irinotecan diarrhea.
Loperamide can be considered for delayed diarrhea.
Answer C is incorrect because octreotide will not alleviate the cholinergic reaction of acute irinotecan diarrhea.
Octreotide can be considered for complicated delayed diarrhea or diarrhea that is refractory to loperamide.
Answer D is incorrect because tincture of opium will not alleviate the cholinergic reaction of acute irinotecan
diarrhea. Tincture of opium can be considered for use in persistent, uncomplicated diarrhea.
1. Presentation113, 117
2) Usually occurs within the first few minutes of the 1st or 2nd infusion, however 10 to 30% of
reaction are delayed
a. The Southeastern United States has consistently reported higher incidence of cetuximab-related
infusion reactions (up to 27%), vs the rest of the country (1-3%)
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b. O’Neil and colleagues quantified the rates of hypersensitivity reactions at 3 Southeastern
institutions
2) All patients were pretreated with H1 antagonist, and 65% were given a steroid as an anti-
emetic
3) They reported no significant association between reactions and age, sex, or race
4) There was an association of increase hypersensitivity reactions in lung cancer patients (43%;
P=0.03) and prior significant allergy history (36%; P=0.009)
5) The authors theorized that the increased incidence may be a result of increased exposure to
mouse antigens or other antigens that mimic cetuximab that are regionally based, such as a
particular plant or tree pollen
d. As the reaction typically occurs within 30 minutes of infusion, the use of a test dose has been
proposed but is not standard of care
b. Premedication
4. For detailed management of HSR and infusion reactions, refer to the Gynecologic Malignancies
module
C. Oxaliplatin-induced neurotoxicity120-124
1. Dose-limiting toxicity that is a persistent sensory peripheral neuropathy which has been reported
with all dose levels and schedules of administration
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2. Development is primarily related to total cumulative dose
3. Up to 97% of patients receiving oxaliplatin will have neurologic symptoms and abnormalities during
treatment
4. Patients can develop delayed onset or worsening of the persistent form of neuropathy even after
treatment discontinuation
a. Acute neurotoxicity
3) May regress between treatment cycles, but frequently reoccurs with further treatment
4) Presents as paresthesia, dysesthesia, and hypoesthesia in the hands, feet, perioral area, or
throat
5) Paresthesias without pain occur in about 65% patients and paresthesias with pain occur in
approximately 11% of patients
6) Dysesthesias occur in approximately 68% patients and are exacerbated by cold exposure
8) 13% to 28% of patients receiving doses of 85 to 130 mg/m2 experience severe neurosensory
adverse effects with functional impairment
9) Symptoms resolve in about a week, but can recur with subsequent infusions
b. Chronic neurotoxicity
2) Related to cumulative dose and similar to other forms of platinum- and taxane-induced
neuropathies
b) Onset > 14 days after oxaliplatin dose and can become persistent between treatment
cycles with progression in symptom severity
c) Pain and paresthesias can completely resolve in some cases and may only be partially
reversible or permanent in others
i. Numbness and tingling can worsen during the first 3 months after discontinuing
therapy (sometimes called “coasting”), and then begin to resolve125
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d) Associated with cumulative doses between >540 to 850 mg/m2 or about 6-9 cycles and
it is estimated that 10-15% of patients have moderate neuropathy after a cumulative
dose of 780 to 850 mg/m2121
ii. Longest nerves in extremities are usually the first affected leading to a symmetric,
length-dependent peripheral neuropathy that spreads from distal to proximal
(stocking / glove) distribution
v. Motor weakness symptoms are less commonly reported, and if present are
observed in up to 50% of patients with more persistent and severe sensory findings
6. Pathophysiology120-123
a. Acute toxicity
1) Oxalate metabolite of oxaliplatin chelates calcium and magnesium and interferes with
voltage-gated sodium channels and electrical current
2) Oxaliplatin causes prolonged opening of the sodium channels in sensory nerves that results
in a hyperexcitable state
b. Chronic toxicity
b. Dose reduction
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1) Retrospective review that evaluated Ca/Mg infusions reported less frequent and severe
distal and lingual paresthesias and no reports of pseudolaryngospasm126, however
prospective trials found no benefit (see below)
2) Primary endpoint was duration of disease control (DDC), progression free survival (PFS)
3) Outcomes
a) Median DDC for Arm A was 9 months versus 10.6 months for Arm B (p=0.89)
b) Median PFS for Arm A was 9 months versus 8.7 months for Arm B (p=0.47)
c) Median OS for Arm A was 19.3 months versus 21.2 months for Arm B (p=0.49)
d) Oxaliplatin was reintroduced in 40% of patients per protocol guidelines. 11% had
residual neurotoxicity greater than grade 1
e) Grade 3 sensory neuropathy in 18% of patients in Arm A and 13% in Arm B (p=0.12)
4) Discontinuing oxaliplatin after 6 cycles followed by 5-FU maintenance achieved similar PFS,
OS, and response rates compared to continuing oxaliplatin until disease progression or
toxicity. Patients who received maintenance therapy experienced less grade 3 and 4
toxicities compared to those that received continuous therapy with FOLFOX, including less
neuropathy.
5) This approach may be considered for preventing and/or delaying the development of
sensory neuropathy in patients receiving oxaliplatin-based chemotherapy
2) Because there were mixed results and incomplete data from previous studies, the definitive
N08CB/Alliance128 trial was performed. This trial showed no significant evidence that Ca/Mg
infusions prevent oxaliplatin-induced neurotoxicity, therefore this strategy is not
recommended by NCCN Guidelines®2 nor ASCO.
a) The American Society of Clinical Oncology (ASCO) guideline for prevention and
management of chemotherapy-induced neuropathy does support a moderate
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recommendation for the use of duloxetine for the treatment of chemotherapy-induced
peripheral neuropathy.129
RL is a 64-year-old female with metastatic, KRAS-wild-type colorectal cancer to her liver and lungs. She recently
started FOLFOX + panitumumab and presents today for Cycle 3. She reports a new rash that is pruritic,
occasionally weeps pus, and extends over her face and chest mainly, and partially covers her back.
What is the most appropriate intervention for RL’s grade 2 rash at this time?
A. Continue panitumumab at same dose and initiate topical hydrocortisone and topical clindamycin
B. Continue panitumumab at same dose and initiate oral doxycycline and topical hydrocortisone
C. Hold panitumumab this cycle and initiate oral doxycycline and oral prednisone
D. Dose reduce panitumumab and initiate oral doxycycline and topical hydrocortisone
D. Dermatologic toxicities
a. Dose dependency, pain, and a palmoplantar distribution can be seen with both HFS and HFSR,
however they differ in both histopathological and clinical features130-133
b. HFSR is seen with multi-kinase inhibitors, including sorafenib, sunitinib, and regorafenib131-134
1) HFSR can be seen within the first 2 to 4 weeks after therapy is initiated
a) Presents with dysesthesias, erythema or paresthesias involving the palms and soles with
blisters which are followed by thick hyperkeratotic, tender lesions
b) Lesions arise in areas of friction and/or trauma including the flexural surface of
interphalangeal joints, distal phalanges or heels and may significantly impact weight-
bearing ability and mobility of patients
2) Loss of repair mechanisms by endothelial cells and fibroblasts, when combined with daily
trauma may result in the characteristic palmoplantar symptoms
a) Perform full body exam to locate hyperkeratotic regions on palms / soles and removal of
all calluses
c) Avoid:
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iv. Tight fitting shoes
(a) 12-week incidence of any grade HFSR was 56% vs. 73.6% with significantly
longer time to first occurrence of HFSR (84 days vs 34 days)
c. HFS can be seen with conventional cytotoxic chemotherapies, including capecitabine and 5-FU130,
132, 137
2) More diffuse regions of edema and erythema than seen with HFSR
3) Longer exposure to drug appears to increase incidence; e.g. continuous infusion 5-FU has
higher incidence versus bolus administration
4) Symptom onset is quite variable and may range from a few days to up to 10 months after
therapy initiation
5) Initial symptom is paresthesias followed by symmetrical painful erythema and edema of the
palms and soles after 3 to 4 days; if not managed the lesions may blister, desquamate, form
crusts, ulcerate or progress to epidermal necrosis
6) Conflicting data regarding use of pyridoxine (vitamin B6) for prevention and/or treatment of
HFS. A randomized controlled trial to prevent capecitabine-induced HFS was negative, so not
recommended.
8) Regional cooling strategies also lack adequate evidence to support its use
2) Prophylaxis recommended with ammonium lactate 12% cream BID or heavy moisturizer
(petroleum- or lanolin-based ointments) BID
3) Grade 1
a) Continue antineoplastic treatment at current dose and monitor for change in severity
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c) Reassess in 2 weeks; if reaction is worse or not improved proceed to treatment of next
grade
4) Grade 2
a) Continue antineoplastic treatment at current dose and monitor for change in severity
b) Urea 20% cream BID AND clobetasol 0.05% cream daily to BID AND pain control (with
NSAIDs or GABA agonists or opioids)
5) Grade 3
b) Clobetasol 0.05% cream BID AND pain control (with NSAIDs or GABA agonists or opioids)
c) Reassess in 2 weeks and if reaction is worse or not improved then dose interruption or
discontinuation per PI may be necessary
2) Most cases are mild to moderate in nature; however, up to 32% of providers will discontinue
therapy and up to 76% hold therapy
b. EGFRs play an important role in the development, integrity and physiology of normal skin via the
regulation of keratinocyte proliferation, differentiation and survival
1) The direct inhibition of EGFRs is thought to be the underlying cause of the rash
3) Pathophysiology does not appear to involve underlying bacterial infection, however there
does appear to be some benefit from oral semisynthetic tetracycline antibiotics due to anti-
inflammatory effects140
c. Rash is characterized by papules and pustules coupled with pruritus and pain
1) Distributed in seborrheic areas, such as the face and scalp but is not acne as no comedones
are seen and histopathology differs
2) Changes in the appearance of the skin lesions, oozing of fluid, yellow and/or brown crusting
may be symptoms of superinfection and should be treated promptly
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d. Positive correlation between rash severity and occurrence with overall survival and tumor
response has been proven, therefore it is important to manage the rash so therapy can
continue139
2) Multinational Association for Supportive Care in Cancer (MASCC) Skin Toxicity Study Group
clinical practice guidelines for prevention and treatment of EGFR inhibitor-associated
dermatologic toxicities132
a) Pre-emptive management should be used in all patients due to the high frequency of
rash and the fact that it consistently presents in the first 2 to 4 weeks of therapy
ii. Another study showed that prophylactic minocycline 100 mg QD is also effective
3) Other guidelines and recommendations exist, all espousing similar approach141, 142
f. STEPP: A phase II, open-label randomized trial evaluating a pre-emptive skin regimen in patients
receiving panitumumab143
2) Pre-emptive treatment was started 1 day prior to 1st dose of panitumumab and continued
through weeks 1 to 6 and consisted of:
b) Sunscreen (PABA free, SPF > 15 UVA and UVB protection) before going outdoors
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39
c) Topical hydrocortisone 1% cream at bedtime
a) Any treatments the investigator thought necessary to treat skin toxicity and could be
given at any time during weeks 1 to 6
4) Incidence of grade >2 skin toxicities was 29% and 62% for pre-emptive and reactive groups,
respectively
5) Patients in the pre-emptive group also reported less QOL impairment than patients in the
reactive arm
1) Pre-emptive management
2) Reactive management
c) Grade 3/4: Modify chemotherapy dose per PI; topical hydrocortisone, oral doxycycline
or minocycline, oral prednisone
Correct answer is B. Since RL’s rash is categorized as a Grade 2 rash, the most appropriate therapy would be to
continue panitumumab at the same dose and initiate therapy with topical steroids and an oral tetracycline.
Answer C would be appropriate for a Grade 3 rash, either on first, second, or third occurrence
A. Survivorship
a. Fatigue can last for years after completion of treatment and interventions
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40
2) Patients may require other behavioral interventions including psychosocial interventions,
nutrition consultation, or behavioral therapy for sleep
3) Consider psychostimulants such as methylphenidate after ruling out other causes of fatigue
and failure of other interventions
b. Higher prevalence of chronic diarrhea in patients who have received radiation or an ostomy
1) Anti-diarrhea agents, bulk-forming agents, diet manipulation, pelvic floor rehabilitation, and
protective undergarments should be considered alone or in combination for management
c. Oxaliplatin-induced neuropathy
3) Duloxetine can be considered for painful neuropathy, however it is not effective for
numbness, tingling, or cold sensitivity
a. Patients should be encouraged to achieve and maintain healthy body weight through
appropriate diet and physical activity
1) Active lifestyle should be appropriately modified for any disease or treatment sequelae (IE,
ostomy, neuropathy)
2) Multiple large observational studies have shown that increased activity in non-metastatic
colorectal cancer survivors decreases mortality2
b. Aspirin
1) Numerous trials have shown the benefit of colorectal cancer survivors taking a low-dose
aspirin2
2) A large, population-based study with 23,162 patients with colorectal cancer showed that
low-dose aspirin therapy after diagnosis improved colorectal cancer-specific survival and
overall survival146
3) The NCCN® panel recommends that survivors consider taking aspirin 325mg daily to reduce
their risk of recurrence and death, if the potential risks of aspirin are discussed and
considered2
3. Disease-preventive measures
b. Age and gender appropriate cancer screenings (e.g., breast, cervical, prostate)
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d. CEA can be higher with elevated serum creatinine, hepatic dysfunction or chemo (5-FU) so may
see an increase in CEA and then a decrease after a few months of treatment
e. T ½ is ~ 7 days
2. NCCN Guidelines®2, 22
b. Stage II, III, and IV (with no evidence of disease) colon and rectal cancer
1) History and physical exam every 3-6 months for 2 years, then every 6 months for a total of 5
years
2) CEA every 3-6 months for 2 years, then every 6 months for a total of 5 years
3) CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis every 6-12 months for up to 5 years
3. ASCO guidelines147
a. Colonoscopy 1 year after initial surgery and then every 5 years, dictated by the findings of the
previous one. If not performed before diagnosis, a colonoscopy should be performed after
completion of adjuvant therapy before 1 year
d. Annual CT of the chest, abdomen, pelvis for 3 years after primary therapy
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PANCREATIC CANCER
JM is a 65-year-old male who underwent a Whipple procedure for resectable pancreatic cancer 10 weeks ago.
He now presents to the medical oncologist to begin adjuvant therapy. He did not receive neoadjuvant therapy.
He has recovered quite well from the surgery with an ECOG performance status of 0 and states that his goal is
to return to golfing 2-3 times a week.
What of the following is the most appropriate adjuvant treatment for JM?
A. Observation
B. Gemcitabine
C. Gemcitabine + nab-paclitaxel
D. mFOLFIRINOX
I. Genomics148
A. There are various genetic syndromes associated with increased risk of pancreatic cancer, thought to be
associated with about 10% of cases
B. Lynch syndrome (more information also available in Colon and Rectal Cancer section)
2. Because these patients have germline mutations in DNA mismatch repair genes, these tumors may be
susceptible to immunotherapy
3. The NCCN® panel supports testing patients with locally advanced or metastatic pancreatic
adenocarcinoma for MSI and/or dMMR (Category 2B)
C. Hereditary breast-ovarian cancer syndrome (more information also available in Breast Cancer and
Gynecologic Malignancies modules)
2. The risk for pancreatic cancer is better established with mutations in BRCA2 vs BRCA1
3. The NCCN® Guidelines provide recommended systemic therapies specifically for patients with
mutations in BRCA1/2 (as well as PALB2 mutations), discussed further below
A. Treatment modalities
1. Principles of surgery
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1) Whipple procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy) for tumors in the head of pancreas
d. May be used in the palliative setting for duodenal bypass (gastrojejunostomy) or bypass of biliary
obstruction or biliary stent placement
1) When combined with 5-FU, radiation offers significantly longer median survival (20.9 months
vs. 11 months) in patients who have had curative resection and no adjuvant therapy151
b. Neoadjuvant therapy with 5-FU and radiation has been shown to improve tumor resectability
rates with no change in OS
c. Intraoperative radiotherapy has been investigated but has not been shown to improve survival
e. Split-dose radiation used in most adjuvant trials – no longer recommended and may skew
adjuvant radiation results
3. Principles of chemotherapy
b. Nearly all patients with pancreatic cancer should be evaluated for a clinical trial
c. 5-FU and gemcitabine are the most successful single agents available for the treatment of
pancreatic cancer
1) FOLFIRINOX Q 14 days
a) Bolus 5-FU 400 mg/m2, leucovorin 400 mg/m2, irinotecan 180 mg/m2, and oxaliplatin 85
mg/m2 Day 1
c) mFOLFIRINOX is a modified version, often dropping the bolus 5-FU and with attenuated
doses of irinotecan and/or oxaliplatin
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4) Gemcitabine + cisplatin Q 28 days
a) Gemcitabine 1000 mg/m2 and cisplatin 50 mg/m2 Days 1 & 15 OR Gemcitabine 1000
mg/m2 and cisplatin 25 mg/m2 Days 1, 8, 15, 29, 36, & 43 of a 56-day cycle followed by
gemcitabine 1000 mg/m2 and cisplatin 25 mg/m2 Days 1, 8, & 15 of a 28-day cycle
e. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy
b) Gemcitabine + nab-paclitaxel
B. Pancreatic cancer is treated based on clinical stage rather than TNM stage
C. Resectable disease152
1. Surgical resection remains the primary treatment modality and may occasionally lead to long-term
survival
2. In select patients with resectable disease, but poor prognostic features, neoadjuvant therapy may be
considered
a. Poor prognostic features include: highly elevated CA 19-9, large primary tumor, large regional
lymph nodes, excessive weight loss, or extreme pain
3. Adjuvant therapy
1) Historically, 5-FU with and without radiation was standard of care153, 154
2) Adjuvant chemotherapy can provide a 25% risk reduction for death (p = 0.001), whereas
adjuvant chemoradiotherapy provides no significant difference in survival compared to
chemotherapy alone (p = 0.43) 155, 156
b. Gemcitabine (CONKO-001157)
1) Phase III trial that randomized resected patients to adjuvant chemotherapy with
gemcitabine versus observation
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2) Patients who received gemcitabine had significantly better median disease-free survival
(13.4 months) versus those on observation (6.7 months)
3) OS was also statistically significantly improved in the gemcitabine arm versus observation
(22.8 months vs. 20.2 months, p=0.005)
c. 5-FU/leucovorin (ESPAC-3158)
1) Phase III study conducted by the EORTC compared observation vs. 5-FU / leucovorin vs.
gemcitabine following surgery
1) Phase III study comparing gemcitabine vs. gemcitabine plus capecitabine following surgery
3) Rates of adverse events between the two groups were not significantly different
a) Oxaliplatin 85 mg/m2, leucovorin 400 mg/m2, irinotecan 180 mg/m2, 5-FU 2,400 mg/m2
continuous IV infusion over 46 hours
i. Irinotecan dose was further lowered to 150 mg/m2 per a safety analysis performed
after enrollment of 162 patients
4) Median OS was significantly better in the mFOLFIRINOX group than the gemcitabine group:
54.4 vs 35.0 months (HR 0.64, 95% CI 0.48 – 0.86, p=0.003)
5) Grade 3/4 adverse events were reported in 75.9% patients in the mFOLFIRINOX group and
52.9% patients in the gemcitabine group
1) Adjuvant therapy should be given to patients who did not receive neoadjuvant
chemotherapy and who have recovered from surgery. Treatment should be initiated within
12 weeks after surgery. If chemotherapy precedes chemoradiation, restaging should be
performed after each treatment modality.
2) Options include:
a) Clinical trial
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b) Gemcitabine + capecitabine (category 1, preferred)
d) Gemcitabine (category 1)
i. Preferred over 5-FU/leucovorin as a single agent due to its more favorable toxicity
profile
1) Adjuvant therapy should be offered to all patients with resected pancreatic cancer who did
not receive preoperative therapy
2) Adjuvant treatment should start within 8 weeks of surgery and continued for 6 months
a) Gemcitabine + capecitabine
b) Gemcitabine
c) Bolus 5-FU/leucovorin
Correct answer is D. Based on results from the PRODIGE 24 trial, both the NCCN Guidelines® and ASCO
guidelines recommend mFOLFIRINOX as a preferred regimen for adjuvant treatment of resected pancreatic
cancer for patients with good performance status
Answer A is incorrect because observation has shown inferior results to chemotherapy in the adjuvant setting
Answer B would be an option if JM was not able to tolerate mFOLFIRINOX or gemcitabine + capecitabine
Answer C is incorrect because at this time there are insufficient data to recommended gemcitabine + nab-
paclitaxel for adjuvant treatment
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a. If deemed resectable, surgical resection to be attempted 4-8 weeks after completion of
neoadjuvant therapy
b. For patients who receive neoadjuvant therapy, additional adjuvant chemotherapy after surgery
may be necessary based on pathologic findings
2. Patients may undergo neoadjuvant therapy but never become resectable, in which case they are
treated as locally advanced unresectable or metastatic (if metastatic disease is discovered)
1. At the time of diagnosis, over 85% of tumors have extended beyond the pancreas
2. Some patients are surgically unresectable, but may benefit from chemoradiation
a. Chemoradiation improved median survival (10.5 vs. 5.5 months, p<0.05) over radiotherapy alone
in unresectable disease 165
b. Chemoradiation improved 1-year survival (41% vs. 19%, p<0.05) vs. chemotherapy alone in
unresectable disease 166
1) Demonstrated acceptable toxicity and a median survival of 12.2 months with a median time
to progression of 10 months
3. Chemotherapy alone may be used for management of locally advanced, unresectable pancreatic
cancer
b. Median survival values have been similar to those demonstrated in trials utilizing
chemoradiotherapy for unresectable patients
c. As a result, many institutions consider gemcitabine alone to be the standard approach to this
patient population
a. Good performance status (ECOG performance status 0-1, good pain management, patent biliary
stent, and adequate nutritional intake)
c) Gemcitabine
d) Gemcitabine + erlotinib
e) Gemcitabine + capecitabine
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f) Capecitabine or continuous infusion 5-FU (category 2B)
g) Fixed dose rate (FDR) gemcitabine, docetaxel, capecitabine (GTX; category 2B)
3) For patients with poor pain control or obstructive symptoms, chemoradiation may be
preferred prior to initiation chemotherapy
a. Goals of care, patient preferences, psychological status, patient support systems, and symptoms
should guide treatment decisions
b. ECOG PS 0-1 and favorable comorbidity profile: combination regimen for 6 months
1) Clinical trial
2) FOLFIRINOX
3) Gemcitabine + nab-paclitaxel
1) Gemcitabine
2) Gemcitabine + capecitabine
d. Patients who have local progression on first-line therapy may be offered radiation therapy
e. Patients who have systemic progression on first-line therapy should be treated per the
metastatic disease recommendations
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Patient Case #6 (ARS question #6):
TS is a 74-year-old male who presented to his primary care physician with painless jaundice. Further workup
reveals a mass in the pancreatic head compressing the bile ducts, resulting in a total bilirubin of 7.4 mg/dL. A CT
of his chest, abdomen, and pelvis reveals suspicious lesions in his liver, which are found to be adenocarcinoma,
consistent with a pancreatic primary. After placement of a biliary stent, he is referred to a medical oncologist.
Today his bilirubin is 1.6 mg/dL and he states he currently walks 2 miles a day to and from the local park where
he plays with his dog. TS states he “wants to fight this cancer” for his family. His ECOG performance status is 0.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for TS’s metastatic pancreatic cancer?
A. Gemcitabine
B. Gemcitabine + erlotinib
C. Gemcitabine + nab-paclitaxel
D. Fluoropyrimidine + oxaliplatin
1. Chemotherapy utilizing gemcitabine, 5-FU or other new anticancer agents may be used
a. Burris et al.171
1) Gemcitabine weekly x 7 followed by 1 week of rest, then weekly x 3 every 4-week vs 5-FU
weekly
2) Gemcitabine improved median OS (5.65 vs 4.41 months; P=0.0025), 1-year survival (18% vs
2%), and clinical benefit response (23.8% vs 4.8%; P=0.0022)
a) Clinical benefit is defined as an improvement in pain, lean body mass and Karnofsky
performance status
3) Gemcitabine received FDA approval for metastatic pancreatic cancer based on the significant
improvement in clinical benefit
b) Theoretically, this allows for higher concentrations of the active form of gemcitabine
which may correlate with improved cytotoxicity and enhanced clinical effectiveness
2) Tempero et al.173
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b) FDR improved median OS (8.0 vs 5.0 months; p=0.013), 1-year survival (29% vs 9%;
P=0.014), and 2-year survival (18.3% vs 2.2%; P=0.007)
c) Patients in the FDR arm experienced more grade 3 and 4 anemia, thrombocytopenia,
and neutropenia
d) Despite these promising results, preliminary data from a phase III combination therapy
trial was not able to confirm a benefit with FDR gemcitabine174
e) According to the NCCN Guidelines®, FDR infusion of gemcitabine may be used in place of
the standard 30-minute infusion
3. Combination chemotherapy
1) Although the results of these combination therapy trials indicate favorable response rates
and even time to tumor progression, median OS is still not statistically significant when
compared to gemcitabine alone
b. Gemcitabine + erlotinib180
1) Gemcitabine weekly x 7 for 8 weeks then weekly x 3 every 4 weeks PLUS placebo OR
erlotinib 100 mg PO daily
2) The erlotinib combination improved median OS (6.24 vs 5.9 months; P=0.038), 1-year
survival (23% vs 17%; P>0.023), and overall response rate (57% vs 49%; P>0.07)
3) QOL was similar in both arms except diarrhea was worse in combination arm
4) Severity of rash directly correlated with improved OS in combination arm (10.5 months with
grade 2 rash vs. 5.2 months with no rash, p=0.0001) and 1 year survival (43% vs. 16%), but
no correlation with EGFR expression
c. FOLFIRINOX181
1) Phase II/III study that included patients less than or equal to 75 years old with newly
diagnosed metastatic pancreatic adenocarcinoma (no prior systemic therapy) and ECOG
performance status 0 or 1
3) FOLFIRINOX improved median OS (11 vs 6.8 months; P<0.001), PFS (6.4 vs 3.3 months;
P<0.001), and ORR (31.6% vs 9.4%; P<0.001)
4) QOL was similar in both arms for the first 8 cycles except for diarrhea, which was worse with
FOLFIRINOX
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5) Patients in FOLFIRINOX group experienced significantly more neutropenia (45.7%), febrile
neutropenia (5.4%), thrombocytopenia (9.1%), diarrhea (12.7%), and neuropathy (9%).
Patients in FOLFIRINOX group also had more grade 2 alopecia.
d. Gemcitabine + nab-paclitaxel182
1) Phase III trial including patients over the age of 18 (no maximum age) with newly diagnosed
metastatic pancreatic adenocarcinoma (no prior systemic therapy) and Karnofsky
performance status > 70
4) 44% in the nab-paclitaxel arm had at least a 20% decrease in CA 19-9 (p < 0.001). 31% vs.
14% had a decrease of at least 90% (p < 0.001).
5) Most frequent adverse events in nab-paclitaxel group were fatigue, alopecia, and nausea
a) Nab-paclitaxel group had more grade 3, 4 adverse events of neutropenia, fatigue, and
peripheral neuropathy
4. Maintenance treatment
a. Olaparib has emerged as the first option for maintenance therapy in metastatic pancreatic
cancer in patients with BRCA1/2 mutations
b. The POLO trial183 evaluated olaparib 300 mg PO twice daily vs placebo in patients who had not
progressed during first-line platinum-based chemotherapy
2) Patients were randomized 3:2 to receive olaparib (300 mg PO twice daily) or placebo and
started 4-8 weeks after last dose of chemotherapy
3) The primary endpoint of PFS was significantly longer in the olaparib group (7.4 vs 3.8
months; HR 0.53, 95% CI 0.35-0.82, P=0.004)
4) The adverse effects experiences by the olaparib group were similar to those previously
documented, including fatigue, nausea, anemia, abdominal pain, and diarrhea
5) Of note, the authors state the POLO trial was initiated when FOLFIRINOX chemotherapy was
recommended for only 6 months for metastatic patients; it does not take into account
patients who may continue chemotherapy past 6 months
6) The NCCN Guidelines® support the use of olaparib as maintenance for patients with
BRCA1/2 mutations, good performance status, metastatic disease, and no disease
progression during the first 16 weeks of first-line, platinum-based chemotherapy
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Patient Case #6 (ARS question #6):
The correct answer is C. TS has a PS ECOG score of 0, no pertinent comorbidities, minimal symptoms, good
family support, and his goal is to treat; therefore, he is a good candidate for aggressive chemotherapy with
gemcitabine + nab-paclitaxel or FOLFIRINOX, which are preferred category 1 recommendations from NCCN
Guidelines®.
Answer A is not appropriate because TS is eligible and willing to receive more aggressive chemotherapy.
Gemcitabine alone would be appropriate if his ECOG PS was 2-3.
Answer B is not the most appropriate option because gemcitabine + erlotinib is not considered a preferred
regimen by NCCN Guidelines® despite a category 1 recommendation.
Answer D is not the most appropriate option because although fluoropyrimidine + oxaliplatin is acceptable as
first-line therapy for metastatic disease, it is only a category 2B recommendation and TS can tolerate preferred
regimens at this time
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First-line recommendations for metastatic pancreatic cancer148, 170
Poor Performance Status Good Performance Status*
NCCN Guidelines®
• Gemcitabine (category 1) Preferred Regimens
• Gemcitabine fixed-dose rate (category 2B) • FOLFIRINOX (category 1) or mFOLFIRINOX (options for BRCA
• Capecitabine or continuous infusion 5-FU (category 2B) 1/2 or PALB2 mutations)
• Gemcitabine + nab-paclitaxel (category 1)
• Gemcitabine + cisplatin (only for BRCA 1/2 or PALB2
mutations)
Other Regimens
• Gemcitabine (category 1)
• Gemcitabine + erlotinib (category 1)
• Gemcitabine + capecitabine
• Fixed-dose rate gemcitabine, docetaxel, capecitabine (GTX;
category 2B)
• Fluoropyrimidine + oxaliplatin (category 2B)
ASCO Guidelines®
• Gemcitabine • FOLFIRINOX
• Gemcitabine + erlotinib can be considered • Favorable comorbidity profile, patient preference,
• Gemcitabine + capecitabine can be considered support for aggressive therapy, access to port and
• Best supportive care infusion pump management services
• Gemcitabine + nab-paclitaxel
• Relatively favorable comorbidity profile, patient
preference, support for relatively aggressive therapy
* Good performance status defined as ECOG PS of 0-1, good pain management, patent biliary stent and adequate
nutritional intake
A. Capecitabine monotherapy
B. FOLFOX
5. Subsequent chemotherapy
a. Therapy for patients who have progressed in the front-line setting has been poorly studied and,
at this time, there is no preferred regimen
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a) Received prior fluoropyrimidine-based therapy
i. Gemcitabine
ii. FOLFIRI
iii. FOLFIRINOX/mFOLFIRINOX
1) Phase III trial including patients with metastatic pancreatic adenocarcinoma who progressed
on previous gemcitabine-based therapy given in the neoadjuvant, adjuvant (if distant
metastases developed within 6 months of completing adjuvant therapy), locally advanced,
or metastatic settings
1) Liposomal irinotecan, folinic acid, 5-FU infusion every 2 weeks vs folinic acid + 5-FU infusion
weekly x 4 weeks repeated every 6 weeks
2) Addition of liposomal irinotecan to 5-FU improved median OS (6.1 vs 4.22 months; P=0.012),
median PFS (3.1 vs 1.5 months; P=0.0001), median time to treatment failure (2.3 vs 1.4
months; P=0.0002), and ORR (16% vs 1%)
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4) Liposomal irinotecan + 5-FU / leucovorin has a NCCN Guidelines® category 1
recommendation and FDA approval for treatment of patients with metastatic disease who
have been previously treated with gemcitabine-based therapy
c. Oxaliplatin + 5-FU186
1) Phase III study including patients with metastatic pancreatic adenocarcinoma who
progressed while receiving first-line gemcitabine therapy
3) Study was stopped early due to low recruitment due to decreased acceptance of BSC alone,
however the addition of chemotherapy to BSC improved median survival (4.82 vs 2.3
months; P=0.008) and OS (9.9 vs 7.9 months)
Answer A would be considered if TS had a poor performance status, but he can tolerate a combination regimen
at this time
Answer B is not most appropriate as this is an NCCN Guidelines® Category 2A recommendation for second-line
therapy and TS is eligible for a Category 1 regimen
Answer D would not be considered at this time due to TS’s good performance status and otherwise healthy
demeanor
A. Palliative care focusing on symptom relief and quality of life is an important adjunct in the management of
pancreatic cancer
B. Obstructive jaundice
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c. Surgical biliary bypass
a. Enteral sent
D. Pain
a. Advanced pancreatic cancer often infiltrates the retroperitoneal nerves of the upper abdomen
2. Pharmacologic approaches
a. Systemic narcotics
c. Topical analgesics
3. Invasive techniques should be considered for patients who may be unresponsive to narcotics or those
who develop undesirable side effects
a. Intrathecal pumps
c. Epidural pumps
2. Encourage discussion about the natural history of the disease and provide support through the
primary oncology team and specialists
1. 65% of patients with pancreatic cancer will have some degree of fat malabsorption due to pancreatic
exocrine insufficiency
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2. Develops due to loss of pancreatic parenchyma, obstruction of main pancreatic duct, decreased
pancreatic stimulation, or acid mediated inactivation of pancreatic enzymes.
4. Management
a. Diet187
1) Fat restriction should not be considered, as it may lead to insufficient intake of fat-soluble
vitamins
2) Dose is based on lipase units and titrated based on clinical symptoms, degree of steatorrhea
and the fat content of the diet
3) Starting dose is generally 500 lipase units/kg/meal rounded to the closest dosage form
available. Half of the prescribed dose should be given with each snack. The maximum dose
is 10,000 lipase units/kg/day.
a) Efficacy appears to be higher when enzymes are administered either portioned along
with meals or after completion of meals compared to before meals
b) NCCN Guidelines® recommends administering half the dose at the beginning of the
meal, and half the dose in the middle of the meal
4) Several products are commercially available; however, products are not interchangeable
5) Insufficient response
G. Thromboembolic disease
1. Pancreatic cancer patients are at a substantial risk for venous thromboembolic disease
2. There is a lack of evidence supporting the use of prophylactic anticoagulation, therefore the NCCN®
panel only recommends treatment of venous thromboembolisms148
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3. Treatment
a. Based on results of the CLOT and CONKO-004 trials, low-molecular weight heparins are the
preferred therapy over warfarin189, 190
b. The NCCN® panel does not address the use of direct-acting oral anticoagulants at this time
1. Local recurrence after surgery alone for non-metastatic disease occurs in 85% of the patients
a. Liver metastases are most common, occurring in 50-70% of the patients after potentially curative
resection followed by adjuvant chemo-radiotherapy
2. History and physical exam, CA 19-9, and CT scan of chest, abdomen, and pelvis should be performed
every 3-6 months for 2 years, then every 6-12 months
B. CA 19-9148
2. Not specific for pancreatic cancer; levels can be elevated in other GI cancers
b. Levels may also be elevated in the presence of biliary inflammation, obstruction, or infection,
thus accurate levels may only be obtained after total bilirubin has returned to normal limits
3. Frequently normal in the early stages of pancreatic cancer so it is not suitable for screening
4. Useful in patients with suspected pancreatic cancer when accompanied by other tests and in follow-
up during and after treatment
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ANAL CANCER
A. Risk Factors
a. Approximately 6,000 cases of anal cancer are caused by HPV196, out of the total 8580 new cases
each year
b. Persistent infection with high-risk subtypes or infection with multiple HPV genotypes
1) Over 80 different HPV subtypes, at least 23 of which infect the anogenital mucosa
2) HPV-16 associated with approximately 73% of HPV-positive cases; HPV-18 also a high-risk
form
2. HIV infection
a. Difficult to fully separate from confounders (anoreceptive intercourse, men who have sex with
men)
b. Population-based study demonstrated that incidence relatively similar before the introduction of
HAART therapy (0.8 per 100,000) versus after the introduction of HAART therapy (1.0 per
100,000)
3. Immunosuppression
a. After solid organ transplantation, patients at higher risk for any squamous cell carcinoma
b. Corticosteroid use shown to increase risk in both men (OR, 3.2) and women (OR, 2.3)
4. Cigarette smoking
a. Risk increases for current smokers vs former smokers for both men (OR, 3.9; 95% CI 1.9-8.0 vs
OR, 0.9; 95% CI 0.4-1.9) and women (OR, 3.8; 95% CI 2.3-6.2 vs OR, 1.5; 95% CI 0.9-2.6)
regardless of age and other risk factors
b. Current smoking appears to have a promotional effect at late stages of disease progression
a. Men who are not exclusively heterosexual have increased risk vs men who are (OR, 17.3; 95% CI,
8.2 – 36.1)
b. Women who reported anoreceptive intercourse at higher risk (overall adjusted OR, 2.2; 95% CI
1.4 – 3.3)
B. Routine screening for anal cancer not recommended, even in high-risk individuals
1. The quadrivalent vaccine (active against HPV-6, -11, -16, -18 valents) has been shown to reduce the
occurrence of anal intraepithelial neoplasia (AIN) vs placebo in men who have sex with men (16 to 26
years of age) with an observed efficacy of 77.5% (95% CI, 39.6 – 93.3)197
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a. The vaccine also reduced persistent infection with HPV-6,- 11, -16, or -18 with an observed
efficacy of 59.4%
1) Although no anal cancers developed in either group during the 3-year observation period, it
is believed that the reduction in the rates of AIN could lead to a reduction in the rates of anal
cancer in this population
2. The 9-valent vaccine (active against HPV-6, -11, -16, -18, -31, -33, -45, -52, -58 valents) is the only HPV
vaccine available in the United States
a. Although the 9-valent vaccine has no published data regarding prevention of AIN and/or anal
cancer, it is predicted to prevent 464 cases of anal cancer annually192
3. The Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP)196 and the American Cancer Society
(ACS)198 both support HPV vaccination for males and females aged 9 through 26 years
a. Although the 9-valent vaccine is FDA-approved for adults aged up to 45 years, the ACIP does not
recommend “catch-up” vaccination for adults aged 27 to 45, but rather recommends shared
clinical decision making with those who are not adequately vaccinated
VP is a 64-year-old female with HIV since 1996 on HAART therapy who presents with increasing discomfort with
defecation over the past two months. A sigmoidoscopy demonstrated a firm, fixed obstructing rectal mass 3 cm
from the anal verge. This was biopsied and found to be consistent with a squamous cell carcinoma. She has no
evidence of metastatic disease.
Which of the following treatment options is most appropriate for VP’s localized anal cancer?
B. Radiation alone
2. Refer to the NCCN Guidelines® for Anal Carcinoma for dosing and schedules of chemoradiation and
chemotherapy regimens
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a. Nigro protocol199
1) Nigro and colleagues were the first to show complete tumor regression in some patients
treated with neoadjuvant chemoradiation
2) Of the 28 patients included in trial, 24 patients had no gross tumor in the anal canal
following treatment
b. Further trials have compared 5-FU plus mitomycin with concurrent radiotherapy vs radiotherapy
alone200-202
c. These trials affirmed that the standard of care for non-metastatic anal cancer should be
chemotherapy regimen of 5-FU and mitomycin concurrent with radiotherapy
a) Capped at 20 mg
a. Capecitabine known to be an acceptable alternative to 5-FU in colon and rectal cancer data
1) Capecitabine 825 mg/m2 BID on days of radiation only (Monday through Friday), with
mitomycin on day 1, had expected toxicities of severe moist skin desquamation, diarrhea,
and myelosuppression
2) Local control at the timing endpoint of 6 months was seen in 28 patients (90%)
c. Retrospective data have found lower toxicities with capecitabine-based chemoradiation204 and
no significant differences in clinical complete response or longer term outcomes when compared
with 5-FU-based chemoradiation205
a. Intergroup RTOG 98-11206 compared 5-FU + mitomycin against 5-FU + cisplatin both with
concurrent radiotherapy
1) 5-FU + cisplatin regimen involved an induction period with chemotherapy alone followed by
the same chemotherapy with radiation
a) 5-FU 1000 mg/m2/day CIVI Days 1-4, cisplatin 75 mg/m2 Day 1; repeat every 4 weeks
b. Although not statistically significant, trends favored the mitomycin group in local-regional
relapse, disease-free survival, and OS
c. Colostomy rates were significantly increased in the cisplatin group at 3 and 5 years (p=0.02)
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d. Grade 3/4 nonhematologic toxicities were the same in each group (74%), but grade 3/4
hematologic toxicities were significantly worse with the mitomycin group (61% vs 42%, p<0.001)
e. Authors concluded cisplatin-based chemoradiation should generally be avoided for patients with
localized anal cancer unless they are unable to tolerate mitomycin
4. Summary
a. Surgery plays a minimal role in localized disease; the preferred primary treatment is
chemotherapy with radiation
b. Preferred regimens
c. Other regimen
Answer A is not appropriate because APR is not recommended for first-line therapy of anal cancer due to long-
term morbidity complications and high local recurrence rates
Answer B is not appropriate because the addition of chemotherapy to radiation has been shown to improve
complete remission rates, reduce locoregional recurrence, and decrease risk of having a colostomy compared to
radiation alone
Answer D is not appropriate because chemoradiation with 5-FU and cisplatin has been shown to have non-
superior outcomes and increased colostomies compared to 5-FU and mitomycin. In addition, it is only a
Category 2B recommendation from NCCN®.
2. Higher recurrence rates associated with tumor size >5cm, male sex, and positive local lymph nodes
3. Patients who develop locally progressive disease should undergo APR and colostomy
1. Because of the rarity of metastatic anal cancer, there are limited data on treatment
3. First-line treatment
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a. 5-FU + cisplatin208
1) Out of 19 patients, response rate was 66% with 1 complete response and 11 partial
responses
b. Eng and colleagues conducted a retrospective review of metastatic anal cancer patients, which to
date is the largest of its kind207
1) Of the 77 patients included in the review, 42 (55%) received 5-FU plus cisplatin, 24 (31%)
received carboplatin plus paclitaxel, and 11 (14%) received another regimen
2) The median survival favored 5-FU plus cisplatin (8 months, 95% CI 4.5 – 11.5 months) vs
carboplatin plus paclitaxel (4 months, 95% CI 1.7 – 6.3), however not to a significant degree
3) Authors concluded that either cisplatin + 5-FU or carboplatin + paclitaxel are reasonable
options for treatment of metastatic anal cancer
c. FOLFOX can be considered for patients, especially those with adenocarcinoma histology
d. 5-FU + cisplatin, carboplatin + paclitaxel, or FOLFOX can be given alone or in combination with
radiation
e. Preferred regimen
f. Other regimens
2) FOLFOX
4. Subsequent treatment192
2) Nivolumab was studied in patients regardless of PD -L1 status, however pembrolizumab was
studied only in patients who were PD-L1 positive (PD-L1 > 1%)
b. If patients progress on a platinum-based regimen in the first-line, they should not be given a
platinum-based regimen in the second-line setting
1. Acute toxicities include anoproctitis, perineal dermatitis, moist desquamation, pain, fatigue,
genitourinary complications, and diarrhea
2. Long-term toxicities include increased frequency and urgency of defecation, chronic perineal
dermatitis, dyspareunia, impotence, infertility, and bone injury
©2020 American Society of Health-System Pharmacists, Inc. and American College of Clinical Pharmacy. All rights reserved.
64
3. Both men and women should discuss fertility issues, if relevant, with their oncologist
2. Patients should be advised to care for the area by avoiding tight clothes that may rub or irritate the
area
3. Cleaning the area may be difficult; patients should use lukewarm water and mild soap without
perfumes or dyes
C. Diarrhea management (see diarrhea management in Colon and Rectal Cancer Supportive Care)
A. Development of metastatic disease seems to be highest within first 2 years after treatment for locally
advanced disease207
1. Patients should be re-evaluated by digital rectal exam (DRE) between 8 to 12 weeks after completion
of chemoradiation
2. About 1/3 of patients who do not show a complete response by this time may take up to 26 weeks or
longer to achieve a complete clinical response
3. The NCCN® panel recommends to follow these patients for up to 6 months after completion of
treatment
4. If clinical evidence of disease is absent, patients are recommended to undergo evaluation with DRE,
anoscopic evaluation, and inguinal node palpation every 3 to 6 months for 5 years
5. For patients with slow disease regression, annual chest, abdominal, and pelvic imaging is
recommended for 3 years
C. Long-term side effects from treatment affects quality of life209, 211, 212
1. Avoidance of APR and permanent colostomy is the main reason for transition to definitive
chemoradiation
2. Bowel dysfunction (diarrhea, fecal incontinence, flatulence) and sexual dysfunction (impotence,
dyspareunia) are the most commonly reported issues after chemoradiation in quality of life literature
D. Sexual dysfunction145
1. Patients should be referred to a sexual health specialist if interested and re-evaluated at regular
intervals
2. Patients with global symptoms of distress may benefit from anxiolytics or antidepressants
3. Females with vaginal dryness or other issues may benefit from topical therapies (vaginal
moisturizers/lubricants, topical hormones, topical anesthetics)
4. Males with impotence may benefit from oral phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors
©2020 American Society of Health-System Pharmacists, Inc. and American College of Clinical Pharmacy. All rights reserved.
65
RECOMMENDED READINGS
1. Cersosimo RJ. Management of advanced colorectal cancer, part 1. Am J Health Syst Pharm. 2013; 70:395-
406. (http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/23413162)
2. Cersosimo RJ. Management of advanced colorectal cancer, part 2. Am J Health Syst Pharm. 2013; 70:491-
506. (http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/23456402)
3. Jimeno A, Messersmith WA, Hirsch FR, et al. KRAS mutations and sensitivity to epidermal growth factor
receptor inhibitors in colorectal cancer: practical application of patient selection. J Clin Oncol. 2009;
27(7):1130-6. (http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/19124802)
Anal Cancer
Pancreatic Cancer
1. Neoptolemos JP, Palmer DH, Ghaneh P, et al. Comparison of adjuvant gemcitabine and capecitabine with
gemcitabine monotherapy in patients with resected pancreatic cancer (ESPAC-4): a multicentre, open-
label, randomised, phase 3 trial. Lancet. 2017;389:1011-1024.
(https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/28129987)
2. Wang-Gillam A, Li C-P, Bodoky Gr, et al. Nanoliposomal irinotecan with fluorouracil and folinic acid in
metastatic pancreatic cancer after previous gemcitabine-based therapy (napoli-1): A global, randomised,
open-label, phase 3 trial. Lancet. 2016; 387: 545-57. (http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/26615328)
3. Conroy T, Hammel P, Hebbar M et al. Folfirinox or gemcitabine as adjuvant therapy for pancreatic cancer.
N Engl J Med. 2018; 379: 2395-406. (https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/30575490)
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