5 6318982114687582675

ADVANCED FINANCIAL STATEMENT ANALYSIS – I (L0312)
Qus: The benchmark for Gross Average DSCR is:

Ans: 1.75
Qus: Net Working Capital is calculated as:

A. Current Liabilities - Current Assets.
B. (Net Worth + Term Liabilities) – (Fixed Assets + Non-current Assets + Intangible Assets).
C. Current Assets – Current Liabilities.
D. Both (b) & (c) above.
Qus: Working capital is needed by the business to:

A. Pay suppliers and other creditors
B. Pay employees
C. Pay for stocks and allow credit to buyers.
D. All of the above.
Qus: Stores and spares (12 months holding – imported) and 9 months holding (indigenous) are classified as:
Ans: Current Assets.
Qus: Overtrading is:

Ans: Bad for the enterprise.
Qus: Receivables more than 6 months overdue from their due date are classified as:
Ans: Non-current Assets.
Qus: Investments in Associates / Subsidiaries are classified as:

Qus: The Current ratio is an indicator of:

Ans: Liquidity
Qus: The broad heads under which liabilities of the balance sheet are classified are:
A. Non-Current liabilities.
B. Current Liabilities.
C. Deferred / Term Liabilities.
D. Net worth.
E. (b), (c) & (d) above.
Qus: In the Percentage of Sales method of analysis:

Ans: Individual cost components are expressed as percentage of net sales during the year.
Qus: Advance/progress payments received from customers should be classified as:

Ans: Current Liabilities.
Qus: Deposits which are not likely to be refunded in the next one year and kept with public bodies are classified as:
Qus: Slow moving and obsolete items of inventory are classified as:
Qus: When analyzing share capital of a firm / company, the focus is on:
A. Issue of shares other than against cheque.
B. Issue of bonus shares.
C. When share application money was received.
Qus: When analyzing investments, the credit analyst must focus on:
A. Valuation of investments.
B. Return generated by the investments
C. Investment in associate and subsidaries
SKA
Qus: When analyzing fixed assets, the lender must focus on:
A. Land details, extent and availability of land for expansion.
B. Composition of Intangible Assets.
C. Capital work in progress and method of depreciation
Qus: When analyzing debtors/receivables, the focus is on:

A. Period for which outstanding.
B. Whether balance confirmations are available.
C. Whether doubtful debts have been provided for.
Qus: When analysing inventory, the focus must be on:

A. Method used in valuing the inventory.
B. Its quality and saleability.
C. Goods in transit.
Qus: In analyzing sales in the P & L account we focus on:

A. Quality and quantity of goods sold.
B. Contribution to sales from core and non-core activities.
C. Trends in sales over a period of 3-4 years.
Qus: Deposits taken from dealers / agents, where the dealership / agency is likely to be terminated in the next one year,
will be classified as:
Ans: Current Liabilities.
Qus: What is a financial statement?

A. It is a formal record of the financial activities of a business, person or other entity.
B. It provides an estimation of financial status of the organization.
C. It is a passbook showing record of financial transactions issued by the bank.
D. (a) and (b) above.
Qus: A high turnover ratio is a sign that the company is producing and selling its goods or services very quickly.
Ans: true
Qus: Return on Capital Employed (%) is calculated using the formula: (PBDIT / Total Assets) x 100.
Ans: true
Qus: Interest coverage ratio is PBDIT / Interest.

Ans: true
Qus: Accounting Ratios may be used in locating weaknesses of a company, though its overall performance may be very
good.
Ans: true
Qus: Auditors conduct Audit in accordance with Auditing Standards that are generally accepted in India.
Ans: True.
Qus: Profits accrued from sale of fixed assets cannot be credited to P & L account.
Ans: True.
Qus: Debtor Turnover Ratio indicates time lag between credit sales and cash collection.
Ans: true
Qus: Inventory Turnover ratio is a measure of the number of times a company's inventory is replaced during a given time
period.
Ans: true
Qus: Capital Subsidy can be added to other income in P & L account.
SKA
Ans: False.
ADVANCED FINANCIAL STATEMENT ANALYSIS - II (L0313)
Qus: An increase in closing stock of raw material over the previous year’s level is:
Ans: A use of funds.
Qus: An increase in fixed assets over the previous year’s level is:
Qus: An increase in bank borrowing is:

Ans: A source of funds.
Qus: An increase in interest outstanding and unpaid over the previous year’s level is:
Ans: A short term use of funds
Qus: A decrease in investment level over the previous year’s level is:
Qus: A decrease in debentures outstanding is:

Qus: A decrease in sundry creditors level over the previous year’s level is:
Qus: A decrease in sundry debtors level over the previous year’s level is:
Qus: For Financial Enterprises, the dividend paid is classified as cash out flow due to:
Ans: Financing activities.
Qus: For non-Financial Enterprises, the dividend paid is classified as cash out flow due to:
Qus: For Financial Enterprises, the interest paid is classified as cash out flow due to:
Ans: Operating activities
Qus: For Financial Enterprises, the interest and dividend income is classified as cash flow from:
Qus: For non-financial enterprises, the interest paid is classified as cash flow due to:
Ans: Investing activities.
Qus: Cash flow from Operating Activities means inflow / outflow of cash on account of principal revenue producing
activities such as:
A. Sale of goods and services.
B. Payment to suppliers
C. Payment for employees
D. Income tax on income earned during the year.
E. All of the above.
Qus: Cash flow from Investing Activities means inflow / outflow of cash on account of changes in long term assets side of
the balance sheet such as:
A. Purchase of fixed assets.
B. Sale of fixed assets.
C. Purchase / sale of long term investments.
SKA
Qus: Cash flow from financing activities means changes on the liability side of the balance sheet (except current assets)
such as:
A. Issue of new shares.
B. Redemption of debentures.
C. New funds borrowed.
D. Repayment of borrowings.
Qus: Cash flow relating to movement in inventories is relatable to:

Qus: Cash out flow due to corporate tax on income is classified in:
Qus: Cash out flow due to dividend distribution tax is classified in:
Ans: Financing activities
Qus: Which of the following questions does a funds flow statement help to answer?
A. Whether any funds have been generated from the operation of the business? If so, where did the funds go?
B. What is the ratio of the funds distributed to owners vis-à-vis the funds retained in the business?
C. If there has been an increase in the working capital, how has it been financed?
D. Why is NWC increasing when profit earnings are deteriorating?
Qus: Which accounting standard deals with rules for preparation of cash flow statements?
Ans: AS 3
Qus: What is a Funds Flow Statement?

Ans: The statement of changes in financial position is also known as statement of funds flow.
Qus: The Funds flow statement is also known as:

Ans: The statement of sources and uses of funds.
Qus: What is Profit after Tax?

Ans: It is a source of funds.
Qus: In the context of the cash flow statement, the broad heads under which cash flows of an enterprise are classified are:
Ans: Operating, Investing and Financing activities.
Qus: The question - Whether acquisition of the additional capital assets has been funded entirely by long-term sources or
funds have been utilized for the purpose from short-term sources , is answered by which statement?
Ans: Funds Flow Statement
Qus: While preparing a cash flow statement, non-cash items debited to P & L a/c are added back to:
Ans: Net profit before taxation.
Qus: In Company B’s Funds flow statement, the total of long term sources are much less than total of long term uses.
Choose the correct option from the statements given below:
B. Company B’s financial condition is precarious.
C. Company B may default on short term payments unless more long term sources are raised.
D. Both (B) and (C) above.
Qus: Company D sold investments made in certain mutual funds and received Rs. 25 lacs by cheque. In a cash flow
statement, this will be classified under:
Qus: Company E made a rights issue of Rs. 300 crore and received all the payments by cheques/DD. In a cash flow
statement, this will be classified under:
Qus: Company G rapaid term loan installments of Rs. 10 crores to its banker. In a cash flow statements, this will be
classified under:
SKA
Qus: Company X purchased fixed assets worth Rs. 50 lacs against cheque payment. This transaction will be classified
under ___________ in a cash flow statement.
Qus: Company Y increased its investment in subsidiary A by Rs. 10 lacs. In a cash flow statement, this will be classified
under:
Qus: Company Z bought back GDRs worth Rs.200 crore and paid the amount by warrants to its GDR holders. In a cash
flow statement, this will be classified under:
Qus: Company D’s funds flow statement shows a long term surplus being used to fund a short term deficit. This is a case
of poor fund management.
Ans: True.
Qus: In an ideal situation a company should generate a positive cash flow from operating activities.
Ans: True.
Qus: The Funds flow statement indicates the changes in financial position of an enterprise between two balance sheet
dates.
Ans: False.
Qus: An increase in share capital is a use of funds.

Ans: False.
Qus: A loss is a source of funds.

Ans: False.
Qus: Company C’s funds flow analysis shows a long term deficit being funded out a short term surplus. This indicates that
no diversion of working capital funds has taken place.
Ans: False.
ADVANTAGE OF ALTERNATING CHANNEL (L0545)
Qus: RINB is ____________

Ans: Retail Internet Banking
Qus: CINB means -

Ans: Corporate Internet Banking
Qus: POS is
Ans: Point of Sales
Qus: Another name of POS is ________

Ans: MAB
Qus: CDM means -

Ans: Cash Deposit Machine
Qus: GCC means -

Ans: Green Channel Counter
Qus: Full form of GRC is

Ans: Green Remit Card
Qus: MAB means -

Ans: Merchant Acquiring Business
SKA
Qus: SSK means -
Ans: Self Service Kiosk
Qus: Customer can use GRC for __________ transactions

Ans: Fund transfer
Qus: __________ facility is for funds transfer, enquiry services, bill payments, mobile top-up, etc.
Ans: MBS
Qus: One can use various _________ for managing their own accounts or doing transactions.
Ans: Alternate Channels
Qus: We have to ensure -

Ans: Customer enjoy benefits of technology
Qus: Customer can withdraw cash, can take print of mini statement of his account etc. through ______
Ans: ATM
Qus: Increased business can be handled by staff members if -

Ans: If Alternate Channels are used optimally
Qus: One of the facilities Green Channel Counter (GCC) provides :

A. Cash Withdrawal
B. Opening of e-S/TDR account
C. Tax payments
Qus: If transactions are done through Alternate Channels -

Ans: Staff has not to check VVR
Qus: Customers can make payments through ___________ machines easily now installed at even small shops.
Ans: POS
Qus: Customer can make payments through ______ easily now installed at even small shops.
Ans: POS
Qus: Customer can transfer funds to third party accounts through ______ by using Alternate Channels
Ans: RTGS/NEFT
Qus: Which one of the following is true?

Ans: Technology now plays a pivotal role in product and process delivery
Qus: __________ Technology will result in better asset quality and fee based income.
Ans: Leveraging of
Qus: Which of the following is the cost reduction process?

Ans: Alternate Channels
Qus: Technology helps in -

A. Retaining same/old customers
B. Attracting new business
C. Both a & b above
D. None of the above
Qus: _________ has become the major growth driver both in business and profit.
Ans: Service Delivery
Qus: Does use of various Alternate Channels of bank is beneficial to the bank customers, bank and staff -
Ans: True
Qus: Does the technology products and processes reduce staff stress and save customers time
Ans: TRUE
SKA
Qus: Technology helps in enhancing the brand image of the bank -
Ans: True
AGRI CREDIT PROCESS - POST SANCTION (L0278)
Qus: Upfront fee for agriculture Term Loans is waived upto a limit of _____ .
Ans: Rs.2,00,000
Qus: Maximum cover available to a Kcc borrower under PaIS in the case of death or permanent disability is _________ .
Ans: Rs.50,000
Qus: Insurance of produce may be waived under Produce Marketing Loan up to the limit of
Ans: Rs.15,000
Qus: Compilation of opinion report on borrower and guarantor is necessary in case the exposure exceeds
Ans: Rs. 1,00,000
Qus: Irregularity report exceeding sanctioned limit should be submitted to the sanctioning authority
Ans: Within 10 days from the end of the month
Qus: What is the validity of sanction of working capital where pricing concessions are involved?
Ans: 1 Month
Qus: What is the validity of sanction of Term Loan where pricing concessions are involved?
Ans: 2 Months
Qus: Validity of sanction of Term Loan where no pricing concessions are involved is
Ans: 6 Months
Qus: book debts more than _______ are not taken into account for arriving at drawing Power.
Ans: 6 months
Qus: Validity of sanction of working capital where no pricing concessions are involved is
Ans: 3 Months
Qus: Produce Marketing Loan is to be repaid within a maximum period of

Ans: 12 months
Qus: In the case of takeover of agriculture advance, the account should be a Standard asset in the books of other bank/FI
during the preceding __ years.
Ans: 2
Qus: a Kcc holder up to the age of ___ can be covered under PaIS.
Ans: 70 years
Qus: Which of the following documents is executed for crop Loans up to Rs. 1 lac?
A. AB1
B. AB1 (Sim)
C. Arrangement letter
D. (B) & (C) above
Qus: The revival letter required to be executed for the hypothecation agreement and to be signed by the borrower is
Ans: AB 4
Qus: The revival letter required to be executed for the guarantee agreement and to be signed by the guarantor is
Ans: AB 5
Qus: The document required to be executed for limits beyond Rs. 1 lac, where guarantee has also been obtained in
addition to charge on land, is
SKA
A. AB1, AB2
B. AB3
C. Arrangement letter
D. (b) & (c) only
E. (a), (b) & (c) above
Qus: The loan sanctioned by one authority is required to be reviewed by

Ans: The next higher authority
Qus: The borrower can withdraw the amount from Kcc account within Maximum drawing permissible through
A. Kcc withdrawal form
B. cheque
C. State Bank Kisan card
D. (a), (b) & (c) above
Qus: The authority for approving conversion of crop loans & rephasement of term loans in the bank is
Ans: authority having discretion to sanction such a loan
Qus: Kcc is to be reviewed once in

Ans: Every year
Qus: Drawing Power is given on

Ans: current assets
Qus: Field Officer should prepare his tour programme well in advance and get it approved from
Ans: branch Manager
Qus: For fully disbursed term loans, the inspection charges shall be levied on
Ans: Outstanding as on 30th September each year
Qus: during disbursal of the loan, till fully disbursed, inspection charges will be recovered on
Ans: Limit sanctioned
Qus: The periodicity of Post sanction inspection for regular agriculture term loans where immovable assets have been
created is
Ans: Quarterly
Qus: asset verification inspection is required to be conducted within_______ after disbursement of loan.
Ans: One Month
Qus: Standard certificate appended to stock statement is signed by

Ans: authorised person
Qus: Post- sanction inspection of crop loans, in case account is regular, is required at
Ans: No inspection till harvest time
Qus: crop insurance is compulsory for

Ans: all loanee farmers for notified crops
Qus: Inspection and follow-up of advance account is the overall responsibility of the
Ans: Field officer
Qus: Inspection of irregular agriculture loan account is conducted at ________ intervals.

Ans: Monthly
Qus: The periodicity of Post sanction inspection for regular agriculture term loans where movable assets have been
created is
Ans: Half yearly
Qus: The disbursement of agri Term Loan should be made directly to supplier along with margin of the borrower through
A. Banker cheque
B. Bank draft
SKA
C. RTGS
D. any one of the above
Qus: The borrower can withdraw the amount from Kcc account within Maximum drawing permissible through
A. Kcc withdrawal form
B. cheque
C. State Bank Kisan card
D. (a) & (b) only
E. (a), (b) & (c) above
Qus: Sanctioning authority has to ensure that sanction of advance is as per delegation of financial powers.
Ans: True
Qus: The credit balance in Kcc account will carry interest at Savings rates.
Ans: True
Qus: Revival letter is not required to be obtained for Term Loan in case the loan is repaid regularly and the account is
standard.
Ans: True
Qus: Tracking the performance of the borrower to ensure safety and recoverability of the advance is necessary.
Ans: True
Qus: Balance confirmation is not required to be obtained for Term Loan in case the loan is repaid regularly and the
account is standard.
Ans: True
Qus: While scrutinising the stock statement, we verify that the stocks are in line with the activity.
Ans: True
Qus: For weaker sections inspection fee will be 50% of the applicable fee.
Ans: True
Qus: The borrower should display information about the bank’s charge for public notice, at the godown / shop where the
stock hypothecated to the bank is stored.
Ans: True
Qus: banks follow-up the advances as they are answerable to the depositors for safety of funds.
Ans: True
Qus: The disbursement of agri Term Loan should be made by credit to borrower’s Savings account.
Ans: False
AGRI GOLD LOANS (L0234)
Qus: Processing fee on Agri. loans upto ----------- against gold ornaments is NIL
Ans: Rs.25,000/-
Qus: Collateral Value of loan has to be recorded at -------- of the advance value of the gold ornaments.
Ans: 135%
Qus: The advance value of Gold ornaments per gram of different purity (18/20/22/24 carats) is computed by Precious
Metal Department, Corporate Centre, Mumbai by keeping a margin of ------ on market value of Gold
Ans: 25%
Qus: Loan to Value (LTV) under Agri Gold Loan is

Ans: 75%
Qus: Pre requisite for extending Agri. Gold loan is

Ans: KYC guidelines
SKA
Qus: Maximum amount of gold loan permitted under Agri. Segment is
Ans: Rs. 25 lacs
Qus: For Agri Gold loans above -------------- , ornaments are to be assessed by reputed gold appraiser except in
Hyderabad, Chennai and Kerala Circles
Ans: Rs.50,000/-
Qus: For Agri Gold loans above -------------- , ornaments are to be assessed by reputed gold appraiser in Hyderabad,
Chennai and Kerala Circles .
Ans: Rs.1,00,000/-
Qus: The rate of Interest on short term crop loans up to Rs.3.00 lacs where interest subvention @2% is available from
Government of India
Ans: 7%
Qus: Number of copies of photographs of borrower which should be taken in Agri Gold Loan is
Ans: 2
Qus: What is the loan processing fee for Agri. Gold Loans above Rs.2.00 lacs?
Ans: 0.30%
Qus: SIM-GL/1 is ______.

Ans: Revised application cum appraisal form
Qus: SIM-GL/1 is ______.

Ans: Revised application cum appraisal form
Qus: Details of Gold ornaments pledged like description, gross weight, net weight, valuation rate, advance value are noted
in ________.
Ans: SIM-GL/2
Qus: SIM-GL/2 is certified by _______.

Ans: Cash Officer
Qus: Which of the following is the memorandum in respect of Gold/Silver ornament(s) delivered as security, to be given as
acknowledgement to the borrower by the bank?
Ans: SIM-GL/4
Qus: Gold loan document SIM-GL/6 is

Ans: Letter of Indemnity
Qus: When no repayment is coming forth in the gold loan account, a letter should be sent as per
Ans: SIM-GL 7
Qus: If borrower fails to repay loan after demand notice within _____, a notice as per SIM-GL 8 should be given to
borrower.
Ans: 30 days
Qus: Purity of the gold can be assessed by using

A. Touch stone method
B. Nitric acid method
C. Specific gravity method
D Any one of the above
Qus: Pre requisite for extending Agri. Gold loan is

Ans: KYC guidelines
Qus: Gold loan under Agri. segment can be extended by way of

A. Agri. Cash Credit
B. Agri. Term Loan
C. Over draft / Demand loan
D. (a) & (c) above
SKA
Qus: Gold Loans under Agri. segment can be extended against the security of
A. Prime gold
B. Gold ornaments
C. Gold coins sold by banks
D. (b) & (c) only
Qus: Gold Loans under Agri. Segment can be extended for

Ans: For Short term crop production needs
Qus: Who is responsible for checking the genuineness and purity of gold ornaments in the case of Agri gold loans?
Ans: Cash Officer
Qus: Custody of gold ornaments [security] is with

Ans: BM / Accountant with Cash Officer
Qus: Who is eligible to avail loan under Agri. Gold loan Scheme ?
A. Land owner
B. Landless labourer
C. Lease holder
D. (a), (b) & (c) above
Qus: Wherever service of local goldsmith is used, fees of goldsmith is paid by

Ans: Borrower
Qus: Advance value of gold can be ascertained from

Ans: Precious Metal Department, CC, Mumbai
Qus: Which product in Agri Business is having lowest NPA?

Ans: Agri Gold Loans
Qus: Can interest subvention be given to borrower if Agri gold loan is given for the purpose of crop production.
Ans: Yes
Qus: Interest on Agri gold loans should be charged as per purpose under Agri. Advances.
Ans: Yes
Qus: If repayment is not forth coming, Bank has a right to sell the gold ornaments pledged under section 176 of Indian
Contract Act.
Ans: True
Qus: Interest in the account of the deceased borrower should be charged as per the contracted rate in the usual manner.
Ans: True
Qus: Part delivery of gold ornaments can be made to the borrowers.

Ans: True
Qus: Gold loan can be given to illiterate borrowers also.

Ans: True
Qus: The outstanding in the Agri. Gold Loan Account should not exceed the market value of the ornaments pledged.
Ans: True
Qus: One photograph of the borrower is to be affixed on loan application form and another, in Gold Loan Register.
Ans: True
Qus: Due date for repayment is to coincide with harvesting and marketing of crops raised.
Ans: True
Qus: End use has to be ensured in the case of Agri Gold Loans?
Ans: True
SKA
Qus: While giving production loans against security of gold/silver ornaments scale of finance need not be taken into
consideration.
Ans: False
Qus: For auctioning of Gold Ornaments prior approval of Controlling Authority is necessary.
Ans: False
APPRAISAL CONCEPTS - EXPOSURE LEVELS & CREDIT FACILITIES (L0176)
Qus: How many parties are involved in a Bank Guarantee?

Ans: 3
Qus: Bank Guarantees are governed by which Act?

Ans: The Indian Contract Act.
Qus: Letters of Credit are governed by which Act?

Ans: UCPDC no. 600. (ICC publication)
Qus: Normally a Bank Guarantee can be issued for what period without obtaining administrative clearance?
Ans: 18 months
Qus: What is the maturity period of a short term loan?

Ans: Less than 3 years
Qus: What is classified as a Term Loan? A Term loan is a loan with a residual maturity of over
Ans: 3 years.
Qus: What is the period for which a long term loan is granted?
Ans: 8 years and above.
Qus: At any point of time, term loans in aggregate should not exceed what % of total domestic advances of SBI?
Ans: 35%
Qus: The fund based exposure to a particular industry shall be restricted to a maximum of what % of the bank’s total
domestic fund based exposure?
Ans: 15%
Qus: If the exposure is on account of infrastructure projects in specified sectors, what is the exposure permitted to a group
of borrowers?
Ans: 50% of capital funds (Tier I and Tier II capital)
Qus: If the exposure is on account of infrastructure projects, what is the exposure permitted to a single borrower?
Qus: What is the ceiling on exposure for a group of borrowers?

Qus: What is the exposure ceiling prescribed by RBI, on Oil Companies who have been issued Oil bonds (not having SLR
status)?
Qus: What is the ceiling on exposure for single borrowers?

Qus: Up to a further what percent may the bank, in exceptional circumstances, with the approval of the board, consider
enhancement of exposure to a borrower, provided the borrower consents to disclosure in the Bank’s annual report?
Qus: Unsecured exposure will be restricted to what % of Bank’s ______

Ans: 35%, outstanding total exposure.
SKA
Qus: The model used to fix SBI’s exposure on other banks is known as ___________?
Ans: Bank Exposure Risk Index model
Qus: What is Gross Working capital?

Ans: Total Current assets.
Qus: In respect of fully disbursed term loans what is considered as exposure?

Ans: Outstanding without reference to the limit.
Qus: The Bank’s exposure to sensitive commodities listed by RBI will be restricted to ____ % of Bank’s _________as at
the end of the previous year?
Ans: 5% , Net Worth
Qus: Loans and advances granted against which type of security will be exempt from the exposure ceilings?
Ans: Bank’s own Term Deposits.
Qus: What is an unconfirmed letter of credit?

Ans: An LC forwarded by the advising bank without adding its undertaking to pay.
Qus: What is a confirmed letter of credit?

Ans: That LC to which another bank adds its confirmation at the request of the issuing bank
Qus: Which of the exposures listed below are outside the prudential exposure norms?
Ans: 7 day placement of Rs. 100 Crores by SBI with Deutche Bank in the Indian Money Market.
Qus: What is an Irrevocable letter of Credit?

Ans: That which cannot be cancelled without the prior written consent of all the parties.
Qus: What is a Revocable Letter of Credit?

Ans: That which can be amended or
Qus: At the whole bank level, the total non-fund based exposure shall not exceed how many times the total fund based
exposure? The learner may answer the following questions on Types of Credit Facilities.
Ans: 2 times
Qus: What is the ceiling for loans to individuals against equity oriented securities held in physical form and in
dematerialized form respectively?
Ans: Rs. 10 lakhs & Rs. 20 lakhs.
Qus: At what value should off balance sheet items be included to arrive at borrowers’ exposure?
Ans: Replacement Cost Value.
Qus: What method has been prescribed by which agency to value off balance sheet items?
Ans: Credit Exposure Method by RBI.
Qus: Bank’s exposure to Stock brokers shall not exceed what % of _________, within overall ceiling for capital market
exposure?
Ans: 10%, net worth
Qus: The exposure levels are contained in which document issued by the Bank?
Ans: Loan Policy Document.
Qus: A guarantee which assures repayment of money advanced by the principal to a vendor/contractor is known as:
Ans: Advance payment guarantee.
Qus: The bank’s exposure to real estate (including residential mortgages and commercial real estate) will not exceed what
% of the bank’s total domestic advances?
Ans: 20%
Qus: The bank’s aggregate exposure to the capital markets shall not exceed what % of _________ as on 31st March of
previous year?
Ans: 40%, net worth.
SKA
Qus: Bank’s exposure to financing of Indian Companies for acquisition of equity in Indian JVs/WOS abroad or in other
overseas companies, new or existing, will not exceed what % of Bank’s ____?
Ans: 10%, net worth
Qus: What are the guiding principles to decide whether a particular borrowing unit belongs to a group?
A. Commonality of Management.
B. Effective Control
C. (a) & (b) above.
Qus: In a cotton garment making unit, Cash Credit Limits are granted for purchasing which of the f ollowing?
Ans: White/coloured cotton fabric.
Qus: On what basis should off balance sheet items be quantified for arriving at exposure amount?
Ans: Credit Conversion factor advised by RBI from time to time.
Qus: What is the maximum aggregate credit facilities- (FB+NFB), fixed for non-corporates as borrowers? [Other than
against specified securities but including off balance sheet exposures].
Ans: Rs. 100 crores.
Qus: Which model would be used fixing exposure levels on Primary Dealers?
Ans: Institutional Risk Assessment model.
Qus: The ceilings will not be applicable to borrowers to whom _______________ limits have been allocated directly by
______ to the extent of such allocation. What should appear in the blanks?
Ans: Food Credit; by RBI
Qus: In a shoe mfg. and exporting unit, a term loan would be given for obtaining which of the following?
Ans: Shoe making Machinery
Qus: By how many days can the bank delay payment up on invocation of BG issued by it?
Ans: No period of delay is permitted.
Qus: In the case of a split in a group which is formalized, how will the splinter entities be regarded?
Ans: They will be regarded as separate groups
Qus: What is Net working Capital (NWC)?

Ans: Total Current Assets (-) Non Current Assets
Qus: What types of entities are classified as non-corporates? (i) Partnerships including those with identical partners. ii)
Trusts. iii) Joint Hindu Families. iv) Associations. v) Clubs not registered as a Society.
A. (i) only.
B. (i), (iii) & (iii) only.
C. (iii), (iv) & (v) only.
Qus: What are the purposes for which working capital is required? i) Purchase of Raw Material, Components & Spares. (ii)
Payment of wages & salaries. (iii) Incurring day to day expenses & overhead costs such as fuel, power and office
expenses. (iv) Providing Credit facilities to buyers.
A. (i) only.
B. (i) & (iii) only
C. (i) & (iv) only.
D. (ii) & (iv) only.
E. All purposes from (i) to (iv).
Qus: What are off balance sheet items? i) Foreign exchange forward contracts. ii) Interest rate swaps/options iii) Gold
contracts. iv) Collars v) Currency swaps/options
A. (i) and (ii) above
B. (i), (ii) & (iii) above
C. (i), (iii) & (iv) above
D. (iii) to (v) above
E. All of the above
SKA
Qus: Which of the following guarantees can be issued?
A. Guarantees which promise refund of any type of deposits or loans (including inter corporate deposits and loans) by
NBFCs
B. Guarantees favoring banks / offices outside India for the purpose of granting loans / overdrafts abroad.
C. BGs on behalf of customers enjoying credit facilities with other banks.
D. Guarantees in favour of other FIs / banks / lending agencies on behalf of their borrowers to secure loan facilities
taken from the former.
E. Only © above provided the credit facility is a standard asset.
Qus: When should a seller/exporter consider asking for a confirmed credit? When:
A. The credit standing of the issuing bank is unknown to the seller.
B. The credit standing of the issuing bank is viewed by the seller as questionable.
C. Exchange controls in the buyer’s /importer’s country may prevent local banks from honouring certain external
payments.
D. The importing country is suffering large external debt and/or high debt service ratios and/or persistent negative
balance of payments
Qus: What are the characteristics of a Performance Guarantee?

A. A PG certifies the ability of the client to complete the contract
B. In the event of non performance to compensate the beneficiary the amount of loss suffered by him.
C. Issue of a PG involves assessment of technical competency, managerial ability or vocational experience to execute a
contact successfully.
D. Issue of PGs should be backed by adequate securities and the PG should not call upon the bank to complete a task
left incomplete by a client.
Qus: Why has RBI fixed the prudential exposure norms for lending by Banks?
A. To prevent cornering of scarce financial resources by a few influential individuals or industrial houses/groups.
B. To prevent concentration of credit risks in specific industries/sectors, individuals and groups of borrowers.
C. To ensure better risk management
Qus: What are the elements which are evaluated to assess transaction risk intrinsic to a group of borrowers/segment of
industry? i) Market conditions ii) Govt. Policies iii) Legal framework. iv) Economic indicators. v) Stock Market
perceptions. vi) Constitution of the borrower
A. (i), (iv) & (v) above.
B. (ii), (iii) & (iv) above.
C. (ii), (iv) & (v) above.
D. (i), (v) & (vi) only.
APY (L0698)
Qus: Minimum amount of monthly pension payable is

Ans: Rs. 1000/-
Qus: Maximum amount of monthly pension payable is

Ans: Rs. 5000/-
Qus: The minimum contribution amount from the entry level of age under APY for getting monthly pension of Rs 1000/- is
Ans: Rs.42/-
Ans: Rs.84/-
Ans: Rs.126/-
SKA
Ans: Rs.168 /-
Ans: Rs.210/-
Qus: Government would provide fixed pension guarantee for the subscribers; also would co-contribute 50% of the total
contribution or Rs. _____ per annum, whichever is lower, to eligible subscribers;
Ans: 1000/-
Qus: The subscribers can opt to decrease or increase pension amount during the course of accumulation phase, as per
the available monthly pension amounts. However,the switching option shall be provided once in year during the
month of ______
Ans: April
Qus: The Benefit of Atal Pension Yojana is

Ans: Fixed pension for the subscribers ranging between Rs 1000/- to Rs.5000/-
Qus: The penalty on delayed payment is Rs __ per month for contribution of Rs 100 for each delayed monthly payment
Ans: 1/-
Qus: What is the entry age of Atal Pension Yojana?

Ans: 18 years
Qus: The maximum age limit that one can join APY is up to the age of
Ans: 40 years
Qus: The age of exit and start of pension under APY would be
Ans: 60yrs
Qus: The minimum period of contribution by the subscriber under APY would be
Ans: 20 yrs or more
Qus: What is the vesting age in Atal Pension Yojana?

Ans: 60 years
Qus: Government benefit of Co-contribution under APY would not exceed _____ years for all subscribers including
migrated Swavalamban beneficiaries.
Ans: 5 years
Qus: Atal Pension Yojana is administered by

Ans: PFRDA
Qus: The cut off date of early bird incentive to join the scheme is?
Ans: 31.03.2016
Qus: Pradhan Mantri Atal Pension Yojana was launched by Government of India on __________
Ans: 09.05.2015
Qus: Pradhan Mantri Atal Pension Yojana scheme was made effective from ___
Ans: 01.06.2015
Qus: All Points of Presence and Aggregators under Swavalamban Scheme would enroll subscribers through architecture
of ___________
Ans: National Pension System
Qus: For enrolment, _______ would be the primary KYC document for identification of beneficiaries under APY
Ans: AADHAAR
Qus: At the time launching APY, the Government of India is concerned about the old age income security of the
___________
Ans: Working poor
SKA
Qus: The Atal Pension Yojana:
1). guarantees a minimum pension amount at the age of 60
2). can be joined by any adult Indian below 40 years of age
3). includes half of contribution from Government till maturity
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
A. Only 1 & 2
Qus: Discontinuation of payments of contribution amount shall lead to

Ans: The account will not be deactivated and closed till the account balance with self-contributions minus the government
co-contributions become zero due to deduction of account maintenance charges and fees.
Qus: At what intervals the physical statement of APY account will be provided to the subscribers?
Ans: Annually
Qus: The APY is focussed on all citizens in the ________________ sector

Ans: Unorganised sector
Qus: Under APY, subscribers were provided with an option to make the contribution on a ____________ basis
Ans: monthly, quarterly, half yearly
Qus: Which of the following scheme was started by Government of India in 2010-11?
Ans: Swavalamban Scheme
Qus: Which Scheme Subscriber, if eligible, may be automatically migrated to APY with an option to opt out?
Ans: Swavalamban Scheme
Qus: If the subscriber is married, who will be the default nominee?

Ans: Spouse
Qus: In case of death of the subscriber due to any cause before the age of 60 years:
Ans: The entire accumulated corpus under APY will be returned to the spouse / nominee
Qus: Who Guarantees the pension in the scheme?

Ans: Government of India
Qus: What is mandatory for opening APY account?

Ans: Savings account in a Bank’s Branch
Qus: How many Years Government will co-contribute under APY?

Ans: 5yrs
ATM BASICS (L0106)
Qus: How many types of Card Readers are there?

Ans: 2
Qus: The first Public Sector Bank to have installed ATM in India is
Ans: Indian Bank
Qus: When ATMs are offline, Customers

Ans: Can withdraw cash according to the balance available in PBF (Positive Balance File)
Qus: CDMA Connectivity is being provided by

Ans: Reliance Infocomm
Qus: What is the interval at which the ATM availability report is submitted by the MS Vendors to the LHOs/HOs of
Associate Banks?
Ans: Monthly
Qus: PIN Stands for

Ans: Personal Identification Number
SKA
Qus: The ASC (ATM Switch Centre) which is the hub of ATM network of the Bank is located at
Ans: Belapur, Navi Mumbai
Qus: The Service obtained from ATM are

Ans: Dispensing of Cash, Payment of Fees and Utility Bills, Donation to Temples, Mobile Recharging.
Qus: What is the utility of Journal Printer in ATM?

Ans: Records all transactions/ events taking place in ATM System
Qus: Name of the application software used in ATM’s Switch at Navi Mumbai is
Ans: Base 24
Qus: What was the name of the ATM network promoted by IBA in Mumbai?
Ans: Swadhan
Qus: In what operational mode is an ATM, when it is not connected to a Bank’s database?
Ans: Offline
Qus: When ATMs are online, Customers

Ans: Can withdraw Cash upto a prefixed limit specified by ASC
Qus: In which year and at which place the first ATM of State Bank of India was installed?
Ans: 1993 at Jamshedpur
Qus: Positive balance File is a Data Base at ASC which has the Latest Balance of Customers and is updated at ______
intervals.
Ans: Daily
Qus: Divert Cassette / Purge Bin is used for

Ans: Storing Rejected / Undelivered Currency Notes
Qus: HOST Security Module supplied by RACAL performs

Ans: PIN Authentication
Qus: The first foreign bank to have installed ATM in India is

Ang: HSBC
Qus: The first ATM network was created in

Ans: Switzerland
Qus: The first ATM was installed in India by _______ at _______.

Ans: HSBC at Kolkata
Qus: What is the Currency Module that enables Customers of SBI’s foreign offices to withdraw from State Bank ATM
Network in India?
Ans: Multi-Currency Module
Qus: With reference to ATM, CD stands for

Ans: Cash Dispenser
Qus: What was the first bank to have installed the Cash Dispenser?
Ans: Barclays Bank
Qus: What are the types of ATM installation options?

A. Onsite or off-site & Indoor or Outdoor
B. Mobile, Front or Rear Service Access
C. Free standing or through the wall
D. (A) & (B) only
E. (A), (B) & (C) above
SKA
Qus: What is the penalty to be recovered from the ATM vendor for not installing the ATM within the stipulated days from
the date of order?
Ans: Rs.1000 per day (Max 10% of the cost of ATM and site implementation services)
Qus: A penalty of Rs________ per hour for the period of downtime in excess of four hours (where 3 or more ATMs of SBI,
Associate Banks are available) / six hours (for all other centres)
Ans: Rs. 500
Qus: What is the rate at which the vendor will be charged for a hardware fault which recurred within a month of servicing
or ATM not functioning for lack of spare parts?
Ans: Twice the agreed rate of penalty
Qus: The vendor has to ensure a minimum uptime of how much % failing which the Bank will deduct amount from the
AMC charges payable?
Ans: 97%
Qus: Vendor has to ensure Minimum uptime of ____

Ans: 97%
Qus: What is the utility of card reader in ATMs?

Ans: To read encoded information from magnetic stripe of the card
Qus: What is the utility of access lock provided at ATM?

Ans: To allow access to card holders only
Qus: ATM Card is for

Ans: Validation (Identification)
Qus: ATM PIN is for

Ans: Authentication
Qus: Expand ASC

Ans: ATM Switch Centre
Qus: Disaster Recovery Site for ATM Switch is at

Ans: Chennai
Qus: How many types of ATM switches are there with State Bank?
Ans: Two
Qus: Are there any timelines for completion by which vendor has to complete site construction ?
A. Install & operationalise the ATM within 30 days of date of order for Tier 1 Cities
B. Install & operationalise the ATM within 40 days of date of order for all other Centres
C. Both (A) & (B) above
Qus: All ATMs have DVSS, where in, the images are recorded in the hard disk of the ATM PC. DVSS stands for
Ans: Digital Video Surveillance System
Qus: The Network of ATMs promoted by Indian Bank Association in Mumbai is

Ans: Swadhan
Qus: Cash Dispenser (CD) is used to

Ans: Dispense Cash
Qus: Connectivity for ATM is

Ans: SB Connect , VSAT & CDMA
ATM BASICS PART II VARIOUS SERVICE PROVIDERS (L0244)
Qus: Which of the following is not the guideline for ATM site selection?
A. High Visibility
SKA
B. High footfalls
C. Lowest rent
D. Presence in strategic locations
Qus: Associate Bank ATMS were included in the network from_________.

Ans: April 2002
Qus: What is the penalty if minimum availability per ATM calculated on monthly basis falls below 90% in Metro/urban
Centres?
Ans: 35% of MS Vendor fee
Qus: What is the average minimum uptime of the ATMs to be maintained by the Vendor?
Ans: 95%
Qus: Who will be informed about the ATM card requests failed at the data validation level?
Ans: Branch Manager through e-mail
Qus: Who replenishes paper for generating transaction slips at ATMs?

Ans: MS Vendors
Qus: Who are the persons concerned to visit ATM sites to confirm desired ambience, cleanliness, visibility?
A. Controllers Concerned
B. Branch Manager
C. Channel Manager
D. (B) & (C) only
E. (A), (B) & (C) above
Qus: Which of the following prerequisite/s is/are to be met, as ensured by the Site Feasibility Report which is the 1st step
of site preparation?
A. No objection Certificate from landlord
B. 3 phase power connection
C. Statutory Permissions, where necessary, have been obtained
D. (B) & (C) only
E. (A), (B) & (C) above
Qus: Prices are fixed centrally at corporate centre for State Bank group ATMs. From whom financial sanction for ATMs of
Associate Banks is obtained?
Ans: Boards of Associate Banks
Qus: Who dispatches the card & PIN mailer?

Ans: ATM Card vendor
Qus: What is the average minimum uptime of the ATMs to be maintained by the Vendor?
Ans: 95%
Qus: Who finalises the prices of the ATMs to be purchased by the Bank?
Ans: Corporate Centre
Qus: Whose responsibility is to select ATM site?

Ans: LHO & Admin Offices
Qus: The FLM (First Line Maintenance) Service includes

A. Clearing of Paper, Card , envelope jams
B. Clearing, monitoring of site / Kiosk and condition of Kiosk equipment
C. Supplying and replenishing consumables such as paper roll, print ribbons, inkjet cartridges
D. (A) & (C) only
E. (A), (B) & (C) above
Qus: Roles of ATM Channel Manager does not include

A. Liaise with Vendors
B. Assist Branches
C. Monitor ATM Uptime
SKA
D. Reconcile branch ATM related BGL accounts
Qus: State whether license is required for installing off-site ATMs.

A. No license is required
B. Only Post-facto reporting to RBI is necessary
C. Both of the above
D. Prior approval of RBI is must
Qus: Which of the following is not the vendor for ATMs to the Bank?
A. NCR Corporation India Pvt. Ltd.
B. AGS infotech
C. HCL Infosystems
D. Wipro Infosytems
Qus: The activities for ensuring commissioning of ATMs are

A. ADMIN Card from ASC, Connectivity and released equipment
B. Terminal Master Key (TMK) from ASC for the specific ATM
C. ADD HOST and ADD ATM forms, duly completed to be sent to ASC Hub ATM web
D. (B) & (C) only
E. (A), (B) & (C) above
Qus: Which of the following Vendors from whom the Bank has purchased ATMs?
A. Diebold System Pvt. Ltd
B. NCR Corporation Pvt. Ltd
C. AGS Infotech ( Wincor ATM)
D. (B) & (C) only
E. (A), (B) & (C) above
Qus: Guidelines for Selection of ATM sites are_____.

A. High visibility
B. High Foot falls
C. Presence in strategic locations
D. b & c only
E. a, b & c above
Qus: Which of the following is not the responsibility of Managed Service (MS) vendor?
A. Remote Monitoring of ATMs
B. Housekeeping
C. Supply of Consumables
D. Reconciliation of ATM related accounts
Qus: Which of the following is not First Line Maintenance (FLM) service?
A. Cleaning, monitoring of site
B. Clearing of paper, card, envelope jams
C. Visits to the ATM as a result of vandalism
D. Administering pest control
Qus: The FLM (First Line Maintenance) Service does not include
A. ATM being down due to telephone line, ATM network
B. Calls placed where no problems are found
C. Visits to ATM as a result of vandalism to the ATM or facility
D. (A) & (C) only
E. (A), (B) & (C) above
Qus: First Line Maintenance (FLM) does not take care of

A. Clearing of paper, card, envelope jams
B. Supplying and replenishing consumables
C. ATM down due to telephone line, ATM network
D. Arranging publicity materials
Qus: Which of the following is not included in Second Line Maintenance (SLM) services?
A. Software releases & code corrections
SKA
B. Remedial Hardware maintenance
C. e-J Pulling
D. Digital VSS hardware & software maintenance
Qus: Who does Location analysis of the ATMs & recommend relocating, if necessary?
Ans: ATM Channel Manager
Qus: The Services to be provided by NCR, FSS & Diebold under Managed services are___________
A. Event / Incident Management Services
B. First line maintenance
C. Software Management
D. (A) & (B) only
E. (A), (B) & (C) above
Qus: Whose responsibility is to provide ATM related MIS reports to the Bank/Branch?
Ans: MS vendor
Qus: Who assists branches in obtaining of ADMIN cards and Terminal Master Keys (TMK) from ASC?
Ans: AGM (ATM) at LHO
Qus: Who has to give the periodic reports regarding ambience / works / housekeeping / status of each ATM site as per the
format?
Ans: Channel Manager
Qus: How can ATM channel Managers record their visits to an ATM?
Ans: By using Channel Managers Access Card (CMAC)
Qus: Who validates the data entered by the branches at the time of ATM card request generation?
Ans: Card Vendor
Qus: Which of the following is excluded from the definition of “ATM loss”?
A. Cash in ATM
B. Computer in ATM
C. Excess currency (Side Cash)
Qus: How much percentage of ATM sites, with high footfall , have to be cleared twice a day as per one of the
arrangements for housekeeping with the MS Vendor?
Ans: 20%
Qus: Which of the following is not the Managed Service (MS) Vendor for SB ATMs?
A. NSR
B. Diebold
C. Wincore
D. TCBIL
Qus: Who takes care of First Line Maintenance (FLM) at ATMs?

Ans: MS Vendors
Qus: Which of the following vendors is the Switch Service Provider for the Bank?
Ans: Financial Software System (FSS)
Qus: Where are the ATM card number & PIN generated?
Ans: At ATM Dept., LHO
ATM CUSTOMER SERVICE (L0107)
Qus: All Customer Complaints on ATM should be settled in_____ as per RBI Guidelines.
Ans: 07 Working days
Qus: Within how many days customer should complain to be eligible for compensation if complaint is not resolved within
prescribed time?
SKA
Ans: 30 days from the date of transaction
Qus: The Bank needs to pay compensation of Rs._________ as per RBI guidelines, if the complaint is not settled within
07 working days.
Ans: Rs.100/- per day
Qus: Customer should lodge the complaints relating to failed ATM transaction (particularly at other bank ATMs) within ___
days from the date of the transaction.
Ans: 60
Qus: In case of Cash shortage, the matter should be taken up with the copy of the JP / eJ log of the disputed transaction
along with transactions above and below within ____ days from the date of the transaction (in case of other bank
customers using our ATM)
Ans: 17
Qus: If the Complaint is made in CMS on the day of transaction, all the details of the transactions ___ .
Ans: Will be auto populated from transaction log file (TLF)
Qus: Where are the Bank’s contact centers located

Ans: Vadodara, Bengaluru, Agra & Kolkata
Qus: If the Admin Balance is more than the Physical cash in ATM, Branch should crystallize the difference by
___________________________.
A. Replenishing the difference
B. Decreasing admin at mid point
C. Debiting Suspense account & crediting 3198 a/c of that ATM
D. (B) & (C) only
Qus: Where can the branch get Airway Bill no. of the card dispatch envelop?
Ans: At Card status link in SB Times
Qus: Where can the status details of the ATM card requested for issuance by a branch for a customer be tracked?
Ans: Card status link in State Bank Times
Qus: Which of the following equations should be holding good for any ATM, at any point of time?
Ans: Balance in 3198 = Admin balance = Physical cash in ATM
Qus: How can a customer get ATM PIN regenerated?

A. By calling Contact centre
B. By approaching a branch
C. (A) or (B).
D. ATM PIN regeneration is not possible
Qus: Where is the transactions log file for customer transactions at POS (PTLF) available?
Ans: Branch log of ABOSS
Qus: For an ATM complaint for failed transaction at SBI ATM, who is responsible for resolving the Customer dispute?
Ans: Complaint Mgmt Dept at GITC
Qus: Who will take care of ATM related on-us complaints?

Qus: Who will take care ATM related off-us complaints?

Qus: Admin Balance for an ATM is ________________.

Ans: Cash balance as per ATM switch Centre
Qus: BGL account 3198 is maintained _____________.

Ans: ATM wise
Qus: Where is log of customers’ transactions of a branch available?
SKA
Ans: ABOSS in State Bank Times
Qus: Customers’ request for Linking/delinking of accounts to already issued/existing ATM card can be processed through
________.
Ans: Service desk
Qus: Where is ATM log (transaction log file – TLF) available?

Qus: Which of the following conditions is required to be fulfilled for refund of disputed amount by debit to Suspense
account?
Ans: Customer should have an account with the Bank for at least 12 Months
Qus: What types of complaints can not be routed though CMS?

A. PIN regeneration for SBI Customers
B. PIN regeneration for Associate bank Customers
C. Account debited but cash not dispensed
D. Account debited twice for the same withdrawal
Qus: The URL for CMS is _______________________

Ans: https://10.0.22.170:8070/CMS
Qus: What are the toll-free numbers of contact centre?

A. 18004253800
B. 1800112211
C. 18601801290
D. (A) & (B) above
Qus: SBI Customers’ request for PIN regeneration should be routed by branch through _________.
Ans: Complaint Management System (CMS)
Qus: How branch can process the customer’s request for de-hotlisting / reactivating the ATM card?
Ans: Through Service desk
Qus: ATM Card for minor can be issued for SB account only and the account should be opened in CBS with
_______________.
Ans: Product code for Cheque Book account
Qus: If physical cash in ATM is not matching with Admin balance, it will result in ________.
A. Excess cash
B. Short cash
C. Either of the above
D. It is not a problem
Qus: Who is responsible for resolving the disputes of SBI Customers when transaction is failed at other than SBI ATMs?
Qus: Where are the ATM card vendor contact details & escalation matrix available?
Qus: The URL for ATM web site (ABOSS) is _______________

Ans: http://10.0.1.113:8080/ATMWEB/
Qus: Where is e-J log available?

Qus: How many characters are there in ATM ID?

Ans: 13
Qus: Which of the following Base24 codes states that “Invalid Pin is entered”?.
Ans: 53
SKA
Qus: Which of the following options is not available to customers to block ATM card when it is lost?
A. Call Contact Centre
B. Send SMS to 567676
C. Use Retail Internet Banking
D. Use INB branch Interface
Qus: For which of the following ATM transactions there is no Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) put in place by the
Bank for usage at the branches?
A. Card Swiping frauds
B. Skimming & Cloning frauds
C. Encrypting PIN pad tampering
D. Disputed unsuccessful debits in the account
ATM ERROR CODE (L0653)
Qus: ATM Error Code 095 (MOD balance not available) means
Ans: Account balance is not sufficient even with MOD
Qus: ATM Error Code 004 is for

Ans: Blocked Card
Qus: Cash Retraction Facility has been ------

Ans: Withdrawn by RBI in 2012
Qus: If a customer account has been credited and still the ATM Card shows ‘INSUFFICIENT BALANCE’, what should be
the reason?
Ans: Balance not updated in ATM System of that bank
Qus: ATM Error Codes are usually available / can be seen on

Ans: ATM Transaction Slip
Qus: If PIN tries are exceeded (of prescribed limit usually 3)

Ans: ATM Card will be blocked for the day
Qus: ATM Error Codes are -------

Ans: Response Codes for Transactions
Qus: NFS is
Ans: National Financial Switch
Qus: Usual Transaction Limit (per transaction) for other Bank’s ATM Card is Rs. -----. (Please ignore special type of
cards.)
Ans: 10,000
Qus: Error Code 042 (Invalid Account) can be rectified by

A. Selecting Correct Account Type
B. Adding other account to ATM Card
C. Both a & b
Qus: ATM Error Code 002 implies

Ans: Reason not available from bank
Qus: Which information is not available on ATM Transaction Slip

A. ATM Name
B. Branch Name
C. Response Codes
D. Date of Transaction
Qus: For ATM Error Code 076 (Inoperative Account) we should suggest customer to
Ans: Make a transaction at his bank branch
SKA
Qus: If a customer can withdraw Rs. 500 (1 note) but he cannot withdraw Rs. 100 (one note), the problem may be in
Ans: ATM Bin for Rs 100 is cash out
Qus: BASE-24 Error Code 056 (Cash not in multiple of dispensable amount) is displayed / printed when amount has been
entered as ----- (Choose most suitable option)
Ans: 501
Qus: Response Codes 033 or 051 are for

Ans: Expired Cards
Qus: Technical Error Codes are usually

Ans: Alphanumeric
Qus: ATM Error Code 063 (withdrawal limit reached) means

Ans: Customer cannot withdraw cash on that day
Qus: ATM Error Codes have been defined in --- format

Ans: ISO
Qus: Card related errors are mainly due to

Ans: Card not in database
Qus: If Mini Statement is not printed for with ATM Card, what may be the reason
A. Account may be inactive for long
B. Transaction for that account have been achieved
C. Both a & b
Qus: ATM Error Codes can be classified into some broad types. Which is not among them?
A. Approved
B. Business
C. Technical
D. Personal
A. Approved
B. Business
C. Financial
D. Private
A. Approved
B. Commercial
C. Technical
D. Private
Qus: Which of the following are switch(es)

A. Opus
B. Base-24
C. Data Dimension
D. a&b
ATM FRAUD I (L0753)
Qus: This is not one of the reasons for increase in ATM frauds:-
A. Anywhere, anytime access
B. Increase in ATM transactions
C. Low risk of detection
D. Low risk of prosecution
Qus: This is one of the reasons for increase in ATM Frauds

Ans: Low level of customer awareness
SKA
Qus: This is the main motive of any ATM fraud:
Ans: Financial gain
Qus: As at the end of March 2016 the total number of ATMs of State Bank Group are approximately:-
Ans: 50,000
Qus: Card swapping is done at ATMs generally with a pretext of

Ans: Helping the customer
Qus: If the customer did not get back his ATM card, after completion of the transaction, this type of fraud may be
suspected
Ans: Card Trapping
Qus: Observing the ATM Card No., and the PIN from behind the customer is known as
Ans: Shoulder browsing
Qus: Money traps are placed before the ATM cash dispensers in the following type of fraud
Ans: Card Trapping
Qus: Manipulation of the PIN pad, is known as

Ans: Key Pad Tampering
Qus: Reduction of time between the card insertion and PIN entering is reduced to reduce the ________ frauds
Ans: Social Engineering
Qus: Introduction of 2 digit verification before entering PIN at ATM is aimed at to reduce frauds of
Ans: Key pad tampering
Qus: At the time of 2 digit verification, if the customer erroneously gives ‘No’ response
Ans: Transaction cancels out customer has to insert ATM card once again
Qus: Generation of duplicate ATM card is popularly known as:-

Ans: Cloning
Qus: Cloning can not be done without the following activity:-

A. Jamming the printer
B. trapping the cash
C. Vishing
D. skimming
Qus: Magnetic Stripe cards are vulnerable for _______ types of frauds
Ans: Malware attacks
Qus: _________ is a hybrid technique in the sense that, it involves both the technological means and social engineering.
Ans: Phishing
Qus: _________ Fast growing online scam, now accounts for 20-25% of the identity theft incidents.
Ans: Phishing
Qus: In case the ATM printer is not working, one of these happens
Ans: Cash is dispensed, but receipt is not printed
Qus: Verifying of the identity of the customer is a must in the following cases
A. At the time of uploading the request for ATM card
B. At the time of providing the PPK for the ATM card
C. At the time of updating the mobile number the customer
D. All the above
Qus: Issuing ATM cards who do not actually request them (chose the most relevant answer)
Ans: May lead to Frauds
SKA
Qus: This process has been discontinued at the behest of RBI in ATMs of all Banks
Ans: Cash Retraction
Qus: Increase of Admin Balance with a higher amount than the amount replenished in the ATMs can be
Ans: Can be located only by physical verification of cash
Qus: Asking for additional time to enter the PIN has been discontinued to to reduce the frauds in the nature of __________
Qus: The method of fraud, in which customers are induced to reveal their credentials over telephone / mobile phone is
called
Ans: Vishing
Qus: ________ is a systematic human interaction, tricking the people to break the normal security procedures.
Qus: In cash hopper (bin) manipulation this method is adopted

A. Lower denomination notes are kept in hoppers meant for Higher denomination notes
B. Higher denomination notes are kept in hoppers meant for Lower denomination notes
C. Both (a) and (b)
Qus: Based on the perpetrators of frauds, the ATM Frauds can be classified as
Ans: Frauds committed by Outsiders and insiders
Qus: Based on the ultimate victim, the ATM Frauds can be classified as ‘
Ans: Frauds committed on customers and Banks/FIs
Qus: ATM cards, not claimed by customers at the branches

Ans: Have to be destroyed after two years
Qus: Shoulder surfing is a common and simple method to collect the Card No. and PIN from the customer.
Ans: True
Qus: Card swapping can be a pepetrated by an organised gang.

Ans: True
Qus: Accounts opened without due diligence may not lead to ATM frauds.
Ans: False
Qus: Skimming is a fraud in which this following software is used to find out the PIN of the ATM card.
Ans: Key Logger
Qus: Skimming is a fraud in which this following device is used to find out the PIN of the ATM card.
Ans: Pinhole Camera
Qus: This is also one type of indirect fraud committed on ATMs

A. Not verifying the cash balance at the ATM periodically
B. Not reporting excess cash found at ATMs
C. Both (a) and (b)
Qus: This is also one type of indirect fraud committed on ATMs

Ans: Keeping Fake notes in ATMs
Qus: One of the following may lead to an ATM Fraud

A. Activating the INB request for a customer without verifying the identity of the customer and his/her
credentials
B. Informing the Customer No. (CIF No.) of the customer without verifying the identity of the customer
C. Either (a) or (b)
D. Both (a) and (b)
SKA
Ans: Uploading the request for ATM card without verifying the identity of the customer and his/her credentials

A. Changing the Mobile No. without verifying the identity of the customer and his/her credentials
B. Changing the address of the Customer without verifying the identity of the customer
D. Both (a) and (b)
Qus: Hacking the card issue database will result in

Ans: Loss to the Banker
Qus: Cash hopper manipulation will result in

Ans: Loss to both customer and banker
Qus: When the ATMs managed by the CIT Agencies are to be verified (Choose which is most inappropriate)
a. All ATMs are to be verified at the same time
b. Different ATMs can be verified at different times
c. Different ATMs can be verified at different times
ATM FRAUD II (L0754)
Qus: ATM Card is automatically blocked from back end after ……. from the date of Issue, if it is not activated.
Ans: 1 year
Qus: ATM Card is forcibly expired from backend after ……. from the date of Issue, if it is not activated.
Ans: 2 years
Qus: ATM PIN mailer has to be destroyed within …………. from the date of receipt, if it is not claimed by the customer.
Ans: 45 days
Qus: As per the prevailing procedure followed at our Bank, if the cards are not delivered to the customers, they are
returned to the
Ans: Card vendor, who will hot list the card and send them in batches to home branch of the customers
Qus: The following channel is not available to the customers at present, for hot listing ATM card.
A. Branches
B. Contact Centre
C. Mobile Banking Services
D. Internet Banking Services
Qus: Due diligence is to be observed whenever the customer requests for:

Ans: Request for ATM card

Ans: Request for Internet Banking facility

Ans: Request for Mobile Banking services

Ans: Request for change of Mobile Number of the account

Ans: Request for Pre-printed Kit
Qus: Day end balance need not be ‘zero’ in the following BGL Account:-
A. 3199844 – ATM Excess Cash Account
B. 3199842 – ATM Cash Intermediate Account
C. 3199843 – ATM Admin Decrease Account
D. 3199845 – ATM Excess Cash Found Account
SKA
Qus: Outstandings in BGL 4599274 – ATM Short Cash Account
A. To be followed up with GITC made NIL as soon as possible
B. To be recovered from CIT vendor as per the directions of the GITC
C. To be recovered from the Joint Custodians as per the directions of the GITC
D. All the above
Qus: Which BGL Account is to be monitored for reconciliation of cash provided to the CIT Agencies?
Ans: 3199842 – ATM Cash Intermediate Account
Qus: If you want to control frauds of wrong admin increase

Ans: Conduct surprise cash verification at ATM
Qus: While verifying cash in ATM, we have to ensure that, physical cash is equal to
A. Admin Balance
B. 3198 BGL ATM Cash Balance Account
C. a & b above
Qus: Periodical verification of the following is required to prevent ATM – related frauds
A. Un-delivered ATM cards
B. Pre-Printed Kits
C. Physical cash at ATMs
D. All of the above
Qus: Periodical verification of physical cash at ATM with Admin Balance is required to prevent
Ans: Wrong reporting of Admin Increase transactions
Qus: We can find out whether Vault passwords are periodically changed or not by verifying:-
Ans: Branch Document Register
Qus: Exclusive UPS system to the ATM is needed so has to reduce the number of unsuccessful transactions. True or
False?
Ans: True
Qus: One of the following is not a guideline of CPISSC.

A. Firewall installation to protect card holder data
B. Not to use vendor-supplied default passwords
C. Encryption of data while transmitting data across networks
D. Micros should not be used in any application
Qus: One of the following is not a guideline of CPISSC.

A. Regular updation of anti-virus software
B. Do not create any email id which can be easily remembered
C. Maintain a regular Information Security Policy
D. Restrict physical access to card holder data
Qus: PCIDSS stands for

Ans: PCI Data Security Standards
Qus: The latest version of PCIDSS is effective from

Ans: 01.11.2016
Qus: The latest version of PCIDSS is

Ans: V3.2
Qus: PCIDSS is not applicable for the following

Ans: NBFCs
Qus: Number of main guidelines/directives of PCISSC are

Ans: 12
Qus: By implementing PCI DSS prescribed by PCISSC, organisations are not protected against
SKA
A. Account tampering
B. Identity theft
C. Physical Security at ATM
D. Website tampering
Qus: Name the agency which prescribes the security standards for the Payment Card Industry –
Ans: PCISSC
Qus: These cards need not be swiped at POS machines, for payment authentication
A. EMV Chip Cards
B. Tap and Go Cards
C. Mag-Stripe Cards
D. Signature Cards
Qus: In-built antenna transmits the payment authorisation details in the following types of cards:-
Ans: Tap & Go Cards
Qus: Tap & Go cards will work based on

Ans: Near Filed Communication technology
Qus: Rupay Card Payments are monitored by

Ans: National Payments Corporation of India
Qus: Admin Card used for Admin functions is held by

Ans: ATM Officer / Vault Custodian
Qus: To keep secrecy of ATM vault passwords, one of the following is Not True.
A. Shield the hand while entering the password
B. Write the password in a slip and keep it securely
C. memorise the password
D. Don’t share the password with the other Joint Custodian
Qus: Whenever short cash is reported through the ATM (choose the most appropriate)
A. Cash has to be recovered from the custodians
B. Request through Service Desk is to be generated
C. Cash has to be deposited at the Branch
D. 3198 BGL Account is to be debited for recovering the amount
Qus: Training to staff, on ATM frauds and their preventive measures are necessary for the following group of employees /
officers.
A. Joint Custodians
B. ATM Officers
C. Branch Managers/CAC Heads
D. All the above
Qus: If the customer hot list the card

A. Duplicate Card can be issued
B. PIN re-generation can not be done
C. both (a) and (b)
Qus: Jitters are used for preventing the following types of frauds:-
Ans: Skimming
Qus: Having personal identification mark on the ATM card can help in stopping this type of ATM Frauds.
Ans: Card Swapping
Qus: To create awareness among the customers above ATM frauds Banks may not be doing the following:-
A. News Paper Advertisements
B. Developing educational videos
C. Sending Periodical SMS
D. Distributing brochures
SKA
Qus: Now the customers do not have the following option:-
A. Restricting the day light limit of cards
B. Putting restriction on number of transactions per month
C. Restricting the usage of ATM card at ATM or POS or for CNP
D. Restricting the usage of ATM card domestically or internationally
Qus: Now the customers do not have the following option:-

A. Restricting the timings to use the ATM cards
B. Restricting the day light limit of cards
C. Restricting the usage of ATM card at ATM or POS or for CNP
D. Restricting the usage of ATM card domestically or internationally
Qus: To prevent frauds, customers should

A. Shield their hand while entering the PIN
B. Examine ATM and peripherals for skimming devices
C. Ensure the light is glowing on the ATM card inserting slot
D. All of the above
Qus: When the ATMs managed by the CIT Agencies are to be verified (Choose which is most inappropriate)
A. All ATMs are to be verified at the same time
B. Different ATMs can be verified at different times
C. CIT Agencies may be informed before hand and route map may be prepared
D. There must be an element of surprise while verifying
Qus: Registering the mobile number of customer with the Bank helps in (choose the most appropriate)
A. Preventing ATM fraud
B. Sending SMS for ATM transaction
C. Alerts the customer in hot listing the card if required
D. Avail free SMS services
Qus: Where posting of security personnel is not economically viable the Bank may explore the possibility of :-
A. Proper lighting arrangements at ATM
B. Proper locking arrangements for ATM Hood and ATM vault
C. Centralised Surveillance System
D. Digital Locking System for ATM Door
Qus: If the customer makes a complaint that, he has not done any ATM transaction, but his/her account was debited
(select the most appropriate)
A. We have to convince customer that Bank is not responsible for such things, as it is the responsibility of the customer
to keep his PIN secret
B. We have to direct the customer to lodge an FIR
C. We have to verify thoroughly, to find out if any Fraud has happened
D. Lodge the complaint in CMS
Qus: Cash has to be deposited at the branch for the transaction amount in the following case:-
A. Short Cash reported
B. Admin Balance increase
C. Excess Cash reported
D. No difference reported
Qus: Cash has to be deposited at the branch for the transaction amount in the following case:-
A. Short Cash reported
B. Admin Balance increase
C. No difference reported
D. Admin Balance decrease
Qus: Customised softwares can be used to prevent the ATM Frauds in the following manner
A. Recording the transactions on ATM card and comparing this when the card is used for the next time
B. analyse the pattern of transactions and alert the customers if any transaction is in deviation with the regular pattern
C. both (a) and (b)
SKA
Qus: If the customer is not getting SMS Alerts for the ATM transactions any time, he/she has to (choose most
inappropriate)
A. Inform the Bank immediately
B. ensure that correct mobile number is recorded
C. update new mobile number at the Bank
D. Ignore it as it is a routine matter
Qus: Registration of mobile number of the customer with the Bank, against the account number will help in (select the
most appropriate answer)
A. Preventing any Fraudulent ATM withdrawal
B. Preventing another customer to use the same mobile No. for his/her account
C. Identification of the customer in Tele Banking service
D. Alerting the customer through a SMS of ATM transaction so that the card can be hot-listed if any fraudulent
transaction occurs
Qus: We have to immediately attend to the ATM complaints because (Choose the most appropriate)
A. To improve customer service
B. To reduce the complaints in CMS
C. to detect frauds if any at the earliest
Qus: The safest method of conducting the ATM transaction is through

A. EVM Chip Cards
B. Installation of Anti-skimmer devices
C. Introduction of Bio-metric Authentication
D. Posting of Security of Guard
Qus: Physical Security of ATM includes one of the following:-

A. DVSS (Digital Video Surveillance System
B. Posting a Security Personnel at the ATM
C. Both (a) & (b)
Qus: Physical Security of ATM does not include one of the following:-
A. Fixing of CCTV Camera at the ATM
B. Digital Door locking system at the ATM
C. Keeping the ATM Door transparent without pasting any notices
D. Providing a Drop Box in the ATM to receive cheques for collection
ATM OPERATION PART I (L0108)
Qus: The vendor shall ensure average minimum Uptime availability of . . . and maximum Downtime for the ATM should be
less than four hours / six hours per instance, from the time when SBI reports the fault.
Ans: 98%
Qus: SBI GOLD DEBIT CARD can be issued to customers maintaining quarterly average balance of . . . .or more.
Ans: Rs.50,000
Qus: The Bill Payment facility enables our ATM cardholders to utilize the cards for making scheduled payments of their
utility bills. Cardholders have to register themselves for these services by entering into the menu ‘services’, SBI Life
Insurance Co. has operationalized payment of renewal premium through ATMs of
Ans: State Bank of India
Qus: Cards Can be reactivated through?

Ans: Branch Interface
Qus: Which of the following option is not available to customers for hot listing of ATM cards.
A. Contact Centre,
B. RINB
C. SMS to 567676
D. INB Branch Interface
Qus: Whenever loss of card is reported, the card should be hot listed by branches through. . . . . .
SKA
Ans: INB Branch Interface
Qus: Who will take care of on-us transactions at our ATMs

Qus: Details of Admin Cards and its PIN Mailers have to be entered in
Ans: Branch Documents Register
Qus: TMKs are used for making an ATM live and must be recorded in
Qus: Apart from the Branch Managers/Channel Managers “ “ should personally visit ATM sites and confirm desired
ambience, cleanliness, visibility and absence of aforesaid defects at all sites.
Ans: Controllers
Qus: Photocopy of the Admin Balance enquiry slips and counter balances of supervisory mode are pasted in a register
and are signed by
Ans: ATM Joint custodians
Qus: De-hot listing or activating a card which has been made hot/inactive can be done through ….
Qus: Error code 57 relates to :

A. Transaction not supported
B. A/c No. Present but is irretrievable from CAF
C. ATM Terminal is not in the shared list
D. Any one of the above
Qus: Error code 70 relates to :

A. ATM access flag not enabled
B. Dormant Account / In-operative Account
C. Account with Minor
Qus: All undelivered Cards received at branches should be properly recorded in separate registers and kept with:
Ans: Cash Officer
Qus: Branches are required to reconcile the BGL Accounts 98581 and 98582 on . .
Ans: Daily basis
Qus: The ATM cash is to be verified by the Branch Manager at irregular monthly intervals and quarterly, by a third official
deputed by the.
Ans: Controller
Qus: It is the responsibility of the branch to ensure that cash in ATM is fully insured irrespective of branch retention limit.
Transit insurance cover should be ensured by submitting the required format to
Ans: Controllers
Qus: To provide security to ATMs and assistance to customers Bank has engaged
Ans: Caretaker services
Qus: The Admin Card is used in the ATM for reporting details of . . . directly to ASC.
Ans: Cash Replenishment
Qus: In ABOSS, ATM Cash Report is a tool provided to Branches to verify the cash replenished in ATMs through ADMIN
Card vis-à-vis ATM cash replenishment entries posted in the Core Banking on a particular date. This report
facilitates:
Ans: Balancing of Cash in ATMs.
Qus: ATM Cash is said to be balanced when the following equation is maintained
Ans: Physical Cash in the ATM (A) = Admin Cash Balance (B) = BGL 3198 Balance
SKA
Qus: SME Cards may be issued to individuals, proprietors of proprietorship firms and partners of partnership firms when
such partners are specifically authorized to operate the account severally and should not be issued to partners of
partnership firms in cases where only joint operation is permitted. At present the facility is applicable only to under
new products maintained with CBS branches
Ans: Current accounts
Qus: Any “Cash Decrease” through “ADMIN Function” performed by the joint custodians should be approved by the . . . .
.and noted in the Cash Replenishment Register.
Ans: Branch Manager
Qus: Access to the URL safe is by

Ans: Through Combination Lock or Physical Keys
Qus: Combo Card is a chip and magnetic stripe based Photo card. It is . . . . .card issued to the Faculty, Student and Staff
of Manipal University of Higher Education (MAHE)
Ans: Multifunctional
Qus: Nepal SBI Bank Ltd ATMs in Nepal have been enabled for -
Ans: State Bank International cards.
Qus: Hood Key: is used to access the

Ans: Inside of the ATM
Qus: The ATM Cash and related Accounts are now inspected / verified by verification audit by the Circle Auditors,
Inspection and Audit Department Officials and . . .
Ans: Statutory Auditor
Qus: Which official(s) looking after a group of ATMs, are required to periodically submit a report on the ambience/working/
housekeeping/status of each ATM site as per format.
Ans: Channel Managers
Qus: The ATM cardholders’ branch maintaining their accounts is known as

Ans: Home Branch
Qus: ATM PINs have been replaced by

Ans: Green pin
Qus: In terms of extant instructions issued by the Banking Operations Department and as per the requirement of . . . . ..,
verification of cash balances and its reconciliation at quarterly intervals, should be done by branches
Ans: Statutory Audit
Qus: B2B payment provides funds transfer facility through ATM for large Corporates having dealership and agency
networks. This facility is presently available to
Ans: SME Customers only
Qus: Loss of card should be advised to the on the toll free number 1800 11 2211/ 1800 425 3800 or land line number 080-
26599990 anytime. This number is managed by:
Ans: Contact Centre
Qus: If customer is not able to generate green pin branch can help him by …
Ans: Issue of ATM PPKIT
Qus: In DVSS the images are recorded to save our branches from the tedious work of loading / maintaining the cassettes.
Ans: Hard disk of ATM PC
Qus: Business and operational aspects of 35/40 ATMs of one area falling under jurisdiction of one official is the role of
Ans: Channel Manager
Qus: The Bill Payment facility enables our ATM cardholders to utilize the cards for making number 080-26599990 anytime.
This number is managed by:
Ans: Contact Centre
SKA
ATM OPERATION PART II (L0245)
Qus: What is the validity State Bank Global Card is issued?

Ans: Up to 11/2022
Qus: What is the maximum amount of issue for eZ Pay card?

Ans: Rs.50,000/-
Qus: What is the daily Point of Sales/ Online Transaction limit for State Bank Global Debit Card?
Ans: 75,000/-
Qus: What is the minimum amount of issue for State Bank Foreign Travel Card in USD?
Ans: 200 USD
Qus: What is the maximum permissible limit for ATM Classic card?
Ans: Rs.40,000
Qus: Wh at is the daily Point of Sales/ Online Transaction limit for SB Classic Debit Card?
Ans: 50,000/-
Qus: How many transactions in savings bank account are permitted free of cost when other bank ATMs are used by ATM
card holder in 2-tier cities?
Ans: 5
Qus: SBI Yuva Card is exclusively designed for customers aged between _______ years.
Ans: 18 and 35
Qus: What is the maximum amount that can be transferred per day using Card to Card (C2c. transfer service in ATMs?
Ans: Rs.40,000
Qus: With how many years validity Yuva Card is issued?

Ans: 10
Qus: For cash withdrawal transactions at other Bank ATMs, an amount of ________ per withdrawal is charged above 5
transactions in respect of Savings Bank Account Customers.
Ans: Rs.17
Qus: What is the annual fee for SB Global Card from second year
Ans: Rs.150/-+ST
Qus: What is the annual fee for ordinary ATM Card from second year?
Ans: Rs.100/- +ST
Qus: What is the annual fee for SBI Yuva Card from secondyear
Ans: Rs. 200/-
Qus: What is the annual fee for Platinum ATM Card from second year?
Ans: Rs.200/- +ST
Qus: What are the charges for issuance of Duplicate / Replacement of ATM cum Debit Card?
Ans: Rs.204
Qus: What is the annual fee for Pride & Premium from second year?
Ans: Rs.300/-+ST
Qus: “State Bank Classic” is ____________ debit & shopping card.

Ans: Domestic
Qus: What are the two variants of “State Bank Business Debit Card”?
Ans: Pride & Premium
SKA
Qus: Which of the following cards can be requested through www.onlinesbi.com?
Ans: State Bank Gift Card
Qus: Currently, premium to which life insurance can be paid using ATM-services?
Ans: SBI life
Qus: For which of the following temples, Yatra slips (Admission slips) can be obtained through ATMs?
Ans: Mata Vaishnodevi Temple
Qus: Which university students, for whom, MAHE card, a combo ATM card with photo, is issued?
Ans: Manipal University of Higher Education
Qus: With which payment network the latest State Bank Debit Card is linked?
A. Master
B. Visa
C. Rupay
D. All of the above
Qus: Which of the following ATM Cards is not a chip card?

Ans: Classic card
Qus: “State Bank Global card” is ____________ debit & shopping card.
Ans: International & domestic
Qus: What is the brand name of “State Bank Debit Card Loyalty points Program”?
Ans: Freedom Rewardz
Qus: In respect of SBI Platinum Card, the following criterion has to be satisfied for issue of the card :
A. Customers with Annual Income of above Rs.10 lacs
B. Customers with aggregate deposit balance(SB A/c, Current A/c, Term Deposit A/c. of more than Rs.5 lacs
C. Either (a) or (b) above
D. No such criterion is there
Qus: How many transactions in a day are permitted using Card to Card (C2C) transfer service in ATMs?
Ans: Any number
Qus: e-Z pay Card is ____________.

Ans: A prepaid card
Qus: _______________ is a prepaid stored value product (In INR), supported by magnetic strip based technology.
Ans: eZ- Pay Card
Qus: ________________ is also known as the Combo Card.

Ans: MAHE Card
Qus: Which of the following payment networks supports State Bank ATM cards?
A. Visa
B. Master
C. Rupay
D. Both (a) & (b)
Qus: Which of the following cards has been targeted at the Mass Affluent category?
Ans: SBI Vishesh
Qus: The eligibility to obtain SBI Vishesh Card:

A. Depositors with deposit of Rs.5 lacs and above
B. Home Loan Borrowers with a minimum limit of Rs.10 lacs and above and with a deposit of Rs.2 lacs and more
C. Either (a) or (b) above
D. No such criterion is there
Qus: SBI Global card can be issued to which category of customers?

Ans: A customers who give consent
SKA
Qus: Prepaid mobile connections of which of the following cellular companies can be topped up by using ATM-services?
A. Airtel
B. Idea
C. Vodafone
D. (a), (b) & (c) above
Qus: With which payment network the latest State Bank Debit Card is linked?
A. Master
B. Visa
C. Rupay
D. All the above
Qus: Which of the following is not possible using ATM –Services?

A. Mobile Banking Registration
B. SBI card payment
C. C2C transfer to other bank a/cs
D. Cheque book request
Qus: Which of the following services is not offered through State Bank ATMs?
A. Mobile Banking Registration
B. Pay fees of select colleges
C. SMS Alerts Registration
D. Card to Card Transfer
Qus: Which of the following services is not permitted through ATMs?

A. Bill payment
B. Donations to Trusts & Temples
C. College/school fee payments
D. Card to Card transfers of any amount
Qus: Which of the following facilitates transfer of funds through ATMs for huge Corporates with dealership and agency
networks?
Ans: B2B Payment
Qus: State Bank Foreign Travel Card is __________ card.

Ans: Prepaid
Qus: The following types of cards are issued in respect of ARMY Card:
Ans: Both Gold Card and Silver Card
AUTO LOAN PART I (L0431)
Qus: Which of the following categories of car loan applicants need not submit Income Tax Return/Form 16?
A. Salaried employees
B. Professionals, self- employed persons, businessmen
C. Agriculturists
D. All the above
Qus: Eligibility for car loan depends on

A. Income
B. Qualifying scoring model
D. None of above
Qus: Auto loan counselor generates lead for

A. Car loan
B. Merchant acquisition
C. Only (A)
D. Both (A) & (B)
SKA
Qus: Which of the following types of car can be purchased under car loan scheme?
A. New passenger car
B. Multi utility vehicle
C. Sports utility vehicle
D. All the above
Qus: A car loan can be sanctioned under which of the facilities?

A. Term Loan
B. Demand Loan
C. Overdraft
D. Either TL or OD
Qus: Bank may also reimburse finance for the cars purchased out of own funds, which are not more than _______ old.
Ans: 3 months
Qus: The age of a car loan applicant should be between _______.

Ans: 21-65 years
Qus: As per extant instructions, the processing fee for car loans is @ 0.52% of the loan amount subject to a minimum and
maximum ceiling of Rs._____ & Rs.______ respectively
Ans: 1035,10350
Qus: For a car loan applicant (salaried and non-salaried) having a Net Annual Income above Rs.5 lacs and up to Rs.10
lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed_______.
Ans: 50%
Qus: For a car loan applicant (salaried and non-salaried) having a Net Annual Income above Rs.10 lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio
should not exceed_______.
Ans: 60%
Qus: For a car loan applicant (non-CSP employees) having a Net Annual Income up to Rs.5 lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio
Ans: 50%
Qus: The minimum Gross Annual Income of applicants/ co-applicants for employees of Central Govt/Central Public Sector
Undertakings/ Defence/ Paramilitary Forces and Railways, who have Salary Package accounts with us and minimum
3 months salary have regularly come in these accounts, is
Ans: 300000
Qus: What is the maximum repayment period in respect of loans under SBI Car Loans for Used Vehicles scheme for
salaried persons?
Ans: 7 years but within 7 years from the date of original purchase
Qus: What is the periodicity of inspection for NPA accounts after default of 2 EMIs under SBI Car Loan scheme?
Ans: Half Yearly
Qus: Which of the following is not among the eligibility criteria for the borrower under the SBI NRI Car Loan scheme? for a
new account
A. Having valid Indian passport
B. Owning a house in India
C. Having a steady source of income, being employed for at least 2 years
D. Holding a valid job contract/work permit, and an NRI account with us for at least 12 months, with a minimum average
balance of Rs.50,000/- or balance of $ 5,000
Qus: What is maximum repayment period allowed for a car loan?

Ans: 7 years
Qus: In respect of car loan applicants- Professionals, self-employed, Proprietary/ partnership firms, businessmen, the
minimum Net Profit/ Gross Taxable Income per annum as per I T Return after adding back depreciation and
deducting repayments of existing loans should be _____.
Ans: 400000
SKA
Qus: What is minimum Gross Annual Income required for salaried class for car loan?
Ans: Rs. 300000
Qus: The maximum car loan amount that can be granted to a salaried person is restricted to ___ times of Net Monthly
Income.
Ans: 48
Qus: Turn Around Time (TAT) at RACPC under SBI Car Loan scheme is
Ans: 2 working days
Qus: Under NRI car loan scheme what should be the minimum NAI of the Borrower?
Ans: USD 12000
Qus: If a car loan is sanctioned as Overdraft account, the differential rate of interest would be __.
Ans: Same as the rate applicable to TL
Qus: While considering a car loan, the maximum cost of accessories should not exceed ___% of the cost of vehicle or
Rs._______ whichever is less.
Ans: 5, 50,000/-
Qus: The service charge payable to a car dealer for the business sourced is ____% of loan amount.
Ans: 1.50
Qus: The age of the used vehicle for financing under the SBI Car Loans for Used Vehicles scheme should be below
Ans: 5 years
Qus: Fixed rate of interest is charged under SBI Car Loan scheme upto a limit of _____.
A. Rs 2 lac
B. Rs 5 lac
C. Rs 10 lac
D. No fixed rate of interest option
Qus: Presently the maximum time schedule for receipt of application and sanction/disbursal of a car loan is _______.
Ans: 2 days
Qus: The margin for a car loan on “ On road Price” of the vehicle would be ____.
Ans: 15%
Qus: The maximum car loan amount that can be granted to persons other than salaried is restricted to ____ times of Net
Annual Income/Net Profit/Gross Taxable Income.
Ans: 4
Qus: For car loan applicants other than agriculturists, I T Return/ Form 16 for the last ______ should be obtained.
Ans: 2 Years
Qus: A car loan must be fully repaid before the borrower attains the age of
Ans: 70 years
Qus: What is the maximum loan amount that can be sanctioned Under NRI car loan scheme?
Ans: 18 times of NMI (of Borrower)
Qus: Who of the following are eligible to apply for a car loan?
C. Agriculturists
D. All the above
Qus: Pre sanction survey and KYC verification in respect of a new applicant under SBI Car Loan scheme is done by
Ans: Both by same officer from RACPC/MPST/branch during one visit
Qus: If a car loan is sanctioned as Overdraft account, the differential rate of interest would be ______.
SKA
Ans: Same as the rate applicable to TL
Qus: Takeover of car loans will be considered selectively subject to which of the following conditions?
A. The vehicle is not more than 2 years old, it is a single ownership vehicle & no insurance claim has been availed
B. The account of the borrower with the other bank is a Standard Asset
C. The loan should be repaid within 7 years from the date of the original purchase of the vehicle
D. All the above
Qus: Who certifies Pre-owned cars for loans under the Certified Pre-owned Car Loan scheme?
Ans: No valuation certificate is required
Qus: Who of the following can be appointed as Auto Loan Counselors?

A. Retired SBI Officers
B. SBI Customers and others with certain qualifications
C. Car Dealers
D. (A) & (B) above
Qus: What is the periodicity of inspection for a standard asset after initial inspection under SBI Car Loan scheme?
Ans: Waived
Qus: Income from other sources like ______can be added for arriving at minimum Net Annual Income of a car loan
applicant.
A. Bank interest, rents
B. Dividends of listed Companies
C. Agriculture income
D. All the above
Qus: What is the pre-payment penalty for a car loan?

Ans: No penalty
Qus: For car dealer sales executives, the incentive would be paid at the rate of ______ for the loan applications sourced
by them.
Ans: 0.25% of the loan amount (maximum Rs.3000/-)
AUTO LOAN PART II (L0432)
Qus: Who of the following are eligible to apply for a car loan under SBI OD car Loan Scheme?
C. Agriculturists
D. All the above
Qus: Age limit of borrowers under SBI Two wheeler is between:

Ans: 21 to 60 years
Qus: The age of the applicant for car loan under SBI Car Loan Overdraft Scheme should be between_
Ans: 21-65 years
Qus: A car loan under SBI Car Loan Overdraft Scheme must be fully repaid before the borrower attains the age of
Ans: 70 years
Qus: What is maximum repayment period allowed for a car loan?

Ans: 84 months
Qus: Minimum Net Monthly Income for other persons under SBI Two Wheeler is
Ans: Rs 75000
Qus: SBI Car Loan Overdraft scheme offers loans of Rs. …………. And above
Ans: 300000
Qus: Minimum Net Monthly Income for Salaried persons under SBI Two Wheeler is
SKA
Ans: Rs 6250
Qus: For a car loan applicant (non-CSP employees) having a Net Annual Income up to Rs.5 lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio
Ans: 50%
Qus: For a car loan applicant (salaried and non-salaried) having a Net Annual Income above Rs.5 lacs and up to Rs.10
lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed_______.
Ans: 50%
Qus: For a car loan applicant (salaried and non-salaried) having a Net Annual Income above Rs.10 lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio
Ans: 60%
Qus: What is the margin under SBI Two Wheeler Loan Scheme.
Ans: 20%
Qus: SBI Car Loan Overdraft Scheme offers facility of

Ans: Overdraft
Qus: Under SBI Car Loan OD scheme, loan is granted for

Ans: New Car
Qus: What is the maximum loan amount that can be sanctioned under SBI two wheeler loan scheme?
Ans: 6 times Net Monthly Income (NMI)
Qus: What should be the Minimum NMI for purchase of mopeds and battery operated Two-wheelers?
Ans: Rs.5000
Qus: While considering a car loan, the maximum cost of accessories should not exceed ___% of the cost of vehicle or
Rs._______ whichever is less.
Ans: 5, 50,000/-
Qus: For car loan applicants other than agriculturists, I T Return/ Form 16 for the last ______ should be obtained.
Ans: 2 Years
Qus: Which of the following categories of car loan applicants need not submit Income Tax Return/Form 16?
C. Agriculturists
D. All the above
Qus: What is the ceiling on the SBI Overdraft Scheme?

A. Rs. 1000000
B. Rs 1500000
C. Rs 2000000
D. no ceiling
Qus: The vehicle purchased is to be kept comprehensively insured in the name of the borrower for the market value or
……….. % of the loan amount outstanding whichever is higher.
Ans: 110%
Qus: What is the pre-payment penalty for a car loan under SBI Car Loan Overdraft Scheme?
A. 1% of outstanding
B. 2% of outstanding
C. 5% of outstanding
D. No penalty
Qus: Under SBI OD scheme, following facilities are provided to borrowers

Ans: Cheque Book, ATM-Debit Card and INB facility
SKA
Qus: “All metro and urban branches, all branches with ‘P’ divisions, all PBBs, all district headquarter branches, project
area branches and branches specially authorized by the AGM (Region) are authorized to grant SBI Car Loan
Overdraft Scheme.” Is this statement true or false
Ans: true
Qus: What is the margin under SBI Car Loan Overdraft Scheme.
Ans: 15%
Qus: The margin for a car loan on “ On road Price” of the vehicle would be ____.
Ans: 15%
Qus: SBI Two Wheeler Loan is for

Ans: Purchase of new two wheeler
Qus: Service fee at ……… % (inclusive of service tax) with maximum of Rs. 2500/- of the loan amount (other than staff
and bulk finance) is to be paid to the dealer for sourcing applications to the bank.
Ans: 2.50%
Qus: What is the penal interest to be levied in SBI Two Wheeler Loan?
Ans: 2.5% on entire loan outstanding for period of default if account remains irregular beyond 30 days from due date for
any reason (notice to be sent)
AUTO LOANS PART – I (D4011)
The age of a car loan applicant should be between _______.

C. 21-65 years
A car loan must be fully repaid before the borrower attains the age of
C. 70 years
Turn Around Time (TAT) at RACPC under SBI Car Loan scheme is
C. 2 working days
Presently the maximum time schedule for receipt of application and sanction/disbursal of a car loan is _______.
A. 2 days
What is minimum Net Annual Income required for salaried class for car loan?
C. Rs. 250000
While considering a car loan, the maximum cost of accessories should not exceed ___% of the cost of vehicle or Rs._______
whichever is less.
A. 5, 50,000/-
The minimum Gross Annual Income of Agriculturist applicant and/or co applicant if any, together for car loan should
be________.
D. 400000
What is the minimum loan amount under our Car Loan scheme?
D. There is no minimum loan amount
Takeover of car loans will be considered selectively subject to which of the following conditions? ownership vehicle & no
insurance claim has been availed Asset original purchase of the vehicle
D. No take-over is permitted now
In respect of car loan applicants- Professionals, self- employed, Proprietary/ partnership firms, businessmen, the minimum
Net Profit/ Gross Taxable Income per annum as per I T Return after adding back depreciation and deducting repayments of
existing loans should be _____.
D. 300000
Which of the following types of car can be purchased under car loan scheme?
A. New passenger car
SKA
B. Multi utility vehicle
C. Sports utility vehicle
D. All the above
For a car loan applicant (salaried and non-salaried) having a Net Annual Income above Rs.10 lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio should
not exceed_______.
D. 70%
Pre-closure of Car Loans is allowed

A. Without any restrictions
Car Loans are now available under………….option.

B. Fixed Interest Rate
For car loan applicants other than agriculturists, IT Return/Form 16 for the last ______ should be obtained
B. 2 Years
Who of the following are eligible to apply for a car loan?

C. Agriculturists
D. All the above
Which of the following is not among the eligibility criteria for the borrower under the SBI NRI Car Loan scheme? years with us
for at least 12 months, with a minimum average balance of Rs.50,000/- or balance of $ 5,000 for a new account
A. Having valid Indian passport
B. Owning a house in India
C. Having a steady source of income, being employed for at least 2
D. Holding a valid job contract/work permit, and an NRI account
Eligibility for car loan depends on

A. Income
B. Qualifying scoring model
D. None of above
For a car loan applicant (salaried and non-salaried) having a Net Annual Income of up to Rs.10 lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio
B. 50%
The margin for a car loan on “ On road Price” of the vehicle would be ____.
C. 15%
Who are eligible for car loan?

A. Regular employees of State Government/Central Government
B. Businessmen
C. Agriculturist
D. (A), (B) & (C) above
Which of the following categories of car loan applicants need not submit Income Tax Return/Form 16?
C. Agriculturists
The maximum car loan amount that can be granted to persons other than salaried is restricted to ____ times of Net Annual
Income/Net Profit/Gross Taxable Income.
D. 4
The maximum car loan amount that can be granted to a salaried person is restricted to ___ times of Net Monthly Income.
D. 48
The Net Annual Income of an agriculturist car loan applicant will be arrived at based on _.
SKA
A. Nature of activity
B. Land holding & cropping pattern
C. Yield
D. All the above
Which of these is not a component of on-road price of a vehicle?

A. Extended warranty
B. Maintenance Package
C. Accessories
D. All the above are components of on-road price of a vehicle
The second applicant must be………. in case of NRI Car Loans

D. any close relative of the NRI customer
Who certifies Pre-owned cars for loans under the Certified Pre-owned Car Loan scheme?
D. No valuation certificate is required
What is maximum repayment period allowed for a car loan?

C. 7 years
Who of the following can be appointed as Auto Loan Counselors?

A. Retired SBI Officers
B. SBI Customers and others with certain qualifications
C. Car Dealers
D. (A) & (B) above
Car Loan documents should be migrated to RACPs/RASMECCs at BPR centres within……from the date of disbursement.
A. 2 months
What is the maximum loan that can be sanctioned Under NRI car loan scheme?
C. 18 times of NMI (of Borrower)
Auto loans can be granted to

A. Salaried Individuals
B. Businessmen
C. Minor Students
D Both (A) & (B)
In respect of a car loan, if the irregularity exceeds EMI, for a period of ____, then the penal interest would be charged @ 2%
p.a. (over and above the applicable interest rate) on the _____ for the period of default.
A. One month, overdue amount
Pre-payment penalty will be charged in case of Car Loans if any amount is prepaid in the first………from the date of
disbursement.
C. 3 years
The minimum Gross Annual Income of applicants/ co-applicants for employees of Central Govt/Central Public Sector
Undertakings/ Defence/ Paramilitary Forces and Railways, who have Salary Package accounts with us and minimum 3
months salary have regularly come in these accounts, is
D. 250000
What is the pre-payment penalty for a car loan?

B. 3% of the pre-paid amount
Income from other sources like ______can be added for arriving at minimum Net Annual Income of a car loan applicant.
A. Bank interest, rents
B. Dividends of listed Companies
C. Agriculture income
D. All the above
Under NRI car loan scheme what should be the minimum NAI of the Borrower?
C. USD 12000
SKA
AUTO LOANS PART – II (D4012)
What is the maximum repayment period permitted under our SBI High Value Super Bike loan scheme?
B. 5 years
Which of the following categories of car loan applicants need not submit Income Tax Return/Form 16?
C. Agriculturists
D. All the above
What is the margin under SBI Two Wheeler Loan Scheme?

D. 25% of the on-road price
In case of customers under Corporate Salary Package/tie-up, margin for loans under our SBI High Value Super Bike scheme
will be reduced by…….. and loan is available up to……..of the ex-showroom price of the vehicle.
B. 5%; 90%
Loan documents pertaining to SBI High Value Super Bike loan scheme will be migrated to RACPC/RASMECC in BPR
centres after …….. from the date of disbursement.
A. 2 months
If the vehicle financed under our SBI Two Wheeler Loan scheme is not required to be registered with RTO
A. Check-off/ PDC or SI with 6 cheques should be obtained
B. Third Party Guarantee/ Co-applicant good for the loan amount should be taken
C. Either of (a) and (b) is required
D. Both (a) and (b) are required
Under SBI High Value Super Bike loan scheme, loan is granted to salaried individuals having a net annual income of
A. Rs. 2.50 Lacs
For a loan applicant (salaried and non-salaried) under our SBI High Value Super Bike scheme, having a Net Annual Income
of up to Rs.10.00 lac, the EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed_______.
C. 60%
For a loan applicant (salaried and non-salaried) under our SBI High Value Super Bike scheme, having a Net Annual Income
of above Rs.10.00 lac, the EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed_______.
D. 75%
The vehicle purchased is to be kept comprehensively insured in the name of the borrower for the market value or ……….. %
of the loan amount outstanding whichever is higher.
B. 110%
What is the penal interest to be levied in SBI Two Wheeler Loan?

C. 2% on overdue amount for period of default if account remains irregular beyond 30 days from due date for any reason
(notice to be sent)
Generally, Bikes with an engine capacity of ………..and above are considered “Super Bikes” under our SBI High Value Super
Bike loan scheme.
C. 500 cc
Minimum loan amount that can be granted under our SBI High Value Super Bike loan scheme is
B. Rs. 2.50 Lac
Which of these categories of customers is not eligible for loans under our SBI High Value Super Bike scheme?
A. Defence Personnel
B. Agriculturists
C. Businessmen
D. All the above are eligible
SKA
What should be the minimum Net Monthly Income (NMI) of an individual to become eligible for our 2-wheeler loan scheme?
D. Rs.12500
Dealer commission is payable at 1.75% of the loan amount under SBI High Value Super Bike scheme if ……….or more loan
proposals are sanctioned through the dealer.
A. 15
What is the maximum loan amount that can be sanctioned under SBI two wheeler loan scheme?
A. less than Rs.3.00 Lac
The age of the applicant for loan under SBI High Value Super Bike loan scheme should be between _______.
C. 21-65 years
Under SBI High Value Super Bike loan scheme, loan is granted to businessmen/ self employed/ professionals having Gross
Taxable Income of
D. Rs. 4.00 Lacs
Loan under our Two-Wheeler Loan scheme is granted for purchase of ?

A. Scooter/ Motor Cycles
B. Mopeds
C. Battery Operated 2-wheelers
D. All the above
Which of these branches are not authorized to sanction loans under SBI High Value Super Bike scheme?
A. All scale III & above branches
B. All scale II & below branches
C. All Personal Banking Branches
D. All District Head Quarter Branches
Loan under SBI Two Wheeler loan scheme can be availed by the customers at
A. Home Branch only
Loan under our High Value Super Bike scheme can be granted in form of
A. Term Loans
Financing of second hand super bikes under our SBI High Value Super Bike loan scheme is
A. Not permitted
Service fee at ………of the loan amount (other than staff and bulk finance) is to be paid to the dealer for sourcing applications
under SBI 2-wheeler loan scheme for the bank.
D. NIL
Minimum Net Annual Income (NAI) of a self-employed person seeking loan under our SBI Two Wheeler loan scheme is
B. Rs. 1,50,000
What is the maximum repayment period under SBI Two Wheeler Loan Scheme?
B. 36 months
What is the “Margin” required to be brought in by the borrower under our SBI High Value Super Bike loan scheme?
A. 15% of the ex-showroom price of the vehicle
In case of NPA accounts under SBI 2-wheeler loan scheme, inspections would be made ……… a year.
B. twice
BANKING OMBUDSMAN (L0070)
Qus: The Banking Ombudsman Scheme, for the first time, was introduced in
Ans: 1995
Qus: The Banking Ombudsman Scheme is formulated in accordance with

Ans: Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act 1949
SKA
Qus: The bank is to comply with the award of Banking Ombudsman if it is accepted by the customer within a period of
Ans: 30 days
Qus: If the award is passed by the Banking Ombudsman, the award should be accepted by complainant if it is acceptable
to him within
Ans: 15 days
Qus: The time for letter of acceptance may be extended by Banking Ombudsman to a further period of _____ from the
initial period of acceptance.
Ans: 15 days
Qus: The time limit for filing an appeal with the appellate authority is
Ans: 30 days
Qus: The maximum tenure of Banking Ombudsman is

Ans: 3 years
Qus: The limitation period for filing a complaint is

Ans: 1 year after the cause of action has arisen
Qus: While lodging the complaint, a complainant should include ___ copy/ copies of document alongwith the complaint.
Ans: 1
Qus: The maximum permissible compensation that may be awarded by Banking Ombudsman for complaints relating to
credit card is
Ans: Rs.1 lac
Qus: The maximum permissible compensation by Banking Ombudsman is

Ans: Rs.10 lacs
Qus: Who may be appointed as Banking Ombudsman?

A. Deputy General Manager of RBI
B. General Manager of RBI
C. Chief General Manager of RBI
D. Both (b) and (c) above
Qus: A complaint can not be filed with the Banking Ombudsman if

Ans: The subject matter has already been settled previously by any Banking Ombudsman in any previous proceedings
Qus: If the award is not acceptable to the bank, the bank can
Ans: File an appeal with the appellate authority
Qus: What is the recourse available to the complainant if he does not accept the award of the Banking Ombudsman?
Ans: Can file an appeal before the appellate authority
Qus: Banking Ombudsman considers complaints from

A. Individuals
B. Non-Resident Indians
C. Both (a) and (b) above
Qus: For passing an award, Banking Ombudsman does not follow

A. The principles of banking law and practices
B. Hearsay evidence
C. Bank’s instructions and guidelines
D. Instructions and guidelines of RBI
Qus: The Banking Ombudsman deals with complaints relating to

A. Non-payment or delay in payment of inward remittances
B. Failure to issue or delay in issue, of drafts, pay orders or bankers’ cheques
C. Non-adherence to prescribed working hours
D. All of the above
SKA
Qus: Banking Ombudsman Scheme 2006 enables resolution of complaints relating to
Ans: Bank customer
Qus: A complaint can be lodged with the Banking Ombudsman by

A. Complainant himself
B. Authorised representative other than an advocate
C. An advocate, authorised by the complainant
D. Only (A) and (B) above
Qus: The complaint lodged to the Banking Ombudsman is settled by way of

A. Conciliation
B. Mediation
C. Settlement as well as agreement between bank and customer
Qus: Appellate Authority for Banking Ombudsman case is

Ans: Deputy Governor, RBI
Qus: The location of the office of the Banking Ombudsman is determined by

Ans: Reserve Bank of India
Qus: Complaint under Banking Ombudsman Scheme means any complaint containing a grievance alleging deficiencies of
banking services through
A. Writing
B. Electronic media
Qus: Banking Ombudsman Scheme covers

A. Regional Rural Bank
B. Primary Cooperative Bank
C. Public Sector Banks
D. All of the above
Qus: The Banking Ombudsman takes up complaints pertaining to

A. Non-adherence to prescribed working hours
B. Internet banking
C. Both (A) and (B) above
Qus: Which of the following is an essential requirement for filing a complaint with Banking Ombudsman (BO)?
A. The name and address of the complainant
B. The name and address of the branch or office of the bank
C. The facts giving rise to the complaint supported by documents
D. The nature and extant of the loss caused to the complainant
E. All of the above
Qus: Banking Ombudsman can consider complaints relating to

A. Refusal to open deposit accounts without any valid reason for refusal
B. Levying of charges without adequate prior notice to the customer
C. Forced closure of deposit accounts without due notice or without notice
D. All of the above
Qus: While dealing the appeal, the appellate authority is not empowered to
A. Dismiss the appeal
B. Allow the appeal and set aside the award
C. Refer back the matter to the Banking Ombudsman for fresh disposal without necessary directions
D. Modify the award and pass fresh award
Qus: Banking Ombudsman Scheme can entertain complaints relating to

A. Non-payment or inordinate delay in the payment or collection of cheques, drafts, bills etc
B. Non-acceptance, without sufficient cause, of small denomination notes and for charging commission for this service
C. Non-acceptance, without sufficient cause, of coins tendered and for charging commission for this service
SKA
D. All of the above
Qus: The Banking Ombudsman can consider complaints relating to

A. Refusal to close or delay in closing the accounts
B. Refusal to open deposit accounts without any valid reason for refusal
C. Both (a) & (b) above
Qus: The cost involved in filing a complaint with a Banking Ombudsman is

Ans: Free of Cost
Qus: The Banking Ombudsman can not accept a complaint if the complaint is without any sufficient cause.
Ans: true
Qus: The Banking Ombudsman may not accept a complaint if

Ans: The complaint is beyond the pecuniary jurisdiction of Banking Ombudsman
Qus: The Banking Ombudsman may reject a complaint at any stage if it appears to him that there is no loss or damage or
inconvenience caused to the complainant.
Ans: true
Qus: For passing an award, Banking Ombudsman has to follow instructions and guidelines of RBI.
Ans: true
Qus: Being beyond the pecuniary jurisdiction of Banking Ombudsman can be a reason for rejection.
Ans: true
Qus: An award by Banking Ombudsman shall lapse unless the complainant furnishes to the bank concerned within a
period of 45 days from the date of receipt of copy of the Award, a letter of acceptance of the Award in full and final
settlement of his claim.
Ans: false
BASEL – II (L0021)
Qus: BIS stands for:

Ans: Bank of International Settlement
Qus: BCBS stands for:

Ans: Basel Committee for Banking Supervision
Qus: RWA stands for:

Ans: Risk Weighted Asset
Qus: Basel I addressed only the:

Ans: Credit risk and Market risk
Qus: The regulatory capital under Basel II comprises of:

A. Tier 1 capital
B. Tier 2 capital
C. Both Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital
Qus: Risk pertaining to foreign exchange risk is part of:

Ans: Market Risk
Qus: Risk pertaining to interest rate is part of:

Ans: Market Risk
Qus: Risk resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes is part of:
Ans: Operational Risk
Qus: Risk resulting from people and systems is part of:
SKA
Qus: Risk resulting from external events is part of:

Qus: Operational risk management:

A. Is a decision making
B. Increases ability to make informed decisions
C. Reduces risks to acceptable levels
D. All the above
Qus: Operational risk is the risk of losses:

Ans: Resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems or from external events
Qus: Under Basel II, capital requirement under the accord is _________ :
Ans: The capital as specified by the regulatory authority is required to be maintained
Qus: Basel II is based on _________ mutually reinforcing pillars:

Ans: Three
Qus: Probability of Default is the:

Ans: Likelihood that a borrower would default over a given time horizon, usually a year
Qus: The method/s for computation of capital for credit risk is / are:
A. Standardized Approach
B. Foundation internal rating based approach
C. Advanced internal rating based approach
D. All the above
Qus: Supervisory Review Process (SRP) is:

A. To ensure that banks have adequate capital to support all the risks in their business
B. To encourage banks to develop and use better risk management techniques in monitoring and mitigating their risks
C Both the above
Qus: The method/s for computation of capital for market risk is / are:
A. Standardized Approach
B. Internal Model Approach
C. Both the above
Qus: The method/s for calculating operational risk is / are:

A. The Standardized Approach
B. Basic Indicator Approach
C. Advanced Measurement Approach
D. All the above
Qus: Total Tier-2 capital (part of regulatory capital under Basel II) is restricted to _______ of Tier-1 capital:
Ans: 100 %
Qus: Exposure at Default is the:

Ans: Amount that a borrower owes to the bank at the time of default
Qus: Pillar 1 of the three mutually reinforcing pillars on which Basel II is based is:
Ans: Minimum Capital Requirements
Ans: Supervisory Review Process
Ans: Market Discipline
SKA
Qus: Market risk is the risk of losses:
Ans: In on-balance sheet and off-balance sheet positions arising from movement in market prices (market variables such
as exchange rates, interest rates, equity price, etc)
Qus: BCBS aims at encouraging common approaches and standards, however does not issue binding regulations, which
is left to the ______________________:
Ans: Individual countries regulators
Qus: Improper classification of bank guarantee in the CBS as also non closure of BG/LC account in system after expiry
date, in time, impacts the requirement of capital:
Ans: True
Qus: The possibility of losses from reduction in portfolio value is a part of credit risk:
Ans: True
Qus: Credit risk in banks not only arises in course of direct lending when funds are not repaid, it also arises in the course
of transactions involving treasury products when series of payments due from the counterparty cease or are not
forthcoming timely:
Ans: True
Qus: Credit risk in banks not only arises in course of direct lending when funds are not repaid, it also arises in case of
trading of securities, settlement is not effected or in case of cross-border exposure where free transfer of currency is
restricted or ceases:
Ans: True
Qus: Pillar 3 i.e. Market Discipline provides disclosure requirements for banks under Basel II framework:
Ans: True
Qus: Operational risk may also arise due to inherent faults in systems, procedures and technology, which also impacts
revenues of an organization adversely:
Ans: True
Qus: Capital management and profit planning are important factors for earning maximum returns from business
Ans: True
Qus: The possibility of losses associated with the diminution in the credit quality of borrower or counterparties from outright
default is a part of credit risk:
Ans: True
Qus: There are three methods for computation of capital for credit risk: standardized approach, foundation internal rating
based approach and advanced internal rating based approach:
Ans: True
BASEL – III (L0265)
Qus: Minimum common equity Tier 1 under Basel III is

Ans: 4.5%
Qus: What is Capital Conservation Buffer under Basel III?

Ans: 2.5%
Qus: The weighing factor for cash assets is _____ .

Ans: 0%
Qus: The weighing factor for Government bonds is _____.

Ans: 5%
Qus: Minimum total capital Increased from 8.0% to ________.

Ans: 10.5%
Qus: The weighing factor for Mortgage assets is ______.
SKA
Ans: 65 %
Qus: ______ days Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) is intended to promote short-term resilience to potential liquidity
disruptions.
Ans: 30
Qus: From which year Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) for liquidity risk management will be created?
Ans: 2015
Qus: From which year Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR) will be introduced?
Ans: 2018
Qus: Which of the following is not the aim of Basel III measures?
Ans: Issuing guidelines for Central Bank Regulator inflation control
Qus: Which one of the following is not a qualitative impact of Basel III?
Ans: Improved efficiency of management
Qus: Which one of the following is not a qualitative impact of Basel III?
A. Crowding out of weaker banks
B. Legal entity reorganization
C. Prudent risk management
D. Better financial control by Central Banks
Qus: Which of the following is one of the pillars under Basel III?
Ans: Market Discipline
Qus: What is the expansion of CVA?

Ans: Capital Value Adjustments
Qus: What is the expansion of TCE?

Ans: Total Common Equity
Qus: What is the expansion of SIFI?

Ans: Systemically Important Financial Institutions
Qus: The Basel III is to be implemented by banks in India as per the guidelines issued by
Ans: RBI
Qus: Market Discipline in Basel III comes under

Ans: Pillar III
Qus: Basel III measures aim to

A. Improve the banking sector's ability to absorb shocks arising from financial and economic stress, whatever be the
source
B. Improve risk management and governance
C. Strengthen bank’s transparency and disclosures
D. All of the above
Qus: RBI issued final circular on credit risk on

Ans: 22nd December 2011
Qus: The proposed Basel III guidelines seek to

Ans: To improve the ability of banks to withstand periods of economic and financial stress by prescribing more stringent
capital and liquidity requirements for them.
Qus: The main objective of Basel III prescription is and economic stress.
A. To strengthen global capital and liquidity regulations with the goal of promoting a more resilient banking sector.
B. To improve the banking sector’s ability to absorb shocks arising from financial
C. Both (A) and (B) above
SKA
Qus: As per the definition, Basel III is a comprehensive set of reform measures designed to improve
A. Regulation
B. Supervision
C. Risk management within the banking sector
D. All of the above
Qus: Which of the following is not an aim of Basel III?

A. Improve the banking sector's ability to absorb shocks arising from financial and economic stress, whatever be the
source
B. Strengthen the Control of Central Banks on the individual banks
C. Improve risk management and governance
D. Strengthen bank’s transparency and disclosures
Qus: What should be minimum capital as per Basel III prescription (in INR)?
A. Rs 100 cr
B. Rs 500 cr
C. Rs 300 cr
D. No such minimum amount
Qus: What is the estimated amount that the Indian banks will be required to raise as additional capital in next nine years
besides lowering their leveraging capacity. (Rs in crore)
Ans: 5,00,000
Qus: Pillar one in Basel III is

Ans: Minimum Capital Requirements
Qus: Which one of the following is not a feature of Basel III?

A. Better capital quality
B. Capital conservation buffer
C. Better customer service
D. Countercyclical buffer
E. Minimum common equity
Qus: Which of the following is an aim of building conservation buffer?

Ans: Slowing banking growth
Qus: There were no pillars under Basel I. How many pillars are under Basel III?
Ans: 3
Qus: Basel III proposal qualitatively impacts both on individual banks and financial system. Which of the following is not
included in the impact on individual banks?
A. Crowding out of Weaker banks
B. Significant pressure on profitability and ROE (Return on Equity)
C. Change in demand from short term to long term funding, Legal entity reorganization and Prudent risk management
D. Small Bank will avoid big loan
Qus: Which of the following areas Basel III proposals have not addressed?
A. Capital reform
B. Liquidity reform
C. General improvements to the stability of the financial system
D. Appointment of top management
Qus: Which one of the following is not an impact on the Financial System as per the Provisions of Basel III?
A. Reduced risk of a systematic banking crisis
B. Reduced lending capacity
C. Reduced investor appetite for bank debt and equity
D. Reduced value of equity share
Qus: Banks will face a significant additional capital requirement under Basel III.
Ans: Yes
SKA
Qus: Net stable funding ratio is designed to encourage and incentivise banks to use stable sources to fund their activities
to reduce the dependency on short term wholesale funding.
Ans: True
Qus: The leverage ratio is implemented on a gross and un-weighted basis not taking into account the risks related to the
assets.
Ans: True
Qus: The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision published the first version of Basel III in 2010.
Ans: False
Qus: Basel III is only a continuation of effort initiated by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision to enhance the
banking regulatory framework under Basel I and Basel II.
Ans: False
Qus: Basel III regulations and recommendations are the amendment of Basel II recommendations.
Ans: False
Qus: Basel III recommendations will improve the banking system by increasing the skills to cover the shock of financial
crisis. Basel III will also increase the financial risk.
Ans: False
BASICS OF BANKING (L0151)
Qus: Transfer Batch consists of:

A. One debit and multiple credits
B. Multiple debits and single credit
C. Multiple debits and multiple credits
D. Any of the above
Qus: Term Deposit account is

Ans: Deposit of an amount for a fixed period where interest is paid periodically
Qus: Term loans are granted against:

A. Stocks & Receivables
B. Fixed assets of the unit
C. Houses, cars and mortgage properties of individuals
D. b & c above
Qus: Margin refers to

A. The amount contributed by the borrower to the project cost
B. The percentage value of his stake in the business
C. Both a & b
Qus: Banks follow this system of book-keeping for accounting of transactions.

Ans: Double entry system
Qus: Contingent accounts are:

Ans: Financial commitments extended on behalf of customers
Qus: Financial commitments made to third parties by the Bank on behalf of the customers are covered under this head
Ans: Contingent accounts
Qus: The physical or financial asset for / against which the advance is made is referred as
Ans: Security
Qus: Savings Bank account is:

Ans: Running account for savings with restriction for number of withdrawals
Qus: Passing powers of various users/tellers depend on

Ans: Their capability level in CBS according to their grades
SKA
Qus: Accounts are opened only after
A. Verification of KYC norms and authorization by an official
B. After sanction by competent authority, in case of loans
C. Both a & b
Qus: Daybooks are referred to as

A. VVR (voucher verification report)
B. BGL (General Ledger Day Book)
C. Both a & b
Qus: Weekly abstract is a

A. Trial Balance giving various GL debit & credit balances
B. CRR and SLR are calculated based on this
C. Both a & b
Qus: The basis of transactions in Bank is

Ans: Voucher
Qus: An account where all the receipts and payments of the activity on account of day to day operations are expected to
be reflected. (Extended against the stocks and receivables of the unit)
Ans: Cash credit
Qus: Cash credit facility is

Ans: An advance for financing the working capital needs of commercial activities
Qus: Demand loans are granted against:

A. Bank Deposits
B. NSCs
C. Gold ornaments
D. Any of the above
Qus: Fixed accounts, cash balance a/c, sundry deposit a/c and interest a/c are classified as:
Ans: Non-personal accounts
Qus: Proprietary concerns, partnerships, companies, trusts and institutions are classified as:
Ans: Non-personal customers
Qus: Transactions in customer accounts are listed date wise in day books called V V R
Ans: Teller-wise
Qus: Term loans are repaid through instalments

A. Out of the income, in case of personal segment
B. Out of the income from the activity financed in case of nonpersonal loans
C. Both a & b
Qus: Customer accounts are:

A. Deposit Accounts
B. Loan accounts
C. Contingent account
D. All of these
Qus: General ledger consists of

Ans: All office (Internal) accounts as well as the consolidated position of customer accounts based on each account type
Qus: General ledger consists of

A. Financial transactions in branch accounts
B. Financial transactions at ATMs, INB or other Branches
C. Both a & b
Qus: Drawing Power (DP) is
SKA
Ans: The maximum amount below which the balance in the loan account has to be maintained from time to time as per the
repayment schedule or due to fluctuating level of asset value against the advance is made.
BASICS OF FINANCING AGRICULTURE – KRISHIGYAN (L0421)
Qus: It is mandatory for a Bank to lend ____% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to agriculture and allied activities.
Ans: 18
Qus: Direct agricultural advances can be ____% minimum for the purpose of achievement of `benchmark.
Ans: 13.5
Qus: Small farmers are those who own ____ acres unirrigated land.
Ans: 5.00
Qus: Farmers who own upto____ acres irrigated land are classified as small farmers.
Ans: 2.50
Qus: Marginal farmers are those farmers who own ____ acres unirrigated land.
Ans: 2.50
Qus: Farmers who own upto____ acres irrigated land are known as marginal farmers.
Ans: 1.25
Qus: Indirect agricultural advances can be _____% maximum for the purpose of achievement of benchmark.
Ans: 4.5
Qus: Advances upto Rs ___ crore per borrower to dealers of fertilizers, seeds pesticides are classified as indirect agri
advances.
Ans: 5
Qus: Farmers who own more than _____ acres of irrigated land or more than ____ acre unrrigated land are classified as
‘other farmers’.
Ans: 2.50, 5.00
Qus: PLP stands for………

Ans: Potential Linked Credit Plan
Qus: MPEDA stands for…

Ans: Marine Products Export Development Authority
Qus: Olericulture referes to……

Ans: Cultivation of vegetables
Qus: Production advances are given to farmers to meet expenses which they incur in ____.
A. Purchasing seeds
B. Purchasing fertilizers
C. Purchasing pesticides
D. All of above
Qus: Advances given to farmers for ___ are classified as investment credit.
Ans: Purchase of long term assets.
Qus: Advances given for ____ are classified as Agricultural Advances.

A. Agricultural operations
B. Allied Agricultural activities
C. Raising of crops
D. All of above
Qus: Which of the following is not a spice crop?

A. Turmeric
SKA
B. Ginger
C. Cumia
D. Toria
Qus: Which of the following crops is/are raised in Rabi season in India ?
A. Paddy
B. Wheat
C. Mustard
D. b&c
Qus: Which of the following crops is/are not pulses?

A. Arhar
B. Mustard
C. Peas
D. Blackgram
Qus: Which crop is not a cash crop?

A. Sugarcane
B. Cotton
C. Tabacco
D. Paddy
Qus: Rabi crops are generally sown in ____ months.

Ans: Nov/Dec
Qus: Kharif crops are generally sown in ____ months.

Ans: Jun/Jul
Qus: Khasra reveals the name of _____.

Ans: Cultivator
Qus: Which of the following crops is/are commercial crops?

A. Sugarcane
B. Tabacco
C. Wheat
D. a&b
Qus: Which crop is not classified as flower crop?

A. Cauliflower
B. Gerbera
C. Tuberose
D. Carnation
Qus: Which of the following is not a medicinal/aromatic crop?

A. Ashwagandha
B. Citronella
C. Lemon grass
D. Cauliflower
Qus: ____ and ___are classified as cereal crops.

Ans: Paddy, wheat
Qus: On which land record encumbrances are noted?

Ans: Khatauni
Qus: Blue Revolution pertains to

Ans: Production of Fisheries
Qus: White revolution is related to

Ans: Production of milk
Qus: ‘Jayad’ crops are raised in ___.
SKA
Ans: Summer season
Qus: Advances for setting up Agri clinic & Agri Business Centres are classified under _____ Agri Advances.
Ans: Indirect
Qus: Who issues extract of land records to farmers?

Ans: Revenue authorities
Qus: Which of the following authorities maintain(s) the record of land in the state?
Ans: Revenue authorities
Qus: Khasara reveals cropping pattern.

Ans: true
Qus: Khatauni reveals type of rights of owner farmer.

Ans: True
Qus: Rubber is a plantation crop.

Ans: true
Qus: Paddy & wheat crops are long duration crops.

Ans: false
BCSBI (A1001)
Is it mandatory under the BCSBI guidelines for banks to maintain transparency in their dealings with customers ?
A. Yes
“Customers need to be treated with utmost care so that they are not forced to resort to complaints” Whether it is a part of
BCSBI ?
A. YES
Whether the statement that the bank will not reveal information or data relating to customer accounts, whether provided by
him or otherwise, to anyone, including other companies / entities in our group is correct?
A. Yes
Under normal circumstances, the bank will not close customer’s account without giving him at least 30 days' notice indicating
the reasons for such closure. Whether this statement is correct ?
A. Yes
To inform the customer when he opens account, the circumstances under which his account will be classified as inoperative /
dormant. And also inform at least three months before his account is classified as inoperative / dormant and the
consequences thereof at the last recorded address and / or e-mail. Whether it’s the bank duty to inform the customer under
BCSBI ?
A. Yes
The bank has to display the Banking Ombudsman Scheme on its website. A copy will be made available on request at a
nominal charge and the same will be displayed at the branch the name and contact details of the Banking Ombudsman under
whose jurisdiction the branch falls. Under BCSBI whether the said statement is correct ?
A. Yes
Which is the central objective of the Codes?

A. Promote good banking practices
B. Foster confidence in the banking system
C. Increase awareness of customers and to enhance customer protection
D. Set up minimum standards
BCSBI set up on whose recommendations?

A. BCSBI was set up by RBI in 2003, in terms of the Tarapore Committee recommendations.
SKA
Which is not an important right of the customer covered under the BCSBI Code?
A. Right to fair treatment
B. Right to transparency, fair and honest dealing
C. Right to suitability of services
D. Right to privacy
E. Right to protect personal grievances
Whether the Code replaces or supersede regulatory or supervisory instructions of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) ?
B. The Code does not replace or supersede regulatory or supervisory instructions of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

The basic purpose of BCSBI code is ?

D. This is a Code of Customer Rights, which sets minimum standards of banking practices.
If the customer wants to make a complaint, as a banker what we will tell him to support ?
A. How to do so.
B. Where a complaint can be made.
C. To whom a complaint can be made.
D. When to expect a reply.
E. All of the above
While the bank is planning to close down its branch they will arrange for intimation to the customers by :
D. One month notice
What is the status of BCSBI ?

A. BCSBI is an independent and autonomous institutions.

Which is one of the codes enumerated by BCSBI ?

B. Code of Bank’s Commitment to Micro and Small Enterprises
The bank will settle the claims in respect of deceased depositors and release payments to survivor(s) / nominee within a
period not exceeding ………… days from the date of receipt of the claim subject to the production of proof of death of the
depositor and suitable identification of the claimant(s), to the bank's satisfaction.?
C. 15 days
What is the timeline for settlement of deceased customer’s accounts ?

C. 15 days
BCSBI registered under which Act ?

B. BCSBI has been registered as a separate society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860
How many codes have been enumerated by BCSBI ?

A. Two codes
BCSBI stands for?

C. Banking Codes and Standards Board of India
BGL and CGL (L0406)
SKA
Qus: The report that shows the difference, if any, between the balances of a BGL account and the related CGL account is:
Ans: GLCOMP
Qus: If one leg of the transfer is missing, the entry will be reflected in the report:
Ans: GLCNTR
Qus: The screen for Cash Compare Utility by Vault Teller (user type 50) and Cash Officer (use type 60):
Ans: 669
Qus: The teller can verify hanging cash transaction through screen:
Ans: 8083
Qus: BGL account for ATM Cash Disbursed but Customer Account not debited:
Ans: 98581
Qus: BGL account for ATM Cash not disbursed but Customer Account debited:
Ans: 98582
Qus: BGL account for RTGS Rejected transactions:

Ans: 98593
Qus: BGL account for Inward Clearing Suspense:

Ans: 98543
Qus: BGL account for Rejected Trickle Feed:

Ans: 98571
Qus: BGL account for IOI to be issued:

Ans: 98585
Qus: The balance kept for Branch Cash Handling System[BCHS] is reflected in BGL account:
Ans: 98912
Qus: In the Currency Chest transactions Branches should not entry manually in Currency Chest Bin Balance (Off B/s) A/c
as that is system operated account. The account number is:
Ans: 98958
Qus: The account structure of BGL account is:

Ans: 5/7 digit Natural Number+5 digit Br. Code+Check Digit
Qus: The CGL account number consists of

Ans: 10 digits
Qus: General Ledger Classification Code is of:

Ans: 18 digits
Qus: BGL account for Batch Posting – OLRR:

Ans: 99512
Qus: Which of the following ensures that the position of Branch Cash balance is correct in a CBS branch?
Ans: BGL Cash Balance account agrees with CGL Cash balance account and both in turn agree with the physical cash
Qus: For bank as a whole, the following account balance is always zero:
Ans: Core Inter Branch Account
Qus: The CGL cash balance in 1204505001 should tally with BGL cash balance in:
Ans: 98903 + 98912
Qus: The CGL cash balance account is:

Ans: 1204505001
SKA
Qus: GLIF account for Currency Chest transactions is :
Ans: 1111111111
Qus: Which one is a false statement relating to Batch posting:

A. If first debit fails, the remaining entries are not posted
B. If first debit is posted and the remaining debits fail, the debit entry is reversed
C. If all the debit entries are posted but some credit entries fail, then failed entries are parked in BGL 99512
D. If first debit is posted and some debit entries fail, then none of the credit entry will be posted
Qus: The interface between Banks24 and FinanceOne is:

Ans: General Ledger Interface File
Qus: The report reflecting PPF/SCSS balances not swept:

A. List of Non-Zero System Suspense accounts report
B. Audit BGL report
C. WSA System Suspense report
D. Audit report
Qus: In Finance One, the branches can make:

Ans: Enquiries only
Qus: BGL accounts of non home branches are available for:

Ans: Enquiries
Qus: Cash Clearing Account[98904] is used for:

Ans: For non home branch cash transaction
Qus: BGL accounts are opened by:

Ans: CDC
Qus: GLIF account for Transfer transactions [Technical Suspense acount] is :

Ans: 1260505001
Qus: Which one of the statement relating to OLRR batch posting account-BGL 99512 is correct:
Ans: The originating entry will be always a credit entry
Qus: 95% of entries appear in Technical Supsense account due to:

Ans: Transfer Batch failure
Qus: The Report that has to be referred to identify that balances in PPF/SCSS are not swept:
Ans: WSA System Suspense Break up
Qus: The Cash Correction account to be used if Cash Drawer is not updated on same day:
Ans: 98955
Qus: BGL account for Internet Banking:

Ans: 98561
Qus: If a BGL account has account status of "02" it means:

Ans: The account is stopped for transactions
Qus: GLIF account for Cash transactions is :

Ans: 1204505001
Qus: GLIF account for Inter Branch transactions is :

Ans: 1204505001
Qus: When Vault teller issues cash to cash officer in the system, the amount is:
Ans: Credited to BGL98903
Qus: Transactions in Customer/Internal accounts are posted in:

Ans: B@ncs Link
SKA
Qus: The zero balance system supense accounts can have balance:
Ans: During the day
BHARAT QR (B2001)
What is the toll-free number of World line Callcenter

A. 18602332332
What is the toll-free number of Hitachi Call centre

A. 18004250727
How BHARAT QR App will be downloaded by the Merchant

A. Downloading from Google Play store
How BHARAT QR App will be downloaded by the consumer

B. Pre-login page of SBI Anywhere App
What is the url for BHARAT QR work flow for the operating staff?
A. https://mab-workflow.sbi.co.in
How many types of QR Codes are there in BHARAT QR and what are they?
C. 2, Static & Dynamic
What is State Bank ‘Bharat QR’?

A. It is a payment option to the customers by scanning QR Code of the merchant and pay.
How many types of BHARAT QR Codes are there?

A. BHARAT QR Merchant & BHARAT QR Consumer
How many sections will be there in Mab work flow for on boarding the Merchant for BAHARAT QR?
D. 5
What is static QR Code?

A. Customer enters the amount to be paid in Bharat QR app, and makes Payment.
Which one of the following statement is True in regard to on-boarding of a merchant forBharat QR SBI ?
A. Merchant can do self-registration on Bharat QR app
B. Merchant can approach MAB cell at LHO
C. Merchant can link his account to QR scanning facility through CINB
D. Process is same as in case of applying for POS terminal
Mr. Sam who owns a Kirana store and uses Bharat QR for receiving payments, wants the QR code to have amount too so
that customer need not enter the amount in their app. What is the name for such QR code.
C. Dynamic QR code
What is Dynamic QR Code?

B. Merchant enters the amount to be paid in Bharat QR app to receive the payment.
Mr. Ramayya wants to accept payments at his vegetable shop through QR code. Which one of the following is not a
requirement for accepting Bharat QR payments?
A. Smart Mobile phone
B. Smart Mobile dongle
C. Account with SBI
D. Bharat QR SBI Merchant application installed on phone
What is minimum MDR for UPI Transactions?

B. Rs 1/
How the funds will be settled to the Merchant while accepting payments through BHARAT QR App?
C. T+1 Basis
SKA
What are pre-requisites for merchants to have BHARAT QR Merchant App?
A. Smart Phone (Presently Android)
B. A data connection (2G or 3G)
C. Bharat QR Merchant Application installed on Merchant’s smart phone.
Which one of the following is not a feature of SBI BHARAT QR Merchant App?
A. No cash receipt - No risk of forged notes
B. Cardless - Scan & Pay
C. Charge slips to be stored for 1 month
D. Payment directly credited to the account
Which one of the following a Merchant need to pay for availing Bharat QR payment facility?
C. MDR
Which of the following is not true about Bharat QR based payments?

A. Bharat QR is available on Home page of State Bank Anywhere app
B. Customer need not carry multiple cards
C. Customer can link multiple cards to the app and select the appropriate card during the payment
D. Bharat QR is not interoperable among major card schemes
Bharat QR code which is a form of a bar code does not contain which one of the following?
A. Merchant ID
B. Terminal ID
C. Merchant name
D. Merchant address
What are the roles in MAB software for on boarding the merchant for BAHARAT QR
B. Originator, recommender, approver
What is QR Code?
B. The QR Code is a form of Bar code that has Merchant’s MID, TID,QRID, Currency and Merchant’ s name embedded in it.
In terms of the recent RBI/GOI guidelines on MDR, Bank shall claim a reimbursement of MDR from RBI /GOI, for
transactions less than or equal to _____ and MDR shall not be charged to the Merchant
C. Rs 2000/-
How much monthly rental will have to be paid by the merchant in case of Bharat QR Terminal?
D. NIL
What are the MDR rates for Card transaction in BHARAT QR up to& above Rs 2000/
A. 0.30% & 0.80%
BHIM AADHAAR SBI (B2002)
Aadhaar Enabled Payment System has been developed by _______.

A. NPCI
Bhim Aadhaar SBI operates on which platform?

C. AEPS
Which of the following BGL A/c has been introduced by the Bank for reconciliation of AEPS transactions.
A. AEPS Short A/c
The merchant can access Bhim Aadhaar SBI on which mobile operating system?
D. Android
Which of the following is required for the customer to make a payment using Bhim Aadhaar SBI.
A. Bank A/c
B. Aadhaar seeded A/c
SKA
C. Aadhaar No.
D. All the above
Which of the following is NOT required for the customer to make a payment using Bhim Aadhaar SBI.
A. Smartphone
B. Bank A/c
C. Aadhaar seeded A/c
D. Aadhaar No.
Which of the following is a prerequisite for the merchant to access Bhim Aadhaar SBI.
A. Aadhaar seeded A/c with SBI
B. Certified Biometric Reader attached to the smartphone
C. Smartphone with Android 4.2 or higher
D. All the above
Which of the following is NOT a prerequisite for the merchant to access Bhim Aadhaar SBI.
A. Aadhaar seeded A/c with SBI
B. Certified Biometric Reader attached to the smartphone
C. Point of Sale terminal
D. Smartphone with Android 4.2 or higher
In Bhim Aadhaar SBI, the per transaction limit for the customer is:
A. Rs.2000/-
In Bhim Aadhaar SBI, the per day limit for the customer is:
B. Rs.5000/-
In Bhim Aadhaar SBI, the per month limit for the customer is:
C. Rs.20,000/-
In Bhim Aadhaar SBI, the per day limit for the merchant is:
C. Rs.25,000/-
In Bhim Aadhaar SBI, the per month limit for the merchant is:
A. Rs.100,000/-
Who can be on-boarded as a merchant under BHIM Aadhaar SBI?

A. Individual
Merchants with which type of A/cs CANNOT be on-boarded under BHIM Aadhaar SBI?
A. SB A/c in individual category
B. Partnership firm CA
C. Proprietorship firm CA
D. CA in individual category
CBS users can access the Admin Module through:

C. SSO (Single Sign On)
In Bhim Aadhaar SBI, when will the merchant’s account be credited?

D. Realtime
RB-DAU shall follow-up for recovery from / refund to customers’ account for ___ days from the date of transactions.
A. 30
Both the BGL accounts are reconciliatory type and where originating entry will be put through by RB-DAU and branches are
required to put through _____ entries only.
A. Responding
Which of the following is NOT true about the fingerprint scanner required by the merchant to access BHIM Aadhaar SBI.
A. It has to be registered with UIDAI
B. It has to be a Certified Biometric Device
C. It has to be compulsorily rented from the Bank
SKA
D. It can be purchased from the market
For availing Bhim Aadhaar SBI, the merchant has to pay the following charges:
D. Nil
Merchant Web has ___ main components.

B. 2
Transactions on Bhim Aadhaar SBI are ____ in nature.

C. Interoperable
As Bhim Aadhaar SBI is interoperable in nature, customers of other Bank (not having A/c with SBI) also can be on-boarded
as merchant.
B. False
Under the rental model, if a terminal is installed before 15th of the month, full rental is recovered for that month. However, if
the terminal is installed after 15th day of the month, rent is charged from the following month onwards.
A. True
BRANCH ADMINISTRATION – I (L0325)
Qus: While on duty an armed guard should hold …….. number of cartridges
Ans: 10
Qus: Who should obtain fire insurance policy of the branch

Ans: LHO
Qus: Fire insurance policies of the branch should be entered in

Ans: Branch Document register
Qus: The safe deposit receipt for the deposit of box of duplicate keys received from the other branch should be entered in
Ans: Branch document register
Qus: All Guards / Watchmen of the Bank should be Medically checked for Physical fitness
Ans: Bi yearly
Qus: BM should ensure that a disaster recovery plan for his Branch is
Ans: Approved and ready for implementation
Qus: Cash remittances exceeding Rs 50 lakhs and up to Rs 100 lakhs should be accompanied by
Ans: 1 assistant and 2 armed guards
Qus: Electronic time Lock should be installed on the

Ans: Strong Room Doors
Qus: In case of fitness certificate to a strong room needs to be given by bank engineer, he should
Ans: Have put in atleast 3 years of service
Qus: Branch Locking up arrangement is approved by

Ans: RBO
Qus: All guards should under go training once in every

Ans: 2 years
Qus: Disaster Management Plan should be reviewed

Ans: Yearly
Qus: If another hand safe is not available at the branch the cash officer should keep his set of strong room keys in
Ans: In his personal custody
Qus: Whenever strong room is not provided, cash should be placed in
SKA
Ans: Fire and Burglary resistant cabinets
Qus: The BM/ Police authorities while making a surprise visit to the branch at odd hours should note their observations in
Ans: Guard inspection register
Qus: Branches are normally supplied with which types of guns

Ans: Double barrel breach loading guns
Qus: The fire extinguishers in the branch should be

A. In working condition
B. Use worthy
C. Current
D. All of the above
Qus: Disaster Management Plan should also cover

A. Earth Quakes
B. Fire
C. Floods
D All the above
Qus: In terms of security alarm the BM should ensure that

A. It is in working condition
B. It is tested regularly
C. It is linked to all counters/desk/ area
D. All of the above
BRANCH ADMINISTRATION – II (L0326)
Qus: Maximum number of leaves can be sanctioned to the officers/staffs under casual leaves are __________________.
Ans: Four
Qus: Officers can accumulate a maximum of ___________as ULC Leave.

Ans: 36 days
Qus: Sick Leave can accumulate a maximum of ______________.

Ans: 18months
Qus: Branch Manager should be aware of the basic conduct and service rules of the officers and ____________.
Ans: Award Staff
Qus: Which of the following service rules is exclusive for officers?

A. Should involve any trade or business
B. Should bring any political influence
C. Should not use his position of influence or power
Qus: The Branch Manager should first understand the ____________of the staff members working under him.
Ans: Roles and responsibilities
Qus: Branch manager should ensure good business orientation by _____________.

Ans: Cost Reduction
Qus: Find the odd one out under human resources.

A. Problems relating to their personal life brought to his notice by staff members and customers are resolved
promptly
B. Make staff understand their future and encourage them to progress
C. Excellent industrial relations are maintained and fostered
D. All of the above
Qus: To perform the role of INB maker for CINB customers. The job done by Special Assistant will be authorized by
_____________ Authoriser.
SKA
Ans: INB
Qus: Cash delivery facility can be made available to customers under ___________.
Ans: Doorstep banking
Qus: Other Functionaries at a branch should l help in _____________ functioning of the branch.
Ans: Harmonious
Qus: Branch Manager should maintain excellent liaison with _______________ and influential persons at the centre and
should comply with reasonable requests regarding the conduct of ______________, with courtesy.
Ans: Government Officials, Government Businesses
Qus: The officer should maintain good conduct and discipline and show courtesy and attention to all persons in all
transactions and negotiations.
Ans: Rule 50(5)
Qus: The _________________ plays a vital role in the success of the branch office.
Ans: Branch Manager
Qus: __________ all sanctions / expenses invariably / frauds/ events and happenings that are deemed important to the
controller.
Ans: Reporting
Qus: Depending on branch size bank may conduct customer relation programme at ________________.
Ans: Monthly/Quarterly
Qus: Other activities of SWO are :

A. Govt. receipts/ payments
B. Passbook issue/ updating
C. Small loans against specified security
D. Both a & b
Qus: Which is the most lively and important resource of the Bank.
Ans: Human
Qus: Core activities of SWO are:

A. RD
B. TDR
C. STDR
D. All of the above
Qus: Checking of leave records, overtime register, Bonus register, establishment register, etc. are the duties of
__________________.
Ans: Senior Assistants
Qus: Delivery of Drafts/Inter Office Instruments at Customer’s place are the duties of _____________.
Ans: Subordinate Staff
Qus: Trained staff can handle _____________ well.

Ans: Customers
Qus: Official forum like ___________ and more can be utilized to improve the general administration of the branch.
A. Management Committee
B. Customer Service Committee
C. Preventive Vigilance Committee
D. Both b & c
Qus: Which of the following helps branch staff in providing excellent customer service?
A. Improvement in the skill / knowledge levels of the staff
B. List and registers containing important customer / non customers
C. Appropriate customer amenities at the branch
D. All of the above
SKA
Qus: Which of the following is a primary role of a branch manager?
A. Staff Development
B. Business Development
C. Industrial Relations
D. All of the above
Qus: Misbehaviour with customers shall be treated as good quality and gets appreciation from the branch manager.
Ans: No
Qus: _______________ should be ensured by motivating and encouraging the employees / officers
Ans: Punctuality
Qus: Marketing of liability/loans products and products of subsidiaries like _____________ etc. along with sourcing of
proposals is thge duty of a Branch Manager.
A. SBI Credit Card,
B. Mutual Fund,
C. SBI Life
D. All of the above
Qus: Achieving business/profit target through structured ___________

Ans: Action Plans
Qus: Branch Management committee conducts periodical meetings to:

A. Obtain feedback
B. Seek assistance
C. Allocate duties / assign tasks
D. All of the above
Qus: one of the functions of a BM is : Coaching and guiding the sales staff for achieving ______________.
Ans: Targets/Budgets
Qus: Good work done by ______________ should be appreciated and highlighted.

Ans: Staff Members
Qus: ________________ helps in handling customer from all angles.

Ans: Job rotation
Qus: As per Service Rules relating to Financial Transactions, Officers should not :
A. Lend money in private capacity
B. Overdraw his account with the bank
C. Buy or stock without funds to meet full cost
D. All of the above
Qus: Senior Assistants are placed as Single Window Operator (SWO)

Ans: True
Qus: Tracking of loan applications for early sanction/fulfilment is the duty of the BM
Ans: True
Qus: Job done by special assistant will be authorised by INB authoriser.

Ans: True
Qus: All employees of the branch should be courteous and display proper etiquette with the customers.
Ans: True
Qus: Senior Special assistant (SSA) can sign front page of pass book.
Ans: True
Qus: Tracking of loan applications for early sanction/fulfilment is the duty of the BM
Ans: True
SKA
Qus: Employee should not disobey and refuse to carry out the reasonable and lawful instructions.
Ans: True
BUDDY SBI (L0700)
Qus: For registering SBI Buddy one has to follow a 6 Stage process. What is the 1st Step for Registering SBI Buddy?
Ans: enter a 4 digit PIN
Qus: For registering SBI Buddy one has to follow a 6 Stage process. What is the 2nd Step for Registering SBI Buddy?
Ans: re-enter the PIN
Qus: For registering SBI Buddy one has to follow a 6 Stage process. What is the 3rd Step for Registering SBI Buddy?
Ans: select the secret question from drop down menu
Qus: For registering SBI Buddy one has to follow a 6 Stage process. What is the 4th Step for Registering SBI Buddy?
Ans: enter the answer
Ans: enter the one time password
Ans: accept the terms and conditions
Qus: The feature ___________ helps users to add money to the wallet a/c.
Ans: Add Money
Qus: The feature ___________ allows users to ask money from other State Bank Buddy users.
Ans: Ask Money
Qus: With the feature _______________ users can send money to other wallet users.
Ans: Send Money
Qus: With the option ________________ the user can pay utility bills effortlessly.
Ans: Recharge and Pay Bills
Qus: With the option “Recharge and Pay Bills”, the user ________________ effortlessly.
A. recharge prepaid mobile
B. recharge DTH
C. pay utility bills
D. All the above
Qus: Mobile wallets let users make purchases and conduct business electronically ______________ with ease.
Ans: anytime, anywhere
Qus: In Buddy app, in the event of user forgets the PIN, it can be reset at the time of ________
Ans: Sign In
Qus: In Buddy app, in the event of user forgets the PIN, it can be reset using ____________ .
Ans: security question and answer
Qus: While resetting the PIN , on correctly choosing security question and answer, the system will issue _____________
and user would be required to set a new PIN using this temporary PIN.
Ans: a temporary 4 digit PIN
Qus: Mobile Wallet space is still in its infancy and requires significant infrastructure changes in the ecosystem but the
general consensus is that __________________.
Ans: this is the future of payment systems
Qus: SBI Buddy is the first Indian Mobile Wallet Application available in _______ Languages.
Ans: 13
SKA
Qus: In Buddy app, under “My Transactions” option, the user can view the details of his/her previous transactions. This
feature shows the last ____________ transaction details by default.
Ans: 2
Qus: In Buddy app, under “My Transactions” option, the user can view the details of his/her previous _______________
transactions.
Ans: 25
Qus: State Bank of India has launched its own mobile wallet called ______________ .
Ans: State Bank Buddy
Qus: The State Bank of India has launched the State Bank Buddy mobile wallet keeping in mind the needs of
_________________
A. the young generation,
B. those who want to make payments with ease and are on the go
C. who are tech savvy,
D. All the above
Qus: The State Bank of India has launched the State Bank Buddy mobile wallet keeping in mind the needs of the
individuals ___________________________ while using digital channels for payment.
Ans: who are hesitant to expose the entire balance on their accounts
Qus: Mobile wallet basically refers to payment services operated under financial regulation and performed from or via a
_____________.
Ans: Mobile Device
Qus: The SBI Buddy mobile wallet is gaining more and more user attention as it is ___________
A. convenient
B. user friendly
C. fast
D. All the above
Qus: For banks today, mobile wallets have a lot of potential and can be a key to __________ .
A. building loyalty
B. creating new revenue streams
C. Both the above
Qus: With the feature “Send Money”, users can send money to any beneficiary. This beneficiary need not be a user of
State Bank Buddy.
Ans: True
Qus: Mobile wallets allow users to carry out money transactions using a ___________ without any need of cash, cheque,
or credit cards.
Ans: mobile phone
Qus: The feature “Add Money”, helps users to add money to the wallet a/c using _____________ of account with any
bank.
A. debit cards
B. net banking
C. IMPS credentials
Qus: With the feature “Send Money”, users can send money ______________________ .
A. any contact in phone book
B. any contact in Facebook
C. Either of the above
Qus: In State Bank Buddy app, one of the avenues for registering is using the
Ans: Mobile Number
Qus: State Bank Buddy application can be downloaded _________________________ .
SKA
A. from Google Play store
B. from Apple App store
C. either from Google Play store or Apple App store
Qus: SBI Buddy has been launched with ________ as technology partner .
Ans: Accenture
Qus: SBI Buddy has been launched with as service provider

Ans: MasterCard
Qus: In Buddy app, there is a market place where the users can.
A. book movie tickets
B. Book flights and hotel
C. shop for merchandise
D. All the above
Qus: The State Bank Buddy is a mobile wallet which allows the users to transfer money to _______________ with just a
few clicks.
A. other wallet users
B. bank accounts
C. Any one of the above
Qus: In State Bank Buddy app, alternative avenues for registering is using the ____________ .
Ans: Facebook Credentials
Qus: In Buddy app, there is a facility for the users to unblock their blocked wallet at the time of Sign In by entering the
required credentials.
Ans: True
Qus: The first and foremost step of State Bank Buddy application is _________________
Ans: To download the app
BUILDING EMPATHY WITHIN THE BANK (L0641)
Qus: Which among the following is the best and most effective form of listening at the work place?
Ans: Empathetic listening
Qus: Cognitive empathy is more suitable in which among these:

(Ans: Is a useful skill in negotiations
Qus: The different types of empathy that have been defined by psychologists are
Ans: Cognitive, emotional and compassionate empathy
Qus: Which among the following is not a barrier to empathetic listening?

Ans: Viewing the other party as equal
Qus: Empathetic listening is

A. Being attentive to what is said
B. Make use of open ended questions
C. Only A
D. Both A and B
Qus: Holding the door for the people behind you to enter, displays
Ans: Empathetic behavior
Qus: Empathy allows leaders to

A. Help struggling employees to improve and excel
B. May not help struggling employees to improve
C. Build trust in the team
D. Both A and C are correct
SKA
Qus: Choose the option which shows sympathetic behavior.
Ans: I know trying to lose weight is difficult and is really an uphill task.
Qus: Emotional empathy is also known as:

Ans: Personal distress
Qus: Empathy is
Ans: The ability to understand and share the feelings of others.
Qus: The main difference between Empathy and Sympathy is

Ans: Empathy is understanding the other persons feelings, whereas sympathy is just acknowledging the other persons
hardship.
Qus: Empathetic listening helps in:

A. Enhancing communication skills
B. Enhancing Interpersonal relationships
D. Both A and B
Qus: Choose the correct statement

A. True leadership is the willingness of the leader to place the needs of his people above his own.
B. A leader has to recognize and share his feelings with his employees
C. Empathy for a leader is one of the most important tool for effective leadership
D. All the above are correct.
Qus: Empathetic listening is not

Ans: Being inattentive to what is being said by the other person
Qus: As a general rule, people who want empathy need

Ans: Compassionate empathy
Qus: Emotional empathy is

Ans: Empathy by feeling and emotions
Qus: Choose the correct statement

Ans: Using the phrases ‘Please’ and ‘Thank You’ periodically, will help in creating an empathetic environment
Qus: Cognitive empathy is also known as

Ans: Perspective taking
Qus: One of the challenges to Empathetic leadership is

A. It requires a leader to pay attention to his people
B. Our self esteem gets in the way
C. Both A and B
Qus: Empathetic behavior is (choose the incorrect option)

Ans: Not spending more time listening than talking
Qus: Choose the most appropriate option

Ans: Emotional empathy can be good and bad
Qus: Empathy basically requires three things:

Ans: Listening, openness and understanding
Qus: Customer Empathy helps in enhancing customer service as the customer feels
A. Being valued and important
B. Being treated as a stranger
C. Only A
Qus: Which among the following are barriers of empathetic listening?

A. Hierarchy
B. Values and beliefs
SKA
D. Both A and B
Qus: Cognitive empathy is

Ans: Empathy by thought
Qus: Emotional empathy is bad because:

Ans: People may become overwhelmed by emotions
Qus: The benefits of empathetic listening is

Ans: It encourages the party to share more information
Qus: Empathetic behavior is not (choose the incorrect option)

Ans: Listening
Qus: Empathetic leadership style

A. Helps in showing respect to co-workers
B. Shows that you care for your people
D. Both A and B are correct
Qus: Empathetic behavior is not (choose the incorrect option)

A. Questioning
B. Probing
C. Judging
D. Understanding
CARDLESS POINT OF SALES (L0701)
In which of the following month, SBI has launched sbiINTOUCH Tap & Go Debit Card __________.
C. May 2015
The issuance charges of contactless card are ___________.

D. NIL
The Replacement Charges of contactless card are ___________.

C. Rs. 200 + Service Tax + Education Cess
As in case of all international debit cards, sbiINTOUCH Tap & Go Debit Card earns 1 Freedom Rewardz point (Reward point)
for every __________ spent on shopping, dining out, filling fuel, booking for travel or spending online.
A. Rs. 200/-
The fraudster may make a maximum of five _____contactless transactions for a maximum value not exceeding Rs. 10,000/-
_________ in a day
A. 5, Rs 10,000
SbiINTOUCH Tap & Go Debit Card is a __________ International Debit Card which comes with contactless technology.
B. Multi-purpose
Mr A has gone abroad and intends to withdraw local currency from an ATM using Contactless card
A. Yes, he can
The __________ is used for purchases at POS and transactions at ATM, and where Contactless payments are not accepted.
A. Chip
B. Magstripe portion
C. Both A and B
As a promotional offer, the card can be issued to any willing customer at ___________.
D. Free of cost
What is the advantage of Contactless Cards?

A. Enhance the customer’s convenience
SKA
B. Enables the merchants to process payments faster
C. Both A and B
Contactless Debit Card is secured with a Contact & Contactless Chip along with Magstripe and NFC antenna. The NFC
antenna is used for Contactless transactions.
C. Contactless transactions
Contactless Cards work by using the ____________ technology.

A. NFC
The Card will work as a regular CHIP based on _____________.

A. Debit Card
Contactless cards have an embedded, so that, when they are used at a contactless reader, they securely transmit purchase
information to and from the contactless reader.
A. antenna in plastic
A customer has to tap the contactless reader with a distance of ________ cm with his/her contactless card to make the
payment.
C. 4
Limit of Contactless transactions per day is _______.

C. Rs. 10, 000/-
Currently, the issuance of contactless card is being done at ____________ cities.

C. 9
In case of lost or stolen contactless debit Card, a fraudster may use the contactless card for a maximum value up to _______
per transaction, at a merchant location, where the contactless payments are accepted, before the loss is reported and the
card is blocked
A. Rs. 2000/-
The Replacement Charges of contactless card are ___________.

Contactless card allows a customer to make __________ payments.
A. Contactless
A customer can pay for items up to Rs.2000/- in ____________.

A. Seconds
The initiative has been launched by the Bank, with a view to boost up _________ transactions.
C. Small ticket
The Annual Maintenance Charges of contactless card are ___________.

C. Rs. 150/- per annum
Which of the following comes under small ticket transactions?

A. Supermarkets
B. Restaurants
C. Fuel outlets
D. All of the above
Expand NFC ______________.

D. Near Field Communication
Contactless Cards are secured with _____________.

A. Encryption standard
B. Digital signature standard
C. EMV contactless standard
D. All the above
Is dipping or swiping of the Contactless Cards on PoS allowed?

B. No
SKA
Does the PIN is required for the transactions above Rs. 2000/-?
A. Yes
Contactless cards are used for shopping at 10 lakh merchant outlets in India, and over 30 million outlets worldwide, accept
Card Payments.
A. True
A customer can also use his/her contactless debit card as a regular debit card, as this card comes with a magstripe and chip
along with an embedded NFC antenna (for contactless transactions) into it.
A. True
The contactless card works in the same manner as the existing Debit cards for online transactions.
A. True
A customer can pay for items up to Rs.2000/- by entering his/her PIN.

B. False
Branch needs to ensure that consent of the Customer is taken in the prescribed Format after issuing the contactless Card.
B. False
The Bank will be liable for any financial loss arising out of the unauthorized use of the card, till such time, the bank hotlists the
card.
B. False
Contactless transactions require significantly less time compared to traditional card based transactions.
A. True
Does the contactless card can be issued in Hyderabad?

A. Yes
CASH HANDLING PROCUDURE (C3001)
The Assistant (Cash) or SWO preparing the packets remains responsible for the …………… in the packets
B. Quantity & Quality of currency notes of denomination up to Rs 100/-
The CIC who recounts such packets of Rs. 500 and above shall be responsible for ……………….of notes in such packets
B. Quantity
The responsibility for quality and quantity of notes kept overnight in the Cash Box of SWO rests with ___________________
. CIC and SWO
A. SWO
The Asst. (cash)/SWO shall prepare separate note packets, every day at the end of day's transactions
A. For each denomination of currency notes
At the time of receiving from depositor, for the denominations of Rs. 500 and above……….. shall examine the notes and
satisfy himself about the quality for non- issuable notes
A. the Asst.(Cash)
B. Junior Asst.
C. Spl. Asst
D. All the above
Notes which have charred or inseparably stuck up together shall be ______________________________ .

A. Adjudicated
After adjudicating mutilated notes, the Prescribed officer will record his order by subscribing his initials to the dated
with……….stamp
A. “PAY”
B. 'PAID'
C. 'REJECT’ .
SKA
Half Value Paid Notes A .Shall be kept separately along with the cash balance of the branch.
A. Shall be deposited with the full value paid notes in the chest.
B. Will be packed & sent separately to Claims Section, Issue Department of RBI.
C. All the above
Soiled notes will ordinarily be kept

A. Apart from those fit for reissue
The paper seal on the packet containing hundred pieces of same denomination should contain …………across the paper
seal tied to the note packets
A. The name of the SWO
B. Along with the date
C. Signature of the SWO
D. All the above
In terms of Section 28 read with Sec 58(2) of RBI Act, 1934, no person is entitled as a right to recover from the government
or RBI, the value of any ……….. currency note D Both A & B are incorrect
A. Mutilated,
B. Imperfect
C. Both A & B
Each SWO/Assistant (Cash) will be provided with an aluminum cash box measuring…. …. as per approved design and
specifications along with both the keys of the lock of the cash box.
A. 14 inch x 11 inch x 4 inch,
The duplicates of the keys of the cash box or drawer of SWOs shall be lodged in a packet duly sealed by the SWO /
Assistant (Cash), in the custody of …………….
C. Joint custody of the two officials in joint charge of cash, valuables, etc
Counterfeit Notes Received from Police Authorities

D. Should be preserved for a period of three years from the date of receipt from the police authorities
The Original Keys of the Cash Boxes of SWOs, at the end of the day are to be handed over ___________________ .
B. It has to be kept with SWO only
In case of EXCHANGE OF SOILED NOTES Branches will follow the procedure outlined below: . When upto 20 pieces (Value
less than Rs 5000/-)are tendered by a single person, they will be exchanged over the counter free of any charge.
A. For Notes presented in bulk exceeding the above limits, then banks may accept such notes against receipt, for value to be
credited later.
B. For exchange above Rs 50,000/- in value, usual precautions to be taken.
C. All the above are correct
The overnight balance of cash in the Cash Box of SWO is not the part of _______________________ .
A. Currency Chest
B. Hand Balance
C. Switch Centre
D. Both A & C
Counterfeit tendered over the counter should be…

C. Stamped as "COUNTERFEIT NOTE" and impounded
Remittances of soiled notes to be sent to RBI to be sorted by Note Sorting Machines and then packed ……………1000
pieces in a bundle.
A. By Shrink Wrapping
Fractional bundles, containing less than ten packets, shall be kept …………………and withdrawn for use next day.
A. In a separate bin or almirah shelf in the vault or currency chest
When cash is handed over by SWO to other SWO, it is recorded in _____________________________

B. Cash Receipt &Delivery Register
SKA
When Cash Officer or CIC takes out the Cash Boxes from the vault and hands over the boxes allotted to the respective SWO
or Cashier. An entry shall be made in the …………..
B. Cash Box Receipt or Delivery Register
Counting and/or recounting of notes for denominations from Rs. 1 to Rs.100 shall be done by ……………..who prepares the
packet
A. the Asst.(Cash)
B. Junior Asst.
C. Spl. Asst
D. All the above
Sorting of currency notes is the responsibility of the……..

A. Receiving Cashier/SWO
Benefits of the In Branch Cash Handling Process is/are…..

A. There will be no delay in starting customer transactions at the beginning of the day
B. It will reduce the time spent by the Cash Officer or Cashier-in-charge in handing over and receiving cash at the beginning
or at close of day.
C. It will reduce the time spent by the SWO or Assistant (Cash) in handing over and receiving cash at the beginning or at
close of day
D. All the above
A Soiled Note comprises of ___________ pieces of the same note.

A. 2
In case of adjudication The full value paid notes will be treated on par with ………….notes and be kept as part of the currency
chest balances.
A. Non-issuable
As per Reserve Bank of India circulars to banks on note exchange facility as a part of customer service to public. Bank
branches are supposed to ensure that
A. Soiled/Mutilated/Defective currency notes are exchanged and,
B. Coins and / or Notes are freely accepted either in exchange or for transactions.
C. No branch refuses to accept small denomination notes & coins tendered across counters.
D. All the above
Any note with …………….written across It ceases to be a legal tender and the claim on such a note will be rejected.
A. Slogans of a political nature
B. Message of a political nature
C. All the above
Rejected Notes
A. Shall be kept separately along with the cash balance of the branch.
B. Shall be deposited with the full value paid notes in the chest.
C. Will be packed & sent separately to Claims Section, Issue Department of RBI.
D. All the above
CASH REPLENISHMENT - ATM (L0657)
Qus: Which account will get debited in CBS when cash replenishment is done successfully inside the ATM by Cash
Loading Agency/ATM Joint custodians/CAC?
Ans: BGL No : 3198xxx-bbbbb-c
Qus: Which account will get debited when CBS screen is used to originate cash replenishment transaction and for handing
over the cash to the Cash Loading Agency/ATM Joint custodians/CAC?
Ans: BGL No : 3199842-bbbbb-c
Qus: After the the unloaded cash is returned by Cash Loading Agency/ATM Joint custodians/CAC to the branch is
accounted in CBS by the front teller, in which BGL account the reconcilaition takes place?
SKA
Qus: The excess cash found in ATM will be parked in which account by the system for ultimate resoluation of complaints
by the ATM user?
Qus: In order to resolve customer complaints regarding “A/c not debited, Cash not dispensed” and the excess cash has
been found in ATM, which BGL account will be debited?
Ans: Excess amount parked in BGL No : 3199844-bbbbb-c
Qus: After entering the excess amount found in ATM by the Cash Loading Agency/ATM Joint custodians/CAC in the
admin menu inside the ATM, which account will get reflected in CBS?
Qus: After the excess cash found inside the ATM is accounted in CBS by the front teller, in which BGL account the
reconcilaition takes place?
Qus: Which is the screen used in CBS for originating the cash replenishment transaction and for handing over the cash to
the Cash Loading Agency/ATM Joint custodians/CAC?
Ans: Scr:020092
Qus: Which is the screen used in CBS for reversing the cash replenishment transaction that has gone wrong before
handing over the cash to the Cash Loading Agency/ATM Joint custodians/CAC?
Ans: Scr:020093
Qus: Which is the screen used in CBS for adjusting the excess cash handed over to the branch by the Cash Loading
Agency/ATM Joint custodians/CAC?
Ans: Scr:020095
Qus: What is the nature of ATM Excess cash found Account (BGL No : 3199845-bbbbb-c.?
Ans: Suspense A/c
Qus: What is the nature of ATM Excess cash Account (BGL No:3199844-bbbbb-c.?
Ans: Sundry Deposit A/c
Qus: In terms of extant instructions issued by the Banking Operations Department and as per the requirement of . . . . ..,
verification of cash balances and its reconciliation at quarterly intervals, should be done by branches
Ans: Statutory Audit
Qus: Under revised accounting process which is the sub-menu available in CBS for reversing the admin decrease
transaction done at ATM?
Ans: Adjustment of ADMIN Decrease entry
Qus: Revised accounting process is introduced for ATM cash replenishment for the reason:
A. To avoid manual postings in ATM Cash replenishment BGL account (3198)
B. To introduce separate Sundry Deposit Account and Suspense Account exclusively for ATM related entries
C. To enable the cash dispensing Branch/CAC to know the position of cash held with Cash-in-Transit agency at any
point of time
D. All the above
Qus: What is the maximum amount that can be entered in a hopper inside the ATM?
Ans: 2500 X hopper denomination
Qus: Which is the step that is to be performed by the Cash Loading Agency/ATM Joint custodians/CAC before going for
the “CASH REPLENISHMENT” in the admin menu?
Ans: CASH VERIFICATION
Qus: BGL balance of ATM Cash Replenishment account (3198) can be verified through the option “BGL BALANCE” in
ATM Admin menu. Under which option this is available in admin menu?
Ans: ENQUIRY
SKA
Qus: Whenever an erroneous admin increase has happened due to cash replenishment (Cash replenished more than the
admin increase) then the custodians have to decrease the Admin balance through Admin menu by selecting which
option?
Ans: CASH REPLENISHMENT
Qus: Whenever excess cash (Physical cash more than Admin balance) is found inside the ATM, through which menu it
has to be recorded in the Admin menu to his aid GITC in customer complaint resolution?
Qus: In case of cash found short (Physical cash is less than Admin balance) inside the ATM, steps have to be taken to
record the short cash through “CASH VERIFICATION – SHORT CASH” in admin menu. Under which option this is
available in admin menu?
Qus: The Cash Loading Agency/ATM Joint custodians/CAC will visit the ATM and invoke the admin menu inside the ATM
machine. Which are the options available under the Admin menu for the Cash Loading Agency/ATM Joint
custodians/CAC?
A. CASH VERIFICATION
B. CASH REPLENISHMENT
C. OTHERS
D. All the above
Qus: Branch has selected wrong agency at the time of originating cash replenishment transaction and for handing over the
cash to the Cash Loading Agency/ATM Joint custodians/CAC. What is the step required to rectify the transaction?
Ans: Branch has to reverse this entry through the menu “CASH REPLENISHMENT : CORRECTION” for the total amount
and reoriginate the entry
Qus: When the branch is having more than one ATM attached, what is the number of Admin cards to be carried by Cash
Loading Agency/ATM Joint custodians/CAC according to the ATM Cash Replenishment Process?
Ans: Admin card issued for a branch will work on all ATMs of that branch
Qus: CDC is providing the outstandings in the newly opened BGL accounts for ATM Cash Replenishment Process through
the report “List Of Non Zero Intermediate Suspense Accounts-gend0804.txt”. In which folder of daily reports this
report will be available to branches?
Ans: Reports_On_Request
Qus: CDC is providing the break-up and age wise entries in the newly opened BGL accounts for ATM Cash
Replenishment Process through the report “Audit_BGL_accounts_age_wise_break_up_gend0805.txt”. In which
folder of daily reports this report will be available to branches?
Ans: Adhoc_Audit_Reports
Qus: Photocopy of the Admin Balance enquiry slips and counter balances of supervisory mode are pasted in a register
and are signed by
Ans: ATM Joint custodians
Qus: What is the purpose of lodging the request under the request category “ATM SHORT CASH” in service desk
whenever there is cash found short (Physical cash is less than Admin balance) inside the ATM?
Ans: To resolve at GITC level
Qus: What are the actions completed by the system after the cash replenishment is done successfully inside the ATM by
Cash Loading Agency/ATM Joint custodians/CAC?
A. Increase of admin balance by switch centre
B. Printing of slip
C. Generation of Ej
D. All the above
Qus: The Admin Card is used in the ATM for reporting details of . . . directly to ASC.
Ans: Cash Replenishment
Qus: Any “Cash Decrease” through “ADMIN Function” performed by the joint custodians should be approved by the . . . .
.and noted in the Cash Replenishment Register.
Ans: Branch Manager
SKA
Qus: Cash of Rs.1 crore is given to CIT agency through intermediate account for replenishing at 5 ATMs. The loading
agency has replenished 4 out of 5 ATMs with cash @ 20 lacs each and the fifth could not be done because of no
connectivity. What is to be done with the 20 lac cash ?
Ans: CIT will replenish this cash to any other ATM of the same branch on same day or next day.
Qus: ATM Cash is said to be balanced when the following equation is maintained
Ans: Physical Cash in the ATM (a) = Admin Cash Balance (b) = BGL 3198 Balance
Qus: While making admin increase entry on the ATM by Cash Loading Agency/ATM Joint custodians/CAC the transaction
is declined by the system. What are the reasons attributed to the decline of transactions?
A. The custodians have entered wrong reference number
B. Amount entered is greater than hopper limit
C. Cash verification is not done through Admin menu
D. Any of the above reasons
Qus: Details of Admin Cards and its PIN Mailers have to be entered in
Qus: In ABOSS, ATM Cash Report is a tool provided to Branches to verify the cash replenished in ATMs through ADMIN
Card vis-à-vis ATM cash replenishment entries posted in the Core Banking on a particular date. This report
facilitates:
Ans: Balancing of Cash in ATMs.
Qus: Under revised accounting process which is the sub-menu available for correction of wrong entry made for cash
replenishment?
Ans: Cash Replenishment – Correction
CBS - DEPOSIT ACCOUNTS IN CBS (L0110)
Qus: What is the screen number used for opening of personal CIF
Ans: \\SCR:062001
Qus: The Screen No or Transaction Code for ‘Create Account Prompt’ is :SCR:___:
A. 002001 pmt
B. 002000 pmt
C. 001010
D. i and ii above
Qus: Account Segment Code for a Per-Domestic-Public is:

Ans: 0706
Qus: Account type consists of

Ans: Product and type codes
Qus: KYC (Know your customer) means

Ans: Getting documentary proof for identity and address
Qus: First 4 digits of the product in CBS defines Account type

Ans: True in all accounts
Qus: Which parameters impact TDS in deposit account?

A. PAN
B. Date of birth
C. Gender code
D. All the above
Qus: Product code is

Ans: A number that carries product specific business rules
Qus: Accounts under……………..to be maintained with one CIF
SKA
Ans: Same name and rights
Qus: Which of the following will help in searching a customer in CBS?

A. Account number
B. Name
C. ID
D. All the above will help
Qus: All accounts opened in core are recorded under the user ID of:
Ans: Maker
Qus: Mobiliser is to be input under:

Ans: Miscellaneous tab
Qus: What can be Threshold limit for salaried person

Ans: 3 months salary
Qus: Term basis for TDR/STDR accounts to be selected as

Ans: Days
Qus: Who can create CIF

A. Maker
B. Checker
C. All Tellers
Qus: Noting down product code before opening of account

A. Is not necessary
B. Helps in picking up values from drop down
C. Facilitates opening of account fast
D. Both (B) & (C) above
Qus: How to mention maturity of a term deposit account in the system?

A. By mentioning the period in days/months/years
B. By mentioning the maturity date only
C. Either a or b above
D. none of the above
Qus: Which are the mandatory field for opening of CIF

A. City/Town code
B. Post code
C. Date of birth
D. All the above
Qus: ‘Interest Frequency’ while opening deposit account means

Ans: When interest will be paid to the customer
Qus: Surabhi Account can be opened as :

A. SB
B. CA
C. Both
D. None
Qus: PAN/Form 60/61 in core options screen for opening of deposit account above Rs.50000/-
Ans: enables TDS at correct rate in the account
Qus: If customer KYC score is less than 110 how it can be increased in \\SCR:67100 CIF
Ans: Add details of additional documents obtained, enter capital C in function & transmit
Qus: Interest frequency in respect of STDR account in core options should be selected as
Ans: Maturity
Qus: In RD, the installment due date by default is
SKA
Ans: last day of the month
Qus: Where product codes are available?

Ans: Service desk
Qus: CBS handles deposit accounts through 2 important parameters viz. “Account Type” and “Interest Category or Sub
Type”: Account Type consists of how many fields:
Ans: 2
Qus: While opening term deposit account for 5 ½ years the term is to be mentioned as
Ans: Years 5 months 6
Qus: ATM request and nomination should be filled in

Ans: Govt/PPF/Credit card details screen
Qus: Minimum quarterly average balance in Power Gain account is:

Ans: 100000
Qus: Interest Category consists of how many digits:

Ans: 4
Qus: What should be capability to level to authorize opening of CIF

Ans: 5
Qus: Account number in core consists of __ digits:

Ans: 11
Qus: For opening of RD account Term value in Term A/c options to be mentioned as
Ans: 0
Qus: How many digits are there in product type code:

Ans: 4
Qus: How many types of Deposit Liability products are there:

Ans: 2
Qus: What is the value attached to the personal identification in KYC?

Ans: 99
Qus: What is value attached to address proof in KYC?

Ans: 11
Qus: “Type” code for General Account is:

Ans: 11
Qus: To be able to open a deposit account, the customer CIF should have minimum KYC points:
Ans: 110
Qus: To be able to put through any transaction in a deposit account, the customer CIF should have minimum KYC points:
Ans: 110
CBS ANNUAL CLOSING (L0109)
Qus: If there is any credit entry in Branch Clearing general Account more than 5 years old, it has to be segregated and
transferred to
Ans: Blocked Account
Qus: The entries relating to Banker’s Cheque outstanding for more than 3 years wherever applicable should be transferred
to
Ans: Charges Account
SKA
Qus: Excess cash entries other than ATM related outstanding for more than six months should be transferred as on the
last working day of February to
Ans: The Commission Account
Qus: 100% provision is to be made If the net position of entries in Branch Clearing General Account is in debit for more
than
Ans: 90 days
Qus: IRAC norms must be applied

Ans: Borrower-wise
Qus: An account is treated as an NPA if the bill (purchased/discounte remains overdue for a period of more than
Ans: 90 days
Qus: An account, where the limits have not been renewed / reviewed within _____ from the due date, will be treated as
NPA.
Ans: 180 days
Qus: The outstanding in an account, based on drawing power calculated with stock statements older than _______ , will
be deemed irregular.
Ans: 180 days
Qus: The books of the Bank are required to be closed as on 31st March every year as per
Ans: SBI Act of 1955
Qus: If erosion in the security value is more than 50% and less than 90%, then the account will be classified as
Ans: DA1
Qus: The Stamp Account

Ans: Should never show a credit balance
Qus: Balance sheet is generated from

Ans: FinanceOne
Qus: All adjusting entries which are originated at the branch during the current year should be reversed on
Ans: The first working day of April
Qus: All service charges will be applied manually at

Ans: CDC
Qus: Entries relating to operating P/L will be posted by

Ans: CDC
Qus: Sweep parameters are set for SCSS accounts at

Ans: Branch level
Qus: Outstanding amounts in IBIT accounts indicate

Ans: 100% risk for Capital Adequacy purposes
Qus: The closing exercises relating to Government accounts are

Ans: Not required to be done in GBSS
Qus: The NPA rules are implemented by the system under

Ans: Actual / Old IRAC status
Qus: If any standard account becomes NPA, system classifies under

Ans: New IRAC status
Qus: BGL Accounts are mapped to CGL accounts on

Ans: Many to one basis
Qus: Annual closing exercise is
SKA
Ans: A continuous process
Qus: Which of the following answer is not correct? At the close of the day physical cash at the branch should be equal to
A. BGL 98903BBBBBC Branch Cash Account
B. CGL 1204505001 Branch Cash balance Account
C. BGL 98904 Cash Clearing Account
D. Till Balance in the Cash Drawer of the Vault Teller
Qus: Accounting excellence can be achieved by

A. Providing a true and correct picture of the bank’s books
B. Accurately classifying assets and liabilities
C. Ensuring that there is no balance in the temporary suspense accounts
Ans: All the above
Qus: The details of Zero balance system suspense accounts are reported through
Ans: GLCNTR Report
Qus: The details of non zero system suspense accounts listed in GLCNTR Report are separately grouped and reported in
Ans: List of non zero intermediate suspense account
Qus: System Suspense accounts should have zero balance as

Ans: At the end of the day
Qus: All cash transactions have contra entries in

Ans: CGL 1204505001 Branch Cash balance Account
Qus: The Branch Suspense Account should have zero balance at the end of the day.
Ans: Need not be
Qus: The outstanding LCs/BGs add to risk weighted assets and bring down the Bank’s CAR.
Ans: True
Qus: As on 31st march or at a predetermined date, NPA accounts under new IRAC status will be confirmed under
Actual/Old IRAC status.
Ans: True
Qus: Debit balance in Sundry Deposit, Credit balances in Stamp A/C & Stationery A/C will result in Weekly Abstract not
tallied
Ans: True
Qus: Balance in System suspense accounts attracts provision norms

Ans: True
Qus: State Government Guaranteed accounts attract the same IRAC norms as any other account.
Ans: True
Qus: The Bank’s lower CAR under Basel-II as against under Basel-I indicates that the loan data was not adequately
cleansed.
Ans: True
Qus: The corresponding BGL and CGL accounts should have same balance.
Ans: True
Qus: Outstanding Forward Contracts/Bills of Exchange which have become overdue as on the 31st of March are to be
cancelled / crystallised in accordance with the FEDAI rules.
Ans: True
Qus: Branches should post entries relating to TPM in FinanceOne

Ans: False
Qus: CPCs can have balances in weekly Abstract

Ans: False
SKA
Qus: CIBA (Core Inter Branch Account) Account is mirror account of Branch Clearing General Account
Ans: False
Qus: Income receivable but not realized relating to the current year such as Government commission will be automatically
vouched at CDC level
Ans: False
Qus: As on 31st March all Government accounts are zeroised in GBSS system
Ans: False
Qus: Debit balances in Current Accounts and Credit Balances in Cash Credit and ACC will render Weekly Abstract
unbalanced
Ans: False
Qus: If the irregularity amount less than one EMI is outstanding for more than 90 days, the account will become NPA
Ans: False
Qus: In respect of advances under consortium, the record of recovery of individual member banks need not be the basis
for classifying the account under IRAC norms.
Ans: False
Qus: While writing off, the outstanding in the loan account should be debited to the LHO through IBTS Account manually.
Ans: False
Qus: Branches should vouch accrued interest in respect of eligible loan accounts in their books
Ans: False
Qus: If a Recalled Asset is regularized, it can not be upgraded to Standard Asset in CBS system
Ans: False
CDS (L0636)
Qus: A Cohort Chair can be an officer of…….

Ans: DGM or higher grade official
Qus: Empowered Group consists of the ……

Ans: Chairman, MD (CBG), MD (NBG), MD (A&S), MD (Compliance & Risk) and DMD&CDO
Qus: Final grade is distributed after adding both the scores, i.e. Performance Assessment score and Competency
Assessment score.
Ans: False
Qus: Automatic grade distribution or allocation takes place in all such cohorts having……….
Ans: Budgetary Roles &Measurable Roles
Qus: Which is not a type of Role in the new system?

Ans: Pre selected
Qus: For budgetary and measurable roles, the annual score is calculated as the average of the best
Ans: 3 quarterly scores in the dominant role type.
Qus: A budgetary role is.....

Ans: Where KRAs with budgetary targets account for 40% or more weightage
Qus: New performance evaluation system (CDS)is applicable to,

Ans: Clerical staff and Officers both
Qus: When marks of KRAs are directly derived through the IT system, they are subjective KRAs.
Ans: False
SKA
Qus: One of the KRAs of a Branch Manager carries 20% weightage. He has achieved the allotted budget that KRA. How
many marks will he score against this KRA?
Ans: 20
Qus: If “Average outstanding CASA”is your KRA with a weightage of 15, your branch target is to increase the deposit from
Rs. 200 Cr to 230 Cr this year. Your hurdle is equal to last year level of Rs. 200 Cr and you have achieved Rs. 220
Cr, your score will be
Ans: 10
Qus: There are 200 employees in a cohort. Quintile curve of this cohort says that top 30% will get AAA, 25% get AA, 20%
will get A, 15% will get B and 10% will get C. Assuming that no two employees have similar scores, from which
employee number grade A will start?.
Ans: From 111th employee
Qus: CDS system will display one’s performance on __..basis.

Ans: Monthly
Qus: When an employee is on leave for more than 6 months, he/she will get a grade as ___..
Ans: No gradation. Only score will be recorded
Qus: Measurable roles have following types of KRAs.

Ans: Objective only
Qus: Gradation workshop is to be run by the Cohort Chairs for Non Measurable roles for the distribution of grades
Ans: TRUE
Qus: How the CDS can be leveraged for performance enhancement?

A. By Review and Reflect
B. By Planning as a Team
C. By Delivering and recognizing performance
D. All of the above
Qus: On what basis cohorts are differentiated?

A. Scale
B. Role
C. Vertival
D. All of above
Qus: What is the timeline for KRA linkage by the Reporting Authority?
Ans: 15th Feb - 30th April
Qus: What is the timeline for submission of Self Appraisal?

Ans: 31st March - 10th April
Qus: KRA stands for Key Responsibility Area in the old performance review system. What does it means new system, i.e.
CDS?
Ans: Key Result Area
Qus: What are different type(s) of KRAs?

Ans: Objective and Subjective both
Qus: Who will decide Quintile Curve for a cohort?

Ans: Empowered group
Qus: How many KRAs an officer can have in the new system?
Ans: Min 5 Max 13
Qus: Which of the following is not a type of Quintile Curve?

A. Above Average Quintile Curve
B. Below Average Quintile Curve
C. Average Quintile Curve
D. Medium Quintile Curve
SKA
Qus: ___. are the types of grades out of which each employee will have one at the end of the year.
Ans: AAA, AA, A, B and C
Qus: If during a financial year, an employee got transferred to different assignments, then he or she will belong to a cohort
as of _..
Ans: The assignment where he/she has spent maximum period
Qus: An officer has been allocated 6 objective KRAs in which weightage distribution in different parameters under; 15% -
Increase in Deposit business, 20% - Increase in Advances business, 15% - Reduction complaints, 10% - Reduction
in gross value of NPA, 5% - E-learning and 5% - Improve/Maintain Audit Score. Role of this officer is a __.
Ans: Budgetary Role
Qus: Which role can have both types of KRAs?

Ans: Non-Measurable
Qus: Weightage to any KRA can be …

Ans: In a multiple of 5.
Qus: A Regional Manager (RM) wants to finalize KRAs of one of his reportee. He has already allotted 10 KRAs with a total
weightage of 60%. How many KRA/KRAs and weightage can he allot more?
Ans: 2 KRAs with 10% weitage
Qus: A Regional Manager (RM) wants to finalize KRAs of one of her Branch Manager. She has already allotted 6KRAs
with a total weightage of 65%. How many KRA/KRAs and weightage can she allot more?
Ans: 1 KRA with 5% weightage
Qus: JIBOs/IBOs/Sr. IBOs are part of __. Cohort.

Ans: Pre Selected
Qus: The Cohorts will be framed on the basis of …..

Ans: Role, Scale and Geography
Qus: What is supervisor discretion score in case of CGM?

Ans: 50%
Qus: What is supervisor discretion score in case of officer below CGM?

Ans: 30%
Qus: An accepted KRA can also be changed by _.

Ans: The Reviewing Authority
Qus: The cohorts are differentiated on the basis of scale & vertical.
Ans: Measurable and Non-measurable
Qus: These cohorts are differentiated on the basis of scale & role.
A. Budgetary
B. Measurable andNon-measurable
C. Pre-selected
D. All of the above
CHEQUE HANDLING (C3002)
Cheque Handling Process of the Bank is guided by …..…

B. Cheque Collection Policy
Cheques drawn on branches of other banks located at centre other than State Capitals/ Major ‘A’ Class cities should be
collected within ……..
C. 14 days
Which section of NI Act is related to the definition of Endorser?
SKA
C. Section 15
Liability of the Paying Bank for paying a cheque presented for the payment, subject to certain conditions, is defined in
Section…..
C. 31 of NI Act
Which of the following sections of NI Act provides protection to the Collecting Banker?
B. Section 131 of NI Act
What is/ are the benefit(s) of Cheque Truncation System (CTS)?

A. Shorter clearing cycle; Superior verification and reconciliation process
B. No geographical restrictions as to jurisdiction; Reduction in
operational risk and risks associated with paper clearing
C. Only A is correct
D. Both A and B are correct
Cheque Collection Policy of the Bank is reviewed every ……..

D. Every 3 years or as and when considered necessary
The Cheque bearing a date later than the date on which it is drawn is known as …….
C. Post-dated Cheque
Ante-dated cheque bears

B. A prior date or back date
Which of the following cheque can be paid to the person who presents it for encashment …….
C. Bearer Cheque
A cheque can be paid by a Paying Bank only if …

A. The cheque is properly drawn
B. There is sufficient balance in the account and funds are available for payments
C. There is no legal restraint on Bank’s duty to pay
D. All the three are correct
Under CTS Standards 2010, standardisation of cheques has been done in terms of ……….
A. MICR Band
B. Quality of paper
C. Homogeneity in security features
D. All are correct
Under Cheque Truncation System (CTS) transmission of ………………… takes place between the banks.
B. Electronic images of cheques
Inchoate Instrument is an instrument which is ……..

A. Not completely filled by the maker
B. Not a negotiable instrument until it is completed
C. Signed and stamped as required by law
D. All are correct
All the centres covered under the same grid are treated as ………
B. A single Clearing Zone
As per RBI guidelines, after phasing out/ discontinuation of holding separate sessions for clearing of cheques not complying
with CTS 2010 standards in the three Grid Centres, ….
B. Banks can continue to present such instruments in Express Cheque Clearing System (ECCS) centres
Should the Bank collect a cheque for non-customer ….. (a) Yes, for reputed non-customer (b) Yes, for PEP non-customer (c)
No, it is therefore essential that before the cheque is collected the relationship of the customer and the banker is established.
(d) No, it is because of this that the customer account is first opened and then the cheque is collected.
C. Both (c) and (d) are correct
If there are changes/corrections carried out on the Cheques submitted under Cheque Truncation System (CTS) ………
SKA
A. All types of changes/ corrections should be authenticated
B. Cheques with corrections made in amount, payee etc. should not be accepted
C. Cheques with corrections done for date validation may be accepted
D. Both B & C are correct
The Grids of Cheque Truncation System are centred at ……..

C. Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai
Physical movement of cheques is done under ……….

A. Cheque Truncation System
B. MICR Clearing
C. Grid Clearing
D. Both A. and B. are correct
In case of delay in collection of cheques beyond the stipulated period, compensation should be paid ……..
A. Automatically
As per Section 18 of NI Act, if the amount on a Negotiable Instrument undertaken or ordered to be paid is stated differently in
words and figures, the amount in ……. shall be the amount undertaken or ordered to be paid.
B. Words
Which of the following cheques can be paid by way of credit to account only?
C. Cheque with Restrictive Crossing/ Account Payee Crossing
Any material alteration of negotiable instrument, if made by an endorsee ……

B. Discharges his endorser from all liability to him in respect of the consideration thereof
End-to-end ……………….. ensures security, safety and non-repudiation of data / images.

B. Public Key Infrastructure
Holder in Due Course must ……..

A. Be a holder for valuable, not void consideration
B. Have become a holder before the date of maturity
C. Have become holder of the Negotiable Instrument in good faith
D. All A, B and C are correct
Which of the statements is/ are correct ……………

A. All the centres covered under the same grid in Cheque Truncation System (CTS) are treated as a single clearing zone
B. Cheques drawn on the centres covered under the same grid and presented at any of the grid centres are treated as locally
drawn cheques
D. Both A & B are correct
Under the Grid system of Cheque Truncation System, Mumbai is the centre of…….
B. Western Grid
CINB SARAL (L0537)
Qus: Supplier payments in SARAL can now be scheduled at

Ans: User’s convenience
Qus: CINB SARAL is targeted at ___________ consisting of single entrepreneurs

Ans: Micro Enterprises
Qus: In CINB SARAL every financial transaction will require a ____________

Ans: Transaction Password
Qus: In CINB SARAL for transactions, involving funds transfer between two accounts of the customer OTP based
authentication is not required. However, the ______________ would be mandatory.
Ans: Transaction password
Qus: CINB SARAL is a variant of Corporate Internet Banking (CINB) consisting of

Ans: A simplified single user interface
SKA
Qus: While enabling CINB SARAL in CBS the field ‘Mode of Delivery’ should contain the option:
Ans: Hand Delivery
Qus: Transactions in CINB SARAL will be only________

Ana: Form Based
Qus: CINB SARAL facility is CIF based and therefore accounts belonging to __________ CIFs cannot be mapped to
‘SARAL’.
A. different
B. same
C. two different
D. a&c
Qus: In CINB transaction rights are available____________

Ans: By default
Qus: SARAL users can register Standing instruction for funds transfer through the Standing Instructions link available
under:
Ans: e-services
Qus: In the menu for linking CINB SARAL the following option is to be selected after entering the CIF Number
Ans: ‘9:Miscelaneous Details’
Qus: In CINB SARAL, consolidated transaction limit for Intra Bank Transactions(other than own accounts) can be viewed
under the link
Ans: Registration forms Transaction Products SARAL
Qus: In CINB transaction rights are available for

Ans: The accounts mapped with CINB SARAL
Qus: For enabling CINB SARAL the should have a

A. Non-Personal CIF
B. KYC Compliant CIF
C. Valid CIF with identification details score 110
D. All the above
Qus: CINB SARAL is a variant of Corporate Internet Banking (CINB) consisting of a simplified single user interface with
functional and security features similar to
Ans: Retail Internet Banking facility.
Qus: The process of registration, issue and reissue of user ID and passwords and Administration of ‘CINB SARAL’ by the
Branches are similar to that of
Ans: RINB
Qus: For enabling CINB Saral in CBS the option in the field ‘Statement Frequency’ should be:
Ans: Consolidated Statement
Qus: SARAL Corporate users can now apply for IPOs through the _______ link:
Ans: ASBA
Qus: e-TDR can be opened through

Ans: CINB SARAL
Qus: In CINB SARAL_____________is mandatory for third party addition irrespective of the value of each transaction.
This is in addition to the transaction password.
Ans: SMS based OTP
Qus: In CINB SARAL, ________ is also mandatory for changing the third party limit set by the customers.
Ans: SMS based OTP
SKA
Qus: In CINB SARAL_____________is mandatory for third party funds transfer irrespective of the value of each
transaction. This is in addition to the transaction password.
Ans: SMS based OTP
Qus: In CINB SARAL_____________is mandatory for Merchant Transactions irrespective of the value of each transaction.
This is in addition to the transaction password.
Ans: SMS based OTP
Qus: SARAL users can register Standing instruction for third party transactions through the Standing Instructions link
available under:
Ans: e-services
Qus: While enabling CINB SARAL in CBS, removal of posting restriction in the designed account has to be removed
through the following menu:
Ans: Deposit CC/OD account = Amend = Deposit CC/OD
Qus: Supplier Payment and Bill Payment Modules enabled for SARAL Corporates
Ans: TRUE
Qus: In CINB SARAL for the purpose of resetting the transaction password the customer needs to submit an application to
the branch in a specified format after generating a request to that effect through __________
Ans: ‘Profile’ tab.
Qus: One time password (OTP) is not required for the following transactions
Ans: Funds transfer between two accounts of the customer
Qus: In CINB SARAL users can login on the ________ after completion of the INB registration process in CBS.
Ans: Same day
Qus: In CINB SARAL the transaction password however can be reset only by __________
Ans: Branch as of now
Qus: The request for CINB SARAL facility made by the customer in the following annexure:
Ans: Annexure I
Qus: In CINB SARAL, request for resetting of Transaction / Profile Password has to be made in the following Annexure:
Ans: Annexure V
Qus: The terms & conditions of CINB SARAL is available in the following Annexure:
Ans: Annexure II
Qus: CINB SARAL customers has to use the following Annexure while requesting for duplicate login password
Ans: Annexure III
Qus: CINB SARAL, being single user product, user will have:
Ans: Both Transaction Maker and Authorizer Rights
COMPLAINT MANAGEMENT (A1005)
“Disruptive behavior by others” is categorized under which type of failures?

B. Responses to Requests failure
On which day of month customer can meet senior executives of the bank without prior appointment?
A. 15th of every month
On which number a customer can send a SMS, if he/she is unhappy with the services of the branch?
A. 800820202
Which of the following is not a reason of complain categorised under “Response to requests failure” category?
A. Special Preference
B. Customer Errors
SKA
C. Slow service
D. Disruptive behavior by others
A customer needs to send an SMS as……….., if he is not satisfied with the services. D UNSATISFIED
C. UNHAPPY
Which of the following is not a public action taken by an unsatisfied customer of the bank?
A. Take legal action for redressal
B. Complain to a third party e.g. Ombudsman
C. Switch the banker
D. Complain to the organization
At what time Customers of the Bank can meet senior executives of the Bank on 15th of every month without any prior
appointment and discuss issues?
A. between 3.00 p.m. and 5.00 p.m.
If the customer thinks that the complaint at the branch will create confrontation, then he will….
A. not complain
Complain to the organization is a type of action taken by an unsatisfied customer…

A. Public Action
If a customer decides to switch to other bank because of poor services of the bank. This means he opted for ……………..
B. Private Action
If an unsatisfied customer talks about bad behaviour/ services of the bank to the other people. This means customer is opting
for…….
C. Private Action
Taking legal action for redressal is a type of action…….

B. Public Action
Complainant may approach the Banking Ombudsman only if the complaint is not resolved at the bank level within ……….
D. a month
complaint may arise because of …………?

A. System related failures
B. People related failures
C. Any of the above
Which of the following is not true about complaint handling?

A. In case the customer is not satisfied he/she has the option to escalate the problem to the senior managers or the Branch
Manager.
B. All our branches display the notice board, which mentions that in case a problem is not solved, they should meet the
senior/Branch Manager.
C. All of us have the responsibility to take care of the customer problems and offer ready solutions to them.
D. All are true.
Which of the following is not true about complaint management?

A. Complaint management is the key component of customer service
B. Listening to customer complaints and resolving them promptly brings in immense benefits to any organization
C. It helps one understand what is lacking in your products and services and bring in improvements
D. All are true
Which of the following is essential for complain registering and resolution?

A. The branch should have suggestion cum complain box in the banking hall.
B. The branch should display the notice board containing the name mailing address and contact numbers of the controllers of
the branches.
C. Customer’s meet with the senior executives of the bank need to arranged on 15th of every month
D. All of the above
SKA
Which of the following is NOT true regarding receipt and noting of customer complains on structured complaint register?
A. A copy of customer complaint retained at the branch.
B. One copy goes to the Ombudsman, with branch comments regarding the resolution action taken by the Branch.
C. The complainant is provided a copy of the complaint.
D. One copy goes to the Controller, with branch comments regarding the resolution action taken by the Branch.
Which of the following is not a private action taken by an unsatisfied customer of the bank
A. Negative word of mouth publicity
B. Switch the banker
C. Complain to the organization
Which of the following may result in service failure?

A. Slow service
B. Unable Service
C. Errors in service
D. All of the above
Which of the following is essential for complain registering and resolution?

A. The branch should have suggestion cum complain box in the banking hall.
B. The branch should display the notice board containing the name, mailing address and contact numbers of the controllers
of the
branches.
C. Customer’s meet with the senior executives of the bank need to arranged on 15th of every month
D. All of the above
Which of the following is not a failure because of unprompted employee actions?

A. Unable to service
B. Overstepping cultural norms
C. Unusual action / behavior
D. Insensitive to customer needs
COMPLIANCE AND KYC (A1003)
Accounts of Government owned Companies/ Departments are classified under which category:-
A. Low Risk
Inoperative accounts are classified under which category:-

B. Medium Risk
Accounts of Import/Export Customers are classified under which category:-

B. Medium Risk
Accounts of Stock Brokers are classified under which category:-

B. Medium Risk
Accounts of Politically Exposed person of (foreign origin) are classified under which category:-
C. High Risk
Accounts of Firms with sleeping partner are classified under which category:-
C. High Risk
If there is a change of name after marriage, and then a document shall be deemed to be an OVD
A. if it is supported by a marriage certificate issued by the State Government or Gazette notification
B. Gazzette notification to indicate such a change of name
C. Both (i) and (ii)
D. No such requirement
Compliance risk management involves following lines of defence, except?

A. Business Units/Departments/ Operating Units
B. Compliance Functions, together with other risk functions
SKA
C. Audit
D. Performance Monitoring Function
Compliance risk arises when a Bank fails to

A. comply with laws, directives, rules, regulations
B. prescribed practices, internal policies and procedures
C. Both (i) and (ii) simultaneously
D. Either (i) or (ii)
Suspicious Activity Report shall be filed with:-

B. Financial Intelligence Unit – India (FIU-IND)
Non Profit Organisations Transactions Report shall be filed with:-

C. Financial Intelligence Unit – India (FIU-IND)
Cash Transactions Report shall be filed with:-

Counterfeit Currency Report shall be filed with:-

Feature of Small Account means:

C. the ATM withdrawals are not allowed.
Elements of the KYC policy includes these, except :-

A. Customer Acceptance Policy (CAP)
B. Risk Management
C. Cross Border Transaction Monitoring
D. Monitoring of Transactions
Compliance risk is the ________________, damage to reputation or impairment of integrity.

D. risk of legal or regulatory sanctions, financial loss
Ownership of being in compliance rests with

B. The Business Units/Operating units
The identified compliance breaches should be analysed and resolved in an appropriate manner. The objective of the analysis
is to:
C. identify areas of weakness
Compliance Function is ___________ , whether all critical Compliance risk are adequately managed, mitigated and reported
to Management as required.
B. to independently monitor
KYC requirement for Partnership Firm does not includes-

A. Details of Partners with names, addresses and percentage of shareholding
B. Details of Office Bearers with name and addresses
C. Copy of latest Income Tax return & Financial Statement
D. Details of Beneficial Owners with name, address and percentage share
KYC requirement for Trusts/Clubs/Associations/Societies does not includes-

A. Details of Partners with names, addresses and percentage of shareholding
C. Copy of latest Income Tax return & Financial Statement
D. Details of Beneficial Owners with name, address and percentage share
KYC requirement for Companies does not includes-

A. Details of Promoter directors with names, addresses and percentage of shareholding
C. Details of all directors with names, addresses and percentage of shareholding
D. Copy of latest Income Tax return & Financial Statement
SKA
The Compliance functionaries, duly authorized, shall have ________ Inspection and Audit Reports, Concurrent Audit
Reports, RBI Inspection Reports etc.
B. the right to access
Compliance is ____________ a well-managed business, capable of creating value through enhanced reputation.
B. integral feature of
Following are the obligations on the Bank under PMLA except:-

A. maintaining a record of prescribed transactions
B. furnishing information of prescribed transactions to the specified authority
C. submitted the details to Income Tax authority for cash transactions above Rs. 49000/-
D. verifying and maintaining records of the identity of its clients and identifying the beneficial owners
Compliance breaches are incidents includes these except:

A. Lead to legal or regulatory sanctions,
B. Financial loss
C. Damage to reputation
D. Near Miss Events
Monitoring of Transactions includes filing of these except:-

A. Suspicious Transaction Report (STR)
B. Suspicious Activity Report (SAR)
C. Cash Transactions Report (CTR)
D. Tax Deduction Report (TDR)
Which of these is NOT an Officially Valid Documents?

A. Passport
B. Voter id Card issued by Election Commission of India
C. Green Card
D. Job card issued by NREGA duly signed by an officer of the State Government
Cross Border Wire Transaction Report shall be filed with:-

A. Financial Intelligence Unit – India (FIU-IND)
Certified copy means

C. obtaining the signature of the customers on the copy of OVD
CORPORATE INB (L0209)
Qus: CINB is
Ans: Corporate Internet Banking
Qus: How many Regulators can a Corporate have?

Ans: One
Qus: How many Administrators can a Corporate, enjoying Vistaar, have?

Ans: As many Administrators as the Corporate desires
Qus: Administrator is a
Ans: Corporate User
Qus: Supplier Payment Module is a

Ans: Push Mode of Collection
Qus: Corporate Uploader can view the configuration done by

Bns: Regulator
Qus: Which of the following is a Complete financial solution for Corporates, which are large and very large organizations?
Ans: Vistaar
Qus: The Optional Role for a Corporate User in Vistaar is
SKA
Ans: Approver
Qus: Registration of Khata facility is carried out in

Ans: Core Banking System
Qus: User Management & Access to Accounts of Corporate is managed

Ans: At Corporate level (through Administrator)
Qus: Bulk Upload through file mode can be done by

Ans: Uploader
Qus: _____ form is used for registering the Corporate.

Ans: C1
Qus: _____ form is used for registering the Regulator.

Ans: C2
Qus: _____form is used for registering the Administrator

Ans: C3
Qus: Audit tolerance limits for the Corporate is set up by

Ans: Regulator
Qus: Khata can be upgraded to

Ans: Cannot be upgraded
Qus: Khata Plus can be upgraded to

Ans: Vyapaar or Vistaar
Qus: Which of the following is correct with regard to access in Khata?

Ans: Only one user can be allowed access
Qus: Which of the following is true with regard to access in Khata Plus?
Ans: Multiple users are allowed access
Qus: Which of the following is true for Khata Plus?

Ans: Only Enquiry rights to accounts across multiple CIFs
Qus: Which of the following is true with regard to access in Vyapaar?

Ans: Access to accounts across multiple CIFs with financial transactions
Qus: Which of the following is true for Khata?

Ans: Only Enquiry rights of the accounts linked to one CIF
Qus: The number of INB Officer(s) for a Branch is

Ans: INB Officer does not exist now.
Qus: New Users within the Corporate can be created by

Ans: Administrator
Qus: Registration of Khata Plus / Vyapaar / Vistaar is carried out in

Qus: The INB Maker/Checker in every branch accesses the Internet Banking Branch Admin Interface (Branch Interface)
hosted at URL
Ans: www.inbintranet.com
Qus: Rule Authoriser is

Ans: Does not exist
Qus: Vyapaar can be upgraded to
SKA
Ans: Vistaar
Qus: In Vistaar, Single transaction limit of Rs.__________ is allowed with no daylight limit for third-party, funds transfer
and e-Tax transactions.
Ans: 500 crores
Qus: Bulk Upload facility is available in

Ans: Vyapaar and Vistaar
Qus: Pre Printed Kits issued to Regulator/Administrator/User are issued by

Ans: INB Maker
Qus: Pre Printed Kits issued to Regulator/Administrator/User are activated by

Ans: INB Chaker
Qus: In Vistaar, files can be uploaded using ____________________based security.

Ans: PKI (digital signature)
Qus: The number of Rule Authorisers for a Branch is

Ans: There are no Rule Authorisers now
Qus: e-Cheques can be created by

Ans: Maker
Qus: 3rd Party Limit Refers to

Ans: The limit is set for each payment type, such as DD, Third-Party and Own Account Fund Transfer / Statutory
Payments
Qus: Direct Debit is a facility given to Corporates (Suppliers) having

Ans: Vistaar
Qus: Transaction Limit refers to

Ans: No limit on aggregate value of transactions in a day, but individual transaction limits prescribed for the product
CREATION OF SECURITY (L0027)
Qus: Overdrafts or demand loans may be granted

A. Against the Banks fixed deposit receipts duly discharged
B. Against the fixed deposit receipts of an ‘either or survivor’ receipts standing in the names of two or more persons,
after the discharge and written authority of all the depositors
C. Against the fixed deposit receipts issued by other offices of the bank only on strict identification of the borrower
D. All of the above
Qus: In legal proceedings relating to __________ by firms and individuals, the Bank's rights may be postponed to those of
a prior hypothecatee.
Ans: Hypothecation
Qus: Equitable mortgage will have priority over subsequent registered mortgages
Ans: Always
Qus: The remedy for the mortgagee under an equitable mortgage is

Ans: Sale of the mortgaged property through the court (i.e., suit for sale).
Qus: Mortgage is defined in

Ans: Transfer of Property Act
Qus: Immovable property is accepted by the Bank as security usually by way of

A. Registered Mortgage
B. Mortgage by Deposit of Title Deeds (Equitable Mortgage)
C. Both a & b
Qus: What is Hypothecation?
SKA
A. Hypothecation is a pledge of property and assets to secure a loan
B Hypothecation does not transfer title or give possession to the lender
C. it does provide the right to sell the hypothecated property or security in the event of default.
D. All of the above
Qus: Where the mortgagor is a limited company

Ans: Confirmatory letter need not be obtained.
Qus: After the scrutiny of the title deeds and the carrying out of the searches, final search of the ______ register
maintained by the District Court and/or High Court is done to ascertain that no proceedings are pending in the Court
in respect of the property to be mortgaged to the Bank.
Ans: 'Lis-pendens Register'
Qus: The amount of the advance against life insurance policies must not exceed
Ans: Ninety-five per cent of the surrender value of the policy, which should be ascertained from the Corporation
Qus: Bank’s standard format for stamped letters of guarantee to be obtained from the owners of security are
A. Form A
B. Form A1
C. Form A2
D. All the above
Qus: Form A is to be taken when

Ans: The person/persons furnishing the security is/are also a holder/holders of the account
Qus: Form A1 is to be taken when

Ans: only some of the persons furnishing the security are holders of the account.
Qus: Form A2 is to be taken when

Ans: none of the persons furnishing the security are holders of the account.
Qus: Particulars of Equitable Mortgage created by limited liability companies must be registered with the Registrar of
Companies
A. Within 30 days of their creation on Form No.8 along with Form 13 as prescribed by the Companies Act
B. As per the Electronic filing (e-filing) of forms which has been introduced from 01.07.2006
C. Both a & b
Qus: A fixed deposit receipt accepted as security for an advance will be entered in the
Ans: Security ledger and register
Qus: Valuation of land where the land is not of recent acquisition, it is very essential to determine the value of the land in
line with the present market trend. This is done by
A. Personal inspection
B. Comparison with recent sales of similar properties in the neighbourhood; and
C. Enquiries from parties having a good knowledge of the local land values
D. All the above
Qus: The nature of charge (on Current Assets) registered with RoC under section 125 of the Companies Act, as a floating
charge on the assets of the company is
Ans: Hypothecation charge
Qus: The transferee is called

Ans: A mortgagee
Qus: The transferor is called

Ans: A mortgagor
Qus: A flat charge, at present Rs.10,000/- should be recovered by the branches from each of the borrowers (under C&I
and SSI segments) enjoying fund based limits of Rs.25 Lakhs and above in case of
A. On each instance of recording in the Bank's books creation or extension of equitable mortgage in favour of SBI, or
SBI and any other bank/institution under a consortium arrangement
SKA
B. At the time of deposit of title deeds or extension of deposit and it is recorded in connection with
sanction/enhancement of limits, irrespective of number of recitals recorded
C. In case of a recital recorded for change in property mortgaged to the Bank by substitution of title deeds as handling
of two sets of documents and recording a fresh recital is involved
D. All the above
Qus: Advances against warehouse receipts may be granted by way of

Ans: By way of cash credit or demand loan
Qus: The mortgaged immovable property must be kept fully covered by insurance against the risks of
A. fire as well as lightning
B. against riots, strikes, civil commotion, cyclone, earthquake, and other natural calamities
C. policies should be taken out in the joint names of the Bank and the borrower and the policies, cover notes, premium
receipts, etc. should be deposited with the Bank
D. All the above
Qus: An equitable mortgage remains valid

Ans: As long as the mortgagee retains the title deeds
Qus: Where, without delivering possessions of the mortgaged property, the mortgagor binds himself personally to pay the
mortgage money, the transaction is called
Ans: Simple Registered Mortgage
Qus: While granting advances against government securities, postal certificates, post office term deposit, vikas patras, etc
branches should satisfy
A. Acceptability of the credit needs of the borrower
B. the end use of funds lent
C. not be guided solely by availability of the security
D. All the above
Qus: While granting advances against life insurance policies it should be ensured that
A. Premia of the policy have been paid up-to-date
B. The policy is in full force
C. Not already assigned or encumbered
D. All the above
Qus: Hypothecation is defined in

A. The Contracts Act
B. The Negotiable instruments act
C. Transfer of Property act
Qus: In case the land is held under lease hold tenure it is necessary to ascertain from the Deed of Lease
A. whether the lease permits the borrower to mortgage the leasehold interest in the land
B. whether the duration of the lease is longer than the repayment period of the term loan
C. that it is marketable
D. All the above
Qus: To safeguard the interest of the Bank, a letter confirming the deposit of the title deeds with intent to create the
mortgage in favour of the Bank as security for the advances should be obtained from the mortgagor(s)
Ans: Subsequent to the deposit of title deeds, say a day or two after the mortgage is created
Qus: Title Deeds are

Ans: Sale Deed
Qus: It is to the Bank’s advantage to obtain a registered mortgage on account of its additional safety because
A. Property can be sold only with the court intervention
B. The Deed of Mortgage is required to be registered with the concerned Sub-Registrar / Registrar of Assurances by
paying applicable stamp duty and registration charges
C. Both a & b
Qus: The mortgagor must on no account initial/sign/attest the Memorandum of Deposit recorded in the register as
SKA
A. the mortgage would be construed as simple mortgage
B. which may fail for want of stamping and registering
C. no writing taken from the mortgagor(s) at the time of deposit of the title deeds.
D. All the above
Qus: In the case of a simple deposit of title deeds to further secure an already existing advance, the recital and record
should refer to
A. existence of the advance and the original security therefor
B. Agreement by the mortgagor(s) to give further security in consideration of the Bank agreeing to grant/continue to
grant the advance
C. deposit of the title deeds as further security
D. All the above
Qus: An equitable mortgage may be taken when:

A. It is considered inexpedient to insist on a registered mortgage
B. Where maximum security is not of the essence
C. Both a & b
Qus: Can equitable mortgage by deposit of title deeds be created even if a registered mortgage created by the borrower
earlier is in favour of the Bank?
Ans: As the registered mortgage already created by the borrower is in favour of the Bank, by merely delivering the title
deeds in the possession of the Bank to the borrower for depositing the same to the Bank with the intention of creating
an equitable mortgage, the earlier mortgage will not be affected.
Qus: The instrument (if any) by which the transfer is effected is called
Ans: a mortgage-deed
Qus: All security should ordinarily stand in the name of

Ans: Borrowers and Joint Borrowers
Qus: An equitable mortgage should ordinarily not be accepted

A. When the interest of the mortgagor in the property is not absolute i.e., when the intending mortgagor is himself a
mortgagee
B. When the property is situated in cantonments
C. Both a & b
Qus: Who must assign the life insurance policy to the Bank
Ans: Except for a nominee who acquires no interest in a policy during the lifetime of the assured, all the parties interested
in the policy must assign it to the Bank
Qus: The particulars of the deposit must be

A. Recorded in the title deeds register
B. Entries must be verified by the Branch Manager/Divisional Manager and signed by him
C. And also signed by two witnesses who may be bank employees.
D. All the above
Qus: Overdrafts or demand loans against the fixed deposit receipts of other banks
Ans: Should not be granted
Qus: Where immovable property (of which land is the main constituent) is intended to be obtained as security (primary or
collateral) either by way of registered mortgage or equitable mortgage, the following aspects should be looked into
A. Tenure of land
B. Valuation of land
C. Title of land
D. All the above
Qus: What is the effect of the reconstitution of a partnership firm on the existing mortgage
A. It would suffice if an agreement on the Bank's standard format is taken In all cases of reconstitution of partnership
firms, where advances are secure.d by equitable mortgage of immovable properties
B. The mortgage created over the partnership property will not be affected.
C. Consequent upon the reconstitution of a partnership firm, the existing mortgage need not be disturbed
D. All the above
SKA
Qus: Valuation of land in case of leasehold properties is determined by
A. a rough estimate based on the annual rent, if it is reasonable
B. valuation varying from about 8 to 12 years’ rental according to the situation
C. nature and condition of the property
D. All the above
CREDIT MARKETING (E5002)
Commercial Activity has been divided into various categories based on the annual turnover. Which of the following is not a
category?
A. Corporate
B. SMEs and Retail
C. Agriculture
D. Mid-Corporate
The Marketing team should indulge in some small talk regarding topics of interest to the customer as a part of
______________
C. Ice Breaking
An example of a good credit marketing strategy is

D. Asking leading questions so the customer infers information
If a customer has not responded after the initial meeting with the marketing team, it is a good practice to:
B. Give him some buffer time and remind him after that
The following can be inferred from the high ratio of raw material consumption to sales:
D. Wastage of raw material
___________ Marketing involves the ability of the operating staff to convince sanctioning authorities to sanction the credit
proposal
C. Internal
If the ratio of TOL to TNW is low

D. There may be scope for expansion or new project and funding TL and WC
Name the products and services, Commercial Business requires from the Bank, in addition to loans and deposits.
A. Forex
B. Bank Guarantees
C. Treasury Products
D. Remittance facilities
E. All of the above
Internal marketing involves:

A. Ability to convince the concerned authorities who process the credit proposal
B. Motivating the authorities for proper delivery of the products
C. Continued good service to the prospective borrower
D. All of the above
The purpose of the customer call should be -----------

A. To Explore the business potential of the customer
B. To offer our products and services
C. To ascertain the needs of the customer
D. To provide customised solutions to the customers requirements
E. All of the above
Low ratio of interest to sales infers

D. Low cost of borrowed funds
Which of the following is not a hard skill required for the marketing team
A. Knowledge of activities in the area of operation
B. Punctuality
SKA
C. Knowledge of bank’s products
D. Knowledge of environment
A term loan is
A. Fund based
Letter of Credit is an example of ______________ products

C. Non-fund based
____________ is an example of a structured product.

D. Commercial Paper
The marketing team should provide professional advice to the customer regarding better resource management for improving
their profits as a part of _______________
C. Counselling
The operating team has to decide whether to approach the customer or otherwise is based on:
A. Data and information collected
B. Credit rating of the customer
C. Past account history of the customer with the bank
D. All of the above
Which of the following is one of the pre-requisites for successful credit marketing?
C. Pre-sanction appraisal should be sound
Which of the following is not a soft skill required for the marketing team? e)Sourcing information from balance sheet
A. Polite Communication
B. Counselling
C. Time Management
D. Knowledge of Industry
Credit Marketing involves targeting good business. What is meant by good quality business?
C. Business which will generate revenue for the Bank on an ongoing basis
Response time is an essential part of Credit Marketing

A. True
Providing timely finance is an essential element of credit marketing.

A. True
Customers should generally be approached without prior appointment.

B. False
Credit Marketing aims at maximising profits at one shot by targeting large value business.
B. False
CRM (A1004)
Which of the following is not a key step in initiate milestone ?

A. Lead creation
B. Lead Dedupe
C. Lead Assignment
D. Lead Recording
Which of the following is not a step in 'process' milestone ?

A. Qualify
B. Document collected
C. Follow up
D. Appointment fixed
Which of the following business challenges are addressed through CRM ?

B. Multiple Systems for capturing data
SKA
What does the 'flag icon' used in CRM lead creation screen indicate ?
A. Current step in the process
Under'Tasks section', user can ?

A. Create
B. Update
C. Assign
D. All of the above
Which of the following activities does not happen in fulfill milestone ?

A. receiving status from CBS via reverse feed
B. CIF number is stamped on the details page of the lead record in CRM application
C. CIF number, generated in CBS, is automatically updated in CRM
D. The lead is sent to CBS for CIF generation
From which of the following communication channels, CRM compiles data about the customer ?
A. Company's website
B. Email
C. Social Media
D. All of the above
Which of the following is not part of CRM ?

A. Marketing
B. Sales
C. Service
D. Operational efficiency
Which of the following card is not displayed in Lead 360 card view ?
A. Profile card
B. Life cycle card
C. Product card
D. Activities card
Alerts section displays alert messages for the user on the_______ of Summary page
B. Top
Which of the following benefits is not associated with CRM ?

A. End-to-end lead life cycle management
B. Automated reminders and escalations
C. Door step banking
D. Well defined customer communication
Alerts section displays alert messages for the user on the_______ of Summary page
B. Top
When one will be redirected to the Lead Detail page?

B. On successful creation of the lead
Which of the following is not true about qualify milestone ?

A. Qualify milestone comes after Approval milestone
B. The SBI official at the branch contacts the lead to confirm if the lead is interested and upon confirmation, takes appropriate
action
C. The lead can be marked 'interested'
D. Documents can be collected under this milestone
While creating a new lead, if a similar lead already exists in the system, the CRM portal will show a pop-up and presents how
many options ? "
C. 3
If the lead is not interested, the SBI official updates the status code to Not Interested, provides closure remarks and closes
the lead. The activity mentioned here pertains to which milestone ?
SKA
B. Disqualify
Which of the following choices is not presented by CRM if it finds that a similar lead exists in the system ?
A. Edit Current lead
B. Ignore and create a lead
C. Cancel
D. Refer the lead
Hot, Warm and Cold with reference to lead indicate ----

B. Interest level of the customer
Which of the following are the primary goals of CRM ?

A. integrate and automate sales
B. marketing
C. customer support
D. All of the above
Lead Management is part of which functional area of CRM ?

A. Sales
Is it mandatory to send all the duplicate leads for BM's approval ?

C. No, in case of Deposits, it is optional to send the lead for BM approval.
CRO will have which of the following roles in CRM ?

A. Lead Initiator
Which of the following tab is not displayed in Lead 360 detail page ?
A. Details
B. Activities
C. Attachment
D. Action
CRO will have which of the following roles in CRM ?

A. Lead Initiator
What are four main stages in lead management process ?

B. Initiate, qualify, process, fulfill
In case the documents of the customer are readily available, the lead should be created in what stage?
B. Docs Collected
Fixing an appointment is done under which stage of lead life cycle ?

C. Process
CRM (L0419)
Qus: Bank does not have a policy on:

A. Risk data maintenance
B. CRA model validation
C. Stress Test
D. Collateral Management
E. None of the above
Qus: Under the Foundation IRB Approach PD estimates are based on

Ans: Bank’s Internal Estimates
Qus: Logically speaking which of the following would have lower DR:
Ans: SB 1
Qus: Accounts guaranteed by State Govt attract a risk weight of --

Ans: 20%
SKA
Qus: Operating Efficiency of a unit is part of:
Ans: Business risk
Qus: Which of the following is likely to be correct:

Ans: EAD >LGD
Qus: The chances of A borrower defaulting on the payment of his credit obligations within a given time horizon, usually
one year is called
Ans: PD
Qus: Under Basel – II a Corporate is defined as

Ans: A borrower with exposure above Rs. 5 Crores
Qus: What will be the impact on capital cost if ECRA of a unit is upgraded from AA to AAA, (other things remaining the
same)
Ans: Reduction by 33%
Qus: What is the CRA Model used for Infrastructure Projects

Ans: RAMIP
Qus: Which one is incorrect

A. More CRMts are recognized under Standardized approach than under Advanced IRB
Approach
B. Better risk management can reduce risk capital requirement under Foundation IRB
C. Advanced IRB is completely based on Internal estimates of PD/LGD/EAD
Qus: What is the CCF % for Committed Credit Lines with an original maturity up to 1 year
Ans: 20%
Qus: A wide range of rating from SB1 to SB16 helps in :

A. Diffusing Risk Concentration
B. Ensuring finger risk calibration
C. Facilitating finer pricing
D. All of the above
Qus: Absence of which of the following in CBS will lead to higher capital cost
A. CGTMSE Flag
B. UCC Flag
C. TL Drawdown Schedule
D. All of the above
Qus: Credit Risk Models help bank in

A. Building PD Estimates
B. Risk Based Pricing
C. Allocating Reserves/ Capital
D. All of the above
Qus: A Borrower enjoys CC limit of 100 with outstanding 50, Compute EAD if there is UCC.
Ans: 50
Qus: Which of the following carries highest CCF

Ans: BG Financial
Qus: Which of the following is not a function of the CRMD

A. Developing CRA Models
B. Analysing Industry/ Sector Risk
C. Defining the risk appetite of the bank
Qus: Stipulations regarding Haircut Requirements are covered by which policy?

Ans: Collateral Management Policy
SKA
Qus: Value of available collateral security would impact which of the following parameters most:
Ans: LGD
Qus: Accounts guaranteed by Central Govt attract a risk weight of --

Ans: 0%
Qus: All of the following are Eligible IRB Collateral except :

(a) Claims with original maturity of 1 year or less
(b) Trade Receivables
(c) Debentures
(d) State Govt Securities
Qus: Which of the following is not EAD

A. Amount exposed to default
B. Outstanding at the time of Default
C. Outstanding of an Irregular CC Account ( >Limit)
D. Outstanding of a partially disbursed Term Loan
Qus: What would be the RMD advisory for an Industry Outlook of “Marginally Favourable”
Ans: Grow Selectively
Qus: Maximum exposures are set by Loan Policy to avoid

Ans: Concentration Risk
Qus: Longer the tenure of a security, lower the haircut.

Ans: False
Qus: Non furnishing of Collateral information will lead to higher PD%

Ans: False
Qus: Non furnishing of Collateral information will lead the higher LDG% estimates.
Ans: True
Qus: CGTMSE cover is an example of “on balance sheet netting” mitigation techniques
Ans: False
Qus: A third Party Guarantee serves to automatically reduce the risk capital requirement for the bank for the guaranteed
asset.
Ans: False
Qus: For all exposures with Unconditional Cancellability Clause, CCF is zero
Ans: True
Qus: Credit Risk Management Policy covers only Bank`s domestic Operations
Ans: False
Qus: Effective Credit Risk Management ensures that there are no defaults
Ans: False
Qus: ECRA of a borrower does not affect the Risk Weight of a unit.
Ans: False
Qus: Risk of non-payment by the borrower is measured by LGD.

Ans: False
Qus: Loan Policy covers Bank`s domestic Operations

Ans: True
Qus: Different exposures to a pool borrowers may share the same PD

Ans: True
SKA
Qus: Different exposures to a borrower may have different LGDs
Ans: True
Qus: Under Basel II - a Corporate is defined as a legally constituted limited liability entity:
Ans: False
CRM CAG MODULE (L0818)
Qus: If source of Leads is Corporate Buzz, the leads go to committee for approval and assignment, at this stage what is
the status code of the Lead?
Ans: Assigned by Committee
Qus: After the documentation stage, what will be the Status code of Lead?
Ans: Docs Collected
Qus: In CRM, for CAG Customer which of the following Field is Editable Under About Company section?
ANS: Key Strength and Weakness
Qus: Whenever a lead is at status codes Not Interested, AMT Rejection or Lead Lost, it is mandatory for RMs to put in a
remark for the lead.
Ans: Yes
Qus: What Dose EWS Stand For?

Ans: Early Warning Score
Qus: What dose CLTV Stand for?

Ans: Customer Life Time Value
Qus: In CRM, for a CAG Customer which of the following Field is not Editable Under Key Information section?
Ans: CIF Number
Qus: IF the EWS Score of an Account is above 42.5, then in which colour will the account be colour coded?
Ans: Red
Qus: IF the EWS Score of an Account Above 37.5 and Below 42.5, then in which colour will the account be colour coded?
Ans: Amber
Qus: IF the EWS Score of an Account is below 37.5, then in which colour will the account be colour coded?
Ans: Green
Qus: What dose RaRoc Stand for?

Ans: Risk Adjusted Return on Capital
Qus: Once, the committee assigns the leads to respective Corporate Centres the GMs assigns to various AMTs for action
on the lead, the status code of Lead is
Ans: Assigned by GM
CRM CUSTOMER 360 (L0836)
What does CRM stand for?

A. Customer Relationship Management
In Q/R/C/F what dose 'Q' stand For.?

C. Query
In Q/R/C/F what dose 'R' stand for?

D. Request
In Q/R/C/F what dose 'C' stand for?

C. Complaint
In Q/R/C/F what dose 'F' stand for?
SKA
C. Feedback
What does DNC Stand for?

A. Do Not Call
What does DND Stand for?

A. Do Not Disturb
What are two views available in Customer 360°?

A. Card View and Detailed View
How many cards are visible at a time in Customer 360° Card View?
A. 6
In which section do you find the details of all the products tagged to the customer in CRM application?
A. Product Holdings
Customer can be searched by

A. CIF Number
B. Account Number
C. Aadhaar Number
D. Any of the above
The customer record is searched only by entering the exact parameter

A. True
What would be the Risk Category of Politically Exposed Person (PEP)?

C. High
What does CIF Stand for?

A. Customer Information File
From which Card can “New Appointments” be created?

A. Activities Card
From which Card can “New Task” be created?

C. Activities Card
From which Card can new cases be created?

A. Cases Card
From which Card can “New Lead” be created?

D. Leads Card
From which Card can you upload the new attachments for the customer?
C. Attachments Card
The objective of Customer 360° is

A. Provide holistic view of each Retail Customer
B. To enhance Bank - Customer Relationship
C. To effectively increase the no of products sold per customer
D. All of the above
CRM DECEASED SETTLEMENT PROCESSING (L0860)
On case closure the notification is sent to?

A. Customer
B. Resolver
C. Branch Manager
Internal communication is sent during which stage?

SKA
C. Case Creation
Control return dates can be updated at which Stage?

C. Case Closed
If the customer is found in CRM, which page do you navigate to create a case?
C. Customer 360
What does TAT stand for

A. Turn Around Time
Case can be rejected in which of the following status?

A. In Progress
B. Docs Collected & Verified
C. Claim Sanctioned
D. Any of the above
In which tab, do you have an option of attaching documents?

C. Attachments
How many days is the TAT set for processing of the case, after document collection and verification?
D. 15
Which page is the user navigated to, on saving the SR?

C. SR Detailed View
Reassignment option will be available for which stages?

A. New Case
B. In Progress
C. Docs Collected and Verified
D. All of the above
Who will receive notification, if a case is created through online portal?

A. Controller
B. Branch Manager
C. A & B
What does QDE stand for?

C. Quick Data Entry
Claim Rejected status is part of which Milestone?

C. Closure
What does CPC stand for?

A. Centralized Processing Cell
Branch Manager can reassign the case to the concerned person in the Branch if required
A. True
In case rejection ‘rejection reasons’ mandatory field.

A. True
A case once closed will not be reopened

A. True
Case owner will always be kept as customer’s home branch manager regardless of where the processing happens
B. True
CRM LEAD MANAGEMENT (MCS) (L0835)
How many modules are there in CRM MCS?
SKA
C. 5
In CRM, when a Demat lead is sent for fulfilment to SSL system what will be the status of the Lead?
A. Demat Lead In Process
How many preferred channels of communications are there in CRM MCS?

B. 2
Life Insurance leads are fulfilled by which of the following teams?

D. SBI Life
Demat leads are fulfilled by which of the following teams?

D. SBI SSL
Credit Card leads are fulfilled by which of the following teams?

D. SBI Credit Cards
What does ACE stand for?

B. AMFI Certified Employee
What dose ETB Stand For?

B. Existing to Bank
What does SP stand for?

A. Specified Person
What does MCS stand for?

A. Marketing and Cross-Sell
Which of the following General Insurance products is processed by Branch User?

A. Personal Accident Insurance (PAI)
B. Health Insurance
C. Both A and B
D. None of the Above
In CRM to which Role is General Manager mapped to?

A. Network Head
In CRM to which Role is Chief General Manager mapped to?

A. Circle Head
In CRM to which Role is Deputy General Manager mapped to?

A. Module Head
In CRM to which Role is Regional Manager mapped to?

A. Region Head
What dose CRM Stand for?

During creation of lead, if a customer has no/partial documents, then the lead is saved in which of the following status?
A. New lead
Which Status code is visible only after a de-dupe is fired and a duplicate lead is created?
B. Sent for Approval
In CRM Post approval, the status code of a duplicate lead will be

A. Approved
Is Mother’s maiden name a mandatory field?

A. Yes
SKA
In Mutual Fund, is KYC compliant a mandatory field.
A. Yes
Can the user change the Preferred Branch?

A. True
During lead creation, a de-dupe rule will run before the lead is saved, to check if any open lead already exists in the system
A. True
CRM LEAD MANAGEMENT (SME) (L0823)
CRM Stands For

Ans: Customer Relationship Management
CIF generation &Account Opening will be done in.

Ans: Core Banking System
What is the full form for LLMS?

Ans: Loan Lifecycle Management System
How is Customer intimated or updated in CRM?

A. Email
B. SMS
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. Either (A) or (B)
Which of the following parameter is used for de-dupe check?

A. Voter's ID
B. Passport Number
C. PAN Number
D. All of the above
Which of the following parameter is not used for de-dupe check?

A. Mobile Number
B. Bank Account Number
C. PAN Number
D. Aadhar Number
Which of the following is not a part of Manual Creation of leads?

A. Referrals
B. Financial Consultants
C. Website
D. Branch Walk-In
Which of the following is not a part of automated creation of leads?

A. Analytics Upload
C. Website
D. Branch Walk-In
In CRM, which of the following are mandatory fields at Contacted Lead status?
A. Appointment Date
B. Appointment Time
C. Both Appointment Date and Time
D. None of the Above
Which of the following are the channels through which leads could be generated?
A. Branch Walk-In
C. Referrals
D. All of the Above
SKA
Loan of what Amount is processed in LOS-SME?
Ans: Up to Rs. 5 Crores
Loan of what Amount is processed in LLMS?

A. Above Rs. 5 Crores
In case of eligible customers, for a loan up to Rs. 5 crores, the details from CRM is sent to:
Ans; LOS - SME
In case of eligible customers, for a loan above Rs. 5 crores, the details from CRM is sent to:
Ans: LLMS
In case of New to Bank customers, which of the following is correct?

Ans: First CIF is Generated & then loan is Processed
Reminders and Escalations are automated in CRM.

Ans: Yes
If a customer is interested and walks in the branch with partial or no documents, the lead is created in which status?
Ans; Contacted Lead
If a customer walks in with all Required valid documents, the lead has to be created in which status?
Ans: Documents Received
CRM LEAD MANAGEMENT AGRI (L0824)
CRM Stands For

LOS is the acronym for

Ans: Loan Originating System
Which of the following will be done in the Core Banking System?

A. CIF Generation
B. Account Opening
C. Limit Setting
D. All of the Above
Once all the required information is filled in the CRM, the Lead details is sent to:
Ans: LOS-Agri
In CRM, which of the following process is run to check if the lead already exists in the system?
Ans: De-Dupe Check
Ans: Docs Collected
Which of the following is not a Key Challenge in the current system for Agri Loans?
A. Difficulty in tracking leads
B. Limited provisions to set follow ups
C. Lack of / Delayed Customer Communication
D. Opening Loan Account
In CRM Leads can be manually created or through Integration of various systems / channels
Ans: True
During lead creation, a de-dupe rule is run before the lead is saved, to check if any open lead already exists in the system
Ans: True
CRM has the ability to capture Co-Applicant/Guarantordetails.

Ans: True
SKA
In the CRM, the applicant is:
Ans: Parent Lead
In the CRM, the Co-Applicant & Guarantor is:

Ans: Child Lead
In a loan proposal, if the lead is not interested, the lead will be:
Ans: Closed in the LOS System
If a loan proposal is not eligible, the application is:

Ans: Closed in the System
In case of co-applicant, the maximum no of co-applicant’s details that can be maintained in CRM is
Ans: 5
CIF number is mandatory for:

A. Applicant
B. Co-applicant
C. Guarantor
D. All of the Above
Which of the following is not a recognised channel for generation of leads for Agri Banking?
A. Government Department
B. Bank Channel
C. ATM
D. Alternate Channel
In CRM, which of the following are mandatory fields at Appointment fixed status?
A. Appointment Date
B. Appointment Time
Which of the following not a valid purpose of Agri Loan?

A. Dairy Finance
B. Crop Production
C. Purchase of Agriculture Land
D. Farm Mechanisation
CRM LEAD MANAGEMENT PB (L0817)
CRM Stands For

In Q/R/C/F what dose 'Q' stand For.?

Ans: Query
Ans: Docs Collected
In CRM Branch Manager can reassign already assigned Leads.

Ans: Yes
Ans: Both Appointment Date and Appointment Time
How is Customer intimated or updated in CRM?

A. Email
B. SMS
C. Both (A) and (B)
Which of these is/are a part of CRM Lead for PB & REH?
SKA
A. Deposits
B. Other P-Segment Loans
C. Home Loans
D. All of the Above
In CRM, for Assets Products which of the following roles is available?

A. Branch Manager (BM)
B. Relationship Manager (RM)
C. Field Officer (FO)
D. All of the above
In CRM, for Liabilities Products which of the following roles is available?

A. Branch Manager (BM)
B. Relationship Manager (RM)
C. Customer Relationship Officer (CRO)
D. All of the above

Ans: Yes
In CRM which of the duplicate leads are assigned to Branch Manager (BM) for his/her approval.
Ans: Assets
In CRM, a user can create a lead only for his home branch?
Ans: False
In CRM, what is known as Assets?

Ans: Loans
In which of the following milestone can the Branch Manager approve a lead?
Ans: Approval
Which of the below is a Lead source?

A. Branch Walk-in
B. Referral
C. Both (A) & (B)
In CRM, which of the following products are included under Liability layout?
A. Savings Accounts
B. Current Accounts
C. Time Deposits
D. All of the above
CRM Application will be used by

A. Bank Staff
B. Customers
C. Call Centre Executives
D. Both (A) and (C)
In CRM, what is known as Liabilities?

Ans: All Deposits
Which of the following is not a Lead Rating?

Ans: Dead
If a customer is interested and walks in the branch with partial or no documents, the lead is created in which status?
Ans: Appointment Fixed
What is preferred branch?

A. Branch where Lead is created
B. Branch of Choice of Customer
C. Only (B)
SKA
CRM MID CORPORATE GROUP (MCG) (L0840)
In CRM, for MCG Customer which of the following Fields is Editable Under “About Company Section”?
A. Key Strength and Weakness
What does AMT Stand for?

A. Account Management Team
What does NBG Stand for?

A. National Banking Group
What does CRM Stand for?

Whenever a lead is at status code Not Interested, AMT Rejection or Lead Lost, it is mandatory for RMs to put in a remark for
the lead.
B. Yes
If the EWS Score of an Account is below 37.5, then in which colour will the account be colour coded?
A. Green
If the EWS Score of an Account is Above 37.5 and Below 42.5, then in which colour will the account be colour coded?
A. Amber
IF the EWS Score of an Account is above 42.5, then in which colour will the account be colour coded?
A. Red
After receiving the documents from customer, what will be the Status code of Lead?
C. Docs Collected
Once lead details are completed, the lead is sent to LLMS for further processing. The status of the lead at this stage is
updated as?
A. Sent to LLMS
Which is the status code that is mandatory in the Lead lifecycle?

D. Docs Collected
In CRM, for a MCG Customer which of the following Field is not Editable Under “Key Information section”?
A. Email
B. Website URL
C. AMT Team
D. CIF Number
What does RaRoc Stand for?

A. Risk Adjusted Return on Capital
What does EWS Stand For?

D. Early Warning Score

A. Yes
Once, the committee assigns the leads to a Regional Office (RO), the GM of the respective RO assigns leads to various
AMTs for action on the lead, the status code of Lead is
B. Assigned by GM
During manual creation of lead, if a customer has no/partial documents, then the lead is saved in which of the following
status?
A. New lead
SKA
A. Appointment Date
B. Appointment Time
CRM NON-FINANCIAL SERVICES (L0859)
Which milestone marks the end of the process?

C. Closure
On case closure the notification is sent to?

A. Customer
What does CRF stand for?

A. Customer Request Form
In which format is the customer signature displayed?

A. Image
What does NFS stand for

A. Non-Financial Services
If the Approver/ Resolver has sent back for rework, then the record will be shown under
D. Rework Pending View
Which milestone has the status called Sent to Resolver?

A. Processing
In which tab do you have an option of viewing the child SR’s?

D. Child Cases Tab
What does QDE stand for?

C. Quick Data Entry
Which page is the user navigated to, on saving the SR?

C. SR Detailed View
In which tab, do you have an option of attaching documents?

C. Attachments
What is the category of the Parent SR?

C. Request
The newly created SRs are saved in which status?

A. New
To manually verify the customer’s signature, the user will click on which link?
C. Fetch
A single SR is captured as a child for which a default parent is created.

B. True
A single CIF is assigned to multiple customers

B. False
Multiple SRs are captured as child SRs and a single parent is created for all the child SRs
A. True
Parent SR will be auto-closed only when all its child SR is closed

A. True
If any Child SR is sent for rework, then the remaining child cases will be available for further processing
SKA
A. False
CRM NRI (L0819)
In CRM to which Role is Chief General Manager mapped to?

Ans: Circle Head
In CRM to which Role is General Manager mapped to?

Ans: Network Head
In CRM to which Role is Deputy General Manager mapped to?

Ans: Zonal Head
In CRM to which Role is Regional Manager mapped to?

Ans: Region Head
In case the lead is created by Foreign Office, then the GNC associate marks a particular status after which the lead then gets
assigned to the Branch for further processing. Which is that Status?
Ans: Interested
A duplicate lead created by a Foreign Office goes directly to the Branch manager for Approval.
Ans: False
Which is the status code that is mandatory in the Lead lifecycle?

Ans: Docs Collected
In CRM, Leads generated by External source system are Processed at

Ans: GNC
In CRM, which of the following products are included under Liability layout?
A. Savings Accounts
B. Current Accounts
C. Time Deposits
D. All of the above
Which Status code is visible only after a de-dupe is fired and a duplicate lead is created?
Ans: Sent for Approval
Which of the following is not a NRI Advances Product?

Ans: NRE: TDR/STDR
During lead creation, a de-dupe rule is run before the lead is saved, to check if any open lead already exists in the system
Ans: True
What dose GNC Stand For?

Ans: Global NRI Centre
In CRM Post approval, the status code of a duplicate lead will be

Ans: Approved
During manual creation of lead, if a customer has no/partial documents, then the lead is saved in which of the following
status?
Ans: New lead
Select the option you need to select in CRM if a matching lead already exists in the records.
Ans: Create a new lead and assign it to the supervisor for approval.
FCNR(B) is accepted by Bank in how many Currencies?

Ans: 6
In NRI car loan scheme, the guarantor is required
SKA
Ans: YES
A. Appointment Date
B. Appointment Time
For NRI Leads in CRM, which of the following the de-dupe rule combinations would be used for the lead-to-lead de-dupe?
Ans: Passport number + Product
Which of the following is not a NRI Housing Loan Product?

A. RESALE: SBI MAXGAIN
B. RESALE: HL FOR NRI/PIO’S
C. NRI CAR LOAN SCHEME
D. RESAME: SBI REALTY
Which of the following is not a NRI Deposit Product?

A. FCNR (B): STDR/TDR
B. NRO: TDR/STDR
C. NRE: RD
D. RESALE: SBI MAXGAIN
Which of the following currency is not valid for FCNB

Ans: Saudi Riyal (SAR)
CROSS SELLING (B2007)
What is NAV (net asset value)?

A. Net asset value (NAV) is the value of a fund's asset less the value of its liabilities per unit.
Full form of NAV?

D. Net asset value
What is the definition of mutual fund?

A. A mutual fund is a professionally-managed investment scheme, usually run by an asset management company that brings
together a group of people and invests their money in stocks, bonds and other securities.
what is upselling?
A. The practice of encouraging customers to purchase a comparable higher-end product
Which of the following is not a type of Mutual Fund :

A. Equity
B. Balance
C. Funds of Fund
D. All of the above is type of mutual fund
What is the full form of AMC?

A. Asset Managing company
- Life insurance is a protection against ------------- that would result from the premature death of an insured?
C. financial loss
___________ is a collective investment scheme which can issue and redeem shares at any time
B. Open ended funds
A new fund offer (NFO) is the ------- subscription offer for a new scheme launched by the asset management companies
(AMCs).
A. First time
Which one is not the benefit of cross selling for Bank?

A. Enhances customer experience with the organization
B. Enables acquiring of new-to-branch customers and retention of existing customers
SKA
C. Enjoy customer short time value
D. Encourages customers to use multiple products and services and prevent switching to competitor banks.
An endowment policy is a life insurance contract designed to pay a ----- after a specific term (on its 'maturity') or on death.
A. lump sum amount
What is Premium?
A. Premium is the price for insurance.
How can you improve and create opportunities for cross-selling?

A. Stay relevant
B. Share expert recommendations
C. Use the customer relationship system effectively
D. All of the above
Bonus is the extra sum which gets accumulated to any insurance policy on a -------basis which will be paid to the policyholder
on the maturity of the plan or in the case of his death.
A. Yearly
what is Cross Selling?

A. Sell different product or service to an existing customer
One needs to clear an exam to be able to sell the products of-------?

A. NPS
B. PPF
C. SSA
D. No need to pass the exam
_____________ Policy is a life insurance contract designed to pay a lump sum after a specific term (on its 'maturity') or on
death.
C. Endowment policy
Up-selling is a powerful skill, but only when your customer is getting-------?

A. more value
Equity funds invest in-------?

A. Stocks
The marketing mix includes 7 P's of Marketing, which of the following is not one of them?
A. Process
B. Person
C. People
D. Physical attraction
For better result in cross selling ------- of the unit should be sales oriented and speak to customers with a right attitude and
should posses’ adequate knowledge on products, services.
B. entire staff
What is down selling?

A. Is the art of narrowing a customer's expectations and matching them more effectively with a solution that best fulfils their
needs or desires.
Selling a PPF a/c to a SB a/c holder is-----?

A. Cross selling
Which one is a type of rider in case of life insurance taken by a person?

A. Accidental Death Benefit – death due to accident or bodily injury. It doubles the sum assured payable
B. Accelerated Death Benefit – involves payment of all or a portion of life insurance policy’s face value prior to the insured’s
death because of adverse medical condition of the insured
C. Waiver of Premium - A waiver of premium rider is a clause in an insurance policy that waives the policyholder's obligation
to pay any further premiums should he become seriously ill or disabled, so the
waiver of premium allows people to benefit from an insurance policy, even when they cannot work.
SKA
D. All of the above
Fund-of-funds invest in---------?

A. Other funds
SBI Life Insurance Co. Ltd. Tie-up is with

A. AMUNDI (France)
B. BNP Paribas
C. LIC of India
Which one is not a tool for effective cross selling?

A. Make sure your customers know what other products and services you provide.
B. Suggest all products or services.
C. Recommend the product at the right time
D. Make sure all employees know your range well
CROSS SELLING (L0117)
Qus: In Investor analysis, the Mass affluent Customer as an investor work on __________ philosophy.
Ans: wealth creation
Qus: In investor analysis, the high net worth individuals are considered to have an investment philosophy based on
Ans: wealth preservation
Qus: Investors with low risk appetite will generally prefer investment in
Ans: Debt funds
Qus: SBI has tie-up with ___________________ for Selling Life Insurance products
Ans: SBI Life Insurance Co. Ltd
Qus: Cross Selling is needed

A. to increase fee based Income
B. to act as an one stop shop fulfilling all the customers’ needs
C. to retain the customer with the bank
D. all of the above
Qus: Apart from SBI MF & UTI MF, SBI has tie-up arrangement to sells MF of
A. Tata Mutual
B. Fidelity Mutual Fund
C. Franklin Templeton Fund
D. all the above
Qus: A tax saving investment in MF (ELSS) will have a minimum time horizon of
Ans: 3 years
Qus: Investment in Balanced Funds Scheme of Mutual Funds will generally be preferred by investors who have a
________________ risk appetite.
Ans: moderate
Qus: SBI is planning to have own subsidiary for general Insurance in joint venture with
Ans: Insurance Australia Group
Qus: To successfully cross sell the products, it is essential

A. that enough time is available to talk to the customer
B. that the customer has an inclination to listen
C. Both (a) and (b)
Qus: Cross Selling would involve

A. Introducing and selling additional products to the customer
B. Creating awareness about the available products & services
C. (a) and (b) above
SKA
Qus: The various methods of Cross Selling will include
A. Providing information through Brochures & Pamphlets
B. Explaining the product to the customer
C. Bringing the prospective customer in contact with the Sellers
D. All the above
CUSTOMER ORIENTATION & COMPLAINT MANAGEMENT (L0057)
Qus: State Bank of India contact centre numbers for the customers are
Ans: 1800 11 22 11 & 1800 425 3800
Qus: What are the different costs provided by the customer?

Ans: Monetary Cost, Time Cost, Energy Cost, Psychic Cost
Qus: The SBI’s new mission statement has

Ans: 7 clauses
Qus: How many links are available on the “Customer Care” page of SBI’s website?
Ans: 15
Qus: Sometimes customer, due to ignorance, may expect us to act in a manner which may go against some bank policies
or laws, so we would
Ans: Explain them why we are unable to help them
Qus: SBI’s Compensation Policy does not cover

Ans: Issue of ATM/Debit Cards
Qus: What is easiest option for a customer

Ans: Switch the bank
Qus: The Reserve Bank of India has set up the Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI) in
Ans: 2006
Qus: State Bank of India website has facilities for the customers to register their views/experience regarding Bank's
services on the Web Site.
Ans: true
Qus: According to SBI’s new mission statement going or working beyond the call of duty will make our customers feel
valued.
Ans: true
Qus: The SBI’s new vision statement carries our aspiration to be first in customer service.
Ans: true
Qus: Customer orientation is the “business seen from the point of view of its final result, i.e. from the customer's point of
view."
Ans: true
Qus: Any Recovery Agent found violating Security Repossesion code of Conduct for Recovery Agents may be blacklisted
by the bank.
Ans: true
Qus: The customer expects us to keep our promise of service quality to them and being prompt in doing all right things,
rightly.
Ans: true
Qus: An effective complaint handling system should provide prompt feedback.

Ans: true
Qus: Customer complaints are the best source for an organization to be aware about its operational/ systemic problems
Ans: true
SKA
Qus: Service Failures does not include providing slow or erratic service.
Ans: false
Qus: Being insensitive to customer needs and not providing him the expected standards of services can lead to service
failure.
Ans: true
Qus: If we are unable to provide for the special needs of the customer it would not be a service failure.
Ans: false
Qus: The Code of Ethics for SBI is a voluntary code adopted by our Bank, which aims to achieve synchronization of best
practices while dealing with our loan customers in India.
Ans: true
Qus: The Code of Commitment to Customers (BCSBI CODE) is bank’s commitment of to provide Banking services of a
high order to individual banking customers.
Ans: true
Qus: The SBI’s new mission statement does not emphasize provision of service to the remotest parts of our country
Ans: false
Qus: Project “SMS Unhappy” is convenient to the customer because it is

A. Anytime & Anywhere
B. Speedy
C. Economical
D. All of the above
Qus: What developments have made it more important to be customer oriented?

A. Rising competition
B. Rising customer expectations
C. Customer’s experience in one industry influences his expectation from other industries
D. All of the Above
Qus: If customer is complaining, he is motivated by

A. Expected solution to the problem
B. Desire to solicit our sympathy for his predicament
C. Desire for an emotional release from the frustration of the problem
D. All of the above
Qus: What actions if taken by a banker would make him customer oriented?
A. By being knowledgeable
B. By not shocking or surprising the customers
C. Being responsive to the customers
D. All of the Above
Qus: What is customer value ?

A. Psychological Value
B. Economical Value
C. Functional Value
D. All of the Above
Qus: Psychological Value to the customer means

A. His satisfaction
B. His feeling of security
C. General feeling of euphoria
D. All of the Above
Qus: What may be the reasons for the customer if he does not decide to complain?
A. Does not think it will do any good
B. Avoids confrontation
C. Lacks expertise i.e. how to complain
SKA
D. All of the above
Qus: Copies of the Citizens’ Charter are available to all our customers at our
A. Branches
B. Administrative offices
C. Web site
D. All of the above
Qus: Private action will include

A. Negative word of mouth publicity
B. Switching the banker
Qus: Economical Value to the customer means :

A. The value for money he receives
B. The value of relationship
C. The interest he receives
D. Both (A) & (B) above
Qus: State Bank of India website has facilities for the customers to
A. Register online complaints
B. Download complaint form
C. Download complaint form for ATM related issues
D. All of the above
Qus: If the customer is not satisfied with the services of a banker, what are the options before him?
A. Public Action
B. Private Action
C. Physical action
D. a) & b)
Qus: State Bank of India does have :

A. Policy on Customer Grievances Redressal
B. Policy on Security Repossesion code of Conduct for Recovery Agents
C. Policy on Depositors Rights
D. All of the Above
Qus: What is the responsibility of State Bank employees toward our customers?
A. Be customer oriented
B. Be Able to elicit any customer dissatisfaction
C. Responsible to offer ready solutions to the customer’s problems
D. All of the above
Qus: The various channels through which the customer can lodge a complaint with State Bank of India are:
A. Approach the branch head
B. Meet senior executives of the Bank on 15th of every month
C. Suggestion cum complaint box in the Banking Hall
D. All of the above
Qus: The Citizen Charter of SBI provides for

A. Information on various facilities/services for customers
B. Ensures high standards of accountability, responsibility and transparency in bank dealings
C. Comprehensive information on Bank’s Grievance redressal mechanism
D. All of the above
Qus: Functional Value to the customer means :

A. The invitation to a function
B. The convenience & enjoyment experienced by the customer
C. The service provided by the service provider
D. b) & c) both
Qus: The Cheque Collection Policy of SBI does not cover
SKA
A. Cheques/instruments lost in transit/in clearing process
B. Time frame for collection of local/outstation instruments
C. Immediate credit of outstation/local cheques to deposit accounts of individual
D. Issue of cheque book to customer
CVC GUIDELINES ON PREMISES RELATED MATTERS (L0697)
Qus: In terms of the GOI, Ministry of Finance guidelines all negotiated contracts in respect of rentals including taxes etc.
and deposits of Rs.25 lacs and above in respect of premises taken by Bank on lease / rental basis and or purchase
of premises be reported to
Ans: Central Bureau of Investigation
Qus: The offers for premises are opened in the presence of

Ans: Screening Committee constituted at LHO/Corporate Centre
Qus: The offers for premises to be invited by

A. Technical Bid
B. Financial Bid
C. a & b both
Qus: In case of e-procurement/e-tendering process, the procuring office should obtain _________________________ on
behalf of the Bank in the name of an official of the respective department
Ans: Digital Signature
Qus: E-Tendering involves processes like

A. Online receipt of technical bid
B. Online receipt of commercial bid
C. a & b both
Qus: The Bank acquires premises for

A. Branches
B. Offices & Residential Quarters
C. Learning Centres
D. All of above
Qus: When properties are being acquired/purchased in settlement of debts, NPAs, the Bank may acquire the property at
Ans: At market price
Qus: In a situation where properties are being acquired / purchased through bid at auctions by the Banks and no reserve
price is announced/available, the Bank should restrict its bid to
Ans: Average of price stated in two valuation reports obtained by the bank
Qus: The price bid should contain

Ans: Price quoted by the bidder
Qus: The Offers for premises to be invited preferably in ____________ bid system
Ans: Two
Qus: Threshold limits beyond which all procurements must be routed through the e- Tendering / e-procurement route are
fixed by the Bank from time to time which is presently Rs. _____Lacs and above
Ans: 10
Qus: In case of amount above threshold limit, the deviation for specific purchase other than e-tendering/e-procurement
route can be approved by
Ans: Group Head
Qus: The brief in paper when property is to be acquired by the Bank, should contain
A. Area & configuration of accommodation required
B. Ready for occupation/under construction
C. Number of flats & location
D. All of the above
SKA
Qus: The covers containing the bids to be listed in
Ans: Offer Receipt Register
Qus: When two bids are received by the Bank for premises to be acquired, which bid is opened first
Ans: Technical Bid
Qus: When properties are being acquired/purchased in settlement of debts, NPAs, the value of the property can be
decided by
A. Minimum two valuation reports
B. Independently ascertaining market enquiry/Calling of offers through open tendering route for such type of properties
in theat locality
C. Both a & b
Qus: Under two bid offer system, Part II is

Ans: Financial Bid
Qus: The technical bid should contain

Ans: Location and property particulars
Qus: In terms of the GOI, Ministry of Finance guidelines all negotiated contracts in respect of rentals including taxes etc.
and deposits of Rs. ________ and above in respect of premises taken by Bank on lease / rental basis and or
purchase of premises be reported to Central Bureau of Investigation
Ans: 25 lacs
Qus: If the value of procurements is less than threshold, liberty is available to utilize etendering/ e-procurement to
Ans: Procuring Office
Qus: Whenever new commercial / residential premises are to be acquired or purchased by the Bank, a brief notice must
be given
Ans: In widely circulated newspapers/local edition of national newspapers
Qus: e-Tendering/e-Procurement refers to the process

Ans: Tendering/procurement through electronic means
Qus: In a situation where properties are being acquired / purchased through bid at auctions by the Banks, the Bank should
restrict its bid to
A. Average of price stated in the two valuation reports obtained by the Bank
B. 10% above the reserve price
C. a or b whichever is lower
Qus: The price or quotation in respect of offer for premises, should be mentioned in
Ans: Financial Bid
Qus: In case of sale proposal of Bank property, the transactions between Public Sector Banks/Undertakings or
Government Department may be settled at :
Ans: At mutually agreed price
Qus: In case of sale proposal of Bank property when the value of property is more than _________ lacs, the due process
of e-reverse auction may be followed/considered as per extant guidelines.
Ans: 10 lacs
Qus: When two bids are received by the Bank for premises to be acquired, which bid is opened first
Ans: Technical Bid
Qus: in case of transactions between Public Sector Bank and Central / State / Quasi Government / Local Development
Authority / Municipality etc., the advertisements are to be given in
Ans: No advertisement is necessary
DIRECT AND INDIRECT PAYMENT THROUGH INTERNET BANKING (L0585)
Qus: Maximum amount of tax which can be paid by our customers using Vyapaar facility is:
Ans: Rs. 50.00 lacs
SKA
Qus: Maximum Amount of tax which can be paid by our customers using Saral facility is:
Ans: Rs. 2.00 Crores
Qus: What are the timings for making sales tax payment through INB in Karnataka?
Ans: Anytime on any day
Qus: What all taxes can be paid using Internet Banking (INB)?
A. Central Government Taxes
B. State Government Taxes
C. All the above
Qus: Payment of Income Tax is done through which website?

Ans: Tax Information Network (TIN)
Qus: Payment of most of taxes originate through?

Ans: Through government department’s websites
Qus: Customs and excise payment will be done through which government department’s website?
Ans: Central Board of Excise and Customs
Qus: Direct Taxes does not include following Taxes?

A. Tax Deducted at Source
B. Value Added Tax
C. Gift Tax
D. Wealth Tax
Qus: Which is not an indirect tax?

A. Wealth Tax
B. Value Added Tax
C. Sales Tax
D. Customs Tax
Qus: Indirect Taxes does not include following tax?

A. Octroi
B. Value added Tax
C. Tax Deducted at source
D. Sales Tax
Qus: It is not mandatory to have authoriser for putting through the transaction for tax payments, for which type of INB
customer?
A. Saral
B. Vyapaar
C. Vistaar
D. Khata
Qus: Which of the following group of customers can make payment of taxes through onlinesbi.com?
Ans: Saral, Vyapaar, Vistaar
Qus: If customer forgets to print copy of Tax Paid challan, is it possible for the customer to print the challan afterwards?
Ans: Yes
Qus: Is it mandatory to have transaction enabled INB facility for making online tax payment?
Ans: Yes
Qus: Direct Taxes can be paid anytime during the day:

Ans: True
Qus: Payment of most taxes needs to be originated from the government website, while some taxes can be paid directly
through OnlineSBI?
Ans: Yes
SKA
Qus: Even P-Segment customers can make payment of taxes through onlinesbi.com.
Ans: True
Qus: As a taxpayer you need a bank account enabled for net banking facility with transaction rights:
Ans: True
Qus: Gift Tax is indirect tax.

Ans: False
DOCUMENTARY CREDITS (L0186)
Qus: Responsibilities of the issuing bank are discussed in

Ans: Article no. 7
Qus: Responsibilities of the confirming bank are discussed in

Ans: Article No.8
Qus: Latest version of UCPDC 600 became effective on

Ans: 1st July 2007
Qus: In the current version of UCPDC, the total no. of articles are :
Ans: 39
Qus: The Credit amount is USD50000. The invoice presented shows USD60000 and the cover letter of the nominated
bank and the draft of the beneficiary are requesting settlement of USD50000. Is this acceptable?
Ans: Yes, as per article 18
Qus: An LC issued by Bank of China states that the charges outside China are on account of beneficiary but the charges
could not be collected by you. Who is liable to pay the charges?
Ans: As article 37 c, Bank of China is liable for charges
Qus: If the credit expires on day when the bank is closed, can the bank negotiate the documents on next day?
Ans: As per article 29a, if the credit expires on a declared holiday , bank can negotiate the documents on next working
day.
Qus: Bill of Lading is issued by Charter Party. The LC is silent as to this aspect. What is your contention?
Ans: unless permitted in the LC, charter bill of lading is not accepted
Qus: Who guarantees payment under a Letter of Credit?

Ans: Issuing Bank
Qus: A letter of Credit requires packing list in four copies.

Ans: At least one original and the rest as copies are accepted
Qus: Non-documentary conditions in a Letter of Credit mean

Ans: Conditions in LC are not supported by the documents required
Qus: It is a credit where an exporter receiving it from his foreign buyer can approach his banker to open credits in favour of
one or more of his suppliers
Ans: Back-to-back credit
Qus: If a Letter of Credit is advised by a Bank, it is responsible for

Ans: Authenticity of the LC
Qus: Undernoted INCOTERMS can only be used for sea/ waterway transport
Ans: FAS, FOB, CFR and CIF
Qus: If the credit does not stipulate the exact name of the issuer, but describes the issuer as ‘authorized person’,
‘competent agency’ or ‘recognised authority’, the bank shall accept the documents issued by:
Ans: any person other than beneficiary
Qus: LC stipulates Insurance for 50% value of Invoice. Is it an acceptable document?
SKA
Ans: Any amount of insurance prescribed in LC is accepted
Qus: In EXW term the obligation of the seller is

Ans: deliver the goods at the disposal of the buyer at seller’s premises or at a named place i.e. factory, warehouse etc.
Qus: You are confirming Bank. You have received documents under the LC for negotiation. Meanwhile, the opening Bank
has become insolvent. Will you venture into loss by negotiating?
Ans: Yes, as per article no 8
Qus: Part-shipments and transhipments are permitted unless prohibited by the credit.
Ans: True
Qus: Before opening a letter of credit it should be checked that even when the LC is within the limit, the transaction has
been authorised by Branch Manager / Manager of Division/Authorised official.
Ans: True
Qus: Unless otherwise stipulated in the credit, an insurance policy issued after shipment is acceptable, if the cover starts
from date of shipment.
Ans: True
Qus: A nominated bank negotiates LC compliant documents and dispatches them to the issuing bank in accordance with
the instructions contained in the credit. If the documents are lost in transit between the two banks, is the issuing bank
obliged to reimburse the nominated bank?
Ans: Yes
Qus: The opening bank need not refer discrepancies to the applicant and can reject documents even if he is willing to
waive discrepancies.
Ans: True
Qus: Bill of lading issued on 20th June is stamped "ON BOARD" on 15th June. The last date of shipment is 18th June.
The documents are in order.
Ans: True
Qus: Unless otherwise specified, all credits provide for a tolerance of plus or minus 5 % in the value of the credit.
Ans: False
Qus: UCPDC provisions are not applicable to inland Letters of Credit.

Ans: False
Qus: Discrepant documents under LC if not negotiated is to be sent for collection under Uniform Rules for Collection (URC
522)
Ans: False
Qus: Credit is for export of frozen meat products. The BL carries the remark. “Perishable goods, transported at owner’s
risk”. The BL is not clean
Ans: False
Qus: 11 All transport documents are negotiable instruments and documents of title to goods.
Ans: False
Qus: All documents under a credit should carry the date of issue and name of issuer.
Ans: False
Qus: An LC opened, subject to UCPDC 600, must clearly state that it is a revocable letter of credit or an irrevocable letter
of credit.
Ans: False
Qus: A credit opened by bank A is restricted for negotiation to bank B. The documents are handled by bank C and
forwarded to bank A. Can bank ‘A’ consider this a discrepancy in the absence of ‘no objection’ letter from bank ‘B’
and refuse to honour?
Ans: No
SKA
Qus: On the last date of submission of documents under a credit opened by you, the bank was closed due to a strike. The
documents should be accepted immediately after the bank reopens after the strike.
Ans: False
Qus: A credit is opened by negotiation with XYZ Bank. XYZ Bank must not refuse to negotiate a complying presentation
under the credit.
Ans: False
Qus: The LC has stipulated for a Packing Certificate from Packers & Movers. The beneficiary has produced packing
Certificate from Leo Packers a subsidiary of Packers & Movers. Will you accept the documents?
Ans: No, as per article 2
EDUCATION LOAN SBI SCHOLAR LOAN SCHEME (L0423)
Qus: In SBI Scholar Loan Scheme, no voucher / receipt will be insisted upon for the expenditure up to :
Ans: Rs.1,00,000/-
Qus: where there is No security, only Parent/Guardian as co-borrower :

Ans: Rs. 7.5 lacs
Qus: Ed In Education Loan - SBI Scholar Loan Scheme, for List C Institutions, maximum loan is available , where there is
No security, only Parent/Guardian as co-borrower :
Ans: Rs. 7.5 lacs
Qus: Under SBI Scholar Loan scheme, for List-A Institutions, without any other collateral security and only with
parent/Guardian as co-borrower, maximum loan amount is
Ans: 20 Lac
Qus: Under SBI Scholar Loan scheme, for List-B approved Institutions, without collateral security and only with
Parent/Guardian as co-borrower, maximum Loan amount is
Ans: 20 lacs
Qus: Under SBI Scholar Loan scheme, for List-B approved Institutions , with tangible collateral security of full value and
with Parent/Guardian as co-borrower, maximum loan amount is
Ans: Rs. 30 Lacs
Qus: Under SBI Scholar Loan scheme, for List-A approved Institutions, with tangible collateral security of full value &
Parent/Guardian as co-borrower, maximum loan amount is
Ans: Rs 30 lacs
Qus: Loan applications under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme have to be disposed off within a period of :
Ans: 6 days
Qus: In SBI Scholar Loan Scheme, if the student is not able to complete the course within the schedule time, generally,
extension of time for completion of course may be permitted for a maximum period of :
Ans: 2 Year
Qus: What is the maximum tenure of the loan upto Rs. 7.5 lacs under SBI Scholar Loan scheme?
Ans: 7 yrs
Qus: What is the maximum tenure of the loan above Rs. 7.5 lacs under SBI Scholar Loan scheme?
Ans: 12 yrs
Qus: In SBI Scholar Loan scheme, maximum period for second loan is
Ans: 12 years
Qus: In Education Loan – SBI Scholar Loan Scheme , maximum repayment period of 2nd Education Loan, after
completing the second course :
Ans: 12 Year
Qus: What is the maximum age limit for the student availing Education Loan – SBI Scholar Loan Scheme :
A. 18 Years
SKA
B. 21 Years
C. 30 Years
D. No age limit
Qus: If loan is sanctioned under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme, it starts for repayment from :
Ans: 1 Year after the completion of the course or 6 months after taking up a job, whichever is earlier
Qus: When loan starts for repayment, if second loan is sanctioned under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme :
Ans: 1 Year after the completion of the second course or 6 months after taking up a job, whichever is earlier
Qus: In SBI Scholar Loan scheme, voucher / receipt is not insisted up to

Ans: 25% of loan amount sanctioned
Qus: Ed In Education Loan - SBI Scholar Loan Scheme, for List C Institutions, maximum loan is available , In SBI Scholar
Loan scheme, voucher / receipt is not insisted up to
Ans: 25% of loan amount sanctioned
Qus: Concession in interest for girl students availing SBI Scholar Loan w.e.f. 02.03.2009 is
Ans: 0.50 %
Qus: What is the maximum no. of loans in a family under SBI Scholar Loan scheme?
Ans: No ceiling
Qus: In SBI Scholar Loan scheme, margin for loan above Rs. 4 lacs and upto Rs.7.5 lacs is :
Ans: Nil
Qus: In S In SBI Scholar Loan scheme, at present, approved premier institutions are covered under
Ans: Three groups – AA,A,B & C
Qus: Now SBI Scholar Loan can be sanctioned by

Ans: All MMGS-III & above incumbency branches in addition to campus branches
Qus: Name the product by which financial assistance is granted to the students of elite/premium/reputed institutions.
Ans: SBI Scholar Loan Scheme
Qus: The processing of Education Loan – SBI Scholar Loan Scheme applications should be monitored by the controllers
and RACPCs on _____ basis :
Ans: Weekly
Qus: Processing Charges for SBI Scholar Loan Scheme in Education Loan is :
Ans: NIL
Qus: In SBI Scholar Loan scheme, margin for loan upto Rs.4 lacs is
Ans: Nil
Qus: An interest rate concession is given to girl students availing education loans under
A. SBI Student Loan
B. SBI Scholar Loan
C. SBI Student Loan to Staff / Ward of Staff
D. All of the above
Qus: Main purpose/eligibilty criteria for SBI Scholar Loan Scheme in Education loan for :
Ans: Secured admission in the country’s best Engineering and Medical colleges, top B- Schools, Law colleges & other
reputed institutions
Qus: “No Dues Certificate” need not be insisted upon as a pre-condition for considering Education Loan – SBI Scholar
Loan :
Ans: True
Qus: The SBI Scholar Loan can be released prior to a student securing a formal admission letter :
Ans: true
SKA
EDUCATION LOAN SBI SCHOLAR SCHEME (D4010)
Loans under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme are granted mainly for the purpose of
C. Technical/ Professional courses in the country’s select premier and reputed institutions identified by the Bank
Under SBI Scholar Loan scheme, for List-A Institutions, without any other collateral security and only with Parent/Guardian as
co-borrower, maximum loan amount is
B. Rs.20 Lac
Under SBI Scholar Loan scheme, for List-A approved Institutions, with tangible collateral security of full value &
C. Rs 30 lacs
Under SBI Scholar Loan scheme, for List-B approved Institutions, without collateral security and only with Parent/Guardian as
co-borrower, maximum Loan amount is
A. 20 lacs
Under SBI Scholar Loan scheme, for List-B approved Institutions , with tangible collateral security of full value and with
B. Loan not available with security for List B Institutes
Ed Under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme, for List C Institutions, maximum loan available , where there is no security, only
Parent/Guardian as co-borrower, is
B. Rs. 7.50 lacs
What is the maximum repayment periodfor loans upto Rs. 7.50 lacs under SBI Scholar Loan scheme?
B. 15 yrs
What is the maximum repayment period for loans above Rs. 7.50 lacs under SBI Scholar Loan scheme?
D. 15 yrs
Interest rate concession is given to girl students availing education loans under
A. SBI Student Loan
B. SBI Scholar Loan
D. Only (a) and (c)
In SBI Scholar Loan scheme, margin for loans upto Rs.4 lacs is
B. Nil
In SBI Scholar Loan scheme, margin required for loans above Rs. 4 lacs and upto Rs.7.50 lacs is
A. 5%
Margin for loan above Rs. 7.50 lacs in SBI Scholar Loan Scheme is
C. Nil
Under Scholar Loan scheme, wherever the land/ building is already mortgaged, the unencumbered portion
D. Can be taken as security on 2nd charge,provided it covers the required loan amount.
Processing Charges for SBI Scholar Loan Scheme is

D. NIL
The SBI Scholar Loan can be released prior to a student securing a formal admission letter
A. True
What is the maximum age limit for the students availing Education Loan under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme?
D. There is no age limit
Now SBI Scholar Loan can be sanctioned by

B. All MMGS-III & above incumbency branches in addition to campus branches
SKA
In SBI Scholar Loan Scheme, if the student is not able to complete the course within the scheduled time, generally, extension
of time for completion of course may be permitted for a maximum period of
C. 2 Years
In SBI Scholar Loan Scheme, no voucher / receipt will be insisted upon for expenditure incurred on travel expense, laptop,
study tours etc., up to an amount of
C. Rs.1,00,000/-or a maximum of up to 25% of the loan amount
What is the maximum no. of loans permitted in a family under SBI Scholar Loan scheme?
D. No ceiling
If loan is sanctioned under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme, the repayment will start
C. 1 Year after the completion of the course.
The processing & sanctioning of loan applications under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme should not be done by
A. Branches
B. RACPCs/ RASMECCs
C. LPCs at RBOs
D. It can be done by all the above
In SBI Scholar Loan scheme, at present, approved premier institutions are covered under
B. Four groups –AA,A,B & C
Under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme, maximum repayment period for a 2nd loan availed by the student borrower, after
completing the second course is
D. 15 Years
Which of these cannot be considered an eligible expense in case of loans under our Scholar Loan scheme?
A. Building Fund/ Caution Deposit
B. Travel expense related to visits to foreign Universities
C. Project work expenses
D. All the above expenses are considered eligible
In Which of these programmes are not covered under SBI Scholar Loan scheme?
A. Post Graduate Diploma in Business Analytics (PGDBA) from IIM Calcutta
B. 3 year Post Graduate Programme for Working Executives (PGWE) from IIM Lucknow
C. 5 year Integrated Programme in Management from IIM Indore
D. 15 month part time Executive MBA course of NarseeMonjee Institute of Management Studies (NMIMS)
Loan applications under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme have to be disposed off within a period of
C. 15 days
Are Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) & Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs) eligible for Scholar Loans?
C. Yes, but only with tangible collateral security.
Concession in interest rates for girl students availing SBI Scholar Loan is
C. No concession
EDUCATION LOAN SBI STUDENT LOAN SCHEME (D4009)
Which of the following documents is mandatory for securing Education loan – SBI Student Loan Scheme
B. PAN card
In SBI Student Loan scheme, margin for loan upto Rs.4 lacs for studies in India is :
C. Nil
What is the margin for studies in India for loans above Rs.4 lacs under SBI Student Loan:
A. 5%
What is the margin for studies abroad for loans above Rs.4 lacs under SBI Student Loan:
C. 15%
SKA
What is the processing fee for loans up to Rs.4 lacs under SBI Student Loan scheme
D. NIL
Concession in interest for girl students availing SBI Student Loan is :

D. 0.50 %
How much amount can be sanctioned under SBI Student Loan scheme for purchase of two wheeler :
C. Up to Rs 50,000/-
What is the norm for repayment when Education loan is sanctioned under SBI Student Loan scheme : whichever is earlier.
C. 1 year after the completion of the course or 6 months after taking up a job ,whichever is earlier.
What is the norm for repayment when second loan is sanctioned under SBI Student Loan scheme? whichever is earlier.
C. 1 year after the completion of the second course or 6 months after taking up a job whichever is earlier.
Our branches can issue the capability certificate for the students going abroad for higher studies.
A. True
What is the repayment period under SBI Student Loan for a loan upto Rs.7.5 lacs?
B. 10 Year
What is the maximum loan under SBI Student Loan for studies in India :
B. 10 Lac
SBI Student Loan for studies abroad can be sanctioned up to

C. Rs.30 lacs
“No Dues” Certificate need not be insisted upon as a pre-condition for considering Education loan – SBI Student Loan
Scheme
A. True
Loan applications under SBI Student Loan have to be disposed off within a period of
A. 7 days
Education Loan in SBI is available under _____ schemes.

B. Two
What is the maximum age limit prescribed for the students availing education loan – SBI Student Loan Scheme -
D. No age limit
The processing of education loan applications should be monitored by the controllers and RACPCs on _______ basis.
B. Weekly
Application for educational loan – SBI Student Loan Scheme, should not be rejected without the concurrence of
D. Next higher authority
What is the percent of penal interest to be charged for loans above Rs.4 lacs for the overdue amount & overdue period under
SBI Student Loan?
B. 2%
What is the security for loans up to Rs.4 lacs under SBI Student Loan?
A. Co-obligation of Parent
B. No collateral security
C. Both (A) &(B)
D. TPG
What is the maximum no. of loans in a family under SBI Student Loan scheme?
D. No ceiling
Which of the following courses are not eligible under SBI Student Loan scheme? Medical council of India
A. Vocational training & skill development study courses
B. Medical courses in USSR, China, Nepal &other countries not recognized by
SKA
C. Courses conducted by universities through distance mode of learning
D. All of these
Which of the following expenses can be considered for arriving at loan amount under SBI Student Loan scheme?
A. Fee payable to college/hostel including examination fee
B. Expenses like study tours, project work, theses etc.
C. Purchase of computers
D. All of these
What is the security for loan above Rs. 7.5 lacs under SBI Student Loan?
B. Tangible collateral security along with assignment of future income of the student for payment of instalments
C. Third Party Guarantee
D. Both (A) & (B)
An interest rate concession is given to girl students availing education loans under
A. SBI Student Loan
B. SBI Scholar Loan
D. All of the above
Which of the following statements about SBI Student Loan is correct?

A. No qualifying marks in the last qualifying examination are stipulated
B. Admission through management quota may be considered
C. Evening courses of approved institutes
D. All of these
What is the security for loans above Rs.4 lacs and upto Rs.7.5 lacs under SBI Student Loan?
B. Collateral security at least equivalent to loan amount
D. Both (A) & (C)
EDUCATION LOAN SBI STUDENT LOAN SCHEME (L0422)
Qus: What is the maximum loan under SBI Student Loan for studies in India :
Ans: 10 Lac
Qus: What is the norm for repayment when Education loan is sanctioned under SBI Student Loan scheme :
Ans: 1 year after the completion of the course or 6 months after taking up a job ,whichever is earlier.
Qus: What is the margin for studies in India for loans above Rs.4 lacs under SBI Student Loan:
Ans: 5%
Qus: What is the margin for studies abroad for loans above Rs.4 lacs under SBI Student Loan:
Ans: 15%
Qus: What is the percent of penal interest to be charged for loans above Rs.4 lacs for the overdue amount & overdue
period under SBI Student Loan?
Ans: 2%
Qus: What is the rate of interest concession if full interest is repaid during moratorium period under SBI Student Loan?
Ans: 1%
Qus: What is the repayment period under SBI Student Loan for a loan upto Rs.7.5 lacs?
Ans: 10 Year
Qus: What is the maximum tenure of the loan above Rs. 7.5 lacs under SBI Student Loan scheme?
Ans: 12 yrs
Qus: SBI Student Loan for studies abroad can be sanctioned up to
SKA
Ans: Rs.30 lacs
Qus: Concession in interest for girl students availing SBI Student Loan is :
Ans: 0.50 %
Qus: How much amount can be sanctioned under SBI Student Loan scheme for purchase of two wheeler :
Ans: Up to Rs 50,000/-
Qus: What is the norm for repayment when second loan is sanctioned under SBI Student Loan scheme?
Ans: 1 year after the completion of the second course or 6 months after taking up a job whichever is earlier.
Qus: Loan applications under SBI Student Loan have to be disposed off within a period of
Ans: 7 days
Qus: The processing of education loan applications should be monitored by the controllers and RACPCs on _______
basis.
Ans: Weekly
Qus: Which of the following documents is mandatory for securing Education loan – SBI Student Loan Scheme :
Ans: PAN card
Qus: In SBI Student Loan scheme, margin for loan upto Rs.4 lacs for studies in India is :
Ans: Nil
Qus: What is the maximum age limit prescribed for the students availing education loan – SBI Student Loan Scheme -
Ans: No age limit
Qus: Education Loan in SBI is available under _____ schemes.

Ans: Two
Qus: What is the security for loan above Rs. 7.5 lacs under SBI Student Loan?
B. Tangible collateral security along with assignment of future income of the student for payment of instalments
D. Both (a) & (b)
Qus: What is the security for loans above Rs.4 lacs and upto Rs.7.5 lacs under SBI Student Loan?
B. Collateral security at least equivalent to loan amount
D. Both (a) & (c)
Qus: Which of the following expenses can be considered for arriving at loan amount under SBI Student Loan scheme?
A. Fee payable to college/hostel including examination fee
B. Expenses like study tours, project work, theses etc.
C. Purchase of computers
D. All of these
Qus: “No Dues” Certificate need not be insisted upon as a pre-condition for considering Education loan – SBI Student
Loan Scheme
Ans: True
Qus: An interest rate concession is given to girl students availing education loans under
A. SBI Student Loan
B. SBI Scholar Loan
D. All of the above
Qus: Application for educational loan – SBI Student Loan Scheme, should not be rejected without the concurrence of
A. BM
B. AGM
C. GM
SKA
D. Next higher authority
Qus: What is the maximum no. of loans in a family under SBI Student Loan scheme?
Ans: No ceiling
Qus: Our branches can issue the capability certificate for the students going abroad for higher studies.
Ans: True
Qus: What is the security for loans up to Rs.4 lacs under SBI Student Loan?
B. No collateral security
C. Both (A) &(B)
Qus: Which of the following statements about SBI Student Loan is correct?
A. No qualifying marks in the last qualifying examination are stipulated
B. Admission through management quota may be considered
C. Evening courses of approved institutes
D. All of these
Qus: Which of the following courses are not eligible under SBI Student Loan scheme? Medical council of India
A. Vocational training & skill development study courses
B. Medical courses in USSR, China, Nepal &other countries not recognized by
C. Courses conducted by universities through distance mode of learning
D. All of these
e-KYC (L0594)
Qus: Who has introduced e-KYC Services

Ans: UIDAI
Qus: The E-KYC electronic record provided by UIDAI is equivalent to Adhaar Letter as given in
Ans: Section 4 of IT Act, 2000
Qus: The secure digital signature of UIDAI can be verified by the service provider to ensure the authenticity of the source,
this is compliance of
Ans: Section 15 of IT Act
Qus: The e-KYC data is sent in encrypted form which ensure only intended service provided can read the data given by
UIDAI. This is in compliance with
Ans: Section 14 of IT ACT, 2000
Qus: The technology in e-KYC ensure that any tempering of data in transit is detected, this is compliance of
Ans: Section 3 of IT Act, 2000
Qus: In case the Bank is unable to apply appropriate customer due diligence measures, it will not
A. Open the account
B. Close the account
C. A & B both
Qus: For e-KYC, the KYC Service Agency provides connectivity to

Ans: UIDAI Central ID Repository
Qus: Which is not a parameter of KYC Policy

A. Customer Acceptance
B. Customer Identification
C. Risk Management
D. Risk Scoring Model
Qus: The purpose of unique transaction code in e-KYC is

Ans: It enable electronic audit
Qus: What is the period after which we get e-KYC data after submission of request
SKA
Ans: Instantly
Qus: Who is a customer as per KYC policy

A. Account Holder
B. Beneficial Owner
C. A & B both
Qus: If the data sent for e-KYC (aadhar number and thum impression) verification does not match at UIDAI end then
Ans: UIDAI server will respond with appropriate error code
Qus: For every customer, the transactions above ____________ need to be monitored
Ans: Threshold Limit
Qus: The e-KYC data can be provided

Ans: Upon authorisation by customer
Qus: To avoid duplication or possible fraudulent production of e-KYC certificate, it contains

Ans: Quick Response Matrix Bar Code
Qus: Customer can broadly be categorised under ____ risk categories

Ans; 3
Qus: The periodicity of updation of full KYC particulars in case of medium risk customers is
Ans: 8 years
Qus: The periodicity of updation of full KYC particulars in case of high risk customers is
Ans: 2 years
Qus: Review of risk categorisation is to be carried out at least once in every

Ans: 6 months
Qus: For e-KYC authentication, which of the details of customer are captured
Ans: ADHAAR CARD AND FINGERPRINT
Qus: E-KYC service will provide

A. Proof of Identity
B. Proof of Address
C. Both of above
Qus: For KYC purpose, the physical Adhar Card issued by UIDAI is
Ans: Officially Valid document
Qus: e-KYC can be used for

Ans: New as well as existing Customers
Qus: For e-KYC the customer details are sent to UIDAI through ___________
Ans: NPCI
Qus: The KYC User Agency accesses the e-KYC data thorugh
Ans: KYC Service Agency
Qus: Which of the following is not a feature of Customer Acceptance Policy

A. Authentication of KYC Documents
B. Clear laid down criteria for customer acceptance
C. Allotting a unique id to customer
D. Preparing profile for due diligence
Qus: Which of the following will be classified as low risk customers

Ans: NPO/NGO promoted by UN
Qus: For e-KYC certificate, the frontline staff has to

Ans: Invoke the e-KYC application thorugh CBS
SKA
Qus: Which of the following will not require higher due diligence
Ans: Pensioners
Qus: The agency servicing the customer and requesting data from UIDAI is known as
Ans: KYC User Agency
Qus: The e-KYC data contains a unique transaction code which is

Ans: Unique number for every transaction
Qus: Which of the following is not the purpose of customer acceptance policy
A. Preventing opening of benami accounts
B. Appropriate monitoring for accounts operated by mandate holders
C. Opening maximum accounts under financial inclusion
D. To ensure that customer is not having a criminal background
Qus: The purpose of e-KYC is

A. To reduce the risk of identity fraud
B. To reduce the risk of document forgery
C. To have paperless KYC verification
D. All of the above
Qus: Which of the following is not a feature of e-KYC

A. Paperless
B. Low Cost
C. International Acceptance
D. Inclusive
Qus: Which of the following is not a feature of e-KYC

A. It is low cost
B. It is paperless
C. It is consent based
D. It gives customer creditworthiness
Qus: Which data can be obtained using e-KYC services

A. Demographic data
B. Photo
C. A & B both
Qus: Which of the following is not a key element of KYC Policy

A. Customer Identification
B. Risk Management
C. CIBIL Report of customer
D. Transaction Monitoring
Qus: E-KYC is treated as officially valid and also compliant with

A. Information Technology Act, 2000
B. Prevention of Money Laundering
C. Both of above
Qus: The quick response code does not contain

A. E-KYC Certificate number
B. Date and Time of Issue
C. Teller ID
D. Name of the town
EMPLOYEE ENGAGEMENT AND TEAM BUILDING (L0203)
Qus: In the case of Rational Engagement, the employee

Ans: Understands how his performance will contribute to the organisational success.
SKA
Qus: How many types of employees are identified in an employee engagement survey?
Ans: 3
Qus: At how many levels we can measure the employee engagement?

Ans: 2
Qus: An employee does not get a chance to discuss his progress. He will be considered to be engaged.
Ans: false
Qus: Clarity, as a method to enhance employee engagement, signifies

Ans: Clarity of goals for the employees
Qus: The employee engagement at Behavioural Energy level can be seen by

Ans: (A), (B) & (C) above
Qus: Open communication policy can facilitate employee engagement.

Ans: true
Qus: The “engagement” of the employees influences the “engagement” of the customer.
Ans: true
Qus: An employee commits time and effort to help the organisation succeed. He can be
considered to be engaged.
Ans: true
Qus: Confidence, as a method to enhance employee engagement, signifies

Ans: Confidence in the company by virtue of leaders showing exceptional results
Qus: To achieve employee engagement the organization should

D. (A) & (B) only
Qus: On an average 19% of employees are considered to be _______ in an organization.

Ans: Disengaged
Qus: What does ‘if only’ mind-set mean?

D. (A), (B) & (C) above
Qus: Convey, as a method to enhance employee engagement, signifies

Ans: Organization conveying its expectations to the employees and providing feedback on their functioning
Qus: Unengaged employees will

Ans: Concentrate on tasks rather than the goals.
Qus: ‘Identifying the problem areas’ is the ______ stage of 4 stage process for measuring employee engagement.
Ans: Third
Qus: The Theory of Person-Environment Fit says

D. (A) & (B) only
Qus: An employee does not know what the organisation expects from him. He can be considered to be engaged.
Ans: false
Qus: The rule of 10 : 9 states that

Ans: 10% improvement in commitment can decrease employee’s probability of leaving the organisation by 9%.
Qus: Contribute, as a method to enhance employee engagement, signifies

Ans: Sharing with the employees as to how they are contributing to the organisation's success
ETHICS (A1002)
In our Values (STEPS) E stands for C .Effort

B. Ethics
SKA
in our Values (STEPS) S stands for
A. Service
In our Values (STEPS) S stands for

C. Sustainability
in our Values (STEPS) T stands for

C. Transparency
in our Values (STEPS) P stands for

A. Politeness
We are displaying the current rate of interest in deposit and service charge in our notice board which is updated regularly.
Which of our values in STEPS is playing a role here?
A. Transparency
…………….. help us examine whether a practice or conduct is good or bad within the context of a moral duty.
A. Ethics
Your Brother in law comes to your branch to make one high value IOI and he know that the Bank does not charge exchange
from staff and he wants you to make the IOI in your name. If you accede to his request, you comprise which value of Bank.
B. Ethics
My Manager comes to me with two short listed cab service provider ,the one who has come out with the slight lowest rate has
higher emission level. Which value of Bank should try for implementation?
B. Sustainability
One of my colleagues views customer information in CBS for non-business reasons, you should tell him about which value of
the Bank to adhere to.
C. Ethics
Conducting ourselves with utmost integrity is which value of the Bank.

B. Ethics
You observe that one of your colleagues do not properly close the wash room tap. Then they are not adhering to which value
of the bank.
B. Sustainability
if we are not sure on what to do in a situation,what should you do.choose the most appropriate one
C. Refer to the Ethical Decision-Making Guide or relevant policy in Resources Section of the Code
If I am saying thank you to customer after doing their work, then I am adhering to which value of the Bank.
A. Service
Saving resources like Paper, electricity, fuel etc. falls under which value of the bank.
A. Sustainability
We are increasing the channel of green channel counter in our Branches, which is a reflection of our value of
A. Sustainability
One of your customers asks you about the rate of interest offered you in term deposit and also ask whether rate of interest is
best offered in the Market and you did not know the answer but told yes. You are not adhering to which value of the Bank.
A. Transparency
Our Branch is showing a reduction in the number of customer complaints in comparison to last year. Which of our values in
STEPS is playing a major role here?
C. Service
You are serving as an Assistant in a Branch. One day one customer approached you for Goat rearing under MUDRA. You
are not sure of any such loan and told NO. But ,however you took him to BM’s room for any carfication.BM told that the loan
can be given under MUDRA and asked customer to apply. BM is displaying which value.
SKA
C. Service
You are attending to a customer, when you received a call from your senior, who wants you to see him urgently. You told that
you are attending to a customer and once finish , you will call on him. Which value of the Bank you are practising, choose the
most appropriate one.
C. Service
What are the 3Rs under sustainability? Ii .Reuse, Reduction, Reinforce

A. Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
We are providing special counter for pensioners during 1st week of every month, we are living with value of the Bank.
C. Service
One of our staff members is attending to other work when dealing with customer , then he is not following which value of the
Bank.
C. Service
If we ensure that integrity permeates our working and decision every time and every day, then we are living which value of
the Bank.
B. Ethics
Bank has a well-documented ethics code for our day to day use.
A. YES
A satisfied customer is not the most important factor for growth of Business.
B. False
Serve with smile propagates our value of service.

A. True
I am in dire need of money and one of my customers is offering to help me by giving some money and I know I can repay it
shortly. Should I accept it
B. NO
Proper Courtesy and thankful attitude towards s customer reflects our value of Politeness
A. True
SKA

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ADVANCED FINANCIAL STATEMENT ANALYSIS – I (L0312)

Qus: The benchmark for Gross Average DSCR is:

Qus: Net Working Capital is calculated as:

Qus: Working capital is needed by the business to:

Qus: Overtrading is:

Qus: Investments in Associates / Subsidiaries are classified as:

Qus: The Current ratio is an indicator of:

Qus: In the Percentage of Sales method of analysis:

Qus: Advance/progress payments received from customers should be classified as:

Qus: When analyzing debtors/receivables, the focus is on:

Qus: When analysing inventory, the focus must be on:

Qus: In analyzing sales in the P & L account we focus on:

Qus: What is a financial statement?

Qus: Interest coverage ratio is PBDIT / Interest.

Qus: Capital Subsidy can be added to other income in P & L account.

ADVANCED FINANCIAL STATEMENT ANALYSIS - II (L0313)

Qus: An increase in bank borrowing is:

Qus: A decrease in debentures outstanding is:

Qus: Cash flow relating to movement in inventories is relatable to:

Qus: What is a Funds Flow Statement?

Qus: The Funds flow statement is also known as:

Qus: What is Profit after Tax?

Qus: An increase in share capital is a use of funds.

Qus: A loss is a source of funds.

ADVANTAGE OF ALTERNATING CHANNEL (L0545)

Qus: RINB is ____________

Qus: CINB means -

Qus: Another name of POS is ________

Qus: CDM means -

Qus: GCC means -

Qus: Full form of GRC is

Qus: MAB means -

Qus: Customer can use GRC for __________ transactions

Qus: We have to ensure -

Qus: Increased business can be handled by staff members if -

Qus: One of the facilities Green Channel Counter (GCC) provides :

Qus: If transactions are done through Alternate Channels -

Qus: Which one of the following is true?

Qus: Which of the following is the cost reduction process?

Qus: Technology helps in -

AGRI CREDIT PROCESS - POST SANCTION (L0278)

Qus: Produce Marketing Loan is to be repaid within a maximum period of

Qus: The loan sanctioned by one authority is required to be reviewed by

Qus: Kcc is to be reviewed once in

Qus: Drawing Power is given on

Qus: Standard certificate appended to stock statement is signed by

Qus: crop insurance is compulsory for

Qus: Inspection of irregular agriculture loan account is conducted at ________ intervals.

AGRI GOLD LOANS (L0234)

Qus: Loan to Value (LTV) under Agri Gold Loan is

Qus: Pre requisite for extending Agri. Gold loan is

Qus: SIM-GL/1 is ______.

Qus: SIM-GL/1 is ______.

Qus: SIM-GL/2 is certified by _______.

Qus: Gold loan document SIM-GL/6 is

Qus: Purity of the gold can be assessed by using

Qus: Pre requisite for extending Agri. Gold loan is

Qus: Gold loan under Agri. segment can be extended by way of

Qus: Gold Loans under Agri. Segment can be extended for

Qus: Custody of gold ornaments [security] is with

Qus: Wherever service of local goldsmith is used, fees of goldsmith is paid by

Qus: Advance value of gold can be ascertained from

Qus: Which product in Agri Business is having lowest NPA?

Qus: The first ATM was installed in India by _ at _.