Physiology Compilation (2013-2014) 11.

Which is NOT part of actin filament

a. F- actin
1st Bimonthly b. Titin
Unit 1Unit Exam c. Tropomyosin
d.Troponin
17. Difference between Facilitated and Simple Diffusion:
C) Has maximum diffusion Vmax 12. Correct in troponin-tropomyosin complex: Troponin T - tropomysoin
I - inhibition, actin
D) Needs carrier protein Facilitated only, simple has channel protein a. Tropomyosin C- high affinity for calcium C - calcium
Troponin C
18.True of Na-K pump: 13. Fenn effect Greater work, greater ATP cleaveage
A) Only in specialized cells All cells
B) ATPase function - outside of B subunit 15. Actin myosin overlap During muscle contraction
C) A subunit contains binding site for Na & K B is for anchoring
D) Transports in 3 Na, preventing in flow of H2O 16. Which physiologic characteristic is correct in muscle contraction?
a. Velocity of muscle contraction is very rapid as load
19. role of calcium in pinocytosis. Clathrin- pinching off of the vesicle applied is increased
b. There is active tension in muscle when stretched
st
1 Bimonthly Exam beyond its normal length
1. Function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. Work is energy transferred from muscle to overcome
a. budding off of transport vesicles Golgi resistance from external load
b. production of lipids and proteins d. All of the above
c. provides energy for glycogen metabolism
d. provides enzymes for detoxification 17. No ATP required in this step during muscular contraction
A sequestration
2. Reduces net rate of diffusion through a membrane B sodium potassium pump
a. HELP ME REMEMBER O_O C actual walk along mechanism
b. higher temperature D none of the above
c. lower molecular weight of a substance
d. thick membrane 18. Energy source of muscle contraction where ADP is
rephosphorylated
3. counter transport mechanism Co with sodium -amino acids n glucose a. glycolysis Reconstitute ATP n phosphocreatine
a. potassium and chloride Counter with sodium-hydrogen n calcium c. phosphocreatine High energy phosphate bond phosporylates, first source
b. sodium and amino acids d. oxidative metabolism Liberate ATP
c. sodium - potassium and choride Profuse sweating but too much heat is still produced
d. sodium and hydrogen 25. Heatstroke is due to:
A) Interleukins Heat exhaustion-low humidity, profuse sweating, super
5. True of glycocalyx: B) Brain tumors cooled body

a. most of the component is from carbohydrates C) Prostaglandin E2

D) High environmental temperature and humidity
7. Length of the muscle fiber when contracted
a. 2 micrometers 2nd Bimonthly
b. 20 micrometers Unit 4 Long Exam 1
c. 2 millimeters 1. Which DOES NOT occur during normal quiet expiration?
d. 200 micrometers a. contraction of abdominal muscles decrease the
thoracic cavity
8. What is true of titin: Except? b. elongation of external intercostals forward and
A) One of the largest of proteins in the body All the rest is in guyton p73-74 upward
B) Elastic end attached to myosin (11th ed) c. decrease in anteroposterior diameter
C) Initial formation of contractile elements d. diaphragmatic reflex decreases vertical diameter
D) Frameworks for actin and myosin filaments 2. Minute respiratory Volume TV x RR Normal: 6L
a. Increases if tidal volume increases
9. Which of the following is not found in the sarcoplasm? 3. Differences between the sneeze reflex from cough reflex
a. K and Ca a. Involved structures
b. PO4 Potassium, magnesium, phosphate, enzymes, mitochondria b. Triggering factor
Cough- vagus, sneeze-trigeminal
c. enzymes c. Role of epiglottis
d. mitochondria d. Purpose of mechanism
10. True of initiation and execution of muscle contraction except:
a. Stimulation of motor end plate release acetylcholine Unit 4 Unit Exam Dorsal resp- inspiration n rate of
b. Activated ach channels cause depolarization and influx 1. Pneumotaxic Center: rhythem
Pneomotaxic- dec inpiration, inc RR
of sodium a. Decrese expiration Ventral- more effort needed, spillage
c. Sliding actin and myosin is followed by sequestration b. Decrease respiratory rate
d. Local depolarization of sarcoplasmic reticulum leads to c. Increase inspiration
release of calcium Muscle fiber membrane d. Decrease inspiration
Sarcoplasmic ret releases calcium after depo of 2. Which is not true of the inspiratory signal in the dorsal
the membrance respiratory group?
 a. expiratory signal is low 15. Complication of staying long in the submarine:
b. inspiratory signal will increase abruptly Steadily, decrease abruptly a. Oxygen Toxicity
c. inspiratory signal will increase steadily b. Carbon Monoxide Toxicity
d. It is responsible for the rhythm of respiration c. Carbon Dioxide Toxicity
3. Regulation of respiration from increased CO2: d. Radiation Exposure
a. Blood CO2 directly stimulates central 16. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is used for:
chemoreceptors Hydrogen- directly, but does not cross BBB a. Gas gangrene
b. CO2 stimulates peripheral chemoreceptors Along with H and O2 b. Decompression sickness
(more sensitive)
c. Blood pH stimulate c. Carbon monoxide poisoning
d. AOTA d. All of the above
4. Best describes stimulation of Chemosensitive Area 17. Best describes false vocal cords
a. Indirectly by H a. these mucosal folds are the lateral boundary of
b. Directly by O2 Peripheral the rima glottides Rima vestibularis
c. Directly by CO2 b. lined by stratified squamous epithelium True
d. Effect decreases after 2 days Reset every 2 days due to kidney regulation c. have dense bands of elastic tissue & muscle vocal
5. Inc in blood H+ stimulate d. they have mucosal glands
a. Peripheral chemoreceptor 18. Normal respiration is due to
b. Chemosensitive area CSF fluid conc. a. compression of lungs Gas exchange
Juxtapose
c. J receptor b. decrease alveolar pressure
d. None c. increase alveolar pressure Ventilation- inhale n exhale
6. Disease condition that can cause cheyne-stokes Brain damage and heart d. relaxation of diaphragm
a. Obesity obstructive apnea DM type 1- kussmaul's- ketone formation 19. Which of the ff factors increase respi minute work
b. Severe cardiac failure a. airway constriction
7. Comapring an acclimatized from a nonacclimatized person, b. disappearance of turbulence
the acclimatized individual has which of the following gas c. decrease density of gas
pressures? d. increase compliance of the lungs
a. lower pO2 20. Alveolar pressure is
b. lower pCO2 a. Higher than intrapleural pressure during
c. lower vapor pressure Always the same respiration
d. lower arterial O2 saturation b. Higher than intrapleural pressure during
8. What acute changes happen in the circulatory system of inspiration and expiration
an acclimatized person? Mountain sickness: c. Lower than intrapleural pressure during
a. increase cardiac output Acute- acute cerebral edema, acute pulmonary edema expiration
Chronic- HCT exceptionally high, pulmonary arterial pressure
b. increase tissue capillarity elevated, right sided heart enlarge, peripheral artery pressure d. Lower than intrapleural pressure during
c. increase =) dec, congestive heart failure inspiration
d. all of the above 21. True of physiologic dead space
9. Increase ventilation at high land after a. decreases with age
a. Stimulation of peripheral receptor by po2 b. total volume of air in the alveoli
b. stimulation of peripheral receptor by pH c. not affected by anatomic dead space
c. Stimulation of central receptor by pCo2 22. Work of breathing is increased by:
d. All of the above a. decrease in length of airwa
10. Chronic mountain sickness is due to: b. increase diameter of airway
Inc elastic, dec compliance; dec
a. increaed vasoconstriction c. decrease elastic tissue force elastic, inc compliance
11. NOT a foreseen effect of prolonged space travel? d. increase surface tension elastic force Dec surfactant
a. nausea and vomiting Acute 23. A 35 yr. old scoliotic patient complained of difficulty in
b. decreased blood volume breathing...what was the result of the pulmonary test? Restrictive
lung disease
c. decreased muscle strength 24. Which of the ff does not happen during cough reflex:
d. loss of calcium and phosphorous from bones a. Rapid depression in lung pressure closing the
12. Exposure to high pressure of this gas can cause respiratory glottis
failure: b. Compression of the lungs
a. Carbon Dioxide 25. Effect of alveolar hypoxia on pulmonary capillaries
13. FALSE about decompression sickness a. Vasodilation
a. Air bubbles in joints causing bends b. Bronchodilation
b. Nitrogen dissolved in tissues c. Vasoconstriction
c. Pumonary Arteriolar constriction causing d. no effect
chokes Air bubble blocks capillaries of the lungs 26. True of Zone 3 pulmonary blood flow
d. Can be prevented by following decompression a. Alveolar Pressure is greater than Arterial
tables Pressure Zone 1
14. Chronic oxygen toxicity b. Alveolar Pressure is intermittently less than
a. Oxidation of PUFA in nervous tissue Makes free radicals diastolic capillary pressure Zone 2
b. Alteration of ionic conductance in neuronal cells c. Alveolar pression is equal to Arterial Pressure
c. Direct exposure of lungs to oxygen d. Alveolar pressure is less than Systolic Cap
d. All of the above pressure
 27. Oxygen-Hemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the left: 34. Period in a cardiac cycle when blood remains in the ventricles
a. CO poisoning Left- inc affinity after a previous heartbeat
b. Decrease in pH Right- inc dissociation, inc a. Period of filling
2,3 BPG, temp , CO2 and
c. Increase in PCO2 dec pH
b. Period of isovolumic contractiom
d. Increase in temperature c. Period of ejection
28. The following is/are the best characteristic(s) of pulmonary d. Period of isovolumic relaxation
pressure
a. pulmonary capillary pressure is maintained to 35. Afterload Preload- degree of stretch (more blood,
approximate capillary interstitial pressure a. End-diastoloc volume more stretch, more contraction)
b. pulmonary arterial pressure is greater than b. Ventricular filling After load- degree of resistance in the aorta

aortic pressure to prevent backflow of blood c. Pressure during filling of ventricles

c. pulmonary arterial pressure falls slowly than d. PRESSURE IN AORTA
ventricular pressure at the end of systole
d. all of the above 36. Which of the following refers to Frank-Starling mechanism? –
Bohr- release O2
29. Haldane effect Haldane- release CO2 ANS: The greater the stretching of the heart muscle during filling,
a. Binding of oxygen with hgb will displace CO2 the greater is the force of contraction
30. Increase oxygen diffusion capacity in exercise
a. Open dormant pulmo cap 37. What is the major effect of acetylcholine:
b. Dec alv vent A) Increase impulse of SA node Parasympathetic (dec heart rate)
c. Dilatation pulmo cap For higher gas exchange to other parts of B) Increase transmission to AV fibers Sympathetic- rate n cardiac output,
d. Inc aff hgb to oxygen capillaries C) Decrease transmission of cardiac impulse everywhere in the heart
D) Decrease cardiac output Parasympa-Effects on rate, atria only
43. Work of breathing is increased by:
A) Decrease in length of airway 38. Least likely happens during ventricular ejection:
B) Increase diameter of airway ANS: Sudden increase of interventricular volume
C) Decrease elastic tissue force
D) Increase surface tension elastic force 40. Which causes the initial depolarization of the cardiac muscle?
A) Closing of the calcium channels
44. Decrease respiration in Cheyne Stokes is due to: Periods of apnea
B) Inhibition of the Sodium channels
A) Icreased pO2 in blood Inc CO2 - super inc ventilation -> dec CO2, -> dec respiration C) Opening of the sodium channels
B) Increase pO2 in respiratory center 2 causes: D) Slow opening of the calcium channels
Central chemoreceptor in the brain - inc neg feedback
C) Decrease pCO2 in blood Delayed transport of blood- sluggish blood
D) Decreased pCO2 in respiratory center
41. not a feature of tetralogy of fallot? Pulmonary stenosis

45. True for surfactant a. Right to Left shunt Right sided ventricular hypertrophy
Overriding aorta
A) Distributed homogeneously along the entire surface of the alveoli b. Pulmonic Stenosis VSD
B) High in premature infants c. Override of the Aorta
C) Surface tension is greater in larger alveoli than smaller alveoli Opposite d. Hypertrophy of left ventricle
D) All of the above
42. When ejection fraction increase, What decreases?
47. Alveolar hypoxia a. Cardiac output
A) Vasodilation of the pulmonary blood vessels b. heart rate Ejection fraction: stroke volume over end diastolic

B) Bronchodilation c. end-diastolic volume

C) Vasoconstriction of pulmonary blood vessels d. end-systolic volume
D) No effect
43. In moderate exercise, there is decrease in.. a.heart rate
48. Most serious effect of prolonged space travel: b.cardiac output
A) Bone fracture c.pressure
B) Decreased muscle strength d.total peripheral resistance.
C) Motion sickness
D) Decreased blood volume 44. ...Atrial refractory period is differentiated from ventricular
refractory period...
50. Not a manifestation in decompression sickness a. refractory restimulation... Ventricular is longer

a. respiratory failure b. atrial refractory period is longer than ventricular refractory period
b. joint pain c. ventricular refractory period last as long as the plateau 0.25-0.30 sec
c. narcosis *
d. unconsciousness 45. Caused by an inward Na current
a. Upstroke of action potential in SAN SA node
Unit 5 Long – Exam 1 b. Upstroke of action potential in purkinje fibers
c. Plateau of action potential of ventricular muscle Calcium

32. What occurs during isovolumetric relaxation:

a. Increase intraventricular pressure
b. Open aortic valve 1st phase-ventricular filling: rapid filling, slow filling, atrial
contraction
c. Close pulmonary valve 2nd- isovolumetric contraction: same volume, inc pressure
d. Increase ventricular volume -> open pulmonary SV
3rd- ejection: inc pressure in arteries (pulmonary n aorta)
4th- isovolumetric relaxation, same volume, dec pressure
46. True of murmur production in aortic stenosis
a. Sudden closure of aortic valve during end of systole S2 sound
b.Turbulent blood flows backward from high pressure aortic wall to
left ventricle Aortic regurg
c. Turbulent flows from the aorta to the left ventricle
Machinery murmur- PDA
Very load sound even from a far- aortic stenosis
HARD ASS MRS MSD (aortic regurg- diastole, aortic stenosis- systole, mitral regurg-systole, mitral
stenosis- diastole)
d. Turbulent blood impinging in aortic wall causes vibratory c. Atrial repol, ventr depol ORS complex
sensation causing murmur d. Ventr repol T wave
e. Oscillation of blood back and forth in aortic wall cause rumbling
sound
45. True of a fib Atrial fibrillation
47. Cause of normal heart sounds a. Atria act as primer pumps for heart Ventricles
a. Vibration of the taut valves immediately after closure, along b. Ventricular contraction reduced by 20-30% Can live for
with vibration of the adjacent walls of the heart and major vessels c. Decreased cardiac output due to ineffective ventricular months or years,
around the heart contraction adequate output
d. Death of cardiac tissues in 1-3min
48. Differentiates action potential generation by the sinus nodal
fiber from ventricular muscle fiber 46. Atropine is given. What is increased?
a. sinus nodal have lower threshold potential a. HEART RATE
c. action potential is caused by opening of slow Na-Ca channels b. contractility
c. stroke volume
49. This is a feature of the rheumatic valvular disease d. Ejection fraction
a. machinery murmur progesses with age
b. autoantibodies damages pulmonary valves 47. NOT in something ventricular activity
c. preceded by staphylococcal throat infection a. indeterminate partial contraction
d. immunologic basis is similar to acute glomerulonephritis b. Massive conduction of
c. Coordinated contraction of ventricles
50. Greater work output of left ventricle d. Inefffective pumping
a. stronger contraction of left ventricle
b. thicker ventricular wall Later effect if prolonged 48. Describe ECG tracing:
c. decrease systolic pressurw A) Atrial Fibrillation
d. greater afterload of left ventricle B) Ventricular Fibrillation
C) Normal Sinus
Unit 5 – Long Exam 2 D) Sinus arrhythmia

35. Not beneficial in immediate treatment of cardiac failure 49. What is the ventricular Rate:
A) 60
a. Salt and fluid restriction B) 80
b. Diuretics to reduce salt and fluid retention C) 120
Avf
c. Digitalis to improve cardiac contractility and act as diuretic D) Indeterminate
d. ATRIAL NATRIURETIC PEPTIDE TO ENHANCE SALT AND WATER +. -
EXCRETION 50. Axis deviation: Lead 1 +. Normal. LAD
A) RAD - RAD. INDETERMINATE
37. Woman given atropine.. increases: B) LAD
a. Heart rate --ANS C) Indeterminate
b. Ventricular contraction D) Normal
c. Stroke volume 51. True of circus movement
d. Ejection fraction a. Faster conduction in ischemia
b.shortened refractory period frm epinephrine c.shortened pathway
38. Compared to large artery, large veins have – due to dilated heart
ANS: Larger lumen d. Faster velocity of conduction bypass blockage in purkinje fibers

40. Which of the ff is the correct placements of the precordial leads? Unit 5 Unit Exam
A) V1 at 2nd intercostals of right parasternal line A 28 year old female came in the ER due to diarrhea. At supine
B) V2 at 2nd intercostals of left parasternal line 4th position, BP is 90/60, heart rate 100bpm. Upon standing, heart rate
C) V4 at 5th intercostals of left midclavicular line increases to 120bpm.
D) V5 at 5th intercostals of left posterior axillary line 36. What is the cause of the increased HR?
a. decrease total peripheral resistance
41. Best describes the normal sinus rhythm: b. decrease venous return
a. variable beat to beat intervals c. increase in afterload
c. SA node generates of about 60-100 bpm d. increase in vasoconstriction

42. QRS complex: 37. The compensatory mechanism applied:

A) Atrial depolarization a. Decreased cardiac output
B) Septal depolarization b. Increased PR intervals
C) Epicardium to endocardium c. Increased contractility
D) Left ventricle is responsible for the mostly positive QRS d. Decreased total peripheral pressure

43. QT interval 40. pulse pressure is

a. Atrial depol P wave a. determined by stroke volume
b. Ventr depol, repol b. maximum pressure in arteries
 Upward def- Strong parallel same
c. diastolic only 56. Not true of the 1st heart sound direction towrds positive, weak oblique
d. difference of Mean Arterial Pressure and Central a. Closure of AV valves S2 closure of SV valves towards positive,
Venous Pressure b. Heard loudest at cardiac apex S2 is heard at downward def- strong opposite negative,
weak oblique to negative
base
c. Auscultated as one sound Zero def- perpendicular
42. least likely affect oxygen consumption: d. Mitral and tricuspid components vary with respiratory cycle
a. cardiac rhythm
c. contractility 62. In the SA, phase 4 depolarization corresponds to:
d. cardiac tension a. Increase Potassium For SA NoDE
Left has stronger contraction thus the b. Decrease Calcium Phase 0- upstroke of action potential, slow
43. True of Coronary Blood Flow: coronary vessels are impinged c. Decrease Sodium Na-Ca channel
a. During systole, blood volume is more in right ventricle d. Increase Calcium Phase 3- repolarization, potassium goes out
than in the left Phase 4- slow depo, inward sodium
b. During diastole, blood volume is more in right ventricle 63. 63. True electrophysio
than in the left Blood flow only during diastole
a. Isoelectric line partial depolarization/repolarization Complete
c. In systole, there's greater blood flow in both ventricles b. Positive deflection when mean depolarization spread towards
d. In diastole, there's lesser blood flow in both ventricles positive pole of lead
Systole more on right, diastole more on left c. Current flow oblique to lead, negative deflection Slightly positive
44. Tissue pressure in the heart: P. 253 d. Downward deflection when current flow towards negative pole of
A) In systole, epi > subendo lead For ventricles:
Subendocardial- first to be necrotized, Phase 0: inc sodium, fast sodium channels
B) Phase 1: closure of sodium, openinng of potassium
blood flow decreased during systole
C) In diastole, epi < subendo 75. FALSE about lymphatic pump Phase 2: prolonged opening of slow calcium
Normal Phase 3: repo, inc conductance of potassium
D) No change a. Becomes active at rest
Phase 4: reexcitation to another cycle, electrical
No contractile, depnd on surrounding structures diastolic phase
46. Which describes normal sinus rhythm: 76. INCORRECT if negative interstitial pressure In lymphatics
a. P is followed by QRS 0.12-0.20 a. When removed, it will cause accumulation of fluid Both are
b. PR is > 0.2sec b. Connective tissue holds tissue together correct
c. ST segment above isoelectric line
81. Which is TRUE of compensation of acute cardiac failure through
49. All are true in forming the T wave except sympathetic reflex:
a. Baroreceptor reflex
a. Longer depolarization – prolonged contraction b. Chemoreceptor reflex
b. Slower (something related to depo and repo also) c. Reflex originated from damaged heart
c. diminished (also related to depolarization in ventricles) d. None of the above All of the above page 255
d. Diminished atrial contraction compared to ventricular contraction
82. A type of shock where the heart is unable to pump minimal
67. Reactions of veins to increase volume over time to regulate blood flow to keep the body alive even compromising the blood
pressure: supply of the heart
ANS: Stress relaxation a. Cardiac shock
b. Anaphylactic shock Allergies
72. The following are important effects of sympathetic c. Hypovolemic shock Blood loss
vasoconstrictor system EXCEPT: d. Neurogenic shock Loss of vasomotor tone, always dilated vessels, venous pooling of
blood (deep general n spinal anesthesia, brain damage)
A) Increase vasomotion
B) Arteriolar constriction 83. Sympathetic greatest effect
C) Increase heart rate a. Maintain cardiac output
D) Venous dilation b. Maintain arterial pressure Greater in arterial pressure than in cardiac output
(Page 274, 12th ed)
c. Maintain venous return
73. Which of the ff. … the LEAST likely role of hepatic lipase in d. All above
lipoprotein metabolism:
A) Hydrolysis of triacylglycerols from chylomicrons 84. The following negative feedback mechanisms enable the person
B) It is… by heparin to recover from moderate shock except:
A) Baroreceptor reflexes
75. Type of shock due to antigen-antibody reaction which causes B) CNS ischemic response
venous and arterial dilatation and increased capillary permeability – C) Atrial Natriuretic Peptide Diuretic
ANS: Anaphylactic shock D) Reverse stress-relaxation

2nd bimonthly - FIRST WRITTEN 85. Most common type of shock modern hospital
55. One of the following situations results to greater pulmonary a. Neurogenic
blood flow than aortic blood flow b. Hypovolemic
a. Normal adult Greater aortic c. Anaphylactic
b. Left to right shunt ventricular shunt d. Septic
c. Right ventricular failure Greater aortic, cnt pump to pulmonary SV
d. Administration of appositive inotropic agent
Positive inotropic- inc contraction
Negative conotropic- dec heart rate
SECOND BIMONTHLY – SECOND WRITTEN
 40. Chemoreceptors in the respiratory center is most sensitive to
22. The work required to overcome ___ the viscosity and the chest a. Oxygen
wall elasticity b. Hydrogen
a. Tissue resistance work Overcome viscosity of lung and chest wall structures c. Carbon dioxide Hydrogen more sensitive than CO2
b. Compliance work AKA as elastic work d. Both b and c
c. Elastic work Expand the lungs against chest elastic forces
Airway resistance: overcome airway resistance to movement of air to the lungs 41. Patient with low blood CO2 is placed on a mechanical ventilator
23. Effects of increase vascular resistance in pulmonary vessels with rebreathing apparatus. 1st day after observed increase
b. Redistribution of blood flow to oxygenated respiration, the respiratory rate decreased. it is due to:
c. Release of vasoconstrictors a. Increased blood o2 concentration
b. Decrease H by combining with HCO3 conserved by kidney
c. Decrease blood CO2 after an increase in respiratory rate
25. Does not cause the shift of oxygen-Hgb curve to the right d. B & C
a. Decrease oxygen
Shift to the right:
b. Decease 2,3-DPG Inc CO2, temp, BPG 43. The following is true to athletes, EXCEPT:
c. Increase CO2 Dec O2, ph c. There is a sudden increase in pCO2 during onset of exercise

27. The affinity of oxygen to hemoglobin is decreased during: 44. Decrease respiration in Cheyne-Stokes is due to:
a. Hypothermia a. Increased pO2 in blood
b. Metabolic acidosis Shift to the right b. Increase pO2 in respiratory center
c. Polycythemia c. Decrease pCO2 in blood
d. Respiratory alkalosis d. Decreased pCO2 in resporatory center

28. Oxygen and Hemoglobin combine making Hemoglobin a stronger 45. Peripheral chemoreceptors are more sensitive to ... Po2
acid a. Less than 60 mmHg
a. Haldane CO2 release, O2 bind with Hgb making it a stronger acid b. 100 mmHg
b. Bohr CO2 binds to hgb, O2 is released to cells c. 60-80 mmHg
c. O2, Hgb dissociation curve d. More than 100 mmHg
d. Respiratory Exchange Rate
47. Adaptation of people who live in a high-altitude area for a long
30. TRUE of zone 2 in the lungs period of time
a. Alveolar pressure is greater than arterial pressure a. Increased ventilation
b. Alveolar pressure is less than diastolic arterial pressure b. Decreased hematocrit
c. Alveolar pressure is equal to arterial pressure c. Increased cardiac output
d. Alveolar pressure is lesser than systolic pressure d. Increased vascularity

31. TRUE about the effect of hydrostatic pressure gradient on 48. Most serious effect of prolonged space travel
pulmonary blood flow a. Bone fractures
a. ...... creates a zone 3 pattern b. Motion sickness
b. Apical systole and diastole doesn't allow intermittent blood flow c. Muscle weakness
c. Left side cardiac failure greatly increases pulmonary capillary d. Decreased blood volume
pressure
d. Area above the level of the heart maintains arterial pressure that 49. A diver was brought to the surface because he was having
is always greater than alveolar pressure seizures. This is MOST LIKELY due to
a. Oxygen toxicity
34. Feature of chronic obstructive lung disease b. Nitrogen narcosis
a. Alveolar wall destruction c. CO2 toxicity
b. Obstruction of the bronchi/bronchiole d. Decompression sickness
c. Abnormal Va/Q Va/Q: zero no ventilation, has perfusion, shunting
Va/Q: infinity no perfusion, has ventilation, dead space
d. All of the above 50. Not a manifestation in decompression sickness
a. Respiratory failure
36. Chloride shift in CO2 transport refers to: b. Joint pain
a. Cl as a cofactor in the formation of HCO3 c. Narcosis
b. Enzymatic action of Cl in the formation of HCO3 d. Unconsciousness
c. Reaction of HCO3 with Cl for diffusion from red cell to plasma
d. Facilitated diffusion of HCO3 from the red cell to the plasma in
rd
exchange for Cl 3 Bimonthly
Chloride shift: chloride more in venous blood than arterial blood Unit 6 – Long Exam 1
37. Not an effect of low atmospheric pressure on alveolar 21. Unique characterisic of myenteric contraction:
concentration: a. Peristaltic contraction towards distention
a. pO2 b. Reverse peristalsis
b. pN2 c. Chemical irritation
c. pCO2
d. Partial water vapor pressure Always the same
22. Which organic constituent/s in saliva that protects the oral cavity symptoms that reflect the amount of fluid lost. which is INCORRECT:
from bacteria? a. There are no signs or symptoms in early stages of dehydration
a. Starch b. In severe dehydration, patient may develop hypovolemic shock
b. Immunoglobulin A c. Antimicrobials should be used routinely in treating diarrhea
c. Mucin d. Antidiarrheal drugs have no practical benefit for children with
d. All of the Above acute diarrhea

23. Which is not included in the portal triad: 43. Not a usual cause of unsuccessful ORS:
a. Common hepatic artery Proper hepatic a. Loose stool
b. Cystic Duct Bile duct b. Insufficient ORS
c. IVC c. Severe vomitting
d. Portal vein d. Continued breastfeeding
Parasympathetic
24. What is responsible for increase secretion of salivary glands: 45. Describes esophageal stage of swallowing
a. Vagus nerve a. Passage from pharynx to esophagus Pharngeal
b. Vasodilation b. Involuntary phase
c. Sleep c. Initiates swallowing? End
d. Fatigue d. None of the above

25. Increased protein levels in saliva is due to: 46. Innervation of myenteric plexus inhibits
a. Hypotonic to plasma a. tonic contraction Myenteric- auerbach: digestion,
segmentation
b. Alkaline b. opening of sphincters Meissners: secretion n local absorption
c. Parasympathetic 46. Treatment for severe diarrhea:
d. Sympathetic a. Hospitalization
b. IV infusion
Unit 6 Long Exam 2 c. ^_^
d. AOTA
26. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the neural 47. Which is true? Gastric inhibitory peptide
pathway of swallowing? a. GIP and secretin inhibits gastric acid secretion
a.) Swallowing receptors -> N. Solitarius -> N. Ambiguus -> CN V, VII b. Secretin stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate secretion and enzyme
b.) Swallowing receptors -> N. Solitarius -> N. Ambiguus -> CN V, IX, secretion Water

X, and XII c. CCK is stimulated by antrum, jejunum, duodenum

c.) Swallowing receptors -> N. Ambiguus N. ->Solitarius -> CN V, VII d. Motilin increases motility in gastric phase In between meals
(sensory neurons)
d.) Swallowing receptors -> N. Ambiguus -> N. Solitarius -> Superior 48. Induces release of secretin
cervical neurons a. HCl
b. Mucus
27. Hormone that promotes gastric emptying: c. HCO3 Large intestine: haustration is mixing,
a. Cholecystokinin Inhibit d. Fatty chyme CCK mass movement is peristalsis
Small intestion: segmentation is mixing,
b. Secretin and then peristalsis
c. Gastrin 49. True regarding movements of the small intestine:
a. Secretin and glucagon enhances intesinal motility
37. After a meal, this increases the peristaltic activity of the small b. Persitaltic rush normally occurs in the small intestine after meal Infection
intestine: c. Gastroenteri reflex increase peristalsis in the small intestine after
a. Gastroenteric reflex meal
b. Secretin d. Persistaltic waves mainly mixes food with intestinal secretions
c. Sympathetic nervous system Segmentation

d. Motilin In between meals 54. Which of the following does not cause gallbladder stone?
a. Excess absorption of cholesterol Causes: too much water of absorption,
38. Which prevents ileal emptying into cecum b. Excess absorption of bile salts too much bile acids/salts, too much
cholesterol in bile (not absorption),
a. chemical irritation c. Destruction of gallbladder epithelium inflammed epithelium
b. gastroileal reflux d. Excessive absorption of water
c. distention of cecum
d. increase fluidity of ileal contents 55. Least bile acid secretion
a. Bile concentration by reabsorption of bile acid, cholesterol, and
Unit 6 Unit exam lecithin Reabsorbs water, salt n bicarbonate only
b. Initial bile secretion bile acid and cholesterol from hepatocytes
41. 10 y.o. severe loose bowel movement 2 days prior consult. main c. Diverted to gallbladder undergoes 5-20 times the concentration
danger in acute watery dehydration?
Diarrhea
a. Malnutrition 58. Mucous secretion in LI is stimulated by the following, EXCEPT.
b. Destruction of intestinal mucosa a. tactile sensations
c. Severe systemic infection b. sympathetic
d. Dehydration
63. Sprue, least likely in:
42. degree of dehydration is graded according to signs and a. Muscle wasting
b. Osteomalacia Lack of calcium 47. The mechanism of walling off during inflammation is due to
Blocked by fibrinogen clots to
c. Pernicious anemia a. Swelling of the blood vessels prevent spread of infection
d. Steatorrhea Impaired absorption of ChO, ChON, calcium, vit k, folic acid n vitamin b12 b. Vasodilation of
Feces: 3/4 water, 1/4 solid matter (30% dead
bacteria n undigested roughage, 10-20 fat n
65. True of flatus 48. Inflammation rxn
inorganic matter, 2-3 protein)
a. There is normally a lot of gas in the SI a. Act of sessile macrophages 1st line: macrophage in tissues
2nd: neutrophils
b. Gas in SI is from bacterial activity Large intestine b. Neutrophils to tissues 3: monocyte turning into macrophage
c. Gas in LI is mostly from swallowed gas Small intestine c. Monocytes to tissues 4th: making of more cells
d. All of the above
UNIT 7 UNIT EXAM
49. One of the following is most likely the role of basophils in allergic
36. Increased production of erythriopoietin during tissue hypoxia is reactions
due to which mechanism? a. Attach to Ag-Ab complex
a. increased production of hemoglobin b. Phagocytize Ag-Ab complex Eosinophil destroy Ag-Ab complex
b. increased tissue levels of HIF-1 Hypoxia inducible factor c. Detoxifies inflammation-inducing subs Eosinophil
c. stimulation of production of proerythroblasts in BM d. All of the above
d. increased blood flow to the kidneys where erythropoietin is
secreted 55. A blood test reveals a hematocrit of 60, leading to diagnosis of
polycythemia vera. Treatment includes aspirin to prevent
37. One of the following least likely refers to the metabolism of iron: thrombosis and phlebotomy for reduction of hematocrit. The
a. Iron is absorbed by the intestine in the form of transferring reduction of hematocrit is beneficial because of?
b. Iron is stored in the cell as ferritin? Ferrous a. Decrease blood viscosity
c. Iron is transported by transferrin to the mitochondria for b. Decrease blood velocity
heme synthesis c. Increase cardiac output
d. Iron is mainly excreted in the feces d. Increase arterial O2 content

38. True of phagocytosis Macrophage

58. Effect of increased arterial BP:
a. Large molecules are phagocytized by neutrophils a. Production of angiotensin II
b. Macrophages have proteolytic enzymes that digest bacteria b. Constriction of afferent glomerular arteriole
c. Neutrophils have lipases Macrophage c. Constriction of efferent glomerular arteriole
d. Macrophages are destroyed after each function
Neutrophils 63. Actions of basophils in allergies
41. The characteristic of Rh blood group system: a. Phagocytize Ag-Ab complex
a. There are only two antigens Agglutinins formed after 2-8 months b. Secrete histamine, bradykinin, serotonin
b. Agglutinins are performed at birth Agglutinogen c. Neutralize/decrease action of inflamed substances
c. The presence of D antigen confers positive d. Hydrolytic enzymes
d. All of the above
64. Acquired active immunity is obtained through
42. Hemolytic disease of the newborn is characterized by: a. Administration of immunoglobulins Acquired passive
a. Risk is equal in all pregnancies Safe during 1st b. Placental transfer Natural passive
b. Mother Rh positive, baby Rh negative Mother negative, baby positive c. Administration of vaccine
c. Prevented by administering anti-D antibody to the mother d. All
d. B & C
Suppressor t cell
68. True of activation of T lymphocytes:
43. One of the following promotes delayed reaction allergy? A) Recognizes Ag on MHC
a. Histamine B) by antigen-antibody complex
b. Activated t cell C)
c. Excess Ige anibodies D) All of the above
d. SRSA Slow reactive subs of anaphylaxis
UNIT 8 LONG EXAM 1
45. Low tissue PO2 causes increase in circulating erythropoietin by: 21. A type of ECF in that its content may be slightly different from
a. Increasing the transcription factor hypoxia-inducible factor 1 plasma:
b. Increasing the # of erythropoietin receptors a. Interstitial Fluid
c. Increasing transport of erythropoietin b. Transcellular Fluid
d. Increasing renal blood flow c. Intracellular Fluid
d. Plasma Has proteins
46. This will cause the neutriphil and macrophage to phagocytize a
cell: 22. The following statements are true of the total body water
a. Cell with smooth surface EXCEPT:
b. Cell with glycoprotien cap a. A 70kg man - 60%
c. Attached to antibody b. Average woman - 50%
d. All of the above c. Infant and premature baby - 80% 70-75
d. None of the above
23. Which is incorrect: D) Neurohormonal
a. Na = 142
b. Cl = 108 36) Which of the following is not a characteristic of glomerular
c. Mg = 0.8 filtrate?
d. K = 4.0 A) Protein free
B) Isosmotic with plasma
24. Principle used in calculating potential osmotic pressure given C) Free of cellular debris
that it is impermeable to the solute. D) Amino acid, fatty acid and glucose are completely reabsorbed
a. Osmotic flow rate Proximal tubule
b. Vant hoff's 37) The primary mechanism for GFR regulation:
c. Donnan effect Inc cations, proteins are attached A) Glomerular hydrostatic pressure 60mmhg
d. Osmotic coefficient B) Glomerular osmotic colloid pressure 32mmhg
C) Bowman's capsule osmotic colloid pressure Negligible
28) Factor that influences increase capillary filtration leading to D) Bowman's capsule hydrostatic pressure 18mmhg
extracellular edema:
A) Increase capillary hydrostatic pressure Pushing force 38) Happens in the proximal convoluted tubule EXCEPT:
Reabsorb Glucose, amino acids, sodium, water, chloride (co transport
B) Decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure A) with Na), secrete hydrogen, secrete organic acids, bases n drugs
C) Increase interstitial hydrostatic pressure B) Secretion of drugs and organic acids
D) Decrease capillary osmotic pressure C) Paracellular and facilitated diffusion of chloride ions Thick ascending
D)
29) Safety factor to prevent extracellular edema EXCEPT:
A) Proteoglycan filament prevent easy passage of fluid 39) True of the 1Na-2Cl-1K co-transporter:
B) Washdown of interstitial gel increase lymph flow at >7mmHg A) A primary active transporter
C) Low compliance at –3mmHg B) Located in the early distal tubule
D) Increase lymph flow 50-fold C) Site of action of loop diuretics
D) All of the above HIP secrete hydrogen, potassium
30) The following is/are FALSE of the fluids in the potential spaces: reabsorb (intercalated cells-collecting
tubule)
A) Normal fluid pressure in a non-edematous person is positive 40. Cortical collecting tubule characteristic: PPS secrete potassium reabsorb
B) Fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity of about 20L is called a. Permeable to water During ADH sodium (principal cells)
ascites b. Highly permeable to urea Medullary collecting n descending loop of henle
C) Low resistance to fluids, electrolytes c. Intercalated cells secrete H+
D) Direct or indirect connection to lymph is important in removing d. Intercalated cells secrete K+
proteins
41. Ability of tubules to increase reabsorption in response to
31. Stimulates ADH: increase tubular load:
a. ADH secretion is more sensitive to a change of 1% in plasma a. Autoregulation
osmolality b. Pressure natriuresis
b. ADH secretion changes only when blod volume is reduced by 10% c. Glomerulotubular balance Inc GFR, inc reabsorption
c. Cardiac reflexes play a major role in stimulating ADH secretion d. Tubuloglomerular feedback Low sodium, affect macula densa( dilate afferent arteriole),
inc GFR, constrict Efferent arteriole
during extreme blood volume loss
d. All of the above 42. True of sodium reabsorption in the renal tubules
a. Reabsorbed with Cl and K+ in the distal tubule Loop of henle
32) Other name of ADH: b. Reabsorbed in exchange of K in the intercalated cells Principal cell
A) Aldosterone c. Reabsorbed in exchange with H in the intercalated cells
B) d. A & B
C) Angiotensin II
D) Arginine Vasopressin 44. Factors for concentrating urine:
a. ADH
33) The most important stimulant of thirst: b. Extensive vascular supply in renal medulla
A) Dryness of the mouth c. (forgot) Maybe? Depend on choice
B) Decreased blood flow d. A and C
C) Plasma osmolality increase
D) Decreased blood pressure 45. Renal medullary interstitium, which is false:
a. Descending limb continuously deliver hyperosmolar fluid to the
34. Sodium will be excreted above this threshold: ascending limb
a. 1 meq/L b. Ascending limb continuously reabsorb sodium
b. 2 meq/L c. Ascending and interstitium maintain a 400 mOsom/L conc
c. 5 meq/L d. Urea recycling is 600 msOsm/L 1200
d. 7 meq/L 46. Constriction of the efferent arteriole will cause: Inc Gfr if acute, dec if
1. Increase in colloid osmotic pressure chronic
35) The most powerful feedback of ECF osmolarity and Na 2. Increase in hydrostatic pressure
concentration: 3. Increase in colloid hydrostatic pressure
A) Renin-Angiotensin 4. Increase renal blood flow Inc renal blood flow causes inc GFR
B) ADH-Thirst Mechanism
C) Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone
Does not effect osmolarity, affects blood volume
For 47 – 50. C) Ca-ATPase and Ca-Na counter transporter found in basolateral
a. 1, 2, & 3 are correct. membrane
b. 1 & 3 are correct. D) None of the above
c. 2 & 4 are correct.
d. Only 4 is correct. 38. All are intrarenal compensation that aused increased GFR
during imbalance of sodium excretion and intake except:
47. Which increases GFR: a. Macula densa feedback
1) Increase in capillary osmotic pressure b. Tubuloglomerular feedback
2) Increase in hydrostatic pressure c. RAAS
3) Increase in sympathetic activity d. None of the above
4) Increase vascular resistance 39. The rise of sodium excretion during increase in blood pressure:
a. Pressure dieresis
48. GFR increase: b. Pressure natriuresis
1) Sympathetic stimulation c. Macula densa feedback
2) Decrease in filtration fraction d. Glomerulotubular balance
3) Renal obstruction
4) Vasodilation of afferent arteriole 40. These are functions of the kidney:
a. Regulation of production of RBC production through
49. True of renal blood flow: formation of erythropoietin
1) 7 times more than brain b. Forms calcitriol
2) 50% to medulla c. Synthesis of glucose from amino acids
3) increased when decreased renal resistance d. All of the above
4) (wrong)
41. All of the ff contributes to elimination of organic wastes except:
50. True of macula densa: a. Filtration
1) Stimulated by low sodium concentration in the tubular fluid b. Reabsorption
2) Causes vasoconstriction of afferent arteriole Afferent has NO cannot cause c. Secretion
3) Stimulates angiotensin 2 formation constriction d. Excretion
4) Causes vasodilation of efferent arteriole
42. The following characteristics of the glomerular basement
UNIT 8 UNIT EXAM membrane prevents filtration of proteins:
a. Negative charges in all three layers
31. True of ecf potassium regulation? b. Small sized fenestrations in the endothelial cell layer
Answer: ICF serves as overflow site And phosphate c. Tightly-packed meshwork of collagen and
proteoglycan fibrillae
37. True about UTI in males: d. All of the above
a. Always uncomplicated 44. Factors that make urine concentrated:
b. Not as common as UTI in females due to anatomical Answer: Excretion of urea in medullary collecting ducts
differences
c. Urethral stones are lodged in the prostatic part of the 45. True of effect of PTH on serum calcium and phosphate except:
urethra which is its narrowest part. Membranous a. PTH promotes bone resorption, releasing both calcium and
d. Catheterization is preferable, especially in men over phosphate Inc calcium, secrete phosphate
50 years old, with enlarged prostates. b. PTH promotes reabsorption of calcium and phosphate
c. Intestinal reabsorption of calcium and phosphate wherein calcium
38. Stimulates K+ secretion in distal and collecting tubules is released
a. Increase GFR d.
b. Increase ECF K+ levels
c. Increase aldosterone secretion 48. All are compensations to high GFR and Na balance except
d. None of the above a. Macula densa feedback
Alkalotic- hypocalcemia, calcium binds to albumin b. Glomerulotubular feedback
41. All are sypmtoms of ECF CA outside normal serum levels, except: c. Renin angiotensin aldosterone
a. Hypercalcemia from acidosis d. None of above
b. Hypercalcemia- leads to cardiac arrythmias
c. Alkalosis- depresses neuromuscular excitability Tetany 49. The rise of sodium excretion during increase in blood pressure:
d. Hypocalcemia- hyperexcitablity of nerve and muscle cells A) Pressure diuresis
Alkalosis- hypokalemia B) Pressure natriuresis
2+
42. FALSE of ECF Ca C) Macula densa feedback
a. 50% exist in ionized form D) Glomerulotubular balance
b. 40% are bound to plasma protein
c. 10% are complexed to nonionized form anion 51. Function of the kidney
d. Plasma bound Ca2+ has membrane biologic activity Free calcium has activity a. Regulation of RBC production by erythropoeitin
b. Regulation of blood calcium by calcitriol
44. True calcium reabsorption in distal tubule: Proximal: more paracellular c. Synthesize glucose from amino acids
(45%), trans is (20%)
A) 50% Ca through transcellular pathway d. AOTA
Distal: more transcellular
B) 50% Ca passive through paracellular
Loop of henle: equal
53. PTH stimulates plasma calcium concentration through three
main effects except: 76. TRUE of Phosphate Buffer System:
a. Bone resorption 1. pKa of 7.8 near to the pH of 7.0 6.8
b. Increased intestinal reabsorption of Calcium 2. Has a less buffering power in the ECF than in the ICF High power in ICF
c. Increased renal tubular calcium reabsorption 3. Plays a minor role in the intracellular fluid compared to the ECF
d. None of the above 4. Main elements are H2PO4 and HPO4

54. All of the ff contributes to elimination of organic wastes except: 77. Regulation of ECF H+ concentration by the kidney:
A) Filtration 1. Secretion of H+ ions
B) Reabsorption 2. Reabsorption of HCO3
C) Secretion 3. Production of new HCO3
D) Excretion 4. Adjust pCO2 Lungs

55. The following characteristics of the glomerular basement 78. Neprhon parts that secrete H+ through sodium-hydrogen
membrane prevents filtration of proteins: countertransport:
A) Negative charges in all three layers a. Epithelial cells of proximal tubules
B) Small sized fenestrations in the endothelial cell layer b. Thick segment of ascending loop of henle
C) Tightly-packed meshwork of collagen and proteoglycan fibrillae c. Early distal tubule Counter-proximal, early distal, thick
D) All of the above d. Late distal tubule ascending
Hydrogen only- late distal n collecting
58. Effect of increased arterial BP 3RD BIMONTHLY – FIRST WRITTEN
a. Production of angiotensin II Dec BP
b. Constriction of afferent glomerular arteriole 48. TRUE of deglutition:
c. Constriction of efferent glomerular arteriole Inc Gfr to reduce the BP a. Initiated by involuntary reflexes
b. Sensory signals are sent to CN V and IX
63. True of spironolactone Aldosterone inhibiting, absorbed in distal tubule d. Successive stages occur simultaneously
a. Na+ channel blocker
b. K+ reabsorption Diuretics- alkalosis except for carbonic anhydrase 49. True of the Mastication reflex
d. All of the above c. Innervated by the facial n.
d. Is a cycle of inhibition and rebound
64) Which of the following promotes Na reabsorption in renal Enterogastric
tubules: 50. Which cannot initiate gastroenteric inhibitory reflex?
A) Angiotensin 2 a. alkalinity of chyme
B) ADH b. protein and gats in chyme
C) PTH c. distention of duodenum
D) Atrial natriuretic peptide d. osmolality of chime
66) NOT true of aldosterone:
A) Stimulated by increase in angiotensin 2 51. Causes of peptic ulcer disease:
B) Increases permeability of Na on luminal side A) High acid and peptic content
C) Stimulates Na-K-ATPase pump on basolateral side b. less mucin production
D) Acts on intercalated cells of collecting tubules Principal cells c. Helicobacter pylori infection
d. all of the above
67) TRUE of excretion of dilute urine:
A) Solute reabsorption is greater than water reabsorption 53. stimulates pepsnogen secretion
B) Fluids are dilute in distal tubule a. acetylchoine
C) Absence of ADH b. norepinephrine Lessen
D) All of the above c. amount of acid in stomach
68) The maximum urine concentration in the kidney: d. amount of alkali in intestine
A) 500 mEq/L
B) 600 mEq/L 54. Severe systemic infection, heart failure and vitamin and mineral
C) 1200 mEq/L deficiency result in which of the following
D) 1800 mEq/L a. acute diarrhea
b. dysentery
69) Correctly describes recirculation of urea EXCEPT: c. diarrhea with severe malnutrition
A) Urea is impermeable in the distal tubule
B) Secretion of urea in the loop of Henle thru active transport 55. Intrinsic innervation motility GIT SM
C) Passively reabsorbs urea in the medullary collecting duct a. Meissner's
D) Reabsorbtion in the medullary collecting duct is increased with b. Myenteric
increase in ADH c. Bohr's
d. None
70. The obligatory urine is dictated by:
A) Maximum concentration ability of kidney 56. True about GI hormones
B) Excretion of solutes A. Gastrin and secretin inhibits gastric acid secretion
C) Presence of angiotensin II B. Acid in duodenum inhibits CCK
D) A & B 0.5L of urine per day, 600mosml of solutes C. CCK inhibits gastric emptying
divided by 1200
 Filtration fraction: GFR divided by Renal
D. Motilin promotes peristalsis in stomach and small intestine during b. Increase in GFR blood flow
digestive stage/phase c. Increase in hydrostatic pressure Cause
d. Increase in colloid osmotic pressure
58. Will promote emptying of food from stomach to small intestine
a. Gastric volume 48. What can increase GFR
b. CKK a. increase renal blood flow Can also cause
c. secretin b. constrictionof afferent arterioles
d. GIP c. mild constriction of efferent arterioles
d. increase Bowmans hydrostatic pressure
63. Defecation occur
a. Relax rectum 49. All affects glomerular filtration EXCEPT:
b. Abdominal muscle relax a. Renal venous pressure GFR: filtration constant x net filtration rate
c. Constrict internal anal sphincter b. Renal arterial pressure
d. Relax external anal sphincter c. Glomerular…
d. Total arterial pressure
65. Not involved in vomiting
50. True in GFR regilation
3RD BIMONTHLY – SECOND WRITTEN a. tubuloglomerular feedback cause efferent arteriole constriction
b. myogenic autoregikation protect kidney from low arterial
Except... The rest are true
36. True of fluid intake and output to maintain balance: pressure
a. Water loss in feces 100mL/day c. stimulate macula densa-renin Sodium conc.
b. IWL thru skin 350mL/day Insensible water loss 300-400
c. Daily water intake thru drinking 2300mL/day (only 2100) 51. The concentration of the follwoing solute in the proximal tubular
d. IWL thru respiration 350mL/day 300-400 fluid remains relatively constant, except
a. Na
37. The most important means of maintaining the balance between b. Bicarbonate
water and electrolytes through intake and output: c. Creatinine
b. Kidney d. Glucose
c. GIT reabsorption
d. Insensible water loss 53. One of the following is true about Na-Cl cottansporter
Na channel blocker- ameloride, triamterin
43. Not included as main agent in regulating concentration of Na in a. Site of thiazide diuretics Carbonic anhydrase- acetazolqmide
ECF b. controlled by aldosterone Potassium sparer- aldosterone
a. Renin-Angiotensin Blood volume c. located at late distal tubule d. transports Na and Cl out of the cell
b. Osmolarity and ADH and into the lumen
c. Thirst Mechanism
d. AOTA 54. The following occurs when AdH is increase except
a. Increase water reabsorption in the cdistal collecting duct
43. The primary systems involvEd in regulating the concentration of b. increase potassium secretion
sodium and osmolarity in the ecf except c increase medullary water reabsorption
a. raa d. increase urea concentrating ability of medullary duct
b. adh-osmoreceptor system
c. thirst mechanism 55. Part of the nephron that functions as the countermultiplier
d. all of the above system
A) vasa recta
44. Most important mechanism for K secretion and ECF regulation: B) loop of henle
A) Acidosis C) medullary collecting duct
B) Hypokalemia D) all of the above
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hypernatremia 56. Urea secretion
A. Distal tubule
45. Highly st0red in ICF: Except? B. Thin loop of Henle
a. Phosphate ECF: Na, Ca, Cl, HCO3
C. Cortical collecting duct
b. Potassium ICF: K, Mg, PO4, Proteins
D. Medullary collecting duct
c. Magnesium
d. Calcium 58. Metabolic acidosis
d. pH-7.2 CO2-35 HCO3-14
46. The following comditions will largely increase ICF but normal
blood volume 63) Lab test to monitor the progression of rheumatoid arthritis:
a. pregnancy Inc blood volume A) ESR
b. liver cirrhosis B) Hemoglobin determination
c. nephrotic syndrome Proteinuria affect blood volume C) Hematocrit determination
d. all of the above D) Bloodtyping

47. An increase in filtration fraction will result to:

a. Increase in renal blood flow
64) Increased RBC production in the following conditions: b. Vascular constriction
A) Cardiac failure c. Platelet plug formation
B) Allergic infection W d. All of the above
C) Parasitic infection B
th
D) Viral infection 4 Bimonthly
C UNIT 9 LONG EXAM 1
65. True of pernicious anemia
a. Due to a hemoglobin disease 22. CSF regulation is governed by:
b. Happens during hypoxic conditions a. Presence of proteins
c. Due to deficiency in iron absorption b. Pressure of the venous blood
d. Due to deficiency in intrinsic factor c. Systemic Blood pressure
d. Absorption in the arachnoid villi
66) The events happen when iron circulation in blood is low:
A) Iron excretion is decreased 23. Initial segment of axon is functionally important because
B) Iron absorption is increased a. saltatory conduction begins
C) Iron is released from ferritin b. integration of nerve impulses
D) Hemolysis of RBC c. action potential is generated
d. laying down of myelin sheath begins
67. True about granulocytes
a. Neutrophils is more ______
b. Protects body by phagocytosis Monocytes 24. What s the reason for less action potential in the dendrites
c. Formed and matures at bone marrow a. Lack of sodium channels
d. Involved in specific immune response Lymphocytes c. Presences of inhibitory presynaptic

68) What cell will immediately be activated at the onset of 25. The resting membrane potential is largely contributed by
inflammation? a. potassium efflux by voltage-gated channel
A) Macrophage b. sodium influx by voltage-gated channel
B) Neutrophil c. potassium efflux by Na-K leak channels
C) Monocyte d. Sodium influx by Na-K leak channel
D) Basophil
26. Whch of the following leads to activation of voltage gated
69. Eosinophils participate in allergic reactions by: sodium channel
a. Releasing major basic proteins a. more positive membrane potential
b. Releasing histamine and serotonin b. influx of sodium
c. Detoxifying inflammation-inducing substances c. more negative membrane potential
d. A and C d. increase intracellular sodium concentration
.
71. Most common bleeding disorder, decreased in factor?
a. Von willebrand factor 27. At equilibrium potential, the following is observed:
a. Mass movement of ions across membrane
72 Not a function of Helper T cell b. Electrical gradient of ion across membrane is zero
a. Suppress growth n differentiation of Cytotoxic T cells c. Net movement of ion across membrane is zero
Suppressor t cell d. Chemical gradient of io across membrane is maximal
75. TRUE about the Hemolytic disease of the newborn
a. Risk equal in all pregnancies 28) Most effective means of preventing release of acetylcholine by
b. Rh (+) mother, Rh (-) baby exocytosis in the terminal by preventing:
c. Risk prevented by administration of anti-d antibody A) Action potential
d. B and C B) Sodium influx
C) Potassium efflux
76) Delayed reaction to allergy is caused by: D) Entry of calcium in terminal
A) Histamine
B) Activated T cells 30. Conduction frm terminal axon to soma
C) Enhance IgE a. Decrementless
D) Slow reacting substances b. Saltatory
c. Orthodromic Normal: soma to axon
77) The following are important in the formation of platelet plug
EXCEPT: d. Antidromic
A) Myogenic spasm
B) PLT become sticky 31. TRUE regarding the axon, EXCEPT:
C) PLT secrete thrombin A a. May form bundles called fiber tracts in CNS
D) Platelet attach to the collagen of blood vessels b. Form collaterals at right angles
c. May or may not have an endoneurium
78. In thrombocytopenia, which of the following events of d. Contain microtubules, neurofilaments, and nissl bodies
homeostasis is affected?
a. Clot retraction
34. Which of the local action potential are hyperpolarizing a. Axonal transport
a. end-plate action potential b. Enzymatic destruction
b. miniature end-plate action potential c. Diffusion
c. IPSP Inhibitory post synaptic potential d. Reuptake by presynaptic neuron
d. EPSP
47. Stronger impulse to stimulus above threshold
35. Characteristics of potassium conductance during an action a. increase amplitude
potential b. increase velocity
a. Higher than sodium conductance throughout duration of action c. increase duration (answer)
potential d. no effect
b. Higher in the later part of action potential
c. Approaches resting membrane potential during repolarization 48. True of acetylcholine removal
d. Increases progessively during depolarizarion stage a. Byproducts of breakdown is acetate and choline

36) True about saltatory conduction 49. differencre between sympathetic nervous system and
C) Node - faster conductance parasympathetic nervous system is that in the latter
a. peripheral ganglion is located at center
37) CANNOT explain fatigue b. acetylcholine and norepinephrine are utilized as neurotransmitter
A) Increase concentration of Ca in presynaptic neuron at the neuroeffector junction
B) Inactivation of receptor in postsynaptic c. effects are voluntary
C) Exhaustion of stores of neurotransmitter d. effects are more localized
D) Abnormal concentration of ion in the postsynaptic membrane
50. Myasthenia gravis can be prevented by the administration of
38. Single stimulus delivered to muscle drugs that prevent
a. treppe phenomenon Staircase a. release of acetylcholine
b. complete tetanus b. synthesis of acetylcholine
c. muscle twitch c. hydrolysis of acetylcholine
d. incomplete tetanus d. diffusion of aferylcholine

39) The sequestration of Ca ions during muscle relaxation UNIT 9 LONG EXAM 2
A) Diffusion
B) Active transport 42. Which of the ff is false on muscle motor and sensory control?
C) Facilitated transport a. The muscle spindle transmit changes about muscle length
D) Bulk flow b. The golgi tendon organ transmit changes about muscle length
c. Both operate at an almost unconscious level
41. A drug completely blocks voltage gated Na channels will have d. NOTA
this effect on action potential
a. blocks occurence of action potential 43. True receptor area muscle spindle
b. increase the rate of rise of upstroke of action potential a. Stretching recep area... stimulate...
c. shortens absolute refractory b. Stim end portions...
d. abolish hyperpolarization after potential c. Gamma efferent... stimulate receptor..

42. Curare, paralysis due to: Botulinum- inhibit release of Acetylcholine

44. True of the response from both primary and secondary fibers
a. promote Acetylcholine breakdown a. Dynamic response Primary only
b. prevent release of acetylcholine b. static response
c. competitive bind to nicotinic receptors c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. None of the above
43. In contrast to postganglionic parasympathetic fibers,
preganglionic parasympathetic fibers: 45. Most simple manifestation of spindle reflex
a. Originate from autonomic ganglia Both a. Muscle stretch reflex
b. Are cholinergic
c. Are myelinated 46. False of dynamic stretch reflex: All are true
a. duration is over within a fraction of a second
d. Innervate sweat glands and piloerector muscle Sympa b. caused only by rapid stretching of muscle spindle
c. functions to oppose sudden changes in muscle length
45. Which will determine whether the release of neurotransmitter d. elicited by potent signal transmitted from primary endings
from preganglionic axon will cause excitation or inhibition of
postganglionic axon? 47. Which of the ff is false of muscle spindle?
a. Nature of neurotransmitter a. 31 percent are type a small gamma
b. Characteristic of postganglionic receptor b. Alpha and gamma participate in activation
c. Rate of uptake of neurotransmitter by preganglionic axon c. Co activation prevents lengthening of muscle spindle
d. Release of Ca ions by preganglionic to postganglionic D

46. Destruction of neurotransmitters is not achieved through which

of the ff:
48. Importance of muscle stretch reflex in the clinical practice: 42. LEAST describes facilitation of intermediate memory
a. Determine the amount of tone the brain is sending Hyper n hyporeflexia a. stimulation of facilitator presynaptic terminal which results to
b. elicited from belly of tendon acetylcholine release Short term
c. Due to highly sensitized by facilitative neuron b. formation of cAMP in the sensory presynaptic terminal
d. contralateral exaggerated jerk denotes brain tumor c. blockage of potassium channels causing prolonged action
potential in the terminal
49. Withdraw from stimulus reflex but not only involve the flexor
muscles: 44. Local patterns of all movement of all muscle areas and complex
a. Nociceptive patterns of rhythmical motions programmed by
b. Withdrawal a. spinal cord Brain stem- axial tone
c. Cross extensor b. basal ganglia Learned movements
d. AOTA c. cerebellum Smoothening out, rapid changes
d. cerebral cortex Planning
50. Reflex where there is diagonal stepping of hindlimbs and
forelimbs 45. Helps the cerebral cortex perform subconscious but learned
a. Mark time reflex movements:
b. Galloping reflex a. Cerebellum
c. Stumble reflex b. Brainstem
d. cord righting reflex c. Basal ganglia

UNIT 9 LONG EXAM 3 46. Which of the ff is true:

31. Most prominent EEG rhythm in an awake but at rest person with a. pontine reticular- relaxes axial muscles Excite
decreasing level of attention b. medullary reticular- sends powerful excitatory signals to axial
a. Alpha Theta- children n brain not so disease muscles
b. Beta More focused c. vestibular nuclei respond to stimuli from vestibular apparatus
c. Gamma oscillation d. vestibular nuclei and pontine reticular - relaxes antigravity
d. Delta Sleep, brain disease muscles

34. Best describes REM with NREM 47. Predict disequilibrium:

a. proportion of REM increases with age A) Cochela
b. predominantly theta and delta B) Saccula
c. rapid low voltage stage I and awake similar C) Macula of utricle
d. markedly depressed muscle tone due to strong inhibition of spinal D) Semicircular ducts
cord motor areas
49. Cogwheel rigidity, tremor at rest and difficulty in performing
35) True of theta waves EXCEPT: voluntary movementsare characteristics of
A) Degenerative disorders A) Huntingtons disease Enkephalin early, GABA later
B) Normal resting state of adult B) Parkinsons disease
C) Children - occipital and temporal C) Cerebellar ataxia
D) Emotional students taking exam D) Wilsons disease Copper

37) Bilateral lesion of ventromedial of hypothalamus would result 50. Neurotransmitter path affected (Refer to number 49)
to: A) dopamine Parkinsons
A) Rage B) serotonin
B) Starvation C) Acetylcholine Dementia
C) Decreased libido D) norepinephrine

38. Not a function of stimulation of amygdala UNIT 9 UNIT EXAM

a. faction for reward & pleasure 66. False about labeled line principle:
b. secretion of anterior pituitary hormones a. Nerve track terminates in a specific point in CNS
c. consolidation of long-term memories Hippocampus
b. Modality of sensation is determined by where the fiber
d. involuntary movement related to olfaction & eating leads
c. Is the sensitivity of a track to transmit one modality of
39) A medical student finds out she's still good at volleyball which sensation
she learned back in high school and college. d. None of the above
A) Declarative Memory
B) Working Memory 67. Pertains to the change in membrane permeability allowing ions
C) Skill Memory to diffuse more or diffuse less:
D) Semantic Memory a. Action potential
b. Receptor potential
41. Effect of removal of bilateral lesions in the hippocampus c. Transmembrane potential
Answer: Can't make new long term memory d. Action potential frequency
70. True about nerve fibers: 90. Sympathetic dysfunction causes:
A) Type IV is small and unmyelinated A) Pupillary constriction
B) Type A is divided into IA and IB B) Tachycardia
C) Sensory fibers are alpha, beta, gamma, and delta C)Vasodilation
D) General fibers are divided into (kalimot ko, basta sayop ni) D) Constipation

71. Correct pair, nerve fiber classification
Answer: Type 4- crude touch
74. Mechanism of accomodation except
A) in normal conditions, lens remains relatively spherical
B) sympathetic control in not important because of its weak power
C) ciliary muscle relaxation increases refractive power of lens
D) ciliary muscle relaxation controlled by SNS and PNS
Suspensory ligaments relax
78. Distance of origin of sound in vertical distance estimated by:
A) time lag
B) intensity of difference in sounds Horizontal
C) distance of origin of sound
D) none of the above
79. Stimuli that corresponds to taste:
Sweet, bitter n umami together
A) Salty taste to non-ionized sodium
B) Sour taste to hydrogen concentration of acids
C) Sweet and bitter respond to a single class of chemicals
D) Umami is a combination of primary stimuli
91. Administrtion of beta-1 blcoker will decrease:
a. Heart rate
b. Pupillary size
c. Intestinal motility
92. True of end-plate membrane of skeletal muscle:
a. Stimulated by acetylcholine
b. More channels open as the membrane becomes depolarized
93. Stimulation of muscle spindle is caused by:
a. Stimulation of secondary efferent
d. Concomitant stretch of the entire muscle will stimulate the
muscle spindle
94. Meaning of adequate stimulus:
a. Minimal stimulus that would stimulate a response
b. form of energy in a particular receptor has low threshold
c. form of stimuli that generates action potential in a sensory
receptor
d. Only form of stimuli that activates a sensory receptor

80. The most sensitive threshold to tase: 96. Neuronal excitability is increased in which of the ff: (Same as
A) Salty reduced alpha waves) Alkalosis
B) Sweet a. Person who overbreathes
C) Bitter b. Severly diabetic
D) Sour c. Anesthesia
d. Diminished blood flow
81. Rapid adaptation mechanism:
A) Taste 97. Not a physiologic effect of sleep:
B) Smell a. Maintain immune competence
C) Hearing b. Consolidate memory and learning
D) Vision c. Increase metabolic regulation
d. Maintain caloric balance
82. True of olfaction mechanism except:
A) Resting membrane potential is -55mv 98. Secretes serotonin:
B) Depolarization by odorants decreases negativity a. Nucleus solitarius
C) Rapid reaction mechanism happens within the first second b. Raphe nuclei
D) None of the above c. Medial lemniscus

83. This type of reflex is usually caused by over exercise of the 99. Low voltage and short spindle interruption of alpha waves
abdomen, irritation of the peritoneum or pain impulses fro broken a. Stage 1
edges of the bone. b. Stage 2
A) Galloping reflex c. Stage 3
B) Spinal cord reflex d. Stage 4
C) Cord righting reflex
D) Crossed extensor reflex 100. Melatonin synthesis and secretion:
A) Increased during daytime.
84. Which of the following occurs in the depolarization stage of a B) Decreased during night time.
nerve action potential: C) Serotonin regulates melatonin synthesis and seretion
A) Outward flow of potassium D) Suprachiasmatic nuclei controls melatonin
B) Inward diffusion of sodium
C) Greater conductance of potassium than sodium 101. Which of the ff is not true regarding cortical conduction?
D) Passive inflow of calcium A) Bulboreticular tract is excitatory
B) Excitatory activity is controlled by peripheral sensory signals
89. According to the law of adequate stimulus, sensory receptors: C) Excitation is through positive feedback from the cortex
A) Are specific to one type of stimulus D) Inhibitory area of the reticular formation block the activity of
B) Are nerve endings of sensory receptors serotonergic neurons Serotonin is inhibitory
C) Are located on the site of stimulus
D) Have threshold for a single form of stimulation
102. True of the hypothalamus: 28. Best describes feedback control of hormone secretion:
A) Lateral hypothalamic nucleus controls thirst and appetite A) Positive feedback prevents over activity of target organs
B) Preoptic nucleus elevates heart rate and blood pressure B) feedback control occurs only when the hormones are released
C) from the vesicles
D) Stimulation of all parts of the hypothalamus cause sexual activity C) negative feedback occurs when the maximal rate of secretion is
achieved
103. True of hippocampus: D) control of hormone secretion is mostly regulated by negative
A) Learning skills feedback mechanism
B) Consolidation of long term memory
C) Appropriate 30. Which of the ff. least describes action of thyroid hormone?
D) Association area for behavior A) Increase Gastrointestinal motility and secretion
B) Relatively greater increase in cardiac output than heart rate
104. Ignoring information leading to inhibition of synapses: C) Decrease in plasma cholesterol and triglycerides
A) Facilitation D) Needed in brain development in the fetus and in infancy
B) Habituation
C) Desensitization 31. Mechanism responsible for immediate release of thyroid
D) Consolidation hormones when stimulated by TSH
A) Increase activity of iodide pump
106. This is the type of memory used during the course of B) Increase proteolysis of thyrogloublin
intellectual reasoning but is terminated as each stage of problem C) Increase iodination of tyrosine
resolved: D) Increase size and secretory activity
A) Intermediate long-term memory
B) Skill memory 32. During hypoglycemic states, which of the following events is
C) Working memory TRUE about blood glucose regulation?
D) Declarative memory A) As much as two thirds of absorbed glucose is immediately stored
in the liver
107. Incorrect neural function to corresponding: B) Sympathetic stimulation increases release of glucose from the
A) Spinal cord: coordinated reflexes liver
B) Antigravity muscles: medulla C) Immediate secretion of growth hormone and cortisol to decrease
C) Emotional responses: hypothalamus glucose utilization
D) Spinal reflexes : spinal cord D) The insulin feedback mechanism plays a more important role
than glucagon mechanism
108. NOT TRUE of cerebellum function:
A) Vestibulocerebellum – neural circuit of equilibrium 33.) Least likely describes Cushing's syndrome
B) Spinocerebellar – motor functions of proximal limbs Corticospinal A.) Moon facie
C) Cerebrocerebellar – planning, complex movements B.) Hypertension
D) Cerebellar – control preplanned rapid ballistic movements C.) decreased glucose concentration
D.) decreased tissue protein concentration
109. Planning and command voluntary movements involves the ff.
except: 34. Increased aldosterone will lead to increase in one of the
A) Cerebral association areas following:
B) Basal ganglia A) ECF volume
C) Cerebellum B) K serum concentration
D) Spinal cord C) H tubular reabsorption
D) K tubular reabsorption
110. Ataxia, dysmetria, and adiadochokinesia are typical associated
with what types of diseases: 35. One of the following is the most potent factor in regulating
A) Spinal cord aldosterone secretion:
B) Basal ganglia A) ACTH
C) Cerebellum B) RAAS
D) Brain stem C) Sodium ion concentration
D) Stress
Unit 10 Long exam 1
26. Man with untreated DM Type 1 injected with insulin. Results in 36. Characterizes Graves disease
increase in which of the following? A) Elevated T4, TSH, and BMR
A. Urine glucose B) Elevated T4 and BMR, low TSH
B. Blood glucose C) Elevated TSH, low T4 and BMR
C. Blood pH D) Elevated T4 and TSH, low BMR
D. Plasma K+ level
37. Active forms of Vitamin D promote intestinal Ca absorption by
27. pth in renal one of the following mechanisms:
a. stimulate ca absorption in distal tubule A) Increases alkaline phosphatase in the renal epithelial cells
b. stimulate po4 in proximal tubule B) Calcium-stimulated ATPase transports calcium by facilitated
c. decrease excretion of cAMP diffusion
d. inhibit 1 a hydrxylase C) Increases formation of calbindin in the intestinal epithelial cells
D) Direct effect of 1,25-dihydrocholecalciferol on the epithelial cells 41. the secretory phase of the endometrial cycle is characterized by:
A.) more proliferation of the endometrium
Unit 10 Long exam 2 B.) swelling and secretory development of endometrium
31. Papal encyclical by Pope Paul VI *insert long phrase here* C.) secretion of large amounts of progesterone and estrogen
A) Corpus Christi D.) AOTA
B) Humanae Vitae
C) Evangelicum Vitae 42. The most common hormone during the first trimester of
D) Coitus interruptus pregnancy:
A) Estrogen
33. which is the correct management of missed pills? B) Progesterone
A.) Missed 1 or 2? Take the pill ASAP. C) LH
B.) Missed 4 pills in the first week? Take pill ASAP D) HCG
C.) Missed 3 pills in the 3rd week? Throw away pill and keep taking
COC as usual. 43. Effect of progesterone on pregnancy:
D.) Missed a non-hormonal pill. Take pill ASAP and use back-up A) Development of decidual cells
method for the next 7 days. Consider emergency contraceptives if B) Prevents involution of corpus luteum Hcg
sexual intercourse occurred in the past 5 days. C) Enlargement of mother’s uterus
D) Decrease glucose utilization in the mother Somatomammotropin
34. True of appropriate family planning method:
A) User dependent drugs are more effective than those not user 45. True of the function of Prolactin
dependent A) Development of lobules of breast
B) Anemic woman benefits from using combined contraceptives B) Secretion is from the hypothalamus
C) Woman with liver disease benefits from using hormonal C) Secretion from Anterior Pituitary is intermittent
contraceptives, injectables and IUD D) Secretion of milk from lobules to its duct
D) Diabetic woman will show decreased cardiovascular problems
with use of combined contraceptives Unit 10 Unit Exam
60. Pituitay gland removal will NOT result to:
35. The following causative agents can be transmitted from mother A) Salt loss and hypovolemic shock develops
to baby thus LAM is not recommended: B) Cold tolerance poor
A) HIV, ebola C) Stress sensitivity
B) HIV, adequately treated TB, herpes zoster breast lesion D) Inhibit Growth
C) HIV, untreated active TB, herpes simplex breast lesion
D) HIV, influenza, HPV 61. Not a manisfestation of Cushing's:
A) Cephalad fat mobilization
36. Effect of testosterone spermatogenesis B) Normal glucose
A) Sperm to spermatids C) Protein level decrease
B) Stimulation of release of FSH and LH D) Hypertension
C) Growth and division of testicular germinal cells
D) Descent of testes 62. Which of the ff. Hormones have decreased metabolic clearance
rate due to binding to a plasma protein
37. Characterstic of fluid from seminal vesicle: A) Norepinephrine
A) Milky fluid with fructose and citric acid B) Angiotensin II
Prostate: milky, alkalinity, clotting enzymes (fibrinolysin)
B) Alkaline and neutral C) Thyroid hormones
Seminal vesicle: fructose, prostaglandin, fibrinogen
C) Clotting enzymes D) Parathyroid hormone
D) Prostaglandin which cause reverse peristalsis of uterus and
uterne tube 63. One of the following hormones does not increase plasma
calcium concentration:
38. True of estrogen during follicular phase: A) PTH
A) Both FSH and LH increase equally More fsh B) Glucocortucoid
B) Estrogen promotes devt of ductules C) Dehydrocholecalciferol
C) D) Calcitonin
D) From primary follicle to antral follicle by LH
64. Promotion of protein deposition CAN NOT be due to this effect
39. One of the events during ovulation: of GH:
A) LH surge and increase in estrogen A) Decrease protein breakdown
B) Initial secretion of progesterone B) Increase RNA translation
C) C) Promote DNA transcription
D) Degeneration of blood vessel in the follicular wall D) Suppress amino acid transport to interiors of the cell

40. Effect of estrogen on primary sex characteristics of females: 65. Capacitation is characterized by:
A) Devt of pubic and axillary hair A) Development of capablity of motility
Secondary
B) Growth of extensive ductule of the breast B) Loss of cholesterol from acrosome
C) Cause proliferation of uterine endometrium C) Formation of coagulum in uterine cervix
D) .....uterine endometrium and glands D) Release of proteolytic enzyme from sperm head
66. Function of testosterone during puberty.
A) Descent of testis
B) Narrowing and lengthening of pelvic outlet
C) Growth of hair on chest, face and on top of the head
D) B & C
67. Secretion by Sertoli cells which inhibits release of FSH.
A) Inhibin
B) Relaxin
C) Estrogen
D) Testosterone
70. The following events will not lead to menstruation:
A) Increased production of LH
B) Involution of corpus luteum
C) Vasospasm of endometrial artery
D) Decreased production of estrogen and progesterone
71. True of BHCG secreted during pregnancy:
A) Prevent involution of corpus luteum
B) Stimulates sertoli cell to produce testosterone
C) Promotes progesterone production by placenta
D) All of the above
72. True of the changes in maternal circulation during pregnancy:
A) Increase in blood volume by 30%
B) Increase in cardiac output by 30%
C) Production of more RBCs
D) All of the above
73. True of the events during parturition:
A) Increase oxytocin secretion
B) Increase prostaglandin: estrogen ratio Opposite
C) Stretching of the cervix relaxes uterus
D) Relaxation of abdominal muscles in uterine contractions
74. Role of Oxytocin in lactation
A) Promotes production of milk
B) Growth of ductal system of breast
C) Growth of breast lobules & alveoli
D) Excretion of milk from alveoli to ducts
75. True of fetal circulation, except:
A) Oxygenated blood from the placenta will supply only the upper
part of the fetus
B) Foramen Ovale shunts oxygenated blood from right atrium to left
atrium
C) Ductus venosus shunts oxygenated blood from right to left
D) Ductus arteriosus shunts deoxygenated blood from the lungs to
the aorta
79. TRUE to the nutritional needs of the infant during the first week
of life, EXCEPT:
A. ) adequate amount of calcium and vitamin D is needed for bone
formation
B. ) the liver has enough stored iron throughout the 1st year of life
C. ) milk does not have adequate vit C, so supplements are given to
the newborn
D. ) the mother gives more calcium to the new born during lactation
than during pregnancy.
80. Which of the following is an effect of progesterone to a non
pregnant woman
A. ) inhibit osteoclastic activity Estrogen
B. ) develop breast ductal system
C. ) develop.....?
D. ) increase lipid and glycogen storage in endometrium stroma
81. Family planning – Calendar method:
A) Avoid vaginal intercourse from shortest cycle – 11 (start of fertile
period) to longest cycle – 18 (end of fertile period)
B) Avoid vaginal intercourse from shortest cycle – 18 (start of fertile
period) to longest cycle -11 (end of fertile period)
C) Avoid vaginal intercourse day before and after cycle
D) Avoid intercourse from day 8 to 19 for 26-32 cycle
82. What method should you advise a 50y.o. Woman G4P4 who is
still menstruating but nearing menopause:
A) Condom
B) Contraceptive pills
C) Symptom thermal method
D) Coitus interruptus
th st
4 bimonthly 1 written
56. True of secretion of prostate
A) thin, milky and alkaline
B) contains citric acid and fibrinogen Seminal
C) contains prostaglandin that aids in fertilization vesicle
D) all of the above
60. True effect of estrogen on female's secondary sexual
characteristics
1-Development of breast alveoli Progesterone
2- Endometrium
3- Growth of hair in pubic and axilla area
4- Inhibition of osteoblastic activity in bone
Osteoclastic
61. Characteristics of proliferation phase
1-Secretion of thin sticky mucous
2-High level of estrogen
3-Rapid proliferation of endometrial lining and epithelial cells
4- Mucous blabla
63. Not an effect of hormone on pregnancy
A) Human chorionic somatomammotropin decreases glucose
utilization in mother
B) B HCG maintains secretion on corpus luteum
C) Estrogen relaxes pelvic ligaments of mother
D) Progesterone increases uterine contractility
64. True of the mechanism in parturition:
A) Positive feedback mechanism
B) Stretching of smooth muscle increases contractility
C) Stretch of uterine cervix stimulate uterine body to contract
D) All of the above
65. One of the following is responsible for milk secretion:
A) Estrogen
B) Oxytocin Milk ejection
C) Prolactin
D) Progesterone
66. Not involved in development of Adrenal Diabetes.
A) Cortisol increases gluconeogenesis by hepatic cells
B) Most tissues are resistant to the effects of insulin.
C) Decreased cortisol increases glucose uptake.
D) Moderate decrease in glucose utilzation.
67) Mr. Johns, a 60-y/o male, recently went disarticulation of his big
toe due to non-healing ulcer. His physician said he has Diabetes II.
What is/are the effects of insulin on the tissue?
A) Decrease blood flow secondary to structural changes in blood A) muscles Has glycogen stores
vessels. B) retina
B) Peripheral neuropathy. C) brain
C) Increased utilization and decreased storage of proteins. D) gonads
D) All of the above.
78. Which of the ff characterizes primary hyperparathyroidism?
68. Mismatched pathophysiology:symptom in diabetes mellitus: A) manifested by nervous excitement and tetany
A) Osmotic diuresis: anuria B) characterized by extreme osteoblastic activity in the bone
B) Dehydration secondary to diarrhea: polydipsia C) can be caused by vitD deficiency or chronic kidney disease
C) Loss of body protein: asthenia D) tendency for calcium phosphate crystals to precipitate in the
D) Enhanced glucose metabolism: polyphagia kidneys

69. True about thyroid hormone secretion: 80. Which of the following organs is completely developed at Birth
A) excitement and anxiety causes increase in TRH TSH A) )CNS
B) effects mediated by phospholipase system TRH B) )Kidney
C) TRH has a direct effect on the anterior pituitary C) )Endocrine System
D) thyroid hormone inhibits TSH secretion by direct action on D) )Lung
hypothalamus TRH
81. Not true of pregnancy after first trimester:
70. One of the following factors stimulates release of growth A) Most details of organs are developed Page 1019 (12th ed)

hormone: B) Liver produces most of the RBCs 3rd month on- bone marrow principal source
A) Obesity C) Fetus grows in proportion to age
B) Somatomedins Inhibit D) Fetal and tactile asphyxia produces respiratory movements
C) Somatostatin
D) Hypoglycemia 83. Which of the ff is not suitable for a 24 year old male who does
not want his girlfriend to get pregnant?
71. Effect of excess aldosterone secretion: A) Vasectomy
A) Arrhythmia secondary to hyperkalemia Hypokalemia B) Condom
B) Transient Na+ loss in urine and increase in extracellular K+ Opposite C) Coitus interruptus
C) Increases arterial pressure leading to pressure diuresis and D) IUD Cannot be inserted on a male patient
natriuresis
D) Decreased hydrogen ion secretion causes metabolic alkalosis 84. Which method teaches couples to avoid vaginal intercourse from
menstrual days 8-19 among women with cycles of 26-32 days?
72. True of the regulation of adrenocortical hormones A) Standard days method
A) Increased K+ and Na+ concentrations increase aldosterone B) Rhythm method
B) Renin-angiotensin system increases aldosterone severalfold C) Calendar method
C) Entirely dependent on ACTH Potassium n angiotensin D) Two-day method
D) Stress stimuli cause gradual Inc in ACTH and adrenocortical
hormones 85. With the billings ovulation method, what characteristic of
cervical mucus indicates a fertile period?
73. NOT an effect of high levels of cortisol secretion: A) Sticks to your fingers
A) Blocks the release of inflammatory products in allergic reaction B) White creamy sweet-swelling
B) Blocks the factors that promote inflammation and enhances rate C) Stretchy and slippery
of healing D) Like overcooked rice
C) Increases the number of eosinophils and lymphocytes in the
th nd
blood 4 bimonthly 2 written
D) Suppresses immunity by decreasing T cells and antibodies from 60. Scalae vestibuli and tympani communicate through:
the lymphoid tissue A) Ductus reunis
B) Helicotrema
74. True of physiologic effect of thyroid hormone: C) Endolymphatic duct
A) D) None
B) Marked excess causes increased myocardial contractility
C) Increased amount causes muscle weakness due to excess protein 61. REM is characterized by depressed:
breakdown A) Peripheral vascular tone NREM
D) Promote development of brain function in childhood and B) Body muscle tone
adolescence C) Basal metabolic rate
D) Respiratory rate and heart rate
75. Abnormalities found in colloid goiter except:
A) Failure to form iodide trapping 63. True about EEG:
B) Destruction of thyroid gland through irradiation A) Wakefulness cause synchronous, high voltage EEG
C) Deficiency of peroxidase complex system B) Different stages of sleep have different sleep waves
D) Deficient Deiodinase system
64. True of melatonin synthesis and secretion:
77. Which of the ff organs would LEAST likely need to maintain a A) Low at dark
constant blood glucose concentration for necessary nutrition? B) High during daytime
C) Serotonin brings about diurnal melatonin secretion 80. Postsynaptic membrane excitation is elicited by:
D) Suprachiasmatic nucleus regulate circardian rythm for melatonin A) increase in number of inhibitory receptors
release B) Decrease in diffusion of positive ions to the outside
C) opening of the chloride channels
65. In a normal mammalian animal, rage phenomenon is inhibited by D) AOTA
these hypothalamic nuclei: Lateral- thirst, hunger n rage

A) Periventricular nucleus Alertness n attention

B) Ventromedial nucleus 81. During absolute refractory period, what ion increases?
C) Supraoptic nucleus Water balance A) Sodium
D) Dorsomedial nucleus Destroyed in frontal lobotomy, makes sense in sensory B) Potassium
C) Chloride Stops action potential

66. True about controls of hypothalamus. D) Calcium

A) Lateral - thirst and hunger
B) Preoptic stimulation causes increase in aryerial pressure and 82. Reciprocal innervation:
heart rate A) Inhibition of 1a muscle fiber
C) B) Inhibition of extensors during flexion
D) Sexual drive can be stimulated in all areas C) Suppression of gamma motor
D) Inhibition of alpha motor
67. Bilateral loss of hippocampal function.
A) Loss of 83. The concentration of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft is
B) Decrease in determined by:
C) Inability to establish new long term memories A) The rate of active uptake of the transmitter by the surrounding
D) Loss of intellectual function neurons
B) The amount of transmitter released by the presynaptic nerve
70. True of learning and memory except: terminal
A) Consolidation of memory requires hours instead of minutes C) The rate of enzymatic breakdown of the transmitter in the
B) Rehearsal converts short-term to long-term memory synaptic cleft
C) New memories are codified from similar previous stored memory D) The rate of diffusion of the transmitter from the presynaptic
D) Studying for long hours without break can enhance memory nerve terminal to the synaptic cleft Choline

71. Responsible for overall planing and command complex 84. Which of the ff produces neuronal excitation?
movement except: A) Elevated PH
A) Cerebral association area B) Strychnine
B) Basal ganglia Puts things in order, learned response C) Hypoxia
C) Cerebellum D) Coffee
D) Spinal cord Relay
85. During transmission of signals from pre to postsynaptic, time is
72. Neuronal pathway in the basal ganglia that secretes excitatory: consumed by the ff:
A) GABA A) Discharge of transmitter
B) Dopamine B) Action of transmitter on receptor
C) Glutamate C) Action of receptor on membrane permeability
D) Serotonin D) All of the above
Inc contraction, dec heart rate
73. INCORRECT of neural functions and their corresponding 86. Effect of digitalis on transport of sodium through membrane:
integrating centers: A) Increase rate of diffusion of sodium
A) Conditioned reflexes: Spinal cord Basal ganglia B) Increase number of open sodium channels
B) Antigravity reflexes: Medulla Medulla inhibit, vestibular n pontine activate C) Intracellular sodium concentration tends to increase
C) Emotional responses: Hypothalamus D) Sodium readily passes through lipid bilayer
D) Spinal reflexes: Spinal cord
87. True of static reflexes, except:
74. Which of the following statements does not refer to functions of Answer: Innervated only by primary nerve endings 1a and II

the cerebellum:
A) Helps in rapid, smooth progression from one movement to the 89. A type of primary ending response where length of spindle
next receptor is increased and powerfully stimulated
B) Helps control intensity of muscle contraction when muscle load A) dynamic Rapid
changes B) static
C) Plans and controls complex muscle movements C) reciprocal inhibition
D) Controls interplay between agonist and antagonist D) none of the above

79. The hyperpolarization of the nerve cell membrane after action 90. results in nonjerky movements except
potential is caused by: A) damping
A) rapid entry of the Na+ Depolarization B) smoothing
B) rapid entry of Ca2+ C) signal averaging
C) slow closure of K+ channels D) none of the above
D) rapid closure of Na+ channels
 Where the nerve fiber is leading, it activates only that sensation or action
93. True about the labeled line principle:
A) Specificity of nerve fibers for transmitting only one modality
B) A nerve terminates at a specific point in the CNS
C)
D) All of the above

94. The change in potential when the basic cause of the change in
membrane potential is a change in the membrane permeability of
the receptor which allows ions to diffuse more or less readily
through the membrane:
A) Transmembrane potential
B) Receptor potential Electrical potential of the receptor

96. False of slow adapting receptors

A) keep the brain continuously appraised of the status of body as to
its surroundings
B) importance is their predictive function of body state in moments
later Fast adapting, rate receptors, movement receptors, phasic receptors
C) sends impulses to the brain as long as stimulus is present
D) receptors include vestibular apparatus and arterial baroreceptors

97. Which is TRUE for far sightedness?

A) Eyeball too long Myopia
B) Strong lens power Near vision
C) Light not bent efficiently by relax lens to focus on retina
D) Papillary muscle must constrict to correct this condition

98. TRUE for olfactory adaptation

A Physiologic adaptation is greater Central adaptation is greater
B Adapt within 5 secs
C Very different with taste adaptation
D Adapt very litlle and fast

99. False on rapid taste adaptation:

A) Adaptation happens in minutes
B) Final adaptation happens in CNS
C) Rapid adaptation happens in taste receptors More on CNS
D) None of the above

100. Situation: Experiences bad food, doesn't want to eat

A) Taste aversion Negative taste preference from previous experience
B) Taste preference Choose certain type of foods, change in body's need, pleasant or
unpleasant experience plays a major role