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NTA ABHYAS NEET MOCK TEST – 21

PHYSICS

1. The angular velocity of a body is and a torque acts on it.


the rotational power will be
1)20 W 2)15 W 3) 17 W 4) 14 W
2. The potential energy of a particle of mass 5 kg moving in the x — y plane is given by U = (-
7x+24y) J, where x and y are in meters. If t = 0, the particle starts from rest from the origin, then
speed of the particle at t = 2s is
1)5 m/s 2)10 m/s 3)14 m/s 4)17.5 m/s
3. If the friction is sufficient to prevent the block from sliding, then the minimum value of F for
which the cube begins to topple about an edge is

1) 2/3 mg 2) 3/4 mg 3) 1/2 mg 4)mg

4. A uniform cylinder rolls down from rest, on a track whose vertical cross-section is a parabola
given by the equation y- kx2. If the surface is rough from A to B due to which the cylinder doesn't
slip but it is frictionless from B to C, then the height of ascent of cylinder towards C is

y1 2y 3y
1) 2) 1 3) 1 4) y1
3 3 2
5. A magnetic dipole is placed at right angles to the direction of magnetic induction B. If it is rotated
through an angle of 180°, then the work done is
1)MB 2)2 MB 3)—2 MB 4)Zero
6. A projectile is thrown with a velocity of 20 m/s , at an angle of 60° with the horizontal. After how
much time the velocity vector will make an angle of 45° with the horizontal
1
1) 3 s 2)
3
s 
3) 3  1 s  
4) 3  1 s 
7. A sample contains large number of nuclei. The probability that a nucleus in sample will decay
after four half lives is
1) 1/4 3)3/4 3) 15/16 4)7/16

8. Photoelectric emission is observed from a metallic surface for frequencies n; and ng of the
incident light
rays (n1 > n2). If the maximum values of kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted in the two
cases are in the ratio of 1 : k , then the threshold frequency of the metallic surface is

1) 2) 3) 4)
9. In a compound microscope, the focal lengths of two lenses are 1.5 cm and 6.25 cm and an object
is placed at 2 cm from objective and the final image is formed at 25 cm from eye lens. The
distance between the two lenses is
1) 6.00 cm 2)7.79 cm 3) 9.25 cm 4)11.00 cm
10. When a ray is refracted from one medium into another medium, the wavelength changes from
o o
6000 A to 4000 A . The critical angle for a ray from second medium will be
2 2 3  2 
1) cos-1   2) sin -1   3) tan -1   4) sin -1  
3 3 2  13 
11. A 100 V AC source of frequency 500 Hz is connected toa LCR circuit with L = 8.1 mH, C = 12.5
 F and R = 10  , all connected in series. The potential difference across the resistance is
1)100 V 2)200 V 3)300 V 4)400 V
12. A rod of length | rotates with a small but uniform angular velocity  about its perpendicular
bisector. A uniform magnetic field B exists parallel to the axis of rotation. The potential difference
between the two ends of the rod is
1
1)Zero 2)  Bl 2 3)  Bl 2 4) 2 Bl 2
2
13. In the figure, which of the diode is in reverse bias

1) 2) 3) 4)
14. In the figure shown below each battery has emf = 5V. Then the magnetic field at P is

1)Zero 2) 3) 4) none of these


15. Two long parallel wires are 30 cm apart carrying currents 10 A and 15 A respectively in the same
direction. The force acting over a length of 5 m of the wires is
1) 5 x 10-4N, (attraction)
2) 1 x 10-4N, (attraction)
3) 5 x 10-4N, (repulsion)
4) 1 x 10-4N, (repulsion)
16. The resistance of a moving coil galvanometer is 20  . It requires 0.01 A current for full-scale
deflection. The value of resistance to conver it into a voltmeter of the range 20 V will be
1)198  2)1980  3)20  4)0 
17. Consider the situation shown in the figure. The wire AB is sliding on the fixed rails with constant
velocity v. If the wire AB is replaced by a semicircular wire, the magnitude of the induced current
will

1) increase 2) remain the same 3) decrease


4) increase or decrease depending on whether the semicircle bulges towards the resistance or away
from it
18. The coefficient of friction between two surfaces is 0.2. The maximum angle of friction is
1) sin 1  0.2  2) cos1  0.2  3) tan 1  0.1 4) cot 1  5 
19. The ratio of thermal conductivity of two rods of different material is 5 : 4. The two rods of same
area of cross-section and same thermal resistance will have the lengths in the ratio
1) 4:5 2) 9:1 3) 1:9 4) 5:4
20. A dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of an isolated capacitor. The force between the
plates will
1)increase 2)decrease 3)remain unchanged 4)become zero
21. The effective capacitance of two capacitors of capacitances C1 and C2 (C2 > C1) connected in
25 C
parallel is times the effective capacitance when they are connected in series. The ratio 2 is
6 C1
22. A particle moves under the effect of a force F = cx from x = 0 to x = x1. The work done in the
process is
1 2
1) cx12 2) cx1 3) cx13 4) Zero
2
23. Root mean square speed of an ideal gas at 300 K is 500 m/s. Temperature is increased four times
then root mean square speed will become
1)1000 m/s 2)560 m/s 3)2000 m/s 4)none of these
24. When a laser beam returns after reflection from an aeroplane, the observed change in frequency is
1%, then the speed of the aeroplane is (c is the velocity of light)
c c c c
1) 2) 3) 4)
50 100 200 2
25. A ring consisting of two parts ADB and ACB of same conductivity K carries an amount of heat H.
The ADB part is now replaced with another metal keeping the temperatures T1 and T2 constant.
The heat carried increases to 2H. What should be the conductivity of the new ADB part? (Given
ACB
3
ADB

1) 7/3k 2) 2K 3)5/2K 4)3K


26. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum of length L suspended from the roof of a vehicle
which moves without friction down an inclined plane of inclination  is given by

1) 2) 3) 4)

27. The potential energy of a body of mass 3 kg on the surface of a planet is 54 joule. The escape
velocity will be
1)18ms-1 2)162 ms-1 3) 36ms-1 4) 6ms-1
28. A particle is projected with velocity kve in the vertically upward direction from the ground into
space (ve is escape velocity and k < 1). The maximum height from the centre of the earth to which
it can reach is
R k2R R k 2R
1) 2 2) 3) 4)
k 1 1 k 2 1 k 2 1 k2
29. A uniform bar of length 6a and mass 8m lies on a smooth horizontal table. Two point masses m
and 2m moving in the same horizontal plane with speeds 2v and v respectively, strike the bar and
stick to the bar after collision. Then the angular velocity of the bar (about the centre of mass) is

1)Zero 2)2v/3a 3)v/5a 4)3v/5a


30. When induced emf in inductor coil is 50% of its maximum value then stored energy in inductor
coil in the given circuit will be

1) 2.5 mJ 2) 5 mJ 3) 15 mJ 4) 20 mJ
31. The magnetic flux through a coil varies with time as  = 5t — 6t + 9. The ratio of E.M.F. at t = 0 s
to
t = 0.9 s will be
1) 9:1 2) 1:6 3) 6:1 4) 1: 9
32. Specific resistance of a wire depends on the
1) length of the wire 2)area of cross-section of the wire
3) resistance of the wire 4)material of the wire
33. What is the ratio of the electrostatic potential at the corner and the centre point of a charged
nducting cube? (The potential is considered Q at infinity)
1) 2:1 2) 4:1 3)1 : 2 4)1 : 1
34. The work done by all the forces (external and internal) on a system is equal to the change in
1)total energy 2)kinetic energy 3)potential energy 4)none of these
35. The potential energy of a body of mass m is U = ax + by. The magnitude of the acceleration of the
body will be
ab ab a 2  b2 a2  b2
1) 2) 3) 4)
m m m m
-1
36. A ball of mass 1 kg moving with a velocity of 0.4 ms collides with another stationary ball. After
the collision, the first ball moves with a velocity of 0.3 ms-1 in a direction making an angle of 90°
with its initial direction. The momentum of the second ball after the collision will be (in kg ms-1)
1) 0.1 2) 0.3 3) 0.5 4) 0.7
37. Interference is observed due to two coherent sources A and B having zero phase difference
separated by a distance 4  . along the y-axis, where  is the wavelength of the source. A detector
D is moved on the positive x-axis. The number of points on the x-axis excluding the points x = 0
and x =  at which maximum will be observed is

1) three 2) four 3)two 4)infinite


38. A convex lens A of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens B of focal length 5 cm are kept along
the same axis with a distance d between them. If a parallel beam of light falling on A leaves B as a
parallel beam, then the distance d (in cm) will be
1)20 2)15 3)30 4)50
2
39. A variable force F acts along the x-axis given by = (3x —2x+ 1) N. The work done by the force
when a particle of mass 100 g moves from x = 50 cm to x = 100 cm is
1)0.625 J 2)6.25 J 3)0.0625 J 4) 62.5 J
40. Two blocks of masses m and 2m are placed one over the other as shown in the figure. The

coefficient of friction between m and 2m is  and between 2m and ground is . If a horizontal
3
force F is applied on the upper block and 'T’ is the tension developed in the string, then choose the
incorrect alternative.


1) If F  mg , T  0
3
2) If F   mg , T  0
 mg
3) If F  2  mg , T 
3
4) If F  3 mg , T  0
41. According to Bohr's model, the magnetic field at the centre (at the nucleus) of a hydrogen atom
due to motion of an electron in the nth orbit is proportional to
1 1
1) 3 2) 5 3) n5 4) n3
n n
42. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 50 days. The substance will disintegrate completely in
1) 00 days 2) 500 days 3) 5000 days 4) infinite time
43. Which of the following curves is correct?

1) 2) 3) 4)none of these
44. A simple telescope consisting of an objective lens of focal length 60 cm and an eye lens of focal
length 5 cm, is focused on a distant object. If the object subtends an angle of 2° at the objective
lens, the angular width of the image is
0
1
1) 50° 2)   3) 10° 4) 24°
6
45. An equilateral prism has an angle of minimum deviation 30°. Find total deviation if a ray is
incident normally on the surface.
1) 120° 2)60° 3)90° 4)none of these
CHEMISTRY
1. Consider the following E values: E Li+|Li = - 3.05 V, Eo Cu2+|Cu = +0.34 V
O O

Under similar conditions, the potential for the reaction Cu+ 2Li+  Cu2+ + 2Li, is
1) —3.39 V
2) +3.39 V
3) —2.69 V
4) +2.69 V
2. The IUPAC name of the compound is:

1) 1-amino-1-phenyl-2-methylpropane
2) 2-methyl-1-phenylpropan-1-amine
3) 2-methyl-1-amino-1-phenylpropane
4) 1-isopropyl-1-phenylmethyl amine
3. Select the correct order for the given properties—
(1) Thermal Stability: BaSO4 > SrSO4 > CaSO4 > MgSO4
(Il) Basic Nature: ZnO > BeO > MgO > CaO
(III) Solubility in water: LiOH > NaOH > KOH > RbOH
(IV) Melting point: NaCl > KCl > RbCl > LiCl

1) I , IV 2) I,II and IV 3) II,III 4)All are correct

4. The reaction with incorrect major product is _____

1)

2)

3)
4)
5. Which of the following represents the cosolvating effect

1) The acidic strength HF increases in the presence of BF3


2)The acidity of NH 4 is enhanced in the presence of Cu2+
3) The acidity of H3BO3 is increased in the presence of glycerol
4) All of the given are examples of cosolvating effect
6. An alkene (A) C16H16 on ozonolysis gives only one product (B) (C8H8O). Compound (B) on
reaction with NH2OH followed by reaction with H2SO4,  gives N— methyl benzamide the
compound ‘A’ is

1)

2)

3)

4)

7. Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer using codes given below the lists —

1) 1-B,2-C,3-E,4-D 2) 1-B,2-C,3-E,4-A
3) 1-D,2-C,3-E,4-A 4) 1-D,2-E,3-C,4-A
8. Which is an incorrect statement?
1) Diamond is unaffected by conc. acids, but graphite reacts with hot conc. HNO3 forming mellitic
acid C6(COOH)6
2) CO is toxic because it forms a complex with hemoglobin in the blood
3)C3O2 carbon suboxide, is a foul-smelling gas
4)COCl2 is called tear gas.
9. Which test is used to distinguish aldehydes from Ketones?
1)Tollen’s test 2)Fehling’s test
3)Both (1) & (2) 4)None of the above
10. Greater is the protective power of lyophilic colloid -
1) Lesser is its gold number 2) Greater is its gold number
3) Either of the above 4) None of these
11. Acrylic acid react with HBr to give -
1)Br2 — CH2 — CH (Br) — COOH
2)Br — CH2 - CH2 — COOH
3)CH2 = CH — COBr
4)CH3 — CH (Br) — COOH
12.
In this sequence z is mainly -
1) lsobutylene
2) Isobutane 3) lsobutyl acetate
4) Ethyl tert. butyl ether

13. Factors affecting Kc is -


1)Increasing concentration of the reactant
2)Presence of catalyst
3)Method of writing balanced equation (or stoichiometry of reaction)
4)Time taken by the chemical reaction

14.

1) 2)

3) 4)None of the above

15. CH3CONH2 & HCONHCH3 are called


1)Position isomers 2)Chain isomers
3)Tautomers 4)Functional isomers
16. For the reaction,
2N2O5 (g)  4NO2 (g) + O2 (g)
If the concentration of NO2 increases by 5.2 x 10-2 M in 100 s then the rate of the reaction is:
1) 1.3x10-5 ms-1 2) 0.5x10-4 ms-1
3) 2 x 10-3 ms-1 4) 2.5 x 10-5 ms-1
17. For the formation of terylene the number of moles of ethylene glycol required per mole of
terephthalic acid is
1) 1 2)2 3)3 4)4
18. H2O2 is prepared in the laboratory when –
1)MnO2 is added to dilute cold H2SO4
2) BaO2 is added to CO2 bubbling through cold water
3)PbO2 is added to an acidified solution of KMnO4
4) Na2O2 is added to boiling water
19. At certain Hill-station pure water boils at 99.72oC . If Kb for water is 0.513 °Ckgmol-1. The boiling
point of 0.69 m solution of urea will be-
1)100.074 oC 2)103 oC 3)100.359 oC 4)Un predictable
20. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin
1) Retinol 2) Riboflavin
3) Tocopherol 4) Phylloquinone

21. The dipole moment of is 1.5 D. The dipole moment of is


1)1D 2)1.5 D 3)2.25 D 4)3D
22. The statement which is false among the following is
1) Silicon carbide has a three dimensional structure with each silicon and carbon atom being
tetrahedrally surrounded by four atoms of the other kind
2) Carbon can form C = S bond because C has the ability to form d  —d  bond
3) Boron nitride has structure similar to that of graphite
4) Graphite conducts electricity because of the availability of delocalised  electrons
23. which of the following compounds will exhibit geometrical isomerism?
1) 1-phenyl-2-butene
2) 3-phenyl-1-butene
3) 2-phenyl-1-butene
4) 1,1-diphenyl-1-propene
24. Select the correct matching -

1) 1—D,2—C,3—A,4—B
2) 1—A,2—B,3—C,4—D
3) 1—B,2—A,3—C,4—D
4) 1—C,2—A,3—A,4—B
25. The no. of  bonds in the compound P4O10 is -
1)1 2)4 3)3 4)16

26.
1)CH2 = CHCOOH
2)CH3CH2OH
3)CH3CH2CN
4)CH2CHCICOOH
27. In a solid ‘AB’ having the NaCl structure, ‘A ’ atoms occupy the corners of the cubic unit cell. If
all the face centered atoms along one of the axes are removed, then the resultant stoichiometry of
the solid is:
1)AB2 2)A2B 3)A4 B3 4)A3B4
28. Consider the following reaction

1)Acetic acid 2)Acetaldehyde 3)Ethyl alcohol 4)Formic acid


29. One among the following is an incorrect statement-
1)Molality of a solution is dependent on the tempeature
2)Molarity of a solution is dependent on the temperature
3)Normality of 0.5 M aqueous solution of H2C2O4 . 2H20 is 1 N
4)Molality of a solution relates moles of solute and mass of solvent
30. N2 and O2 are converted to monocations N 2 and O2 ; respectively, which is wrong statement-
1)In N 2 , the N — N bond weakens
2) In O2 the O — O bond order increases
3) In O2 the paramagnetism decreases
4) N 2 becomes diamagnetic
31. Which of the following compounds on hydrolysis gives propyne?
1)CaC2 2)Mg2C3 3)Al4C3 4)Be2C
32. Xenon trioxide (XeO3) forms xenate ion in alkaline medium.
XeO2 + NaOH  Na[HXeO2]
But the xenate ions slowly disproportionate in alkaline solution as
Na |HXeO4] + NaOH  Z+ Xe + O2 + H2O
The compound Z is expected to be
1) Na2 XeO3
2) Na2 XeO4
3) Na4 XeO6
4) Na4, XeO4
33. Mn2+ can be converted into Mn7+ by reacting with
1)SO2 2)Cl2 3)PbO2 4)SnCl2
34. Base catalysed condensation between the following compounds followed by dehydration gives
methyl vinyl ketone:
1) HCHO and CH3COCH3
2) HCHO and CH3CHO
3) Two molecules of CH3CHO
4) Two molecules of CH3COCH3
35. In which of the following transitions will the wavelength be minimum?
1) n=6 to n=4
2) n=4 to n=2
3) n=3 to n=1
4) n=2 to n=1
36. The increasing order of the rate of HCN addition to compound A – D is
A. HCHO B. CH3COCH3 C.PhCOCH3 D. PhCOPh
1) A<B<C<D 2) D<B<C<A 3) D<C<B<A 4) C<D<B<A
37. CH3NH2 (0.12 mole, pKb = 3.3) is added to 0.08 moles of HCl and the solution is diluted to one
litre, resulting pH of solution is:
1) 10.7 2) 3.6 3)10.4 4)11.3
38. 64 g non-volatile solute is added to 702 g benzene. The vapour pressure of benzene has decreased
from 200 mm of Hg to 180 mm of Hg. Molecular weight of the solute is
1)128 2)64 3)96 4)256
39. Malonic acid and succinic acid are distinguished by
1)Heating 2)NaHCO3
3)Both (A) & (B) 4)None of these
40. Match the geometry (given in column A. ) with the complexes (given in column B ) in:
Geometry: A Complex: B
2
I. Octahedral P.  Ni  CN  4 
II. Square planar Q. Ni  CO 4
4
III. Tetrahedral R.  Fe  CN 6 
1) I-P, II-Q, III-R 2) I-R, II-P, III-Q
3) I-R, II-Q, III-P 4) I-Q, II-P, III-R
41. You are given a mixture of ZnS and PbS . The two ompounds can be separated by
1) froth flotation on adding NaCN
2) electromagnetic separation
3) handpicking
4) leaching with NaCN

42. A salt of white ppt. on boiling. Thus, anion X is:


1) HCO3 2) NO3 3) CO32 4) SO42 
43. The product in the given reaction is:

1) 2) 3) 4)

44. CuSO4 reacts with excess KCN to form


1)Cu(CN) 2
2) Cu(NCN) 2
3)K2[Cu(CN) 4|
4)K3 [Cu(CN) 4|
45. lf 30 mL of H2 and 20 mL of O2 react to form water, what is left at the end of the reaction?
1)10 mL of H2
2)5 mL of H2
3)10 mL of O2
4)5 mL of O2
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NTA ABHYAS NEET MOCK TEST – 21
Answers and Solutions
PHYSICS

1) 1 2) 2 3) 2 4) 2 5) 4 6) 4 7) 3 8) 2 9) 4 10) 2

11) 1 12) 1 13) 2 14) 1 15) 1 16) 2 17) 2 18) 4 19) 4 20) 3

21) 1 22) 2 23) 1 24) 3 25) 1 26) 1 27) 4 28) 3 29) 3 30) 1

31) 3 32) 4 33) 4 34) 2 35) 3 36) 3 37) 1 38) 2 39) 1 40) 3

41) 2 42) 4 43) 1 44) 4 45) 2

CHEMISTRY

1) 1 2) 2 3) 1 4) 2 5) 4 6) 2 7) 3 8) 4 9) 3 10) 1

11) 2 12) 1 13) 3 14) 3 15) 4 16) 1 17) 1 18) 2 19) 1 20) 2

21) 2 22) 2 23) 1 24) 1 25) 4 26) 1 27) 4 28) 3 29) 1 30) 4

31) 2 32) 3 33) 3 34) 1 35) 3 36) 3 37) 3 38) 2 39) 1 40) 2

41) 1 42) 1 43) 3 44) 4 45) 4

BIOLOGY
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 2 5) 3 6) 4 7) 2 8) 3 9) 4 10) 1

11) 1 12) 2 13) 1 14) 3 15) 2 16) 2 17) 2 18) 3 19) 1 20) 3

21) 4 22) 3 23) 2 24) 1 25) 1 26) 3 27) 1 28) 4 29) 4 30) 1

31) 1 32) 4 33) 3 34) 2 35) 3 36) 2 37) 1 38) 4 39) 1 40) 4

41) 1 42) 1 43) 3 44) 2 45) 3 46) 2 47) 1 48) 3 49) 4 50) 2

51) 4 52) 1 53) 4 54) 4 55) 1 56) 3 57) 1 58) 4 59) 3 60) 2

61) 3 62) 3 63) 3 64) 4 65) 2 66) 4 67) 3 68) 4 69) 3 70) 3

71) 1 72) 2 73) 1 74) 1 75) 1 76) 1 77) 4 78) 4 79) 3 80) 3

81) 1 82) 2 83) 3 84) 4 85) 4 86) 2 87) 2 88) 4 89) 1 90) 3
PHYSICS

1) 4)

2)

5)

3)
9)

6)

7)
10)

11)

8)
12) 16)

17)

13)

18)

14)
19)

15)

20)
21) 24)

25)

22)

23)
26) 29)

L
T  2
g cos 
27)
30)

28)

31)
32) 37)

33)

38)

34)

35)

39)

36)
40) 42)

43)

44)

45)

41)
CHEMISTRY

46) 54)

55)

47)

56)
48)

57)

49)

58)

50)

59)

51)
60)

61)
52)

62)

53)
63) 71)

64)
72)

65) 73)

66)

74)

67)
75)

68)

76)

69)

77)

78)
70)
79) 86)

80)

87)
81)

88)

89)
82)

90)

83)

84)

85)
BIOLOGY

91) 93)

92)

94)

95)
96) 99)

100)

101)

97)

98)

(H2O when fossil fuels are burned.


102)
103) 109)

104)
110)

105) 111)

112)

106)

107) 113)

108)
114) 118)

119)

120)

115) Function of FSH


(i) In males regulation of
spermatogenesis by FSH and androgens
(ii) in females FSH stimulates growth
and development of the ovarian follicles
in females
116)

121)

122)

117)

123)
124) 130)

125)

131)

126)

132)

127)

133)

128)

134)

129)
135) 140)

136)

137)
141)

142)
138)

143)
139)

144)
145) 150)

151)

146)

147)

152)
148)

153)

149)
154) 158)

159)

155)

160)

156)

161)

162)
157)
163)

167)

164)

165) 168)
169) 175)

170)
176)

171)

172)

177)

178)
173)

174)
179)
180)

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