GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER - I

TEST - 6
KEY WITH DETAILED
AND
ELABORATE EXPLANATIONS
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 TEST NO – 06 05.12.2021

HISTORY ENVIRONMENT
{MODERN INDIA}  Biodiversity
 Protected Area Network
 Wild in India
NATIONAL MOVEMENT 1922 - 1947 ( Including Species in news )
 Swaraj Party
 Simon Commission
 INC’s Lahore Session REFERENCE TEXTS (NCERT & OTERHS)
 Saly Satyagraha
 Civil Disobedience Movement  Science NCERT – 12th Biology – 15th Chapter
 Quit India Movement  Geography – 10th Std – 2nd Chapter
 Transfer of Power  NIOS - 15th Chapter
 Post War Struggle
 Post – Independence
 Integration of princely states
 Nehruvian Era
 Reorganization & Consolidation

REFERENCE TEXTS (NCERT & OTERHS) CURRENT AFFAIRS

JUNE 2021
 Class VIII – Our Pasts III Prediction Monthtly
 Class XII – Themes in Indian History – Part III Magazine Yojana GST
 Class XII – Old NCERT Modern India Chapter 12
& 13
 Class XII – Politics in India Since
Independence

#C-40, 2nd Avenue, Anna Nagar West, Chennai – 600 040

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 ARAM IAS ACADEMY
1. Ans: A
Explanation:
Important TR in India:

Si No. Tiger Reserve (Year of Creation) State

1 Bandipur (1973–74) Karnataka

2 Corbett (1973–74) Uttarakhand

3 Kanha (1973–74) Madhya Pradesh

4 Manas (1973–74) Assam
5 Melghat (1973–74) Maharashtra
6 Palamau (1973–74) Jharkhand
7 Ranthambore (1973–74) Rajasthan

8 Similipal (1973–74) Odisha

9 Sunderbans (1973–74) West Bengal

10 Periyar (1978–79) Kerala

11 Sariska (1978–79) Rajasthan
12 Buxa (1982–83) West Bengal
13 Indravati (1982–83) Chhattisgarh

14 Namdapha (1982–83) Arunachal Pradesh

15 Dudhwa (1987–88) Uttar Pradesh
16 Kalakad-Mundanthurai (1988–89) Tamil Nadu
17 Valmiki (1989–90) Bihar
18 Pench (1992–93) Madhya Pradesh
19 Tadoba-Andhari (1993–94) Maharashtra

20 Bandhavgarh (1993–94) Madhya Pradesh

21 Panna (1994–95) Madhya Pradesh

22 Dampa (1994–95) Mizoram
23 Bhadra (1998–99) Karnataka
24 Pench (1998–99) Maharashtra
25 Pakke (1999–2000) Arunachal Pradesh
26 Nameri (1999–2000) Assam
27 Satpura (1999–2000) Madhya Pradesh

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Si No. Tiger Reserve (Year of Creation) State

28 Anamalai (2008–09) Tamil Nadu

29 Sitanadi (2008–09) Chhattisgarh
30 Satkosia (2008–09) Odisha
31 Kaziranga (2008–09) Assam
32 Achanakmar (2008–09) Chhattisgarh
33 Dandeli-Anshi Tiger Reserve(Kali) (2008–09) Karnataka

34 Sanjay (2008–09) Madhya Pradesh

35 Mudumalai (2007) Tamil Nadu

36 Nagarhole (2008–09) Karnataka
37 Parambikulam (2008–09) Kerala
38 Sahyadri (2009–10) Maharashtra

39 Biligiri Ranganatha Temple (2010–11) Karnataka

40 Kawal (2012–13) Telangana

41 Sathyamangalam (2013–14) Tamil Nadu
42 Mukandra Hills (2013–14) Rajasthan
43 Nawegaon (2013–14) Maharashtra

44 Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam (1982–83) Andhra Pradesh

45 Amrabad (2014) Telangana

46 Pilibhit (2014) Uttar Pradesh
47 Bor (2014) Maharashtra
48 Rajaji (2015) Uttarakhand
49 Orang (2016) Assam
50 Kamlang (2016) Arunachal Pradesh

51 Srivilliputhur - Megamalai (2021) Tamil Nadu

52 Ramgarh Vishdhari (2021) Rajasthan

Guru Ghasidas National Park and TomarPingla
53 Wildlife Sanctuary Chattisgarh
(2021)

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2. Ans: C
Explanation:
 National parks enjoy a greater degree of protection than sanctuaries. Certain
activities which are regulated in sanctuaries, such as grazing of livestock, are
prohibited in national parks.
 Wildlife sanctuaries can be created for a particular species (e.g., grizzled giant
squirrel wildlife sanctuary in Srivilliputhur, Tamil Nadu) whereas the national
park is not primarily focused on a particular species.
 The Central government can also declare a National park under certain conditions.
 A biosphere reserve is a term given to an area for the conservation of the resources
of the biosphere and the improvement of the relationship between man and the
environment.

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3. Ans: A
Explanation:
National Park:
 A national park has more restrictions as compared to a wildlife sanctuary.
 Their boundaries are fixed and defined.
 The main objective of a national park is to protect the natural environment of the
area and biodiversity conservation.
What is allowed and what is not allowed inside National Parks:
 Here, no human activity is allowed.
 Grazing of livestock and private tenurial rights are not permitted here.
 Species mentioned in the Schedules of the Wildlife Act are not allowed to be hunted
or captured.
 No person shall destroy, remove, or exploit any wildlife from a National Park or
destroy or damage the habitat of any wild animal or deprive any wild animal of its
habitat within a national park.
 They cannot be downgraded to the status of a ‘sanctuary’.
Declaration of National Parks:
 National parks can be declared both by the Central Government and State
governments. No alteration of the boundaries of a national park shall be made
except on a resolution passed by the State Legislature.
4. Ans: C
Explanation:
 As tiger reserves across the country count their big cats for the census held every
four years, the inaccessible forests in Naxal-infested areas and the difficult terrain
in the Northeast — where the census is being conducted for the first time — are
posing unusual challenges to authorities. The authorities use Tiger Scat samples.
 Tiger scat samples are usually found near water bodies frequented by them and
have to be in un tampered condition to be eligible for DNA testing. Scat analysis is
also considered one of the best non-invasive genetic monitoring of the tiger
population. During the tiger estimation exercise, scats were collected to enable
DNA profiling of tigers in the reserve.
 The only way tigers in the Dibang valley and the Namdhapa reserves in Arunachal
Pradesh, the Dhampa reserve in Mizoram and the forests of Jharkhand and
Chhattisgarh will be counted.

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5. Ans: C
Explanation:
Core Zone
 The core area is kept free of biotic disturbances and forestry operations, where
collection of minor forest produce, grazing, human disturbances are not allowed
within.
 These areas are required to be kept for the purposes of tiger conservation, without
affecting the rights of the Scheduled Tribes or such other forest dwellers.
 These areas are notified by the State Government in consultation with an Expert
Committee (constituted for that purpose).
Buffer Zone
 The Act defines buffer zone as the area peripheral to the critical tiger habitat or
core area providing supplementary habitat for dispersing tigers, besides offering
scope for co-existence of human activity (tribals).
 The limits of such areas are determined with the concerned Gram Sabha and an
Expert Committee constituted for the purpose.
6. Ans: C
Explanation:
 Why in news: Cabinet approves to circulate Model Tenancy Act,2021 to State and
UTs
 The Model Tenancy Act will provide a model for urban and rural properties, as
well as a template for residential and commercial properties. Hence, statement 1
is correct.
 In case of dispute between landlord and tenant, a rent authority, or a rent court
would be available for speedy resolution.
 A tenant will have to submit a security deposit of two months for residential
premises. For commercial property, a tenant will have to pay six-month rent.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
 The prescribed rent agreement requires both the tenant and the landlord to
submit their Aadhaar numbers and attach self-attested copies of the card with the
form.
 The Model Tenancy Act aims to enforce a transparent ecosystem for renting
premises, minimize litigations and reduce tenant-landlord disputes.It is not
focusing on real estate sector in the country..
 The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016, (RERA) is an act passed
by the Indian parliament. The RERA seeks to protect the interests of home buyers

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and also boost investments in the real estate sector. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect
 The tenant cannot sublet a part of or the whole property to someone else.
 Further, the Act says if a landlord has fulfilled all the conditions stated in the rent
agreement - giving notice period, etc, and the tenant fails to vacate the premises
on the expiration of the period of tenancy or termination of tenancy, the landlord
is entitled to double the monthly rent for two months and four times after that.
 Under this Act, the landowner would give a notice in writing three months before
revising rent. The landlord cannot hike the rent in the middle of the tenure.
 According to the MTA Act, a landowner cannot cut power and water supply in
case of a dispute with the tenant.
 The Act states that a landowner cannot enter the rented premises without 24-
hour prior notice to carry out repairs or replacement.
 Landlord will be responsible to repair structural damages and undertake
measures like whitewashing walls and painting doors and windows.
 Source: https://www.financialexpress.com/industry/model-tenancy-act-heres-how-
this-act-will-affect-the-rental-real-estate-scenario-in-maharashtra/2305745/
7. Ans: C
Explanation:
 Why in News: Recently, the world's first Genetically Modified (GM) rubber plant
developed by Rubber Research Institute was planted in Assam. Hence answer is C
 The GM rubber has additional copies of the gene MnSOD, or manganese-
containing superoxide dismutase, inserted in the plant, which is expected to tide
over the severe cold conditions during winter — a major factor affecting the
growth of young rubber plants in the north eastern region of India.
 The GM rubber plant, which is the first of its kind developed specifically for the
northeast and is expected to flourish in the region’s climatic conditions.
 Natural rubber is a native of warm humid Amazon forests and it is not naturally
suited for the cold conditions in this part of the nation. RRII has earlier developed
two high-yielding hybrid clones of rubber that are adapted to the climatic
conditions of the North -East region through breeding and selection. This is the
first time any GM crop is developed exclusively.
 The growth of young rubber is halted during the winter months, which are also
characterized by progressive drying of the soil. This is the reason for the long
immaturity period of this crop in the region. The MnSOD gene has the ability to

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protect plants from the adverse effects of extreme environmental stresses such as
cold and drought etc.
8. Ans: A
Explanation:
 The Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, virtually launched the SAGE
(Seniorcare Aging Growth Engine) initiative and SAGE portal for elderly persons.
 The SAGE portal will be a ‚one-stop access‛ of elderly care products and services
by credible start-ups. Hence, statement 1 is correct
 The start-ups will be selected on the basis of innovative products and services,
which they should be able to provide across sectors such as health, housing, care
centers, apart from technological access linked to finances, food and wealth
management, and legal guidance.
 The SAGE project aims to identify, evaluate, verify, aggregate, and deliver
products, solutions and services directly to the stakeholders.
 The Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment will act as a facilitator, enabling
the elderly to access the products through these identified start-ups. Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect
 India’s elderly population is on the rise, and as per surveys, the share of elders, as a
percentage of the total population in the country, is expected to increase from
around 7.5% in 2001 to almost 12.5% by 2026, and surpass 19.5% by 2050. There
is an urgent need to create a more robust elder care ecosystem in India, especially
in the post-COVID phase.
 The SAGE project aims to identify, evaluate, verify, aggregate, and deliver
products, solutions and services directly to the stakeholders. The Ministry will act
as a facilitator, enabling the elderly to access the products through these identified
start-ups. India’s elderly population is on the rise, and as per surveys, the share of
elders, as a percentage of the total population in the country, is expected to
increase from around 7.5% in 2001 to almost 12.5% by 2026, and surpass 19.5% by
2050. There is an urgent need to create a more robust elder care ecosystem in
India, especially in the post-COVID phase.

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9. Ans: D
Explanation:
What’s in the News?
 A new technology developed by a professor at the Chemical Engineering
Department in Jadavpur University, Kolkata can reduce costs for low and medium
scale enterprises.
New Technology:
 The new technology uses a combination of Electro coagulation and Electro flotation
Enhanced Membrane Module (ECEFMM) techniques for wastewater treatment.
 Electro coagulation is a waste water treatment technique that uses electrical
charge for changing the particle surface charge, allowing suspended matter to
form aggregates.
 Electro flotation is the separation of suspended particles from water using
hydrogen and oxygen bubbles generated by passing electricity through water.
Hence, both the statements are incorrect.
 The innovation being an economically feasible wastewater treatment technology
(both in terms of capital and recurring investment) for low-scale and medium
enterprises, has a good market potential.
 Moreover, unlike other conventional treatments, it can break the highly stable oil-
water emulsion through electric discharge and simultaneously separates oil from
water with high efficiency.
 The technology was developed with support from the Advanced Manufacturing
Technologies programme of the Department of Science & Technology (DST),
Government of India.
 Benefits of the new technology:
 Requires less manpower.
 Does not need high-end technical adequacy for its operation.
 Low cost
 Recovered oil can be further used as an industrial burner oil, furnace oil, mould
oil, hydraulic oil and so on.
 Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1726576
10. Ans: B
Explanation:
 Why in news:By ruling that ‚terrorist activity‛ cannot be broadly defined to include
ordinary penal offences, the three Delhi High Court orders granting bail to three
student-activists marks a crucial moment.

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Key Provisions of the Unlawful Activities and Prevention Act, 2019:
 Punishment: it has the death penalty and life imprisonment as the highest
punishments.
 Both Indian and foreign nationals can be charged. It will be applicable to the
offenders in the same manner even if the crime is committed on foreign land,
outside India.
 Chargesheet: The investigating agency can file a charge sheet in a maximum of
180 days after the arrests and the duration can be extended further after
intimating the court.
 The 2004 amendment added the “terrorist act" to the list of offences to ban
organisations for terrorist activities, under which 34 outfits were banned. Till
2004, “unlawful" activities referred to actions related to secession and cession of
territory.
 2019 Amendment: It empowers to designate individuals as terrorists on certain
grounds provided in the Act, only organisations could be designated earlier.
 The Act empowers the Director-General of the National Investigation Agency
(NIA) to grant approval of seizure or attachment of property when the case is
investigated by the said agency.
 The Act empowers the officers of the NIA, of the rank of Inspector or above, to
investigate cases of terrorism in addition to those conducted by the DSP or ACP or
above rank officer in the state
 Personal/financial information of an individual designated as a terrorist can be
shared with various Western agencies.
 It allows for the seizure of properties that may be connected with terrorism.
 It defines terrorist acts to include acts committed within the scope of any of the
nine treaties listed in a schedule to the Act. Some of the treaties include:
 Convention for the Suppression of Terrorist Bombings (1997), and
 Convention against Taking of Hostages (1979)
 Convention for Suppression of Acts of Nuclear Terrorism (2005)
 UAPA cases are tried by special courts.
UAPA More Stringent than Other Laws
 It is rare for an accused to get bail easily in a case under UAPA.
 The court can refuse bail if in its opinion the case is “prima facie” true.
 An accused cannot seek anticipatory bail and the period of investigation can be
extended to 180 days from 90 days on the public prosecutor’s request — which

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means the accused has virtually no chance of getting bail by default. Hence,
statement B is incorrect.
 Source: PRS
11. Ans: A
Explanation:
Important aspects of New Phase of Revolutionary Movement in Bengal:
 There was a large-scale participation of young women especially under Surya Sen.
 There was an emphasis on group action aimed at organs of the colonial State,
instead of individual action. The objective was to set an example before the youth
and to demoralize the bureaucracy.
 Some of the earlier tendency towards Hindu religiosity was shed, and there were
no more rituals like oath-taking, and this facilitated participation by Muslims.
Surya Sen had Muslims such as Satar, Mir Ahmed, Fakir Ahmed Mian and Tunu
Mian in his group.
There were some drawbacks too:
a) The movement retained some conservative elements.
b) It failed to evolve broader socio-economic goals.
c) Those working with Swarajists failed to support the cause of Muslim peasantry
against zamindars in Bengal.
12. Ans: C
Explanation:
Bardoli Satyagraha:
 The Bardolitaluqa in Surat district had witnessed intense politicisation after the
coming of Gandhi on the national political scene. The movement sparked off in
January 1926when the authorities decided to increase the land revenue by30 per
cent. The Congress leaders were quick to protest and a Bardoli Inquiry Committee
was set up to go into the issue. The committee found the revenue hike to be
unjustified.
 In February 1926, Vallabhbhai Patel was called to lead the movement. The women
of Bardoli gave him the title of ‚Sardar‛. Under Patel, the Bardoli peasants resolved
to refuse payments of the revised assessment until the Government appointed an
independent tribunal or accepted the current amount as full payment.
 To organise the movement, Patel setup 13 chhavanis or workers’ camps in the
taluqa. Bardoli Satyagraha Patrika was brought out to mobilise public opinion. An
intelligence wing was set up to make sure all the tenants followed the movement’s

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resolutions. Those who opposed the movement faced a social boycott. Special
emphasis was placed on the mobilisation of women.
 K.M.Munshi and Lalji Naranji resigned from the Bombay Legislative Council in
support of the movement. By August 1928, massive tension had built up in the
area. There were prospects of a railway strike in Bombay .Gandhi reached Bardoli
to stand by in case of any emergency.
 The Government was looking for a graceful withdrawal now. It set the condition
that first the enhanced rent be paid by all the occupants (not actually done). Then,
a committee went into the whole affair and found the revenue hike to be unjustified
and recommended a rise of 6.03 per cent only.
13. Ans: D
Explanation:
 All India Federation consisting of Provinces and Princely states. It provided for
division of Subjects based on Centre, Provincial and Concurrent List.
 Residuary powers were with the Governor General.
 Princely States did not join the Federation.
 Diarchy was abolished and Provincial autonomy was introduced. Diarchy provision
in the Centre was introduced. Federal Subjects were divided into Reserved and
Transferred. (This provision never came to being.)
 Provinces were allowed to act as independent units of administration.
 The Governor was required to act under the advice of the ministers responsible to
the provincial legislature. This provision came into force in 1937 and repealed in
1939.
 Bicameralism (Upper House-Lower House): It came into being in six out of 11
provinces. Bengal, Bombay, Madras, United Province, Bihar and Assam. Upper
House: Legislative Council; Lower House: Legislative Assembly.
 Separate Electorate: It was introduced for the depressed classes and Women.
(Provision of Separate electorate extended)
 Secretary of States was provided with team of Advisors. Council of India was
abolished.
 Extended Franchise: 10% of people got the voting rights.
 Reserve Bank of India to be established for controlling currency and credit,
 Establishment of a Federal Court. Was established in 1937.

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14. Ans: B
Explanation:
 The Kakori Train Conspiracy was political robbery and the incident took place at
the small town Karori which was only 16 km away from the Lucknow on August 9,
1925.
 It was organised by revolutionary organisation i.e., Hindustan Republican
Association (HRA) under the leadership of Ram Prasad Bismil and supported by
Ashfaqulla Khan, Rajendra Lahiri, Chandrashekhar Azad, SachindraBakshi, Keshab
Chakravarty, Manmathnath Gupta, Murari Lal Gupta (Murari Lal Khanna),
Mukundi Lal (Mukundi Lal Gupta) and Banwari Lal.
15. Ans: A
Explanation:
Linlithgow announced the August Offer (August 1940) which proposed:
 Dominion status as the objective for India;
 Expansion of viceroy’s executive council which would have a majority of Indians
(who would be drawn from major political parties);
 Setting up of a constituent assembly after the war where mainly Indians would
decide the constitution
 According to their social, economic and political conceptions, subject to fulfillment
of the obligation of the government regarding defence, minority rights, treaties
with States, all India services; and
 No future constitution to be adopted without the consent of minorities.
16. Ans: A
Explanation:
Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary (Karnataka)
 It is a protected area and tiger reserve as part of the Project Tiger
 The sanctuary is surrounded by the scenic hills and steep slopes of the
Mullayanagiri, Hebbegiri, Gangegiri and Bababudangiri hills. 1,930 metres (6,330
ft) Mullayanagiri peak in the Baba BudanGiri Range near the southeast edge of the
sanctuary is the highest peak between the Himalayas and the Nilgiris.
 The 551 ft (168 m) high Hebbe Falls are in the eastern part of the sanctuary. The
Manikyadhara Falls is located on the nearby sacred Baba BudanGiri Hill, The
tributaries of the Bhadra river flow west through the sanctuary.
 Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary is the biodiversity hotspot. Most of the area consists the
wet deciduous forest, moist deciduous forest and green forests.

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 An estimated 33 tigers are found in Bhadra. Other animals in the sanctuary include
elephant, Indian Leopard, gaur, sloth bear, wild boar, black leopard, jungle cat,
jackal, wild dog, sambar, spotted deer, barking deer, mouse deer, common langur,
bonnet macaque, slender loris, small Indian civet, common palm civet, pangolin,
porcupine, flying squirrel and the Malabar giant squirrel.
17. Ans: D
Explanation:
 Dugong or the sea cow is the State animal of Andaman & Nicobar Islands. This
endangered marine species survives on seagrass and other aquatic vegetation
found in the area. It is the only herbivorous mammal that is strictly marine and is
the only extant species in the family Dugongidae. Distributed in shallow tropical
waters in the Indo-Pacific region, in India, they are found in the Gulf of Kutch, Gulf
of Mannar, Palk Bay, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
 Dugongs are protected in India under Schedule 1 of the Indian Wildlife Act 1972
which bans the killing and purchasing of dugong meat. IUCN status: Vulnerable.
India’s first Dugong conservation reserve will be built in Tamil Nadu for the
conservation of Dugong, a marine mammal.
18. Ans: D
Explanation:
 From this year, India would embark on a scientific enumeration of dolphins - to be
carried out every three years like the tiger census - across Indus, Ganga, and
Brahmaputra basins together to ascertain the exact number for the national
aquatic animal.
 The pan-India enumeration, part of the wider "Project Dolphin‛. River dolphins are
indicator of a healthy river and act as an umbrella species of the river ecosystem.
There are currently three species of the river dolphins inhabiting India, Ganges
River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica), irrawady dolphin and the Indus River
Dolphin (Platanista minor).
 The umbrella species are the species which indirectly involve in the conservation of
many other species at the ecosystem or landscape level. Umbrella species are
species that are selected as representatives of their ecosystem when conservation
plans are being made. By protecting these organisms, other species that are a part
of their ecosystem will also benefit under the same conservation "umbrella." An
umbrella species is usually chosen to make ecosystem management strategies
easier in areas where there are a large number of species of concern or where the
true biodiversity of an ecosystem isn’t known.

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19. Ans: B
Explanation:
 Bhitarkanika national park: The area is also been designated as second Ramsar site
of the State after the Chilika Lake.It hosts many mangrove species, and is the
second largest mangrove ecosystem in India. Ramsar Convention site since 2002.
It is home to Saltwater Crocodile (Crocodylusporosus), White Crocodile, Indian
python, King Cobra, black ibis, darters and many other species of flora and fauna.
The sanctuary is the second largest mangrove ecosystem in India. Bhitarkanika
is located in the estuary of Brahmani, Baitarani, Dhamra, and Mahanadi
river systems. It is located in Kendrapara district of Odisha.
 It is one of Odisha’s finest biodiversity hotspots and is famous for its mangroves,
migratory birds, turtles, estuarine crocodiles, and countless creeks.
 It is said to house 70% of the country’s estuarine or saltwater
crocodiles, conservation of which was started way back in 1975.
20. Ans: A
Explanation:
 Alpha diversity (α-diversity) is the mean species diversity in sites or habitats at a
local scale. It refers to the diversity of species found in a particular area or
ecosystem, and is usually expressed by the number of species in that ecosystem
 beta diversity (β-diversity or true beta diversity) is the ratio between regional and
local species diversity. Beta diversity: It refers to the comparison of the diversity of
species between two or more ecosystems, usually measured as the change in the
number of species between the ecosystems
 gamma diversity (γ-diversity) is the total species diversity in a landscape. Gamma
diversity: It is the measure of the overall diversity for the different ecosystems in a
region. It is highly subjective because of different perceptions about the boundaries
of the region
21. Ans: C
Explanation:
 Why in news: Maharashtra Cabinet has passed an action plan to protect and
preserve trees older than 50 years in urban areas by terming them heritage trees.
 Under the proposed amendment, a tree with an estimated age of 50 years or more
shall be defined as a heritage tree. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
 It may belong to specific species, which will be notified from time to time.

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 Experts believe that in addition to the age, the state climate change department
should also consider a tree’s rarity, its botanical, historical, religious,
mythological and cultural importance in defining a heritage tree.
 The local Tree Authority will have to ensure tree census to be carried out every
five years along with counting of heritage trees. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
 The most common method of determining the age of the tree is
Dendrochronology – or tree-ring dating also called growth rings. Hence,
statement 3 is correct.
 Each year, roughly a tree adds to its girth, the new growth is called a tree ring.
By counting the rings of a tree, the age can be determined.
 However, the process is invasive. To analyse the rings, core samples are extracted
using a borer that’s screwed into the tree and pulled out, bringing with it a straw-
size sample of wood.
 The hole in the tree is then sealed to prevent disease.
 Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-maharashtra-govts-
proposed-amendment-for-protection-of-heritage-trees-7354594/
22. Ans: D
Explanation:
 Why in news: The Interpol has launched a new global database named “I-Familia” to
identify missing persons through family DNA and help the police solve cold cases
in member countries.
 I-Familia is a global database launched to identify missing persons through family
DNA. It will help the police to solve cases in member countries.
 Interpol applies cutting-edge scientific research and uses the DNA of relatives to
identify missing persons or unidentified human remains around the world.
 DNA kinship matching is used mostly in cases where a direct sample of the missing
person is not available.
 I-Familia has three components: a dedicated global database to host the DNA
profiles provided by relatives, held separately from any criminal data; DNA
matching software called Bonaparte, developed by Dutch company Smart Research;
and interpretation guidelines developed by Interpol. The processing of DNA data
was carried out via secure communication channels. ‚Family members must give
their consent for their data to be used for international searching. There is no
nominal data attached to the profile, which is submitted in the form of an
alphanumerical code.

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 Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/global-database-to-identify-
missing-persons-launched/article34740859.ece
23. Ans: A
Explanation:
 Why in news: German agrochemicals major Bayer has commercially launched first-
ever yellow watermelon variety called ‚Yellow Gold 48‛ in India under Seminis
brand.
 Yellow Gold 48 have enhanced yield potential, better disease & pest tolerance and
higher returns which can benefit watermelon growers.
 Yellow Gold 48 variety is best suited for cultivation during October to February.
Harvest can be done from April onwards after which it will be available in market
until mid-July. It will also help in growing demand for exotic fruits. It is the first
of its kind yellow flesh watermelon which have moderate to good plant type. It has
dark green rind with slight stripes and orange yellow flesh colour. Average weight
of the fruit is 2.5 -3 kg.
 Source: https://www.livemint.com/industry/agriculture/yellow-watermelon-variety-
introduced-by-bayer-in-india-11624287647051.html
24. Ans: B
Explanation:
 Why in News: Recently Rajnath Singh visited the Karwar Naval Base in Karnataka
to review the progress of ongoing infrastructure development under ‘Project
Seabird’.
 It is the largest naval infrastructure project for India.The project aims for creation
of a naval base at Karwar on the west coast of India. Hence, statement 1 is
incorrect.

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 It is a $3 billion decade-long project.
 Upon completion provide the Indian Navy with its largest naval base on the west
coast. And Also the largest naval base east of the Suez Canal. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
 AECOM under Defence ministry will manage and oversee the planning, design,
contracting, construction and acceptance of the entire works, including
construction of a new Naval Air Station.
 INS Kadamba is currently the third-largest Indian naval base and is expected to
become the largest naval base in the eastern hemisphere after completion of
expansion Phase IIB. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
 Construction of naval air station is one of the major highlights of the second phase.
 Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/topic/karwar-seabird-project
25. Ans: C
Explanation:
 Why In News: Recently, Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB) has launched its
programme in Bhutan.
 TIWB is a joint initiative of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
and the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD). Hence
statement 1 is correct
 It was launched in July 2015, with an aim to transfer technical know-how and
skills to developing countries’ tax auditors, as well as share general audit practices.
It is designed to support developing countries to build tax audit capacity by
facilitating well-targeted, specialised tax audit assistance.
 India has been chosen as the Partner Administration and has provided Tax Expert
for this programme
 TIWB Programmes complement the broader efforts of the international
community to strengthen co-operation on tax matters and contribute to the
domestic resource mobilisation efforts of developing countries. Hence statement 2
is correct
26. Ans: B
Explanation:
 National Flag was unfurled by Indian Nationalists as a mark of defining British
Rule. At Chirala Perala (coastal Andhra Pradesh)/Baindur Flag agitation was
organized by Thota Narasaiah Naidu. He was beaten by Police mercilessly but
didn’t leave the flag even after falling unconscious.

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 ARAM IAS ACADEMY
 At Calicut, P. Krishna Pillai unfurled the National Flag –Here also agitators
brutally lathi-charged. At Surat, kids uniquely organized flag. When policemen
snatched away from their flag repeatedly they put on the flag as clothes & run on
the street.
27. Ans: B
Explanation:
 Individual Satyagraha was direct result of August Offer. August offer was brought
during critical period of war by British in 1940. Both Congress and Muslim League
rejected August Offer. Congress wished to launch Civil disobedience Movement, but
Gandhi saw the atmosphere against such a movement, he didn’t want hamper the
War efforts. However, Congress Socialist leaders and All India Kisan Sabha were in
favour of immediate struggle. Gandhi was convinced that British would not modify
their policy towards India. He decided to launch Individual Satyagraha.
Aims of Individual Satyagraha:
 to show that nationalist patience was not due to weakness
 To express people’s feeling that they are not interested in the war and that they
made distinction between Nazism and double autocracy that ruled in India
 To give another opportunity to the Government to accept congress demands
peacefully. The demand of the Satyagrahi was using freedom of Speech against the
war through an anti-war declaration. If government did not arrest the Satyagrahi,
he or she will move repeating it in villages and start march towards Delhi (‚Delhi
Chalo movement‛).
 Vinobha Bhave was first and Nehru was second to offer Satyagraha, by May’1941,
25000, people had been convicted for Satyagraha.
 Prakasam was the first prominent leader from South India to offer individual
satyagraha against the war effort in 1941.
28. Ans: C
Explanation:
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad:
 He was the first Minister of Education in Indian Government.
 He became the leader of Khilafat Movement. During which he came close to
Gandhiji.
 He worked for Hindu-Muslim unity through Al-Hilal newspaper.
 He became the youngest president of INC.
 He served as an INC President from 1940-1945.

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29. Ans: C
Explanation:
Resolution on Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Karachi Congress Session:
 Free speech and free press
 Right to form associations
 Right to assemble
 Universal adult franchise
 Equal legal rights irrespective of caste, creed and sex
 Neutrality of state in religious matters
 Free and compulsory primary education
 Protection to culture, language, script of minorities and linguistic groups
30. Ans: A
Explanation:
Gandhi’s Eleven Demands:
 Reduce expenditure on Army and civil services by50 per cent.
 Introduce total prohibition.
 Carry out reforms in Criminal Investigation Department (CID).
 Change Arms Act allowing popular control of issue of firearms licence.
 Release political prisoners.
 Accept Postal Reservation Bill.
 Specific Bourgeois Demands
 Reduce rupee-sterling exchange ratio to 1s 4d
 Introduce textile protection.
 Reserve coastal shipping for Indians.
 Specific Peasant Demands
 Reduce land revenue by 50 per cent.
 Abolish salt tax and government’s salt monopoly.
31. Ans: C
Explanation:
 Genetic diversity serves as a way for populations to adapt to changing
environments. With more variation, it is more likely that some individuals in a
population will possess variations of alleles that are suited for the environment.
Those individuals are more likely to survive to produce offspring bearing that
allele.

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 ARAM IAS ACADEMY
 Genetic diversity reduces the recurrence of undesirable inherited traits. Genetic
diversity ensures that at least there are some survivors of a species left.
 Without genetic variation, a population cannot evolve in response to changing
environmental variables and, as a result, may face an increased risk of extinction.
For example, if a population is exposed to a new disease, selection will act on genes
for resistance to the disease if they exist in the population.
32. Ans: B
Explanation:
 White-rumped Vulture found in Gangetic plains of India. India is home to nine
species of vultures, but most of them face the danger of extinction. IUCN status:
critically endangered.
 Himalayan quail found in the state of Uttarakhand. The last population estimate
was less than 50 individuals. No sightings have been recorded since 1876. IUCN
status: critically endangered.
 Jerdons courser found in eastern ghats in the state of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana.
IUCN status: critically endangered
 The Great Indian Bustard (GIB), the State bird of Rajasthan, is considered India’s
most critically endangered bird. It is considered the flagship grassland
species, representing the health of the grassland ecology. Its population is
confined mostly to Rajasthan and Gujarat. Small populations occur
in Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. IUCN status: critically
endangered.
33. Ans: B
Explanation:
 The exercise called ‘Poonam Avlokan’ is also known as ‘Observation on a full moon
night’, as we get more light from the moon. The ‘Poonam Avlokan’ exercise started
in 2014, and the forest staff in the Asiatic lion landscape regularly patrolled the
respective administrative units on the full moon night. This exercise helps in
understanding the movement, the population structure and the distribution of the
Asiatic lions in the Gir Forest National Park.
34. Ans: B
Explanation:
 Sacred groves are the fine example of in-situ conservation. Sacred groves are
forest fragments, size varying between 0.5 - 500 hectare, which are protected by
religious communities and have a significant religious connotation for the
protecting community. Sacred groves are the mini forests with rich diversity.

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 Sacred groves act as an ideal centre for biodiversity conservation. Several plants
and animals that are threatened in the forest are still well conserved in some of the
sacred groves. It has been observed that several medicinal plants that are not to be
found in the forest are abundant in the sacred groves.Besides this, sacred groves in
urban landscapes act as "lungs" to the city as well, providing much needed
vegetation cover
 Hunting and logging are usually strictly prohibited within these patches.Other
forms of forest usage like honey collection and deadwood collection are
sometimes allowed on a sustainable basis.
 Umang Lai (literally, "Forest Deities"): A form of holy Sacred grove found
in Manipur. There are more than 365 Umang Lais, affiliated to the ancient
religion of Sanamahism, which exists in various regions scattered across
the Himalayan state of Manipur since ancient times. The holy as well as religious
festival of Lai Haraoba is celebrated especially in regards of these holy sacred
groves.
35. Ans: C
Explanation
 Horn bills are known as the 'farmers of forest' for playing a crucial role in
dispersing hundreds of fruit tree species in the forests. The presence
of hornbills indicates that the forest is not only prosperous but also balanced. This
is why hornbills are considered as an indicator species. IUCN status: vulnerable.
 Horn bill festival is celebrated in the state of Nagaland. The festival is named after
the Indian hornbill, the large and colourful forest bird which is displayed in the
folklore of most of the state's tribes.
36. Ans: C
Explanation:
 Why in News: Recently, the Defence Minister of India has approved the budgetary
support of Rs. 498.8 crore to the Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX)
Challenge for the next five years.
 The iDEX challenge was established by the Department of Defence Production
(DDP) under the Ministry of Defence.
 It promotes innovation and indigenisation in the aerospace and defence sector at
the start-up level and also provides financial support to start-ups, Micro, Small and
Medium Enterprises (MSME), individual innovators and partner incubators. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.

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 It is funded and managed by a Defence Innovation Organisation (DIO) formed as a
not for profit company as per Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013.Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
 Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/rajnath-singh-approves-
budgetary-support-of-nearly-499-crore-for-innovations-in-defence-
sector/article34804110.ece
37. Ans: A
Explanation:
 Why in News: Recently, Blue-Finned Mahseer has been moved to the ‘least concern’
status in the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List of
Endangered Species.
 The Blue-Finned Mahseer (Scientific Name: Tor khudree) is majorly found in the
rivers of the Deccan Plateau and mainly in Mota Mola river east of Pune. Hence,
Statement 1 is correct
 It is a migratory species which moves upstream during rains. It prefers clean, fast
flowing and well oxygenated waters. It acts as a freshwater ecosystem indicator
due to high sensitivity to dissolved oxygen levels, water temperature and climatic
changes. Hence, Statement 2 is correct
 Currently, it is classified as ‘least concern’ in the International Union for
Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List of Endangered Species. Hence,
statement 3 is incorrect.
 Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/blue-finned-mahseer-out-of-iucn-red-
list-7343295/
38. Ans: C
Explanation:
 Why in news: Article published on Healthcare in Yojana magazine.
 In September 1978, the International Conference on Primary Health Care was held
in Alma-Ata, USSR (now Almaty, Kazakhstan). The Declaration of Alma-Ata, co-
sponsored by the World Health Organization (WHO), is a brief document that
expresses "the need for urgent action by all governments, all health and
development workers, and the world community to protect and promote the health
of all the people of the world." It was the first international declaration stating the
importance of primary health care and outlining the world governments' role and
responsibilities to the health of the world's citizens.
 The principals proclaimed at the Alma Ata declaration(1978) on ‚Health for All‛
conference were as follows.

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 ARAM IAS ACADEMY
1. As per the declaration, Physical, Mental and Social wellbeing of Health is a
fundamental human right.
2. The gross inequality in the health status of both developed and underdeveloped
countries is unacceptable and is a common concern for all.
3. The people have right and duty to participate in planning personal and social
health care.
4. Governments have a responsibility for the health of their people which can be
fulfilled only by the provision of adequate health and social measures
5. Primary health care should be available to all sections of the society in all types
of country(underdeveloped, developing, developed)
6. All Countries should pass laws, formulate policies, declarations etc. to achieve
the goal of providing primary health care.
7. And certain amount from the military spending of all countries should be
utilized for providing affordable health carefacilities to their citizens.
39. Ans: A
Explanation:
 'Sankalp se Siddhi'- Village and Digital Connect Drive
 The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED)
operating under Ministry of Tribal Affairs recently launched the ―SANKALP SE
SIDDHI‖. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
 The 'Sankalp se Siddhi'- Village and Digital Connect drive aims at transforming the
tribal ecosystem in the country. Starting from 1 April 2021, Sankalp se Siddhi is a
100-day drive that will entail 150 teams visiting 10 villages each.Hence, statement
1 is correct.
 The main aim of this drive is to activate the Van Dhan Vikas Kendras (VDVKs) in
the villages. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
 It is to be noted that 10 teams in each region will be from TRIFED and State
Implementation Agencies/Mentoring Agencies/Partners. At least 100 villages in
each region and 1,500 villages in the country will be covered in the next 100 days.
 The teams visiting the villages will identify locations and shortlist the potential
Van Dhan Vikas Kendras for clustering as TRIFOOD, and SFURTI units as larger
enterprises. The teams will also identify tribal artisans and other groups to help
them gain access to larger markets through the Tribes India network- both
physical outlets and TribesIndia.com.
 Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1709433

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40. Ans: D
Explanation:
 According to Sage Patanjali, this is to be achieved by practice of eight fold path
known as Ashtanga Yoga. They are Yama, Niyama, Asana, Pranayama,
Pratyahara, Dharana, Dhyan and Samadhi. The eight limbs of Yoga
 Yama and Niyama: Yama are ethical disciplines and Niyama are the observations.
Thus, Yama and Niyama form the foundation of Yoga.
 Asana : Postures An Asana is meant to bring consciousness to particular regions
of the body so that the cells of those regions get activised to become more
sensitive and thus play a role in harmonising the whole human system.
 Prana: means energy in different forms or life force. In Pranayama, one extends,
prolongs or pauses in inhalation, exhalation and retention.
 Yama: means to extend and regulate, to be able to control. Man lives as long as
breath is there. Therefore, it is the Prana which controls breath and life..
 Pratyahara It means restraining or withdrawal of senses. There is no interest left
in external objects, resulting in total withdrawing towards the Self.
 Dharana: It is the state of total concentration where all the energies are
channelised to a single point. Future, past and present become one. Dharana,
Dhyan and Samadhi are known as Antaranga Sadhana (Internal Quest).
 Dhyan: In Dhyan, the dharana stage is prolonged or continued. Its reflection thus
becomes meditation. It is in this state that one achieves a pure conscious state,
paving the way for culmination into Samadhi – Super conscious state.
41. Ans: C
Explanation:
The following major decisions were taken at the Lahore session.
 Round Table Conference was to be boycotted.
 Complete independence was declared as the aim of the Congress.
 Congress Working Committee was authorised to launch a programme of civil
disobedience including non-payment of taxes and all members of legislatures were
asked to resign their seats.
 January 26, 1930 was fixed as the first Independence (Swarajya) Day, to be
celebrated everywhere.
 December 31, 1929, At midnight on the banks of River Ravi, the newly adopted
tricolour flag of freedom was hoisted by Jawaharlal Nehru amidst slogans of
Inquilab Zindabad.

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42. Ans: D
Explanation
 Those advocating entry into legislative councils came to be known as the
‘Swarajists. One section led by C.R. Das, Motilal Nehru and AjmalKhan wanted an
end to the boycott of legislative councils so that the nationalists could enter them
to expose the basic weaknesses of these assemblies and use these councils as an
arena of political struggle to arouse popular enthusiasm. They wanted, in other
words, to ‘end or mend’ these councils,i.e., if the government did not respond to the
nationalists’ demands, then they would obstruct the working of these councils.
 Swarajists’ proposal of ‘ending or mending’ the council was defeated at the at the
Gaya session of the Congress in December 1922.
43. Ans: D
Explanation
 Rising Communal Politics -The increasing communal tempo began to shape the
course of events. The protracted Hindu-Muslim tension, presence of reactionary
elements of both the communities within the party, which ostensibly professed
secularism, really created a difficult situation. The Hindus felt that their interests
were not safe in the hands of the Congress. The activities of the Hindu Mahasabha
also weakened the Swarajist position. The Muslim alienation from the Congress
became so marked that its erstwhile Muslim members fought elections as Muslims,
not as Swarajists.
 They totally relied on newspapers to carry their work and message in the Assembly
to the outside world
 Lure of Office- The lure of office proved to be another reason for the decline of the
Swarajists. They began their career with a bang by entering councils with the
declared objective of stiff resistance to the bureaucracy. The spirit of resistance
soon gave way to cooperation. V.J. Patel was elected President of the Assembly and
Motilal accepted membership of Skeen Commission. The Policy of unqualified
obstruction lost its appeal and the party showed signs of disintegration. In fact,
many of the Swarajists had no faith in the policy of Non-Cooperation. Having
entered the councils, they were not averse to enjoying its privileges. The Swarajist
leaders accepted offices and sat on various committees.
 The results of the elections of 1926 came as a rude shock to the Swarajists. Their
strength in the legislative bodies went down except in the Madras where their
success was signal. They suffered heavy losses everywhere. In the U.P., C.P. and
Punjab, the Swarajists were routed. In fact, on the eve of the 1926 elections, The

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 ARAM IAS ACADEMY
Swarajists had lost much of their ground. The party’s failure to support the peasant
cause in Bengal led to a loss of support of many members.
44. Ans: B
Explanation
Simon Commission’s Recommendation:
 It proposed the abolition of dyarchy and the establishment of representative
government in the provinces. The report proposed provincial autonomy in India
but rejected parliamentary responsibility at the centre. It accepted the idea of
federalism and sought to retain direct contact between the British crown and the
Indian states
 It also recommended that separate communal electorates be retained, but only
until tensions between Hindus and Muslims had died down.
45. Ans: C
Explanation:
 JP Narayan convened a meeting in Patna on 17 May 1934, which founded the Bihar
Congress Socialist Party. The Patna meeting gave a call for a socialist conference
which would be held in connection to the Congress Annual Conference. At this
conference, held in Bombay October 22–23 October 1934, they formed a new All
India party, the Congress Socialist Party.
 CSP advocated decentralized socialism in which co-operatives, trade unions,
independent farmers, and local authorities would hold a substantial share of the
economic power.
 Many communists joined the CSP, it adopted Marxism in 1936. They had a
conference on the sidelines of the Faizpur Conference and then propounded a
doctrine that was aimed to transform the Indian National Congress into an anti-
imperialist front.
46. Ans: B
Explanation:
1. Water hyacinth clogs lakes and riversides and threatens the survival of many
aquatic species.
2. This is common in Indian plains.
3. Water hyacinth is considered invasive throughout the world because it grows
rapidly and can form thick layers over the water.
4. These mats shade out the other aquatic plants.
 An exotic species refers to a plant species or an animal species that is non-native.
It is introduced into an area where it does not occur naturally. The introduction of

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 ARAM IAS ACADEMY
the species may be deliberate or accidental. When such species land in new places,
they breed extra fast due to absence of any enemy and often wipe out the native
species already present there.
47. Ans: A
Explanation:
 Cryopreservation is the method of keeping the live cells, tissues and other
biological samples in a deep freeze at sub-zero temperatures for the storage or
preservation. Cryopreservation is the only ex situ conservation method for long-
term preservation of species that cannot be stored in seed banks. It is particularly
useful for conserving vegetative propagated crops. Cryopreservation is the storage
of material at ultra-low temperature of liquid nitrogen and essentially involves
suspension of all metabolic processes and activities.
 Ex situ method will enhance the probability of reproductive success for endangered
species. It involves the maintenance of genetic variation (Genetic Conservation)
away from its original location.
 In situ method helps in the multiplication of the species through the process of
evolution and adaptation. It aims to enable biodiversity to maintain itself within the
context of the ecosystem.
48. Ans: D
Explanation:
The following two criteria to qualify as a hotspot:
 It must have at least 1,500 vascular plants as endemics which are to say, it must
have a high percentage of plant life found nowhere else on the planet. A hotspot, in
other words, is irreplaceable.
 It has to have lost at least 70% of its original habitat. In other words, it must be
threatened.
49. Ans: C
Explanation:
 Speciation is generally a function of time, unlike temperate regions subjected to
frequent glaciations in the past, tropical latitudes have remained relatively
undisturbed for millions of years and thus, had a long evolutionary time for species
diversification
 Tropical environments, unlike temperate ones, are less seasonal, relatively more
constant and predictable. Such constant environments promote niche specialisation
and lead to a greater species diversity

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 There is more solar energy available in the tropics, which contributes to higher
productivity; this in turn might contribute indirectly to greater diversity.
50. Ans: B
Explanation:
There are major four biodiversity hotspots in India:
 Himalaya: Includes the entire Indian Himalayan region (and that falling in
Pakistan, Tibet, Nepal, Bhutan, China, and Myanmar).
 Indo-Burma: Includes entire North-eastern India, except Assam and Andaman
group of Islands (and Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia, and southern
China)
 Western Ghats and Sri Lanka: Includes entire Western Ghats (and Sri Lanka).
 Sundalands: Includes Nicobar group of Islands (and Indonesia, Malaysia,
Singapore, Brunei, Philippines).
51. Ans: D
Explanation:
 Mission "One Nation One Standard" would make India the leader in setting global
benchmarks in setting standards. This mission was established in 2019 to ensure
quality products and services to consumers in the country. While all areas of
production and services be included in this mission, bringing a national
uniformity and standardization in all kinds of public procurement and
tendering can be an immediate deliverable. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
would explore international partnerships and associations to achieve synergy in
the field. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
 To attain the One Nation One Standard vision, BIS launched the Standard
Developing Organization (SDO) recognition scheme.Indian Railways Research
Design & Standards Organization(RDSO) has become the nation’s first institution
to be declared as Standard Developing Organization(SDO) under the “One Nation

One Standard” mission. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

 RDSO is the sole R&D Wing of the Ministry of Railways. It was founded by
integrating the Central Standards Office (CSO) and the Railway Testing and
Research Centre (RTRC) into a single unit in 1957.
 The SDO recognition is valid for 3 years and will require renewal after completion
of the validity period. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
 Source:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1723360

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52. Ans: C
Explanation:
 Why in news: IIT- Ropar has recently developed a device named AmbiTag.
 Indian Institute of Technology, Ropar (IIT Ropar) in Punjab has developed a first-
of-its-kind IoT device – AmbiTag that records real-time ambient temperature
during the transportation of perishable products, vaccines and even body organs
and blood.
 Hence, statement 1 is correct.
 AmbiTAG is shaped as USB device. It continuously records temperature of its
immediate surroundings. It can detect temperatures ‚from -40 to +80 degrees‛ in
any time zone for 90 days on a single charge unlike other devices available in
market that record data only for duration of 30- 60 days. Recorded data can be
retrieved by connecting USB with any computer.Hence, statement 2 is correct
 Ambitag was developed under Technology Innovation Hub – AWaDH which stands
for ‚Agriculture and Water Technology Development Hub‛ and its Startup
ScratchNest. AWaDH is a research center at IIT Ropar. It was established with
support of Department of Science & Technology (DST) and Science & Engineering
Research Board (SERB). It carries out extensive research in agriculture and water.
Applications of AmbiTag;
 Logger recorded temperature that will further help to know whether particular
item transported from anywhere in world is still usable or perished because of
temperature variation.
 This information is significant for transportation of vaccines including Covid-19
vaccine, organs and blood transportation.
 Apart from perishable items like vegetables, meat and dairy products it can
monitor temperature of animal semen during transit.
53. Ans: D
Explanation:
 Why in news: The 8th International Nitrogen Initiative Conference (INI2020) was
scheduled to convene in Berlin, Germany, from 3-7 May 2020. But, due to the
pandemic it was cancelled last year and was held recently- virtually.
 The International Nitrogen Initiative (INI) was set up in 2003 under the
sponsorship of Scientific Committee on Problems of the Environment (SCOPE) and
the International Geosphere-Biosphere Program (IGBP).Hence, statement 1 is
incorrect.

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 It is a triennial event that brings together scientists from around the world dealing
with reactive nitrogen compounds in agriculture, industry, traffic, soil, water, and
air. The program is currently a sustained partner of Future Earth. The United
Nations (UN) Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are the main focus of the
eighth triennial conference of the International Nitrogen Initiative (INI). Hence,
statement 2 is incorrect.
The key aims of the INI are to:
 Optimize nitrogen’s beneficial role in sustainable food production
 Minimize nitrogen’s negative effects on human health and the environment
resulting from food and energy production. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Nitrogen:
 Nitrogen, which is a vital macronutrient for most plants, is the most abundant
element in the atmosphere.
 A little over 78% of dry air on Earth is nitrogen. But atmospheric nitrogen, or
dinitrogen, is un reactive and cannot be utilised by plants directly.
 Therefore, nitrogen-fixing bacteria like rhizobia live symbiotically with leguminous
plants, providing nitrogen to the plant and soil in the form of reactive compounds
like ammonia and nitrate.
 Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/pollution/eighth-global-nitrogen-
conference-focuses-on-sustainable-development-goals-77186
54. Ans: B
Explanation:
 Why in news: Niti Aayog has released its third edition of SDG India Index, 2021.
SDG India Index
 The index measures the progress at the national and sub-national level in the
country’s journey towards meeting the Global Goals and targets.
 It has been successful as an advocacy tool to propagate the messages of
sustainability, resilience, and partnerships, as well.
 From covering 13 Goals, 39 targets, and 62 indicators in the first edition in 2018-
19 to 17 Goals, 54 targets and 100 indicators in the second; this third edition of the
index covers 17 Goals, 70 targets, and 115 indicators.
 Highlights of 2021 report:
At the national level:
 Positives: The country’s overall SDG score improved by 6 points—from 60 in 2019
to 66 in 2020–21, mainly driven by excellent performance on Goal 6 (Clean Water
and Sanitation) and Goal 7(Affordable and Clean Energy).

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 Poor performance: there has been a major decline in the areas of industry,
innovation, and infrastructure (Goal 9) as well as decent work and economic
growth (Goal 8).
 Currently, there are no states in the aspirant and achiever category; 15 states/UTs
are in the performer category, and 22 states/UTs in the front runner category.
State/UT performance:
 Top performers- states: Kerala retained its position (score 72) followed by Tamil
Nadu and Himachal Pradesh, both scoring 72.
 Top-performing UTs: Chandigarh maintained its top spot among the UTs with a
score of 79, followed by Delhi (68).
 Worst performers: Bihar (52), Jharkhand (56), and Assam (57).
 Top gainers in comparison to 2019-20: Mizoram, Haryana, and Uttarakhand with
an increase of 12, 10, and 8 points, respectively.
55. Ans: B
Explanation:
 Why in news: the Union Cabinet has approved a plan to corporatize the Ordnance
Factory Board (OFB).
 The Ordnance Factory Board (OFB), the first of whose industrial establishments
was set up in 1801.
 OFB consisting of the Indian Ordnance Factories is a government agency under
the control of the department of defence production (DDP).It is engaged in
research, development, production, testing, marketing and logistics of a product
range in the areas of air, land and sea systems. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and
2 is correct.
 OFB comprises 41 ordnance factories, nine training institutes, three regional
marketing centres and four regional controllers of safety, which are spread all
across the country.
 Headquarters is located in Kolkata.
 Source:https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/ordnance-factory-board-
dissolved-7542780/
56. Ans: A
Explanation
 When the All India Muslim League was formed in 1906 and the British announced
separate electorates for Muslims under the Morley Minto Reforms. As a result of
these developments, Hindu leaders realised the need to come together to form an
organisation that would safeguard their interests. In April 1925 the Sarvadeshak

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(all India) Hindu Mahasabha was formally established and all the regional
organisations brought under it. In April 1921 it changed its name to Akhil Bharat
Hindu Mahasabha.
 The Hindu Mahasabha did not support the Gandhian Indian freedom movement
against British rule in India.
57. Ans: D
Explanation
 Round Table Conference was for the first time that the Indians and the British were
meeting as ‘equals’. The first conference started on November 12th, 1930.
 The Second Round table conference was failed due to the Communal
representation. The session got deadlocked on the question of the minorities. All
minorities came together in a ‚Minorities’ Pact‛. Gandhi fought desperately against
this concerted move to make all constitutional progress conditional on the solving
of this issue.
 The recommendations of second round table conference were published in a White
Paper in 1933 and later discussed in the British Parliament. The recommendations
were analysed and the Government of India Act of 1935 was passed on its basis.
58. Ans: C
Explanation
 Vital-Vidhvansak (Destroyer of Brahmanical or Ceremonial Pollution) was the first
monthly journal to have the untouchable people as its target audience. It was
published by Gopal Baba Walangkar
 Jyotiba Phule wrote Gulamgiri. It was written in 1873 by JyotiraoGovindrao Phule
or Mahatma Jyotiba Phule. He dedicated his book Gulamgiri to the American
movement to free slaves, as the condition of black slaves in America was similar to
that of the people of lower castes in India.
 MookNayak (Mute Hero - 1920) and Bahishkrit Bharat (India Ostracised - 1927)
were two Marathi journals edited by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.
59. Ans: C
Explanation:
General elections 1937:
 Provincial elections were held in British India in 1936-37 as mandated by the
Government of India Act 1935.
 Elections were held in eleven provinces – Madras, Central Provinces, Bihar, Orissa,
United Provinces, Bombay Presidency, Assam, NWFP, Bengal, Punjab and Sindh.
 The final results of the elections were declared in February 1937.

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 The Indian National Congress emerged in power in eight of the provinces – the
three exceptions being Bengal, Punjab, and Sindh.
 In 6 provinces formed single party government and two provinces it formed
government in coalition form.
 The All-India Muslim League failed to form the government in any province.
Result of Election 1937:
 The Unionist Party under Sikander Hyat Khan formed the government in Punjab
with 95 out of 175 seats. The Congress won 18 seats and the Akali Dal, 10.
 In Bengal, though the Congress was the largest party (with 54 seats), The Krishak
Praja Party of A. K. Fazlul Huq (with 36 seats) was able to form a coalition
government.
 The Sind United Party emerged the leader with 22 seats, and the Congress secured
8 seats.
60. Ans: B
Explanation:
Gandhiji’s Principle of Struggle :
S-T-S strategy:
 His non-violent Satyagraha involved peaceful violation of specific laws.
 He resorted to mass courting arrest and occasional hartals and spectacular
marches.
 He had readiness for negotiations and compromise.
 His struggle against foreign rule is popularly known as ‘struggle-truce-struggle’.
 The policy of Struggle-Truce-Struggle (STS) was a no-win situation for British, at
the same time it gave people enough time to regroup and fight back British.
 Gandhi’s nationalism was inclusive, especially participation of women.
Criticizing on S-T-S strategy:
 Criticizing the STS strategy, Nehru argued that the Indian National Movement had
reached a stage, after the Lahore Congress call for Purna Swaraj programme, in
which there should be a continuous confrontation and conflict with imperialism till
it was overthrown.
 He advocated maintenance of a ‚continuous direct action‛ policy by the Congress
and without the interposition of a constitutionalist phase.

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61. Ans: A
Explanation:
Rare Species:
 Species with small population may move into the endangered or vulnerable
category if the negative factors affecting them continue to operate. The examples of
such species are the Himalayan brown bear, wild Asiatic buffalo, desert fox and
hornbill, etc
Extinct Species:
 These are species which are not found after searches of known or likely areas
where they may occur. A species may be extinct from a local area, region, country,
continent or the entire earth. Examples of such species are the Asiatic cheetah,
pink head duck.
62. Ans: C
Explanation
Co-extinctions:
 When a species becomes extinct, the flora and fauna related to it in an essential
way also become extinct.
 When a host fish species becomes extinct, its unique assemblage of parasites also
meets the same destiny.
63. Ans: A
Explanation:
 Unlike National Parks or wildlife sanctuaries, reserved forests and protected
forests are declared by the respective state governments.
 In reserve forest natural habitats have been given a high degree of protection
against any kind of hunting and poaching. These forests are under the direct
supervision of the government and no public entry is allowed for collection of
timber or grazing of cattle. Rights to all activities like hunting, grazing, etc.
unreserved forests are banned unless specific orders are issued
 In protected forests, sometimes the local community has got the rights for
activities like hunting and grazing as they are living on the fringes of the forest
because they sustain their livelihood wholly or partially from forest resources or
products. These forests are looked after by the government, but the local people are
allowed to collect fuel-wood/timber and graze their cattle without causing serious
damage to the forests.

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64. Ans: D
Explanation:
 Biosphere Reserve (BR) is an international designation by UNESCO for
representative parts of natural and cultural landscapes extending over large area of
terrestrial or coastal/marine ecosystems or a combination thereof.
 Biosphere Reserves are nominated by national government which meets a
minimal set of criteria under the Man and Biosphere Reserve Program of UNESCO
 The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
 The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was the first biosphere reserve in India established
in the year 1986. It is located in the Western Ghats and includes 2 of the 10 bio
geographical provinces of India.
Biosphere reserves are demarcated into following 3 inter-related zones:
i. Core zone
ii. Buffer zone
iii. Transition zone
Core Zone:
 Core zone must contain suitable habitat for numerous plant and animal species,
including higher order predators and may contain centres of endemism. Core areas
often conserve the wild relatives of economic species and also represent important
genetic reservoirs having exceptional scientific interest. A core zone being National
Park or Sanctuary/protected/regulated mostly under the Wildlife (Protection) Act,
1972. Whilst realizing that perturbation is an ingredient of ecosystem functioning,
the core zone is to be kept free from l human pressures external to the system.
65. Ans: A
Explanation
 HimalSanrakshak: It is a community volunteer programme, to protect snow
leopards, launched on 23rd October 2020.
 Ladakh is the snow leopard capital of the world. A rare claim for an elusive animal,
an animal known as the ‘Ghosts of the Mountain’ and with a territory that stretches
over 200 km.
 Snow leopards have been categorized as ‚vulnerable‛ in the IUCN Red List.

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66. Ans: C
Explanation:
 Why in news: India maintained its 43rd rank on the World Competitiveness Index
2021, compiled by the Institute for Management Development (IMD).
 World Competitiveness Rankings List comprises a total of 64 nations. Innovation,
digitalization, welfare benefits, and social cohesion were key to economic
performance in the 2021 rankings. Switzerland topped the 2021 rankings, followed
by Sweden at 2nd place.
The countries were ranked on the basis of four key factors:
1. Economic Performance
2. Government Efficiency
3. Business Efficiency
4. Infrastructure
Key findings in 2021 report:
 The report notes that qualities such as investment in innovation, digitalisation,
welfare benefits and leadership, resulting in social cohesion have helped countries
better weather the crisis and thus ranked higher in competitiveness.
 The top-performing economies are characterised by varying degrees of investment
in innovation, supportive public policy and diversified economic activities.
 The report stated that strength in these areas prior to the pandemic allowed these
economies to address the economic implications of the crisis more effectively.
 Further, it said that the competitive economies succeeded in transitioning to a
remote work routine while also allowing remote learning. It added that addressing
unemployment has been fundamental,
 The report also pointed out that the countries that ensured the effectiveness of key
public spending, such as public finance, tax policy and business legislation, are
seen as essential policies to relieve the pressure on the economies hit by COVID-19.
 Source: https://www.business-standard.com/article/economy-policy/india-maintains-
43rd -rank-on-imd-s-world-competitiveness-index-121061701110_1.html
67. Ans: A
Explanation:
 Why in news: Noted journalist P. Sainath has been selected as one of the three
recipients of the Fukuoka Prize for 2021.
 The Fukuoka Prize is given annually to distinguished people to foster and increase
awareness of Asian cultures, and to create a broad framework of exchange and
mutual learning among the Asian people. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

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 The Prize was established in 1990 by the city of Fukuoka in Japan and the Fukuoka
City International Foundation.
 Fukuoka prize has three prize categories- Grand Prize, Academic Prize and Arts &
Culture Prize
 The Grand Prize has earlier been awarded to Muhammad Yunus from Bangladesh,
historian Romila Thapar, and sarod maestro Amjad Ali Khan. Eleven Indians have
received the Fukuoka Prize so far. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
 Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/p-sainath-awarded-2021-fukuoka-
prize/article35018139.ece
68. Ans: C
Explanation:
 Why in news: The Department of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare
has entered into an MoU with Microsoft Corporation to start a pilot project in 100
villages to create a ‘Unified Farmer Service Interface’ through its cloud computing
services.
 The Agri Stack is a collection of technologies and digital databases proposed by the
Central Government focusing on India’s farmers and the agricultural sector.
UnderAgriStack’, the government aims to provide ‘required data sets’ of farmers’
personal information to Microsoft to develop a farmer interface for ‘smart and well-
organized agriculture’. The digital repository will aid precise targeting of
subsidies, services and policies, the officials added. Under the programme, each
farmer of the country will get what is being called an FID, or a farmers’ ID, linked
to land records to uniquely identify them. India has 140 million operational farm-
land holdings.
 Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/topic/Unified-Farmers-Service-
Interface-Agristack
69. Ans: C
Explanation:
 Why in news: Minister of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises has inaugurated
the 11.3 km NATRAX- the High-Speed Track (HST) in Indore which is the longest
such track in Asia. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
NATRAX
 NATRAX, developed in an area of 1000 acres of land is a one-stop solution for all
sorts of high-speed performance tests for the widest categories of vehicles from 2
wheelers to heavy tractor-trailers. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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 It has multiple test capabilities like measurements of maximum speed, acceleration,
constant speed fuel consumption.
 It can conduct emission tests through real road driving simulation, high-speed
handling and stability evaluation during manoeuvred such as lane change, high-
speed durability testing, etc.
 Also, it is a Centre of excellence for Vehicle Dynamics.
 It will be the Asia’s longest and world’s fifth track. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
 Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1731122
70. Ans: B
Explanation:
 Why in news: Desertification and Land Degradation Atlas is released by ISRO
recently.
 Desertification and land degradation are major threats to agricultural productivity
in our country. Combating desertification and land degradation is one of the thrust
areas identified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change
(MoEF&CC), Government of India, New Delhi.
 Space Applications Centre (SAC), ISRO, Ahmadabad along with 19 concerned
partner institutes has carried out an inventory and monitoring of desertification of
the entire country using Indian Remote Sensing Satellites (IRS) data in
Geographical Information System (GIS) environment. Hence statement (1) is
incorrect.
 This Atlas presents state-wise desertification and land degradation status maps
depicting land use, process of degradation and severity level. This was prepared
using IRS Advanced Wide Field Sensor (AWiFS) data of 2011-13 and 2003-05 time
frames in the GIS
 Areas under desertification / land degradation for both time frames and changes
are reported state-wise as well as for the entire country. The outputs are helpful in
prioritizing areas to be taken up for minimizing the impact of desertification and
land degradation. Hence statement 2 and 3 is correct.
71. Ans: C
Explanation:
Communal Award:
 The Communal Award was announced by the British Prime Minister, Ramsay
MacDonald, on August 16, 1932. The Communal Award, based on the findings of
the Indian Franchise Committee (also called the Lothian Committee),established

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separate electorates and reserved seats for minorities, including the depressed
classes.
 But the Simon Commission rejected the proposal of separate electorate for the
depressed classes; however, it retained the concept of reserving seats.
 In the second Round Table Conference held in London, Ambedkar again raised the
issue of separate electorate forthe depressed classes.
Main Provisions of the Communal Award
 Muslims, Europeans, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, depressed classes,
women, and even the Marathas were to get separate electorates. Such an
arrangement forthe depressed classes was to be made for a period of 20years.
 In the provincial legislatures, the seats were to be distributed on communal basis.
 The existing seats of the provincial legislatures were to be doubled.
 The Muslims, wherever they were in minority, were to be granted a weightage.
 Except in the North West Frontier Province, 3 percent seats were to be reserved for
women in all provinces.
 The depressed classes to be declared/accorded the status of minority.
 The depressed classes were to get ‘double vote’, one to be used through separate
electorates and the other to be used in the general electorates.
 Allocation of seats were to be made for labourers, landlords, traders and
industrialists.
72. Ans: D
Explanation:
INA:
 The Indian National Army (INA), also known as Azad Hind Fauj, was formed by
Indian nationalists during ‘World War II’ in 1942. It was initially formed under the
leadership of Mohan Singh with the aim of helping Japan in its campaign in
‘Southeast Asian theatre of WWII.’ This army comprised of the captured Indian
soldiers of the British-Indian Army by Japan during the ‘Malayan Campaign’ (8
December 1941 – 31 January 1942) and ‘Battle of Singapore’ (8 to 15 February
1942). In December 1942, the army was disbanded over differences between
members of the Japanese military and the INA leadership.
 Under the leadership of Subhash Chandra Bose, the provisional government of free
India declared war against the British and the United States. Bose also convinced
the Japanese to allow the INA to be an integral part in Japan’s offensive against the
British Empire in Manipur. In the ‘U-Go Offensive,’

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 The two slogans which became the war cry of the INA were 'Delhi Chalo' and
'Jai Hind'.
 Andaman and Nicobar Islands were renamed as 'Shahid' and 'Swaraj'.
The achievements of the INA were as follows-
 The INA made preparations to launch its fight for the liberation of India and
went into action in February 1944.
 INA captured Mowdok, an outpost situated south-east of Chittagong and
advanced up to the frontier of India.
 They captured the strong military post of KlangKlang.
 The INA gave a tough fight to the British forces in the Assam hills and
succeeded in capturing Ukhral and Kohima.
 They raised the Tricolour Flag for the first time on the liberated Indian soil on
March 19, 1944.
73. Ans: B
Explanation:
Hartog Committee (1929)
 An increase in number of schools and colleges had led to deterioration of education
standards. The Hartog Committee was set up to report on development of
education. Its main recommendations were as follows.
 Emphasis should be given to primary education but there need be no hasty
expansion or compulsion in education.
 Only deserving students should go in for high school and intermediate stage,
while average students should be diverted to vocational courses after VIII
standard.
 For improvements in standards of university education, admissions should be
restricted.
74. Ans: A
Explanation:
The Desai-Liaqat pact
 Both of them came up with the draft proposal for the formation of an interim
government at the Centre, consisting of:
 an equal number of persons nominated by the Congress and the League in the
central legislature.
 20% of the seats reserved for minorities.
 The Government would function within the framework of the existing
Government of India Act, 1935.

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 The Desai-Liaqat pact (January 1945) was followed by the Wavell plan (June) in
1945.
 It was never formally endorsed either by the Congress or the Muslim League.
75. Ans: A
Explanation:
The objectives of the Muslim league were:
 To create among Muslims the feelings of loyalty towards the British Government.
 To safeguard the political rights of the Muslims and to convey the same to the
government.
 To prevent the rise of prejudice against other communities of India among the
Muslims
 On 23rd March 1940 at the Lahore Session, the Muslim League adopted Jinnah's
two-nation theory and passed the historic Pakistan Resolution which demanded the
division of India and the establishment of an independent, sovereign Muslim State.
 Muhammad Ali Jinnah joined the league in 1913.
76. Ans: D
Explanation:
 A flagship species is a species selected to act as an ambassador, icon or symbol for a
defined habitat, issue, campaign or environmental cause.
 By focusing on, and achieving conservation of that species, the status of many
other species which share its habitat – or are vulnerable to the same threats - may
also be improved.
 Flagship species are usually relatively large, and considered to be 'charismatic' in
western cultures.
 Flagship species may or may not be keystone species and may or may not be
good indicators of biological process.
 Examples of some flagship species include the polar bear, Bengal Tiger, Asian
Elephant, African Elephant and the Giant Panda
77. Ans: C
Explanation
 Man and the Biosphere Programme (MAB) is an intergovernmental scientific
program, launched in 1971 by UNESCO that aims to establish a scientific basis for
the improvement of relationships between people and their environments.
 MAB combines the natural and social sciences, economics and education to
improve human livelihoods and the equitable sharing of benefits, and to safeguard
natural and managed ecosystems, thus promoting innovative approaches to

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economic development that are socially and culturally appropriate, and
environmentally sustainable.
 UNESCO’s Man and the Biosphere (MAB) programme has included Panna
Biosphere Reserve to UNESCO’s World Network of Biosphere Reserves. It is located
in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
78. Ans: B
Explanation
 Ecosystem engineers are species that create, destroy, modify, or maintain habitats
in significant ways. These uniquely productive animals create conditions for other
species to benefit from, such as adequate shelter or food sources. While the
activities of some ecosystem engineers at times appear to damage the environment,
their activities are often crucial to the survival of other species.
 Prairie dogs: These burrowing rodents are incredibly important to maintaining
grasslands that provide important ecosystem services, including carbon
sequestration. Prairie dogs create complex underground colonies, sometimes called
prairie dog towns that also provide shelter for rabbits, amphibians, snakes, and
birds. Burrow construction also aerates the soil, redistributes nutrients, and
increases water infiltration, maintaining grasslands and inhibiting the growth of
woody plants and invasive species. The native grasslands that prairie dogs help
maintain additionally provide habitat for grazing animals as well as predators that
feed on prairie dogs or other species attracted to their colonies.
 Introduced species, which may be invasive species, are often ecosystem engineers.
Kudzu, a leguminous plant introduced to the southeast U.S., changes the
distribution and number of animal and bird species in the areas it invades. It also
crowds out native plant species.
 Dominant species: these are the species with substantially higher abundance or
biomass than other species in a community. They exert a powerful control over the
occurrence and distribution of other species. For ex: tidal swamps in tropics are
usually dominated by species of mangroves.
79. Ans: A
Explanation:
 In order to protect the environment and the biological integrity of the area outside
the protected areas and other such areas where an eco-system has been adversely
affected due to anthropogenic and climatic factors.

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 Central Government can restrict areas in which any industries, operations or
processes shall not be carried out or shall be carried out subject to certain
safeguards.
 Activities Permitted under Eco-Sensitive Zones – Ongoing agricultural or
horticultural practices, rainwater harvesting, organic farming, use of renewable
energy sources, adoption of green technology for all activities.
 Activities prohibited under ESZs – commercial mining, saw mills, industries
causing pollution (air, water, soil, noise etc), the establishment of major
hydroelectric projects (HEP), commercial use of wood, Tourism activities like hot-
air balloons over the National Park, discharge of effluents or any solid waste or
production of hazardous substances.
 Activities under regulation- Felling of trees, the establishment of hotels and
resorts, commercial use of natural water, erection of electrical cables, drastic
change of agriculture system, e.g. adoption of heavy technology, pesticides etc,
widening of roads.
80. Ans: B
Explanation
Biospheres under MAB in India

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81. Ans: A
Explanation:
 Why in news: The 1959 Antarctic Treaty celebrates its 60th anniversary.
About Antarctic Treaty
 It was signed in Washington on 1 December 1959 by the twelve countries.It entered
into force in 1961 and has since been acceded to by many other nations.
 The important provisions of the Antarctica Treaty are:
 Antarctica shall be used for peaceful purposes only; Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
 Freedom of scientific investigation in Antarctica and cooperation toward that
end shall continue; and
 Scientific observations and results from Antarctica shall be exchanged and
made freely available
 The three international agreements under Antarctic Treaty System are:
 Convention for the Conservation of Antarctic Seals (1972)
 Convention on the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources (1980)
 Protocol on Environmental Protection to the Antarctic Treaty (1991)
 There were only 13 original state parties: Argentina, Australia, Belgium, Chile,
France, Japan, New Zealand, Norway, Poland, South Africa, the United States, the
Union of Soviet Socialist Repics (Russia), and the United Kingdom.
The membership has now grown to 54 including powerful “new” Antarctic Treaty
parties such as China, Germany and India. India became the signatory of Antarctic
Treaty in 1983. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
 Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/climate-change/the-antarctic-treaty-is-
turning-60-in-a-changed-world-is-it-still-fit-for-purpose--77606
82. Ans: A
Explanation:
 The Sardar Sarovar Narmada Dam is a terminal dam built on the Narmada river at
Kevadia in Gujarat’s Narmada district.
 Four Indian states, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Rajasthan, receive
water and electricity supply from the dam.
 It usually doesn’t provide irrigation water In summer. For the first time in History
it provides irrigation water in the summer by the following factors.
 The good rainfall in the catchment area in 2019 and 2020 benefitted the dam to
maintain its Full Reservoir Capacity. It helps the Dam to provide water for one
more year. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

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 The strategic operation of River Bed Power House (RPBH) ensures that minimum
water flows downstream into the sea and maximum water is used during the dam
overflow period, which is not calculated in the annual water share. Hence,
statement 2 is correct..
 These measures help in maximizing the annual allocation of a water share.
 The industrial consumption of the water from the Narmada dam is extremely less
as compared to other uses. ‚Out of the 9 MAF awarded to Gujarat, the water
quantity earmarked for industrial use is merely 0.2 MAF, which is roughly only 2
per cent. this utilization of water by the industries is 0.07 percent MAF even during
full operational years in normal times. Therefore, the lockdown or partial closure
of industries has not impacted the storage levels much. Hence, statement 3 is
incorrect.
 Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-how-sardar-sarovar-
dam-is-providing-irrigation-water-in-summer-for-the-first-time-in-history-7350969/
83. Ans: B
Explanation:
 Scientists had discovered a new kind of early human after studying pieces of
fossilised bone dug up at a site used by a cement plant in central Israel.
 The fragments of a skull and a lower jaw with teeth were about 130,000 years old
and could force a rethink of parts of the human family tree, the researchers from
Tel Aviv University and the Hebrew University of Jerusalem said. Nesher Ramla
Homo - named after the place southeast of Tel Aviv where it was found - may have
lived alongside our species, Homo sapiens, for more than 100,000 years, and may
have even interbred, according to the findings. The early humans, who had very
large teeth and no chin, may have also been ancestors of the Neanderthals, the
study added, challenging the current thinking that our evolutionary cousins
originated in Europe.
84. Ans: C
Explanation:
 Why in news: There has been growing environmental concern in Turkey over the
accumulation of ‘sea snot’, a slimy layer of grey or green sludge in the country’s
seas, which can cause considerable damage to the marine ecosystem.
 The Sea of Marmara separates Asian Turkey from European Turkey. In the
northeast, it is connected to the Black Sea via the Bosphorus Strait, whereas in the
southwest, it is linked with the Aegean Sea via the Dardanelles Strait. Together

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with the Bosphorus and the Dardanelles Straits, the Sea of Marmara forms a part of
the Turkish Straits System.
 Hence statement 2 is correct.
 Sea snot’ is marine mucilage that is formed when algae are overloaded with
nutrients as a result of water pollution combined with the effects of climate change.
The nutrient overload occurs when algae feast on warm weather caused by global
warming. Water pollution adds to the problem.
 Hence statement 1 is correct.
 The thick slimy layer of organic matter, which looks like a viscous, brown and
foamy substance, has spread through the sea south of Istanbul and also blanketed
harbours and shorelines.
 Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-what-is-the-sea-snot-
outbreak-in-turkey-7347989/
85. Ans: C
Explanation:
 The Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Ropar has developed a device that can be
used as a substitute for Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) machine.
 It is India’s first such device which functions even without electricity. It is
adapted to both kinds of oxygen generation units like O2 cylinders and oxygen
pipelines in hospitals. It is a leak-proof, low-cost CPAP delivery system. It is
designed for a 22mm CPAP closed circuit tube. It can deliver high flow oxygen
(20–60 LPM) while maintaining a continuous positive pressure of up to 20 cm
H2O.It is designed to maintain FiO2 of above 40% with a PEEP (positive end-
expiratory pressure) of 5-20 cm H2O.
 The Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) is a treatment method for
patients having breathing problems during sleep called sleep apnea. The machine
uses mild air pressure to keep the airways open for easy breathing. It is also used
to treat infants whose lungs have not fully developed. The treatment is all the
more necessary during early stages of the Covid-19 infection. It reduces lung
damage and allows patients to recover from the inflammatory effects.
 Source: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/iit-ropar-designs-electricity-free-
cpap-device-jivan-vayu-capable-to-delivering-high-flow-oxygen-1814977-2021-06-15
86. Ans: D
Explanation
 The object of Satyagraha is not to achieve the physical elimination or moral
breakdown of an adversary, but, through suffering at his hands, to initiate those

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psychological processes which could make it possible for minds and hearts to meet.
In such a struggle a compromise with an opponent was neither heresy nor treason,
but a natural and necessary step. And if it turned out that the compromise was
premature and the adversary was unrepentant, there was nothing to prevent the
Satyagrahi from returning to non-violent battle.
87. Ans: C
Explanation:
Gandhi-Irwin Pact, placed the Congress on an equal footing with the government.
Irwin on behalf of the government agreed on—
 Immediate release of all political prisoners not convicted of violence;
 Remission of all fines not yet collected;
 Return of all lands not yet sold to third parties;
 Lenient treatment to those government servants who had resigned;
 Right to make salt in coastal villages for personal consumption (not for sale);
 Right to peaceful and non-aggressive picketing; and
 Withdrawal of emergency ordinances.
The viceroy, however, turned down two of Gandhi’s demands
 Public inquiry into police excesses.
 Commutation of Bhagat Singh and his comrades’ death sentence to life sentence.
 Gandhi on behalf of the Congress agreed
 To suspend the civil disobedience movement
 To participate in the next Round Table Conference.
88. Ans: B
Explanation:
1. Deepavali Declaration by Lord Irwin 1929
 The Declaration was a five-line statement in simple non-legal language. It
attempted to clarify to its British and Indian audiences that the intention of the
British government was to facilitate India attaining dominion status in the future.
However, there was no mention of any timeline.
2. Harcourt Butler Indian states Commission
 Sir Harcourt Butler chaired a three-member committee appointed by his Majesty’s
Government in Britain in 1927 to inquire into the relationship between the Indian
Princely States and the British Government of India. The British group, consisting
of Sir Harcourt Butler, Prof. W.S. Holdsworth and S.C. Peel, was called the Indian
States Committee. They visited sixteen Princely States. They submitted their report
in February 1929. The Butler committee gave the following recommendations:

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 Paramountcy must remain supreme and must fulfil its obligations, adopting
and defining itself according to the shifting necessities of time amid
progressive development of states.
 The states were bound by treaties with the Crown, and the states should not be
handed over without the ruler’s prior consent to an Indian Government in
British India responsible to an Indian Legislature.
 The Viceroy, not the Governor-General in Council was to be the Crown agent in
dealing states.
 All India Kisan Sabha - 1936
 Burma Separated from India in 1935
89. Ans: C
Explanation:
 The Swarajists sought more representation in the Congress offices, and an end to
the mandatory requirement for Congressmen to spin khadi cloth and do social
service as a prerequisite for office. This was opposed by Gandhi's supporters, men
like Vallabhbhai Patel, Jawaharlal Nehru and Rajendra Prasad, M.A. Ansari who
became known as the No Changers as opposed to the Swarajists Changers.
 The Madras Province Swarajya Party was established in 1923. S. Satyamurti and S.
Srinivasa Iyengar led the party. The party contested in all provincial elections
between 1923 and 1934.
90. Ans: B
Explanation:
The Lee Commission
 A Royal Commission under Lord Lee was appointed in 1923. The Lee commission
submitted its report in 1924. Its major recommendations were as follows:
 20 per cent of the officers should be recruited by promotion from provincial
civil services and of the remaining 80 per cent, half should be British and half
Indian; and
 a Public Service Commission with five full-fledged members should be
appointed immediately. (Such a commission was appointed in 1925.) The
government accepted most of the Lee Commission recommendations
Recommendations of Muddiman Commission:
 Condemned Diarchy and recommended minor changes in the duties of non- official
Indians.
 Recommended fundamental changes in the structure of the Government of India
Act of 1919.

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Linlithgow Commission:
 To inquire into the crisis of Indian Agriculture.
91. Ans: A
Explanation
 The State Government may notify any community land or private land as a
Community Reserve, provided that the members of that community or individuals
concerned are agreeable to offer such areas for protecting the fauna and flora, as
well as their traditions, cultures and practices.
 The declaration of such an area is aimed at improving the socio-economic
conditions of the people living in such areas as well as conserving wildlife. The
Reserve is managed through a Community Reserve Management Committee.
 No change in land use pattern shall be made within the Community Reserve,
except in accordance with a resolution passed by the Management Committee and
approval of the same by the State Government.
92. Ans: A
Explanation
Elephant Counting Methods Employed in Census
 The direct counting method is based on sightings of elephants.
 The indirect counting method uses the elephant elephant ‘dung decay’ formula, in
which the analysis of dung is used to estimate the population of the elephant.
 The Monitoring the Illegal Killing of Elephants (MIKE) programme is an
international collaboration that measures the levels, trends and causes of elephant
mortality, thereby providing an information base to support international decision-
making related to conservation of elephants in Asia and Africa.The MIKE
Programme was established by the Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
 The last elephant census shows India has 27,312 elephants in the wild
and Karnataka has the highest elephant population (6,049) amongst all states.
 Project Elephant (PE) was launched by the Government of India in the year 1992 as
a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with following objectives:
 To protect elephants, their habitat and corridors.
 To address issues of man-animal conflict.
 Welfare of captive elephants
 To promote not to harm elephants for their teeth.

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93. Ans: D
Explanation:
 The WPA amendment of 2002 provided for the creation of new type of protected
area called a conservation reserve. It is an area owned by the state
government adjacent to the national parks and sanctuaries for protecting the
landscape, seascape, and habitat of fauna and flora. It is managed through a
conservation reserve management committee.
 They typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors
between established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserved and protected
forests of India.
 Tiruppadaimarathur conservation reserve in Tirunelveli, tamilnadu is the first
conservation reserve established in the Country. It is an effort of the village
community to protect the birds nesting in their village and acted for declaration of
conservation reserve.
94. Ans: D
Explanation:
Key stone species:
 Keystone species play an essential role towards the functioning, structure or
productivity of a habitat/ecosystem at a defined level.
 If these species disappear, it may lead to a significant change in the ecosystem or
dysfunction in maintenance of the habitat structure.
 If the keystone species are focused, Conservation practices of these species would
help to protect the function and structure of a wide range of habitats which are
linked with these species in its life cycle.
Indicator species:
 It is basically a group of species chosen as an indicator or a proxy to represent the
state of the ecosystem as well as a certain process within that ecosystem.
 Example: crayfishes which indicate that the water is fresh in quality or loss of
native plants indicates the impact or presence of alien species.
Pioneer species:
 Pioneer species are hardy species which are the first to colonize barren
environments or previously biodiversity steady-state ecosystems that have been
disrupted, such as by fire.
 In primary succession on rocks these are usually lichens which are able to secrete
acids to dissolve rock, helping in weathering and soil formation.

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95. Ans: D
 Asiatic Lion -Endangered
 Kashmiri stag- Critically endangered
96. Ans: A
Explanation:
Royal Indian Navy Mutiny:
 On February 18, 1946some 1100 Royal Indian Navy (RIN) ratings of HMIS Talwar
went on a strike to protest against
 Racial discrimination (demanding equal pay for Indian and white soldiers)
 Unpalatable food
 Abuse by superior officers
 Arrest of a rating for scrawling ‘Quit India’ on HMIS Talwar
 INA trials
 Use of Indian troops in Indonesia, demanding their withdrawal.
97. Ans: B
Explanation
 The Wardha Scheme of Education derives its name from the education conference
of National Workers held at Wardha under the presidentship of Mahatma Gandhi.
The scheme is also known as NaiTalim/Basic Education/BuniyadiTalim
(Shiksha)/Basic Shiksha. The scheme is the outcome of the philosophy of Gandhiji
and his ideas in ‘harijan’. It was given definite shape by the Committee under the
chairmanship of Dr. Zakir Hussain who later on become the President of India.
 The Wardha Scheme of Basic Education (1937) provided for free and compulsory
education in mother tongue. This was thought to create a classless society, free
from any form of exploitation, either social or economic
Salient features of Wardha Scheme of Basic Education (1937)
 Free and compulsory education: Free and compulsory education was to be given for
8 years (from 6 to 14 years). It was to be given in two stages, the junior stage
covering 5 years and senior stage for 3 years.
 Craft centered education: The idea behind the scheme was to provide education
through some form of craft or productive work. It was to relieve the child from the
tyranny of purely academic and theoretical instruction and to break down the
existing barriers of prejudice between manual and intellectual work.
 Self-supporting education: It aimed to provide such kind of education which can be
self-supporting in later life. The basic idea of Mahatma Gandhi was that if the craft
which is chosen is taught properly, it would enable the school to pay the salaries of

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teachers. It would also ensure the dignity of labor along with livelihood for the
students after leaving school.
 The medium of instruction: the Zakir Hussain committee had proposed that proper
teaching in the mother tongue should be the foundation of all education. Mother
tongue would have helped to speak, read and write correctly and effectively and to
develop precision of thought and clarity of ideas.
 Theidea of citizenship: The Wardha scheme aimed at providing the citizens of
future an opportunity of personal growth, dignity, and efficiency in a cooperative
community. A new system was required to secure minimum education for an
intelligent exercise of various rights and duties of the citizens.
 Flexible curriculum: the scheme provided for a flexible curriculum and the students
and teachers were free to work according to their interest and requirement. There
was no compulsion to complete a prescribed portion under the fear of
examinations.
 The various subjects were the basic craft, mother tongue, mathematics, Social
Studies, painting, music, and sports etc. English was not included in the
curriculum. However, it was mandatory to learn the Hindi language.
 Religious education was not the part of the curriculum of Gandhi's wardha scheme
of basic education 1937.
98. Ans: B
Explanation
 Rajagopalachari's formula or Rajaji Formula was proposed to solve the political
deadlock between the All India Muslim League and the Indian National Congress
on the independence of British India. Mahatma Gandhi accepted the formula. These
are the points of the formula.
 Muslim League to endorse Congress demand for Independence
 League to cooperate with Congress in forming a provisional government at
centre.
 After the end of the war, the entire population of Muslim majority areas in the
North-West and North-East India to decide by a plebiscite, whether or not to
form a separate sovereign state.
 In case of acceptance of partition, agreement to be made jointly for
safeguarding defence, commerce, communications, etc.
 The above terms to be operative only if England transferred full powers to
India.

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99. Ans: C
Explanation:
 On 19-21 February, 1938 52nd session of Congress was held in Haripura at
Gujarat, under the presidentship of Subhash Chandra Bose.
 National Planning Committee was constituted in this session, and Jawaharlal
Nehru was elected as President of the Committee.
100. Ans: C
Explanation
 One of the major point of the Nehru Report was that India would be given
Dominion status. This means independence within the British Commonwealth.
India will be a federation which shall have a bicameral legislature at the centre and
Ministry would be responsible to the legislature.
 The younger section of congress regarded the idea of dominion status in the
Nehru report as a step backward, and the developments at the All Parties
Conference strengthened their criticism of the dominion status idea. Nehru and
Subhash Bose rejected the Congress’ modified goal and jointly set up the
Independence for India League
 Earlier, in December 1927, a large number of Muslim leaders had met at Delhi at
the Muslim League session and evolved four proposals for their demands to be
incorporated into the draft constitution. These proposals, which were accepted by
the Madras session of the Congress (December 1927), came to be known as the
‘Delhi Proposals’.

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