FS-1 AIATS 02 Main A 2021-11-14 2021 Q

A
14-11-2021
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST No. 2
(XI Studying Students)
Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.
Test No. 2
TOPICS OF THE TEST
Physics Motion in a Plane, Laws of Motion
Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, Chemical

Chemistry Bonding and Molecular Structure
Quadratic Equations, Complex Number Par t-I, Sequences and

Mathematics Series(including Exponential & Logarithmic Series), Straight
Lines(including Pair of Straight Lines), Principle of Mathematical Induction
Test - 2 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2023
Time : 3 Hrs MM: 300

TEST - 2
PART – A : PHYSICS
SECTION - I 3. A variable horizontal force F = 5t N (t is time in

Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains second) is applied on 5 kg block placed on
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 rough horizontal surface. Choose the correct
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE
graph for variation of frictional force on block
is correct.
with time.
1. In the shown arrangement, relative acceleration
of 9 kg block with respect to 5 kg block is
(Assume pulleys are smooth and strings are
ideal)
(1)
(2)
(3)
2g 3g
(1) (2)
29 29
g 4g
(3) (4) (4)
29 29
2. A block of mass 2 kg is placed over smooth

wedge of mass 4 kg as shown. Whole 4. In the shown arrangement of smooth pulley and
arrangement is made to accelerate with an ideal string if acceleration of block is 4 m/s 2,
unknown acceleration a0 so that there is no then acceleration of wedge will be
relative motion between wedge and block. Find
net force acting on 2 kg block. (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 3 m/s2

(1) 15 N (2) 20 N
(3) 6 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2
(3) 10 N (4) 25 N
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2023 Test - 2 (Code-A)
5. In the shown arrangement, value of m1 so that 8. In the shown figure, acceleration a1, a2 and a3
system remains in equilibrium, is of connecting blocks are shown. Correct
relation between a1, a2 and a3 is
(1) a2 + 4a3 = a1 (2) a2 + 4a1 = a3

10
(1) kg
3 (3) a1 + 2a2 = a3 (4) a2 + 4a1 + a3= 0
5
(2) kg 9. Minimum magnitude of force (Fmin), which must
3
be applied on the block of mass 2 kg, so that
(3) 20 kg
block slides along the rough horizontal surface,
20
(4) kg is (g = 10 m/s2)
3
6. A swimmer at point A on one bank of river

flowing with velocity 5 m/s wants to reach
directly at point B. Minimum possible speed of
swimmer in still water to do so.
(1) 20 N (2) 20 2 N
(3) 15 N (4) 10 2 N
10. Two blocks of masses 4 kg and 5 kg are placed

in contact with each other over smooth
(1) 4 m/s (2) 3 m/s horizontal surface. Now two horizontal forces F1
(3) 5 m/s (4) 6 m/s and F2 are applied on these block as shown.
7. Two horizontal forces F1 and F2 are applied on Normal reaction between these two blocks is
4 kg and 6 kg blocks as shown. Contact force

between 4 kg and 2 kg blocks will be
(1) 10 N
(2) 15 N
(3) 5 N
(1) 15 N (2) 20 N
(3) 18 N (4) 24 N (4) Zero
2/11
11. A block of mass 6 kg is hanging vertically with 14. A projectile is thrown from point (P) along the
the help of spring arrangement as shown. inclined plane with certain velocity u. Value of
Elongation in the spring having spring constant angle , so that range of projectile is maximum
2k at equilibrium is
along the inclined plane, is
(1) 45° (2) 60°
(3) 37° (4) 30°
15. A particle, projected horizontally from point P

with speed 10 m/s, lands on horizontal surface
at point Q. Radius of curvature of path followed
3g 2g by the particle at point Q will be (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) (2)
k k
4g 5g
(3) (4)
k k
12. A block of mass 2 kg, placed over rough plank

of mass 4 kg, is given a velocity 10 m/s as
(1) 50 5 m (2) 25 m
shown. If plank is free to move on smooth
horizontal surface, then acceleration of block (3) 20 5 m (4) 40 2 m
w.r.t. plank initially, is
16. A particle is thrown horizontally from point O on
an inclined plane. If particle lands at point P,
then coordinates of point P will be (g = 10 m/s2)
1
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) m/s2
2
3
(3) m/s2 (4) Zero
2
13. Given A   iˆ  2 jˆ  , B   2iˆ  jˆ  and C has

(1) (1m, 1m)
magnitude 6 2 unit. If direction of C is
(2)  2 m, 2 m
opposite to the direction of  A  B  , then C is
equal to 1 1 
(3)  m, m
2 2 
(1) 6iˆ  6 ˆj (2) 3iˆ  3 ˆj
4 4 
(4)  m, m
(3) 6iˆ  6 jˆ (4) 3iˆ  3 ˆj 5 5 
3/11
17. A particle of mass m = 1 kg tied at one end of SECTION - II

an ideal string is performing circular motion in Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
horizontal plane as shown in figure. Net force contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any five
acting on the particle is (g = 10 m/s2) questions out of 10. The answer to each question is
a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place;
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, 00.33, 00.30, 30.27, 27.30)
using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
21. If position vector of a particle varies with time (t)
as r  (8sin t iˆ  8cos t jˆ) m , then distance
(1) 10 N (2) 20 N
travelled by the particle in 2 s will be _____ m.
(3) 15 N (4) 30 N
22. Two particles P and Q are thrown from same
18. A particle is projected from ground such that its
horizontal level with velocities as shown in
position vector varies with time as
figure. If collision between these two particles
r  6t iˆ   8t  5t 2  jˆ . Find its time of flight. takes place, then value of k is ______ .
(1) 1.6 s (2) 4 s
(3) 2 s (4) 3 s
19. A person standing on a moving trolley throws a 23. A swimmer who can swim with speed 4 m/s in
particle vertically up with speed 3 m/s relative to still water want to reach directly opposite bank
himself as shown in figure. Radius of curvature of river via shortest path. Angle  (in degree)
of path followed by the particle, as seen from between direction of its velocity in still water and
ground, at the time of projection is normal to the river flow is _______ .
(g = 10 m/s2)
24. Maximum possible speed with which a car can

(1) 6 m (2) 4 m
take turn on a rough, horizontal circular path of
12 25 radius 16 m without skidding is ________ m/s.
(3) m (4) m
5 8 ( = 0.1, g = 10 m/s2)
20. A particle starts moving with a constant angular 25. A block of mass 2 kg placed on smooth inclined
acceleration 16 rad/s2 along a circular path of plane is connected by the help of two ideal
radius 1 m. Find time (t) when magnitude of strings as shown. Tension T in one of the
centripetal acceleration and tangential strings is _______ N. (g = 10 m/s2)
acceleration becomes equal.
1
(1) 2 s (2) s
4
1
(3) s (4) 1 s
2
4/11
26. In the shown arrangement of two blocks, 29. A block of mass 1 kg is hanging vertically with
frictional force on 2 kg block is equal to
the help of three ideal strings as shown. Value
__________ N. (g = 10 m/s2)
of T1 + T2 is equal to __________N.
(T1, T2 and T3 are tension in the string) (g = 10
m/s2)
27. Two small balls each of mass 1 kg are
connected by ideal strings each of length
L = 1 m. If complete arrangement is moving in a
horizontal circle centred at O with angular
velocity,  = 2 rad/s, then tension T2 is equal to
____ N.
30. A block of mass 2 kg is hanging vertically with
28. If two ends of the string in shown arrangement the help of an uniform string having mass 4 kg
are pulled with velocities 32 m/s and 16 m/s, and length 1 m. Tension at midpoint of string is
then velocity (u) of block is ______ m/s.
______ N. (g = 9.8 m/s2)
PART – B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I (4) Molecular orbital formation can be well
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains explained by both the theories
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4
32. Many misconceptions are associated with
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE
resonance. Which of the following is not true
is correct.
for resonance?
31. Which of the following is not similar between (1) The resonating forms have no real
valence bond theory and molecular orbital existence
theory?
(2) The molecule exists for an appreciable
(1) Both the theories explain the covalent bond amount of time in all the resonating forms
(2) Both the theories predict that N2 is (3) Resonance averages the bond
diamagnetic characteristics as a whole
(3) Both the theories consider the quantum (4) Atomic arrangement remain same in all
mechanical model resonating forms
5/11
33. Which of the following is not correct for sigma (1) When two or more resonating structures
and pi bonds and their molecular orbitals? can represent a molecule, the VSEPR
model is applicable to any such structure
(1) Sigma bond are always formed due to
head-on overlapping of orbitals (2) A multiple bond is treated as a single
electron pair
(2) pi bond is weaker due to poor overlapping
(3) The pairs of electrons tend to occupy such
(3) Both the  and * molecular orbitals contain
positions in space that maximise distance
the nodal plane containing the internuclear
between them
axis
(4) The shape of the molecule is independent
(4) In sigma bond, due to cylindrical symmetry
of number of bond pair electrons around
around the bond axis, the atoms cannot be
the central atom
freely rotated around the bond axis
37. Which of the following compound among the
34. Pauling introduced the concept of hybridization. given has sp3d hybridization and planar shape?
According to him, the atomic orbitals combine
(1) ICl3 (2) SF4
to form new set of equivalent orbitals known as
(3) PCl5 (4) BrF5
hybrid orbitals. Which of the following statements
given below is not true for hybridization? 38. Which of the following order is not correct?
(1) The orbitals present in the valence shell (1) Cl2O > H2O > F2O ( XOX bond angle)
undergoes hybridization
(2) B(OH)3 < B  OH4  (B–O bond length)
–
(2) The orbitals undergoing hybridization

(3) OCl2 < O(SiH3)2 (XOX bond angle)
should have almost equal energy
(4) R3SiOH > R3COH (e-density at O)
(3) Promotion of electron is an essential
condition in hybridization 39. Which of the following compound does not
show the correct match with the given dipole
(4) In general lone pair orbital may participate
moment? (Arrow shows the direction of dipole
in hybridization
moment)
35. Which of the following compounds is expected
to have highest dipole moment?
(1)
(1) F2 (2) NF3
(3) NH3 (4) H2O

(2)
36. Lewis concept was unable to explain the shape
of molecules. Valence shell electron pair
repulsion theory provides a simple procedure to (3)
predict the shapes of covalent molecules. It is
based on some of the postulates. Which of the
following is not the postulate of valence shell
(4)
electron pair repulsion theory?
6/11
40. Which of the following compounds among the 44. Which of the given statements is incorrect for
given is planar? periodic table?
(1) Al2Cl6 (2) Al2l6 (1) Actinoids include element from Th(90) to
(3) SF6 (4) I2Cl6 Lr(103)
41. B(NR2)3 HB(NR2)2 H2B–NR2 (2) Cu, Ag and Au are coinage metals
I II III
(3) Ag, Au and Pt have very low reactivity
The order of energy required for the rotation of
(4) Lanthanoids are called rare earth metals
B – N bond is
because their availability is rare
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I
45. Which of the following is the correct order for
(3) II > III >I (4) II > I > III
the indicated property?
42. Which of the following combinations will not
result into the formation of molecular orbital? (1) Na+ > Li+ > Mg2+ (Ionic radii)
(1) (2) Ca2+ > Na+ (Ionic radii)
(3) B < Al < Ga < In (Atomic radii)
(4) B > C > Na > O (Atomic radii)

(2)
46. Which of the following is the incorrect order of
first ionization energy?
(1) O > S > Se > Te > Po
(3) (2) F > N > O > C > B
(3) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe
(4) N > P > C > Si
(4) 47. Which of the following elements has highest

IIIrd ionization enthalpy?
(1) Li (2) Be
43. Which of the following statements is incorrect
for electronegativity? (3) B (4) C
(1) Fluorine has highest electronegativity in the 48. Which of the following option does not contain
periodic table only one type of oxide (acidic, basic, neutral or
(2) Electronegativity decreases from top to amphoteric)?
bottom
(1) Na2O, MgO
(3) The electronegativity decreases from left to
(2) Al2O3, BeO
right in the period
(4) Halogens have highest electronegativity in (3) N2O, NO, CO
the respective period (4) SO2, SO3, Al2O3
7/11
49. Column-I contains compounds and Column-II 53. In the most stable forms/structure of ICl2 , if the
contains properties related to the compound.
number of lp-lp repulsion are X and lp-bp
Column-I Column-II
repulsion are Y and bp-bp repulsion are Z, then
(i) XeF2 (P) Dipole moment is zero
the value of
 X  Y – Z [Consider 90°
is
(ii) XeO2F2 (Q) Non-linear shape 2
(iii) XeO2F4 (R) Linear shape repulsion only]
(iv) XeF4 (S) Two different bond 54. If 2s and 2p mixing is not taking place, then the
lengths are present
number of molecules which has bond order
Which of the following is not correct matched?
greater than 1 and paramagnetic is
(1) (i) – P, R (2) (ii) – Q, S
S2, C2, F2, O2, N2, CO, NO, O 2 , O 2– , NO+
(3) (iii) – P, Q (4) (iv) – P, R
55. Some of isolated gaseous atoms are present
50. An element has atomic number 107. The group
below, the number of atoms, which have
number and the period in which it is present in
the periodic table is positive first electron affinity is
(1) 7, 7 (2) 7, 6 H, Li, Na, B, C, Si, He, O, F, Xe, Ne, Ar, K
(3) 6, 7 (4) 6, 6 56. The value of electronegativity in Pauling scale
SECTION - II is, if I.E. and electron affinity are 7 eV atom –1

Numerical Value Type Questions: This section and 5 eV atom–1 (round-off the answer to
contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any five
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is second decimal place)
a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
correct numerical value (in decimal notation, 57. Removal of
1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th
electron
 kJ 
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, 00.33, 00.30, 30.27, 27.30) ionH   1093 2359 4627 6229 37838
 mol 
using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
Some of values of first five ionization energies of
51. The total number of compounds which show
an element (belong to p block) are given above.
the hypervalency among the given compounds.
To which group the element may belongs as per
PCl5 , SiF62 , SF6 , AlF63 , XeF2 , XeF4 , PCl3 , NO3 ,
modern periodic table?
O3 , NH4
58. The number of amphoteric compound(s) among
52. If the number of structures possible (with
respect to arrangement of lone pair of electrons the given compounds is (are)
on central atom) in case of CIF3 is X and the
Al2O3, Al(OH)3, Si(OH)4, SiO2, NaOH, Na2O,
total number of lone pair electrons in CIF 3 is Y,
then the value of (X + Y) is B2O3, N2O5, ZnO, BeO, Mg(OH)2, Be(OH)2
8/11
59. Consider the following six changes Then calculate the value of “(c – b + a)”, where
a, b, and c are total number of transformations
(i) NO  NO+
in which magnetic property will change, bond
order increases and bond order decreases
(ii) O2  O22
respectively
(iii) O2  O2 60. Calculate expression (x + y) for diatomic

molecules.
(iv) NO+  NO– Where, x = Total number of singly occupied
molecular orbital (SOMO) in O2
(v) NO+  NO2+
y = Total number of singly occupied
(vi) CO  CO+ molecular orbital (SOMO) in NO
PART – C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I 64. If ,  are roots of the equation x2 – 7x + 1 = 0
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains
–2 –2
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 1  1  7
then the value of  – 7    – 7 
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY       1 1
  
ONE is correct.  
is equal to
61. If every pair from among the equations x2 + ax
+ bc = 0, x2 + bx + ca = 0 and x2 + cx + ab = (1) 45 (2) 46
0, where a, b, c are distinct non zero real (3) 47 (4) 48

numbers, has common roots, such that the
65. If z1 and z2 are complex numbers such that
sum of three common roots is zero then a3 +
z1
b3 + c3 is equal to  1 and arg(z1z2) = 0 then which of the
z2
(1) abc (2) 3abc
following must be correct?
(3) a2 + b2 + c2 – abc (4) ab + bc + ca
(1) |z2| = 1
62. The value of k for which lines x – y + 1 = 0,
(2) (z1 + z2) is purely imaginary
x + y + 3 = 0 and 2x – y + k = 0 are
(3) |z1|2 = z1z2
concurrent is
(4) |z1| = |z2| = 3
(1) 1 (2) 2
  
(3) 3 (4) 4 66. If 216  162 , then  and are roots of the
2
63. Let f(x) = ax2 + bx + c, such that a  0, c > 0
equation (where   R+)
and b2 – 4ac > 0 then f(f()) + f(f()) is equal
(1) 9x2 – 9x + 2 = 0
to (if ,  are zeros of equation f(x) = 0).
(2) 8x2 – 7x + 3 = 0
(1) 2c (2) 2(c – a)
(3) 9x2 + 7x – 2 = 0
2b c
(3) – (4)
a a (4) 9x2 – 9x + 4 = 0
9/11
67. The sum of infinite series 73. The principal argument of complex number
1 1 1 6  6 6 
   ... terms is z  2cos  i sin  is
1.4 4.7 7.10  cos
7  7 7 
1 1
(1) (2) 6 
2 3 (1) (2)
7 7
1 1
(3) (4) 6 
4 5 (3) (4)
7 7
68. Let a, b, c, d  R and the equation x4 + ax3 +
74. If a > b > c and a, b, c  R such that a3 + b3 +
bx2 + cx + d = 0 has four non-real roots. The
c3 = 3abc, then the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0
sum of two of the roots is 13 + i and the
has
product of other two roots is 3 + 4i, where
(1) Both roots more than unity
i  –1, then (d – a) is equal to
(2) One root is unity and other is less than 1
(1) 36 (2) 48
(3) One root is unity and other is more than 1
(3) 25 (4) 51
69. Let a1 = 3 and let an = a1.a2 ... an–1 + 2, for (4) Both roots are less than –1
n  2. If given result true by principle of 75. The conjugate of z  3z , where z = x + iy,
mathematical induction, then a10 is equal to x, y  R, i  1 , is equal to

(1) 21024 + 1 (2) 264 + 1
(1) z  3z (2) 3z  z
(3) 2128 + 1 (4) 2512 + 1
(3) z  3z (4) z  3z
70. If the roots of x2 – 2x + a2 – 1 = 0 are opposite
76. Distance of point (3, 4) from line x + y = 1
in sign then exhaustive set of values of a is
measured parallel to x + 2y = 1 is
(1) (–1, 1) (2) (1, )
(1) 6 units (2) 12 units
(3) (– , –1) (4) (0, 1)
 (3) 180 units (4) 18 units

n2
71. The value of  n ! is
n 1 77. If sum of n-terms of two A.P. are in ratio
(1) e (2) 2e (2n + 1) : 1 then ratio of their 4th terms is
(3) 3e (4) 5e (1) 10 : 1 (2) 15 : 1
72. The second term of some arithmetic (3) 5 : 1 (4) 7 : 1

progression containing only whole numbers is
78. If ,  are roots of 4x2 – 16x + c = 0, c > 0 such
2 and the sum of the squares of third and
that 1 <  < 2 <  < 3 then sum of all integral
fourth terms is less than 4. The first term of the
values of c is
progression is
(1) 36 (2) 42
(1) 3 (2) 5
(3) 48 (4) 56
(3) 7 (4) 2
10/11
79. Number of real roots of 83. If the equation z2 – (3 + i) z + k + 2i = 0, k  R
x  1  x  1  4x  1 is equal to has a real root, then the value of k is equal to
84. The sum of product of roots taken two at a

(1) Zero (2) 1
time of the equation x3 + 3x2 + 4x4 – 2x + 1 = 0
(3) 2 (4) 3
is . The value of 16 equals
80. If origin is shifted to (3, 1) then new equation of
85. If a + 2b + 3c = 0 then the line ax + by + c = 0
line x + y = 4 is
must pass through the point ( ,). Then the
(1) x + y = 0 (2) x – y = 0 value of ( + ) is
(3) x + y = 8 (4) x – y = 8 86. Let a, b > 0 and ab = 25 then minimum value

of a + b is
SECTION - II
87. If (x – 2) + (y – 3)i > 2 + (z – 1)i, where x, y, z
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any five  N and i  1 then minimum value of x + y
questions out of 10. The answer to each question + z is
is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter
88. The absolute value of  for which x2 + 4xy +
the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
3y2 + 3x + 5y +  can be expressed as the
product of two linear factors is
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, 00.33, 00.30, 30.27, 27.30)
using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric 89. If z1, z2 are two complex numbers such that
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. z1  12z2

z1  12 and  1, then z2 is
81. The ordinate of point of intersection of pair of 12  z1z2
straight line x2 + 2y2 + 3xy – x – 2 = 0 is equal to
82. If the equation (2 – 5 + 6)x2 + (2 – 3 + 2)x 90. The equations x2 + 3x + 5 = 0 and ax2 + bx +
+ (2 – 4) = 0 is satisfied by more than two c = 0 have a common root. If a, b, c  N then
values of x then value of  is equal to the least possible value of a + b + c is equal to
  
11/11
A
Test Booklet
Code
24-10-2021
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST No. 1
(XI Studying Students)
ANSWERS & HINTS

Test - 1 (Code-A)(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2023
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2023
TEST - 1
Test Date : 24/10/2021
ANSWERS
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
1. (2) 31. (1) 61. (3)
2. (4) 32. (1) 62. (2)
3. (1) 33. (2) 63. (3)
4. (2) 34. (3) 64. (1)
5. (2) 35. (1) 65. (1)
6. (2) 36. (1) 66. (3)
7. (2) 37. (4) 67. (4)
8. (4) 38. (1) 68. (3)
9. (3) 39. (4) 69. (1)
10. (2) 40. (2) 70. (2)
11. (4) 41. (4) 71. (3)
12. (1) 42. (3) 72. (4)
13. (4) 43. (3) 73. (1)
14. (4) 44. (1) 74. (2)
15. (1) 45. (2) 75. (2)
16. (2) 46. (2) 76. (4)
17. (2) 47. (2) 77. (2)
18. (2) 48. (4) 78. (2)
19. (4) 49. (2) 79. (3)
20. (2) 50. (4) 80. (3)
21. (45.00) 51. (00.76) 81. (07.00)
22. (08.00) 52. (44.75) 82. (32.00)
23. (07.07) 53. (40.00) 83. (13.00)
24. (01.73) 54. (17.50) 84. (24.00)
25. (00.00) 55. (92.00) 85. (35.00)
26. (01.58) 56. (72.00) 86. (21.00)
27. (20.00) 57. (08.00) 87. (04.00)
28. (07.50) 58. (03.00) 88. (07.00)
29. (10.00) 59. (06.00) 89. (09.00)
30. (02.00) 60. (10.00) 90. (40.00)
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2023 Test - 1 (Code-A)(Hints & Solutions)
1
PART - A (PHYSICS) Sol. : PQ = v0 t
2
1. Answer (2)
s
Hint : vavg =
t
dx
Sol. : v = = (50 – 10t)
dt
 x = 50t – 5t2 + x0 position at time t

For t < 5, v > 0
For t > 5, v < 0 x0 at t = 0
At t = 5, x5 = 125 + x0 at t = 5
t = 6, x6 = 120 + x0 at t = 6 tan = 1
tan = 2
v0 v
 0 t
tan  tan 
125  5 130 65 t (tan  )(tan )

 vavg =   m/s v0 
6 6 3 (tan   tan )
2. Answer (4)
2  1 2 4
Hint : f(x) = asin + b cos has maximum v0   m/s
1 2 3
value a2  b2 Distance PQ will be equal to area under v–t
12   graph
Sol. : Y = & 0    
f ()  2
1 4 4
 PQ   2  m
2 3 3
[f()]max = 1  ( 3)  2
2
5. Answer (2)
12
 Ymin = 6
2 1 2
Hint : Apply s = ut + at
3. Answer (1) 2
Hint : Find velocity as a function of time 1

Sol. : –10 = 10 t + (–10) t 2
2
dv
Sol. :  4 – 2v
dt  t = ( 3  1) sec
v t
dv
  4 – 2v   dt 6. Answer (2)
0 0
T
Hint : % error =  100
 v = 2(1 – e–2t) T
 vmax = 2 m/s 1
Sol. : % error =  100
4. Answer (2) 50
Hint : Draw v – t graph of motion. = 2%
2/12
Test - 1 (Code-A)(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2023
7. Answer (2) 11. Answer (4)
Hint : [a] will be same as dimensional formula Hint : T = 4 + 4 + 4

of Y = 12 sec
Sol. : [a] = [L] 2u

Sol. :  12
g
[b] = [T–1]
 u = 60 m/s
[c] = [L–1]
1
OP = (60) × 4 + (–10) (16)
a   L  2
 –1 –1  = [M L T ]
0 2 1
 bc  =
   T L  = 240 – 80
8. Answer (4) = 160 m

12. Answer (1)
Hint : [R] = [M L2 T–3 A–2]
s
Sol. : [R2] = [M2 L4 T–6 A–4] Hint : vavg =
t
 [Y] = [M2 L4 T–5 A–4]
Sol. : t = 3 sec
9. Answer (3) 1
s = 34
Hint : F = ma 2
 [ma] = [M L T–2] =6m

6
 M L T –2   vavg = = 2 m/s
Sol. : [P] =  1/2  = [ML1/2 T –2 ] 3
 L 
13. Answer (4)
[Q] = [M L T–4] Hint : Zeroes at the beginning are not
significant
 P  M L T   –1/2 2 
1/2 –2
   = L T  Sol. : Significant figure = 4
Q  M L T –4 
14. Answer (4)
2 Total time
P 
    [M0 L–1 T 4 ] Hint : t =
No. of oscillations
Q 
Least no. of significant figures in any no.
10. Answer (2)
determines the no. of signified figures in the
dv answer in multiplication are division
Hint : v  (2 – x )
dx 60.60
Sol. : t = = 3.030
0 xmax
20
Sol. :  v dv   (2  x ) dx 15. Answer (1)
0 0
P 1 a b
Hint :  100   100  2  100
2 P 2 a b
xmax
 0 = 2xmax –
2 C d
3  100   100
C d
as at xmax velocity will be zero
P 1 1
 xm = 4 m or 0. Sol. :  100   2%  2  1%  3  %  3%
P 2 3
(Accepting xmax = 4 in magnitude) = 1% + 2% + 1% + 3%
a=2 m/s2 = 7%
3/12
16. Answer (2) 

=  [cos x ]0 /2
dy 2
Hint : Slope =
dx 
= 1
2
dy  1  2
Sol. :   2x  x
dx  x 2 
21. Answer (45.00)
Hint : Use relative motion
dy
At x = 2, 1 1
dx Sol. : spq = uPQ t + aPQ t 2
2
17. Answer (2)
1
Hint : If y = f(g(x))
= (50) × 1 – (10) (1)2
2
dy = 50 – 5 = 45 m
  f '(g ( x )) g '( x )
dx 22. Answer (08.00)
dy 2 [LT –1 ]2 [T]
Sol. :  (e x )2 x Hint : p =
dx [M ]
at x = 1
dy
 2e [L2 T –2 ] [T]
dx Sol. : [p] =
[M ]
18. Answer (2) = [M–1L2 T–1]
ds  x = – 1, y = 2, z = – 1
Hint : v
dt (x + 4y – z) = –1 + 8 + 1 = 8
Sol. : v = a + bt2 23. Answer (07.07)
 [a] = [v] = [LT–1] Hint : a=v

dv
dx
[b] =  2  = [LT–3]
v
  v2
T Sol. :  adx  2
a 
    [T 2 ] 1 v2
b    2  25 
2 2
19. Answer (4)
 v = 5 2 m/s
dx 1
Hint :  ax  b  a ln(ax  b) + C 24. Answer (01.73)
Hint : Slope of v-t curves gives us acceleration
1 aA tan 60
Sol. : I = [ln(2x  3)]10 Sol. :   3
2 aB tan 45
1 5 = 01.73
= ln
2 3
25. Answer (00.00)
20. Answer (2) s
Hint : vavg =
x2 t
Hint : A =  f ( x ) dx Sol. : S0 = 0
x1
S2 = 4 – 4
 /2
 s = 0
Sol. : A = –
2  sin x dx =0
0  vavg = 0
4/12
26. Answer (01.58) u 2 400

Sol. : s =  = 20
Hint : v2 = u2 + 2as 2g 20
Sol. : (2)2 = (1)2 + 2as 20

t= 2s
10
2 s
Also v m = (1)2 + 2 a
2 20
v  = 10 m/s
2
2 3
 vm = (1)2 + 30. Answer (02.00)
2
5 dv
Hint : a=
= dt
2
dv
5 Sol. : a= = 2t – 2
 vm = = 1.58 m/s dt
2
a = 4–2 = 2 m/s2
27. Answer (20.00)
Hint : Use concept of relative velocity PART - B (CHEMISTRY)
Sol. : v = (uPQ)2 + 2 aPQsPQ 31. Answer (1)

 (0)2 = (10)2 – 2 × 10 sPQ Hints : Molar mass = mass of each particle XNA
 sPQ = 5 m Sol. : Volume of virus = r 2
 Dmin = 25–5 = 20 m
22 200 200
    1016  6000  108 cm3
28. Answer (07.50) 7 2 2
Hint : [Power] =  
w  1.885  1016 cm3
t  
1.885  1016
Weight of one virus 
[Pressure] =  
F 0.03
A  
 6.285  1015 g
M L T 2 –2  2 –3
Sol. : [Power] =   = [ML T ]
 T  Mol. wt. of virus = 6.285 × 10–15 × 6.023 × 1023
= 3.785 × 109 g/mol

MLT –2 
[Pressure] =   = [ML–1T–2]
32. Answer (1)
L2
Hints : Total moles of AgCl formed is equal to
 Power  ML2 T –3
 Pressure  = = [M0L3T–1] mole of NaCl + moles of KCl
ML–1 T –2
Sol. :
 x = 0, y = 3, z = – 1
AgNO3 + NaCl  AgCl + NaNO3
x  4y – 3z 0  12  3
 = 7.5 AgNO3 + KCl  AgCl + KNO3
2 2
Moles of AgCl = moles of (NaCl + KCl)
29. Answer (10.00)
s X 2.66  X 5.74
Hint : v=  
t 58.5 74.5 143.5
5/12
(NaCl) X = 1.17 g 0.9  1000  0.05

MNH3   2.64
Mass of KCl = 1.49 g 17
3x moles of Fe3+ = moles of NH3

Moles of NaCl = 0.02
= 2.64 × V (in l)
Moles of KCl = 0.02
3  6.25  10 3
Moles of NaCl V= = 7.10 × 10–3 = 7.1 ml
 1.00 2.64
Moles of KCl
37. Answer (4)
33. Answer (2)
Hints : Follow the rules for determining the
Hints : 2 mole of complex reacts with 3 mole of
number of significant figures.
Zn2+
Sol. : 25 ml of ferrocyanide contains Sol. :
= 0.01 × 25 = 0.25 mmol No. of significant figure

mmol of Zn2+ in the test solution
2.005 4
= 0.25 × 1.5 = 0.375 mmol
Mass of Zn = 0.375 × 10–3 × 65 = 0.0243 g 0.005 1
0.0243 0.2000 4
% purity =  100  16.25%
0.15
2854 4
34. Answer (3)
1000  M 8.253 × 10–3 4

Hints : m 
1000d  M  M.wt
185.0 4
(d-density of solution in g/mL)
4000 1
Sol. : Molarity changes with change in
temperature. 38. Answer (1)
35. Answer (1)
Hints : The result must be reported with no
Hints : Left out moles of acid/base will decide more significant figures as in the measurement
the nature of solution. with the few significant figures.
Sol. : Number of moles of HCl is more than that Sol. :
of NaOH, so final solution becomes acidic.
5.001  9.10  45.50
36. Answer (1) Four significant Three significant
figure figure
Hints : 2  nFe2O3  nFe(OH)3 ; nNH3  3  nFe(OH)3
Reported answer = 45.5
Sol. : The precipitation reaction is,
39. Answer (4)
3
Fe  3NH3  3H2O  Fe(OH)3  3NH4
Hints : Equivalent weight of tin is not same in
Moles of Fe2O3 in sample both the compounds.
0.5  1 Sol. :
=  3.125  103
160
 nSn  62.63  35.5 1
      [ SnCl2]
 nCl A 119  37.37 2
2 0.5 1 
Mole of Fe3+ =  6.25  10 3
160
6/12
 nSn  45.6  35.5 1 42. Answer (3)

    [ SnCl4]
 nCl B 119  54.4 4 Hints : Radial distribution function and
probability density have similar shape for
(nCl)A : (nCl)B = 1 : 2 orbitals other than s-orbital.
Sol. : Number of peaks in radial distribution
Equivalent weight of Sn in compound A function versus radius is same as in probability
density versus radius for orbitals other than
62.63
=  35.5 s-orbitals.
37.37
43. Answer (3)
= 59.5 Hints : Ejection of photoelectron depend on
frequency not in intensity.
Equivalent weight of Sn in compound B
Sol. :
45.6 Even at low intensity, electrons are ejected
=  35.5
54.4 immediately if the frequency of incident light is
more than threshold frequency.
 29.75
44. Answer (1)
40. Answer (2)
3 P2
Hints : Translational K.E. = kT 
n 2 2me
Hints : Molarity =
V Sol. :
P  3KTme
Circumference
Sol. :
nh nh
= 2r  n  
P 3KTme
4  6.6  10 34
MV = n =
(3  1 10 23  768  9  10 31 )1/2
yx = k = 1.83 × 10–8 m
41. Answer (4) = 183 × 10–10 m = 183 Å

45. Answer (2)
Hints : Total nodes = (n – 1) and radial nodes =
Hints : Energy of electron in nth orbit
(n – l – 1)
22me 4K 2 Z2
E=
Sol. : n2 h2
Sol. :
Radial nodes Total nodes
mv 2 Ze2
4dxy 1 3 
r 40r 2
5py 3 4 Ze2
v2 
40mr
5dyz 2 4
n3
6dxz 3 5 T
Z2
7/12
46. Answer (2) 52. Answer (44.75)

Hints : Three orbitals of p-subshell have same Hints : 1 mol CCl4 reacts with 1 mole SbF3
energy
Sol. :
Sol. :
38.5
In 2p-orbitals, the two electrons must be singly nCCl4   0.25
154
occupied and must have same spin direction.
47. Answer (2) WSbF3  0.25  179 g
Hints : Probability density is maximum at the
53. Answer (40.00)
nucleus for s-orbitals
Hints : Equate the mole of atoms
Sol. :
3/2 Sol. :
1  1 r /ao
   e
  a0  19 6
(1  x  y)  3
12  x  80y 18
Hence, 2 is maximum at r = 0
But 4r22 is minimum at r = 0 19
(1  x  y)  1
12  x  80y
48. Answer (4)
h 19 + 19x + 19y = 12 + x + 80y
Hints : x  P 
4 7 + 18x = 61y … (1)
h Also x + y = 4 … (2)
Sol. : v 
4mx
Solving (1) and (2), we get
6.626  1034 Js
 y=1
4  3.14  9.1 1031  5  1012
= 1.158 × 107 ms–1 x=3
49. Answer (2) 54. Answer (17.50)
Z2 eV n
Hints : E  13.6  Hints : Molality =
n2 atom Wsolvent
Sol. : IE of H-atom = K = 13.6 eV 20 120
Sol. : Total moles of NaOH =   3.5 mol
 1 8 8 40 40
E  K  1    K   ionization energy
 9 9 9
Total weight of solvent = 80 + 180 = 260 g
50. Answer (4)
n 3.5
Hints : Cr has valence EC of 4s13d5 Molality =  mol kg1
Wsolvent 0.26
Sol. :
3.5
24Cr
+ = 3d5 1.3   17.5
0.26
51. Answer (00.76)
55. Answer (92.00)
500
Hints : For 0.5 kg of (CF2)n, Mole 
50  n Hints : Apply POAC to carbon
Sol. Sol. :
500  4n Ca(OH)
Moles of CoF3 required =  40 K 4 [Fe(CN)6 ] 
oxidation
CO2 (g) 
2
CaCO3 (s)
50  n
Moles of F2 required = 20 moles Applying POAC to C
Mass of F2 = 20 × 38 = 760 g 6  nK 4 [Fe(CN)6 ]   1(nCaCO3 )
8/12
1.5 368 Ground state of H– = 1s2

WtK 4 [Fe(CN)6 ]    0.92
100 6 First excited state of H– = 1s1 2s1
0.92  100 Second excited state of H– = 1s1 2s 2p1
% purity of K4[Fe(CN)6] =  92
1
56. Answer (72.00)
 1 1
Hints :   RZ2  2  2 
 n1 n2 
 1 1  1 1  59. Answer (06.00)

Sol. : 9  2  2    2  2 
 1
n n2   2 4  Hints : Theory
 1 1  1 1  Sol. :
 2  2 2  2
 n1 n2   6 12  All the given statements are correct.
So n1 = 6 and n2 = 12 60. Answer (10.00)
57. Answer (08.00) h

Hints :  
Hints : rn of hypothetical atom is half of the rn of (2meV)1/2
H atom
6.626  1034 Js
Sol. :  =
Sol. :
2me v KZe
 2
2 2
 2  (9.1 1031   1.6  1019  500)1/2
r r
= 0.55 × 10–10 m
2
KZe
2me v 2  PART - C (MATHEMATICS)
r
nh
2me vr  61. Answer (3)
2
Hint : x – 1 < [x]  x
nh
v Sol. :  For 1  x 2 , x  [1, 1] and [x]  0
4 mer
 x  [–1, 0)  {1}
 n2h2  KZe2
2me  2 2 2
  Domain of f(x) = [–1, 0)  {1}
16 mer  r
62. Answer (2)
2 2
nh Hint : Factorize the given expression, then use
rn 
8 meKZe
2 2 wavy curve method.
Sol. : (x3 – 3x + 2) (x3 – 3x2) (4 – x2)  0
n2h2
rn H  (x – 2) (x– 1)x2 (x – 3) (2 + x) (2 – x)  0
42meKZe2
x2(x – 2)2 (x – 1) (x – 3) (x + 2)  0
(r4 )H 4 8 2
 8
(r2 )Hyp 22  4
 x  (–, –2]  [1, 3]  {0}
58. Answer (03.00)
63. Answer (3)
Hints : For more than one electron system
Hint : (AC)C = A and ((AC)C)C = AC
energy levels is given by Aufbau principle.
Sol. : (((AC)C)C)C – ((BC)C)C
Sol. :
= A – BC
Single electron species do not follow the (n + ) = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} – {2, 4, 6, 8, 10}
rule but multi electron species do. = {1, 3, 5}
9/12
64. Answer (1) 70. Answer (2)

Hint : A = {x : x2 – 7x – 8 = 0} = {–1, 8} Hint : Use properties of log
Sol. : B C = {4}
Sol. : log28 = 3, log416 = 2 and 3log4 5  5log4 3
 A × (B  C) = {(–1, 4), (8, 4)}
71. Answer (3)
65. Answer (1)
Hint : Apply replacement property of functions
Hint : A set having n elements has 2n subsets.
Sol. : Put x + y = a & x – y = b
Sol. : Set A has 4 distinct elements, hence 16
subsets are possible. 2(a  b) (a  b)
 f(a, b) = 
66. Answer (3) 2 2
Hint : Here f(1) = 2 a  3b 15

=  f (3,4) 
2 2
Sol. :  2 + x2 – 3x + y – 2 (x2 – 3x + 4) = 0
72. Answer (4)
–x2 + 3x – 2 = 0
Hint : |x|  a x (–, –a]  [a, )
 x2 – 3x + 2 = 0
 x = 1 or 2 |[x] – 2|  3
67. Answer (4)  [x] – 2  – 3 or [x] – 2  3
Hint : Get all the divisors of 20 and 24  [x]  –1 or [x]  5

Sol. : A {1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20}  x<0 or x5
and B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 24}  x(–, 0)  [5, )
 AB = {3, 5, 6, 8, 10, 12, 20, 24} 73. Answer (1)
 n(AB) = 8 Hint : Make Venn diagram
68. Answer (3)
Sol. : C – A = C  A  C = 
Hint : If |x| < a then x  (–a, a) if a > 0.
B – C =   B C  A  B = 
Sol. : 2|x|2 – 5|x| + 2 < 0
74. Answer (2)
  (2|x| – 1) (|x| – 2) < 0.
Hint : Graphical transformation
1   1  1 
  |x|   , 2   x   –2, –    , 2  .
2   2 2 
Sol. : Graph of lnx and ||ln|x|| + 1|
69. Answer (1)
= 1 + |lnx||
Hint : [x] = 1  x  [1, 2).
75. Answer (2)
Sol. : [x2 + x + 1] = 1  x2 + x + 1  [1, 2)
  1  x2 + x + 1 < 2. Hint : f(x) = ±xn + 1
  x  (–  – 1]  [0, ) Sol. : As f(3) = 28  f(x) = x3 + 1  f(5) = 126

76. Answer (4)
 –1– 5 –1  5 
and x   , 
 2 2 Hint : y = 1 + 2–x
 
  Required solution is Sol. : y  1  log2 2 x
 –1– 5   –1  5   log2(y – 1) = –x  x = –log2(y – 1)

 , – 1  0, 
 2   2  y(1, )
10/12
77. Answer (2) 82. Answer (32.00)

Hint : n(P(A)) = 2n if n(A) = n Hint : Use Venn diagram
20 Sol. : From given information the Venn diagram
Sol. : n(P(P(P(A)))) = 22 4
is
78. Answer (2)
Hint : {x} = x – [x]
x2 x  (0, 1)

Sol. : f ( x )   x( x  1) x  [1, 2)

 x( x  2) x  [2, 3)
 Total number of required students = 11 + 8

+ 7 + 6 = 32
83. Answer (13.00)
Hint : Use replacement of different values of x.
Sol. :  f(x + 3) = f(3)  f(x)
 y[0, 3) put x = 0
79. Answer (3)  f(3) = f(3) × f(0)
Hint : {x}[0, 1)  f(0) = 1
Let [x] = I and {x} = f Now for x = – 3; f(0) = f(3)  f(–3)
 2I + 3 = 5f + f + I 1
 f(–3)   13
f (3)
I 3
 f   [0, 1)
6 84. Answer (24.00)
 I = –3 is only solution Hint : The maximum value of ax2 + bx + c if a <

D
80. Answer (3) 0 is – .
4a
Hint : ax + a–x  2
Sol. : The maximum value of given expression
Sol. : 2x + 2–x  2
1 1
 2x + 2–x + 3  5  
min. value of (4 x  2 x  1)
2
4·4·1– 22
 y[5, ) 4·4
81. Answer (07.00) 16
m=  18m = 24.
Hint : Get the two set then their cartesian 12
product. 85. Answer (35.00)
Sol. : A = {2, 3, 5, 7} and B = {2, 4, 6, 8} Hint : logba is defined if a > 0, b > 0 & b  1
 A  B = {2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8} and A  B = {2} Sol. : loge/3 log3e x  0
 (A  B) × (A  B) = {(2, 2), (3, 2), (4, 2),
 1 < x < 3e  x(1, 3e)
(5, 2), (6, 2), (7,2), 8, 2)}
i.e. x can be {2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}
 Number of elements = 7
S = 2 + 3 + …+ 8 = 35
11/12
86. Answer (21.00) 2f(1 – x) + 2f(x) = 3(1 – x)2
Hint : A B = (A  B) – (A  B) 6 x 2  3(1  x )2

 f (x)   f (2)  7
Sol. : n(A  B)max = 45 3
n(A  B)min = 25 89. Answer (09.00)
 Number of values = 21 Hint : Use Wavy curve method
87. Answer (04.00) ( x  3)( x  5)3

Sol. : 0
 3x  x 3  x ( x  2)
Hint : Simplify f   using properties of
 1 3x 2   x(0, 3] – {2}  {5}
log
 x{1, 3, 5}
 3x  x 3 
Sol. : f    3f ( x ) 90. Answer (40.00)
 1  3x 2 
 +k=1+3=4 Hint : x2 – 4  0  x [–2, 2]
88. Answer (07.00) Sol. : A = {–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}

Hint : Replacement property & B = {M, A, T, H, E, I, C, S}
Sol. : 2f(x) + f(1 – x) = 3x2
 n(A × B) = 5 × 8 = 40
  
12/12

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A

(XI Studying Students)

TOPICS OF THE TEST

Physics Motion in a Plane, Laws of Motion

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, Chemical

Quadratic Equations, Complex Number Par t-I, Sequences and

Time : 3 Hrs MM: 300

SECTION - I 3. A variable horizontal force F = 5t N (t is time in

2. A block of mass 2 kg is placed over smooth

(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 3 m/s2

(1) a2 + 4a3 = a1 (2) a2 + 4a1 = a3

6. A swimmer at point A on one bank of river

10. Two blocks of masses 4 kg and 5 kg are placed

4 kg and 6 kg blocks as shown. Contact force

(3) 18 N (4) 24 N (4) Zero

(1) 45° (2) 60°

(3) 37° (4) 30°

15. A particle, projected horizontally from point P

3g 2g by the particle at point Q will be (g = 10 m/s2)

12. A block of mass 2 kg, placed over rough plank

13. Given A   iˆ  2 jˆ  , B   2iˆ  jˆ  and C has

17. A particle of mass m = 1 kg tied at one end of SECTION - II

(1) 1.6 s (2) 4 s

24. Maximum possible speed with which a car can

(T1, T2 and T3 are tension in the string) (g = 10

30. A block of mass 2 kg is hanging vertically with

(2) The orbitals undergoing hybridization

(3) NH3 (4) H2O

(1) (2) Ca2+ > Na+ (Ionic radii)

(3) B < Al < Ga < In (Atomic radii)

(4) B > C > Na > O (Atomic radii)

(1) O > S > Se > Te > Po

(3) (2) F > N > O > C > B

(3) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe

(4) N > P > C > Si

(4) 47. Which of the following elements has highest

(4) Halogens have highest electronegativity in (3) N2O, NO, CO

the respective period (4) SO2, SO3, Al2O3

(iii) XeO2F4 (R) Linear shape repulsion only]

(1) 7, 7 (2) 7, 6 H, Li, Na, B, C, Si, He, O, F, Xe, Ne, Ar, K

(3) 6, 7 (4) 6, 6 56. The value of electronegativity in Pauling scale

SECTION - II is, if I.E. and electron affinity are 7 eV atom –1

(iii) O2  O2 60. Calculate expression (x + y) for diatomic

0, where a, b, c are distinct non zero real (3) 47 (4) 48

n  2. If given result true by principle of 75. The conjugate of z  3z , where z = x + iy,

mathematical induction, then a10 is equal to x, y  R, i  1 , is equal to

 (3) 180 units (4) 18 units

(1) e (2) 2e (2n + 1) : 1 then ratio of their 4th terms is

(3) 3e (4) 5e (1) 10 : 1 (2) 15 : 1

72. The second term of some arithmetic (3) 5 : 1 (4) 7 : 1

79. Number of real roots of 83. If the equation z2 – (3 + i) z + k + 2i = 0, k  R

x  1  x  1  4x  1 is equal to has a real root, then the value of k is equal to

84. The sum of product of roots taken two at a

(3) x + y = 8 (4) x – y = 8 86. Let a, b > 0 and ab = 25 then minimum value

keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. z1  12z2

straight line x2 + 2y2 + 3xy – x – 2 = 0 is equal to

(XI Studying Students)

ANSWERS & HINTS

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2023

 x = 50t – 5t2 + x0 position at time t

125  5 130 65 t (tan  )(tan )

Hint : Find velocity as a function of time 1

Hint : Draw v – t graph of motion. = 2%