Bİochem 5

Chapter 18
1. Deamination of most amino acids in the liver is accompanied by the conversion of:
A) pyruvate into alanine.
B) glutamate into glutamine.
C) a-ketoglutarate into glutamate.
D) nitrogen into urea.
E) oxaloacetate into aspartate.
2. Which cofactor is typically required in transamination reactions?

A) pyridoxal-phosphate
B) coenzyme Q
C) biotin
D) thiamin pyrophosphate
E) nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
3. Which amino acid can be considered to be both glucogenic and ketogenic?

A) threonine
B) aspartate
C) leucine
D) isoleucine
E) both threonine and isoleucine
4. In which pair of compounds is the second molecule produced by the deamination of the
first molecule?
A) aspartic acid and oxaloacetate
B) glutamine and glutamate
C) alanine and pyruvate
D) All of the answers are correct.
E) None of the answers is correct.
5. Nitrogen from protein is eliminated as what compound in animals?

A) ammonia
B) urea
C) pyrimidine
D) both ammonia and urea
E) both urea and pyrimidine
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6. Which statement is FALSE for uric acid?
A) This compound is produced in humans as a result of high-protein diets.
B) This compound is the major means of nitrogen elimination in birds.
C) This compound is a purine base.
D) This compound is a product of both protein and nucleic acid catabolism.
E) None of the statements is false.
7. Which hormone is triggered by the entry of acidic stomach content into the intestine?
A) gastrin
B) insulin
C) cholecystokinin
D) secretin
8. Which hormone is triggered by the entry of protein into the stomach?

A) gastrin
B) insulin
C) cholecystokinin
D) secretin
9. Which statement is FALSE regarding pepsin?

A) This enzyme is activated by irreversible covalent modification.
B) This enzyme is classified as a hydrolase.
C) This enzyme is highly active at neutral pH.
D) This enzyme is secreted in response to protein ingestion.
E) This enzyme has a specificity for cleavage at aromatic amino acids.
10. Which statement is TRUE regarding glutamine synthetase?

A) This enzyme is classified as a ligase.
B) An intermediate in the reaction catalyzed by this enzyme is an acyl phosphate.
C) This enzyme catalyzes a transamination reaction.
D) This enzyme is classified as a ligase, and an intermediate in the reaction catalyzed
by this enzyme is an acyl phosphate.
E) This enzyme is classified as a ligase and catalyzes a transamination reaction.
11. Which amino acid is used to transport nitrogen to the liver?

A) alanine
B) asparagine
C) glutamine
D) glutamate
E) both alanine and glutamine
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12. Which amino acid can be imported into mitochondria from the cytosol in liver cells?
A) glutamine
B) glutamate
C) ornithine
13. Which reaction associated with the urea cycle occurs in the cytosol?
A) the synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate
B) the synthesis of citrulline
C) the synthesis of arginosuccinate
D) the synthesis of both carbamoyl phosphate and citrulline
E) the synthesis of both citrulline and arginosuccinate
14. Which reaction is a hydrolysis reaction?

A) the conversion of arginine into urea and ornithine by arginase
B) the conversion of glutamine into glutamate by glutamase
C) the conversion of tyrosine into phenylalanine by phenylalanine hydroxylase
D) both the conversion of the arginine into urea and ornithine by arginase and the
conversion of glutamine into glutamate by glutamase
E) both the conversion of glutamine into glutamate by glutamase and the conversion
of tyrosine into phenylalanine by phenylalanine hydroxylase
15. A possible product of isoleucine catabolism is:

A) acetyl-CoA.
B) succinyl-CoA.
C) conversion to a-keto isoleucine (a-keto-b-methylvalerate).
16. What enzyme classes are responsible for interconverting glutamate and a-ketoglutarate?
A) hydrolases
B) transferases
C) ligases
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17. What processes are associated with the glucose-alanine cycle?
A) Gluconeogenesis in the liver
B) Glutamate synthesis in both muscle and the liver
C) Glucose export from the liver
18. Carbamoyl phosphate synthase I is allosterically activated by what molecule?

A) glutamate
B) arginine
C) N-acetylglutamate
D) carbamoyl phosphate
E) acetyl-CoA
19. Which statement is FALSE regarding pyridoxal phosphate?

A) This prosthetic group is critical in aminotransferase reactions.
B) This cofactor can form covalent bonds to lysine residues enzyme.
C) This cofactor can form covalent bonds to some intermediates.
D) This cofactor carries both positive and negative formal charges.
20. Conversion of ammonia to carbamoyl phosphate in mitochondria consumes how many

ATP equivalents?
A) none
B) one
C) two
D) three
21. Which statement is TRUE regarding the conversion of arginine to ornithine in the urea
cycle?
A) The enzyme catalyzing this reaction is a hydrolase.
B) This enzyme-catalyzed reaction occurs in the matrix.
C) One of the products of this reaction is fumarate.
D) The enzyme catalyzing this reaction is a ligase.
E) The enzyme catalyzing this reaction is a hydrolase, and the reaction occurs in a
matrix.
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22. If 15N-labeled glutamate is introduced into liver cells, what compounds in the urea cycle
will NOT be rapidly labeled with the nitrogen?
A) ornithine
B) aspartate
C) arginine
D) urea
E) both ornithine and aspartate
23. If 14C-labeled glutamate is introduced into liver cells, what compounds in the urea cycle
will be rapidly labeled with the carbon?
A) ornithine
B) aspartate
C) arginine
D) urea
24. What enzyme converts arginine into urea and ornithine?

A) arginase
B) urease
C) ornithine synthase
D) arginosuccinase
25. Phenylketoneuria is associated with disorders in the catabolism of which amino acid?
A) phenylalanine
B) tyrosine
C) tryptophan
D) histidine
26. Which compound is NOT transported across the inner mitochondrial membrane as part
of either the urea cycle and aspartate-arginosuccinate shunt?
A) fumarate
B) aspartate
C) ornithine
D) citrulline
E) neither fumarate nor citrulline
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27. Which compound is NOT an intermediate in the conversion of alanine's carbon skeleton
into that of aspartate?
A) acetyl-CoA
B) pyruvate
C) lactate
D) oxaloacetate
E) neither acetyl-CoA nor lactate
28. Serotonin is produced from the metabolism of which amino acid?

A) valine
B) serine
C) cysteine
D) tyrosine
E) tryptophan
29. Which compound can be described as glucogenic?

A) leucine
B) isoleucine
C) lysine
30. Which amino acid is catabolized to both succinyl-CoA and acetyl-CoA?

A) leucine
B) isoleucine
C) lysine
D) valine
E) both isoleucine and valine
31. Which compound can be described as exclusively ketogenic?

A) leucine
B) isoleucine
C) lysine
D) both leucine and lysine
E) both isoleucine and lysine
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32. Which statement is FALSE regarding ketogenic and glucogenic amino acids?
A) Glucogenic amino acids cannot be used to make ketone bodies.
B) Ketogenic amino acids can be used to synthesize fatty acids.
C) Leucine and Isoleucine are both exclusively ketogenic amino acids.
D) Both valine and threonine catabolism produce succinyl-CoA.
33. Methionine synthase uses what substrates to synthesize methionine?

A) cysteine
B) S-adenosyl methionine
C) ATP
D) homocysteine
34. Which compound is used in single-carbon transfer reactions?

A) S-adenosyl methionine
B) tetrahydrofolate
C) biotin
35. Which product is created during the conversion of threonine into glycine during amino
acid catabolism?
A) acetyl-CoA
B) water
C) NADH
D) both acetyl-CoA and NADH
E) both water and NADH
36. Conversion of serine into glycine requires which cofactor?

A) tetrahydrofolate
B) pyridoxal 5' phosphate
C) NADH
37. Catabolism of which substance can enter the citric acid cycle as succinyl-CoA?
A) threonine
B) odd-numbered fatty acids
C) methionine
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38. Which statement is TRUE regarding tyrosine catabolism?
A) The first step in catabolism of tyrosine is reduction to phenylalanine.
B) Tyrosine can be considered solely glucogenic.
C) Atoms from tyrosine's sidechain enter the citric acid cycle as fumarate.
D) All of the statements are true.
E) None of the statements is true.
39. Which amino acid enters the citric acid cycle as a-ketoglutarate during their
catabolism?
A) proline
B) threonine
C) aspartate
D) leucine
40. Which statement is TRUE regarding lysine?

A) This is a nonessential amino acid.
B) Catabolism of lysine shares multiple steps with that of tryptophan.
C) Carbons of lysine catabolism enter the citric acid cycle at succinyl-CoA.
D) Lysine is both glucogenic and ketogenic enzyme.
41. Which statement is TRUE regarding the branched-chain a-keto acid dehydrogenase
complex?
A) This enzyme is activated by phosphorylation.
B) This enzyme catalyzes a reaction homologous to succinate dehydrogenase.
C) This enzyme catalyzes an oxidative decarboxylation.
D) All of the statements are true.
42. Under which circumstances are amino acids NOT metabolized via oxidative
degradation?
A) starvation
B) plants growing in nutrient-rich soils
C) normal protein turnover
D) a diet rich in proteins
E) uncontrolled diabetes
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43. Which compound is NOT a protease that acts in the small intestine?
A) chymotrypsin
B) elastase
C) enteropeptidase
D) secretin
E) trypsin
44. In the digestion of protein that occurs in the small intestine, which enzyme is critical in
the activation of zymogens?
A) enteropeptidase
B) hexokinase
C) papain
D) pepsin
E) secretin
45. Which compound is a zymogen that can be converted to an endopeptidase that

hydrolyzes peptide bonds adjacent to Lys and Arg residues?
A) chymotrypsinogen
B) pepsin
C) pepsinogen
D) trypsin
E) trypsinogen
46. In amino acid catabolism, the first reaction for many amino acids is a(n):
A) decarboxylation requiring thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP).
B) hydroxylation requiring NADPH and O2.
C) oxidative deamination requiring NAD+.
D) reduction requiring pyridoxal phosphate (PLP).
E) transamination requiring pyridoxal phosphate (PLP).
47. The coenzyme required for all transaminations is derived from:

A) niacin.
B) pyridoxine (vitamin B6).
C) riboflavin.
D) thiamin.
E) vitamin B12.
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48. The coenzyme involved in a transaminase reaction is:
A) biotin phosphate.
B) lipoic acid.
C) nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP+).
D) pyridoxal phosphate (PLP).
E) thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP).
49. Transamination from alanine to a-ketoglutarate requires the coenzyme:

A) biotin.
B) NADH.
C) No coenzyme is involved.
D) pyridoxal phosphate (PLP).
E) thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP).
50. Which reaction involving an amino acid CANNOT be catalyzed via a PLP-dependent
mechanism?
A) hydrolysis
B) decarboxylation
C) racemization
D) transamination
E) transimination
51. Which statement is NOT true of the reaction catalyzed by glutamate dehydrogenase?
A) It is similar to transamination in that it involves the coenzyme pyridoxal phosphate
(PLP).
B) NH4+ is produced.
C) The enzyme can use either NAD+ or NADP+ as a cofactor.
D) The enzyme is glutamate-specific, but the reaction is involved in oxidizing other
amino acids.
E) a-Ketoglutarate is produced from an amino acid.
52. Glutamate is metabolically converted to a-ketoglutarate and NH4+ by a process

described as:
A) deamination.
B) hydrolysis.
C) oxidative deamination.
D) reductive deamination.
E) transamination.
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53. The conversion of glutamate to an a-keto acid and NH4+:
A) does not require any cofactors.
B) is a reductive deamination.
C) is accompanied by ATP hydrolysis catalyzed by the same enzyme.
D) is catalyzed by glutamate dehydrogenase.
E) requires ATP.
54. Urea synthesis in mammals takes place primarily in tissues of the:

A) brain.
B) kidney.
C) liver.
D) skeletal muscle.
E) small intestine.
55. Which substance is NOT involved in the production of urea from NH4+ via the urea
cycle?
A) aspartate
B) ATP
C) carbamoyl phosphate
D) malate
E) ornithine
56. Which substance directly donates a nitrogen atom for the formation of urea during the
urea cycle?
A) adenine
B) aspartate
C) creatine
D) glutamate
E) ornithine
57. Conversion of ornithine to citrulline is a step in the synthesis of:

A) aspartate.
B) carnitine.
C) pyruvate.
D) tyrosine.
E) urea.
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58. In the urea cycle, ornithine transcarbamoylase catalyzes:
A) cleavage of urea to ammonia.
B) formation of citrulline from ornithine and another reactant.
C) formation of ornithine from citrulline and another reactant.
D) formation of urea from arginine.
E) transamination of arginine.
59. Which statement is FALSE in reference to the mammalian synthesis of urea?

A) Krebs was a major contributor to the elucidation of the pathway involved.
B) The amino acid arginine is the immediate precursor to urea.
C) The carbon atom of urea is derived from mitochondrial HCO3–.
D) The precursor to one of the nitrogens of urea is aspartate.
E) The process of urea production is an energy-yielding series of reactions.
60. Which amino acid is essential for humans?

A) alanine
B) aspartic acid
C) asparagine
D) serine
E) threonine
61. If a person's urine contains unusually high concentrations of urea, which diet has he or
she probably been eating recently?
A) high carbohydrate, very low protein
B) very high carbohydrate, no protein, no fat
C) very very high fat, high carbohydrate, no protein
D) very high fat, very low protein
E) very low carbohydrate, very high protein
62. Which amino acid can be directly converted into a citric acid cycle intermediate by
transamination?
A) glutamic acid
B) serine
C) threonine
D) tyrosine
E) proline
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63. Which amino acids are both ketogenic and glucogenic?
1. isoleucine
2. valine
3. histidine
4. arginine
5. tyrosine
A) 1 and 5
B) 1, 3, and 5
C) 2 and 4
D) 2, 3, and 4
E) 2, 4, and 5
64. Tetrahydrofolate (THF) and its derivatives shuttle _____ between different substrates.
A) electrons
B) H+
C) acyl groups
D) one carbon units
E) NH2 groups
65. _____ is NOT a form of the most oxidized state of tetrahydrofolate (THF).
A) N10-formyl THF
B) N5N10-methenyl THF
C) N5N10-methylene THF
D) N5-formyl THF
E) N5-formimino THF
66. The amino acids serine, alanine, and cysteine can be catabolized to yield:
A) fumarate.
B) pyruvate.
C) succinate.
D) a-ketoglutarate.
67. Serine or cysteine may enter the citric acid cycle as acetyl-CoA after conversion to:
A) oxaloacetate.
B) propionate.
C) pyruvate.
D) succinate.
E) succinyl-CoA.
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68. The human genetic disease phenylketonuria (PKU) can result from:
A) deficiency of protein in the diet.
B) inability to catabolize ketone bodies.
C) inability to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine.
D) inability to synthesize phenylalanine.
E) production of enzymes containing no phenylalanine.
69. In the human genetic disease maple syrup urine disease, the metabolic defect involves:
A) a deficiency of the vitamin niacin.
B) oxidative decarboxylation.
C) synthesis of branched chain amino acids.
D) transamination of an amino acid.
E) uptake of branched chain amino acids into liver.
70. Which amino acids are converted to a-ketoglutarate?
1. glycine
2. glutamate
3. histidine
4. arginine
5. proline
A) 1, 3, and 5
B) 2, 3, and 4
C) 2, 3, and 5
D) 2, 3, 4, and 5
E) 3, 4, and 5
71. Which amino acids are converted to succinyl CoA?
1. isoleucine
2. valine
3. methionine
4. arginine
5. threonine
A) 2 and 4
B) 2, 3, and 4
C) 2, 4, and 5
D) 1 and 5
E) 1, 3, and 5
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72. Which amino acids are converted to oxaloacetate?
1. asparagine
2. glutamine
3. serine
4. arginine
5. aspartate
A) 2 and 4
B) 2, 3, and 4
C) 2, 4, and 5
D) 1 and 5
E) 1, 3, and 5
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Answer Key
1. C
2. A
3. E
4. D
5. D
6. E
7. D
8. A
9. C
10. D
11. E
12. D
13. C
14. D
15. D
16. D
17. D
18. C
19. E
20. C
21. E
22. A
23. E
24. A
25. A
26. A
27. E
28. E
29. B
30. B
31. D
32. C
33. D
34. D
35. D
36. D
37. E
38. C
39. A
40. B
41. C
42. B
43. D
44. A
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45. E
46. E
47. B
48. D
49. D
50. A
51. A
52. C
53. D
54. C
55. D
56. B
57. E
58. B
59. E
60. E
61. E
62. A
63. A
64. D
65. C
66. B
67. C
68. C
69. B
70. D
71. E
72. D
Chapter 19- Oxidative Phosphorylation
1. For mitochondria where an uncoupler for oxidative phosphorylation is present, which

statement is TRUE?
A) The rate of NADH reoxidation will decrease relative to coupled mitochondria.
B) The citric acid cycle will be inhibited relative to uncoupled mitochondria.
C) The P:O ratio for FADH2 will increase relative to uncoupled mitochondria.
D) The amount of ATP generated from FADH2 will be less than the amount of ATP
generated from NADH.
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2. Which statement regarding oxidative phosphorylation is TRUE?
A) The rate of electron transport is independent of the magnitude of the proton
electrochemical gradient.
B) ATP synthase utilizes oxidized cofactors.
C) Proton transfer through the Fo subunit of ATP synthase is required in order for ATP
synthesis to occur.
D) The addition of an uncoupler decreases the rate of re-oxidation of NADH and
FADH2, therefore decreasing the rate of the citric acid cycle.
E) All of the statements are true.
3. The consumption of acetyl-CoA by the citric acid cycle is DECREASED under which
condition?
A) the concentration of NAD+ being high
B) the concentration of oxaloacetate being high
C) NADH being rapidly re-oxidized via the electron-transport chain
D) the mitochondrial ATP synthase being inactive
E) the concentration of both NAD+ and oxaloacetate being high
4. Which molecule can reduce the proton gradient in mitochondria?

A) Pi-H+ symporter
B) ATP synthase
C) pyruvate translocase
5. How many molecules of water are produced by the electron-transport chain during the
complete aerobic oxidation of one molecule of pyruvate?
A) 3 H2O
B) 4 H2O
C) 5 H2O
D) 8 H2O
E) 10 H2O
6. The electron-transport chain and ATP synthase are effectively coupled. Which
statement BEST describes how this occurs?
A) The electron-transport chain reoxidizes reduced cofactors.
B) The electron-transport chain generates an electrochemical gradient that provides
energy for the production of ATP.
C) ATP synthase utilizes oxidized cofactors.
D) Through a series of conformational changes, ATP synthase generates ATP.
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7. Which statement is NOT true of electron transport?
A) The mobile electron carrier coenzyme A is located in the inner mitochondrial
membrane.
B) Electrons flow from redox centers with a lower reduction potential to redox centers
with a higher reduction potential.
C) The electron transport chain oxidizes reduced cofactors.
D) Cytochrome C has a higher reduction potential than FADH2.
8. During oxidative phosphorylation, the proton motive force (electrochemical gradient)

that is generated by electron transport is used to:
A) create a pore in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
B) generate the substrates (ADP and Pi) for ATP synthase.
C) drive transport processes essential to oxidative phosphorylation.
D) reduce NAD+ to NADH.
E) reduce O2 to H2O.
9. Coenzyme Q is a prosthetic group for which of the following complexes in the electron
transport chain?
A) Complex I
B) Complex II
C) Complex III
10. Which statement does NOT describe a difference between the inner and outer
mitochondrial membranes?
A) The outer mitochondrial membrane contains porins, whereas the inner
mitochondrial membrane does not.
B) The outer mitochondrial membrane is permeable to large proteins (Mr > 10,000),
whereas the inner mitochondrial membrane is not.
C) A pH gradient exists across the inner mitochondrial membrane but not the outer
mitochondrial membrane.
D) The inner mitochondrial membrane contains a smaller percentage of lipid relative
to protein compared with the outer mitochondrial membrane.
E) The outer mitochondrial membrane has a smaller surface area than the inner
mitochondrial membrane.
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11. What factor makes the outer mitochondrial membrane permeable to protons?
A) proton symports
B) proton antiports
C) porins
D) the presence of proton ionophores
E) the presence of negatively charged lipids
12. Which cofactor is MOST commonly involved as a cosubstrate in catabolic reactions

where a metabolite is oxidized?
A) NAD+
B) FAD
C) NADPH
D) NADH
E) coenzyme Q
13. Which statement is FALSE regarding flavoproteins?

A) They may contain either FMN or FAD.
B) The reduction potential of the flavin will depend on the amino acids in the
polypeptide chain.
C) They will need at least two substrates in order to function as enzymes.
D) They are always integral membrane proteins.
E) Most flavoproteins in electron transport have a lower reduction potential than
coenzyme Q.
14. Complex III contains which cofactor as a prosthetic group?

A) iron-sulfur clusters
B) FAD
C) FMN
D) coenzyme Q
E) copper
15. Which characteristic describes heme a but not heme c?

A) noncovalently associated prosthetic group
B) contains an isoprenoid structure
C) contains an aldehyde substituent on the porphyrin ring
D) contains two propionate substituents on the porphyrin ring
E) contains a vinyl substituent on the porphyrin ring
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16. Which component of the electron-transport chain is NOT an integral membrane protein?
A) NADH dehydrogenase
B) cytochrome c
C) cytochrome oxidase
D) ubiquinone:cytochrome c oxidoreductase
E) succinate dehydrogenase
17. Which protein associated with electron transport below is NOT a flavoprotein?
A) NADH dehydrogenase
B) mitochondrial glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
C) cytochrome oxidase
D) succinate dehydrogenase
E) acyl-CoA dehydrogenase
18. If a drug that specifically prevented the interaction of cytochrome c with other proteins
was added to respiring mitochondria in a test tube, what effects would be observed?
A) ATP synthesis would immediately stop.
B) Oxygen consumption would increase.
C) Reduced cofactors (NADH/FADH2) would accumulate.
D) Coenzyme Q would become oxidized.
E) Proton export from the matrix would increase.
19. Which statement is FALSE concerning Complex III and the Q cycle?
A) Both Q and QH2 are substrates for Complex III.
B) Four protons are released on the P side of the membrane for every two electrons
transferred to cytochrome c.
C) This protein contains both iron-sulfur clusters and heme as prosthetic groups.
D) Two protons from the matrix side are used to generate QH2 from the semiquinone
radical.
E) Overall, in each cycle one cytochrome c is reduced for every QH2 oxidized (net).
20. How many of cytochrome c need to be reoxidized for every oxygen molecule (O2)
converted to water?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) eight
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21. Which list shows the proteins in the CORRECT order from highest to lowest reduction
potential?
A) acyl-CoA dehydrogenase ® ETF:Q oxidoreductase ® ETF
B) ETF ® ETF:Q oxidoreductase ® acyl-CoA dehydrogenase
C) ETF:Q oxidoreductase ® acyl-CoA dehydrogenase ® ETF
D) ETF:Q oxidoreductase ® ETF ® acyl-CoA dehydrogenase
E) ETF ® acyl-CoA dehydrogenase ® ETF:Q oxidoreductase
22. What is the P:O ratio for electrons entering the electron-transport chain that originate
from reoxidation of acyl-CoA dehydrogenase?
A) greater than the P:O ratio for NADH reoxidation
B) approximately the same as the P:O ratio for NADH reoxidation
C) less than the P:O ratio for NADH reoxidation but more than the P:O ratio for
Complex II reoxidation
D) approximately the same as the P:O ratio for Complex II reoxidation
E) less than the P:O ratio for Complex II reoxidation
23. Which complex in the electron-transport chain contains copper ions?

A) Complex I
B) Complex II
C) Complex III
D) Complex IV
E) None of these complexes contains copper ions.
24. Cytochrome c can be reduced directly by small molecules such as ascorbate (vitamin C).
If ascorbate is added to an oxygenated solution containing purified cytochrome c and
cytochrome oxidase, what would you predict would occur?
A) ATP synthesis would occur.
B) Cytochrome c would become reduced and remain reduced.
C) Oxygen would be reduced to water.
D) Ascorbate would become more reduced.
E) No apparent change would be observed.
25. What compound is a product of the reaction involving the superoxide free radical
catalyzed by superoxide dismutase?
A) water
B) hydrogen peroxide
C) reduced glutathione
D) oxidized glutathione
E) NADPH
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26. In some organisms, an alternative oxidase will accept electrons from ubiquinol and
reduce oxygen to water with no associated proton translocation. What would be a
consequence of having this oxidase active?
A) decreased rate of NADH reoxidation
B) decreased P:O ratio
C) decreased rate of oxygen consumption
D) inhibition of oxidative pathways like the citric acid cycle
E) increased sensitivity to cyanide poisoning
27. During the operation of the malate-aspartate shuttle, what process does NOT occur?
A) net movement of reducing potential from the cytosol to the matrix
B) transfer of amino groups from glutamate to oxaloacetate in the cytosol
C) transport of two different amino acids through an antiport
D) simultaneous transport of malate and oxaloacetate through an antiport
E) reduction of oxaloacetate to malate in the cytosol
28. Which statement is TRUE regarding the reduction potential of mitochondrial glycerol 3
phosphate dehydrogenase?
A) It will be higher than those of both NADH and Complex III.
B) It will be lower than those of both NADH and Complex III.
C) It will be higher than that of NADH but lower than that of Complex III.
D) It will be lower than that of NADH but higher than that of Complex III.
E) No conclusion can be drawn regarding its reduction potential.
29. Which statement is FALSE regarding 2,4-dinitrophenol?

A) It is a proton carrier ionophore.
B) It may be either neutral or negatively charged.
C) It is soluble in the lipid core of membranes.
D) It requires a specific transporter to enter mitochondria.
E) It decreases ATP synthesis will increasing oxygen consumption.
30. What effect will increasing the number of c subunits in ATP synthase have on the P:O
ratio?
A) It will increase for both NADH and FADH2.
B) It will increase for NADH and decrease for FADH2.
C) It will decrease for NADH and increase for FADH2.
D) It will decrease for both NADH and FADH2.
E) It will remain unchanged for both NADH and FADH2.
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31. Which statement is FALSE regarding ATP synthase?
A) The active site contains multiple positive charges that interact with the substrates.
B) The energy difference between bound substrate and bound product is close to zero.
C) As an enzyme, ATP synthase is classified as a hydrolase.
D) ATP synthase can be classified as a primary active transporter.
E) ADP binds more tightly to the active site than ATP.
32. Which statement is TRUE regarding the gamma (g) subunit of ATP synthase?
A) It contains mostly a-helical regular secondary structure.
B) It exists as a dimer in the F1 portion of ATP synthase.
C) It prevents the F1 portion from rotating relative to the FO portion.
D) It interacts with the a and b subunits of the FO portion.
E) It binds protons as part of the proton translocation process.
33. Which step is NOT part of the proton-translocation process in ATP synthase?
A) A negatively charged amino acid in each c subunit becomes neutral upon proton
binding.
B) A positively charged amino acid in the a subunit forms an ion pair with a charged
amino acid in a c subunit.
C) Deprotonated c subunits are able to interact only with the a subunit.
D) An arginine in the a subunit is reversibly protonated and deprotonated in each
proton binding event.
E) Proton direction is determined by the relative concentrations of protons on either
side of the membrane.
34. In which pairing are both transporters symports?

A) adenine nucleotide translocase and phosphate translocase
B) phosphate translocase and pyruvate translocase
C) pyruvate translocase and adenine nucleotide translocase
D) adenine nucleotide translocase and glutamate-aspartate transporter
E) glutamate-aspartate transporter and phosphate translocase
35. Which statement explains why the [ATP]/[ADP][Pi] ratio is relatively stable in a cell?
A) [ATP] is always relatively low.
B) ATP consumption is balanced by ATP synthase activity.
C) ATP is used to regulate protein kinases.
D) ATPases ensure that ATP concentration does not become too large.
E) Energy consumption is minimized to ensure ATP is not consumed.
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36. Which statement does NOT describe characteristics of the protein inhibitor IF1?
A) This protein is relatively small (<100 amino acids).
B) This protein has very little ordered structure at pH 7.0.
C) This protein will bind to the FO portion of ATP synthase.
D) This protein functions as a dimer when it is inhibiting ATP synthesis.
E) This protein inhibits ATP hydrolysis by ATP synthase.
37. What will NOT occur when 2,4-dinitrophenol (an uncoupler of oxidative
phosphorylation) is added to actively respiring mitochondria?
A) The P:O ratio will increase.
B) The rate of NADH reoxidation at Complex I will increase.
C) The rate of oxidation of intermediates in the citric acid cycle will increase.
D) Proton export from the matrix will occur.
E) Heat will be released.
38. Cytochrome P-450 gets its name from what characteristic?

A) It is a protein that is 450 amino acids long.
B) It fluoresces at 450 nm.
C) It absorbs light at 450 nm.
D) It has a reduction potential of –450 mV.
E) It contains a 450 Dalton prosthetic group.
39. What is the role of cytochrome c in apoptosis?

A) It acts as an allosteric effector for caspase-3.
B) It transports electrons from mitochondria to the cytosol.
C) It acts as a protease to activate various zymogens.
D) It forms a complex with other proteins to generate an apoptosome.
E) It activates pores in the outer mitochondrial membrane.
40. Which protein is NOT portion encoded in human mitochondrial DNA?

A) Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase)
B) Complex II (succinate dehydrogenase)
C) Complex III (ubiquinone:cytochrome c oxidoreductase)
D) cytochrome c
E) Complex IV (cytochrome oxidase)
Page 25
41. What mechanism accounts for mitochondrial inheritance in sexual reproduction in
animals?
A) Male gametes do not contain mitochondria.
B) Mitochondria from male gametes do not enter the ovum.
C) Female mitochondria are able to outcompete male mitochondria.
D) Male mitochondria are degraded after fertilization.
E) Male and female mitochondria merge after fertilization to form hybrids.
42. Almost all of the oxygen (O2) one consumes in breathing is converted to:
A) acetyl-CoA.
B) carbon dioxide (CO2).
C) carbon monoxide and then to carbon dioxide.
D) water.
43. Which of the following electron carriers is NOT able to transfer one electron at a time?
A) NADH
B) FMN
C) FAD
D) ubiquinone
E) heme
44. A new compound isolated from mitochondria is claimed to represent a previously

unrecognized carrier in the electron transfer chain. It is given the name coenzyme Z.
Which line of evidence do you feel is the LEAST conclusive in assigning this
compound a position in the electron transfer chain?
A) Alternate oxidation and reduction of the mitochondrion-bound coenzyme Z can be
readily demonstrated.
B) Removal of coenzyme Z from the mitochondria results in a decreased rate of
oxygen consumption.
C) The rate of oxidation and reduction of mitochondrion-bound coenzyme is of the
same order of magnitude as the overall rate of electron transfer in mitochondria as
measured by oxygen consumption.
D) The reduction potential of Z is between that of two compounds known to
participate in the electron transport chain
E) When added to a mitochondrial suspension, coenzyme Z is taken up very rapidly
and specifically by the mitochondria.
Page 26
45. Antimycin A blocks electron transfer between cytochromes b and c1. If intact
mitochondria were incubated with antimycin A, excess NADH, and an adequate supply
of O2, which compound would be found in the oxidized state?
A) coenzyme Q
B) cytochrome a3
C) cytochrome b
D) cytochrome e
E) cytochrome f
46. Reduced QH2 is NOT formed by which of the following?

A) Complex I and NADH
B) Complex II and succinate
C) Complex III and cytochrome c
D) fatty acid oxidation
E) oxidation of glycerol-3-phosphate
47. In the reoxidation of QH2 by purified ubiquinone-cytochrome c reductase (Complex III)

from heart muscle, the overall stoichiometry of the reaction requires 2 mol of
cytochrome c per mole of QH2 because:
A) cytochrome c is a one-electron acceptor, whereas QH2 is a two-electron donor.
B) cytochrome c is a two-electron acceptor, whereas QH2 is a one-electron donor.
C) cytochrome c is water soluble and operates between the inner and outer
mitochondrial membranes
D) heart muscle has a high rate of oxidative metabolism, and therefore requires twice
as much cytochrome c as QH2 for electron transfer to proceed normally.
E) two molecules of cytochrome c must first combine physically before they are
catalytically active.
48. Which statement is NOT a feature of Complex IV?

A) Cytochrome c is a one-electron donor.
B) Oxygen is a substrate.
C) Copper is an essential metal for the reaction.
D) For every electron passed to Complex IV, two protons are consumed from the
matrix (N) side.
E) In order to generate two water molecules, Complex IV must go through the
catalytic cycle two times.
Page 27
49. Which statement is NOT true of the proton motive force (pmf)?
A) One component of the pmf is the chemical gradient of protons.
B) One component of the pmf is the charge gradient of protons.
C) Generation of the pmf in mitochondria requires succinate.
D) The pmf is generated by the electron transport chain in mitochondria.
E) The pmf drives ATP synthesis in mitochondria.
50. Cyanide, oligomycin, and 2,4-dinitrophenol (DNP) are inhibitors of mitochondrial

aerobic phosphorylation. Which statement CORRECTLY describes the mode of action
of the three inhibitors?
A) Cyanide and 2,4-dinitrophenol inhibit the respiratory chain, and oligomycin
inhibits the synthesis of ATP.
B) Cyanide inhibits the respiratory chain, whereas oligomycin and 2,4-dinitrophenol
inhibit the synthesis of ATP.
C) Cyanide, oligomycin, and 2,4-dinitrophenol compete with O2 for cytochrome
oxidase (Complex IV).
D) Oligomycin and cyanide inhibit synthesis of ATP; 2,4-dinitrophenol inhibits the
respiratory chain.
E) Oligomycin inhibits the respiratory chain, whereas cyanide and 2,4-dinitrophenol
prevent the synthesis of ATP.
51. If electron transfer in tightly coupled mitochondria is blocked (with antimycin A)

between cytochrome b and cytochrome c1, then:
A) all ATP synthesis will stop.
B) ATP synthesis will continue, but the P/O ratio will drop to one.
C) electron transfer from NADH will cease, but O2 uptake will continue.
D) electron transfer from succinate to O2 will continue unabated.
E) energy diverted from the cytochromes will be used to make ATP, and the P/O ratio
will rise.
52. In normal mitochondria, the rate of NADH consumption (oxidation) will:

A) be increased in active muscle, decreased in inactive muscle.
B) be very low if the ATP synthase is inhibited, but increase when an uncoupler is
added.
C) decrease if mitochondrial ADP is depleted.
D) decrease when cyanide is used to prevent electron transfer through the cytochrome
a + a3 complex.
E) All of the answers are correct.
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53. Which statement about the chemiosmotic theory is CORRECT?
A) Electron transfer in mitochondria is accompanied by an asymmetric release of
protons on one side of the inner mitochondrial membrane.
B) It predicts that oxidative phosphorylation can occur, even in the absence of an
intact inner mitochondrial membrance.
C) The effect of uncoupling reagents is a consequence of their ability to carry
electrons through membranes.
D) The membrane ATP synthase has no significant role in the chemiosmotic theory.
E) All of the statements are correct.
54. Which statement about the chemiosmotic theory is FALSE?

A) Electron transfer in mitochondria is accompanied by an asymmetric release of
protons on one side of the inner mitochondrial membrane.
B) Energy is conserved as a transmembrane pH gradient.
C) Oxidative phosphorylation cannot occur in membrane-free preparations.
D) The effect of uncoupling reagents is a consequence of their ability to carry protons
through membranes.
E) The membrane ATPase, which plays an important role in other hypotheses for
energy coupling, has no significant role in the chemiosmotic theory.
55. Upon the addition of 2,4-dinitrophenol (DNP) to a suspension of mitochondria carrying

out oxidative phosphorylation linked to the oxidation of malate, what does NOT occur?
A) Oxygen consumption decreases.
B) Oxygen consumption increases.
C) The P/O ratio drops from a value of approximately 2.5 to 0.
D) The proton gradient dissipates.
E) The rate of transport of electrons from NADH to O2 becomes maximal.
56. Uncoupling of mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation:

A) allows continued mitochondrial ATP formation but halts O2 consumption.
B) halts all mitochondrial metabolism.
C) halts mitochondrial ATP formation but allows continued O2 consumption.
D) slows down the citric acid cycle.
E) slows the conversion of glucose to pyruvate by glycolysis.
Page 29
57. 2,4-Dinitrophenol and oligomycin inhibit mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation.
2,4-Dinitrophenol is an uncoupling agent; oligomycin blocks the ATP synthesis reaction
itself. Therefore, 2,4-dinitrophenol will:
A) allow electron transfer in the presence of oligomycin.
B) allow oxidative phosphorylation in the presence of oligomycin.
C) block electron transfer in the presence of oligomycin.
D) diminish O2 consumption in the presence of oligomycin.
58. Which statement about energy conservation in the mitochondrion is FALSE?

A) Drugs that inhibits the ATP synthase will also inhibit the flow of electrons down
the chain of carriers.
B) For oxidative phosphorylation to occur, it is essential to have a closed membranous
structure with an inside and an outside.
C) The yield of ATP per mole of oxidizable substrate depends on the substrate.
D) Uncouplers (such as dinitrophenol) have exactly the same effect on electron
transfer as inhibitors such as cyanide; both block further electron transfer to
oxygen.
E) Uncouplers “short circuit” the proton gradient, thereby dissipating the proton
motive force as heat.
59. Which statement is CORRECT concerning the mitochondrial ATP synthase?

A) It can synthesize ATP after it is extracted from broken mitochondria.
B) It catalyzes the formation of ATP even though the reaction has a large positive
DG'°.
C) It consists of Fo and F1 subunits, which are transmembrane (integral) polypeptides.
D) It is actually an ATPase and only catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP.
E) When it catalyzes the ATP synthesis reaction, the DG'° is actually close to zero.
60. When the DG'° of the ATP synthesis reaction is measured on the surface of the ATP
synthase enzyme, it is found to be close to zero. This is thought to be due to:
A) a very low energy of activation.
B) enzyme-induced oxygen exchange.
C) stabilization of ADP relative to ATP by enzyme binding.
D) stabilization of ATP relative to ADP by enzyme binding.
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61. During oxidative phosphorylation, the proton motive force that is generated by electron
transport is used to:
A) create a pore in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
B) generate the substrates (ADP and Pi) for the ATP synthase.
C) induce a conformational change in the ATP synthase.
D) oxidize NADH to NAD+.
E) reduce O2 to H2O.
62. The oxidation of a particular hydroxy substrate to a keto product by mitochondria has a
P/O ratio of less than 2. The initial oxidation step is very likely directly coupled to the:
A) oxidation of a flavoprotein.
B) oxidation of a pyridine nucleotide.
C) reduction of a flavoprotein.
D) reduction of a pyridine nucleotide.
E) reduction of cytochrome a3.
63. The relative concentrations of ATP and ADP control the cellular rates of:
A) glycolysis.
B) oxidative phosphorylation.
C) pyruvate oxidation.
D) the citric acid cycle.
64. The rate of oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria is controlled primarily by:

A) feedback inhibition by CO2.
B) the availability of NADH from the TCA cycle.
C) the concentration of citrate (or) the glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle.
D) the mass-action ratio of the ATD-ADP system.
E) the presence of thermogenin.
65. Which factor is NOT controlled by hypoxia-inducible factor (HIF-1)?

A) glucose transport
B) glycolysis
C) citric acid cycle
D) Compex I of the respiratory chain
E) Complex IV of the respiratory chain
Page 31
66. Mammals produce heat by using which endogenous uncoupling agent?
A) the small molecule 2-4-dinitrophenol synthesized by the cell
B) the protein thermogenin
C) the protein thioredoxin
D) the protein cytochrome c
E) a modified form of the FoF1 ATPase
67. Which phrase BEST describes the role of mitochondria in apoptosis?

A) escape of cytochrome c into the cytoplasm
B) increased rate of fatty acid b oxidation
C) an increase in permeability of outer membrane
D) uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation
E) both escape of cytochrome c into the cytoplasm and an increase in permeability of
outer membrane
68. Mutations in mitochondrial genes do NOT play a role in:

A) adult onset diabetes.
B) cystic fibrosis.
C) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
D) Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy.
E) myoclonic epilepsy.
69. Which statement about human mitochondria is TRUE?

A) About 900 mitochondrial proteins are encoded by nuclear genes.
B) Mitochondrial genes are inherited from both maternal and paternal sources.
C) rRNA and tRNA are imported from the cytoplasm and used in mitochondrial
protein synthesis.
D) The mitochondrial genome codes for all proteins found in mitochondria.
E) The mitochondrial genome is not subject to mutations.
Answer Key
1. D
2. C
3. D
4. D
5. C
6. B
7. A
8. C
9. E
10. B
11. C
12. A
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13. D
14. A
15. D
16. B
17. C
18. C
19. E
20. D
21. D
22. D
23. D
24. C
25. B
26. B
27. B
28. C
29. D
30. D
31. E
32. A
33. D
34. B
35. B
36. C
37. A
38. C
39. D
40. D
41. D
42. D
43. A
44. E
45. B
46. C
47. A
48. E
49. C
50. B
51. A
52. E
53. A
54. E
55. A
56. C
57. A
58. D
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59. E
60. D
61. C
62. C
63. E
64. D
65. D
66. B
67. E
68. B
69. A
Chapter 20- Photosynthesis
1. Which statement is NOT true about plastids?

A) Most of the proteins in a plastid are encoded in nuclear genes.
B) Plastids are encoded by a double membrane.
C) Plastids are self-replicating.
D) Plastids contain a small circular genome.
E) The inner membrane of plastids is permeable to polar and charged molecules.
2. The compound that condenses with CO2 in the first reaction of carbon dioxide
assimilation is:
A) 3-phosphoglycerate.
B) ribose 1,5-bisphosphate.
C) ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate.
D) ribulose 5-phosphate.
E) rubisco.
3. The final product that is formed by the enzyme rubisco is:

A) 3-phosphoglycerate.
B) ATP.
C) ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate.
D) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
E) CO2.
4. Which factor is NOT required to activate rubisco?

A) ATP hydrolysis
B) carbamoylation of the active site lysine by rubisco activase
C) release of ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate from the active site
D) release of 2-carboxyarabinitol from the active site
E) binding of Mg2+
Page 34
5. Which enzyme is NOT part of the Calvin cycle?
A) aldolase
B) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase
C) phosphofructokinase-1
D) ribulose-5-phosphate kinase
E) transketolase
6. Transketolase requires the coenzyme:

A) cobalamin (vitamin B12).
B) lipoic acid
C) pyridoxal phosphate.
D) tetrahydrofolic acid.
E) thiamine pyrophosphate.
7. When transketolase acts on fructose 6-phosphate and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate, the

products are:
A) 3-phosphoglycerate and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate.
B) 3-phosphoglycerate and two molecules of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate.
C) dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glucose 6-phosphate.
D) xylulose 5-phosphate and erythrose 4-phosphate.
E) xylulose 5-phosphate and ribose 5-phosphate.
8. Which compound is NOT directly involved in the Calvin cycle?

A) erythrose 4-phosphate
B) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
C) mannose 6-phosphate
D) ribulose 5-phosphate
E) sedoheptulose 7-phosphate
9. In the carbon assimilation (“dark”) reactions of photosynthesis, the biosynthesis of 1

mol of hexose from 6 mol of carbon dioxide requires:
A) 12 mol of NADPH and 12 mol of ATP.
B) 12 mol of NADPH and 18 mol of ATP.
C) 18 mol of NADPH and 12 mol of ATP.
D) 18 mol of NADPH and 18 mol of ATP.
E) no NADPH and 12 mol of ATP.
Page 35
10. The known mechanisms of activation of rubisco or of other enzymes of the Calvin cycle
during illumination do NOT include:
A) increased stromal pH.
B) light-driven entry of Mg2+ into the stroma.
C) phosphorylation by cAMP-dependent protein kinase.
D) phosphorylation of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase.
E) reduction of a disulfide bridge by thioredoxin.
11. Which chloroplast enzyme is NOT regulated by light?

A) fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
B) glyceraldehyde-phosphate dehydrogenase
C) ribulose 5-phosphate kinase
D) sedoheptulose 1,7-bisphosphatase
E) None of these enzymes is regulated by light.
12. The carbon assimilation (“dark”) reactions of photosynthetic plants:

A) are driven ultimately by the energy of sunlight.
B) are important to plants, but ultimately of little significance for bacteria and animals.
C) cannot occur in the light.
D) yield (reduced) NADH.
E) yield ATP, which is required for the light reactions.
13. The assimilation of CO2 into organic compounds (triose phosphates) in green plants:
A) involves condensation of the two-carbon compound acetate with CO2 to form 3-
phosphoglycerate.
B) requires NADPH.
C) results in the production of ATP.
D) takes place at equal rates in light and darkness.
E) takes place in the cytosol.
14. Which statement is NOT true of the Pi-triose phosphate antiporter?

A) The antiporter can move phosphate in or out of the chloroplast.
B) When Pi is moved into the chloroplast, it supports synthesis of ATP.
C) When triose phosphates are moved out of the chloroplast, they become
incorporated into sucrose.
D) ATP and reducing equivalents are moved into the chloroplast by the antiporter.
E) The antiporter is found in the inner membrane of chloroplasts.
Page 36
15. Which statement is NOT true of photorespiration?
A) It is driven by light.
B) It oxidizes substrates to CO2.
C) It produces O2.
D) It results from a lack of specificity of the enzyme rubisco.
E) It results in no fixation of carbon.
16. The three subcellular organelles involved in the phosphoglycolate salvage pathway are:
A) endoplasmic reticulum, chloroplast, and mitochondrion.
B) nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, and chloroplast.
C) golgi apparatus, chloroplast, and mitochondrion.
D) mitochondrion, peroxisome, and chloroplast.
E) peroxisome, endoplasmic reticulum, and chloroplast.
17. The glycine decarboxylase complex in the leaves of pea or spinach plants is localized
mainly in the:
A) chloroplast.
B) endoplasmic reticulum.
C) mitochondrion.
D) cell membrane.
E) peroxisome.
18. In “C4” plants of tropical origin, the first intermediate into which 14CO2 is fixed is:
A) aspartate.
B) phosphoenolpyruvate.
C) oxaloacetate.
D) malate.
E) 3-phosphoglycerate.
19. The synthesis of glycogen, starch, and sucrose all:

A) involve addition of a sugar residue at the reducing end of the growing polymer.
B) take place in liver and muscle of mammals.
C) use a sugar nucleotide as substrate.
D) use glucose 1-phosphate as the only substrate.
E) use glucose-6-phosphate as substrate.
Page 37
20. The synthesis of starch and sucrose in plants uses _____ as the substrate, rather than
_____, which is used in the synthesis of glycogen in animal cells.
A) ADP-fructose; UDP-glucose
B) ADP-glucose; UDP-glucose
C) fructose 1-phosphate; glucose 1-phosphate
D) glucose 1-phosphate; glucose 6-phosphate
E) UDP-glucose; ADP-glucose
21. The precursors for sucrose biosynthesis are:

A) glucose and fructose.
B) UDP-glucose and fructose 6-phosphate.
C) UDP-fructose and glucose 6-phosphate.
D) UDP-glucose and fructose.
E) UDP-glucose and UDP-fructose.
22. The major regulator of sucrose biosynthesis in plants is:

A) fructose 2,6-bisphosphate.
B) fructose 1,6-bisphosphate.
C) sucrose.
D) glucose and fructose.
E) glucose 6-phosphate.
23. Which statement is NOT true about the biosynthesis of cellulose?

A) UDP-glucose is used as a substrate.
B) Glucose is transported across the membrane via a lipid-linked oligosaccharide
intermediate.
C) The extracellular form of cellulose synthase adds up to 15,000 glucose units to one
chain.
D) Cellulose polymers line up in an anti-parallel fashion.
E) The reaction catalyzed by cellulose synthase proceeds via inversion of
configuration.
24. A precursor in the synthesis of the peptidoglycan of bacterial cell walls is UDP-:
A) galactose.
B) glucose.
C) glucuronic acid.
D) N-acetylglucosamine.
E) penicillin.
Page 38
25. Penicillin inhibits the synthesis of peptidoglycan:
A) branches.
B) chains.
C) crosslinks.
D) precursors.
26. Which reaction, cycle, or pathway is NOT found in plant systems?

A) the Calvin cycle
B) the gluconeogenesis pathway
C) the glyoxalate cycle
D) the rubisco reaction
E) the urea cycle
27. Which cellular organelle is NOT unique to plant cells?

A) amyloplasts
B) chloroplasts
C) glyoxysomes
D) mitochondria
E) vacuoles
28. Which sugar phosphate is NOT part of the pool of readily interconvertible metabolites
used by the plant cell?
A) dihydroxyacetone phosphate
B) fructose 2,6-bisphosphate
C) glucose 1-phosphate
D) 6-phosphogluconate
E) xylulose 5-phosphate
29. When glycerol is converted to glucose via gluconeogenesis in germinating seeds, the
first glycolytic intermediate formed is:
A) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate.
B) dihydroxyacetone phosphate.
C) glycerol 1,3-bisphosphate.
D) glycerol 3-phosphate.
E) ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate.
Page 39
30. In photophosphorylation, absorption of light energy in chloroplast “light reactions”
leads to:
A) absorption of CO2 and release of O2.
B) absorption of O2 and release of CO2.
C) hydrolysis of ATP and reduction of NADP+.
D) synthesis of ATP and oxidation of NADPH.
E) use of iron-sulfur proteins.
31. Which statement about the light reactions in photosynthetic plants is FALSE?
A) A membrane-bound ATPase couples ATP synthesis to electron transfer.
B) No CO2 is fixed in the light reactions.
C) The ultimate electron acceptor is O2.
D) The ultimate source of electrons for the process is H2O.
E) There are two distinct photosystems, linked together by an electron transfer chain.
32. The light reactions in photosynthetic higher plants:

A) do not require chlorophyll.
B) produce ATP and consume NADH.
C) require the action of a single reaction center.
D) result in the splitting of H2O, yielding O2.
E) serve to produce light so that plants can see underground.
33. Photosynthetic phosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation appear to be generally

similar processes, both consisting of ATP synthesis coupled to the transfer of electrons
along an electron carrier chain. Which statement is NOT true of both processes?
A) Both contain cytochromes and flavins in their electron carrier chains.
B) Both processes are associated with membranous elements of the cell.
C) Both use oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor.
D) Each represents the major route of ATP synthesis in those cells in which it is
found.
E) Protons are pumped from the inside to the outside of both mitochondria and
chloroplast membranes
34. Oxidative phosphorylation and photophosphorylation do NOT share:

A) chlorophyll.
B) involvement of cytochromes.
C) participation of quinones.
D) proton pumping across a membrane to create electrochemical potential.
E) use of iron-sulfur proteins.
Page 40
35. The experimental determination of the effectiveness of light of different colors in
promoting photosynthesis is called the _____ spectrum.
A) absorption
B) action
C) difference
D) reflectance
E) refraction
36. In what order do the following five steps occur in the photochemical reaction centers?
1) excitation of the chlorophyll a molecule at the reaction center
2) replacement of the electron in the reaction center chlorophyll
3) light excitation of antenna chlorophyll molecule
4) passage of excited electron to electron-transfer chain
5) exiton transfer to neighboring chlorophyll
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
C) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
D) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1
E) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
37. Which statement is TRUE about reaction centers?

A) Cyanobacteria and plants have two reaction centers arranged in tandem.
B) Cyanobacteria contain a single reaction center of the Fe-S type.
C) Green sulfur bacteria have two reaction centers arranged in tandem.
D) Plant photosystems have a single reaction center of the pheophytin-quinone type.
E) Purple bacteria contain a single reaction center of the Fe-S type.
38. In the photolytic cleavage of water by the oxygen-evolving complex [2H2O ® 4 H+ +

4e– + O2], how many photons of light at a wavelength of 680 nm are required?
A) one
B) two
C) four
D) six
E) eight
Page 41
39. Place the following electron-carriers into the CORRECT order as found in plant
chloroplasts.
1) cytochrome b6f complex
2) P680
3) P700
4) plastocyanin
5) NADPH
A) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
B) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5
C) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
D) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
E) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5
40. Which statement is NOT true about cyclic electron flow?

A) Cyclic electron flow produces more NADPH per photon than noncyclic electron
flow.
B) Cyclic electron flow involves only PSI.
C) Plastocyanin is required for cyclic electron flow.
D) Cyclic electron flow leads to the build-up of a proton gradient.
E) Cyclic electron flow does not produce O2.
41. Cyclic electron flow in chloroplasts produces:

A) ATP and O2, but not NADPH.
B) ATP, but not NADPH or O2.
C) NADPH and ATP, but not O2.
D) NADPH, but not ATP or O2.
E) O2, but not ATP or NADPH.
42. Which statement about photophosphorylation is FALSE?

A) It can be uncoupled from electron flow by agents that dissipate the proton gradient.
B) The difference in pH between the luminal and stromal side of the thylakoid
membrane is 3 pH units.
C) The luminal side of the thylakoid membrane has a higher pH than the stromal side.
D) The number of ATPs formed per oxygen molecule is about three.
E) The reaction centers, electron carriers, and ATP-forming enzymes are located in
the thylakoid membrane.
Page 42
43. Cyclic electron flow in chloroplasts produces:
A) ATP and O2, but not NADPH.
B) ATP, but not NADPH or O2.
C) NADPH and ATP, but not O2.
D) NADPH, but not ATP or O2.
E) O2, but not ATP or NADPH.
44. Which statement describes shared characteristics of both oxidative phosphorylation and
photophosphorylation?
A) During electron transport, protons are exported across the outer membrane.
B) ATP synthesis occurs in conjunction with proton translocation.
C) Electron transport proceeds from compounds with lower reduction potentials than
those with higher reduction potentials.
D) ATP synthesis occurs in conjunction with proton translocation, and electron
transport proceeds from compounds with lower reduction potentials than those with
higher reduction potentials.
E) None of these statements describes shared characteristics of both oxidative
phosphorylation and photophosphorylation.
45. Which process occurs in photosynthesis?

A) Carbon atoms in CO2 become reduced.
B) Oxygen atoms in water become oxidized.
C) NADP is reduced to NADPH by electron transport processes.
46. Which cofactor in photosynthesis contain metal ions?

A) chlorophyll a
B) b carotene
C) pheophytin a
D) lutein
E) both chlorophyll a and b carotene
47. Ferredoxin and plastocyanin are both:

A) integral membrane proteins.
B) found on the lumen side of thylakoid membranes.
C) proteins that interact with photosystem I.
Page 43
48. Quinone A (QA) and quinone B (QB) differ from each other in that:
A) only QA is an isoprenoid.
B) QA is a prosthetic group for photosystem II, while QB is a cosubstrate.
C) QA will only accept single electrons, while QB will accept two electrons.
D) only QA is an isoprenoid, and QA is a prosthetic group for photosystem II, while QB
is a cosubstrate.
E) QA is a prosthetic group for photosystem II, while QB is a cosubstrate, and QA will
only accept single electrons, while QB will accept two electrons.
49. Which statement is TRUE regarding ATP synthase in chloroplasts?

A) The CF1 portion of the complex is located on the lumen side of thylakoid
membranes.
B) This complex is homologous to the complex located in mitochondria.
C) This complex will act as an ATPase in membrane-free preparations.
D) The CF1 portion of the complex is located on the lumen side of thylakoid
membranes, and this complex is homologous to the complex located in
mitochondria.
E) This complex is both homologous to the complex located in mitochondria and will
act as an ATPase in membrane-free preparations.
50. Which statement is FALSE regarding ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate?

A) This molecule is a phosphorylated ketopentose.
B) This molecule contains a phosphoester and an acyl-phosphate.
C) This molecule is one of the substrates of rubisco.
D) C2 in this molecule is the position where CO2 is added during carbon fixation.
E) This molecule is an inhibitor of rubisco activation.
51. Which amino acid is NOT involved in coordinating magnesium in the active site of
rubisco?
A) Asp
B) Glu
C) His
D) Lys
E) All of these amino acids coordinate the magnesium.
Page 44
52. 3-Phosphoglycerate produced in the stroma may ultimately appear as 3-
phosphoglycerate in the cytosol. What other effects would accompany this process?
A) the production of NADH in the stroma
B) net consumption of ATP
C) the production of ATP in the cytosol
D) net production of ATP
E) the production of ATP in the stroma
53. Which of the reactions of the Calvin cycle is reversible?

A) the conversion of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to fructose-6-phosphate
B) the conversion of ribulose-5-phosphate to ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate
C) the conversion of ribose-5-phosphate to ribulose-5-phosphate
D) the conversion of sedoheptulose-1,7-bisphosphate into sedoheptulose-7-phosphate
E) None of these reactions is reversible.
54. Which statement is FALSE concerning xylulose-5-phosphate and ribose-5-phosphate?

A) These molecules are isomers of each other.
B) These molecules are both ketopentoses.
C) These molecules can both be generated from ribulose 5-phosphate in a single
reaction.
D) In the Calvin cycle, both of these are D enantiomers.
E) None of these statements is false.
55. Which statement is TRUE regarding the conversion of malate to pyruvate by malic
enzyme in C4 plants?
A) This is an oxidative decarboxylation reaction.
B) The process generates NADH as a product.
C) This process requires ATP consumption.
D) This reaction increases rubisco-associated photorespiration.
E) This process occurs predominantly in plant mitochondria.
56. During carbon fixation in C4 plants, which reaction type or process does NOT occur
between the conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate?
A) movement of metabolites through plasmodesmata
B) oxidation of metabolites
C) ATP consumption
D) carboxylation
E) decarboxylation
Page 45
57. Which enzyme is inhibited by fructose-2,6-bisphosphate in plants?
A) fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
B) sucrose-6-phosphate synthase
C) sucrose-6-phosphate phosphatase
D) PPi-dependent phosphofructokinase
E) None of these enzymes is inhibited by fructose-2,6-bisphosphate.
58. Which pair of enzymes is activated in the absence of photosynthesis (i.e., in the dark) in
plants?
A) fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase and fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase
B) fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase and PPi-dependent phosphofructokinase
C) PPi-dependent phosphofructokinase and fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase
D) phosphofructokinase-2 and fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase
E) phosphofructokinase-2 and PPi-dependent phosphofructokinase
59. Which process is NOT a mechanism of regulation for sucrose-6-phosphate synthase?

A) allosteric inhibition by phosphate
B) inhibition by phosphorylation
C) allosteric activation by fructose-6-phosphate
D) allosteric regulation by glucose-6-phosphate
E) inhibition of sucrose phosphate synthase kinase by glucose-6-phosphate
60. How is the enzyme ADP-glucose pyrophosphorylase regulated in plants?

A) It is activated by both inorganic phosphate and 3-phosphoglycerate.
B) It is activated by inorganic phosphate and unaffected by 3-phosphoglycerate.
C) It is activated by inorganic phosphate and inhibited by 3-phosphoglycerate.
D) It is inhibited by both inorganic phosphate and 3-phosphoglycerate.
E) It is inhibited by inorganic phosphate and activated by 3-phosphoglycerate.
61. Which compound is produced by sucrose synthase and used by cellulose synthase to
make cellulose?
A) fructose-6-phosphate
B) glucose-6-phosphate
C) UDP-glucose
D) sucrose-6-phosphate
E) glucose-1-phosphate
Page 46
62. Reactions from which pathway are NOT specifically needed to synthesize carbohydrate
from fatty acids in plants?
A) gluconeogenesis
B) glyoxylate pathway
C) citric acid cycle
D) glycolate pathway
E) All of these pathways are necessary to synthesize carbohydrates from fatty acids.
Answer Key
1. E
2. C
3. A
4. A
5. C
6. E
7. D
8. C
9. B
10. C
11. E
12. A
13. B
14. D
15. C
16. D
17. C
18. C
19. C
20. B
21. B
22. A
23. D
24. D
25. C
26. E
27. D
28. B
29. B
30. A
31. B
32. D
33. C
34. A
35. B
36. C
37. A
Page 47
38. C
39. D
40. A
41. B
42. C
43. B
44. D
45. D
46. A
47. C
48. D
49. E
50. B
51. C
52. C
53. C
54. B
55. A
56. C
57. A
58. E
59. C
60. E
61. C
62. D
Chapter 21-Lipid Biosynthesis
1. Which compound is NOT required in the synthesis of fatty acids?

A) acetyl-CoA
B) biotin
C) HCO3– (CO2)
D) malonyl-CoA
E) NADH
2. Which statement is NOT true of the reaction producing malonyl-CoA during fatty acid
synthesis?
A) It is stimulated by citrate.
B) It requires acyl carrier protein (ACP).
C) It requires CO2 (or bicarbonate).
D) One mole of ATP is converted to ADP + Pi for each malonyl-CoA synthesized.
E) The cofactor is biotin.
Page 48
3. If malonyl-CoA is synthesized from 14CO2 and unlabeled acetyl-CoA, and the labeled
malonate is then used for fatty acid synthesis, the final product (fatty acid) will have
radioactive carbon in:
A) every C.
B) every even-numbered C-atom.
C) every odd-numbered C-atom.
D) no part of the molecule.
E) only the omega-carbon atom (farthest carbon from C-1).
4. Which statement applies to synthesis of fatty acids in E. coli extracts?

A) Acyl intermediates are thioesters of a low molecular weight protein called acyl
carrier protein.
B) CO2 or HCO3– is essential.
C) Reducing equivalents are provided by NADPH.
D) The ultimate source of all the carbon atoms in the fatty acid product is acetyl-CoA.
E) All of the statements apply to synthesis of fatty acids in E. coli extracts.
5. In comparing fatty acid biosynthesis with b oxidation of fatty acids, which statement is
INCORRECT?
A) A thioester derivative of crotonic acid (trans-2-butenoic acid) is an intermediate in
the synthetic path, but not in the degradative path.
B) A thioester derivative of D-b-hydroxybutyrate is an intermediate in the synthetic
path, not in the degradative path.
C) Fatty acid biosynthesis uses NADPH exclusively, whereas b oxidation uses NAD+
exclusively.
D) Fatty acid degradation is catalyzed by cytosolic enzymes; fatty acid synthesis by
mitochondrial enzymes.
E) The condensation of two moles of acetyl-CoA in the presence of a crude extract is
more rapid in bicarbonate buffer than in phosphate buffer at the same pH; the
cleavage of acetoacetyl-CoA proceeds equally well in either buffer.
6. Which statement is NOT true of the fatty acid synthase and the fatty acid b-oxidation
systems?
A) A derivative of the vitamin pantothenic acid is involved.
B) Acyl-CoA derivatives are intermediates.
C) Double bonds are oxidized or reduced by pyridine nucleotide coenzymes.
D) The processes occur in different cellular compartments.
E) The processes occur in the mitochondrial matrix.
Page 49
7. The rate-limiting step in fatty acid synthesis is:
A) condensation of acetyl-CoA and malonyl-CoA.
B) formation of acetyl-CoA from acetate.
C) formation of malonyl-CoA from malonate and coenzyme A.
D) the reaction catalyzed by acetyl-CoA carboxylase.
E) the reduction of the acetoacetyl group to a b-hydroxybutyryl group.
8. Which statement is NOT true of the fatty acid elongation system of vertebrate cells?
A) It involves the same four-step sequence seen in the fatty acid synthase complex.
B) It is located in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
C) It produces stearoyl-CoA by the extension of palmitoyl-CoA.
D) It uses malonyl-CoA as a substrate.
E) The immediate precursor of the added carbons is acetyl-CoA.
9. Which statement is NOT true about precursors required for fatty acid synthesis in
animal cells?
A) NADPH is produced in the cytosol by the pentose phosphate pathway.
B) NADPH is produced in the nucleus by malic enzyme.
C) Acetyl-CoA is transported out of the mitochondrion via the citrate shuttle.
D) CoA is not transported across the mitochondrial membrane.
E) Malonyl-CoA is formed in the cytosol.
10. Which compound can be synthesized by plants but NOT by humans?

A) linoleate [18:2(D9,12)]
B) palmitate (16:0)
C) phosphatidylcholine
D) pyruvate
E) stearate (18:0)
11. The enzyme system for adding double bonds to saturated fatty acids does NOT require:
A) a mixed-function oxidase.
B) ATP.
C) cytochrome b5.
D) molecular oxygen (O2).
E) NADPH.
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12. Which statement about eicosanoid synthesis is TRUE?
A) An early step in the path to thromboxanes is blocked by ibuprofen.
B) Arachidonate is derived mainly by hydrolysis of triacylglycerols.
C) Aspirin acts by blocking the synthesis of arachidonate.
D) Plants can synthesize leukotrienes, but humans cannot.
E) Thromboxanes are produced from arachidonate via the “linear” path.
13. The biosynthesis of triacylglycerols from acetate occurs mainly in:

A) animals but not in plants.
B) humans after ingestion of excess carbohydrate.
C) humans with low carbohydrate intake.
D) plants but not in animals.
14. The synthesis of both glycerophospholipids and triacylglycerols involves:

A) CDP-choline.
B) CDP-diacylglycerol.
C) phosphatidate phosphatase.
D) phosphatidic acid.
E) phosphoethanolamine.
15. Which statement about triacylglycerol synthesis is CORRECT?

A) Humans can store more energy in glycogen than in triacylglycerols.
B) Insulin stimulates conversion of dietary carbohydrate into triacylglycerols.
C) It is not a hormone-sensitive process.
D) Mammals are unable to convert carbohydrates into triacylglycerols.
E) Phosphatidate is not on the pathway of triacylglycerol synthesis.
16. A strategy that is NOT employed in the synthesis of phospholipids is:

A) condensation of CDP-alcohol with diacylglycerol.
B) condensation of CDP-diacylglycerol with alcohol.
C) condensation of CDP-diacylglycerol with CDP-alcohol.
D) exchange of free alcohol with head group alcohol of phospholipid.
E) remodeling of head group alcohols by chemical modification
Page 51
17. All glycerol-containing phospholipids are synthesized from:
A) cardiolipin
B) ceramide.
C) gangliosides.
D) mevalonate.
E) phosphatidic acid.
18. In E. coli the synthesis of phosphatidylethanolamine directly involves:

A) acyl carrier protein.
B) biotin.
C) CDP-choline.
D) phosphatidylglycerol.
E) serine.
19. In the synthesis of phosphatidylcholine from phosphatidylethanolamine, the methyl

group donor is:
A) a tetrahydrofolate derivative.
B) choline.
C) methanol.
D) S-adenosylmethionine (adoMet).
E) serine.
20. Palmitoyl-CoA, , is a direct precursor of:

A) cholesterol.
B) malonyl-CoA.
C) mevalonate
D) sphingosine.
E) squalene.
21. CDP-diglyceride is NOT involved in the biosynthesis of:

A) phosphatidylcholine.
B) phosphatidylethanolamine
C) phosphatidylglycerol.
D) phosphatidylserine.
E) sphingomyelin.
Page 52
22. Which statement is TRUE of sphingolipid synthesis?
A) All of the carbon atoms of palmitate and serine are incorporated into sphingosine.
B) CDP-sphingosine is the activated intermediate.
C) CO2 is produced during the synthesis of ceramide from palmitate and serine.
D) Glucose 6-phosphate is the direct precursor of the glucose in cerebrosides.
E) Phosphatidic acid is a key intermediate in the pathway.
23. Which compound is NOT an intermediate in the synthesis of lanosterol from acetyl-
CoA?
A) isopentenyl pyrophosphate
B) malonyl-CoA
C) mevalonate
D) squalene
E) b-hydroxy-b-methylglutaryl-CoA (HMG-CoA)
24. Cholesterol is synthesized from:

A) acetyl-CoA.
B) choline.
C) lipoic acid.
D) malate.
E) oxalate.
25. A 30-carbon precursor of the steroid nucleus is:

A) farnesyl pyrophosphate.
B) geranyl pyrophosphate.
C) isopentenyl pyrophosphate.
D) lysolecithin.
E) squalene.
26. Which statement about cholesterol synthesis is TRUE?

A) Cholesterol is the only known natural product whose biosynthesis involves
isoprene units.
B) Only half of the carbon atoms of cholesterol are derived from acetate.
C) Squalene synthesis from farnesyl pyrophosphate results in the release of two moles
of PPi for each mole of squalene formed.
D) The activated intermediates in the pathway are CDP-derivatives.
E) The condensation of two five-carbon units to yield geranyl pyrophosphate occurs
in a “head-to-head” fashion.
Page 53
27. Which compound(s) is/are derived from a sterol?
A) bile salts
B) gangliosides
C) geraniol
D) phosphatidylglycerol
E) prostaglandins
28. Chylomicrons carry _____ in the _____.

A) triacylglycerols; cell
B) triacylglycerols; blood
C) cholesterols; blood
D) fatty acids; blood
E) fatty acids; cell
29. Lipoprotein particles in human blood do NOT contain:

A) an apolipoprotein B isoform.
B) cholesterol.
C) cholesteryl esters.
D) lecithin.
E) triglycerides.
30. Which compound(s) contain(s) the HIGHEST percentage of cholesteryl esters?

A) chylomicrons
B) VLDL
C) LDL
D) HDL
E) None of these compounds contain any cholesteryl esters.
31. Which statement is NOT a step in the uptake of cholesterol from the bloodstream into
cells?
A) LDL containing ApoB-100 is recognized by the LDL receptor.
B) LDL bound to the LDL receptor leads to endocytosis of the complex.
C) The cholesteryl esters in the LDL are hydrolyzed to release free cholesterol.
D) The internalized receptor is degraded.
E) The ApoB-100 protein is degraded.
Page 54
32. Which statement about the regulation of cholesterol synthesis is NOT true?
A) Cholesterol acquired in the diet has essentially no effect on the synthesis of
cholesterol in the liver.
B) Failure to regulate cholesterol synthesis predisposes humans to atherosclerosis.
C) High intracellular cholesterol stimulates formation of cholesteryl esters.
D) Insulin stimulates HMG-CoA reductase.
E) Some metabolite or derivative of cholesterol inhibits HMG-CoA reductase.
33. Which factor does NOT contribute to lowering the risk of atherosclerosis?
A) statin drugs
B) HDL
C) reverse cholesterol transport
D) ApoA-I
E) foam cells
34. Which compound is NOT synthesized by a pathway that includes isoprene precursors?
A) natural rubber
B) plastoquinone
C) vitamin A
D) vitamin B12
E) vitamin K
35. Which statement is FALSE concerning acetyl-CoA carboxylase?

A) It catalyzes the rate-limiting step in fatty acid synthesis.
B) This enzyme is inhibited by palmitate in mammals.
C) This enzyme is allosterically activated by citrate in mammals.
D) In mammals, this enzyme is inactivated under conditions when glycolysis is active.
E) This enzyme is classified as a ligase.
36. What cofactor is required for acetyl-CoA carboxylase activity?

A) NADPH
B) thiamine pyrophosphate
C) lipoamide
D) biotin
E) both thiamine pyrophosphate and lipoamide
Page 55
37. Synthesis of malonyl-CoA from acetyl-CoA is MOST similar to what other reaction?
A) converion of malate into fumarate
B) conversion of pyruvate into acetyl-CoA
C) conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate into 2-phosphoglycerate
D) conversion of glutamate into a-ketoglutarate
E) conversion of pyruvate into oxaloacetate
38. Which statement does NOT describe a difference between fatty acid synthase I (FAS I)
and fatty acid synthase II (FAS II)?
A) FAS I is found in fungi, while FAS II is found in plants.
B) FAS I has no quaternary structure, while FAS II does.
C) Intermediates are not released in FAS I catalysis but are released in FAS II
catalysis.
D) A single lipid product is produced from FAS I while multiple products may be
produced by FAS II.
E) All of these statements describe differences between FAS I and FAS II.
39. During fatty acid synthesis, malonyl-CoA becomes covalently attached to acyl-carrier
protein via:
A) ester-bond formation to a serine.
B) thioester-bond formation to a cysteine.
C) amide-bond formation to a lysine.
D) ether-bond formation to a serine.
E) thioester-bond formation to a prosthetic group.
40. Which enzyme activity is NOT part of FAS II?

A) a dehydratase
B) a thioesterase
C) a carboxylase
D) a transferase
E) a reductase
41. Which statement is FALSE regarding acyl-carrier protein (ACP)?

A) ACP is transiently attached to malonyl-CoA during fatty acid elongation.
B) ACP contains a pantothenate-derived prosthetic group.
C) ACP carries reaction intermediates from one active site to the next in fatty acid
synthesis.
D) ACP associates as a separate polypeptide with fatty acid synthase I in vertebrates.
E) Fatty acyl chains on ACP are transferred to a cysteine on b-ketoacyl-ACP synthase
during fatty acid synthesis.
Page 56
42. After four rounds of fatty acid synthase activity, what size is the fatty acyl intermediate?
A) 4 carbons long
B) 5 carbons long
C) 8 carbons long
D) 9 carbons long
E) 10 carbons long
43. Which compound is NOT an intermediate in transfer of acetyl groups from

mitochondria to the cytosol?
A) citrate
B) malate
C) oxaloacetate
D) fumarate
E) pyruvate
44. In one cycle of acetyl transfer from mitochondria to the cytosol via citrate, what other
net change occurs?
A) net conversion of NADH to NADPH in the cytosol
B) net export of coenzyme A from mitochondria
C) net import of NADH from the cytosol into mitochondria
D) net consumption of 1 ATP
E) overall conversion of oxaloacetate into pyruvate
45. What effect will the presence of citrate have on the activity of acetyl-CoA carboxylase
in mammals?
A) no effect
B) decreased K0.5
C) increased K0.5
D) decreased Vmax
E) increased Vmax
46. Conversion of saturated fatty acyl chains to unsaturated fatty acyl chains by fatty acyl-
CoA desaturase is accompanied by what other net change?
A) reduction of NAD+ to NADH
B) reduction of NADP+ to NADPH
C) reduction of O2 to H2O
D) reduction of oxaloacetate to malate
E) reduction of FAD to FADH2
Page 57
47. What type of inhibitor is acetylsalicylic acid for COX-2?
A) a competitive inhibitor
B) a noncompetitive inhibitor
C) an uncompetitive inhibitor
D) a mixed inhibitor
48. Which compound is NOT a substrate or product of lipin?

A) diacylglycerol
B) phosphatidic acid
C) water
D) lysophosphatidic acid
E) inorganic phosphate
49. Synthesis of a triglyceride from three fatty acids and glycerol costs how many ATP
equivalents?
A) three
B) four
C) five
D) six
E) seven
50. Which statement is FALSE regarding the conversion of dihydroxyacetone phosphate

(DHAP) to glycerol-3-phosphate in the cytosol of adipose cells?
A) The reaction reduces C1 of DHAP.
B) This reaction creates a new chiral center.
C) This reaction requires the cofactor NADH.
D) This reaction is catalyzed by glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase.
E) This reaction is catalyzed by an oxidoreductase.
51. Which statement is FALSE regarding the formation of phosphatidylserine involving

CTP activated intermediates in E. coli?
A) The nucleophile is the OH at C3 of diacylglyceol.
B) CMP acts as a leaving group.
C) This is a nucleophilic substitution reaction.
D) A product of the reaction is a phosphodiester.
E) Loss of a phosphoanhydride makes this reaction energetically favorable.
Page 58
52. Synthesis of cardiolipin from phosphatidate, CTP, and glycerol-3-phosphate in E. coli
consumes how many phosphoanhydride bonds?
A) zero
B) one
C) two
D) three
E) four
53. What is the source of the polar headgroup in the formation of sphingomyelin?
A) CDP-choline
B) phosphocholine
C) cardiolipin
D) phosphoserine
E) phosphatidylcholine
54. Biosynthesis of mammalian membrane phospholipids takes place in what cellular

locations?
A) the lysosomal membrane and the plasma membrane
B) the plasma membrane and the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) the inner mitochondrial membrane and the plasma membrane
D) the smooth endoplasmic reticulum and the inner mitochondrial membrane
E) the inner mitochondrial membrane and the lysosomal membrane
55. Synthesis of phosphatidyl-choline from choline and diacylglycerol in mammals requires

which nucleotides as other substrates?
A) ATP and UTP
B) CTP and UTP
C) ATP and CTP
D) CTP only
E) ATP, UTP, and CTP
56. Synthesis of sphingosine from palmitoyl-CoA and serine requires which enzymatic
class?
A) transferases
B) oxidoreductases
C) hydrolases
D) ligases
E) All of these enzymatic classes are required.
Page 59
57. Conversion of phosphatidylserine into phosphatidylethanolamine requires what
chemical process?
A) dehydration
B) methylation
C) dehydrogenation
D) reduction
E) decarboxylation
58. Which list ranks the compounds in order from the fewest to the greatest number of
carbon atoms?
A) acetate, cholesterol, mevalonate, squalene
B) acetate, mevalonate, squalene, cholesterol
C) mevalonate, cholesterol, squalene, acetate
D) acetate, squalene, mevalonate, cholesterol
E) acetate, mevalonate, cholesterol, squalene
59. How many phosphoanhydride bonds (net) are consumed in the conversion of
mevalonate into the activated isoprene compound dimethylallyl pyrophosphate?
A) zero
B) one
C) two
D) three
E) four
60. What is the net cost, in terms of high energy molecules, in the synthesis of squalene
from acetyl-CoA?
A) 2 NADPH and 3 ATP
B) 6 NADPH and 9 ATP
C) 6 NAPDH and 18 ATP
D) 12 NADPH and 18 ATP
E) 13 NADPH and 18 ATP
61. Which statement is FALSE concerning bile salts?

A) They are more amphipathic than cholesterol.
B) They are secreted in response to fat ingestion.
C) They are synthesized in the gall bladder.
D) They are sterol derivatives.
E) They typically carry a negative charge.
Page 60
62. Which apolipoprotein is found in chylomicrons but not in other lipoproteins?
A) ApoB-48
B) ApoB-100
C) ApoC-II
D) ApoC-III
E) ApoE
63. Reverse cholesterol transport is primarily associated with which lipoprotein?

A) chylomicrons
B) VLDL
C) IDL
D) LDL
E) HDL
64. Conversion of VLDL into LDL is associated with what changes?

A) depletion of cholesteryl-esters
B) enrichment of the apolipoprotein ApoB-100
C) an increase in particle diameter
D) a decrease in the protein:lipid ratio
E) ApoE-mediated receptor interactions
65. Which apolipoprotein is recognized by the LDL receptor?

A) ApoB-100
B) ApoC-I
C) ApoC-II
D) ApoD
E) ApoE
66. Which lipoproteins do NOT originate from the liver?

A) chylomicrons and VLDL
B) VLDL and HDL
C) LDL and HDL
D) chylomicrons and HDL
E) VLDL and LDL
Page 61
67. Which list CORRECTLY ranks the polarity, from most polar to least polar, for the listed
substances?
A) cholesteryl-ester > bile salts > cholesterol
B) cholesterol > bile salts > cholesteryl-esters
C) bile salts > cholesteryl-esters > cholesterol
D) cholesteryl-esters > cholesterol > bile salts
E) bile salts > cholesterol > cholesteryl-esters
68. Which protein is NOT typically found in HDL?

A) lecithin cholesterol acyl transferase (LCAT)
B) ApoE
C) ApoH
D) ApoC-I
E) ApoD
69. What statement is FALSE regarding the differences between chylomicrons and VLDL?
A) These two lipoproteins originate in different tissues.
B) Chylomicrons have a lower density than VLDL.
C) Chylomicrons contain ApoB-48 while VLDL contains ApoB-100.
D) Chylomicrons contain a lower percentage of protein compared to VLDL.
E) Chylomicrons contain an overall lower triacylglycerol percentage than VLDL.
70. What statement is FALSE regarding the regulation of HMG-CoA reductase?

A) HMG-CoA reductase is inhibited by phosphorylation.
B) Elevated levels of ATP will inhibit HMG-CoA reductase.
C) Elevated blood glucose will increase the activity of HMG-CoA reductase.
D) Statins act as competitive inhibitors for this enzyme.
E) Low cellular concentrations of cholesterol will increase expression of this enzyme
and the LDL receptor.
Answer Key
1. E
2. B
3. D
4. E
5. D
6. E
7. D
8. E
9. B
10. A
11. B
12. A
Page 62
13. B
14. D
15. B
16. B
17. E
18. E
19. D
20. D
21. E
22. C
23. B
24. A
25. E
26. C
27. A
28. B
29. D
30. C
31. D
32. A
33. E
34. E
35. D
36. C
37. E
38. B
39. E
40. C
41. D
42. E
43. D
44. A
45. E
46. C
47. E
48. D
49. E
50. A
51. A
52. E
53. E
54. D
55. C
56. D
57. E
58. E
Page 63
59. D
60. E
61. C
62. A
63. E
64. B
65. E
66. D
67. E
68. C
69. E
70. B
Chapter 22- Aa. Biosynthesis
1. Which statement about the fixation of atmospheric nitrogen (N2) into NH3 by living
cells is FALSE?
A) It involves the transfer of eight electrons per mol of N2.
B) It occurs in certain microorganisms, but not in humans.
C) It requires a source of electrons, normally ferredoxin.
D) It requires one ATP per mol of N2 fixed.
E) It requires two key protein components, each containing iron.
2. Which statement is NOT true about the anammox reaction?

A) Anammox converts ammonia to nitrogen.
B) Anammox is performed by symbiotic bacteria of leguminous plants.
C) Anammox generates the highly reactive molecule hydrazine that is a component of
rocket fuel.
D) Anammox occursw anaerobically.
E) The ultimate electron acceptor in anammox is nitrite.
3. Which enzyme is NOT involved in the assimilation of inorganic nitrogen into an

organic molecule?
A) dinitrogenase reductase
B) nitrate reductase
C) nitrite reductase
D) nitrile reductase
E) dinitrogenase
Page 64
4. Which enzyme is NOT involved in the assimilation of inorganic nitrogen into an
organic molecule?
A) arginase
B) glutamate dehydrogenase
C) glutamate synthase
D) glutamine synthetase
E) dinitrogenase
5. The enzymatic machinery to fix atmospheric N2 into NH4+ is:

A) a means of producing ATP when excess N2 is available.
B) composed of two key proteins, each containing iron.
C) relatively stable when exposed to O2.
D) specific to plant cells.
E) unaffected by the supply of electrons.
6. Glutamine synthetase converts _____ to _____, whereas glutamate synthase converts

_____ to _____.
A) formate; glutamine; ammonia; glutamate
B) asparagine; glutamine; a-ketoglutarate; glutamate
C) a-ketoglutarate; glutamine; oxaloacetic acid; glutamate
D) a-ketoglutarate; glutamine; a-ketoglutarate; glutamate
E) glutamate; glutamine; a-ketoglutarate; glutamate
7. Which statement is NOT true about glutamine amidotransferases?

A) These enzymes proceed via a covalent intermediate.
B) Ammonia is released into a channel.
C) Glutamate is a product of the reaction.
D) ATP is needed to activate the glutamine.
E) A Cys at the active site is critical for the activity of these enzymes.
8. Nonessential amino acids:

A) are amino acids other than those required for protein synthesis.
B) are not utilized in mammalian proteins.
C) are synthesized by plants and bacteria, but not by humans.
D) can be synthesized in humans as well as in bacteria.
E) may be substituted with other amino acids in proteins.
Page 65
9. An amino acid that does NOT derive its carbon skeleton, at least in part, from a-
ketoglutarate is:
A) arginine.
B) glutamate.
C) glutamine.
D) proline.
E) threonine.
10. Glutamine, arginine, and proline:

A) do not have a common precursor.
B) may all be derived from a citric acid cycle intermediate.
C) may all be derived from a Cori cycle intermediate.
D) may all be derived from a glycolytic intermediate.
E) may all be derived from a urea cycle intermediate.
11. In which group are all the amino acids closely interrelated metabolically?
A) arginine, hydroxyproline, and histidine
B) arginine, tyrosine, and glutamate
C) glycine, valine, glutamine, and aspartate
D) ornithine, alanine, glycine, and valine
E) ornithine, proline, arginine, and glutamate
12. If glucose labeled with 14C at C-1 were the starting material for amino acid biosynthesis,
the product that would be readily formed is:
A) serine labeled at the carboxyl carbon.
B) serine labeled at alpha carbon.
C) serine labeled at the R-group carbon.
13. An amino acid that does NOT derive its carbon skeleton, at least in part, from
oxaloacetate is:
A) aspartate.
B) lysine.
C) methionine.
D) proline.
E) threonine.
Page 66
14. Homoserine is:
A) a precursor of both methionine and threonine.
B) a precursor of serine.
C) derived from homocysteine.
D) derived from serine.
E) derived from threonine.
15. If a cell were unable to synthesize or obtain tetrahydrofolic acid (H4 folate), it would
probably be deficient in the biosynthesis of:
A) isoleucine.
B) leucine.
C) lysine.
D) methionine.
E) serine.
16. The nitrogen atom in the side chain of lysine is derived from which amino acid?
A) aspartic acid
B) glutamic acid
C) glutamine
D) asparagine
E) arginine
17. The nitrogen atom in the indole ring of tryptophan is derived from which amino acid?
A) aspartic acid
B) glutamic acid
C) glutamine
D) asparagine
E) arginine
18. Erythrose 4-phosphate is a precursor of:

A) aspartate.
B) cysteine.
C) phenylalanine.
D) serine.
E) threonine.
Page 67
19. An important intermediate in the biosynthetic pathway to aromatic amino acids is:
A) benzoic acid.
B) lactate.
C) orotate.
D) shikimate.
E) a-ketoglutarate.
20. Which amino acid derives its nitrogen from a purine ring?
A) histidine
B) lysine
C) arginine
D) glutamine
E) tryptophan
21. The amino acid _____ and is an intermediate in the biosynthesis of _____.
A) histidine; purines
B) glycine; heme
C) serine; heme
D) serine; sphingosine
E) glutamine; glutathione
22. Bile pigments are:

A) formed in the degradation of heme.
B) generated by oxidation of sterols.
C) responsible for light reception in the vertebrate eye.
D) secreted from the pancreas
E) the products of purine degradation.
23. Glutathione is a(n):

A) enzyme essential in the synthesis of glutamate.
B) isomer of oxidized glutamic acid.
C) methyl-group donor in many biosynthetic pathways.
D) product of glutamate and methionine.
E) tripeptide of glycine, glutamate, and cysteine.
Page 68
24. The plant hormone indole-3-acetate (auxin) is formed from:
A) arginine.
B) histidine.
C) phenylalanine.
D) threonine.
E) tryptophan.
25. L-Dopa is an intermediate in the conversion of:

A) phenylalanine to homogentisic acid.
B) phenylalanine to tyrosine.
C) tyrosine to epinephrine.
D) tyrosine to phenylalanine.
E) tyrosine to phenylpyruvate.
26. The amino acid that gives rise to the biological messenger NO is:
A) glutamine.
B) arginine.
C) proline.
D) lysine.
E) histidine.
27. The hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine are derived biosynthetically from:
A) arginine.
B) histidine.
C) isoleucine.
D) tryptophan.
E) tyrosine.
28. One amino acid directly involved in the purine biosynthetic pathway is:
A) alanine.
B) aspartate.
C) glutamate.
D) leucine.
E) tryptophan
Page 69
29. 5-Phosphoribosyl-a-pyrophosphate (PRPP) is NOT a synthetic precursor for:
A) AMP.
B) arginine.
C) histidine.
D) tryptophan.
E) UMP.
30. Glutamine is a nitrogen donor in the synthesis of:

A) CTP.
B) dTTP.
C) inosinic acid (IMP).
D) orotate.
E) UMP.
31. De novo purine biosynthesis is distinguished from de novo pyrimidine biosynthesis by:
A) condensation of the completed purine ring with ribose phosphate
B) incorporation of CO2.
C) inhibition by azaserine (a glutamine analog).
D) participation of aspartate.
E) participation of PRPP (phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate).
32. The ribosyl phosphate moiety needed for the synthesis of orotidylate, inosinate, and
guanylate is provided MOST directly by:
A) 5-phosphoribosyl 1-pyrophosphate.
B) adenosine 5'-phosphate.
C) guanosine 5'-phosphate.
D) ribose 5-phosphate.
E) ribulose 5-phosphate.
33. The synthesis of purine and pyrimidine nucleotides differ in that:

A) ATP is required in the synthesis of purines but not in the synthesis of pyrimidines.
B) purine biosynthesis starts with the formation of PRPP, whereas pyrimidines
incorporate the PRPP near the end of the pathway.
C) purine formation requires a THF derivative, whereas pyrimidine formation does
not.
D) pyrimidine biosynthesis is tightly regulated in the cell, whereas purine biosynthesis
is not.
E) pyrimidines go through many steps, adding a single carbon or nitrogen each time,
whereas the basic skeleton for purines is formed by two main precursors.
Page 70
34. Which statement is TRUE of the biosynthetic pathway for purine nucleotides?
A) CO2 does not participate in any of the steps in this pathway.
B) Deoxyribonucleotides are formed from 5-phosphodeoxyribosyl 1-pyrophosphate.
C) Inosinate is the purine nucleotide that is the precursor of both adenylate and
guanylate.
D) Orotic acid is an essential precursor for purine nucleotides.
E) The amino acid valine is one of the precursors contributing to purine nucleotides.
35. Orotic aciduria is an inherited metabolic disease in which orotic acid (orotate)
accumulates in the tissues, blood, and urine. The metabolic pathway in which the
enzyme defect occurs is:
A) epinephrine synthesis.
B) purine breakdown.
C) purine synthesis.
D) pyrimidine breakdown.
E) pyrimidine synthesis.
36. Precursors for the biosynthesis of the pyrimidine ring system include:
A) carbamoyl phosphate and aspartate.
B) glutamate, NH3, and CO2.
C) glycine and succinyl-CoA.
D) glycine, glutamine, CO2, and aspartate.
E) inosine and aspartate.
37. The MOST direct precursors of the nitrogens of UMP are:

A) aspartate and carbamoyl phosphate.
B) glutamate and aspartate.
C) glutamate and carbamoyl phosphate.
D) glutamine and aspartate.
E) glutamine and carbamoyl phosphate.
38. CMP, UMP, and TMP all have _____ as a common precursor.
A) adenosine
B) aspartate
C) glutamine
D) inosine
E) S-adenosyl methionine
Page 71
39. Which statement is NOT true of the reaction catalyzed by ribonucleotide reductase?
A) Glutathione is part of the path of electron transfer.
B) It acts on nucleoside diphosphates.
C) Its mechanism involves formation of a free radical.
D) There is a separate enzyme for each nucleotide (ADP, CDP, GDP, UDP).
E) Thioredoxin acts as an essential electron carrier.
40. Which statement CORRECTLY describes the biosynthetic pathway for purine
nucleotides?
A) Purine deoxynucleotides are made by the same path as ribonucleotides, followed
by reduction of the ribose moiety.
B) The first enzyme in the path is aspartate transcarbamoylase (ATCase).
C) The nitrogen in the purine base that is bonded to ribose in the nucleotide is derived
originally from glycine.
D) The pathway occurs only in plants and bacteria, not in animals.
E) The purine rings are first synthesized, then condensed with ribose phosphate.
41. A cell that is unable to synthesize or obtain tetrahydrofolic acid (H4 folate) would
probably be deficient in the biosynthesis of:
A) CMP.
B) GMP.
C) orotate.
D) thymidylate (TMP).
E) UMP.
42. An intermediate of purine degradation in humans is:

A) glutamate.
B) NH4+.
C) succinate.
D) urea.
E) uric acid.
43. Which statement is TRUE about gout?

A) Gout is caused by excessive breakdown of pyrimidine nucleotides.
B) Gout can be treated by administration of fluorouracil.
C) Gout is particularly prevalent in patients lacking xanthine oxidase.
D) Gout leads to deposition of sodium urate crystals in the joints.
E) Eating more liver is an effective way to treat the symptoms of gout.
Page 72
44. Which drug is NOT chemotherapeutic?
A) Azaserine
B) Allopurinol
C) Fluorouracil
D) Methotrexate
E) Acivicin
45. Which list CORRECTLY arranges nitrogen-containing species from most to least
oxidized?
A) NO3– > NO2– > NH4+ > N2
B) NO3– > NO2– > N2 > NH4+
C) NO2– > NO3– > NH4+ > N2
D) N2 > NO2– > NO3– > NH4+
E) NO2– > NO3– > N2 > NH4+
46. Which statement does NOT accurately describe a difference between heme b and the
siroheme found in nitrite reductase?
A) Siroheme contains larger negative charge than heme b.
B) Siroheme contains no vinyl groups, while heme b does.
C) Siroheme contains tetrahedral carbons in the porphyrin ring, while heme b does
not.
D) Siroheme contains four propionate groups, while heme b contains two.
E) Siroheme contains Fe2+, while heme b contains Fe3+.
47. Which cofactor or functional group within the context of the nitrate reductase electron-
transport chain has the HIGHEST reduction potential?
A) cysteine
B) NAD+
C) FAD
D) molybdenum cofactor
E) cyt b557
48. Which statement is FALSE regarding ladderanes?

A) Ladderanes are classified as phospholipids.
B) Ladderanes are associated with annamoxosomes.
C) Ladderanes are amphipathic membrane components.
D) Ladderanes have less conformational flexibility than equivalent fatty acids.
Page 73
49. The bacteria A. vinelandii uncouples oxidative phosphorylation during nitrogen fixation
for what reason?
A) It increases the temperature so that the enzymes will function at maximum
efficiency.
B) It ensures that the citric acid cycle is fully active and providing substrates for
nitrogen fixation.
C) It ensures that ATP is not present to inhibit nitrogen fixation.
D) It maintains a low level of reduced cofactors.
E) It ensures that oxygen concentrations are kept low to prevent interference with
enzymes.
50. Which statement is TRUE regarding the regulation of nitrogen fixation?

A) High concentrations of ADP will activate nitrogen fixation enzymes.
B) Elevated concentrations of ammonia will reduce expression of genes associated
with nitrogen fixation.
C) ATP acts as a negative allosteric effector for nitrogenase.
D) Nitrogenase is regulated via adenylylation.
E) Oxygen acts as an allosteric effector for the nitrogenase complex.
51. What high-energy structure is found as part of the major intermediate in the glutamine
synthetase reaction?
A) a phosphoanhydride bond
B) a phosphoester
C) an acyl phosphate
D) an enol
E) a thioester
52. Which statement is FALSE regarding glutamine synthetase?

A) Both the Type I and Type II forms have dihedral symmetry.
B) Histidine, glycine, and alanine are all negative effectors for this enzyme.
C) It is regulated by multiple feedback inhibitors and covalent modification.
D) ATP is an inhibitor for this enzyme.
E) This enzyme is classified as a ligase.
53. Which kind of reversible covalent modification is used to regulate glutamine

synthetase?
A) ADP-ribosylation
B) adenylylation
C) phosphorylation
D) acetylation
E) both ADP-ribosylation and adenylylation
Page 74
54. Which statement is FALSE regarding the proposed mechanism for glutamine
amidotransferases?
A) Part of the mechanism includes the formation of a thioester to a cysteine.
B) A hydrolysis reaction releases glutamine from the active site.
C) Ammonia is released from one substrate before reacting with the second substrate.
D) Phosphorylation is often used to activate the substrate accepting the amino group.
E) Two portions of the enzymes are connected by an “ammonia channel.”
55. Which reaction step in the synthesis of proline is nonenzymatic?

A) the phosphorylation of the side chain
B) the reaction that generates an aldehyde product
C) the cyclization step
D) the reaction that releases inorganic phosphate as a product
E) the reaction that converts a double bond to a single bond
56. Which amino acid is NOT considered to originate from a-ketoglutarate?

A) arginine
B) glutamate
C) glutamine
D) histidine
E) proline
57. The synthesis of methionine originates from which compound?

A) a-ketoglutarate
B) 3-phosphoglycerate
C) oxaloacetate
D) pyruvate
E) ribose-5-phosphate
58. Which molecule is NOT a high-energy molecule involved in the synthesis of arginine
from glutamate?
A) Acetyl-CoA
B) ATP
C) NADH/NADPH
D) FADH2
E) All of these molecules are involved in this pathway.
Page 75
59. In the synthesis of serine from 3-phosphoglycerate, which answer lists the CORRECT
order and type of reactions?
A) reduction, hydrolysis, transamination
B) oxidation, transamination, hydrolysis
C) reduction, transamination, hydrolysis
D) oxidation, hydrolysis, transamination
E) hydrolysis, transamination, reduction
60. Which statement is FALSE regarding the synthesis of glycine from 3-phosphoglycerate
(3PG)?
A) Oxidation of 3PG creates an a-keto acid.
B) Pyridoxal phosphate is a required cofactor for this process.
C) The uncommon amino acid phosphoserine is an intermediate in the process.
D) A dehydration reaction produces glycine from serine.
E) A phosphatase catalyzes one of the reaction steps.
61. Which statement is NOT a similarity in the synthesis of isoleucine, valine, and leucine?
A) Pyruvate is the starting compound for synthesis of all these amino acids.
B) Pyridoxal phosphate is a required cofactor in the synthesis of all these amino acids.
C) These are all essential amino acids in humans.
D) An a-keto acid is the immediate precursor for all three synthetic pathways.
E) Acetyl-CoA is required as a substrate in all three synthetic pathways.
62. Phosphocreatine is derived from which amino acid?

A) alanine
B) arginine
C) cysteine
D) serine
E) lysine
63. Which molecule does NOT require 5-phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate (PRPP) as a

substrate for biosynthesis?
A) adenosine monophosphate
B) cytidine monophosphate
C) guanosine monophosphate
D) histidine
E) All of these molecules require PRPP for biosynthetic pathways.
Page 76
64. Which statement is FALSE regarding aspartate transcarbamoylase (ATCase) in
prokaryotes?
A) This enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in cytidine biosynthesis.
B) This enzyme is inhibited by pyrimidine triphosphates.
C) Aspartate is a homotropic activator for ATCase.
D) CTP is a heterotropic inhibitor for ATCase.
E) ATCase is regulated by product inhibition.
65. Which statement is TRUE regarding Class I ribonucleotide reductase?

A) The b subunit contains the regulatory sites for the enzyme.
B) The a subunit contains the active site cysteines.
C) The a subunit contains the binuclear iron center.
D) This enzyme catalyzes a hydrolysis reaction.
E) ATP is an inhibitor for most isoforms of this enzyme.
66. In purine biosynthesis, which ring nitrogens are contributed by the sidechain of
glutamine?
A) N1 only
B) N1 and N3
C) N1, N3, and N9
D) N1 and N9
E) N3 and N9
67. Which process below is NOT required in the conversion of dCTP into dTTP?
A) deamination
B) methylation
C) phosphate hydrolysis
D) phosphate addition
E) reduction
68. Degradation of purines in primates leads to the formation of what major excreted
product?
A) allantoin
B) ammonia
C) hypoxanthine
D) urea
E) uric acid
Page 77
69. Which statement is TRUE regarding the conversion of UTP into CTP by cytidylate
synthetase?
A) Glutamate is also a substrate for this reaction.
B) This reaction consumes one phosphoanhydride bond.
C) This enzyme is an isomerase.
D) Ammonia is a substrate for the overall reaction.
E) Folate is a required cofactor for the reaction.
Answer Key
1. D
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. E
7. D
8. D
9. E
10. B
11. E
12. C
13. D
14. A
15. D
16. B
17. C
18. C
19. D
20. A
21. B
22. A
23. E
24. E
25. C
26. B
27. E
28. B
29. B
30. C
31. B
32. B
33. B
34. C
35. E
36. A
37. A
Page 78
38. B
39. D
40. A
41. D
42. E
43. D
44. B
45. B
46. E
47. D
48. A
49. E
50. B
51. C
52. D
53. B
54. B
55. C
56. D
57. C
58. D
59. B
60. D
61. E
62. B
63. E
64. E
65. B
66. E
67. E
68. E
69. B
Page 79

Bİochem 5

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Chapter 18

2. Which cofactor is typically required in transamination reactions?

3. Which amino acid can be considered to be both glucogenic and ketogenic?

5. Nitrogen from protein is eliminated as what compound in animals?

8. Which hormone is triggered by the entry of protein into the stomach?

9. Which statement is FALSE regarding pepsin?

10. Which statement is TRUE regarding glutamine synthetase?

11. Which amino acid is used to transport nitrogen to the liver?

14. Which reaction is a hydrolysis reaction?

15. A possible product of isoleucine catabolism is:

18. Carbamoyl phosphate synthase I is allosterically activated by what molecule?

19. Which statement is FALSE regarding pyridoxal phosphate?

20. Conversion of ammonia to carbamoyl phosphate in mitochondria consumes how many

24. What enzyme converts arginine into urea and ornithine?

28. Serotonin is produced from the metabolism of which amino acid?

29. Which compound can be described as glucogenic?

30. Which amino acid is catabolized to both succinyl-CoA and acetyl-CoA?

31. Which compound can be described as exclusively ketogenic?

33. Methionine synthase uses what substrates to synthesize methionine?

34. Which compound is used in single-carbon transfer reactions?

36. Conversion of serine into glycine requires which cofactor?

40. Which statement is TRUE regarding lysine?

45. Which compound is a zymogen that can be converted to an endopeptidase that

47. The coenzyme required for all transaminations is derived from:

49. Transamination from alanine to a-ketoglutarate requires the coenzyme:

52. Glutamate is metabolically converted to a-ketoglutarate and NH4+ by a process

54. Urea synthesis in mammals takes place primarily in tissues of the:

57. Conversion of ornithine to citrulline is a step in the synthesis of:

59. Which statement is FALSE in reference to the mammalian synthesis of urea?

60. Which amino acid is essential for humans?

70. Which amino acids are converted to a-ketoglutarate?

71. Which amino acids are converted to succinyl CoA?

1. For mitochondria where an uncoupler for oxidative phosphorylation is present, which

4. Which molecule can reduce the proton gradient in mitochondria?

8. During oxidative phosphorylation, the proton motive force (electrochemical gradient)

12. Which cofactor is MOST commonly involved as a cosubstrate in catabolic reactions

13. Which statement is FALSE regarding flavoproteins?

14. Complex III contains which cofactor as a prosthetic group?

15. Which characteristic describes heme a but not heme c?

23. Which complex in the electron-transport chain contains copper ions?

29. Which statement is FALSE regarding 2,4-dinitrophenol?

34. In which pairing are both transporters symports?

38. Cytochrome P-450 gets its name from what characteristic?

39. What is the role of cytochrome c in apoptosis?

40. Which protein is NOT portion encoded in human mitochondrial DNA?

44. A new compound isolated from mitochondria is claimed to represent a previously

46. Reduced QH2 is NOT formed by which of the following?

47. In the reoxidation of QH2 by purified ubiquinone-cytochrome c reductase (Complex III)

48. Which statement is NOT a feature of Complex IV?

50. Cyanide, oligomycin, and 2,4-dinitrophenol (DNP) are inhibitors of mitochondrial

51. If electron transfer in tightly coupled mitochondria is blocked (with antimycin A)

52. In normal mitochondria, the rate of NADH consumption (oxidation) will:

54. Which statement about the chemiosmotic theory is FALSE?

55. Upon the addition of 2,4-dinitrophenol (DNP) to a suspension of mitochondria carrying

56. Uncoupling of mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation:

58. Which statement about energy conservation in the mitochondrion is FALSE?

59. Which statement is CORRECT concerning the mitochondrial ATP synthase?

64. The rate of oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria is controlled primarily by:

65. Which factor is NOT controlled by hypoxia-inducible factor (HIF-1)?

67. Which phrase BEST describes the role of mitochondria in apoptosis?

68. Mutations in mitochondrial genes do NOT play a role in:

69. Which statement about human mitochondria is TRUE?

1. Which statement is NOT true about plastids?

28. Chylomicrons carry _ in the _.

6. Glutamine synthetase converts _ to _, whereas glutamate synthase converts