M SC Physics

FACULTY OF SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY
KAVAYITRI BAHINABAI CHAUDHARI NORTH

MAHARASHTRA UNIVERSITY, JALGAON
‘A’ Grade
NAAC Re-Accredited
(3rd Cycle)
Question Bank
FOR
M.Sc. (PHYSICS)
(For syllabus implemented from June - 2021)

Class: M. Sc.
Subject: Physics
Semester Title of Course

PHY 101: Mathematical Method for Physics
PHY 102: Classical Mechanics
PHY 103: Solid State Physics
Sem I PHY: 104 (A): Physics of Semiconductor Devices
PHY: 104 (B): Electronics Instrumentation
PHY: 104 (C): Biophysics
PHY: 201: Statistical mechanics
PHY: 202: Classical Electrodynamics
Sem II
PHY: 203: Quantum Mechanics
PHY: 204 : Material Science
PHY: 301 : Atomics and Molecular Physics
PHY: 302 (A): Material Synthesis & Preliminary analysis
PHY: 302 (B): Computational Method & Programming Using C
Language
Sem III
PHY: 302 (C): Acoustic & Entertainment Physics
PHY: 303 (A): Systematic Material Analysis
PHY: 303 (B): Microprocessor & Its Application
PHY: 303 (C): Communication Electronics
PHY: 401 : Nuclear Physics
PHY: 402 (A): Nanomaterial: Synthesis, Properties & Application
PHY: 402 (B): Laser & Its Application
Sem IV PHY: 402 (C): Astrophysics
PHY: 403 (A): Renewable Energy Sources
PHY: 403 (B): Microwave: Application
PHY: 403 (C): Environmental Physics
The work of this Question bank is carried out by BOS in PHYSICS with the help of following
committee members –
1. Prof. I. J. Patil, P.S.G.V.P. Mandal’s A.S.C. College, Shahada (Coordinator of committee)

2. Prof. A. M. Patil, R. C. Patel A.C. S, College, Shirpur (Co-Coordinator of committee)
3. Prof. M. S. Wagh, Pratap College, Amalner (Co-Coordinator of committee)
4. Dr. H. B. Patil, R. C. Patel ACS College Shirpur
5. Mr. N. S. Koche, Pratap College, Amalner
6. Dr. Pritee M. Raotole, MGSM’s ASC College, Chopada
7. Dr. V. T. Patil, MGSM’s ASC College, Chopada.
8. Dr. A. B. Patil, Pratap College Amalner
9. Dr. A. A. Patil, R. C. Patel A.C. S, College, Shirpur
10. Dr. S. D. Bagul, Pratap College, Amalner
11. Mr. B. B. Chaudhari, GTP College, Nandurbar
12. Dr. A. N. Kulkarni, GTP College, Nandurbar
13. Dr. P. P. Jagtap, P.S.G.V.P. Mandal’s A.S.C. College, Shahada.
14. Dr. N. P. Huse, GTP College, Nandurbar
15. Dr. V. R. Huse, MGSM’s ASC College, Chopada.
Prof. S.T. Bendre

Chairman
BOS Physics
Kaviyitri Bahinabai Chaudhari North Maharashtra University, Jalgaon.
Question Bank
Class- MSc-I Subject- Mathematical Methods for Physics (PHY-101) Sem-I
1. If u= (1, -2, 4, 1) and v= (3,1, -5, 0), find d(u,v) ------
(A) 95 (B) 100 (C) -95 (D) 0
2. In vector space, norm of a vector u is - - - - - -
(A) Length or magnitude of vector (B) Area of vector
(C) Volume of vector (D) None of these.

2 2
3. If X and Y are vectors in unitary space, then 𝑋+𝑌 + 𝑋−𝑌 =-----
2 2 2 2
(A) 2 X 2 Y (B) 2 X  2 Y
2 2 2 2
(C) 3 𝑋 +2 𝑌 (D) 2 𝑋 +2 𝑌
4. Vector can be represented by column or row matrices is called as - - - - - -
(A)Linear transformation ( B) Non-linear transformation
(C) Unitary transformation (D) None of these.
5. Cauchy-Schwarz inequality: 𝑋 . 𝑌 ≤- - - - - -
(A) 𝑿 . 𝒀 ≤ 𝑿 𝒀 (B) 𝑋 . 𝑌 ≤ 𝑋 + 𝑌
(C) 𝑋 . 𝑌 ≤ 𝑋 – 𝑌 (D) None of these.
6. Inner product of space - - - - -
(A) Non-mapping (B) Mapping
(C) Over-mapping (D) None of these.
7. In Gram-Schmidt orthogonalisation process :Y1 = X1, then Y2 = - - - - - -

(X ,Y ) (X ,Y )
2 1 2 1
(A) Y  X  Y (B) Y  X  Y
2 2 2 1 2 2 2 1
Y Y
1 1
(X ,Y )
2 1
(C) Y
2
 X
1
 Y (D) None of these.
2
Y
1
8. Orthogonality : Let V be a inner product space, then condition orthogonal is - - -
(A)< 𝑈, 𝑉 > = 1 (B) < 𝑈, 𝑉 > = o
(C) < 𝑈, 𝑉 > = - 1 (D) < 𝑈, 𝑉 > = ∞
9. Parallelogram law: If X and Y are any two vectors in an product space, then
2 2
X Y  X Y =---
 
2 2 2 2
(A) 2 X  Y (B) X Y . X Y
(C) X Y . X Y (D) None of these.
10. Using Gram-Schmidt orthogonalisation process, transform the given vectors
u1= (1, 1,1), u2 = (-1, 1, 0) and u3= (1, 2, 1) into an orthogonal basis ----
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏 1 1 1
(A) , , (B) − , ,
𝟔 𝟔 𝟑 6 6 3
1 1 1
(C) − , , (D) None of these.
6 6 −3
11. Cauchy-Schwarz inequality: 𝑋 . 𝑌 ≤- - - - - -

(A) 𝑿 . 𝒀 ≤ 𝑿 𝒀 (B) 𝑋 . 𝑌 ≤ 𝑋 + 𝑌
(C) 𝑋 . 𝑌 ≤ 𝑋 – 𝑌 (D) None of these.

2t
12. e is - - - - - - - -
(A) Orthogonal (B) Symmetric
(C) Hermitian (D) Unitary.

13. Find the norm of V = (3, 4) ∈ R2 with respect to the usual inner product
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5.
14. Find K such that d(u,v) = 6 , where u = (2, K, 1, - 4) and v = ( 3, -1, 6, - 3) - - -
(A) 2, 4 (B) 2, - 4 (C) -2, 4 (D) -2, -4
15. Are the vectors
X = (1, 0, 0 ), X2 = (0, 1, 0 ) and X3 = ( 0, 0, 1) linearly dependent?
(A) Yes (B) No (C) Both A and B (D) None.
16. Let V1 = (1, -1, 0), V2 = ( 0, 1, -1 ), V3 = (0, 0, 1) be elements of R3. The set of
vectors ( V1, V2, V3) is - - - - -
(A) Linearly dependent (B) Linearly independent
(C) Null (D) None of these.
17. Find the value of 𝛼 so that the vectors (1, 2, 9, 8 ), ( 2, 0, 0, 𝛼 ), (𝛼, 0, 0, 8 ),
( 0,0, 1, 0 ) are linearly independent.
(A) 𝜶 = ± 4 (B) 𝛼 = ± 5 (C) 𝛼 = ± 6 (D) 𝛼 = ± 3 .
18. If X = ( 3, 2, 0 ) and Y = ( -1, 6, 4 ). Find X-3Y - - - -
(A) (6, 16, 12 ) (B) ( 6, -16, 12 )
(C) (6, -16, -12 ) (D) ( -6, -16, -12 )

2 3 + 4𝑖
19. A = is - - - - -
3 − 4𝑖 1
(A)Symmetric (B) Hermitian
(C) Asymmetric (D) Unitary.
20. In a square matrices, each diagonal element is zero and
aij = - aji . Then its matrix will be - - - - - -
(A)Symmetric (B) Skew symmetric
(C) Hermitian (D) Skew Hermitian.

4 3 − 5𝑖
21. A = is - - - - -
3 + 5𝑖 −7
(A)Symmetric (B) Hermitian
(C) Asymmetric (D) Unitary.
1/ 2 𝑖/ 2
22. A = is - - - - -
−𝑖/ 2 −1/ 2
(A)Symmetric (B) Asymmetric
(C) Unitary (D) Hermitian
23. The equation (A−𝜆𝐼) = 0 , where λ is a scalar. The values of λ which satisfied
the characteristics equation are called - - - - - -
(A)Positive values (B) Eigen values
(C) Square values ( D) Negative values.
24. If A = - A  , then A will be - - -
(C) Hermitian (D) Skew Hermitian
25. Square matrix A is unitary if , - - -
(A) AA* = I = A*A (B) –AA*= I =A*A
(C) A*A* = I = AA (D) None of these.
26. If λ is an eigen value of the matrix ‘M’ then for the matrix (M−𝜆𝐼), which of the
following statement is/ are correct?
(A)Skew symmetric (B) Non-singular
(C) Singular (D) None of these.
27. A square matrix A is idempotent if, - - - - - - -
(A) A  A (B) A   A (C) A  A (D) A 1

2 2
1 3
28. Given A = 0 0 . Find Eigen values - - - -
(A) 1, 1 (B) 0, 1 (C) 0, 0 (D) 0, −1 .

29. In linear transformation: If X is any vector and λ is scalar, then
(A−𝜆I ) X = 0 Where scalar λ is called as an Eigen value and the
corresponding non-zero vector X as --------
(A)Non-uniform vector (B) Eigen vector
(C) Non-zero scalar (D) None of these.
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 − sin 𝜃
30. For 0< 𝜃 < 𝜋, then matrics
sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃
(A) Has no real eigen value (B) Is orthogonal
(C) Is symmetric (D) Is skew symmetric.
31. Which one of the following metrics is skew Hermitian?
0 i 0 i i 0 i 0 
(A)   (B)   (C)   (D)  
i 0 i 0 0 i 0 i
32. Which one of the following metrics is Hermitian?
0 i 0 i i 0 i 0 
(A)   (B)   (C)   (D)  
i 0 i 0 0 i 0 i
a h g
 
33. IF A= 
h b f

, then A is - - - -
 g f c 
(C) Hermitian (D) Skew Hermitian.

4𝑖 4 − 5𝑖
34. A = is - - - - -
−4 − 5𝑖 0
(A)Hermitian (B) Skew Hermitian
(C) Symmetric (D) Skew symmetric.
35. If we divide each element of adjoint A by determinant A; we get - - - -
(A) A-1 (B) A (C) A (D) None of these.
36. If A  - A , then A will be - -- - - -
(A)Hermitian (B) Skew Hermitian

(C) Symmetric (D) Skew symmetric.
37. What is the statement of Cayley-Hamilton theorem?
(A) Every square metrics satisfied it own characteristic equations.
(B) All matrix satisfied it own characteristics equations.
(C) Any determinant shows characteristics equations.
(D) None of these.

38. An eigen value of a square matrix A is λ = 0 then,
(A) 𝐴 ≠ 𝑜 (B) A is symmetric

(C) A is singular (D) A is skew symmetric.
39. Determine the eigen values of the matrix,
5 2 
A   
 2 2
(A) (1, 6) (B) (-1, - 6) (C) (1, - 6) (D) (-1, 6).
40 . Fourier series, Parseval identity is - - -- - - -

2 
a0 1
(A) [ f ( x )]    b
2 2 2
(a )
4 2 n n
n 1
2 
a0 1
[ f ( x )]    b
2 2 2
(B) (a
n n
)
4 2
n 1
2 
a0 1
(C) [ f ( x )]    b
2 2
(a )
4 2 n n
n 1
(D) None of these.
41. The complex form of Fourier series is -- - - -

2
1 in x
(A) C   f ( x )e dx
n 2 0
2
1 nx
(B) C   f ( x )e dx
n 2 i 0
2
1  in x
(C) C   f ( x )e dx
n 2 0
(D) None of these.
42. The even function of the Fourier coefficients is - - - - -

 
a0 a0
(A) f (x) 
2
  a
n
cos nx (B) f (x) 
2
  cos nx
n 1 n 1

a0
(C) f (x) 
2
  s in n x (D) None of these.
n 1
43. Fourier series which will represent f(x) = x sinx in the interval
1 1 1 1
−𝜋 < 𝑥 < 𝜋, then + − + − … … …. Will have value - - -
2 1.3 3.5 5.7
𝜋 𝝅 𝜋 𝜋
(A) (B) (C) (D) .
2 𝟒 6 8
44. The odd function of the Fourier coefficients is - - - - -

 
a0 a0
(A) f (x) 
2
  a
n
cos nx (B) f (x) 
2
  cos nx
n 1 n 1

(C) f ( x )   b
n
s in n x (D) None of these.
n 1
  x,   x  0
45. Using Fourier series for f(x), if f (x)  
 x, 0  x  
Find that- - - -
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏 1 1 1
(A) 𝟏𝟐 + 𝟑𝟐 + 𝟓𝟐 + - - - (B)
22
+
42
+
62
+---
1 1 1
(C) 2 + + +--- (D) None of these.
1 22 32
46. Dirichlet’s condition for a Fourier series are - - - -

(A) Single valued, is bounded, finite number discontinuous
(B) Double valued, is unbounded, not discontinuous
(C) Multiple valued, multiple bounded
(D) None of these.
47. If the Fourier series of f(x) has only cosine terms then f(x) must be - - -
(A) Odd function (B) Even function
(C) Multiple function (D) None of these.
48. If the Fourier series of f(x) has only sine terms then f(x) must be - - -
(A) Odd function (B) Even function
(C) Multiple function (D) None of these.
49. Half range sine series is - - - -

 n x  n x
(A) f ( x )   b s in
n
(B) f (x)   s in
2 2
n 1 n 1
 n x
(C) f (x)   s in (D) None of these.
3
n 1
50. Half range sine series value of b is - - - - n
2  1 
(A) b   f ( x ) s in n x d x (B) b   f ( x ) s in n x d x
n  n 
0 0
3 
(C) b n   f ( x ) s in n x d x (D) None of these.

0
51. What is the value of a0 in the Fourier series of t2 in the interval – 𝜋 < 𝑡 < 𝜋 ?
2
  2
2 2
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D)

4 8 3

52. For even function of Fourier series  f ( x)dx =------


 
(A) 0 (B) 2  f ( x)dx (C)  f ( x)dx (D) None of these.

0 0
53. For odd function of Fourier series  f ( x)dx =------


 
(A) 0 (B) 2  f ( x)dx (C)  f ( x)dx (D) None of these.

0 0
54. For the function f(x) = x, 0 <𝑥<2

In half range cosine series, the value of a0 for this is - - - - - -
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) – 1
55. For the function f(x) = x

3
, for   x  
Find value of a
0
and a
n
----
2

(A)  (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 
2
56. For the function
F(x) = - 1,   x  0
= + 1, 0  x 
Where f(x+2  ) = f(x), value of a

n
is - - - -
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) – 1 (D) 2.

57. Given that f(x) = x + x2 for – 𝜋 < x < 𝜋 . Find the fourier value of a0 of f(x) - -
 2 3  2
2 2 2 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)

3 3 2 3
58. For the function f(x) = x – x2 from x = - 𝜋 to 𝜋 . Find the a0 - - -

 2 2  2 2
2 2 3 3
(A) (B) (C) (D) .

3 3 3 3
59. For the sine series, f(x) = ex for 0 x  . Find value of a0 and an .
(A) 0 (B) Non zero (C) Both A and B (D) None of these.
60. What is Laplace transform of L(1) = - - -

1
(A) S (B) –S (C) (D) S
2
1  1 
61. L      
 s 
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) -1 (D) 2
1  S 
62. Find L
  = -----
 4S  13 
2
S
-2 t 2 -2 t -2 t 2 -2 t
(A) e c o s 3t - e s in 3 t (B) e c o s 3t  e s in 3 t
3 3
-2 t 2 -2 t
(C) e ta n 3 t  e s in 3 t (D) None of these.
3
63. L{f(at)} = - - - - - -
𝟏
(A)F(s/a) (B) F(s/a) (C) - F(s/a) (D) none of these.
𝒂
64. Laplace transformation, Convolution theorem is - - - - -
(A) L [ f ( t ) g ( t )]  L f ( t ). L g ( t )  F ( s ) G ( s )
*
(B) L [ f ( t ) g ( t ) ]  L f ( t ) .L g (t )  F ( s )G ( s )
*
(C) L [ f (t ) g (t )]  L f (t ).L g (t )  F ( s )G ( s )
*
(D) None of these.
65. Inverse Laplace transform by Convolution theorem is - - -

t
1 
(A)  f ( x ). f (  x ) d x  L F ( s ) .F ( s ) 
1 2  1 2 
0
t
1 
(B)  f ( x ). f (b  x ) d x  L F ( s ) .F ( s ) 
1 2  1 2 
0
t
1 
(C)  f ( x ). f (t  x ) d x  L F ( s ) .F ( s ) 
1 2  1 2 
0
(D) None of these.
66. The Initial Theorem is - - - - - - -
(A) lim f t   lim s f ( s ) (B) f 0  lim lim s f ( s )

t  0 s   s  
(C) f    lim lim s f ( s ) (D) f    lim lim s f ( s )

s   s  0
67. L(t) will be equal to - - --

1 1 1
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) (D) None of these.
S S S
S 1
68. Inverse of Laplace transform of ----
 6S  25
2
S
3t 3t 2t 3t
(A) e cos 4t  e s in 4 t (B) e cos 4t  e s in 4
2t 3t
(C) e c o s 3t  e sin 4 t (D) None of these
69. Inverse Laplace transform: Using First Shifting property, If
L-1F(s) = f(t), then L-1 F(s+a) = - - - - - -

-at at
(A) e L-1 [F(s)] (B) e L-1 [F(s)]
-at -at
(C) e L-1 [F(-s)] (D) e L-1 [F(s/a)]
70. The Final Theorem is - - - - - - -
(A) L im [ s F ( s )]  L im f (t ) (B) L im [ s F ( s ) ]  L im f ( t )
s  0 t   s  1 t  2
(C) L im [ s F ( s ) ]  L im f ( t ) (D) None of these.

s  0 t  1
71. Using First Shifting property, If L[eat f(t)] = ---
(A) F(s-a) (B) F(s+a) (C) F(s≠a) (D) 0.

72. Laplace transform of integral of f(t) - - - -
t  1 
1 1
(A) L   f (t ) d t   F ( s / a ) (B) L   f (t ) d t   F ( s )
  s   s
0  0 
t 
1
(C) L   f (t ) d t   F ( s ) (D) None of these.
  s
0 
73. Inverse Laplace transform: Second shifting property is - - - -
 as
(A) L e F ( s )   f (t  a )u (t  a )
 
(B) L  1  e  a s F ( s )   f (t  a )u (t  a )
 
 as
(C) L e

F ( s )   f (t  a )u (t  a )

(D) None of these.

at
74. L{(e )} = - - - - - -(B)
1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these.
a  s s a s a
75. Find L{ ( e  a t ) } = - - - - - - (C)
1 1 1
a  s s a s a
76. L(sin at) = - - - - -

a a a
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
2 2 2 2 2 2
s  a s  a a  s
77. L(cos at) = - - - - -

a a s
2 2 2 2 2 2
s  a s  a s  a
78. L(cosh at) = - - - - -

s a s
2 2 2 2 2 2
s  a s  a s  a
79. L(sinh at) = - - - - -

a a a
2 2 2 2 2 2
s  a s  a a  s
1  s 
80. L
 
=----
 a 
2 2
S
(A) tan at (B) cosec at (C) cos at (D) sin at
1  a 
81. L
 
=------
 a 
2 2
S
(A) cos at (B) sin at (C) cosec at (D) cot at.
82. L  t . f ( t )   - - - -- -
d d
(  1) (  1)
1 a
(A) [ f ( s )] (B) [ f ( s )]
ds ds
1 d
(C) (  1) [ f ( s )] (D) None of these.
ds
1  S 
83. L   =----
 S  2 
-2 t 2t t 2t
(A) 2e (B) 2e (C) 2e (D) e .
n
84. If n and s are positive, L (t )     
n! n! n! n!
(A) n 1
(B) n 1
(C) n  2
(D) n
S S S S
 t
85. L 2  
 
1 1 lo g ( 2 )
(A) (B) (C) (D) lo g ( s  2 )
lo g  2  s  lo g  2  s 2
 3t
86. L[e ] 
1 1 1
S  3 S 3 S 1
1  1 
87. L      
 S 3
 3t 3t t
(A) e (B) e (C) e (D) None of these.
88. Laplace transformation of a derivative of function become an - - - - -
(A) Inverse function (B) Singular function
(C) Algebraic function (D) Direct function.
89. Without finding the general solution and the arbitrary constants of the ordinary linear
differential equations with constant coefficients can be easily solved by the - - - - - -
(A) Method of separation of variables (B) Laplace transform method
(C) Fuch’s theorem method (D) Green function method.
1
90. Find Laplace transform of f (t ) =-----
t
 2
(A)  f (S ) d S (B)  f (S ) d S
 0
(C)  f ( S ) d S (D) None of these.

S
91. Laplace transform of the derivative of f(t) - - - - - -(B)
L  f ( t )   s L  f ( t )   f (0 )
'
L  f (t )   L  f (t )   f (0 )
'
(A) (B)  
 
L  f ( t )   L  f ( t )   f (1) L  f (t )   L
' '
(C)  
(D)  
 f (t )   f (0 )
92. Laplace transform of the derivative of order n - - - - - -(B)
n 1 n2 ' n3 " n 1

L  f (t )   s L  f (t )   s
n n
(A)  
f (0 )  s f (0 )  s f ( 0 )  ....  f (0 )
n 1 n2 ' n3 " n 1

L  f (t )   s L  f (t )   s
n n
(B) f (0 )  s f (0 )  s f ( 0 )  ....  f (0 )
 
n 1 n 2 ' n3 " n 1

L  f (t )   s L  f (t )   s
n n
(C) f (0 )  s f (0 )  s f ( 0 )  ....  f (0 )
 
(D) None of these.

93. Find Fourier transform of
F(x) = 1, for x  a
= 0, for x  a
2 S in s a 1 S in s a
(A) F  f(x )   (B) F  f(x )  
 2s  s
2 S in s a
(C) F  f(x )   (D) None of these.
 s
94. Equation for Fourier cosine transform is - - - -
2  2 
(A) f (x)   s in s x  F ( s ) d s (B) f (x)   cos st  F (s )ds
 
0 0
2 
(C) f (s)   f ( t ) c o s s td t (D) None of these.

0
95. Fourier transform of f(x) is - - - -
1  1 
is t is t
(A) F (s)   f (t )e dt (B) F (s)   f (t )e dt
  2


1  is t
(C) F (s)   f (t )e dt (D) None of these.
 
96. Inverse Fourier transform of F(s) is - - - -

 
1  is x 1  is x
(A) F (x )   f (s)e ds (B) F (x )   f (s)e ds
2 2
 

1  is x
(C) F (x )   f (s ) e ds (D) None of these.
 
97. Find L[ t sin at] = - - - - --

as as
(A) 2
(B)
s2  a2  s2  a2 
2as 2as
(C) n
(D) 2
 s
2
 a
2
  s
2
 a
2

98. Find L[ t cos at] = - - - - --
2 2
a s  2a
2 2
s
(A) (B)
s  a
2 2
2 2 2
(s  a )
s  3a
2 2
(C) (D) None of these.

s  a
2 2
 at 
99. Find L

e s in b t

= - - --
ba b
(A)1 2 2
(B) 2 2
s  a b s  a b
b
(C) 2 2
(D) None of these.
s  a b
L e cos bt 
at
100. Find  
= - - --
s a s a
(A) 2 2
(B) 2 2
s  a b s  a b
sa
(C) 2 2
(D) None of these.
s  a b
1

 
2
101. 1  2 x t  t 2 is generating function for ----
(A) Hermite polynomial (B) Bessel polynomial
(C) Legendre polynomial (D) None of these.
x n
e d
102. L n = ( x n e -x ) is Rodrigues formula for -------
n! dx n
(A)Bessel polynomial for first kind (B) Hermite polynomial
(C) Legendre polynomial (D) Laguerre’s polynomial.

103. If Pn(x) is function of Legendre’s polynomials, then Pn (1) = - - -
(A) -1 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) ∞ .
104. Using Hermite polynomial, generate H1(x) = - - - - -
(A) 3x (B) 2x (C) 1 (D) o .

n
1 d n
105. Rodrigues formula; P (X )  n (X
2
 1) is - - -
n n
2  n ! dX
(A)Bessel’s polynomial (B) Legendre’s polynomial
(C) Hermite’s polynomial (D) Laguerre’s polynomial
106. Using generating function of Legendre’s polynomial, find Po(x) = - - - - - -
(A) 0 (B) -1 (C) 1 (D) 2 .
107. Rodrigue’s formula for Bessel polynomials is - - - -
n
n 2 x d  2n 2 x 
(A) J (x)  2 e x e 
n n  
dx
n
n 2 x d  2n 2 x 
(B) J (x)  2 e x e 
n n  
dx
n
n d  2n 2 x 
(C) J (x)  2 x e 
n n  
dx
(D) None of these.
108. cos x will be - - - -
(A)2J1 −2J3+J5 −- - - - - (B) J0– 2J2 + 2J4 + - - -
(C) 2J1 + 2J3+ J5 +- - - - - (D) None of these.
109. Generating function for Bessel function is - - - - - - -
x  1 x
t    t 
2  t  n n
(A) e   J
n
(x) t (B) e2   J
n
(x) t
n  0 n  0
x
 t 
n
(C) e 2   J
n
(x) t (D) None of these.
n  0
2 𝑑𝑛 2
110. (−1)𝑛 𝑒 𝑥 𝑒 −𝑥 is the Rodrigue’s formula for - - - - - -
𝑑𝑥 𝑛
(A) Legendre polynomial (B) Bessel polynomial
(C) Hermite polynomial (D) None of these.
111. Using Legendre’s generating function ,Pn(-x) = - - - -
n n
(A)   1  P
n
x (B)   1  P x
n
(C)   1 
n
P
n  x2  (D) None of these.
112. Incorrect equation among of following ---
(A)P0(x) = 1 (B) P1(x) = x
(C) 𝑃𝑛 (−1) = (−1) 𝑛 (D) 𝑷𝒏 (𝟏) = -1.

1
113. P M
( x ). Pn ( x ) d x  0 , if n ≠ m , represent ------
1
(A) Orthogonality of Legendre’s polynomials.
(B) Orthogonality of Hermite’s polynomials.
(C) Orthogonality of Laguerre’s polynomials.
(D) Orthogonality of Bessel polynomials.
2  n
114. g  x , t   e ( 2 x t  t ) H n ( x )t
  n!
is generating function for ----
n  0
(A)Harmonic polynomial (B) Bessel polynomial
(C) Legendre’s polynomial (D) Hermite’s polynomial

115. Using Rodrigues’ formula of Hermite polynomials, find H2(x) = - - -
(A) 2x3−1 (B) 2x2−𝟏
(C) 2x −1 (D) 2x2−2 .
116. Using Rodrigue’s formula of Legendre’s polynomials, find the value of the
P2(x) is - - - - -
1
(A)(3x2-1) (B) (5x2-1) (C) (3 x
2
 1) (D) None of these.
2
117. In Legendre’s orthogonal properties, if m ≠ n

1
then  P ( x ) Pn ( x ) d x    
m
1
2 1
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D) 1 .
( 2 n  1) ( 2 n  1)
118. If m = n, Legendre’s orthogonal properties is

1
 P ( x ) Pn ( x ) d x    
m
1
1 2
(A) (B) 0 (C) (D) 1.
( 2 n  1) ( 2 n  1)
119. Hermite orthogonal property, if m ≠ n then

 2
x
 e H ( x )H (x) dx    
n m

(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) -1 (D) ∞.
120. Hermite orthogonal property, if m = n then

 2
x
 e H ( x )H (x) dx    
n m

n
(A) 2 n!  (B) n
2 ( n  1) ! 
n
(C) 2 ( n  1) !  (D) None of these.
121. Orthogonal Property of Laguerre’s function is - - - - - -
  L (x) L (x)
x m
(A)  f xf x   e
n
dx  
m n m !n ! m,n
0 0
  L ( x) L ( x)
x m
(B)  f xf x   e
n
dx  
m n m !n ! m,n
0 0
  L (x) L (x)
x m
(C)  f xf x   e
n
dx  
m n m !n ! m,n
0 0
(D) None of these.
122. Using Rodrigue’s formula for Legendre’s polynomial, find P3(x) = - - - -
 5x  3x  5x  3x
1 2 1 3
(A) (B)
2 2
 5x  3x   5x  3x
1 3 2 1 3
(C) (D)
2 2
123. sin x will be - - - -
(A) 2J1 −2J3+2J5 −- - - - - (B) J0– 2J2 + 2J4 + - - -
(C) 2J1 + 2J3+ J5 +- - - - - (D) None of these.

'
124. Complete the Recurrence formula, 2J
n
    
J  J J  J
(A) n 1 n 1 (B) n 1 n 1
(C) J
n
 J
n 1
(D) None of these.
124. Using Rodrigue’s formula for Hermite polynomial, Find the value of H
3
(x) --
(A) 1 6 x 4  4 8 x 2  1 2 (B) 7x
4
 72 x
2
 10
3 2 3
(C) 8x  12 x (D) x  12 x
3
125. Find the value of J 0  2 J1  2 J 2        

2 2 2
(A) -1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 1

126. If f(z) is analytic and single valued within and on a closed contour C and if z0 is any
point within C, then Cauchy’s integral formula is - - - - - -

f (z) 1 f (z)
(A) f ( z0 )=  dz (B) f ( z0 )   dz
z  z0 2 i z - z0
c c
1 f ( z0 ) f ( z0 )
(C) f ( z0 )   dz (D) f ( z0 )   dz
2 i z z
c c
127. Cauchy’s residue theorem is - - - - -
(A)  f ( z )d z  2  i  R (B)  f ( z )d z  2   Ri
C C
(C) f ( z ) d z  2  Ri (D) f ( z ) d z  2 i  R
128. The Cauchy-Rieman equation in polar form is given as- - - - - -

u u u v u v u v
(A)  and   (B)  r and  
r   r r   r
u 1 v v 1 u u v 1 u v
(C)  and   (D)  and  
r r  r r  r  r  r
129. The necessary condition for the function f(z) be analytic at the point z is - - -
u v u v u v v u
(A)  and  (B)  and  
y x x y x y x y
u u v v
(C)  and   (D) None of these.
x y x y
130. The residue of cotz at z = 0 - - - - - -
(A) -1 (B) 1 (C) 𝜋 (D) 0
131. Mathematical statement of Taylor’s theorem is - - - -

n
f  ( a ) 2 f (a ) n
(A) f ( z )  f ( a )  f  ( a )( z  a )  (z  a)   (z  a)  
2! n!
n
f  ( a ) 2 f (a ) n
(B) f ( z )  f ( a )  f  ( a )( z  a )  (z  a)  (z  a) 
2! n!
n
f  ( a ) 2 f (a ) n
(C) f ( z )  f ( a )  f  ( a )( z  a )  (z  a)   (z  a)  
2! n!
(D) None of these.
132. Mathematical statement of Laurent’s Theorem is - - - - -

b1 b2
(A) f ( z )  a 0  a1 ( z  a )  a 2 ( z  a )     
2
    
z  a (z  a)
2
b1 b2
(B) f ( z )  a 0  a1 ( z  a )  a 2 ( z  a )     
2
    
z  a (z  a)
2
b1 b2
(C) f ( z )  a 0  a1 ( z  a )  a 2 ( z  a )     
2
    
z  a (z  a)
2
(D) None of these.
133. If f z  u  iv , then f (z) = is equal to - - - -
(B) u  v
2 2
(A) u  v (C) u  v
2 2
u v
2 2
(D)
3
134. If z  r (c o s   i s in  ) , then z is equal to - - - - -
(A)  c o s    cos  
3 3
 i s in   i s in 
3
(B) r
3
r 3
(C) (D) r
2
135. If f (z) is constant then f (z) is - - - -
(A) Variable (B) Partially variable and constant
(C) Constant (D) None of these.
136. Find the residue of tan z at its pole is - - -
(A) 1 (B) – 1 (C) 0 (D) 2.

1
137. Determine the pole of the following function
( z  1) ( z  2 )
(A) z = 1, z = 2 (B) z = – 1, z = - 2
(C) z = - 2 , z = 1 (D) z = - 1 , z = - 2
4  3z
138. Find the residue of the function at z = 0 
C
z ( z  1) ( z  2 )
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

1 2z
139. Find the pole of the function
z ( z  1) ( z  2 )
(A) z = 0, 1, 2 (B) z = 1, 2, 3
(C) z = 0, -1, -2 (D) z = -1, -2, -3
140. If f(z) has a simple pole at z = a, then the formula of finding residue is ----
 (a )
(A) R e s f ( a )  lim ( z  a ) f ( z ) (B) R e s f (a ) 
Za  (a )
n 1
1  d 
(C) R es f (a )   n 1
(z  a) f (z)
n
(D) None of these.
( n  1) !  d z  za
Queastion bank A
NS
PHY-102 Classical Mechanics
1) An object has speed 2m/s and kinetic energy 1J.The mass of particle is in kg: b
a) 1
b) .5
c) .05
d) 2
2) The unit of angular momentum is: c
a) Kg ms-1
b) Kg ms-2
c) Kg m2 s -1
d) J s -1
3) A central force is an example of: d

a) Conservative force
b) Non conservative force
c) Frictional force
d) Fictitious force
4) Rocket is based on Principal of …… a
a) Linear Momentum
b) Angular Momentum
c) Energy
d) All of These
5) If The force acting on a system of a particle is zero, what is conserved? a
a) Linear Momentum
b) Angular Momentum
c) Energy
d) All of above
6) A particle of mass m moving with speed v collides with a stationary particle of a
equal mass, after the collision, both the particle move, the 𝜃 be the angle between
the two velocity vector,
If the Collision is inelastic, then
a) 𝜃 is always less than 90°
b) 𝜃 is always equal to 90°
c) 𝜃 is always greater than 90°
d) 𝜃 could assume any value in the range 𝜃 to 90°
7) All the planet moves around the sun in …………… orbit. b
a) Circular
b) Elliptical
c) Hyperbolic
d) Nota
8) For circular orbit the value of eccentricity……………. c

a) ε>1
b) ε<1
c) ε=0
d) Nota
9) The orbit of light positively charged particle in Rutherford Scattering by heavy d
nucleus is:
a) Circular
b) Elliptical
c) Straight Line
d) Hyperbolic
10) In Rutherford Scattering Cross Section. The Scattering Cross Section is directly a
proportional to…..
a) Cosec4θ/2
b) (Ze)2
c) (ze)2
d) None of The Above
11) The orbit of light positively changed particle in Rutherford Scattering by heavy d
nucleus is:
a) Circular
b) Elliptical
c) Straight Line
d) Hyperbolic
12) In Rutherford Experiment 105𝛼-particles are scattered at an angle of 2°, the b
number of 𝛼-particles scattered at an angle of 20° (Approximately) is……
a) 5
b) 10
c) 30
d) 20
13) Magnitude of velocity of particle in Centre of Mass System before and after b
collision are….
a) Different
b) Equal
c) Negligible
14) The Ratio of the number of Scattered particle per second per unit solid angle and a
the flux density of incident particle is called
a) Differential Cross Section
b) Impact Parameter
c) Dissipative System
15) The relation between cross section in Centre of Mass System and Laboratory b
System is if 𝑚2 ≫ 𝑚1as𝜃 = 𝜃′ are scattering angle in Centre of Mass and
Laboratory Frame respectively.
1
a) 𝜎(𝜃′) = 2𝜎(𝜃′)
b) 𝜎(𝜃′) = 𝜎(𝜃)
c) 𝜎(𝜃) = 2𝜎(𝜃 ′ )
d) None of the Above
16) Generalised momentum is given by…….. a
𝜕𝐿
a) 𝑝𝑘 = 𝜕𝑞 ̇
𝑘
b) 𝑝𝑘 = 𝜕𝐿 ∙ 𝜕𝑞̇ 𝑘
c) 𝑝𝑘 = 𝜕𝑞̇ 𝑘
17) The relation between cross section in Centre of Mass System and Laboratory a
System if m1=m2 as 𝜃′ and 𝜃 are scattering angle in Centre of Mass and
Laboratory Frame respectively then
𝜎(𝜃)
a) 𝜎(𝜃′) = 4𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
b) 𝜎(𝜃′) = 𝜎(𝜃)
𝜎(𝜃′ )
c) 𝜎(𝜃) = 4𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃′
18) The graph between length and time period of simple pendulum is a: c
a) Straight line
b) Circle
c) Parabola
d) hyperbola
19) The magnitude of acceleration of particle executing S.H.M. at the position of c
maximum displacement is:
a) Minimum
b) Zero
c) Maximum
d) Neither a minimum nor maximum
20) The relation between Impact Parameter and 𝜎(𝜃)is : a

𝑠 𝑑𝑠
a) 𝜎(𝜃) = 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 | 𝑑𝜃 |
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 𝑑𝑠
b) 𝜎(𝜃) = | 𝑑𝜃 |
𝑠
𝑠 𝑑𝜃
c) 𝜎(𝜃) = 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 | 𝑑𝑠 |
𝑑𝑠
d) 𝜎(𝜃) = |𝑠 ∙ 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 𝑑𝜃 |
21) The dual transformation is referred as ……. a

a) 𝐹(𝑢1 , 𝑢2, … 𝑢𝑛 ) = 𝑢𝑖 𝑣𝑖 − 𝐺(𝑣1 , 𝑣2, … 𝑣𝑛 )
b) 𝐹(𝑢1 , 𝑢2, … 𝑢𝑛 ) = 𝑢𝑖 𝑣𝑖 + 𝐺(𝑣1 , 𝑣2, … 𝑣𝑛 )
𝑢𝑣
c) 𝐹(𝑢1 , 𝑢2, … 𝑢𝑛 ) = 𝐺(𝑣 ,𝑣𝑖 𝑖…𝑣 )
1 2, 𝑛
22) Generalised coordinate are : b
a) Dependent
b) Independent
c) Spherical polar coordinate
d) Definitely not the cartesian coordinate
23) Hamiltonian function is given by, as 𝑞 and 𝑝 are generalised coordinate and a
momentum respectively
a) 𝐻 = 𝐻(𝑞, 𝑝, 𝑡)
b) 𝐻 = 𝐻(𝑞̇ , 𝑝, 𝑡)
c) 𝐻 = 𝐻(𝑞, 𝑝, 𝑡)
d) 𝐻 = 𝐻(𝑝)
𝜕𝐿
a) 𝑝𝑘 = 𝜕𝑞 ̇
𝑘
b) 𝑝𝑘 = 𝜕𝐿 ∙ 𝜕𝑞̇ 𝑘
c) 𝑝𝑘 = 𝜕𝑞̇ 𝑘
25) If a co-ordinate does not appear in the Lagrangian then the corresponding b
conserved quantity is…..
a) linear momentum
b) generalized momentum
c) angular momentum
d) mechanical energy
26) If a lagrangian does not depend on the time explicitly then the corresponding d
conserved quantity is…..
a) linear momentum
b) generalized momentum
c) angular momentum
d) mechanical energy
27) For conservative system, when a potential energy V is not a function of velocities b
the Hamiltonian H is ……
a) Total mass of system
b) Total energy of System
c) Total Co-ordinate of System
28) Hamilton equation of motion for simple pendulum, as 𝜃 small is b
𝑔
a) 𝜃̇ + 𝜃=0
𝑙
𝑔
b) 𝜃̈ + 𝜃=0
𝑙
𝑔
c) 𝜃̈ + 𝑙 𝜃̇ = 0
𝑔
d) 𝜃̇ + 𝑙 𝜃̈ = 0
29) Hamiltonian equation of motion is….. d

−𝜕𝐻 𝜕𝐻
a) 𝑝̇𝑘 = ; 𝑝𝑘 = 𝜕𝑞
𝜕𝑞𝑘 𝑘
−𝜕𝐻 𝜕𝐻
b) 𝑝𝑘 = ; 𝑞𝑘 = 𝜕𝑝
𝜕𝑞𝑘 𝑘
−𝜕𝐻 𝜕𝐻
c) 𝑞𝑘 = ; 𝑝𝑘 = 𝜕𝑞
𝜕𝑞𝑘 𝑘
−𝜕𝐻 𝜕𝐻
d) 𝑝̇𝑘 = ; 𝑞̇ 𝑘 = 𝜕𝑞
𝜕𝑞𝑘 𝑘
30) The Hamiltonian is given by relation….. a
a) H=T+V
b) H=T-V
c) H=2T+V
d) H=V-T
31) Hamiltonian equation of motion for harmonic oscillator is…. a
a) 𝑚𝑥̈ + 𝑘𝑥 = 0
b) 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑘𝑥 = 0
c) 𝑚𝑥̈ − 𝑘𝑥 = 0
d) 𝑚𝑥̈ + 𝑘𝑥̇ = 0
32) The Lagrangian is defined as a
a) L=T-V
b) L=T+V
c) L=2T+V
d) L=2T-V
33) Euler Lagrange equation for function 𝐿(𝑞, 𝑞̇ , 𝑡) is….. a
𝜕 𝜕𝐿 𝜕𝐿
a) ( ) − 𝜕𝑞
𝜕𝑡 𝜕𝑞̇
𝜕 𝜕𝐿 𝜕𝐿
b) ( ) − 𝜕𝑞
𝜕𝑞 𝜕𝑞
𝜕 𝜕𝐿 𝜕𝐿
c) ( ) − 𝜕𝑡
𝜕𝑡 𝜕𝑞
34) A rigid body moving freely in space has degree of freedom: c
a) 3
b) 4
c) 6
d) 9
35) For conservative system Hamiltonian represents: a
a) T+V
b) T-V
c) 2T
d) L-V
36) The Hamiltonian of a charged particle in electromagnetic field described by a
electrostatic potential ∅ and vector potential 𝐴⃗ is:
1
a) 𝐻 = 2 𝑚𝑣 2 + 𝑞𝑠
1
b) 𝐻 = 2 𝑚𝑣 2 − 𝑞𝑠
1
c) 𝐻 = 2 𝑚𝑣 2 + 𝑞(𝑉 ∙ 𝐴)+e∅
1
d) 𝐻 = 2 𝑚𝑣 2 + 𝑞(𝑉 ∙ 𝐴)- e∅
37) Hamiltonian of a simple pendulum is: b

𝑝2
a) H=2𝑚𝑙𝜃 2 -mgl (1-cosθ)
𝑝2
b) H=2𝑚𝑙𝜃 2 +mgl (1-cosθ)
𝑝2
c) H=2𝑚𝑙𝜃 2 -mgl
d) Nota
38) Configuration space the …. c
a) Phase space
b) Momentum space
c) position space
d) none of the above
39) Phase space is the ….. c
a) momentum space
b) configuration space
c) superposition of position and Momentum space
d) NOTA
40) If the particle is moving in in consecutive potential field 𝑉(𝑟), the relativistic c
Lagrangian of particle given by………
𝑣2
a) 𝐿 = −𝑀𝑜 𝑣 2 √1 − 𝑐 2 − 𝑉(𝑟)
𝑣2
b) 𝐿 = 𝑀𝑜 𝑐 2 √1 − 𝑐 2 − 𝑉(𝑟)
𝑣2
c) 𝐿 = −𝑀𝑜 𝑐 2 √1 − 𝑐 2 − 𝑉(𝑟)
41) Hamiltonian principle is….. b
a) ∫ 𝐿𝑑𝑡 = 0
b) 𝛿 ∫ 𝐿 𝑑𝑡 = 0
c) ∫ 𝐻𝑑𝑡 = 0
d) 𝛿 ∫ 𝐻𝑑𝑡 = 0
42) Fermat principle of least action is…….
2 𝑑𝑠
a) 𝛿 ∫1 =0
𝑣
2 𝑑𝑠
b) 𝛿 ∫1 𝑣 = 0
2 𝑣
c) 𝛿 ∫1 𝑑𝑠 = 0
2
d) 𝛿 ∫1 𝑣𝑑𝑠 = 0
43) Maupertuis principle of least action is….. d

2 𝑑𝑠
a) 𝛿 ∫1 =0
𝑣
2 𝑑𝑠
b) 𝛿 ∫1 𝑚𝑣 = 0
2 𝑣
c) 𝛿 ∫1 𝑑𝑠 = 0
2
d) 𝛿 ∫1 𝑣𝑑𝑠 = 0
44) A transformation from set ( q ,p ) to set (Q,P) is canonical if a

a) hamiltonian equation retain there form
b) Lagrangian equation retain there form
c) Newton's Law valid in both set of coordinates
d) none of these
45) The condition of canonical transformation is …. a
a) PdQ- pdq is an exact differential
b) PQ=pq
c) P = p ; Q = q
d) PQ - pq = PQ + pq
46) If L and K an Lagrangian in old and new variable, then the transformation is b
Canonical if:
𝑑𝑓
a) L+K = 𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑓
b) L-K = 𝑑𝑡
𝐿 𝑑𝑓
c) = 𝑑𝑡
𝐾
𝑑𝑓
d) LK = 𝑑𝑡
47) The principle of least action is….. b

a) 𝛿 ∫ 𝐿𝑑𝑡 = 0
b) 𝛿 ∫ 𝑝𝑘 𝑞𝑘̇ 𝑑𝑡 = 0
c) 𝛿 ∫ 𝐻𝑑𝑡 = 0
d) 𝛿 ∫ 𝑞𝑘 𝑝𝑘̇ 𝑑𝑡 = 0
48) The shortest distances between two points on the surface of a spere is: b
a) An arc of arbitrary circle
b) An arc of great circle
c) Straight line
d) An arc of arbitrary curve
49) In 𝛿-variation ……. b

a) time (t) is fixed at end point only
b) time (t) is fixed at all position of path
c) time (t) varies at all position of part including end points
d) time (t) is varies at end points only
50) The Gauge transformation is a
𝑑𝐹(𝑞 , 𝑡 )
a) L’ = L + 𝑑𝑡
’ 𝑑𝐹(𝑞 , 𝑡 )
b) L = L + 𝑑𝑡
’ 𝑑𝐿(𝑞 , 𝑡 )
c) L = L + 𝑑𝑡
d) L’ = L
51) Which of the following transformation is Canonical d

a) P =q and Q =P
b) P = q and Q = -p
c) Q = -p and P =-q
d) Q = p and P= -q
52) The Poisson bracket of two integral s of motion is c

a) 0
b) 1
c) Constant
d) infinity
53) The speed of transverse wave along a stretched string is: b
𝑇
a) 𝑚
𝑇
b) √𝑚
𝑇
c) √𝑚𝑙
𝑇𝑙
d) √𝑚
54) In case of double pendulum, if the masses as well as thread length are equal c
(m1=m2=m , l1=l2 = l ) then
a) Two normal mode frequencies are equal to that of a pendulum of length 2l
and mass m.
b) Two normal mode frequencies are equal to that of single pendulum of length
1 and mass m .
c) Two normal mode frequencies are different.
d) Nota
55) An example of stable equilibrium is a
a) A hanging spring mass system in the stationary position.
b) An egg standing on one end .
c) A book placed flat any where on a table.
d) None of above
56) Normal co-ordinate are referred as in the generalized co-ordinates each one of b
them having frequency as:
a) double
b) single
c) triple
d) none of above
57) The equilibrium in which is small oscillation of the system from the position of a
the equilibrium cause it in a small bound motion about the position of the rest is
called as:
a) stable
b) unstable
c) isotropic
d) holonomic
58) Poisson bracket [𝑞𝑖 ,H] is equal to c
a) 0
b) 1
c) 𝑞𝑖̇
d) Nota
59) The frequency of small oscillation of simple pendulum (mass m2) when support of d
mass m1 move horizontally is:
1 𝑔
a)
2𝛱
√𝑙
1 𝑔𝑚
b)
2𝛱
√ 𝑙 𝑚1
1 𝑔(𝑚1 +𝑚2 )
c)
2𝛱
√ 𝑙 𝑚2
1 𝑔(𝑚1 +𝑚2 )
d)
2𝛱
√ 𝑙 𝑚1
60) For a transformation to be canonical d

a) The Poisson bracket change sign
b) The Poisson bracket become zero
c) The Poisson bracket becomes equal to unity
d) The Lagrange and Poisson bracket remains invarient
61) A particle of mass m moving with speed v collides with a stationary particle of b
equal mass, after the collision, both the particle move, the 𝜃 be the angle between
the two velocity vector,
If the Collision is elastic then,
a) 𝜃 is always less than 90°
b) 𝜃 is always equal to 90°
c) 𝜃 is always greater than 90°
d) 𝜃 is cannot be deduced from given data
62) The law of conservation of linear momentum is derived from …… c
a) First Law
b) Second Law
c) Third Law
d) It is no concern with Newton’s Law
63) The angular momentum of the particle of mass m moving with speed u in circular b
orbit of radius r is:
a) mu2r
b) mur
c) mur2
d) mu2r2
64) The orbit of light positively charged particle in Rutherford Scattering by heavy d
nucleus is:
e) Circular
f) Elliptical
g) Straight Line
h) Hyperbolic
65) If the torque acting on system of particle is zero, what is conserved? b
a) Linear Momentum
b) Angular Momentum
c) Energy
d) All of These
66) The Ratio of the number of Scattered particle per second per unit solid angle and a
the flux density of incident particle is called
e) Differential Cross Section
f) Impact Parameter
g) Dissipative System
h) None of The Above
67) If The force acting on a system of a particle is zero, what is conserved? a
e) Linear Momentum
f) Angular Momentum
g) Energy
h) All of These
68) In Rutherford Scattering Cross Section. The Scattering Cross Section is inversely a
proportional to…..
e) The square of Kinetic Energy E
f) (Ze)2
g) (ze)2
69) Magnitude of velocity of particle in Centre of Mass System before and after b
collision are….
e) Different
f) Equal
g) Negligible
70) If the particle not deflected it will miss the target by some distance is called: b
a) Differential cross section
b) Impact parameter
c) Momentum
d) Nota
71) 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃′ a
If in the Equation 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃 = 𝑚1 if 𝑚2 ≫ 𝑚1then
+𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃′
𝑚2
a) 𝜃 = 𝜃′
𝜃′
b) 𝜃 = 2
c) 𝜃 = 0
𝜃
d) =𝜃
2
72) The relation between cross section in Centre of Mass System and Laboratory b
System is if 𝑚2 ≫ 𝑚1as𝜃 = 𝜃′ are scattering angle in Centre of Mass and
Laboratory Frame respectively.
1
e) 𝜎(𝜃′) =
2𝜎(𝜃′)
f) 𝜎(𝜃′) = 𝜎(𝜃)
g) 𝜎(𝜃) = 2𝜎(𝜃 ′ )
h) None of the Above
73) The relation between Impact Parameter and 𝜎(𝜃) is a
𝑠 𝑑𝑠
e) 𝜎(𝜃) = 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 | 𝑑𝜃 |
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 𝑑𝑠
f) 𝜎(𝜃) = | 𝑑𝜃 |
𝑠
𝑠 𝑑𝜃
g) 𝜎(𝜃) = 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 | 𝑑𝑠 |
𝑑𝑠
h) 𝜎(𝜃) = |𝑠 ∙ 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 𝑑𝜃 |
74) Rocket is based on Principal of …… a

e) Linear Momentum
f) Angular Momentum
g) Energy
h) All of above
75) For conservative system, when a potential energy V is not a function of velocities b
the Hamiltonian H is ……
e) Total mass of system
f) Total energy of System
g) Total Co-ordinate of System
76) The dual transformation is referred as ……. a
e) 𝐹(𝑢1 , 𝑢2, … 𝑢𝑛 ) = 𝑢𝑖 𝑣𝑖 − 𝐺(𝑣1 , 𝑣2, … 𝑣𝑛 )
f) 𝐹(𝑢1 , 𝑢2, … 𝑢𝑛 ) = 𝑢𝑖 𝑣𝑖 + 𝐺(𝑣1 , 𝑣2, … 𝑣𝑛 )
𝑢𝑣
g) 𝐹(𝑢1 , 𝑢2, … 𝑢𝑛 ) = 𝐺(𝑣 ,𝑣𝑖 𝑖…𝑣 )
1 2, 𝑛
77) Hamiltonian function is given by, as 𝑞 and 𝑝 are generalised coordinate and a
momentum respectively
e) 𝐻 = 𝐻(𝑞, 𝑝, 𝑡)
f) 𝐻 = 𝐻(𝑞̇ , 𝑝, 𝑡)
g) 𝐻 = 𝐻(𝑞, 𝑝, 𝑡)
h) 𝐻 = 𝐻(𝑝)
𝜕𝐿
e) 𝑝𝑘 = 𝜕𝑞 ̇
𝑘
f) 𝑝𝑘 = 𝜕𝐿 ∙ 𝜕𝑞̇ 𝑘
g) 𝑝𝑘 = 𝜕𝑞̇ 𝑘
79) If a system is homogeneous in space it follows: b
a) Conservation of mass
b) Conservation of linear momentum
c) Conservation of angular momentum
d) Conservation of energy
80) Hamiltonian equation of motion are set of 2𝑛 , then what is order of differential a
equation of motion?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Half
81) Hamiltonian equation of motion is….. b
−𝜕𝐻 𝜕𝐻
e) 𝑝̇𝑘 = ; 𝑝𝑘 = 𝜕𝑞
𝜕𝑞𝑘 𝑘
−𝜕𝐻 𝜕𝐻
f) 𝑝̇𝑘 = ; 𝑞̇ 𝑘 = 𝜕𝑞
𝜕𝑞𝑘 𝑘
−𝜕𝐻 𝜕𝐻
g) 𝑞𝑘 = ; 𝑝𝑘 = 𝜕𝑞
𝜕𝑞𝑘 𝑘
−𝜕𝐻 𝜕𝐻
h) 𝑝𝑘 = ; 𝑞𝑘 =
𝜕𝑞𝑘 𝜕𝑝𝑘
82) Hamiltonian is defined as: b

a) H = ∑𝐾 𝑝𝑘 𝑞𝑘̇ + L
b) H = ∑𝐾 𝑝𝑘 𝑞𝑘̇ – L
c) H = ∑𝐾 𝑝𝑘 𝑞𝑘̇
d) Nota
83) If the Lagrangian does not involve time explicitly, then Hamiltonian H is _____of b
motion
a) Arbitrary
b) Constant
c) Parabolic
d) Elliptical
84) The Hamiltonian is given by relation….. a
e) H=T+V
f) H=T-V
g) H=2T+V
h) H=V-T
85) The Lagrangian is defined as a
e) L=T-V
f) L=T+V
g) L=2T+V
h) L=2T-V
86) If co-ordinate does not appear in Lagrangian, then it is called a
a) Cyclic
b) Non-Cyclic
c) Free
d) Holonomic
87) Hamilton equation of motion for simple pendulum, as 𝜃 small is b
𝑔
e) 𝜃̇ + 𝜃=0
𝑙
𝑔
f) 𝜃̈ + 𝜃=0
𝑙
𝑔
g) 𝜃̈ + 𝑙 𝜃̇ = 0
𝑔
h) 𝜃̇ + 𝑙 𝜃̈ = 0
88) Generalized coordinates are …… b

a) dependent
b) independent
c) spherical
d) definitely not the cartesian co-ordinate
89) The shortest distance between two points in a plane is b
a) an arc of circle
b) a straight line
c) an Arc of ellipse
d) arbitrary curve
90) The shortest distances between two points on the surface of a spere is: b
e) An arc of arbitrary circle
f) An arc of great circle
g) Straight line
h) An arc of arbitrary curve
91) The Hamiltonian is a function of b

a) Generalised coordinate and generalised velocities
b) Generalised coordinate and generalised momenta
c) Generalised momenta and generalised velocities
d) constant
92) Phase space is the ….. c

e) momentum space
f) configuration space
g) superposition of position and Momentum space
h) 4-dimensional Minkowski space
93) In 𝛿-variation ……. a
e) time (t) is fixed at end point only
f) time (t) is fixed at all position of path
g) time (t) varies at all position of part including end points
h) time (t) is varies at end points only
94) Configuration space the …. c

e) Phase space
f) Momentum space
g) position space
h) none of the above
95) The principle of least action is….. b
e) 𝛿 ∫ 𝐿𝑑𝑡 = 0
f) 𝛿 ∫ 𝑝𝑘 𝑞𝑘̇ 𝑑𝑡 = 0
g) 𝛿 ∫ 𝐻𝑑𝑡 = 0
h) 𝛿 ∫ 𝑞𝑘 𝑝𝑘̇ 𝑑𝑡 = 0
96) The modified Hamilton principle is: c
𝑡
a) 𝛿 ∫𝑡 2 𝐿 dt =0
1
𝑡
𝑏) 𝛿 ∫𝑡 2 𝐻 dt =0
1
𝑡
c) 𝛿 ∫𝑡 2 (∑𝑘 𝑝𝑘 𝑞̇ 𝑘 − 𝐿)𝑑𝑡 dt =0
1
d) Nota
97) Fermat principle of least action is……. a

2 𝑑𝑠
e) 𝛿 ∫1 =0
𝑣
2 𝑑𝑠
f) 𝛿 ∫1 𝑎 = 0
2 𝑣
g) 𝛿 ∫1 𝑑𝑠 = 0
2
h) 𝛿 ∫1 𝑣𝑑𝑠 = 0
98) If the particle is moving in in consecutive potential field 𝑉(𝑟), the relativistic c
Lagrangian of particle given by………
𝑣2
e) 𝐿 = −𝑀𝑜 𝑣 2 √1 − 𝑐 2 − 𝑉(𝑟)
𝑣2
f) 𝐿 = 𝑀𝑜 𝑐 2 √1 − 𝑐 2 − 𝑉(𝑟)
𝑣2
g) 𝐿 = −𝑀𝑜 𝑐 2 √1 − 𝑐 2 − 𝑉(𝑟)
99) The reduced mass of two particle of masses m1 and m2 is : c
a) m1 - m2
𝑚 −𝑚
b) 1 2 2
𝑚1 𝑚2
c) 𝑚1 +𝑚2
d) √𝑚1 𝑚2
100) Hamilton Jacobi equation is: c
𝑑𝑠
a) +H(q Q,t) = 0
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑠
b) +S(q Q,t) = 0
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑠 𝑑𝑆
c) +H(q ,𝑑𝑞 , 𝑡 ) = 0
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑠 𝑑𝐻
d) +S(q , 𝑑𝑞 , 𝑡 ) = 0
𝑑𝑡
101) In terms of Lagrangian L ,Hamilton principal function S is given by : c

a) S =∫ 𝐿𝑑𝑞
b) S =∫ 𝐿𝑑𝑝
c) S =∫ 𝐿𝑑𝑡
d) S =∫ 𝐻𝑑𝑞 𝑑𝑝
102) Hamilton characteristic function the function of ( where α=Pk =new momenta): b
a) S (qk ,Qk ,t)
b) S (qk ,αk ,t)
c) (2n +1) independent variable
d) Only n independent variable
e)
103) Maupertuis principle of least action is….. d
2 𝑑𝑠
e) 𝛿 ∫1 =0
𝑣
2 𝑑𝑠
f) 𝛿 ∫1 𝑣 = 0
2 𝑣
g) 𝛿 ∫1 𝑑𝑠 = 0
2
h) 𝛿 ∫1 𝑣𝑑𝑠 = 0
104) Hamiltonian of a simple pendulum is: b

𝑝2
e) H=2𝑚𝑙𝜃 2 -mgl (1-cosθ)
𝑝2
f) H=2𝑚𝑙𝜃 2 +mgl (1-cosθ)
2
𝑝𝜃
g) H= -mgl
2𝑚𝑙2
h) Nota
105) If u,v,w are three function , then value of poisson bracket [u ,v w] is d
a) uv+vw+wu
b) u[v,w]+v[u,w]
c) [u,w]+[v,w]
d) u[v,w] +[u,w]v
106) Under Canonical transformation the fundamental poisson bracket are: d
a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) Invariant
107) The condition of canonical transformation is …. a
a) PdQ- pdq is an exact differential
b) PQ=pq
c) P = p ; Q = q
d) PQ - pq = PQ + pq
108) The relation between angular momentum and Poisson bracket is (where.is dot a
product) :
a) [𝐹̅ ,𝐿̅ .𝑛̂] = 𝑛̂ × 𝐹̅
b) [𝐹̅ ,𝐿̅ .𝑛̂] = 𝑛̂ + 𝐹̅
c) [𝐹̅ ,𝐿̅ .𝑛̂] = 𝑛̂
d) Nota
109) Poisson bracket [𝑞𝑖 ,H] is equal to c
e) 0
f) 1
g) 𝑞𝑖̇
h) Nota
110) Poisson bracket [𝑝𝑖 ,H] is equal to d
a) 0
b) 1
c) 𝑞𝑖̇
d) 𝑝𝑖̇
111) Possion bracket of two function u,v with respect to canonical variable (q,p) is…. a
𝑑𝑢 𝑑𝑣 𝑑𝑢 𝑑𝑣
a) [u,v]q ,p = −
𝑑𝑞 𝑑𝑝 𝑑𝑝 𝑑𝑞
𝑑𝑢 𝑑𝑣 𝑑𝑢 𝑑𝑣
b) [u,v]q ,p = +
𝑑𝑞 𝑑𝑝 𝑑𝑝 𝑑𝑞
𝑑𝑢 𝑑𝑣
c) [u,v]q ,p = − 𝑑𝑝 𝑑𝑞
𝑑𝑢 𝑑𝑣
d) [u,v]q ,p = 𝑑𝑞 𝑑𝑝
112) The Gauge transformation is a
𝑑𝐹(𝑞 , 𝑡 )
e) L’ = L + 𝑑𝑡
’ 𝑑𝐹(𝑞 , 𝑡 )
f) L = L + 𝑑𝑡
’ 𝑑𝐿(𝑞 , 𝑡 )
g) L = L + 𝑑𝑡
h) L’ = L
113) Poisson bracket of u withit self is …. d

a) Zero
b) 1
c) -1
d) invariant
114) If a function u does not depend explicity on time ,then it is constant of motion if a
a) [ H, u] =0
b) [ H, u] =1
c) [ H, u] = -1
d) Nota
115) The frequency of small oscillation of simple pendulum (mass m2) when support of d
mass m1 move horizontally is:
1 𝑔
e) √
2𝛱 𝑙
1 𝑔𝑚
f)
2𝛱
√ 𝑙 𝑚1
1 𝑔(𝑚1 +𝑚2 )
g)
2𝛱
√ 𝑙 𝑚2
1 𝑔(𝑚1 +𝑚2 )
h)
2𝛱
√ 𝑙 𝑚1
116) The equilibrium in which is small oscillation of the system from the position of a
the equilibrium cause it in a small bound motion about the position of the rest is
called as:
e) stable
f) unstable
g) isotropic
h) holonomic
117) Normal co-ordinate are referred as in the generalized co-ordinates each one of b
them having frequency as:
e) double
f) single
g) triple
h) none of above
118) An example of stable equilibrium is a
e) A hanging spring mass system in the stationary position.
f) An egg standing on one end .
g) A book placed flat any where on a table.
h) None of above
119) In case of double pendulum, if the masses as well as thread length are equal c
(m1=m2=m , l1=l2 = l ) then
e) Two normal mode frequencies are equal to that of a pendulum of length 2l
and mass m.
f) Two normal mode frequencies are equal to that of single pendulum of length
1 and mass m .
g) Two normal mode frequencies are different.
h) Nota
120) The equation of motion in Poisson bracket form is: a
𝑑𝑢 𝑑𝑢
a) = [ 𝑢, 𝐻] + 𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑢 𝑑𝐻
b) = [ 𝑢, 𝐻] +
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑢 𝑑𝑢
c) = [ 𝑢 , 𝐻 + 𝑑𝑡 ]
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑢 𝑑𝑢
d) = [ 𝐻 , 𝑢 + 𝑑𝑡 ]
𝑑𝑡
**********
QUESTION BANK ANS Unit
PHY 103: Solid State Physics
Unit 1-Band theory of Solids

1 The shape of E-K diagram of the conduction band and valance band is ----- C 1
(A) horizontal (B) parabolic (C) vertical (D) none of the above
2 The conductivity of metals depend upon? B 1
A) The nature of the material B) Number of free electrons

C) Resistance of the metal d) Number of electrons
3 Fermi energy level for n-type extrinsic semiconductors lies B 1
(A) At middle of the band gap (B) Close to conduction band

(C) Close to valence band (D) None
4 What is the level that acts as a reference which separated the vacant and filled states D 1
at 00K?
A) Excited level B) Ground level C) Valance orbit D) Fermi energy level

5 Which of the three semiconductors, Ge, Si, and GaAs, has a direct bandgap? C 1
A) Ge B) Si C) GaAs D) Ge and Si
6 Which of the following is a function of temperature? D 1
(A) Fermi level (B) Density of states (C) No of free electrons (D) both B and C.
7 What is a Brillouin zone? D 1
(A) A region of energy-space that encompasses all of the unique values of energy
(B) A region of position-space that the electron is allowed to reside within
(C) Another name for the unit cell of the crystal
(D) A region of k-space that contains all of the unique solutions of the wave equation
8 The Density of States gives A 1
(A)the number of unoccupied energy states in given interval of energy

(B) the number of energy levels in given interval of energy
(C) the number of occupied energy states in given interval of energy
(D)none of these
9 What is the name of this classic, model problem for band structure? D 1
A) The WKB Approximation B) Fermi’s Golden Rule

C) The Debye model D) The Kronig-Penney Model
1 Dr. Mrs. Pritee M. Raotole, MGSM’s ASC, College, Chopda

10 The eﬀective mass of the electron is given by B 1
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
11 In a direct band gap semiconductor D 1
(A) The two points of intersection of a vertical line with the E-K curve of both valance
band and conduction band are having the same wave vector.
(B) The K value of the lowest point of the conduction band is equal to the K value of
highest point of valance band.
(C) The transitions of electrons take place directly. (D) All of These
12 Bloch theorem is mathematically represented as: A 1
a) ψ ( x) = u( x)eikx , where u( x) is the periodic, crystal potential: u( x + a) = u( x)

b) ψ ( x) = u( x)e ik( x+a) c) ψ ( x + a) = u( x)eikx
d) ψ ( x + a) = u( x + a)eika
13 The symbol K in Fermi energy represents C 1
(A) Maxwell-Boltzmann constant (B) Boltzmann constant

(C) Wave vector (D) None of the above
14 When a pure semiconductor is heated, it’s resistance_______ A 1
(A)Goes down (B)Goes up (C)Remains the same (D)None of the above
15 The probability that an electron state is occupied is given by the Fermi function. The D 1
number of phonons in a particular state is given by the Bose-Einstein distribution,
which is:
(B)
(A)
(C)
(D)
2
16 Typical thickness of Bloch walls ______ (nm). D 1
(A) 0.1-1 (B) 1-10 (C) 10-50 (D) 100

17 The --------Brillouin zone is extended between −π/(2a) and +π/(2a) since the unit cell B 1
is 2a.
(A)Second (B)first (C) both A and B (D)none of these
18 The position of Fermi level in intrinsic semiconductor C 1
(A) Close to the conduction band (B) Close to the valence band
(C) in the middle of the band gap (D) in the conduction band
19 Which of the following expressions represent the Fermi probability function? B 1
A) fF(E)=exp(-[E-EF]/KT) B) fF(E)=exp(-[EF-E]/KT)
C) fF(E)=exp([E-EF]/KT) D) fF(E)=exp(-[EF-E]/KT)
20 In an indirect bandgap semiconductor, a transition between conduction band and A 1
valance band results in
(A) heat (B) light (c) both (D) none of the above.
21 Which of the following is an indirect bandgap semiconductor? D 1
(A) silica (B) germanium (C) carbon (D) all the above.
22 An electronic band is C 1
(A) Any range of energy levels

(B) Energy levels where free electrons exist
(C) A range of energy level is characterized by the existence of electrons.
(D) All the above.
23 In semiconductor at room temperature D 1
(A)valance band is completely filled and conduction band is partially filled

(B) valance band is completely filled
(C) conduction band is completely filled
(D) valance band is partially empty and conduction band is partially filled
24 With an increase in temperature the electrical conductivity of an intrinsic B 1

semiconductor
(A) Decreases (B). Increases

(C). Remains same (D). First increases then decrease

25 The curvature of ------------------ determines the effective mass of electron C 1
(A)energy verses concentration (B)energy verses Mass

(C)energy verses momentum (D)energy verses structural design
Unit 2- Defects in solids
26 How can the number of defects be determined? A 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)

27 Vacancy defects in solids is a sub type of __________ A 2
(A) Point imperfections (B) Line imperfections

(C) Volume imperfections (D) Surface imperfections
28 Displacement of an ion from regular location to interstitial location is known as D 2
(A) Vacancy defect (B) Line imperfection (C) Schottky’s defect (D) Frenkel defect
29 When a pair of cation and anion are missing in a crystal, it is called ____________ C 2
(A) Vacancy defect (B) Line imperfection (C) Schottky’s defect (D) Frenkel defect
30 The appearance of colour in Solid alkali metal halide is generally due to A 2
A) f-centre (B) interstitial defect (C) Schottky’s defect (D) Frenkel defect
31 The correct statement regarding the defects in solid are C 2
(A) schottky’s defect have no effect on density of crystalline solids

(B) frenkel defect decreases the density of solids
(C) frenkel defect is dislocation defect
(D) frenkel defect found in alkali halide metals
32 As the grain size of a meal increases, its ductility ________ A 2
(A) Decreases (B) Increases

(C) Remains constant (D) No effect of grain size on ductility
33 Which of these is a Frenkel defect? A 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4
34 ______ occurs when a foreign substance replaces an atom in a crystal. B 2
(A) Vacancy defect (B) Substitutional impurity

(C) Frankel defect (D) Interstitial impurity
35 A disturbance in a region between two ideal parts of a crystal is known as ________ C 2
(A) Boundary defect (B) Point defect (C) Line defect (D) Volume defect
36 Following is not the 2-dimensional imperfection B 2
(A) Twin boundary (B) Dislocation (C) Surface (D) Grain boundary
37 Conservative movement of dislocations A 2
(A) Slip (B) Climb (C) Both slip and climb (D) None
38 Thermodynamically stable defects A 2
(A) Point defects (B) Line defects (C) Surface defects (D) Volume defects
39 In crystal lattice are arranged in C 2
(A)two dimension (B)four dimension

(C)three dimension (D)one dimension
40 Burger’s vector changes with D 2
(A) Kind of dislocation (B) Length of dislocation (C) Both kind and length of dislocation
(D) None
41 What kind of order is present in a solid for it to be a perfectly crystalline solid? D 2
(A) Long range order (B) Short range order

(C) No order (D) Both, short range and long range order
42 As the grain size of material increases, its strength A 2
(A) Decreases (B)Increases

(C)Remains constant (D)No effect of grain size on strength
43 The defect that bounded by two mirror planes called as ------------ A 2
(A)twin (B)stacking fault (C)Grain boundary (D)Edge dislocation

Unit 3- Lattice vibrations and phonons
44 In one dimensional lattice the maximum frequency is B 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)

45 What is a plot of ħω (q) vs. q for lattice vibrations called? D 3
a) The Einstein approximation. b) The Debye approximation.

c) The gray approximation. d) The phonon dispersion.
46 The group velocity is given by Vg given by C 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)none of these
47 C 3
The dispersion curves of diatomic lattice shows
(A)acoustic branch (B) optical branch (C)Both A & B (D)none of these

48 The quantum of vibration is called a A 3
(A)phonon (B)photon (C)boson (D)fermion

49 There is a --------- at the Brillouin zone boundaries extended between acoustic and D 3
optical branches
(A)Conduction band (B) valance band (C)Space (D) forbidden frequency gap
50 De-Broglie’s wavelength is applicable to A 3
(A) electrons (B) photons (C) matter waves (D) All the above
51 The probability of photon emission has energy ------------- which is C 3
(A)greater than (B)less than (C)equal to (D)does not depend on

52 Phonons (Quanta of lattice vibration) obey D 3
(A)Maxwel distribution. (B) Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution.

(C) Fermi-Dirac distribution. (D) Bose-Einstein distribution
53 Forbidden gap in diatomic lattice at m=M is equal to B 3
(A)1 (B)0 (C)∞ (D) none of these
6
54 A 3
This is --------- relation for diatomic lattice
(A)Dispersion (B) Diffusion (C)diffraction (D) all of these

Unit 4 Theory of Dielectrics, Piezoelectricity and Ferroelectrics
55 Piezoelectric effect is when materials produce electric charges when ____________ B 4
(A) Voltage is applied (B) Mechanical Stress is applied

(C) Electric field is applied (D) Magnetic field is applied
56 Dielectrics which show spontaneous polarization are called as __________ C 4
(A) Pyroelectric (B) Piezoelectric (C) Ferroelectric (D) Centrosymmetric

57 The piezoelectric materials used for converting energy are called as ___________ D 4
(A) Transition Devices (B) Converter (C) Dielectric (D) Transducer

58 The temperature of spontaneous polarization disappears called as ferroelectrics A 4
(A) Curie temperature (B) absolute temperature

(C) Rankin temperature (D) none of these
59 The dielectric constant of a ferroelectric material changes with _______ B 4
(A) Frequency (B) Temperature

(C) Atmospheric Pressure (D) Wavelength
60 Which part of the curve shows Spontaneous Polarization? A 4
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

61 Ferroelectric possesses B 4
(A) atomic polarization (B) remnant polarization

(C) ionic polarization (D) permanent polarization
62 What are the two types of dielectrics? B 4
(A) Ferroelectric and Piezoelectric (B) Polar and Non-polar

(C) Active and Non-active (D) Stable and Non-stable

63 shows A 4
(A)Lorentz force (B)Magnetic force (C) Electrostatic force (D)downward force

64 The polarization left when the field is reduced to zero is called _______ A 4
(A) Residual Polarization (B) Spontaneous Polarization

(C) Permanent Polarization (D) Dipolar Polarization
65 Piezoelectric material serves as source of C 4
(A) micro waves (B) musical waves (C)ultrasonic waves (D) resonant waves
66 Example for piezo-electric material B 4
(A) Rochelle salt (B) Lead zirconate (C) Potassium niobate (D) Barium Titanium oxide
67 What is the relation between εr and χ? B 4
(A) εr = χ (B) εr = 1 + χ (C) εr = 1 – χ (D) εr = χ – 1

68 High dielectric constant material is must for __________. A 4
(A) Insulation of wires (B) Generators (C) Switch bases (D) Generators.
69 The most common mode of breakdown in ceramic insulators is _____________ B 4
(A) Defect Breakdown (B) Thermal Breakdown

(C) Intrinsic Breakdown (D) Electrochemical Breakdown
70 The polarization left when field is reduced to zero is called as A 4
(A)Residual polarization (B)spontaneous polarization

(C)permanent polarization (D)Dipolar polarization
71 Polarization in Ferroelectric materials is ___________ D 4
(A) Permanent (B) Spiked (C) Linear (D) Reversible

72 What happens in Ferroelectric material when T < Tc? B 4
(A) Non-polarized (B) Spontaneously polarized

(C) Becomes Para-electric (D) Hysteresis loss
Unit 5 - Magnetism
73 Which are ferromagnetic materials? D 5
(A) cobalt (B) Iron (C) Nickel (D) All of these
8
74 The materials having very small susceptibility at all temperatures are A 5
(A) Antiferromagnetic (B) Diamagnetic (C) Ferromagnetic (D) Paramagnetic

75 Which of the following materials is ferrimagnetic? C 5
(A) Fe (B) Sn (C) Fe2O3 (D) FeCl

76 Very small and positive susceptibility is found in C 5
(A) Ferromagnetic (B) Diamagnetic (C) Paramagnetic (D) Antiferromagnetic

77 Domain structure and spontaneous magnetization shown by C 5
(A)dielectric material (B) paramagnetic material

(C) ferromagnetic material (D) all of these
78 The line integral of the magnetic field intensity is the B 5
(A) Current density (B) Current (C) Magnetic flux density (D) Magnetic moment
79 Ferrimagnetic material exhibit spontaneous magnetization below------------- C 5
temperature
(A)critical temperature (B)curie temperature

(C)Neel temperature (D)all of these
80 in this equation is B 5
(A)curie constant (B)Weiss constant (C)critical constant (D)all of these

81 Typically, materials demonstrate ferroelectricity only ------------ a certain phase C 5
transition temperature, called the critical temperature (TC)
(A) above (B) equal to (C) below (D) none of these

82 Hysteresis is plot of D 5
(A)B vs H (B) M vs H (C)H vs M (D)both A and B

83 The resistance in a magnetic material is called as C 5
(A) Capacitance (B) Inductance (C) Reluctance ( D) Magnetic resistance

84 Typical size of magnetic domains ______ (mm). C 5
(A) 1-10 (B) 0.1-1 (C) 0.05 (D) 0.001

85 A 5
is called
(A)Curie Weiss Law (B) Weiss Law (C) Curie Law (D)none of these

86 Basic source of magnetism ______________. B 5
(A) Charged particles alone (B) Movement of charged particles

(C) Magnetic dipoles (D) Magnetic domains
87 Super conductivity is exhibited by C 5
(A) hydrogen at 4.2 K (B) mercury at 4.0 K (C) mercury at 4.2 K (D) potassium at 4.2 K
88 C 5
is known as
(A)Curie Weiss Law (B) Weiss Law (C) Curie Law (D)none of these
89 Magnetic field strength’s units are C 5
(A) Wb / m2 (B) Wb / A.m (C) A / m (D) Tesla / m

90 Example for anti-ferro-magnetic materials A 5
(A) salts of transition elements (B) rare earth elements
(C) transition metals (D) Ferrites
91 -------- substances has dipoles with equal magnitude, but ordered in antiparallel C 5
arrangement
(A) paramagnetic (B) diamagnetic (C) antiferromagnetic (D) ferrimagnetic
92 Example for dia-magnetic materials A 5
(A) super conductors (B) alkali metals (C) transition metals (D) Ferrites
93 Units for magnetic flux density A 5
(A) Wb / m2 (B) Wb / A.m (C) A / m (D) Tesla / m

94 Example for ferri-magnetic materials D 5
(A) salts of transition elements (B) rare earth elements (C) transition metals (D) Ferrites
95 In which type of material the magnetic susceptibility does not depend upon the C 5
temperature?
(A) Paramagnetic (B) Ferromagnetic

(C) Diamagnetic (D) Super conductors
96 A material is placed in a magnetic field. If it is thrown out of the field then the C 5
material is_________
(A) Paramagnetic (B) Ferromagnetic (C) Diamagnetic (D) Non-magnetic

97 On strong heating, a ferromagnetic substance becomes_________ A 5
(A) paramagnetic (B) diamagnetic

(C) strongly ferromagnetic (D) non magnetic
10
98 Domain formation is the necessary feature of________ B 5
(A) Diamagnetism (B) Ferromagnetism

(C) Paramagnetism (D) Non magnetic substances
99 In order to consider the magnetic properties of materials, we consider_______ C 5
(A) only the orbital motion of the electrons

(B) only the spin motion of the electrons
(C) orbital and spin motions of the electrons
(D) orbital motion of the protons and neutrons
Unit-6 Superconductivity
100 The binding energy for a cooper pair is B 6
(A)10^-2 Ev (B)10^-4 Ev (c)10^-6 eV (D)10^-8 eV

101 The temperature at which conductivity of a material becomes infinite is called A 6
(A)Critical temperature (B)Absolute temperature

(C)Mean temperature (D)Crystallization temperature
102 In superconductors, the Fermi energy level is --------- B 6
(A)Below the ground state (B)Midway between the ground state and first excited state
(C)Above first excited state (D)At first excited state
103 The critical magnetic field (Hc) at temperature T0 K is..... C 6
(A) H0 [1-(Tc/T)2]
(B) H0 [ 1-(T/Tc) ]
(C) H0 [ 1-(T/Tc)2]
(d) H0 [ (T/Tc)2 -1]
104 The superconducting state is perfectly _____ in nature. A 6
(A)Diamagnetic (B)Paramagnetic (C)Ferromagnetic (D)Ferromagnetic
105 Which of the following are the properties of superconductors? D 6
(A)They are diamagnetic in nature (B)They have zero resistivity

(C)They have infinite conductivity (D)All of the above

106 The minimum amount of current passed through the body of superconductor in B 6
order to destroy the superconductivity is called
(A)Induced current (B)Critical current

(C)Eddy current (D)Hall current
107 Below transition temperature, the London penetration depth. A 6
(A) Almost constant

(B) Increases exponentially
(C) Decreases exponentially
(D) None
108 The phenomena of super conductors was first discovered by ___________ A 6
(A) Kammerlingh Onnes (B) Neils bohr (C) Richard Smalley ( D) Otto lehman
109 The ideal super conductors exhibit __________ A 6
(A) Meissner effect (B) Mesmeric effect (C) Mesomeric effect (D) Monomeric effect
110 The hard super conductors are those in which the ideal behaviour is seen up to a B 6
________ critical magnetic field.
(A) Higher (B) Lower (C) Moderate (D) Zero

111 The first successful theory on superconductivity was due to D 6
(A) Schrieffer (B) Onnes (C) Ampere and Schrieffer (D) Bardeen Cooper and Schrieffer
112 When the insulating layer is sandwiched between two metals it act as potential A 6
barrier to flow of conduction of electron this effect is known as
(A)Josephson effect (B)Thomson effect (C)cooper effect (D) none of these

113 In superconductor---------- is two electrons that are bound together at low C 6
temperatures
(A)electron pair (B) magnetic pair (C) cooper pair (D)none of these
114 --------- characterizes the distance to which a magnetic field penetrates into a B 6
superconductor and becomes equal to e−1 times that of the magnetic field at the
surface of the superconductor
(A) cooper pair (B)London penetration depth (C) coherence length (D)none of these
115 Super conductors are discovered in the year _______ C 6
(A) 1900 (B) 1991 (C) 1911 (D) 1905
12
116 Annealing the homogeneous mixture to room temperature to retain its __________ D 6
(A) Composition (B) Structure (C) Its properties

d) Composition, structure and its properties
117 The normal metal passes into super conducting state at ___________ C 6
(A) High temperature (B) Low temperature

(C) Critical temperature (D) No temperature
118 Meissner effect is shown by the equation B 6
(A) B=0 at T>Tc

(B) B=0 at T≤Tc
(C) B≠0 at T≥Tc
(D) B=0 at T=Tc
119 The cooper pair is D 6
(A) two electrons moving in the same direction

(B) two electrons with re ultant spin-zero
(C) two electrons connected like a boson
( ) two electrons connected through a phonon
120 If the material is transformed into a superconducting state from a normal state, its A 6
entropy
(A) decreases
(B) increases
(C) remains same
(D) shows abrupt change
121 The temperature at which the conductivity of material becomes infinite is called..... A 6
(A) Critical temperature

(B) Absolute temperature
(C) Mean temperature
(D) Crystallization temperature

122 The relation between transition temperature (Tc) and isotopic mass (M) is..... B 6
1/2
(A) Tc ∝ M
(B) Tc ∝ M-1/2
(C) Tc ∝ M-1
(D) Tc ∝ M
123 The critical magnetic field is that at which B 6
(A) A material behaves like a normal conductor for the last time
(B) A m terial maintains its superconductivity for the last time
(C A material has its mixed normal-superconducting state
(D) A material transforms from a superconducting state to an Insulating state
124 The critical temperature is that temperature where A 6
(a) the resistivity of a superconducting metal drops to zero

(b) the current flowing through a superconductor is minimum
(c) the magnetic field inside a superconductor becomes constant
(d) none of these
125 The current in a superconductor produces------- B 6
(A)zero, voltage drop across it (B) Large voltage drop

(C)Small voltage drop (D) Strong electric field
14
Q.No. Multiple Choice Question Ans
1) An input signal varying cyclically with time or repeating itself after a constant B
interval of time is called as _____________
A) Random signal B) Periodic signal C) Transiant signal D) Aperiodic
signal
2) Repulsion type moving Iron Instrument have ______________ A
A) Two vanes B) Three vanes C) Four vanes D) Five vanes
3) A circuit that can accept two input signals and amplify the difference between D
these two input signals is called a ______________________
A) Differential amplifier B) Difference amplifier C) Balance amplifier
D) All of these
4) In amplitude modulation, carrier amplitude is __________________ B
A) Constant B) Changed C) Zero D) None of the above
5) In power amplifiers, the most commonly used class of push pull amplifiers is D
___________
A) Class C B) ) Class AB C) ) Class A D) Class B
6) For acidic solution the pH value lies between___________________ A
A) 0 to 7 B) 7 to 14 C) 14 to 21 D) -7 to 0
7) Which Instrument is cheapest disregarding the accuracy? B
A) PMMC B) Moving Iron C) Electro dynamo meter D) Rectifier
8) Dual beam CRO has _____________________ A
A) Two sets of vertical deflection plates
B) Two sets of horizontal deflection plates
C) One set of vertical deflection plates
D) One set of horizontal deflection plates
9) Chemical purity of gas is measured by __________________________ C
A) Hygrometer B) Thermometer C) Gas Analyser D) None of the
above
1 P.T.O.
10) The function of intensity control knob of CRO is to _____________ A
A) Control brightness of display B) Control sharpness of display
C) Both of the above D) None of the above
11) The filters that are designed by using the components like resistor, capacitors, B
inductors etc are called as __________________
A) Active filters B) Passive filters C) Selective filters D) None of these
12) Lead lag network is used for the generation of ____________________ D
A) Square wave B) Sawtooth wave C) Triangular wave D) Sine wave
13) Digital meter is superior than analog meter because _____________ D
A) Easily readable B) Greater accuracy C) Better resolution D) All of the
above
14) Ionization chamber is used to detect and measure _______________________ A
A) Alpha particles B) Beta particles C) Gamma rays D) All of the above
15) In Sample holds circuit the time delay is ________________ D
A) 2 T B) 4 T C) 6 T D) None of the above
16) The signal used for modifying the characteristics of the carrier signal is known as C
________________
A) Modulated signal B) Modifying signal C) Modulating signal D) Carrier
signal
17) The function of horizontal position knob on the front panel of CRO is A
__________
A) To move the display in horizontal direction
B) To move the display up and down
C) Control sharpness
D) None of the above
18) The signal to be observed on the screen of the CRO is applied B
________________
A) Across X plates B) Across Y plates C) To the horizontal amplifier
D) To the trigger circuit
2
19) In operational amplifier, any frequency signal from zero to infinity can be B
amplified without attenuation due to it’s ____________________
A) Intermediate bandwidth B) infinite bandwidth C) zero bandwidth
D) None of these
20) Humidity is measure of water vapour in a _________________ B
A) Solid B) Gas C) Liquid D) None of the above
21) Pulse modulation is used for transmission of _______________________ C
A) Digital data B) Analog data C) Both Digital and Analog data
22) For fibre optical sensors ______________________________________ A
A) Single mode transmission is used B) Multimode transmission is used
C) Both single and multimode transmissions are used D) None of the above
23) Time division multiplexing requires ________________ B
A) Constant data transmission B) Transmission of data samples
C) Transmission of data at random D) None of the above
24) Square wave generator is also called as __________________ A
A) Astable multivibrator B) Monostable multivibrator
C) Bistable multivibrator D) None of the above
25) Geiger tube are frequently used for detection and measurement of D
_____________
A) Alpha rays B) Beta rays C) Gamma rays D) All of the above
26) Frequency selective wave analyser is used for measurements in the ___________ A
A) Audio frequency range B) Ultra sonic frequency range
C) Infra sonic frequency range D) None of the above
27) Total internal reflection takes place when light travels from ______________ D
A) Air to glass B) Glass to air C) Rarer to denser medium
D) Denser to rarer medium
3 P.T.O.
28) The disadvantage of electro dynamo meter is ______________ B
A) Used for A.C. and D.C. measurement B) Low sensitivity
C) Free from Hysteresis D) None of the above
29) Relaxation oscillator produces _____________________ C
A) Square waveforms B) Triangular waveforms C) Sawtooth waveforms
D) None of the above waveforms
30) Hygrometer measure directly the value of ______________ C
A) Temperature B) Pressure C) Humidity D) None of the above
31) Electromagnetic flowmeters are suitable for the flow measurements of D
_________
A) Slurries B) Sludge C) Electrically conducting liquids D) All of the
above
32) The conversion of the charge variation at the input in to the voltage variation at A
the output can occur in _______________
A) Charge amplifier B) Instrumentation amplifier C) power amplifier
D) All of these
33) Which meter has highest accuracy in the prescribed limit of frequency range? C
34) The shape of Lissajous figures depends on _______________ D
A) Amplitude B) Phase difference C) Ratio of frequency D) All of the
above
35) In G.M. counter, the counting rate are stable in the Plateau region and in this C
region the GM. Counter has ____________
A) minimum efficiency B) zero efficiency C) maximum efficiency
36) An aquadag is used in CRO to collect ______________ B
A) Primary electrons B) Secondary emission
electrons
C) Both Primary and Secondary emission electrons D) None of the
above
4
37) In frequency modulation, ____________________ B
A) amplitude of carrier wave changes B) frequency of carrier wave changes
C) amplitude and frequency of carrier wave changes D) None of the above
38) In analog meters __________________________ A
A) Pointer and scale arrangement is used B) LED’s used
C) LCD’s used D) None of the above
39) The heart of CRO is _________________ C
A) Vertical Amplifier B) Horizontal Amplifier C) CRT D) None of the
above
40) Wave analyser have very important application in ______________ D
A) Electrical measurements B) Sound measurements C) Vibration
measurements
D) All of the above
41) CRO is used for measurement of __________________ D
A) Voltage B) Frequency C) Phase D) All of the above
42) A vertical amplifier for a CRO can be designed for _________________ C
A) Only a high gain B) Only a broad bandwidth
C) A constant gain times bandwidth product D) All of the above
43) The function of focus control knob on the front panel of CRO is __________ B
C) Move beam up D) Move beam down
44) The disadvantage of PMMC is ________________________ A
A) Only useful for DC measurement B) The scale is uniformly divided
C) Power consumption is very low D) None of the above
5 P.T.O.
45) In general data acquisition system, some form of scaling and offsetting is C
necessary to match the input requirements with the output of the sensor. This is
achieved by making the use of _________________________
A) Amplifier B) Attenuators C) Both amplifiers and attenuators
D) None of these
46) In phase modulation ______________________ A
A) phase of carrier wave changes B) amplitude of carrier wave
changes
C) frequency of carrier wave changes D) None of the above
47) Spectrum analyser find wide application for measurement of _______________ D
A) Attenuation B) FM Deviation C) Frequency impulse studies
D) All of the above
48) In a CRT, the focusing anode is located ____________________ A
A) Between preaccelerating and accelerating anode B) After accelerating
anode
C) before accelerating anode D) none of the above
49) Land line telemetry system consist of _____________ C
A) Transmitting terminal B) Receiving terminal
C) Transmitting and receiving terminal D) None of the above
50) In nuclear instrumentation, which are the heaviest and slow moving particles? A
A) Alpha particles B) Beta particles C) Gamma rays D) Neutrons
51) Ultrasonic flowmeters are mainly used for ________________ C
A) Solids B) Gases C) Liquids D) None of the above
52) Piezo electric crystals used in ultrasonic flow meters are _____________ A
A) Two B) Three C) Four D) Five
53) Notch filter is also called as ___________________ D
A) Twin T filter B) Narrow band reject filter C) Narrow band stop filter
D) All of these
54) Multiplexer have number of inputs and ______________ A
A) Single output B) Two output C) Three output D) Four output
6
55) RF telemetry is suitable where data transmission is suitable over D
distance________
A) 1 meter B) 2 meter C) 5 meter D) Greater than 1 km
56) In periodic signal frequency ____________________ C
A) Increases B) Decreases C) Remains constant D) None of the
above
57) One of the combination of materials used for optical fibres is _______________ C
A) Copper core and glass cladding B) Glass core and aluminium cladding
C) Glass core and plastic cladding D) Plastic core and glass cladding
58) The function of vertical position knob on the front panel of CRO A
is_____________
A) Move beam in vertical position B) Move beam left to right
C) Control brightness of display D) Control sharpness of display
59) In a graded index fibre, the total reflected light takes a _________________ B
A) Straight line path B) Parabolic path C) Elliptical path D) Circular
path
60) Dual trace CRO has ________________ B
A) Two Electron beams B) One Electron beam C) Three Electron beam
D) Four Electron beam
61) The function of intensity control knob of CRO is to _____________ A
62) The biopotentials generated by the muscles of the heart result in the __________ A
A) ECG B) EMG C) EEG D) ERG
63) One of the combination of materials used for optical fibres is _______________ C
A) Copper core and glass cladding B) Glass core and aluminium cladding
C) Glass core and plastic cladding D) Plastic core and glass cladding
7 P.T.O.
64) Ultrasonic flowmeters are mainly used for ________________ C
A) Solids B) Gases C) Liquids D) None of the above
65) For alkaline solution, the pH value lies between ________________ B
A) 0 to 7 B) 7 to 14 C) 14 to 21 D) -7 to 0
66) Multiplexer have number of inputs and ______________ A
A) Single output B) Two output C) Three output D) Four output
67) The action potential of the cell is ___________ A
A) Positive B) Negative C) Zero D) None of the above
68) The bioelectric potentials associated with the muscle activity constitute the D
_____
A) EOG B) ERG C) EGG D) EMG
69) Land line telemetry system consist of _____________ C
A) Transmitting terminal B) Receiving terminal
C) Transmitting and receiving terminal D) None of the above
70) The shape of Lissajous figures depends on _______________ D
A) Amplitude B) Phase difference C) Ratio of frequency D) All of the
above
71) To measure EEG, ECG and EMG potentials from the skin surface B
are__________
A) Micro electrodes B) Skin surface electrodes C) Needle electrodes
72) RF telemetry is suitable where data transmission is suitable over D
distance________
A) 1 meter B) 2 meter C) 5 meter D) Greater than 1 km
73) Wave analyser have very important application in ______________ D
A) Electrical measurements B) Sound measurements C) Vibration
measurements
D) All of the above
8
74) In nuclear instrumentation, which are the heaviest and slow moving particles? A
A) Alpha particles B) Beta particles C) Gamma rays D) Neutrons
75) Total internal reflection takes place when light travels from ______________ D
A) Air to glass B) Glass to air C) Rarer to denser medium
D) Denser to rarer medium
76) Hygrometer measure directly the value of ______________ C
A) Temperature B) Pressure C) Humidity D) None of the above
77) For fibre optical sensors ______________________________________ A
A) Single mode transmission is used B) Multimode transmission is used
C) Both single and multimode transmissions are used D) None of the above
78) For acidic solution the pH value lies between___________________ A
A) 0 to 7 B) 7 to 14 C) 14 to 21 D) -7 to 0
79) The recorded representation of bioelectric potentials generated by the neuronal C
activity of the brain is called the ____________
A) EMG B) ECG C) EEG D) EOG
80) The signal to be observed on the screen of the CRO is applied B
________________
A) Across X plates B) Across Y plates C) To the horizontal amplifier
D) To the trigger circuit
81) Pulse modulation is used for transmission of _______________________ C
A) Digital data B) Analog data C) Both Digital and Analog data
82) The function of vertical position knob on the front panel of CRO A
is_____________
A) Move beam in vertical position B) Move beam left to right
C) Control brightness of display D) Control sharpness of display
9 P.T.O.
83) In a graded index fibre the total reflected light takes a _________________ B
A) Straight line path B) Parabolic path C) Elliptical path D) Circular
path
84) Piezo electric crystals used in ultrasonic flow meters are _____________ A
A) Two B) Three C) Four D) Five
85) In Sample holds circuit the time delay is ________________ D
A) 2 T B) 4 T C) 6 T D) None of the above
86) Dual beam CRO has _____________________ A
A) Two sets of vertical deflection plates
B) Two sets of horizontal deflection plates
C) One set of vertical deflection plates
D) One set of horizontal deflection plates
87) Time division multiplexing requires ________________ B
A) Constant data transmission B) Transmission of data samples
C) Transmission of data at random D) None of the above
88) An aquadag is used in CRO to collect ______________ B
A) Primary electrons B) Secondary emission
electrons
C) Both Primary and Secondary emission electrons D) None of the
above
89) The variation corneal-retinal potential as affected by the position and the C
movement of the eye is _______
A) ERG B) EGG C) EOG D) EMG
90) Chemical purity of gas is measured by __________________________ C
A) Hygrometer B) Thermometer C) Gas Analyser D) None of the
above
91) Spectrum analyser find wide application for measurement of _______________ D
A) Attenuation B) FM Deviation C) Frequency impulse
studies D) All of the above
10
92) Geiger tube are frequently used for detection and measurement of D
_____________
A) Alpha rays B) Beta rays C) Gamma rays D) All of the above
93) Ionization chamber is used to detect and measure _______________________ A
A) Alpha particles B) Beta particles C) Gamma rays D) All of the above
94) Electromagnetic flowmeters are suitable for the flow measurements of D
_________
A) Slurries B) Sludge C) Electrically conducting liquids D) All of the
above
95) In a CRT, the focusing anode is located ____________________ A
A) Between preaccelerating and accelerating anode B) After accelerating
anode
C) before accelerating anode D) none of the above
96) Humidity is measure of water vapour in a _________________ B
A) Solid B) Gas C) Liquid D) None of the above
97) Larger electrodes have impedance _______________________ B
A) Zero B) Smaller C) Larger D) None of the above
98) Frequency selective wave analyser is used for measurements in the ___________ A
A) Audio frequency range B) Ultra sonic frequency range
C) Infra sonic frequency range D) None of the above
99) In periodic signal frequency ____________________ C
A) Increases B) Decreases C) Remains constant D) None of the
above
100) Digital meter is superior than analog meter because _____________ D
A) Easily readable B) Greater accuracy C) Better resolution D) All of the
above
101) CRO is used for measurement of __________________ D
A) Voltage B) Frequency C) Phase D) All of the above
11 P.T.O.
102) The heart of CRO is _________________ C
A) Vertical Amplifier B) Horizontal Amplifier C) CRT D) None of the
above
103) In frequency modulation, ____________________ B
A) amplitude of carrier wave changes B) frequency of carrier wave changes
C) amplitude and frequency of carrier wave changes D) None of the above
104) Relaxation oscillator produces _____________________ C
A) Square waveforms B) Triangular waveforms C) Sawtooth waveforms
D) None of the above waveforms
105) In amplitude modulation, carrier amplitude is __________________ B
A) Constant B) Changed C) Zero D) None of the above
106) The disadvantage of PMMC is ________________________ A
A) Only useful for DC measurement B) The scale is uniformly divided
C) Power consumption is very low D) None of the above
107) Square wave generator is also called as __________________ A
A) Astable multivibrator B) Monostable multivibrator
C) Bistable multivibrator D) None of the above
108) In phase modulation ______________________ A
A) phase of carrier wave changes B) amplitude of carrier wave
changes
C) frequency of carrier wave changes D) None of the above
109) A vertical amplifier for a CRO can be designed for _________________ C
A) Only a high gain B) Only a broad bandwidth
C) A constant gain times bandwidth product D) All of the above
110) Repulsion type moving Iron Instrument have ______________ A
A) Two vanes B) Three vanes C) Four vanes D) Five vanes
12
111) The function of focus control knob on the front panel of CRO is __________ B
C) Move beam up D) Move beam down
112) In analog meters __________________________ A
A) Pointer and scale arrangement is used B) LED’s used
C) LCD’s used D) None of the above
113) Which meter has highest accuracy in the prescribed limit of frequency range? C
114) Dual trace CRO has ________________ B
A) Two Electron beams B) One Electron beam C) Three Electron beam
D) Four Electron beam
115) The pacemaker spontaneously generate ___________________ B
A) Resting potential B) Action potential C) Resting and Action potential
116) The disadvantage of electro dynamo meter is ______________ B
A) Used for A.C. and D.C. measurement B) Low sensitivity
C) Free from Hysteresis D) None of the above
117) The electrodes with the tips sufficiently small to penetrate a single cell to obtain A
readings from within the cell are ___________________
A) Micro electrodes B) Needle electrodes C) Skin surface electrodes
118) The function of horizontal position knob on the front panel of CRO is A
__________
A) To move the display in horizontal direction
B) To move the display up and down
C) Control sharpness
13 P.T.O.
119) Which Instrument is cheapest disregarding the accuracy? B
120) The resting potential of the cell is _______________ B
A) Positive B) Negative C) Zero D) None of the above
14
PHY 201
Statistical Mechanics
Question Bank (MCQ)
Q. Answer
No. Key
In Grand Canonical Ensemble:
1. a) Energy exchange and not matter b) Matter exchange and not energy C
c) Both energy and matter exchange d) Energy and matter both are not exchange
The emissivity (ε) can be defined as the ratio of
a) emissive power of real body to the emissive power of black body
2. b) emissive power of black body to the emissive power of real body A
c) reflectivity of real body to emissive power of black body
d) reflectivity of black body to emissive power of real body
The ratio of probability that two particles found in the same state to the
probability that two particles found in different states is denoted by the
3. D
parameter…..
a) β b) µ c) ꞇ d) ξ
Vander Waal’s equation of state given by, exhibits
4. essential features of which phase transition. B
a) Solid – vapor b) Liquid - vapor c) Solid – liquid d) Liquid – solid
The Bose condensation is takes at which temperature<
5. C
a) 0oc b) Absolute zero c) Tb d) 0oK
Phase space is a ………..
6. a) 3 Dimensional Space b) 4 Dimensional Space D
c) 5 Dimensional Space d) 6 Dimensional Space
If the system is divided by diathermic wall, the chemical potential in the
7. equilibrium state are, C
a) µ1 ≠ µ2 b) p1 = p2 c) µ1 = µ2 d) p1 ≠ p2
The conditions of M.B. statistics are,
8. a) The particles are distinguishable b) Any no. of molecules can be in any state D
c) Does not required symmetry on wave function d) All of the above
Pressure of radiation is ……. of the energy state.
9. B
a) 2/5 b) 1/3 c) 5/4 d) 2/3
Which of the following is fermion.
10. C
a) He3 b) Electron c) He4 d) Phonon
Physical interpretation of  is given by,
11. B
a) α = µβ b) α = -µ/kT c) α = µ/kT d) α = -µ/β
The mean energy is given by the equation.
12. B
a) b) c) d)
Fermi energy level
a) is the top most filled energy level at 0K temperature
13. b) is the top most filled energy level at 0 0C temperature A
c) separates valance band and conduction band
d) none of the above
Consider the three collections of particles (ensembles) named microcanonical,
canonical and grand canonical. Which one physical property is constant in all
14. C
three ensembles?
a) Total number of particles N b) Pressure p c) Volume, V d) Temperature T
Solid to vapor phase transition point is known as…..
15. a) Melting point b) Boiling point D
c) Vaporization point d) Sublimation point
The amount of energy coming out per unit area per unit time is…..
16. a) Black body radiation b) Emissivity B
c) Radiation density d) Radiation pressure
By mixing two samples of the same gas, each containing same number of
17. molecules, the entropy of system increases by which factor? B
a) 4nkln2 b) 2nkln2 c) 2nkln4 d) 4nkln4
The energy momentum relation for relativistic electron is,
18. a) b) D
c) d)
Debay model fails at extremely high temperature because,
a) Photons interacts weakly with each other
19. b) The forces between atoms remain harmonic C
c) The forces between atoms does not remain harmonic
d) None of these
Average no. of particles in the grand canonical ensemble are,
a) b)
20. A
c) d)
Consider the general labelling of systems as open, closed, or isolated. The first
allows the exchange of matter and energy with its surroundings; the second
allows only the exchange of energy, whereas the third allows no exchange at all.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
21. D
a) An open system obeys the rules of the canonical ensemble
b) An open system obeys the rules of the microcanonical ensemble
c) An closed system obeys the rules of the microcanonical ensemble
d) An isolated system obeys the rules of the canonical ensemble
White dwarfs are,
a) Stars composed of electron degenerate matter
22. b) Their mass is compare to that of earth D
c) They have surface temperature about 1000k to 3000k
d) All of these
In which statistics number of particles are limited
23. A
a) Fermi Dirac Statistics b) Bose Einstein Statistics c) a&b d) none
, this is the equation of,
24. a) Plank’s distribution b) Maxwell’s velocity distribution B
c) Rayleigh’s law d) Weiss law
Assume that the walls of container are perfectly reflecting, i. P.E. of particle U=0
inside the box and outside the box U = ∞. According to quantum mechanics the
possible quantized energy is given by,
25. A
a) b)
c) d)
Gibb’s paradox is based on,
26. a) Classical mechanics b) Quantum mechanics B
c) Statistical mechanics d) All of the above
The first order phase transition is accompanied by a discontinuous change of
27. internal energy and …….. in the process of first order phase transition. B
a) Specific volume b) Specific heat c) Entropy d) pressure
+ -
M = µ ( N - N ) gives,
28. a) Net electric moment b) Net electromagnetic moment C
c) Net magnetic moment d) None of these
From the followings, which is not a thermodynamic quantity?
29. C
a) Internal energy b) Entropy c) Force d) Volume
The order parameter is a measure of the degree of ordering of a system which has
30. ……. Value temperature of phase transition. B
a) Non-zero b) infinite c) Zero d) Not define
According to F-D Statistics, 3 particles can be distributed in 4 energy states, in
31. number of ways C
a) 16 b) 9 c) 4 d) none
In quantum statistics ideal gases, the occupation no. of particles in any energy
32. state Єr is given by, . This equation represents which statistics? A
a) F.D. Statistics b) M.B. Statistics c) B.E. Statistics d) None of these
In the equation of electrical conductivity, temperature and carrier concentration
33. does not change with …….. C
a) p b) V c) z d) µ
Consider a system of two particles, each of which can be in any one of the three
quantum states in thermal equilibrium at temperature T. How many number of
34. A
possible states occurs in F.D. statistics.
a) 3 b) 9 c) 6 d) 12
For monoatomic gas the molecules does not have ……….. motion.
35. C
a) Translational b) Excitation c) Rotational d) None of these
Grand partition function z is denoted as,
36. C
a) b) c) d)
What is the value of Tc?
37. B
a) 3b b) 8α / 27Rb c) α / 27b2 d) None of these
The equation is define,
38. B
a) Einstein temp. b) Debay temp. c) Radiation temp. d) Curie temp.
When a system consisting of two phases 1 and 2 which can exist simultaneously
39. in equilibrium with one another the condition for phase equilibrium is, D
a) Thermal b) Mechanical c) Chemical d) All of these
Particles satisfying antisymmetric requirement and Pauli’s exclusion principle are
40. said to obey …… statistics C
a) B.E. b) M.B. c) F.D. d) All of these
The diagram represents,
T1>T2>T3>T4
a) Plank’s radiation law
b) Rayleigh Jean’s law
ρ c) Weiss law
d) Stefan’s law
41. A
T1
T2
T3
T4
ω
The difference between fermions and bosons is that boson’s wave function is
42. ………… C
a) Continuous b) Single Valued c) Symmetric d) Differentiable
The relation between Fermi energy and density of electrons:
43. B
a) EF α ρ b) EF α ρ3/2 c) EF α ρ2/3 d) EF α ρ1/2
In Liouville’s theorem, principle of conservation of extension in free space is
44. represented by, D
a) μ = constant b)  = constant c) δ = constant d) Ʈ = constant
At T = Tc susceptibility becomes,
45. C
a) Zero b) One c) Infinite d) None of these
In classical limit the B.E. and F.D. statistics reduces to M.B. statistics. It is shown
by which equation?
46. A
a) b) c) d)
White dwarfs contains,
47. D
a) Free electrons b) Photon c) Neutron d) All of these
Pressure of fermi gas at T = 0 is proportional to 5/3 power of,
48. C
a) volume b) density c) both a and b d) None of these
Using probability distribution mean value of energy can be find using the
expression,
49. a) b) A
c) d)
The fermi momentum is given by,
50. a) b) c) d) B
The electronic specific heat is given by the equation.

51. a) Cv = (∂E/∂T)V b) Cv = (∂E/∂T)p c) Cv = (∂T/∂E)V d) Cv A
= (∂T/∂E)P
Fermi-Dirac (FD) statistics governs,
52. B
a) phonons b) free electrons c) gas molecules d) All the above
The average energy per particle of a fermi gas at T = 0 is E0/N = …ЄF.
53. C
a) 1/5 b) 2/5 c) 3/5 d) 2/3
Which of the followings are examples of Phase II transition?
54. a) Boiling of water b) Transition of iron to paramagnetic state D
c) Transition of liquid helium 1 to 2 d) b and c
Liouville’s first theorem explains,
55. a) Conservation of energy b) Conservation of density B
c) Conservation of extension in phase space d) All of these
Particles having integral spin, this condition is obeys by which statistics.
56. C
a) M.B. Statistics b) F.D. Statistics c) B.E. Statistics d) None of these
In the give phase diagram, curve between solid and liquid is known as,
57. C
a) Vapor pressure curve b) Sublimation curve

c) Fusion curve d) Critical curve
Compressibility of alkali metals is enclosed to the compressibility of …..
58. C
a) Phonon gas b) Inert gas c) Electron gas d) All of these
Equilibrium number of photons in radiation cavity are given by,
59. D
a) N α VT2 b) N α VT4 c) N α VT6 d) N α VT3
In this figure, what does O denote?
60. C
a) Melting point b) Boiling point c) Triple point d) Vaporization point

In which statistics number of particles are unlimited
61. C
a) Fermi Dirac Statistics b) Bose Einstein Statistics c) MB and BE d) none
Which statistics follows Pauli’s Exclusion principle?
62. a) Bose Einstein statistics b) Maxwell Boltzmann statistics C
c) Fermi Dirac Statistics d) none
Spin of particles in Fermi Dirac Statistics?
63. A
a) Odd half integer b) integer c) a & b d) none
If we have 5 distinguishable how many arrangement of accommodation in two
64. boxes A
a) 32 b) 5 c) 36 d) 38
At = Fermi distribution function is a step function such that ( ) = for
65. A
a) < b) > c) ) = d) none
At Fermi temperature the levels above Fermi level are,
66. A
a) Unoccupied b) Occupied c) a and b d) none
ρ represents,
67. C
a) volume density b) pressure density c) number density d) all of these
Fig. represents,
a) Rayleigh’s jeans las
b) Planks law
c) Stephan’s law
d) Wien's displacement law
68. D
= ( / ) = , This equation gives,

69. B
a) Stephan T law b) Debye T3 law c) Plank’s T3 law d) None of these
3
He3 is……….
70. C
a) Boson b) Phonon c) Fermion d) Electron
( ) = ( ) ( − ), in this equation represents,
a) number of macro states of the combined system
71. C
b) number of microstates of the isolated system
c) number of microstates of the combined system
d) number of macro states of the isolated system
If we allow exchange of energy, change of volume and exchange of particles
72. simultaneously, the conditions of equilibrium are, D
a) 1 = b) = c) = d) All of these
= – , this is the equation of,
73. D
a) Enthalpy b) Gibb’s free energy c) Entropy d) Helmholtz free energy
The amount of energy radiated per unit time is known as,
74. A
a) Black body emissivity b) Radiation pressure c) Black body radiation d) none
The ratio of radiation emitted from body to the black body radiation is ………
75. B
a) Radiation density b) Emissivity c) Radiation pressure d) None
The ground state energy E0 of the system in terms of the Fermi energy EF and
76. number of electrons N is given by, A
a) 3/5NEF b) 2/3NEF c) 1/3NEF d) 1/2NEF
Which of the following are also called continuous phase transitions?
77. a) First-order phase transitions b) Second-order phase transitions B
c) Third-order phase transitions d) Fourth-order phase transitions
Which of the following is a measure of the degree of order across the boundaries
78. in a phase transition system? D
a) Critical points b) Relevance c) Both a and b d) Order Parameter
Which of the given statements is true?
a) At the critical point all the three phases of water coexist in equilibrium
79. b) At the critical point saturated liquid and saturated vapor phases are identical B
c) At the triple point all the three phases of water coexist in non equilibrium
d) At the triple point saturated liquid and saturated vapor phases are identical
When water at 0oc heated, its specific volume under standard atmosphere,
80. a) First increase then decreases b) First decreases then increases B
c) Increases steadily d) Decreases steadily
Curie Weiss theory of magnetic transition
81. A
a) paramagnetic b) ferromagnetic c) non-magnetic d) diamagnetic
Curie Weiss theory of magnetic transition
a) A ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic
82. b) A paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic A
c) A paramagnetic material become diamagnetic
d) A ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
In the van der Waals gas equation the constant ‘a’ is
83. introduced to compensate for, B
a) Reduction in specific volume b) inter- molecular forces
c) Reduction in specific heat d) All of these
kT = -1/v(ꝺv/ꝺp) is compressibility of……
84. D
a) Any phase b) liquid phase c) gaseous phase d) All
In the equation ρL - ρG = C ( T-Tc)B, value of B is,
85. B
a) 0.445 b) 0.345 c) 0.235 d) 0.543
P = α (v – 2b)/v2 gives,
86. D
a) Laws of maxima b) Laws of minima c) Laws of maxima and minima d) All
Order parameter has……. Value above temp. of phase transition.
87. C
a) infinity b) non-zero c) zero d) none
The pressure of Fermi gas is proportional to ……. Power of density.
88. B
a) 2/3 b) 5/3 c) 3/5 d) 1/3
The compressibility of alkali metal is enclosed to compressibility of,
89. D
a) photon c) helium c) proton d) electron
The susceptibility is independent of temperature but strongly depends on……. of
90. the gas B
a) pressure b) density c) volume d) none
Energy of a particle with spin anti parallel to H is,
91. D
a) εF -µH b) εF +µH c) p2/2m + µH d) p2/2m - µH
The pressure of an extreme relativistic gas is proportional to ……… power of its
92. density, C
a) 2/3 b) ¾ c) 4/3 d) 5/3
The surface temperature of white dwarf is,……….
93. A
a) 10000 to 30000k b) 40000 to 60000k c) 5000 to 8000k d) none of these
If ρ represents density of phase space. Which of the following is the equation or
94. Liouville’s theorem. A
a) ꝺp/ꝺt + [ρ,H] =0 b) ꝺp/ꝺT + [H,ρ] =0 c) ꝺp/ꝺt =0 d) [ρ,H] =0
Canonical ensemble related to.
95. a) Size to the system b) The number of particles in system C
c) Thermal equilibrium of system d) Freedom of the system
The mean no. of particles in given single particle ‘r’ can be given as,
96. a) (ꝺv/ꝺp) b) a) (ꝺlnz/ꝺ εr) c) (ꝺlnz/ꝺ εr) d) (ꝺlnz/ꝺp) B
, this equation represents,

97. A
a) F.D. statistics b) B.E. statistics c) M.B. statistics d) None
is the equation of,
98. a) Rotational partition function b) Translational partition function C
c) Vibrational partition function d) None of these
Gibb’s paradox is resolved using,
99. a) Classical mechanics concept b) Quantum mechanics concept B
c) Statistical mechanics concept d) a & b
β is known as,
100. B
a) Boltzmann const. b) Boltzmann factor c) a & b d) All of these
Subject Name: Physics ANS.
Paper Name: Classical Electrodynamics
Paper Code: PHY-202
Question Bank
1) The expression for electrostatic energy density in free space is …… B
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
2) The potential of electric quadrupole moment varies with position vector r as C

……..
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3) SI unit of octupole moment is ….. B

(A) (B)
(C) (D)
4) If ⃗ , then ⃗ can be expressed in terms of potentials as……… A
(A) ⃗ (B) ⃗
(C) ⃗ (D) ⃗
5) What is SI unit of ? D
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6) The electric field created by a point charge falls off with the distance from the C
point charge as…..
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7) What is the magnitude of a point charge that would create an electric field of B
1.00 N/C at points 1.00 m away?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
1 P.T.O.
8) What is the magnitude of electric dipole moment of an electron and a proton A
apart ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
9) What is an expression for electric potential of an electric dipole moment P at a C
large distance r from the electric dipole?
(A) * + (B) * +
(C) * + (D) * +
10) The electric potential V in the space between two flat parallel plate is given by B
, where V is in volts if , the distance from one of the plates, is
in meters. What is the magnitude of the electric field at ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
11) Electromagnetic waves are produced by ….. C

(A) a static charge (B) a moving charge with constant velocity
(C) an accelerating charge (D) all of the above
12) An electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is described by D
( ) which of the following is independent of the
wavelength?
(A) k (B) (C) (D)
13) The rate per unit area at which energy is transported by an electromagnetic A
wave is given by the
(A) Poynting vector (B) Gauss law
(C) Faraday’s law (D) Ampere’s law
14) Of the following which option is correct for transverse electromagnetic wave? D
(A) ⃗ ⃗ (B) ⃗ ⃗
(C) ⃗ ⃗ ⃗ (D) All of the above
2 P.T.O.
15) A plane electromagnetic wave has a maximum electric field of B
, what is the maximum magnetic field?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
16) Electromagnetic field not only carry energy; they also carry momentum. The A
momentum density ( ) stored in the electric field is given by ……..
(A) ( )
(B) ( )
( ) ( )
(C) (D) ( )
17) The electromagnetic wave is represented by ⃗ ⃗ ( ) ( )

, the wave B
is propagating in the ……….
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
18) Wave equation for ⃗ of plane electromagnetic wave in conducting media with C
no free charge is ………
⃗ ⃗
(A) ⃗ (B) ⃗
⃗ ⃗ ⃗ ⃗
(C) ⃗ (D) ⃗
19) What does represent ( ⃗) ? D
(A) Energy flow

(B) Energy flow per unit time per unit area
(C) Energy flow per unit area
(D) Energy flow per unit time
20) What is boundary condition for ⃗ across interface between two media? A
(A) Normal component of ⃗ is continuous

(B) Normal component of ⃗ is discontinuous
(C) Tangential component of ⃗ is continuous
(D) Tangential component of ⃗ is discontinuous
3 P.T.O.
21) Which of the following is incorrect statement of reflection and refraction at C
the interface of two media?
(A) Intensity changes by reflection and refraction
(B) Phase changes by reflection and refraction
(C) Frequency changes by reflection and refraction
(D) Polarization of waves changes by reflection and refraction
22) Expression for reflection coefficient (R) for normal incidence is ……… B
( ) ( )
(A) ( )
(B) ( )
( ) ( )
(C) ( )
(D) ( )
23) If we incident the electromagnetic wave from medium one ( ) to the medium D
two ( ) , then the an expression for Brewster’s angle is …………
(A) ( ) (B) ( )
(C) ( ) (D) ( )
24) The reflection coefficient (R) and transmission coefficient (T), which of the A
following is true for normal incidence?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
25) For the case of reflection and refraction at the boundary of two non- C
conducting media, which of the following is always true?
(A) (B)
(C) (D) None of the above
26) For an air ( ) glass ( ) interface the Brewster angle is ……… D
(A) (B) (C) (D)
27) Equation for Snell’s law is …………. B
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
4 P.T.O.
28) Which of the following is the correct expression for average Poynting vector? A
⃗ ⃗ ⃗ ⃗
(A) (B)
⃗ ⃗
(C) ⃗ ⃗ (D)
29) ⃗ indicate that ………. C

(A) Absence of magnetic dipoles
(B) Presence of magnetic dipoles
(C) Absence of magnetic monopoles
(D) Presence of magnetic monopole
30) What is the relation between dielectric constant (k) and electric susceptibility D
(χ)?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
31) The SI unit of polarization is………. B
(A) (B) (C) (D)
32) Which of the following is not mode of propagation in rectangular waveguide? A

(A) EM mode (B) TEM mode
(C) TE mode (D) TM mode
33) Expression for cut off frequency of rectangular wave guide having dimension C
and ( ) is ……….
(A) ( ) [( ) ( ) ]
(B) ( ) *( ) ( )+
(C) ( ) [( ) ( ) ]
(D) ( ) *( ) ( )+
5 P.T.O.
34) The relation between magnetic field ⃗ and vector potential is …….. A
(A) ⃗ (B) ⃗
(C) ⃗ (D) ⃗
35) Consider the following statements: B

(P) Refractive index (n) can increase with frequency
(Q) Refractive index (n) can decrease with frequency
(A) Bothe P and Q are false (B) Both P and Q are true
(C) P is true but Q is false (D) Q is true but P is false
36) The relation between electric field ( ⃗ ) and magnetic field ( ⃗ ) of a charge in C
uniform rectilinear motion with velocity is ……….
⃗ ⃗
(A) ⃗ ⃗ (B) ⃗
⃗ ⃗ ⃗ ⃗
(C) ⃗ (D) ⃗
37) The total power radiated due to non-relativistic charges is …………. B

̇ ̇
(A) (B)
̇ ̇
(C) (D)
38) ̇ ̇ A
Given that, the Lienard radiation formula, ( ) | | ,
then what is an expression for power radiated due to collinear velocity and
acceleration?
̇ ̇
(A) ( ) (B) ( )
̇ ̇
(C) ( ) (D) ( )
39) The cyclotron accelerators produces radiation having ……….. B

(A) collinear velocity and acceleration
(B) transverse velocity and acceleration
(C) both collinear and transverse velocity and acceleration
(D) none of the above
6 P.T.O.
40) What is refractive index ( ) of a material if the velocity of light in that C
material is ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
41) How the total power radiated due to an oscillating electric dipole is related A
with angular frequency ( ) of oscillating charge?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
42) In electrodynamics, what is the relation between electric field ( ⃗ ) and B
electrodynamic potentials V and ?
(A) ⃗ (B) ⃗
(C) ⃗ (D) ⃗
43) The Gauss’s law in differential form is ⃗ . What is integral form of D
Gauss’s law?
(A) ⃗ (B) ⃗
(C) ⃗ (D) ⃗
44) Which of the following is correct expression for total power (P) radiated is B
found by integration of Poynting vector (S)?
(A) (B)

45) SI unit of Poynting vector is ……….. A
(A) (B) (C) (D)
46) If we are a distance r from a source, then what is relation between the retarded B
time and present time?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
7 P.T.O.
47) If represent four momentum vector with component it is given by the D
relation ………
⃗ ⃗
(A) (⃗ ) (B) (⃗ )
⃗ ⃗
(C) (⃗ ) (D) (⃗ )
48) If charge moves with velocity , then the retarded charge is equal C
to ………
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
49) If be the retarded position of charge Q, then expression for retarded vector A
potential is ……………
⃗⃗ ⃗⃗
(A) (B)
⃗ ⃗
(C) (D)
50) What is the relation between rest mass ( ) and moving mass ( ) with B
velocity v?
(A) √ (B)
√
(C) √ (D)
√
51) Energy momentum relation of the particle is ………….. A

(A) (B)
(C) (D)
8 P.T.O.
52) Which of the following statement is not true? C
(A) The laws of physics are the same in all frames of reference moving at
constant velocity with respect to one another
(B) In free space the speed of light has same value for all observer
(C) In free space the speed of light depends on the speed of observer
(D) In free space speed of light is
53) Which of the following is incorrect Galilean transformation relation between D
moving frame ( ) moves along X-axis and fixed frame ( )?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
54) Which of the following is correct expression for velocity four vectors? B
⃗ ⃗
(A) [ ] (B) [ ]
√ √ √ √
⃗ ⃗
(C) * + (D) * +
55) Relativistically which of the following quantity is invariant (not change)? A

(A) (B)
(C) (D)
56) If a mass of 3.6 g is fully converted into energy, how much energy will be C
obtained/
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
57) The length of a rod is exactly 1 m when measured at rest. What will be its A
length when it moves at a speed of ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
58) What must be the speed parameter if the Lorentz factor is 10.0 ? A
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
9 P.T.O.
59) If the LASER is placed in moving frame ( ) which is moving at C (i.e D
) with respect to fixed frame ( ). When LASER is switch ON and
emitted light in the direction of motion relative to S. What will be speed of
LASER light measured by and observer in fixed frame ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
60) What is momentum of electron when it moves with 0.9C? B

[Given: , ]
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
61) In a given region the electrostatic potential is ( ) volts. What is B

the electric field in that region?
(A) ⃗ ̂ ̂ (B) ⃗ ̂ ̂
(C) ⃗ ̂ ̂ (D) ⃗ ̂ ̂
62) What is the energy associated with a doubly charged helium atom when A
passes through a potential difference of 1500 V?
(A) 3000 eV (B) 1500 eV (C) 3000 J (D) 1500 J
63) How potential of electric dipole is related to r ? C
(A) (B) (C) (D)
64) Electrostatic energy density in dielectric is………. A

⃗ ⃗ ⃗ ⃗
(A) (B) (C) ⃗ ⃗ (D) ⃗ ⃗
65) If ⃗ , then what we can say about electric field ⃗ ? B
(A) ⃗ is electrodynamics (B) ⃗ is electrostatic

(D) ⃗ is electromagnetic (D) None of the above
10 P.T.O.
66) The expression for electric quadrupole moment is ………… D
(A) ( )
(B) ( )
(C) ( )
(D) ( )
67) The velocity of electromagnetic wave propagating through medium having B

permittivity and permeability is ……………
(A) (B)
√
(C) (D) √
68) The electric potential V in the space between two flat parallel plate is given by A
( ) , where is in volts, if is the distance from one of the
plates, is in meters. What is electric field at ?
(A) ⃗ (B) ⃗
(C) ⃗ (D) ⃗
69) The energy density in the electric field created by a point charge falls off with D
the distance from the point charge as……..
(A) (B) (C) (D)
70) Which of the following is not SI unit of potential? B

(A) volt (B) (D) (D)
71) Which of the following is incorrect Maxwell’s equation for free space ? A
(A) ⃗ (B) ⃗
⃗ ⃗
(C) ⃗ (D) ⃗
11 P.T.O.
72) The wave equation for magnetic vector ⃗ in non-conducting medium is B
………
⃗ ⃗
(A) ⃗ (B) ⃗
⃗ ⃗
(C) ⃗ (D) ⃗
73) The plane electromagnetic wave having magnetic field ⃗ ⃗ ( ) ( ) A

, the wave propagating along …….
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
74) If electromagnetic wave is transverse in nature, then which of the following is C
not true?
(A) ⃗ ⃗ (B) ⃗ ⃗
(C) ⃗ ⃗ (D) ⃗ ⃗ ⃗
75) Which of the following is not the form of polarization of electromagnetic A
wave?
(A) Square polarization (B) Parallel polarization
(C) Circular polarization (D) Elliptical polarization
76) Mathematically Ampere’s circuital law states that……… B
(A) ∮ ⃗ (B) ∮ ⃗
(C) ∮ ⃗ (D) ∮ ⃗
77) The expression for skin depth is……….. B
(A) (B) √ (D) (D) √
78) Electromagnetic fields not carry energy; they also carry momentum. The D
expression for momentum density ( ) in terms of Poynting vector ( ) is……..
(A) (B) (C) (D)
79) SI unit of skin depth is……. A

(A) (B) (C) (D)
12 P.T.O.
80) If is current density and ⃗ is electric field, then ⃗ physically C
represent……….
(A) energy flow per meter per second
(B) energy flow per meter2 per second
(C) energy flow per meter3 per second
(D) energy flow
81) What is the boundary condition for electric displacement ⃗ across the A
interface between two dielectric media?
(A) The normal component of ⃗ is discontinuous across the interface
(B) The normal component of ⃗ is continuous across the interface
(C) The tangential component of ⃗ is discontinuous across the interface
(D) The tangential component of ⃗ is continuous across the interface
82) Which of the following correct statement about reflection and refraction? C
(A) Frequency of the wave increases by reflection and refraction.
(B) Frequency of the wave decreases by reflection and refraction.
(C) Frequency of the wave remains unchanged by reflection and refraction.
(D) None of the above
83) The Fresnel’s equations are……. C
(I) The amplitude ratios of incident and reflected waves
(II) The amplitude ratios of incident and refracted waves
(A) (I) only (B) (II) only
(C) both (I) and (II) (D) Neither (I) nor (II)
84) What is the average value of over the period T i.e. A
(A) (B) (C) (D)
85) The sum of reflection and transmission coefficient for normal incidence is B
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) (D) 2
13 P.T.O.
86) What is the value of amplitude ratio ( ) for the case of normally polarized B
and normal incidence across the interface of non-magnetic material?

( ) ( )
(A) ( ) (B) ( )
( ) ( )
( ) ( )
(C) ( ) (D) ( )
( ) ( )
87) A plane electromagnetic wave incident from air ( ) to glass ( ) D

at an angle of to the normal. What is angle of transmission?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
88) For normal incidence and non-magnetic materials. What is the expression for C
transmission coefficient ( )?
(A) ( ) (B) ( )
(C) ( )
(D) ( )
89) Which of the following is correct expression for degree of polarization (DOP) A
in terms of reflection coefficient of normal polarization ( ) and parallel
polarization ( )?
(A) (B) ( )
(C) (D) ( )
90) What is the Brewster’s angle for air ( ) and plastic ( ) B

interface?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
91) Which device is used for transportation of electromagnetic wave from one D
place to another?
(A) Resonator (B) Oscillator
(C) Radiator (D) Waveguide
14 P.T.O.
92) When the speed of wave in material varies with frequency, the medium is C
called ……
(A) absorptive medium (B) transmissive medium
(C) dispersive medium (D) reflective medium
93) Which of the following is correct relation between dielectric constant and B
electric susceptibility ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
94) Stationary charge can produce……… B
(A) magnetic field only
(B) electric field only
(C) electric and magnetic field
(D) neither electric nor magnetic field
95) What is the relation between magnetic field ( ⃗ ) and electric field ( ⃗ )? A
⃗⃗ ⃗
(A) ⃗ (B) ⃗ ( ⃗)
⃗⃗ ⃗
(C) ⃗ ( ⃗) (D) ⃗
96) ……. is defined as the energy flow per unit time per unit area. C
(A) Position vector (B) Gauss’s law
(C) Poynting vector (D) Faraday’s law
97) Which of the following is correct expression for guide wavelength for A
rectangular waveguide of sides a and b?
(A) ( ) (B) ( )
√[( ) ( ) ] √[( ) ( ) ]
(C) ( ) (D) ( )
[( ) ( ) ] [( ) ( ) ]
98) The speed of light in free space is …… A

(A) independent of relative motion between source and observer.
(B) depend on speed of source only.
(C) depend on speed of observer only.
(D) depend on speed of source and observer.
15 P.T.O.
99) Which of the following is correct expression for modified ampere’s law? B
⃗ ⃗
(A) ⃗ (B) ⃗
⃗
(C) ⃗ (D) ⃗
100) How the total power ( ) radiated due to non-relativistic charges is related with B
acceleration ( ̇ ) of charges?
(A) ̇ (B) ̇ (C) (B) ̇ (D) (B) ̇
101) If refractive index increases with frequency of incident light, such a A
phenomenon is called ………..
(A) normal dispersion (B) anomalous dispersion
(C) abnormal dispersion (D) partial dispersion
102) What is the relation between total current and current densithy? C
(A) (B)
103) What is the expression for Gauss’s law in differential form? B

(A) ⃗ (B) ⃗
(C) (D)
104) What is an expression between total power and average Poynting vector B
〈 〉?
(A) 〈 〉 (B) 〈 〉
(C) 〈 〉 (D) None of the above
105) Given that, the Lienard radiation formula, A
̇ ̇
( ) | | , then what is an expression for power
radiated due to Bremsstrahlung radiation?

̇ ̇
(A) ( ) (B) ( )
̇ ̇
(C) ( ) (D) ( )
16 P.T.O.
106) What is an expression between magnetic vector potential ⃗ and current A
density ?
(A) ⃗ (B) ⃗
(C) ⃗ (D) ⃗
107) Which of the following radiation have collinear velocity and acceleration? D
(A) Radiation produced by betatron
(B) Radiation produced by Synchrotron
(C) Radiation produced by Cyclotron
(D) Bremsstrahlung radiation
108) Of the following which is correct equation for Faraday’s law of B
electromagnetic induction?
⃗ ⃗
(A) ⃗ (B) ⃗
⃗ ⃗
(C) ⃗ (D) ⃗
109) A plane electromagnetic wave has a maximum electric field of C
. What is the maximum magnetic field?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
110) Given that, the Lienard radiation formula, B
̇ ̇
( ) | | , then what is an expression for power
radiated due to transverse velocity and acceleration?

̇ ̇
(A) ( ) (B) ( )
̇ ̇
(C) ( ) (D) ( )
111) What is the mass of an electron moving with a speed of ? C

[Given: ]
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
17 P.T.O.
112) What is the Einstein famous mass energy relation? A
(A) (B)
( )
(C) ( ) (D)
113) What is mass of electron having energy ? D

(A) (B)
(C) (D)
114) The Lorentz gauge condition is defined as ……….. A
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
115) Which of the following is correct Lorentz transformation relation between A

moving frame ( ) moves along X- axis with fixed frame ( )?
(A) (B)
√ √
(C) (D)
√ √
116) Which of the following option is correct about the given statements in A
relativity?
(I) Speed of light is constant for all observers in free space.
(II) Laws of Physics are same in all inertial frames.
(A) Both (I) and (II) are true (B) Both (I) and (II) are false
(C) (I) is true while (II) is false (D) (II) is true while (I) is false
117) Of the following, which is incorrect Lorentz transformation relation between D
moving frame ( ) moves along X- axis and fixed frame ( )?
(A) (B)
√
(C) (D)
18 P.T.O.
118) What must be the Lorentz factor if the speed parameter ? B
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
119) The length of rod is when measured at rest. What will be its length when A
it moves at a speed of ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
120) What is the speed at which the mass of an electron is double of its rest mass C
( )? [Given: ]
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
**********
19 P.T.O.
Question Bank
Multiple Choice Question A
Quantum Mechanics N
S
1) Energy spectrum of bound state is
[A] Discrete [B] Continuous [C] Mixed Spectrum [D] None
A
2) The Energy of a photon having energy 5 MeV, is
[A] 5.33 × 10-22 kg-m/sec [B] 3.33 × 10-19 kg-m/sec
C
-21 -23
[C] 2.67 × 10 kg-m/sec [D] 7.63 × 10 kg-m/sec
3) If δmn is Kronecker delta function then δmn = 1 when _______
[A] m = n [B] m > n. [C] m < n. [D] m ≠ n
A
4) The momentum of an electron having kinetic energy 10 MeV, is
[A] 5.85 × 10-21 kg-m/sec [B] 9.10 × 10-30 kg-m/sec A
-15 -21
[C] 1.35 × 10 kg-m/sec [D] 7.58 × 10 kg-m/sec
5) The solution of Schrödinger equation must be
[A] single valued [B] Continuous [C] Differentiable [D] All of these D
6) The momentum of a proton having kinetic energy 0.1 MeV, is

[A] 2.31 × 10-22 kg-m/sec [B] 3.33 × 10-19 kg-m/sec
B
-21 -22
[C] 2.67 × 10 kg-m/sec [D] 7.63 × 10 kg-m/sec
7) Dimension is defined as, --------- *
[A] Number of linearly dependent vectors.
[B] Number of linearly & non - linearly independent vectors.
C
[C] Number of linearly independent vectors.
[D] None of these
1 P.T.O.
8) Electron is moving with velocity 3x10 m/sec, the uncertainty in the position of
electron is
D
(a) 0.0038 A (b) 0.0083 Å (c) 0.083 A (d) 0.038 Å
9) Which quantity is said to be degenerate when HΨn = EnΨn?
[A] Eigen Vectors [B] Eigen Values [C] Eigen Functions [D] Operators
C
10) The uncertainty in the location of a particle is equal to its de-Broglie wave length.
The uncertainty in its velocity is (Where V is the velocity of the particle)
A
(a) V/4π (b) V/2
(c) V/8π (d) V/16
11) The spectrum of free particle is
[A] Discrete [B] Continuous [C] Mixed Spectrum [D] None B
12) What is the probability current density for the wave function?
ψ(x) = u(x) eiϕ(x) where u and p are real.
C
(a) ħ/m u dϕ/dx (b) ħ/m dϕ/dx (c) ħ/m u dϕ/dx
2
(d) ħ/m u dϕ/dx
2
13) Energy eigen value of simple harmonic oscillator is given by E = ________

[A] ħν [B] ( n+1/2 ) ħω [C] Nħν [D] ħω
B
14) The wave function of a beam of particles in a region is described by
ψ(x) = A[e(ikx) + 4e(-ikx)] then, the probability current density is
(a) 15 |A|2 ħk/ m (b) 17 |A|2 ħk/ m
C
(c) -15 |A|2 ħk/ m (d) -17 |A|2 ħk/ m
15) Total angular momentum J can be written as: ----------
[A] J2 =L2 + S2 + L.S [B] J2 =L2 + S2 -2 L.S
[C] J2 =L2 + S2+2L.S [D] J2 =L2 + S2 + ½L.S
C
16) The wave function of a beam of particles in a region is described by
ψ(x) = A[exp(ikx) + 4exp(-ikx)] then, the ratio of number of particles going in the
positive X-direction to those are going in the negative X-direction is B
(a) 16 (b) 1/16 (c) 4 (d) ¼
2
17) The commutation relations [J+, J- ] among the ladder operators and Jz are obtained
as……
[A] + ħ Jz [B] − ħ Jz [C] − 2 ħ Jz [D] +2 ħ Jz
D
18) A free particle is in the state n=3 of a 1-D box of length L. The probability of the
particle is in the region 0≤x≤L/4 is,
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.030 (c) 0.303 (d) 0.025
C
19) In 1D steady state problems, at x = x0, T = T0 is a
[A] forced boundary condition [B] Natural boundary condition [C] Both [D] None
A
20) A particle of mass 10-30 kg is trapped in an infinitely deep potential well of width
0. 5 nm. The value of the wave number in the ground state is,
(a) 0.628 nm-1 (b) 6.028 nm-1 (c) 6.28 nm-1 (d) 62.8 nm-1
C
21) There are ___ types of quantum numbers.
[A] 2 [B] 5 [C] 7 [D] 4 D

22) An electron in 1-D infinite potential well, defined by v (x) = 0 for -a < x≤a and
v (x) = ∞ otherwise, goes from n = 4 to n = 2 level. The frequency of emitted
photon is 3. 43 × 1014 Hz. What is the width of the box? C
(a) 8.92×10-10 m (b) 892×10-10 m (c) 17.84×10-10 m (d) 1784×10-10 m
23) If there exist more than one eigen function corresponding to a given eigen value,
then the eigen value is called ___________
[A] Non degenerate [B] degenerate [C] discrete [D] None
A
24) A particle of mass 'm' trapped in the potential V(x)= 0 for-a<x<a and V(x) = for
otherwise. What is the probability of finding the particle between x = 0 and x = a/n
When it is in nth state? C
(a) n (b) 2/n (c) l/n (d) 0
25) A particle of mass m0 and charge e oscillates along the X-axis in a 1-D harmonic
potential with angular frequency w. if electric filed E applied along X-axis, then,
what is the 1st order correction to the Energy of nth state is A
[A] Zero [B] -eE [C] +eE [D] None
3 P.T.O.
26) An electron is in the ground state of a 1- D infinite square well with a = 10-10m.
What is the force that the electron exerts on the wall during an impact on either
wall? C
(a) 1.21N (b) 1.21×10-6 N (c) 1.21 x10-7N (d) 1.21×10-8 N
27) A wavefunction:
[A] Is the solution to a differential equation known as a wave equation that

describes the structure of an electron.
[B] Is the solution to a differential equation known as a wave equation that

describes the structure of an atom. B
[C] Is the differential equation used to describe the structure of an atom.
[D] Is the differential equation used to describe the structure of an electron.
28) The wave function ψ(x) = Ae-|x|k , where k is a positive constant the normalization
constant 'A', is
(a) √1+k b) √k (c)√k/2 (d) √2k
B
29) Consider a1-D harmonic oscillator is subjected to a perturbing potential
V(x)=kbx4/4 then Evaluate 2nd order correction to the ground state energy
[A] b2 ω (2n+1) / 64 [B] -b2 ω (2n+1) / 64
[C] b2 ω (2n+1) / 32 [D] -b2 ω (2n+1) / 32 B
30) The wave function of a certain particle is ψ(x) = Acos² x for -л /2 to л /2 then the
value of A is,
A
(a) √8/ Зл b) √3/8л (c)√1/2л (d) √3/ 2л
31) Which of the following represents the electric dipole transition for linear harmonic
oscillator is Δn =?
[A] any integer [B] 0 [C] ±1 [D] 0, ±1
C
32) An electron is trapped in one dimensional region of length 1.0x10-¹⁰m then, how
much energy is required to excite the electron from ground state to first excited
state? C
(a) 148 eV (b) 37 eV (c) 114 eV (d) 148 J
4
33) A particle of mass m is confined in an infinite potential of length L and it is
subjected to perturbing potential Vp (x)= V0 then Evaluate the First order and
second order correction to the energy of nth state
[A] En(1)= 0, En(2)=V0 [B] En(1)= 0, En(2)=0
[C] En(1)= V0 , En(2)=0 [D] En(1)= V0, En(2)= V0
B
34) An electron is trapped in one dimensional region of length 1.0x10-¹⁰m then, In the
ground state what is the probability of finding the electron in the region between
B
x = 0. 09 Å to 0. 110 Å.
(a) 0.038% (b) 0.0038% (c) 0.38 % (d) 1.966 %
35) Any subset of finitely generated vector space (V) is linearly independent then, that
subset from ------?
[A] Linear vector space [B] Dimension [C] Basis [D] None
C
36) A particle is in the ground state of 1-D box of length 'L'. Suddenly the length of the
box is doubled (2L), If we measure the energy after the width is doubled. What is
the probability that will not have change? B
(a) 18% (b) 36% (c) 50% (d) 100%
37) If number operator N=aa* then, [a*, N] =?
[A] a [B] 0 [C] a* [D] 1
C
38) A particle is in the ground state of 1-D box of length 'L'. Suddenly the length of the
box is doubled (2L), What is the probability if the particle will have loss some
energy C
(a) 18% (b) 36% (c) 50% (d) 100%
39) [x,p]= iħ, the value of [x3,p] is

[A] 2iħx2 [B] 3iħx2 [C] iħ [D] iħx
B
5 P.T.O.
40) For a free particle, which of the following statements is correct,
(a) Energy spectrum is continuous and degeneracy is two.
(b) Energy spectrum is discrete and degeneracy is one.
A
(c) Energy spectrum is continuous and degeneracy is one.
(d) Energy spectrum is discrete and degeneracy is two.
41) For bound state of a particle in a square well the energy is _______
[A] E=0 [B] E<0 [C] E>0 [D] None
B
42) A particle of mass 1gm is confined in a box of length 1 cm. The minimum kinetic
energy of the particle is?
(a) 5 × 10-68 J (b) 5.4 × 10-61J (c) 5 × 10-58J (d) 5 × 10-51J
B
43) If ψ1 and ψ2 are two solutions of Schrodinger Wave equation then which of the
following is also a solution?
[A] ψ1/ ψ2 [B] ψ1ψ2 [C] ψ1 − ψ2 [D] ψ1 + ψ2
D
44) A Particle of mass 'm' is confined to a 1-dimensional infinite potential 0< x≤ a at
t=0. The normalized wave function of the system, ψ (x,t = 0) = √8/5a
{1+cos(πx/a)} sin(πx/a), The average energy of the system is B
(a) 3π2ħ2 /2ma2 (b) 4π2ħ2 /5ma2 (c) 8π2ħ2 /5ma2 (d) π2ħ2 /5ma2
45) The quantum mechanical model describes electrons as:
[A] Particle [B] Waves C

[C] Particles with wave-like properties [D] Small, hard spheres
46) A Particle of mass 'm' is confined to a 1-dimensional infinite potential 0< x≤ a at
t=0. The normalized wave function of the system,
ψ (x, 0) = C1 sin (πx/a) + C2 sin (πx/a) then, what is the average energy of the
A
system at time ‘t’?
E1+E2 (b) E1-E2 (c) E2-E1 (d) none of above
47) Operator A is represented as matrix A then, (λA) †=_?_A†
[A] λ† [B] λ-1 [C] λ [D] 0
A
6
48) Hermitian conjugate of the operator (x d/dx + 2) is,
(a) -1 - x d/dx (b) x d(x)/dx + 2 (c) 1 - x d/dx (d) 1 - x d/dx
C
49) The potential of free particle is
[A] Infinite [B] Zero [C] Maximum [D] Minimum
B
50) If ψ(x) = Axe-x2/a2 is an eigen function of parity operator π, then the eigen value is,
(a) 1 (b) -1 (c) A/a (d) +√A/a
B
51) For the wave functions ∅ and ψ and operator A the shorter notation of the integral
∫Aψ *ψ dt __
[A] (A, ψ) [B] (ᶲ, A ψ) [C] (ᶲ, Aᶲ) [D] (Aᶲ, ψ)
C
52) Which of the following statements is incorrect one?
(a) Tr(A+) = (Tr(A))* (c) det(A+) = (det(A))*
(b) Tr([A,B]) ≠ 0 (d) det(A) = eTr(ln A)
B
53) The operator operating on the wave function should always standing on _____ side
[A] Right [B] Middle [C] Upper [D] Left
A
54) A harmonic oscillator is in the ground state, where is the probability density
maximum?
At x = a/2 (b) At x = a (c) At x = 0 (d) At x = 2a
C
55) For any operator A and a wave function ᶲ if Aψ =aψ then a is called _______
[A] Eigen function [B] Eigen value [C] Probability density [D] Probability-
amplitude
B
56) The ground state of linear harmonic oscillator is,
(a) Trigonometric function (b) Gaussian function
(c) Hyperbolic function (d) Bessel function B
57) According to the wave function and it first partial derivative should be _______
functions for all values of X
[A] discontinuous [B] Zero [C] Continuous [D] Infinity
C
7 P.T.O.
58) The degeneracy of 3-D isotropic harmonic oscillator is,
(a) (N2-3N+1)/2 (b) (N2+2N+2)/2 (c) (N2+3N+2)/2 (d) (N2+N+2)/2
C
59) The value of the commutator [Jx,Jy] is
[A] iħJx [B] iħJy [C] iħJz [D] – iħJz C
60) Solve Commutator [X, N] = ? where, X is position operator and N is number
operator (m=w= ħ=1)
(a) -iPx (b) -iX (c) iPx (d) i
C
61) The Steady-state form of Schrodinger wave equation is _____________

[A]Differential Equation [B] Linear [C] Derivable [D] Quadratic
B
62) The wave function is ψ(x) = Ae- λ|x| then, find <x2> - <x> = ?
1/2 λ (b) λ2 /2 (c) 1/4 λ2 (d) λ2 /6
C
63) For any operator A and a wave function ψ if Aψ = aψ then a is called _______
[A] Eigen function [B] Eigen value B
[C] Probability density [D] Probability amplitude
64) Degeneracy of the isotropic harmonic oscillator in nx + ny = 3 state is,
2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 10
C
65) The energy levels of the one-dimensional harmonic oscillator are
[A] Equally spaced and not degenerate
[B] 2-fold degenerate
A
[C]3-fold degenerate
[D] None of above
66) Five non-interacting spin- 1/2 particles are placed in a 1-D harmonic potential. If
the ground state energy is 2eV, the ground state energy of the total system is,
C
(a) 10eV (b) 36eV (c) 26eV (d) 13eV
8
67) In one-dimensional particle moves
[A] X-Y Plane [B] X-Y-Z [C] along X-axis [D] None
C
68) Eight identical non- interacting spin - 1/2 particles are placed in 3-D isotropic
harmonic potential the ground state energy of the eight-particle system is,
16 ħw (b) 24 ħw (c) 18 ħw (d) 20 ħw
C
69) The commutation relations [Jz, J+] among the ladder operators and Jz are obtained
as…………
C
[A] [Jz ,J+ ] = − ħ [B] [Jz ,J+ ] = − ħ J+ [C] [Jz ,J+ ] = + ħ J+
[D] [Jz ,J+ ] = J+
70) The eigen value of an operator A = 3σx + 4 σy is,
(a) ±1 (b) ±5 (c) ± i (d) ± √5
B
71) The values of Energy for which Schrodinger’s steady state equation can be solved
is called as _____________
[A] Eigen Vectors [B] Eigen Values [C] Eigen Functions [D] Operators
B
72) Which of the following represents central potential?
V = Ax2 (b) V = A (x2 + y2) (c) V = A (x2 + y2 + z2) (d) V = A (y2 + z2) C
73) Which of the following is the eigenfunction of the linear momentum
operator with a positive eigenvalue C

[A] e-ikx [B] cos kx [C] eikx [D] sin kx
74) The eigen value of an operator Si = Sx + Sy is,

(a) ±1 (b) ±5 (c) ± i (d) ± √5
A
75) Any wave function having anti-symmetry property is said to be of ______ parity
[A] Zero [B] Even [C] Odd [D] None C
9 P.T.O.
76) Which of the following is correct about Pauli spin matrices?
(a) All the three matrices are simultaneously diagonalized
(b) These are anti Hermitian and traceless
C
(c) The determinant is ‘-1'
(d) Any 2x2 matrix can be written as the linear combination of the three Pauli
matrices
77) The WKB approximation is valid when
[A] System has large mass, high energy and potential slowly varying.
[B] System potential varying slowly
A
[C] System has high energy
[D] System has large mass
78) The eigen value of J2 & Jz are λ & m then,
(a) λ < m2 (b) λ < (m + 1)2 (c) λ > m2 (d) λ < (m - 1)2
C
79) Consider a linear harmonic oscillator which is subjected to a perturbing potential
V(x) then which of the following statement is correct
1) If V(x) is linear in x, first order correction to the energy of nth state is zero.
C
2) If V(x) is quadratic in x, first order correction to the energy of nth state is
negative.
[A] 1 [B] 2 [C] 1&2 [D] None
80) A system of two spin- half particles in a state with total spin quantum number S=0.
What are the eigen value of the spin Hamiltonian H = A S1.S2. Where 'A' is a
positive constant.
¾ Aħ² (b) -¾ Aħ² (c) Aħ²/4 (d) -Aħ²/4
B
81) In the probabilistic interpretation of wave function Ψ, the quantity |Ψ| 2 is--------
[A] probability amplitude [B] Current density [C] probability density [D] none
C
82) What is the value of L × r – iħr is (where r is position vector),
iħr + r × L (b) iħr - r × L (c) iħr (r × L) (d) iħ (r × L)
B
10
83) If there exist only one eigen function corresponding to a given eigen value, then
the eigen value is called ____________
(a) [A] Non degenerate [B] degenerate [C] discrete [D] continuum
B
84) Which of the following is Incorrect?
(a) [L2,Lz]=0 (b) [Lz,L+]=ħL+ (c) [L+,L-]=2ħLz (d) [L-,Lz]=-ħL_
D
85) If a*|n>=√n+1|n> then, a*3|n>=? |n+3>
[A] √n+1 [B] √n+1 √n+2 √n+3 [C] √n+1 √n+2 [D] √n+2 √n+3
B
86) Degeneracy of second excited state of an isolated hydrogen atom is,
(c) 4 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 9
D
87) In Quantum mechanics, its most general formulation is a theory of operators
(observables) acting on an abstract space called----
(a) [A] Lorentz space [B] Riemannian space [C] boson field [D] Hilbert space
D
88) In the hydrogenic states the probability of finding an electron at r = 0,
(a) Zero in state ϕ1s(r) (b) non - zero in state ϕ1s(r)
(c) zero in ϕ2s(r) State (d) Maximum in ϕ2ρ(r)
B
89) Consider a system of 1-D harmonic oscillator with having ladder operators a and
a* then find the average value of x2 is ...
[A] ħ(2n+1)/2mω
[B] ħ(n+1)/2mω A
[C] ħ(2n+1)/mω
[D] ħ(n+1)/mω
90) The average distance of the electron from the nucleus of hydrogen atom in the 2s
state is,
(a) 12ao (b) 1/4ao (c) 6ao (d) 3/2ao
C
11 P.T.O.
91) The commutation relations [Jz ,J- ] among the ladder operators and Jz are obtained
as…………
[A] [Jz ,J- ] = − ħ [B] [Jz ,J- ] = − ħ J- [C] [Jz ,J- ] = + ħ J-
B
[D] [Jz ,J-] = J-
92) N non – interacting electrons are in a 1- D infinite well of width ‘a’, what is the
lowest value of the total energy for large N is,
(a) N2π2ħ2 /6ma2 (b) 5N2π2ħ2 /6ma2 C
(a) N π ħ /12ma
2 2 2 2
(d) N2π2ħ2 /4ma2
93) A Unitary Space operator satisfies------------
[A] UU† = - UU†U =- I
C
†
[B] UU = 0
[C] UU† = U†U = I
[D] UU† = U†U = - I
94) The variation principle is particularly effective when estimating the energy of,
(a) the highest state of any symmetry
(b) the lowest state of any symmetry
B
(c) any state of symmetry
(d) both the highest and lowest state of symmetry
95) Commutator of two Hermitian operator is--------
[A] Hermitian [B] Anti- Hermitian [C] Both [D] None
B
96) A Particle of mass ‘m’ is bouncing vertically & elastically on a reflecting hard
floor. The potential of the particle is given by, V(z) = mgz z>0 & V(z) = infinite
z<0 then according to the variation method which of the following represents the
ground state wave function of the system. (Where a is parameter, A is
normalization constant) B
(b) (a) Ae-αz (b) Aze-αz (c) A (1 + α) e-αz (d) A(1 - α)e-αz
12
97) The Hermitian conjugate of an operator A is a
[A] < ᶲ ‫ ׀‬A† ‫ ׀‬ψ> = < ᶲ ‫ ׀‬A ‫ ׀‬ψ>* [B] < ᶲ ‫ ׀‬A† ‫ ׀‬ψ> = < ψ ‫ ׀‬A ‫׀‬ᶲ >*
D
[C] < ᶲ ‫ ׀‬A ‫ ׀‬ψ> = < ᶲ ‫ ׀‬A ‫ ׀‬ψ>* [D] < ᶲ ‫ ׀‬A† ‫ ׀‬ψ> = - < ᶲ ‫ ׀‬A ‫ ׀‬ψ>*
98) Consider the infinite square well, the potential is defined by,
V(x) = 0 for -a<x<a & V(x) = infinite for |x|>a then the bottom of the well is
perturbed by V(x) = V0x/a Where, V0 is constant. The first order correction to the
first excited state is,
A
0 (b) V0/2a (c) V0/a (d) 2V0/a
99) If n is number operator, a*|n>=√n+1|n> and a|n>=√n|n-1> then, H|n>=?|n>

[A] ħω(2n+1)/2
[B] ħω(n+1)/2
[C] ħω(n)/2
[D] ħω(3n+1)/2 A
100) Consider an infinite potential well of length L with walls at x = 0 and x = L, the
bottom of the box is modified by a perturbation V0 then, the first order correction
to the state is,
(a) V0/2 (b) -V0/2 (c) -nV0/2 (d) nV0/2
A
101) The eigen values of a Hermitian matrix ______
(a) [A] Imaginary [B] Real [C] Constant [D] None of these
B
102) A rigid rotator in a plane is acted on by a perturbation H1 = V0/2 (3cos2 ϕ – 1)
where V0 is constant then first order correction to the ground state energy is,
(a) (a)0 (b) 3V0/4 (c) V0/4 (d) V0/2
C
103) Any two eigen functions belonging to unequal eigen values of a self adjoint
operator are _________
(a) [A] Non orthogonal [B] parallel [C] orthogonal [D] imaginary
C
104) More than one linearly independent wave function belongs to the same energy E
the level is said to be,
Degenerate (b) Non degenerate (c) Orthogonal (d) Orthonomal
A
13 P.T.O.
105) Eigen values of a self-adjoint operator is _______ C
[A] Zero [B] Infinite [C] Real [D] imaginary
106) A particle is confined to the region 0<x<L in 1-D, find the maximum probability
of finding the particle in first excited state is,
B
(c) (a)L/6 (b) L/4 (c) L/2 (d) 3L/4
107) If A is an operator and A is an adjoint operator of A then (A†) † = ______
†
A
* †
[A] A [B] A [C] A [D] 1
108) A particle is in 1-D potential well then the value of ΔxΔE = ? B
(a) ħ/m <Px> (b) ħ/2m <Px> (c) 2ħ/m <Px> (d) ħ/4m <Px>
109) Consider the one-dimensional harmonic oscillator. The commutator [a†, H] is
equal to
(a) [A] ħωa [B] ħω [C] ħωa† [D] - ħωa†
D
110) A particle of mass m moving freely between x = 0 & x = L inside an infinite B
square well potential, then average of <P2> is,
/
(a) mEn (b) mEn/2 (c) 2mEn (d) En/2m C
111) The zero-point energy for simple harmonic oscillator is E = _________
[A] ћω B] 5/2ћω [C] 1/2 ћω [D] 3/2ћω C
112) The motion of a quantum particle in one dimension is governed by the
Hamiltonian H = P2/2 + gx. The expectation value of the force on the particle is,
(a) (a) ħg (b) -g (c) ħp (d) p
B
113) Let P be a momentum operator and X is position operator then [X, P] =?
[A] iħ [B] -iħ [C] 1 [D] 0
A
114) Maximum degeneracy of the 2 – D symmetric box is,
(a) (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 4
B
115) In one dimensional problem we just discussed stationary states because by using
which complexity of problem?
(a) [A] Increased [B] Maximum [C] Become a Zero [D] Reduced
D
14
116) Consider a particle confined in a square well potential extending from -a to a. Then
the number of symmetric bound states in between π/2 and π is,
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
B
117) Which of the following operators is Hermitian?
[A] 0 [B] d/dx [C] d2/dx2 [D] None
C
118) A beam of electrons impinges with energy 40 MeV on a potential barrier of height
30MeV. then the fraction of electrons reflected and transmitted at the barrier is,
(a) 0.33, 0.66 (b) 0.53,0.47 (c) 0.47,0.53 (d) 0.66, 0.33
A
119) If the wavefunction for a two-particle quantum state satisfies ψ (r1, r2) = - ψ (r2, r1)
it is best described as
[A] A Photon [B] A fermion [C] A Boson [D] none of above
B
120) Which of the following functions is a physically acceptable wave function?
(a) f(x) = 3 sin πx (b) g(x)=4 - |x| (c) h²(x) = 5x (d) e(x) = x² A
15 P.T.O.
SR.
PHY 204 Materials Science
NO ANS
1) The word ‘ceramic’ meant for..............
(a) soft material (b) hard material (c) burnt material (d) dry material c
2) ...........is not a characteristic property of ceramic material
(a) high temperature stability (b) high mechanical strength d

(c) low elongation (d) low hardness
3) Major ingredients of traditional ceramics..........

d
(a) silica (b) clay (c) feldspar (d) all
4) ...........is not a major contributor of engineering ceramics

b
(a) SiC (b) SiO2 (c) Si3N4 (d) Al2O3
5)
The following ceramic product is mostly used as pigment in paints
a
(a) TiO2 (b) SiO2 (c) UO2 (d) ZrO2
6) Most commercial glasses consist of

d
(a) lime (b) soda (c) silica (d) all
7) Hot iso-static pressing is not a viable option if the chief criterion is
(a) strength without grain growth (b) lost cost

b
(c) zero porosity (d) processing refractory
ceramics
8) During sintering densification is not due to
(a) atomic diffusion (b) surface diffusion b

(c) bulk diffusion (d) grain growth
Page 1 of 12
9) Gibbs phase rule for general system is…..
d
(a) P+F=C-1 (b) P+F=C+1 (c) P+F=C-2 (d) P+F=C+2
10) In a single-component condensed system, if degree of freedom is zero,

maximum number of phasesthat can co-exist…..
c
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
11) The degree of freedom at triple point in unary

diagram for water is…. a
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
12) Above the following line, liquid phase exist for all
compositions in a phase diagram.
c
(a) Tie-line (b) Solvus (c) Solidus d) Liquidus
13) Following is wrong about a phase diagram.

(a) It gives information on transformation rates.
(b) Relative amount of different phases can be found under given
equilibrium conditions. a
(c) It indicates the temperature at which different phases start to melt.
(d) Solid solubility limits are depicted by it.
14) Not a Hume-Ruthery condition:

(a) Crystal structure of each element of solid solution must be the same.
(b) Size of atoms of each two elements must not differ by more than 15%.
c
(c) Elements should form compounds with each other.
(d) Elements should have the same valence.
15) Pick the odd one in the following:

(a) Isomorphous alloy (b) Terminal solid solution a
(c) Intermediate solid solution (d) Compound
16) The boundary line between (liquid) and (liquid+solid) regions must be part
of………..
c
(a) Solvus (b) Solidus (c) Liquidus (d) Tie-line
2
17) The boundary line between (liquid+solid) and (solid) regions must be part
of …….
b
18) The boundary line between (alpha) and (alpha+beta) regions must be part
of………
a
19) Horizontal arrest in a cooling curve represents:

(a) Continuous cooling (b) Invariant reaction
b
(c) Both (d) None
20) Relative amounts of phases in a region can be deduced using

(a) Phase rule (b) Lever rule (c) Either (d) None b
21) An invariant reaction that produces a solid up on cooling two liquids:

(a) Eutectic (b) Peritectic (c) Monotectic (d) Syntectic d
22) A solid + a liquid result in a liquid up on heating during……..reaction.

(a) Eutectic (b) Peritectic (c) Monotectic (d) Syntectic c
23) A solid + a liquid result in a solid up on cooling during…….. reaction.

(a) Eutectic (b) Peritectic (c) Monotectic (d) Syntectic b
24) Both nucleation and growth require change in free energy to be……..
(a) –ve (b) zero (c) +ve (d) Any a
25) During homogeneous nucleation, critical size of a particle……..with

increase in under-cooling.
b
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Won’t change (d) Not related
26) Not a typical site for nucleation during solid state transformation
(a) Container wall (b) Grain boundaries (c)
a
Stacking faults (d) Dislocations
Page 3 of 12
27) Growth occurs by
(a) Diffusion controlled individual movement of atoms
(b) Diffusion-less collective movement of atoms
c
(c) Both
(d) None
28) Overall transformation rate changes with temperature as follows:

(a) Monotonically decreases with temperature (b) First increases, then
decreases
b
(c) Initially it is slow, and then picks-up (d) Monotonically
increases with temperature
29) wt.% of carbon in mild steels

(a) <0.008 (b) 0.008-0.3 (c) 03-0.8 (d) 0.8-2.11 b
30) Eutectic product in Fe-C system is called

(a) Pearlite (b) Bainite (c) Ledeburite (d) Spheroidite c
31)
Eutectoid product in Fe-C system is called
a
(a) Pearlite (b) Bainite (c) Ledeburite (d) Spheroidite
32) Phases that exist on left side of an invariant reaction line are called
(a) Pro-phase (b) Hypo-phase (c) Hyper-phase (d) None c
33) Alloying element that decreases eutectoid temperature in Fe-C system

(a) Mo (b) Si (c) Ti (d) Ni d
34) Nose of a C-curve represents

(a) Shortest time required for specified fraction of transformation
(b) Longest time required for specified fraction of transformation
(c) Average time required for specified fraction of transformation a
(d) No information regarding time required for specified fraction of
transformation
35) Phase formed of diffusion-less reaction:

(a) Pearlite (b) Lower Bainite (c) Upper bainite (d) Martensite d
4
36) Ms for Fe-C system is round ֯C.
(a) 725 (b) 550 (c) 450 (d) 210 d
37) Impurity not responsible for temper em-brittlement.......

c
(A) Sn (b) Sb (c) Si (d) As
38) % C in medium carbon steels ranges from…….
(a) 0.3 – 0.4 (b) 0.3 – 0.5 (c) 0.3 – 0.6 (d) None c
39) Stainless steel is so called because of its…….

(a) High strength (b) High corrosion resistance b
(c) High ductility (d) Brittleness
40) In white cast irons, carbon present as…….
(a) Graphite flakes (b) Graphite nodules c
(c) Cementite (d) Carbon does not exist
41) ….. is a refractory metal

(a) Ag (b) W (c) Pt (d) Ni b
42) ……is not a noble metal

(a) Cu (b) Ag (c) Au (d) Pt a
43) …..is a noble metal

(a) Al (b) Ag (c) Mo (d) W b
44) Usual casting method for making dental crowns is…..

(a) Sand casting (b) Die casting
d
(c) Continuous casting (d) Investment casting
45) Prime structural disadvantage of P/M products is…..

(a) Low density (b) Porosity (c) High damping capacity (d) None b
46) …..is not an important heat treatment process parameter

(a) Heating rate (b) Temperature (c) Cooling rate (d) Atmosphere a
47) ……is the final structure of austempered steel

(a) Pearlite (b) Ferrite + graphite (c) Bainite (d) Martensite c
Page 5 of 12
48) The alloy of Ti + 5% Al, + 2.5 Sn has…..
a. low temperature stability

b. low strength c
c. good corrosion
d. all of the above
49) At room temperature, hardness of precipitation hardening alloys.…..
a. increases with time

b. decreases with time a
c. remains constant
d. none of the above
50) The zenith angle is the angle made by the sun’s rays with the…..to
a…..surface.
(a) normal, horizontal
(b) tangent, horizontal a
(c) normal, vertical
(d) tangent, vertical
51) The complement of zenith angle is…….

(a) Solar altitude angle
(b) Surface azimuth angle
a
(c) Solar azimuth angle
(d) Slope
52) Solar radiation flux is usually measured with the help of a…….
(a) Anemometer
(b) Pyranometer
b
(c) Sunshine recorder
(d) All of the above
53) The following is (are) laws of black body radiation.

(a) Plank’s law
(b) Stefan-Boltzmann law c
(c) both (A) and (B)
(d) None of the above
54) Mostly, a silicon material is used in solar cells.
(a) True (b) False a
6
55) When the solar cells are connected in parallel the voltage remain same and
current added. a
(a) True (b) False
56) A solar cell is a……..
(a) P-type semiconductor
(b) N-type semiconductor d
(c) Intrinsic semiconductor
(d) P-N Junction
57) Which of the following materials cannot be used as solar cells materials?
(a) Si
(b) GaAs
(c) CdS d
(d) PbS
58) What is the difference between Photodiode and Solar cell?
(a) No External Bias in Photodiode
(b) No External Bias in Solar cell
(c) Larger surface area in photodiode b
(d) No difference
59) What is the point where the graph touches the X-axis Indicate?
c
(a) Voltage Breakdown
(b) RMS Voltage
(c) Open Circuit Voltage
(d) Short Circuit Voltage
60) What should be the optimum band gap of the semiconductors to be used as
solar cell materials?
(a) 0.5 eV
(b) 1 eV c
(c) 1.5 eV
(d) 1.9 eV
61) Gibbs phase rule for general system:
(a) P+F=C-1 (b) P+F=C+1 (c) P+F=C-2 (d) P+F=C+2 d
Page 7 of 12
62) In a single-component condensed system, if degree of freedom is zero,
maximum number of phasesthat can co-exist. c
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
63) The degree of freedom at triple point in unary diagram

for water . a
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
64) Above the following line, liquid phase exist for all compositions in a phase
diagram. c
(a) Tie-line (b) Solvus (c) Solidus (d) Liquidus
65) Following is wrong about a phase diagram.

(a) It gives information on transformation rates.
(b) Relative amount of different phases can be found under given equilibrium
conditions. a
(c) It indicates the temperature at which different phases start to melt.
(d) Solid solubility limits are depicted by it.
66) Not a Hume-Ruthery condition:

(a) Crystal structure of each element of solid solution must be the same.
(b) Size of atoms of each two elements must not differ by more than 15%. c
(c) Elements should form compounds with each other.
(d) Elements should have the same valence.
67) Pick the odd one in the following:

(a) Isomorphous alloy (b) Terminal solid solution a
(c) Intermediate solid solution (d) Compound
68) The boundary line between (liquid) and (liquid+solid) regions must be part of .
(a) Solvus (b) Solidus (c) Liquidus (d) Tie-line c
69) The boundary line between (liquid+solid) and (solid) regions must be part of .
(a) Solvus (b) Solidus (c) Liquidus (d) Tie-line b
70) The boundary line between (alpha) and (alpha+beta) regions must be part of .
(a) Solvus (b) Solidus (c) Liquidus (d) Tie-line a
71) Horizontal arrest in a cooling curve represents:

(a) Continuous cooling (b) Invariant reaction (c) Both (d) None b
72) Relative amounts of phases in a region can be deduced using

(a) Phase rule (b) Lever rule (c) Either (d) None b
8
73) An invariant reaction that produces a solid up on cooling two liquids:
(a) Eutectic (b) Peritectic (c) Monotectic (d) Syntectic d
74) A solid + a liquid result in a liquid up on heating during ________reaction.

(a) Eutectic (b) Peritectic (c) Monotectic (d) Syntectic c
75) A solid + a liquid result in a solid up on cooling during reaction.

(a) Eutectic (b) Peritectic (c) Monotectic (d) Syntectic b
76) On heating, one solid phase results in another solid phase plus on liquid phase
during ___________reaction. b
(a) Eutectic (b) Peritectic (c) Monotectic (d) Syntectic
77) A solid phase results in a solid plus another solid phase up on cooling during
________________reaction. a
(a) Eutectoid (b) Peritectoid (c) Eutectic (d) Peritectic
78) A solid phase results in a solid plus another solid phase up on heating during
_______________reaction. b
(a) Eutectoid (b) Peritectoid (c) Monotectoid (d) None
79) A liquid phase produces two solid phases during reaction up on

cooling. a
(a) Eutectic (b) Eutectoid (c) Peritectic (d) Peritectoid
80) Liquid phase is involved in the following reaction:

(a) Eutectoid (b) Peritectoid (c) Monotectoid (d) None d
81) Not a basic step of precipitation strengthening

(a) Solutionizing (b) Mixing and compacting (c) Quenching (d) Aging b
82) Both nucleation and growth require change in free energy to be .

(a) –ve (b) zero (c) +ve (d) Any a
83) During homogeneous nucleation, critical size of a particle with

increase in under-cooling.
b
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Won’t chang (d) Not related
84) Not a typical site for nucleation during solid state transformation
(a) Container wall (b) Grain boundaries (c) Stacking faults (d) Dislocations a
Page 9 of 12
85) Growth occurs by
(a) Diffusion controlled individual movement of atoms
(b) Diffusion-less collective movement of atoms c
(c) Both
(d) None
86) Overall transformation rate changes with temperature as follows:

(a) Monotonically decreases with temperature (b) First increases, then decreases
(c) Initially it is slow, and then picks-up (d) Monotonically increases with b
temperature
87) wt.% of carbon in mild steels

(a) <0.008 (b) 0.008-0.3 (c) 03-0.8 (d) 0.8-2.11 b
88) Eutectic product in Fe-C system is called

(a) Pearlite (b) Bainite (c) Ledeburite (d) Spheroidite c
89) Eutectoid product in Fe-C system is called

(a) Pearlite (b) Bainite (c) Ledeburite (d) Spheroidite a
90) Phases that exist on left side of an invariant reaction line are called
(a) Pro-phase (b) Hypo-phase (c) Hyper-phase (d) None c
91) Alloying element that decreases eutectoid temperature in Fe-C system

(a) Mo (b) Si (c) Ti (d) Ni d
92) Nose of a C-curve represents

(a) Shortest time required for specified fraction of transformation
(b) Longest time required for specified fraction of transformation
(c) Average time required for specified fraction of transformation a
(d) No information regarding time required for specified fraction of
transformation
93) Phase formed of diffusion-less reaction:

(a) Pearlite (b) Lower Bainite (c) Upper bainite (d) Martensite d
94) Ms for Fe-C system is round ْC.

(a) 725 (b) 550 (c) 450 (d) 210 d
95) Impurity not responsible for temper embrittlement

(a) Sn (b) Sb (c) Si (d) As c
96) A solar cell converts light energy into __________

a) Electrical energy b) Thermal energy c) Sound energy d) Heat energy a
10
97) Series and parallel combination of the solar cell is known as _________
a) Solar array b) Solar light c) Solar sight d) Solar eye a
98) Full form of FF in the solar field is ____________

a) Form factor b) Fill factor c) Face factor d) Fire factor b
99) Material used for making solar cell is _________

a) Silicon b) Carbon c) Sodium d) Magnesium a
100) What is total amount of solar energy received by earth and atmosphere?
a) 3.8 X 1024 J/year b) 9.2 X 1024 J/year a
c) 5.4 X 1024 J/year d) 2.1 X 1024 J/year
101) The process of converting light (photons) to electricity (voltage) is called:

a)PV effect. b)solar cell. c) radiation. d) none of these a
102) The most expensive type of the solar cells is:

a)AMORPHOUS. b)POLYCRYSTALLINE. c)MONOCRYSTALLINE d) both a & b c
103) All the electricity produced by the solar panels is produced as:
a)AC. b)DC. c) both DC and AC. d)change AC to DC b
104) The device which converts the DC to AC is:

a)transformer. b)relay. c)inverter. d) converter c
105) Energy production from PV systems deponds on: c

a)location. b) wheather. c)both a and b d) none of these
106) A solar cell is a ___________
a) P-type semiconductor b) N-type semiconductor d
c) Intrinsic semiconductor d) P-N Junction
107) Which of the following materials cannot be used as solar cells materials?
a) Si b) GaAs c) CdS d) PbS d
108) What should be the band gap of the semiconductors to be used as solar cell
materials? c
a) 0.5 eV b) 1 eV c) 1.5 eV d) 1.9 eV
109) Which of the following should not be the characteristic of the solar cell material?
a) High Absorption b) High Conductivity c
c) High Energy Band d) High Availability
110) When the source of light is not sun light then the photo voltaic cell is used as
____________ c
a) Photo diode b) Photo voltaic cell
c) Photo detector d) Photo transmitter
Page 11 of 12
111) The region where the electrons and holes diffused across the junction is called
________ b
a) Depletion Junction b) Depletion region
c) Depletion space d) Depletion boundary
112) The amount of photo generated current increases slightly with an increase in
_________ a
a) Temperature b) Photons c) Diode current d) Shunt current
113 __________ is one of the most important materials is also known as solar grade
silicon.
a) Crushed silicon b) Crystalline silicon b
c) Powdered silicon d) Silicon
114 __________ is a direct band gap material.

a) Copper Indium Gallium Selenide b) Copper Selenide a
c) Copper Gallium Telluride d) Copper Indium Gallium Diselenide
115 Dye-sensitized solar cells are made from ________ organic dye.
a) Ruthium melallo b) Aniline c) Safranine d) Induline a
116 Quantum dot solar cells are based on _______ a

a) Gratzel cell b) Solar cell c) Voltaic cell d) Galvanic cell
117 The quantum dot used are _______ a
a) Cds b) CdTe c) PbO d) GaAs
118 The term photo voltaic comes from ________
a) Spanish b) Greek c) German d) English b
119 What are three relevant bands of solar radiation?

a) UV, infrared and far infrared b) UV, visible and infrared b
c) Ultrasonic, infrared and visible d) UV, ultrasonic and near infrared
120 Which of the following is responsible for thermal energy? b
a) UV b) Infrared c) Gamma d) UV-A
12
Physics PHY – 301 ANS
Atomic and Molecular Physics (121701)
Question Bank
1) Zeeman Effect could not be proved by ________ B

A) Quantum Mechanics
B) Bohr’s Model
C) Hamiltonian operators
D) L-S coupling
2) At-higher magnetic fields, the splitting of spectral lines are disturbed. This A
effect is called __________
A) Paschen-back effect
B) Inverse Zeeman Effect
C) Stark Effect
D) Anomalous Zeeman effect
3) The number of split levels in the magnetic field is ________ D

A) 2n
B) 2n + 1
C) 2l
D) 2l + 1
4) Zeeman energy is which energy of a magnetized body? C

a) Magnetic Energy
b) Kinetic Energy
c) Potential Energy
d) Total Energy
1 P.T.O.
5) The number of splitting levels of in 2p orbital would be ________ C
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
6) Zeeman effect is the splitting of spectral line in the presence of ___________ A

a) Magnetic Field
b) Electric Field
c) Inert Environment
d) Vacuum
7) When an electron shifts to an inner shell, it: B
a) Absorbs photon
b) Emits a photon
c) Emits a positron
d) Absorbs a positron
8) Protons attract electrons. Then why do electrons not fall on the nucleus? B
a) Neutrons repel the electrons
b) Electrons in ground state cannot radiate energy
c) At very small distances, protons repel electrons
d) Inner electrons repel those in outer orbitals
9) In atomic emission spectroscopy the graph drawn between D

(A) Emission vs. Concentration
(B) Absorbance Vs Concentration
(C) Absorbance Vs wave length
(D) Emission Vs wave length
2
10) Atomic absorption spectra produce narrow brand with peaks generally called A
as lines because it involves
(A) Electronic transition only
(B) Vibrational transitions only
(C) Rotational transitions only
(D) All of the three transitions
11) The splitting of the spectral lines under the influence of Magnetic field is B
known as
(A) Lorentz effect
(B) Zeeman effect
(C) Doppler’s effect
(D) Self reversal
12) In atomic absorption spectroscopy the most strongly absorbed light is called D
as
(A) anti stokes line
(B) Base line
(C) stokes line
(D) Resonance line
13) In atomic emission spectroscopy the emission due to the electronic transition B
of
(A) Singlet ground state to singlet exited state
(B) Singlet exited state to singlet ground state.
(C) Singlet ground state to triplet exited state
(D) Triplet exited state to singlet ground state
3 P.T.O.
14) The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a sublevel D
for which l = 3 is:
(a) 2
(b) 10
(c) 6
(d) 14
15) Which atomic orbital is spherical in shape? A
(a) 2s
(b) 3p
(c) 3d
(d) 4f
16) Multiple of fine structure of spectral lines is due to: B
A presence of main energy levels
B presence of sub-level
C presence of electronic configuration
D is not a characteristics of the atom.
17) The background in atomic emission spectrum is B

A. light
B. dark
C. pink
D. blue spaces
18) The size of 2s-orbital as compared to 1s-orbital is A

A. large
B. small
C. very large
D. medium
4
19) The value of the azimuthal quantum number always starts from C
A. two
B. one
C. zero
D. one
20) Atomic spectrum can be produced by the help of high temperature or B

A. water pressure
B. electric discharge
C. light
D. sound energy
21) Which of the following transitions between rotational energy levels C

is not allowed?
A) J = 1 → J= 0
B) J = 2 → J= 1
C) J = 3 → J= 2
D) J = 0 → J= 1
22) For which of the following molecules could a pure rotational spectrum not be B
observed in the gas phase?
A)HCL
B)N2
C)CO2
D)NO
5 P.T.O.
23) Which of the following statements is correct about the principal moments of D
inertia of an XY molecule that lies on the A axis in rotational energy levels?
A) IA=IB=IC
B) IA>I B and IB=IC
C) IA=IB and IC = 0
D) IA=0 and IB=IC
24) The IR spectrum of CBr4 has a strong absorption at 667 cm–1. Which is the D
correct assignment of this absorption?
A) The symmetric stretching of the four C–Br bonds
B) A bending mode
C) The stretching of one C–Br bond
D) The asymmetric stretching of the four C–Br bonds
25) Which statement is correct about the vibrational ground state of an A

H2 molecule?
A) The molecule is vibrating
B) In its vibrational ground state, the molecule has no vibrational energy
C) The molecule is in its lowest vibrational level but is not vibrating
D) The molecule is static in its ground state
26) The different types of energies associated with a molecule are __________ D
a) Electronic energy
b) Vibrational energy
c) Rotational energy
d) All of the mentioned
6
27) During the motion, if the centre of gravity of molecule changes, the molecule C
possess __________
b) Rotational energy
c) Translational energy
d) Vibrational energy
28) The correct order of different types of energies is __________ A

a) Eel >> Evib >> Erot >> E tr
b) Eel >> Erot >> Evib >> E tr
c) Eel >> Evib >> Etr >> E rot
d) Etr >> Evib >> Erot >> E el
29) The region of electromagnetic spectrum for nuclear magnetic resonance is B

__________
a) Microwave
b) Radio frequency
c) Infrared
d) UV-rays
30) Which of the following is an application of molecular spectroscopy? D

a) Structural investigation
b) Basis of understanding of colours
c) Study of energetically excited reaction products
7 P.T.O.
31) Select the correct statement from the following option.--- C
a) Spectroscopic methods require less time and more amount of sample than
classical methods
b) Spectroscopic methods require more time and more amount of sample
than classical methods
c) Spectroscopic methods require less time and less amount of sample than
classical methods
d) Spectroscopic methods require more time and less amount of sample than
classical methods
32) The transition zone for Raman spectra is __________ A

a) Between vibrational and rotational levels
b) Between electronic levels
c) Between magnetic levels of nuclei
d) Between magnetic levels of unpaired electrons
33) The criteria for electronic spin resonance is ____________ C

a) Periodic change in polarizability
b) Spin quantum number of nuclei > 0
c) Presence of unpaired electron in a molecule
d) Presence of chromospheres in a molecule
34) For Linear molecules, the ir Moment of inertia are B
A)IA > IB and IB = IC
B) IA =0 and IB = IC
C) IA = IB = IC
D) IA < IB and IB = IC
8
35) Vibrational spectroscopy involves the transitions falling in the spectral range C
of ____________
a) 100-1000 cm-1
b) 300-3000 cm-1
c) 400-4000 cm-1
d) 500-5000 cm-1
36) Rotational energy for a rigid diatomic rotor is quantised with Rotational A
quantum number J ------
A) J = 0,1,2,3 ….
B) J = 1,2,3,…...
C) J =2 ,3,4,…..
D) None of above
37) Selection rule for Raman spectroscopy A
a) ∆J=±1
b) ∆J=0,±1, ±2…
c) ∆J=±2
d) ∆J=0
38) On which factors the vibrational stretching frequencies of diatomic molecule C

depend?
a)Force constant
b) Atomic population
c) Bond order
d) Magnetic field
9 P.T.O.
39) Chemical shifts originates from A
a) Magnetic momentum (nuclear spin),
b) Electron shielding
c) Free induction decay
d) Scalar coupling
40) Which of the following is an application of electronic spectroscopy? D
a) Detection of impurities
b) Control of purification
c) Study of kinetics of the chemical reaction
d) All of the above
41) The electronic spectra in the visible range span is __________ C

a) 25000-72000 cm-1
b) 25000-50000 cm-1
c) 12500-25000 cm-1
d) 15000-30000 cm-1
42) In electronic Spectra, which of the following transitions are of weak A

intensities and lie in the visible region?
a) n→n*
b) σ→σ*
c) π→π*
d) n→σ*
10
43) Which of the following is an application of electronic spectroscopy? D
a) Detection of impurities
b) Control of purification
c) Study of kinetics of the chemical reaction
44) Which of the following statements is wrong? C
A) UV absorption is attributable to electronic transitions.
B) UV spectra provide information about valence electrons
C) IR absorption is attributable to transitions between rotational energy

levels of whole molecules
D) NMR spectrometers use radiofrequency electromagnetic radiation

45) Which of the following statements regarding NMR spectroscopy is wrong? C
A) NMR signals towards the left of the spectral chart correspond to larger
chemical shifts
B) Chemical shifts are larger when the frequencies of the radiation which
induces the nuclear transitions are higher
C) Chemical shifts are larger when shielding effects are greate
D) A hydrogen signal splits into n+1 peaks by spin-spin coupling when the
number of equivalent hydrogen atoms on adjacent atom(s) is n, and no
other neighbouring atoms are involved
46) Raman effect is scattering of ________ D

A) Atoms
B) Molecules
C) Protons
D) Photons
11 P.T.O.
47) The elastic scattering of photons is called as ______ B
a) Atmospheric scattering
b) Rayleigh Scattering
c) Conserved Scattering
d) Raman Scattering
48) Which of the following cannot be conserved during Raman scattering? C

a) Total Energy
b) Momentum
c) Kinetic Energy
d) Electronic Energy
49) In Raman spectroscopy, the radiation lies in the ________ B

a) Microwave Region
b) Visible Region
c) UV Region
d) X-ray Region
50) The Raman spectrum is said to consist of Strokes lines when ________ A
a) Δv > 0
b) Δv < 0
c) Δv = 0
d) Does not depend on Δv
51) The Rama shift generally lies between ________ D

a) 100 – 1000 cm-1
b) 100 – 2000 cm-1
c) 100 – 3000 cm-1
d) 100 – 4000 cm-1
12
52) Raman lines are ________ A
a) Weak
b) Strong
c) Curved
d) Blurry
53) The most commonly used laser for Raman spectroscopy is ___________ C
a) ND: YAG
b) Ruby laser
c) He-Ne laser
d) Semiconductor Laser
54) Which of the following lines are most intense? B

a) Stokes lines
b) Rayleigh-scattered lines
c) Anti-strokes lines
d) All have same intensity
55) For a particular vibrational mode to appear in the Raman spectrum, what D
must change?
a) Frequency of radiation
b) Intensity of radiation
c) Molecule’s shape
d) Molecule’s polarizability
56) Which spectroscopy explores the part of the electromagnetic spectrum which B
extending from 100 to 1cm
a) IR
b) Microwave
c) Raman
d) NMR
13 P.T.O.
57) For rigid rotor and harmonic oscillator The energy of a vibration is A
quantized in discrete levels and given by
A) Ev=hν(v+1/2)
B) Ev=hν
C) Ev=hν(v-1/2)
D) Ev=0
58) During the motion, if the centre of gravity of molecule changes, the molecule C
possess __________
b) Rotational energy
c) Translational energy
d) Vibrational energy
59) The region of electromagnetic spectrum for nuclear magnetic resonance is B

__________
a) Microwave
b) Radio frequency
c) Infrared
d) UV-rays
60) The transition zone for Raman spectra is __________ A

a) Between vibrational and rotational levels
b) Between electronic levels
c) Between magnetic levels of nuclei
d) Between magnetic levels of unpaired electrons
14
61) The criteria for electronic spin resonance is ____________ C
a) Periodic change in polarisability
b) Spin quantum number of nuclei > 0
c) Presence of unpaired electron in a molecule
d) Presence of chromospheres in a molecule
62) Which one of the following nuclei has a magnetic moment (so that an NMR C
experiment can be performed)?
12
a) C
16
b) O
14
c) N
32
d) S
63) At-higher magnetic fields, the splitting of spectral lines are disturbed. This C
effect is called __________
a) Stark Effect
b) Inverse Zeeman Effect
c) Paschen-back effect
d) Anomalous Zeeman effect
64) Spectral lines have wavelength and wave-number which depends upon the A
quantity of
A. energy emitted by electron
B. electrons
C. light
D. atoms
15 P.T.O.
65) The splitting of spectral lines because of electric effect is known as C
A. Zeeman effect
B. electromagnetic effect
C. Stark effect
D. molecular effect
66) The background in atomic emission spectrum is B

E. light
F. dark
G. pink
H. blue spaces
67) Which of the following statements is consistent with an electronic A

absorption being broad?
A) An electronic absorption includes vibrational and rotational structure.
B) The absorption of a photon is slower than the timescale of molecular
vibrations
C) Hydrogen bonding causes an electronic absorption

to be broad.
D) Electronic transitions are always localized on a single atomic centre.
68) The spectra caused in the infrared region by the transition in vibrational C
levels in different modes of vibrations are called
(a) rotational spectra
(b) electronic spectra
(c) vibrational spectra
(d) none of these
16
69) The IR spectra of a compound helps in D
(a) proving the identity of compounds
(b) showing the presence of certain functional groups in the molecule
(c) neither of the above
(d) both of the above
70) The Raman and IR spectra can tell us whether D

(a) a molecule is linear or non-linear
(b) a molecule is symmetrical or asymmetrical
71) The intensity of an absorption band is always proportional to the B

(a) Atomic population
(b) Molecular population of the initial state
(c) Molecular population of the final state
(d) Temperature
72) The vibrational stretching frequency of diatomic molecule depends on C

(a) Force constant
(b) Masses of two atoms
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
73) Since the nuclei in a polyatomic molecule do not always vibrate in a simple B
harmonic manner, there arises
(a) Harmonicity
(b) Anharmonicity in molecular vibrations
(c) Fundamental frequencies
(d) All
17 P.T.O.
74) The vibrations, without a centre of symmetry are, active in A
(a) Infrared active but inactive in Raman
(b) Raman but inactive in IR
(c) Raman and IR
(d) None
75) NMR is the Study of absorption by nuclei of Magnetic field --------------- C
A) Radioactive radiation
B) IR radiation
C) Radio frequency radiation
D) Microwave
76) NMR Spectroscopy is used for determining structure in which of the C

following materials
A) Radioactive Materials
B) Insoluble chemical compounds
C) Liquids
D) Gases
77) NMR Spectroscopy indicates the Chemical nature and spatial position of the D
A) Electron, proton
B) Neutron, Electron
C) Nuclei, Electron
D) Nuclei, Neighbouring nuclei
78) The difference between the field necessary for resonance in the sample and C
in some arbitrary chosen compound is which of the following
A) Field shift
B) Matrix effects
C) Chemical shift
D) Resonance shift
18
79) Which of the following are considered to be the lowest form of D
Electromagnetic radiation
A) IR Radiation
B) Micro waves
C) UV radiation
D) Radio waves
80) In Vibrational spectroscopy, which of the following is not a type of bending B

molecular vibration?
a) Twisting
b) Stretching
c) Wagging
d) Rocking
(d) none of these

(a) Force constant
(d) None
19 P.T.O.
(a) Harmonicity
(d) All
84) The Raman spectrum is said to consist of Strokes lines when ________ C
a) Δv > 0
b) Δv < 0
c) Δv = 0
d) Does not depend on Δv
85) For a particular vibrational mode to appear in the Raman spectrum, what D
must change?
a) Frequency of radiation
b) Intensity of radiation
c) Molecule’s shape
d) Molecule’s polarisability
86) Which of the following lines are most intense? B

a) Stokes lines
b) Rayleigh-scattered lines
c) Anti-strokes lines
d) All have same intensity
20
87) In Raman spectroscopy the radiation lies in the------- B
A) microwave region
B) visible region
C) UV region
D) x-ray region
88) In Raman spectroscopy, energy of change comes from B
A. electron
B. photon
C. ion
D. molecule
89) In NMR spectroscopy the distance between the centres of the peaks of A
doublet is called as?
a) Coupling constant
b) Spin constant
c) Spin-spin coupling
d) Chemical shift
90) Electron Spectroscopy focuses on which of the following information? C

a) Mass of the electron
b) Charge of the electron
c) Binding energy of the electron
d) Mass of atoms
21 P.T.O.
91) In the line spectrum, distinct lines are observed, which are separated by C
A. light spaces
B. yellow spaces
C. dark spaces
D. blue spaces
92) The size of 2s-orbital as compared to 1s-orbital is A

A) large
B) small
C)very large
D) medium
93) The value of the azimuthal quantum number always starts from C
A) two
B) one
C) zero
D) one
94) Atomic spectrum can be produced by the help of high temperature or B

E. water pressure
F. electric discharge
G. light
H. sound energy
22
95) The amplitude of the vibration, q for NO, CO, HCI is 0.048 Å, 0.05 Å, 0.10 A
Å. Thus q is
(A) Larger when the force constant is smaller
(B) Smaller when the force constant is smaller
(C) Larger when the force constant is larger
(D) None
(a) Harmonicity
(d) All
97) The vibrations, without a centre of symmetry are, active in A

(a) Infrared active but inactive in Raman
(b) Raman but inactive in IR
(c) Raman and IR
(d) None
98) In poly atomic molecules, silent vibrations which involve no change of C

dipole moment or polarizability are
(a) IR active but Raman inactive
(b) IR inactive but Raman active
(c) Neither IR active nor Raman active
(d) Both IR and Raman active
23 P.T.O.
(d) none of these
100) The Raman and IR spectra can tell us whether D

(a) a molecule is linear or non-linear
(b) a molecule is symmetrical or asymmetrical
101) Which of the following will show an absorption band at the greatest B
wavenumber?
(a) C=C
(b) C≡C
(c) C=O
(d) C–N

(a) Force constant
(d) None
24
103) Hyperfine splitting in ESR is observed due to surrounding C
(A) Paired electrons
(B) unpaired electrons
(C) Nuclei with I=1/2
(D) All of these
104) Unit for measurement of hyperfine splitting constant in ESR is A
(A) Guass
(B) Tesla/sec
(C) Guass/mm
(D) No units
105) NMR spectroscopy is useful for determining the type and number of A
_______ atoms in organic molecules.
(a) hydrogen
(b) carbon
(c) halogen
(d) hetero atoms
25 P.T.O.
106) More the shielding effect in Molecule A
(a) Lower the chemical shift
(b) No change in chemical shift
(c) Higher the chemical shift
(d) More the peak splitting
107) In atomic absorption spectroscopy the most strongly absorbed light is called A
as
(A) Resonance line
(B) Base line
(C) stokes line
(D) anti stokes line
108) Atomic absorption spectra produce narrow brand with peaks generally called A
as lines because it involves
(A) Electronic transition only
(B) Vibrational transitions only
(C) Rotational transitions only
(D) All of the three transitions
109) In atomic emission spectroscopy the graph drawn between D

(A) Emission vs. Concentration
(B) Absorbance Vs Concentration
(C) Absorbance Vs wave length
(D) Emission Vs wave length
26
110) The main advantage of atomic emission spectroscopy over the atomic B
absorption spectroscopy is
(A) Analysis of metal elements in at very low concentrations
(B) Analysis of multiple elements simultaneously
(C) Analysis of both metals and metalloids
(D) Usage of high energy of excitation
111) Which of the following is the principle of Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy? A
a) Radiation is absorbed by non-excited atoms in vapour state and are excited

to higher states
b) Medium absorbs radiation and transmitted radiation is measured
c) Colour is measured
d) Colour is simply observed
112) The net dipole moment of the molecule is C

(a) sum of all individual bond moments
(b) product of all individual bond moments
(c) vector resultant of all the individual bond moments
(d) none of the aboveC
113) C
The molecules which have partial positive charge at one end and a partial negat
ive charge at the other are called
(a) ion-pairs
(b)charged molecules
(c) dipoles
(d)electric molecules
27 P.T.O.
114) Choose the CORRECT statement from the following C
a) ¹³C has more gyromagnetic ration than 1H
b) ¹³C NMR shows more homonuclear coupling than 1H NMR
c) ¹³C NMR requires large samples
d) In ¹³C NMR, chemical shift decreases with increasing electronegativity
115) The actual value of nuclear spin depends on C
(a) Mass number
(b) Atomic number
(c) Both a and b
(d) Shielding effect
116) For which of the following molecules would you expect the infrared active B
fundamentals to be Raman inactive and vice versa?
A) NO2
B) fluorobenzene
C) benzene
D) fluoroethene
117) For Asymmetric top molecule their moments of inertia depending on D

A) IC = IB , IA = 0
B) IC = IB = IA
C) IC = IB > IA
D) IC > IB > IA Asymmetric top
28
118) For Linear molecules molecule their moments of inertia depending on A
A) IC = IB , IA = 0
B) IC = IB = IA
C) IC = IB > IA
119) For Spherical top molecule their moments of inertia depending on B
A) IC = IB , IA = 0
B) IC = IB = IA
C) IC = IB > IA
120) For Symmetric top molecule their moments of inertia depending on C
A) IC = IB , IA = 0
B ) IC = IB = IA
C) IC = IB > IA
121) Transitions observed in the rotational spectrum for the transition; J = 0 → J B
=1
A) 1B
B) 2B
C) 3B
D) 4B
122) Transitions observed in the rotational spectrum for the transition; J = 1→ J D
=2
A) 1B
B) 2B
C) 3B
D) 4B
29 P.T.O.
123) Transitions observed in the rotational spectrum for the transition; J = 2 → J C
=3
A) 2B
B) 4B
C) 6B
D) 8B
124) Visible spectroscopy wavelength range is ? C
A). 200 nm to 300nm
B). 200nm to 400nm
C). 400nm to 800 nm
D). All of the above
125) Which movement is required for the IR spectroscopy ? A

A. Dipole movement
B. Spin movement
C. Round movement
D. All of the above
126) Which IR frequency are absorbed by compound ? A

A. Applied frequency of the IR is equal to the natural frequency of the
compound
B.Applied frequency of the IR is low to the natural frequency of the
compound
C.Applied frequency of the IR is greater to the natural frequency of the
compound
D. None of this.
**********
30
QUESTION BANK ANS
PHY-302(A): Materials Synthesis and Preliminary Analysis

Unit 1
Nucleation , Growth of Thin Films and Single crystal
Single crystals
1 Which is/are Steps in thin film growth D 1
(A) Separation of particles from source (heating, high voltage) (B) Transport
(C) Condensation on substrate (D)all of these
2 Why crystal growth is important C 1
(A)to increase the value of the product (B)to increase the size of compound
(C)information about the structure of the compound
(D)information regarding the quality of product
3 What is purpose of seed crystal in crystal growth A 1
(A)nucleation centre (B)catalyst (C)solvent (D)solution
4 Which is /are the initial stages of film growth D 1
(A) Nucleation (B) Island growth and coarsening
(C) Coalescence and percolation (D)all of these
5 Nucleation processes are classified as ---------- C 1
(A)heterogeneous (B)homogeneous (C)both A and B (D)None
6 What is the disadvantage of using a solution growth method for the growth of the C 1
crystals?
(A) rapid growth rates (B) simple apparatus
(C)slow growth rates (D)isothermal conditions
7 How thin films are different from the bulk materials? D 1
(A)Lower in density (compared to bulk analog) (B) Different defect structures from bulk
(C) Strongly influenced by surface and interface effects (D)all of these
8 ----------- is a PVD technique in which the bulk material is released in to vaccum by B 1
bombardment from an iron source
(A)splattering (B)sputtering (C)splashing (D)spreading
9 ------------- involves deposition successive layers of different substances to produce A 1
layered crystalline films
(A)atomic layer chemical vapour deposition
(B)combustion chemical vapour deposition
(C)low pressure chemical vapour deposition
(D)plasma enhanced chemical vapour deposition
10 Which of the following has no role in selecting the type of growth technique? C 1
(A) Thickness of the film (B) Stress on the film
(C) Temperature of the film (D) Purity of the film
11 Thin films are most commonly prepared by the ------------------ of atoms, from the A 1
vapour phase of material.
(A)Condensation (B)sputtering (C) evaporation (D)ionization
crystals?
(A) Rapid growth rates (B) Simple apparatus
(C) Slow growth rates (D) Isothermal conditions
13 Which of following are thin film deposition techniques D 1
(A)Thermal evaporation (B)chemical vapour deposition,
(C) chemical spray method (D)all of these
14 Which technology is used to get cheap resistors and capacitors? B 1
(A) Thick film technology (B) Thin film technology
(C) Thin and thick film technology (D) None of the mentioned
15 Which is not use of single crystal C 1
(A)used in fabrication of semiconductors (B)used for lasers and non linear optics
(C)used in mathematical research (D)production of high strength materials
16 Nucleation and cluster formation are explained by C 1
(A)capillary model (B)statistical model (C) both A and B (D)none of these
17 Which is/are demerits of gel method A 1
(A)the growing crystal may be stick to the wall of the test tube
(B)The method is simple, inexpensive (c)crystal can be grown by this method
(D)less power consumption and does not required any furnace
18 Which are the mechanical properties of thin films D 1
(A)Adhesion (B) hardness (C) roughness (D)All of these
19 Which type of material is used for anode in electroplating technique A 1
(A)metal (B) ceramic (C) insulators (D)semiconductors
20 A ------------------ is defined by long-range atomic order extending over many atomic A A 1 1
diameters, and having a repetitive structure.
(A)single crystal (B)diamond (C)Ion beam (D)nanotubes

21 ------------ is the net result of an equilibrium between the adsorption and desorption A 1
(A)Condensation (B)sputtering (C) evaporation (D)ionization
22 Which of following is crystal growth method D 1
(A) Growth from melt (B)Growth from vapour
(C)Solution growth (D) all of these
23 The birth of new crystals is called ---------------. B 1
(A)germination (B)nucleation (C)deposition (D)growth
24 The factor which governs the durability of film is called B 1
(A)attraction (B)adhesion (C)ductility (D)conductivity
25 The gel is a ___________ mass. B 1
(A) Heavy molecular (B) Semi rigid (C) Rigid (D) Light molecular
26 Which are the fundamental steps of film formation? D 1

(A)close packing of particles due to water evaporation
(B)deposition of particles (C)polymer diffusion (D)all of these
27 The crystal growth rate is dependent on the super saturation and the -------- of the A 1
crystal exposed to the growth.
(A)Area (B)length (C) Volume (D)density
28 __________ undergo hydrolysis and poly condensation reactions. D 1
(A) Metal ions (B) Metal carbonates (C) Metal nitrates (D) Metal oxides
29 The shape of the growing crystals is affected by which of following factors D 1

(A)temperature variation (B) impurities in the solution
(C) variation of pH of the solution (D)all of these
crystals?
(A) Rapid growth rates (B) Simple apparatus
(C) Slow growth rates (D) Isothermal conditions
31 Gel method, growth by Flux method and Hydro thermal growth are methods for C 1
growing ----------
(A)thick film (B)Thin Film (C)single crystal (D)all of these
3 P.T.O.
32 Any crystal growth process by solution method involves steps D 1
(A)attainment of super saturation (B) formation of critical nucleus
(C) growth of a crystal (D) all of these
33 Hydrothermal method can be a useful technique for___________ C 1
(A) Growing liquid CO2 (B) Growing amorphous solid
(C) Growing single crystals (D) Growing Gaseous particles
34 Czochralski method is also known as B 1
(A) crystal growth (B) crystal pulling (C) zone mlting (D) sputtering
35 Single crystal shows which of following property D 1
(A)crystals have rigidity (B) fixed shape (C)mechanical strength (D)all of these
36 Growth from melt, Growth from vapour, Solution growth are methods of C 1
(A)Sputtering (B) Thermal Evaporation Method
(C)crystal growth (D) Molecular Beam Epitaxy
Unit 2
Physical Vapour Deposition Techniques
37 In --------- technique substrate is placed in vaccum chamber D 2
(A)vaccum thermal evaporation (B)electron beam evaporation
(C)LASER beam evaporation (D)chemical vapour deposition
38 For which of the following physical deposition technique is not suitable? A 2
(A) Deep trenches (B) Flat surfaces
(C) Wafer of very reactive material (D) Rough surfaces
39
40 Electroplating technique is suitable for D 2
(A) Making conduction film of ceramic (B)coating with considerable thickness
(C)coating without use of electric current (D)making conduction film of gold or
copper
41 Which of following is type of evaporation B 2
(A)Radio Frequency (B) Electron beam
(C) Laser chemical vapour deposition (D) Face Target

42 The source material to be deposited is evaporated in a vacuum by using an electron B 2
beam or resistive heating inside a high vacuum coating chamber
(A) Sputtering (B) Thermal Evaporation Method
(C) Molecular Beam Epitaxy (D) none of these
43 What will be the sputtering yield if the incident angle is 900 C 2
(A) 1 (B) 0.5 (C) 0 (D) 0.4
44 Factors affecting glow discharge D 2
(A)pressure (B)deposition control (C)distance between electrodes (D)all of these
45 Thermal accommodation is also known as C 2
(A)Condensation coefficient (B)sputtering constant
(C) sticking coefficient (D)ionization constant
46 How much kinetic energy required in evaporation techniques used for thin film A 2
preparation
(A) 0.5Ev (B) 2eV (C) 3eV (D) 4eV
47 The ejection of atoms from the surface of material by bombardment with energetic A 2
particles is called ------------------
(A)sputtering (B)molecular epitxy (C)ionisation (D)dispersion
48 What is the range of incident angle for sputtering technique C 2
(A)300-400 (B)450-550 (C)600-700 (D) 750-900
49 How is the process of film deposition carried out in cathode sputtering? A 2
(A) Slower than evaporation method (B) Faster than evaporation method
(C) Similar to same as evaporation method (D) All of the mentioned
50 Thermal evaporation may not be achieved directly or indirectly by which method C 2
(A)Resistance heating, (B)Flash evaporation
(C)volume epitaxy (D)R.F.heating,
51 Which is not method of sputtering A 2
(A)anode sputtering (B)glow discharge sputtering
(C)Ion beam sputtering (D)R.F. sputtering
52 Identify the method from below which is not a typical PVD technique B 2
(A)Direct current (B) evaporation (B) Electro-plating (C) Ion plating (D)RF sputtering
53 In sputtering, the target serves as the A 2
(A) Cathode (B)Anode (C) Neutral electrode (D)all of these
5 P.T.O.
54 Which is advantage of sputtering D 2
(A)preserves stoichiometry of multi component compounds
(B)films shows good adhesion (C)low temperature epitaxy (D) all of these
55 The rapid evaporation of multicomponent alloy or compound which tend to distill B 2
fractionally is called -------------
(A)Resistance heating (B)Flash evaporation (C)volume epitaxy (D)R.F.heating
56 Which are not feature of low pressure sputtering C 2
(A)decrease influence of gas atoms (B)smaller collision loses
(C)higher concentration of trapped gas atoms
(D)higher mean energy of ejected atoms
57 In ion plating, the process involves A 2
(A) Thermal evaporation followed by ionization within plasma and deposition as neutral
atoms (B)Sputtering followed ionization in plasma and deposition by implantation
(C) Sputtering followed by chemical reaction and deposition as neutral atoms
(D) Evaporation followed by acceleration and implantation as ions
58 Sputtering variants are--------- D 2
(A)D.C glow discharge (B)DC bias (C)ion plating (D)all of these
59 C 2
In this equation γ is the --------- of ad. Atoms
(A)rotational frequency (B) translational frequency
(C) vibrational frequency (D)all of these
60 Heating the material with resistively heating filament is called A 2
(A)Resistance heating (B)Flash evaporation
(C)volume epitaxy (D)sputtering
Unit 3
Chemical vapour deposition Techniques
61 The processes in which many monomers combine chemically to form large chainlike D 3
molecule is called------------
(A)sublimation (B)Deposition (C) compression (D)polymerization
62 The polymerization processes probably results in loss of ------------------ by A 3
breaking the carbon chain in a hydrocarbons
(A) Hydrogen (B)nitrogen (C)carbon (D) all of these

63 Thermal decomposition of a compound to deposit stable residue is called B 3
(A)halide disproportionation (B)Pyrolysis
(C)Hydrogen reduction (D)polymerization
64 Chemical reactions not involved in CVD is ---------------- A 3
(A)halide mixing (B)Pyrolysis (C)Hydrogen reduction D)polymerization
65 The processes in which many monomers combine chemically to form large chainlike D 3
molecule is called------------
(A)sublimation (B)Deposition (C) compression (D)polymerization
66 Drawback of chemical vapour deposition technique D 3
(A)limitation in particle size (B)required a higher temperature
(C)required high pressure (D)both A and B
67 Low pressure chemical vapour deposition (LPCVD) is used to_____ D 3
(A) increase the purity of the film (B) to reduce the roughness of the film
(C) to form thick films (D) to reduce stress on the film
68 --------------------- is a vacuum deposition method used to produce high quality, and A 3
high-performance, solid materials
(A)chemical vapour deposition (B)chemical bath deposition
(C)physical vapour deposition (D)none of thses
Unit 4
Chemical Bath Deposition Techniques
69 A process of electroplating, in which metals ions from the solutions are deposited on B 4
the cathode as a thin film in the presence of an applied external field is known
as____________
(A) Electrodeless deposition (B) Cathodic deposition
(C) Anodic oxidation ( D) Thermal oxidation
70 Which parameters should taken in to account during deposition processes in CBD D 4
(A)bath temperature (B)Substrate rotation (C)PH of solution (D) all of these
71 Block diagram of air pressure spray pyrolysis not shows C 4
(A)spray gun (B)heater with substrate (C)CRT tube (D) air compressor
72 Electroplating technique is suitable for ------------- D 4
(A) Making conduction films ceramic (B) Coating with considerable thickness
(C) Coating without use of electric current (D) Making conduction films of gold or copper
7 P.T.O.
73 What is full form of SILAR C 4
(A)simultaneous induced layer absorption and reaction
(B)simple ionic layer absorption and reaction
(C)successive ionic layer of adsorption and reaction
(D) successive induced layer absorption and reaction
74 Steps involved in CBD are -------- C 4
(A)nucleation (B)crystal growth (C) both A and B (D)none
75 Which of these techniques require an external current source for deposition of C 4
metallic ions on substrate
(A) Electroless plating (B)CBD (C)electroplating (D)dip coating
76 Nozzle to substrate distance, concentration of precursor and substrate temperature B 4
are important parameters in -------------- technique
A) sputtering (B)spray pyrolysis (C)CVD (D)CBD
77 Which is/are Chemical Spray Method C 4
(A)air pressure spray pyrolysis (B) Ultrasonic spray pyrolysis
(C) both A and B (D) none of these
78 Mechanisms of chemical bath deposition shows involves which process D 4
(A) Ion-by-Ion mechanism (B) Hydroxide cluster mechanism,
(C) complex decomposition mechanism (D)all of these
79 To prepare nanostructured films which method is suitable B 4
(A)air pressure spray pyrolysis (B) Ultrasonic spray pyrolysis
(C) both A and B (D) none of these
80 Which process is used to deposit metals on glass, ceramic and plastic? C 4
(A) Silk plating technique (B) Gas plating technique
(C) Electrodeless plating technique (D) Electroplating technique
81 Sol-gel method can produce __________ systems. A 4
(A) Uniform multi component (B) Non uniform multi component
(C) Multi component (D) Non uniform multi component
82 --------- is an aerosol process that atomizes a solution and heats the droplets to B 4
produce solid particles.
(A)sputtering (B)spray Pyrolysis (C)Hydrogen reduction (D)polymerization

83 -------------- in CBD can occur by homogenously or heterogeneously depend on the B 4
deposition mechanism
(A)Growth (B)Nucleation (C)Hydrogen reduction (D)polymerization
84 The material deposited by CBD should satisfy which requirement D 4
(A)compound should chemically stable (B)compound can made by simple precipitation
(C) compound should insoluble in solution (D)all of these
85 The factors control particle formation in spray pyrolysis is/are D 4
(A) Evaporation of liquid droplets (B) evaporation from solution droplets
(C) temperature ofliquid droplets (D)All of these
86 The stress is exerted on the liquid which flow through the capillary nozzle by A 4
applying high electric field while the substrate is kept at ground potential this
method is known as
(A)electro spraying deposition (B) Thermal Evaporation Method
(C) Molecular Beam Epitaxy (D) none of these
87 The nature of the film is as that of the bulk material. It is possible to obtain different D 4
phases by varying the deposition parameter-----------------
(A) Substrate Temperature (B) The concentration of the solution
(C) Rate of carrier flow (d) All of these
88 Advantages of Sol-Gel process D 4
(A) Coating of large surface using sol gel method is very easy.
(B) Capable of making small thickness films.
(C) It provides high optical and quality films. (D)ALL of these
89 Which process is used to deposit metals on glass, ceramic and plastic C 4
(A)silk plating technique (B)glass plating technique
(C)Electroless plating technique (D)electroplating technique
90 In sol-gel deposition technique different materials can be obtained depending on D 4
(A)type of precursor (B)the temperature (C)addition of other compound
(D)all the above
91 ------ technique is multistep process A 4
(A)sol gel deposition (B)chemical bath deposition (C)sputtering (D)spray pyrolysis
9 P.T.O.
92 ------ technique produces film using a simple process with little infrastructure at low B 4
temperature and low coast
(A)chemical vapour deposition (B)chemical bath deposition
(C)sol gel deposition (D)spray pyrolysis
93 Chemical bath deposition method of thin film deposition using ---------- C 4
(A)atomised precursor solution (B) ionised precursor solution
(C) aqueous precursor solution (D) all of above
94 Chemical bath deposition is also called as --------- B 4
(A)chemical vapour deposition (B)chemical solution deposition
(C)sol gel deposition (D) chemical solid deposition
Unit 5
Thick film deposition techniques
95 The material used for thick screen meshes D 5
(A)polyester (B) nylon (C) stainless steel (D)all of these
96 ------------------ is the process of transferring an ink through a patterned woven mesh B 5
screen or stencil using a squeegee.
(A)board printing (B) screen printing (C) deposition (D)All of these
97 For many of the metal, ceramic and glass inks used in thick film processes a ----------- C 5
is required to fix the layers in position permanently on the substrate.
(A)furnacing (B) polishing (C) firing (D)none of these
98 --------------- technology is traditionally an additive process, that is the various A 5
components are produced on the substrate by applying ‘inks’ and are added
sequentially to produce the required conductor patterns and resistor values.
(A)Thick film (B)Thin film (C)both A and B (D)none of these
99 What is squeegee used in screen printing B 5
(A)flexible rod (B) flexible blade (C) rotating head (D)moving nail
100 Inks in thick films are commonly prepared by mixing the -------------------to produce a C 5
paste for screen-printing.
(A)metal or ceramic powders (B) organic solvent
(C) both A and B (D)none of these
101 Most used substrates for a thick-film process are either 94 or 96% ----------- B 5
(A)silver (B)Alumina (C)copper (D)gold

102 Which of the following process is involve in thick film technology C 5
(A) Screen printing (B) Ceramic firing
(C) Silk screening (D) All of the mentioned
103 Thick-film technology is used to produce electronic devices/modules such as------------ D 5
---------
(A)surface mount devices modules (B)hybrid integrated circuits,
(C)heating elements (D)all of above
104 Typically thick film circuit substrates is/are ----------- C 5
(A)Al2O3/alumina (B) stainless steel (C) both A and B (D) copper
105 In thick film deposition technique ---------------- is required to fix the layers in A 5
position permanently on the substrate.
(A)firing (B)lasering substrate (C)ink preparation (D)all of these
Unit 6
Thickness measurement and Electrical Properties of films
106 What is TEP? D 6
(A)temperature electron path (B) Thermo electron phase
(C)thermo electron power (D) Thermo electric power
107 Stylus method use for D 6
(A)measure film thickness (B) roughness of surface
(C)surface finishes (D)all of these
108 Method of Thickness measurements is ---------- A 6
(A)Quartz crystal microbalance (B) molecular epitxy
(C)A and B (D)none of these
109 ------------------- Measurement techniques are based on different principles such as the B 6
mass difference, light absorption, interference effects, capacitance of the films.
A) film purity (B) film thickness (C) film composition (D)all of these
110 Among other variables, deposition rate and thickness is principally influenced by C 6
the:
(A)Only temperature (B) Only boiling point
(C)Temperature, boiling point, vapour pressure of the target
(D)Temperature, melting and boiling point, vapour pressure, density and thermal
conductivity of
11 P.T.O.
111 TEP measures magnitude of an induced thermoelectric voltage in response to a A 6
temperature difference across that material as induced by the ------------------
(A)seeback effect (B)counter effect (C)Meissner effect (D) steric effect
112 Which of the following parameters can’t be found with Hall Effect? D 6
(A) Polarity (B)Conductivity (C) Carrier concentration (D) Area of the device
113 This is schematic diagram of ---------- method of thickness measurement. C 6
(A)Optical interference technique
(B)Multiple beam interferometry
(C) Stylus
(D)Quartz crystal microbalance
114 Hall Effect is clearly visible in _______________ B 6

(A) Pure conductors (B)Semiconductors (C) Super conductors (D) Metals
115 Which of the following formulae doesn’t account for correct expression for J? D 6
(A) ρv (B) I/wd (C) σE (D) µH
116 Hall effect can be used to measure C 6

(A)Magnetic field intensity (B)Electric field intensity
(C)Carrier concentration (D)None of the above
117 Fizeau & FECO have been developed for thickness measurement based on ------- A 6
(A)Multiple beam interferometry (B) Stylus
(D)Quartz crystal microbalance (D) All of these
118 Merit of four probe method of determining resistivity is that C 6
(A) it needs very small current (B)it gives the average resistivity of the sample
(C)it gives the resistivity at a localized region of the sample
(D) it injects excess minority carriers
119 B 6
This equation gives relation between resistivity and temperature
for ----------measurement.
(A)hall effect (B) four probe (C) two probe (B)none of these
120 In Quarz crystal monitor resonance frequency f‘ is inversely proportional to -------- A 6
(A)wafer thickness (B) velocity of propagation of wave
(c)wafer conductivity (D) all of these

121 Which is application of four probe instrument D 6
(A) Accurate geometry factor estimation (B)Characterization of fuel cells bipolar plates
(C)Induction hardening process (D) ALL OF THESE
122 In Hall Effect, the electric field applied is perpendicular to both current and A 6
magnetic field?
(A) True (B) False
123 Which are the disadvantages of Fringes of Equal Chromatic Order (FECO) C 6
interferometer
(A) data only along a line and (B) the sample being measured must have a high reflectivity
(C)both A and B (D)none of these
124 Hall Effect is a/an _____________ C 6
(A) Electronic (B) Magnetic (C) Galvanic (D) Ionizing
125 In four probe a -------------- is passed through the two probes and the potential drop A 6
V across the middle two probes is measured.
A) constant current (B) magnetic field (C) magnetic flux (D) force
126 Which is/are techniques for the measurement of thickness of the film D 6
(A) Multiple beam interference (B) Ellipsometry
(C) Quartz Crystal Monitor (D)ALL of these
127 Signal waveform used for thickness measurement is B 6
(A)Audio waves (B)Ultrasonic waves.
(C)High frequency waves from 16 KHz to 20KHz.
(D)None of the above
128 For thickness measurement the probes must provide a D 6
(A)greater quantity of energy into material.
(B)resistance to high temperatures physical stresses without damage.
(C)good grip between both surfaces ensures that the instrument operates at its best and
provides a realistic and reliable measurement.
(D)All of the above.
13 P.T.O.
PHYSICS: PHY-303 (A) A
Systematic Materials Analysis (121731) N
S
1) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) is a type of …………. technique. A
A) Spectroscopic B) Microscopic
C) Electrochemical D) Chromatographic
2) Energy dispersive spectroscopy is a type of …………. technique. B
3) What does HPLC stands for? A
A) High performance liquid chromatography
B) High pressure liquid chromatography
C) High plasma liquid chromatography
D) High pressure liquified chromatography
4) Which type of electromagnetic radiation has the maximum energy? C
A) X rays B) Radio waves C) Gamma rays D) Microwaves
5) Which type of electromagnetic radiation has high penetrating power? C
6) Which type of electromagnetic radiation has the longest wavelength? B
7) Which type of electromagnetic radiation has the shortest wavelength? C
8) The unit of wave number is ………. B
A) Hertz B) m-1 C) meter D) cycles/sec
9) The distance between two successive maxima on an electromagnetic wave is called C
as ………………
A) Velocity B) Wave number C) Wavelength D) Frequency
10) Electromagnetic waves travel at a speed of ……… B
A) Sound B) light C) Aeroplane D) None of these
1
11) Electromagnetic waves are………….. in nature. B
A) longitudinal B) transverse
12) Non destructive technique is used to determine…………... D
A) chemical composition B) location of defects
C) corrosion of metals D) All of these
13) Destructive technique is used to determine…………... D
A) strength B) hardness C) ductility D) all of the above
14) The region of electromagnetic spectrum extended from red colour of visible B
spectrum is …………..
A) X rays B) IR rays C) Gamma rays D) Microwaves
15) A wave with a large wavelength will have …….. frequency and ……….. energy. D
A) High, Low B) High, High
C) Low, High D) Low, Low
16) Electromagnetic waves are produced by …………. B
A) moving charge B) accelerated charge
C) charged particles D) static charge
17) Electron Spin Resonance (ESR) is a type of …………. technique. A
18) Voltametric technique is a type of …………. technique. C
19) Potentiometric technique is a type of …………. technique. C
20) Fluoroscence and phosphorescence are the types of …………. technique. A
2
21) Amperometric technique is a type of …………. technique. C
22) Electromagnetic radiation exhibits ………….. characteristics. C
A) Wave B) Particle
23) Electromagnetic wave is characterized by certain parameters such as…………. D
A) wavelength B) frequency
C) Wavenumber D) All of the above
24) Wave number is defined by an equation………… A
A) ̅ = B) ̅ = C) ̅ = D) None the above
25) Energy of each photon is proportional to the ……………… of radiation. B

A) wavelength B) frequency
26) The region of electromagnetic spectrum that can be detected by human eye is B
…………..
A) X rays B) Visible rays C) Gamma rays D) Microwaves
27) The wavelength range of Near IR region is …………. A
A) 0.8 mm to 2.5 mm B) 2.5 mm to 50 mm
C) 50 mm to 100 mm D) 100 mm to 125 mm
28) Which temperature range is required for Nernst glower to produce IR radiation? D
A) 1000C -3000C B) 3000C -7000C
C) 7000C -10000C D) 10000C -18000C
29) Which of the following is not a composition of Nernst Glower? D
A) Thorium B) Zirconium C) Yttrium D) Barium
30) What is the composition of Globar rod which is used as a source in IR spectroscopy? C
A) Silver carbide B) Silver dioxide
C) Silicon carbide D) Silicon dioxide
3
31) Photoconductive cell is a type of ………….. used in IR spectrophotometer. C
A) source B) monochromator
C) detector D) none of these
32) Bolometer is a type of detector, is also known as ……………. B
A) Themocouple B) Thermistor
C) Golay cell D) None of these
33) Which of the following is the principle of Golay cell which is used as a detector in A
IR spectroscopy?
A) Expansion of gas upon heating
B) Increase in resistance due to an increase in temperature
C) Decrease in resistance due to an increase in temperature
D) Temperature difference gives rise to a potential difference in the material
34) In rotational spectrum, the transitions are only observed between rotational levels of A
∆J = ………….
A) ± 1 B) +1 C) ± 2 D) +2
35) Prolate is a type of ……………. Molecules. B
A) Spherical B) Symmetric C) Asymmetric D) Linear
36) Oblate is a type of ……………. Molecules. B
37) When the molecule has all the moment of inertia identical, the molecule is said to A
be a ……………
38) For pure vibrational spectra, the selection rule is ………... C
A) 0 B) + 1 C) ± 1 D) ± 2
39) When all the atoms of the molecules are arranged in a straight line, then the molecule D
is said to be …………….
4
40) Which of the following statement is wrong regarding the IR Spectroscopy? B
A) Determines the presence of an impurity in organic compound.
B) Determines the molecular weight.
C) Used to identify the functional groups in organic compounds.
D) Determines the presence of H2O molecule.
41)…………. spectroscopy is generally used to identify the functional groups in organic C
compounds.
A) A) Ultraviolet B) Visible C) Infrared D) EDAX
42) The IR region is divided into ................. regions. B
A) two B) three C) four D) None of these
43) The frequency of vibration of HCl molecule is about ………. D
A) 7.8 x 1013/sec B) 6.8 x 1013/sec
C) 6.7 x 1013/sec D) 8.7 x 1013/sec
44) The rotational energy of diatomic molecule is given by Er = ………... C
A) Bh(J+1) B) BJ(J+1) C) BhJ(J+1) D) BhJ
45) For J = 7, the value of rotational energy is ………….. D
A) 12Bh B) 30Bh C) 42Bh D) 56Bh
46) For J = 3, the value of rotational energy is ………….. B
A) 6Bh B) 12Bh C) 20Bh D) 30Bh
47) For J = 5, the value of rotational energy is ………….. D
48) For J = 2, the value of rotational energy is ………….. A
49) The vibrational energy of diatomic molecule is given by …………… B
A) = + ℎ B) = + ℎ
C) = + D) None of the above
50) Nernst Glower is a ………….. used in IR spectrophotometer. B

A) monochromator B) source
C) detector D) None of the above
5
51) Thermocouple is a ………….. used in IR spectrophotometer. C
52) Golay cell is a ………….. used in IR spectrophotometer. C
53) ……….. spectroscopy is used to detect the presence of an impurity in an organic A
compound.
A) IR B) UV C) X-ray D) STM
54) ………. spectroscopy is generally used for the identification of functional groups A
and structure of organic compounds.
55) The wavelength range of visible light is about………… D
A) 400 nm – 600 nm B) 0.01 nm to 10 nm
C) 10 nm to 400 nm D) 400 nm to 750 nm
56) ………… is used to study the presence of water in a sample. A
57) According to the Beer-Lambert law, on which of the following absorbance does not C
depend?
A) Concentration of the solution
B) Extinction coefficient of the sample
C) Colour of the solution
D) Distance of radiation travelled through sample
58) We can determine the molecular weight of any compound by using ………… B
spectroscopy.
59) Beer-Lambert’s law gives the relation between which of the following? D
A) Reflected radiation and concentration
B) Scattered radiation and concentration
C) Energy absorption and reflected radiation
D) Energy absorption and concentration
6
60) UV-Visible spectroscopy of organic compounds is usually concerned with which C
electronic transitions?
A) n → σ* B) σ → σ*
C) n → π* and π → π* D) None of these
61) The detector used in double beam UV spectrophotometer are .............. C
A) Photo cell B) Photomultiplier tube
C) Both (A) and (B) D) None of these
62) Which of the following statements is false about single beam absorption A
instruments?
A) Beam splitter is used to get parallel beam
B) Tungsten bulb is used as a source
C) Photovoltaic cell as detector
D) Prism and grating are used as a monochromator
63) Which colour has longest wavelength in visible light? D
A) Orange B) Violet C) Blue D) Red
64) Which colour has shortest wavelength in visible light? B
A) Orange B) Violet C) Blue D) Red
65) Which of the following transitions are of weak intensities and lie in the visible A
region?
A) n→n* B) σ→σ* C) π→π* D) n→σ*
66) The photomultiplier tube is used as a detector in ……………. C
A) SEM B) STM
C) Double beam UV spectrophotometer D) X-Ray diffraction
67) Arrange the various electronic transitions in the order of increasing energy. B
A) n→σ* < π→π* < n→π* < σ→σ* B) n→π* < π→π* < n→σ* < σ→σ*
C) n→σ* < n→π* < π→π* < σ→σ* D) σ→σ* < π→π* < n→π* < n→σ*
7
68) What is a chromophore? B
A) A coloured compound
B) A group of atoms in a coloured compound
C) A group of atoms in a compound responsible for visible radiation
D) None of these
69) …………..is a group of atoms and electrons forming a part of the molecule that B
absorbs light at specific frequency or wavelength and imparts colour to a molecule.
A) Bolometer B) Chromophore
C) Golay cell D) None of the above
70) Which statement is false about Chromophore ? C
A) It is covalent unsaturated compound.
B) It contains π electron.
C) Requires high energy for electron transition.
D) Requires low energy for electron transition.
71) Chromophore can be arised in how many forms? B
A) one B) two C) three D) four
72) ………… electrons are involved in unsaturated hydrocarbons consisting of double A
and triple covalent bonds between the adjacent carbon atoms.
A) π B) σ C) n D) All of the above
73) ………… electrons are involved in saturated hydrocarbons consisting of single B
covalent bond between the carbon and hydrogen atoms.
74) ………… electrons are are not involved in bonding between the adjacent atoms in C
the molecules.
75) The percent transmittance (%T) is the percentage of light ……… by the sample. B
A) absorbed B) not absorbed
C) emitted D) reflected
76) ………… is defined as the ratio of intensity of transmitted light to the intensity of B
incident light.
A) Absorbance B) Transmittance
C) Beer’s law D) Lambert’s law
8
77) ………. is defined as the product of absorbtivity, concentration of absorbing A
molecules and thickness of the medium.
A) Absorbance B) Transmittance
C) Beer’s law D) Lambert’s law
78) Absorbance is defined by an equation………. B
A) A= nct B) A= ϵct C) A= ϵbt D) A= nϵt
79) The source used in double beam UV spectrophotometer is ……………….. D
A) Laser light B) Tube light
C) Incandescent lamp D) Tungsten lamp
80) ................ solids are formed when the atoms do not get sufficient time to undergo C
periodic arrangement.
A) Single crystals B) Poly crystalline
C) Non crystalline D) None of these
81) In powder X-ray diffraction method, the powder sample is contained in which of the A
following?
A) Glass capillary tube B) Test tube
C) Glass flask D) Corvette
82) The Bragg angle θ is fixed in …………... diffraction method. B
A) Powder B) Laue C) Rotating crystal D) All the above
83) In Bragg’s equation 2dSinθ = nλ, θ is the angle between …………… C
A) incident rays and specimen surface
B) incident rays and normal to specimen surface
C) incident rays and parallel lattice planes
D) incident rays and normal to parallel lattice planes
84) NaCl has ………… structure. C
A) SC B) BCC C) FCC D) None of these
85) Which Part of X -ray diffraction instrument allows crystal to be rotated to a precise B
angle position?
A) Collimator B) Goniometer
C) Nernst Glower D) Photographic film
9
86) The scattering of X-rays is recorded at very low angles typically in the range of C
0.10 to 50 in ................... method.
A) Spot counting B) Broadening of diffraction peaks
C) Small angle scattering D) None of these
87) In Scherrer formula L = , β is ................ D
A) Size of particle B) Constant taken as unity

C) Wavelength of X-ray D) Full width at half maxima
88) The peak width in X-ray diffraction spectrum depends on the .............. A
A) particle size B) wavelength of X-ray
C) glancing angle D) X-ray diffractometer
89) If d100:d110:d111 = 1: : , then the crystal structure is ................... B
√ √
A) SC B) FCC C) BCC D) Orthorhombic

90) The Bragg angle θ is fixed in …………... diffraction method. A
A) Laue B) Rotating crystal C) Powder D) All of the above
91) In which x-ray diffraction method, two photographic films are used? A
A) Laue B) Rotating crystal C) Powder D) All of the above
92) Which of the following shapes are formed by the diffracted radiation in the C
powder method?
A) Circular B) Cubical C) Conical D) Spherical
93) The particle size can be determined by ------------- D
A) Spot counting method B) Broadening of diffraction lines
C) Small angle scattering D) All of the above
94) Where do we obtain the magnified image of the specimen in TEM? D
A) Anode B) Cathode ray tube
C) Scanning generator D) Phosphorescent screen
95) In Electron microscope, light source is replaced by a beam of very fast moving…. A
A) Electron B) Neutron C) Proton D) Photon
96) Which microscope delivers the highest overall magnification possible? A
A) Electron B) Optical C) Dissecting D) None of these
10
97) The field emission electron gun typically uses a single crystal ………… filament B
that has a very fine tip.
A) Copper B) Tungsten C) Aluminium D) Silicon
98) The filament of thermionic emission electron gun is made of …………….. B
A) tungsten or cadmium boride B) tungsten or lanthanum hexaboride
C) tungsten or nichrome D) nichrome or lanthanum hexaboride
99) Where do we obtain the magnified image of the specimen in SEM? B
A) Anode B) Cathode ray tube
C) Scanning generator D) Phosphorescent screen
100) In TEM, the image is formed by ……………. C
A) secondary electrons B) Back scattered electrons
C) Transmitted electrons D) Characteristic X-ray
101) Which technique is used to detect atomic percentage of various elements within a C
sample?
A) SEM B) TEM C) EDAX D) STM
102) In TEM, which lens is used to enlarge the image? B
A) Condenser lens B) Project lens
C) Objective lens D) Electromagnetic lens
103) ……………. deflects the electron beam over the sample according to zig zag D
pattern in SEM.
A) Condenser lens B) Project lens
C) Objective lens D) Scan coils
104) Electron microscope can give a magnification up to ………….. D
A) 100 X B) 1000 X C) 10,000 X D) 10,00,000 X
105) During TEM, a vacuum is created inside the ………… C
A) Specimen B) Room of operation
C) Column D) Ocular system
106) Image formation in electron microscope is based on …………… D
A) Specimen size B) Column length
C) Vacuum chamber D) Scattering of electron
11
107) Once an electron beam hits a sample, the sample ejects ……… B
A) X-rays and gamma rays B) electrons and X-rays
C) electrons and microwaves D) Radiowaves and IR rays
108) The lens used for focussing in SEM is ………….. A
A) Objective lens B) Condenser lens
C) Project lens D) Electromagnetic lens
109) The lens used for controlling the electron beam and producing a sharp electron B
beam in SEM is …………..
A) Objective lens B) Condenser lens
C) Project lens D) Electromagnetic lens
110) When electron beam interacts with the sample, energetic electrons are scattered C
from the sample surface in ……….. fashion.
A) elastic B) inelastic
C) Both (A) and (B) D) None of these
111) The vacuum chamber in electron microscope is used to protect the …………….. D
A) electron gun B) condenser lens
C) objective lens D) sample surface
112) ………… electrons are reflected back after elastic interactions between the B
electron beam and the sample.
A) Secondary B) Back scattered
C) Transmitted D) None of these
113) ………… electrons originate from the surface or the near surface regions of the A
sample.
A) Secondary B) Back scattered
C) Transmitted D) None of these
114) The image of sample surface in STM can be carried by ………… B
A) one mode B) two mode C) three mode D) four mode
12
115) In STM, when the tip is above the surface of atom, the tunnelling current will be B
………
A) Very small B) Very large C) Zero D) None of these
116) In STM, when the tip is above the hollow site, the tunnelling current will be ……… A
A) Very small B) Very large C) Zero D) None of these
117) In STM, if the sample is negatively biased with respect to metallic tip, then electrons D
will flow from ………..
A) Sample to sample B) metallic tip to metallic tip
C) Metallic tip to sample D) Sample to metallic tip
118) In STM, if the sample is positively biased with respect to metallic tip, then electrons C
will flow from ………..
A) Sample to sample B) metallic tip to metallic tip
C) Metallic tip to sample D) Sample to metallic tip
119) …………. is used to determine hardness, reflectivity and defects in the material. C
A) SEM B) TEM C) STM D) EDAX
120) …………….. is a technique based upon scanning a probe typically called as C
metallic tip just above the sample surface.
A) SEM B) TEM C) STM D) EDAX
**********
13
PHY- 401: NUCLEAR PHYSICS ANS
Question Bank
1) The average binding energy of a nucleus is A

A) 8 MeV B) 80 eV C) 8 eV D) 8 KeV
2) The intrinsic electric dipole moment of a nucleus D
A) increases with Z , but independent of A

B) decreases with Z , but independent of A
C) is always zero
D) increases with Z and A
3) The net charge on nucleus is………... A

A) + Ze B) – Ze C) + Z D) - Z
4) 1 a.m.u. =----------------- C
A) 940 MeV B) 941 meV C) 931 MeV D) 831 MeV
5) For nuclei with mass numbers A ≈ 20 and A ≈ 160, the average binding energy per B
nucleon remains nearly constant having value about ………..
A) 8.8 MeV B) 8.5 MeV C) 7.6 MeV D) 200 MeV
6) If M is the atomic mass, A is mass number, then (M-A)/A is called B

A) Fermi energy B) Packing fraction C) Binding energy D) Mass defect
7) If more nucleons are added to the nucleus, its binding energy …………. A
A) Increases B) Decreases c) Remains constant D) none of these
8) What should be the minimum energy of a photon for it to split an α-particle at rest C
into a tritium and a proton?
(The masses of , and are 4.0026 a.m.u., 3.0161 a.m.u. and 1.0073
a.m.u. respectively, and 1 a.m.u. ≈ 938 MeV )
A) 32.2 MeV B) 3 MeV C) 19.3 MeV D) 931.5 MeV
9) The mass defect for the nucleus of Neon is 19.992 a.m.u. What is the binding D
energy per nucleon for Neon in MeV
A) 8.92 MeV B) 1.04 MeV C) 2.08 MeV D) 8.04 MeV
10) The nucleus radius is of the order of A
A) 10-15 m B) 10-8 m C) 10-7 m D) 10-5 m
Dr. V.R. Huse, MGSM’s ASC, College, Chopda 1

11) C
The radius of a nucleus is measured to be 4.8 ×10-13 cm. The radius of a
nucleus can be estimated to be,
A) 2.86×10-13 cm B) 5.2×10-13 cm C) 3.6×10-13 cm D) 8.6×10-13 cm
12) The deviation of the charge distribution of a nucleus from spherical symmetry can C
be estimated by measuring it’s.
(A) Electric dipole (B) Electric charge (C) Electric quadrupole moment
(D) Magnetic dipole moment
13) When the number of nucleons in nuclei increase, the binding energy per nucleon D
A) increase continuously with mass number
B) remains constant with mass number
C) decrease continuously with mass number
D) first increases and then decrease with increase of mass number
14) Packing fraction may have. C
(A) Negative value (B) Positive value (C) Both A & B (D) None of these
15) If the nuclear radius of Cl35 is 3.95 Fermi, then the approximate nuclear radius D
of Pb206 in Fermi is
A) 0.798 B) 7.08 C) 0.708 D) 7.98
16) The mass density of a nucleus varies with mass number A as C
A) A B) 1/A C) A2 D) Constant
17) When nucleons form a stable nucleus, binding energy is D
A) created from nothing B) destroyed into nothing
C) transform into visible light D) absorbed by the nucleus which then breaks it
apart
18) The difference in the mass of the resultant nucleus and the sum of the masses of A
two parent nuclear particle is known as
A) Mass defect B) Weight defect C) Nucleus defect D) Solid defect
19) According to the shell model the spin and parity of the two nuclei and D
are, respectively,
A) (5/2)+ & (5/2)+ B) (5/2)+ & (7/2)+
C) (7/2)+ & (5/2)+ D) (7/2)+ & (7/2)+

20) According to the shell model, the total angular momentum (in units of ĥ) and the A
parity of the ground state of the nucleus is
A) 3/2 with negative parity B) 3/2 with positive parity
C) 1/2 with positive parity D) 7/2 with negative parity
21) The independent particle model is ……………… B
A) Liquid drop model B) Shell model

C) Compound Nucleus model D) None of these
22) The magnetic moment of magic nuclei is A

A) 0 B) 1 C) both a & b D) none of these
23) Let Es denotes the contribution of the surface energy per nucleon in the liquid drop B
model. The ratio Es ( ) : Es ( ) is
A) 2 :3 B) 4 :3 C) 5:3 D) 3: 2
24) The main contribution to the binding energy of a nucleus comes from ………. D
A) Asymmetry energy B) Surface energy

C) Coulomb energy D) Volume energy
25) Liquid drop model predict D

A) Electric quadrapole moment
B) Depth of net nuclear potential a symmetry term
C) Magnetic number, nuclear spin, nuclear parity etc.
D) Accurate average mass and binding energy through semi-empirical mass
formula
26) The sum of volume energy, surface energy, coulomb energy, asymmetry energy A
and pairing energy represents total …………
A) Binding energy B) Kinetic energy C) Escape energy D) Potential energy
27) Single particle shell model can account for the presence of. B
(A) Isotopes (B) Isomers (C) Isobars (D) Atomic number
28) The first three energy levels of are shown below A

4+-------------------- 187 KeV
2+-------------------- 57.7 KeV
0+--------------------- 0 KeV
The expected spin-parity and energy of the next level are given by
(a) (6+; 400 KeV) (b) (6+; 300 KeV) (c) (2+; 400 KeV) (d) (4+; 300 KeV)

29) Liquid drop model fails to explain C
(A) Spin of the nuclei (B) Magnetic moment of the nuclei (C) Both A & B
30) Shell model of nucleus is based upon C

A) Ellipsoidal symmetrical B) Bohr correspondence principle
C) Spherically symmetric potential D) none of these
31) The semi-empirical mass formula for the binding energy of nucleus contains a B
surface correction term. This term depends on the mass number A of the nucleus
as.
(A) A-1/3 (B) A2/3 (C) A1/3 (D) A
32) Find the nuclear parities of nuclei 8O17 and 63

29Cu . A
(A) even , odd (B) odd , even (C) even , even (D) odd , odd
33) The asymmetry terms in semi-empirical mass formula is because of B

A) The odd number of proton inside the nucleus
B) Unequal number of protons and neutrons inside the nucleus
C) Non-Zero spin of nucleus
D) Non spherical shape of the nucleus
34) According to the single particles nuclear shell model, the spin-parity of the ground D
state of is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
35) Find the nuclear parities of nuclei 28Ni61 and 73

32Ge . B
(A) even , odd (B) odd , even (C) even , even (D) odd , odd
36) which number is not magic number C
(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 18 (D) 20
37) SI unit of magnetic dipole moment is B

A) J.T B) J/T C) T/J D) J2/T

38) The ground state wavefunction of deuteron is in a superposition of s and d states. D
Which of the following is NOT true as a consequence?
(a) It has a non-zero quadruple moment
(b) The neutron-proton potential is non-central
(c) The orbital wavefunction is not spherically symmetric
(d) The Hamiltonian does not conserve the total angular momentum
39) The deuteron has which parity ? A

A) even (+) B) odd ( - ) C) constant D) none of above
40) P-P scattering at low energy obeys D

(A) Pauli exclusion principle (B) Fermi statistics
(C) Bose - Einstein statistics (D) Pauli exclusion principle & Fermi statistics
41) Choose the CORRECT statement from the following D

(a) Neutron interacts through electromagnetic interaction
(b) Electron does not interact through weak interaction
(c) Neutrino interacts through weak and electromagnetic interaction
(d) Quark interacts through strong interaction but not through weak interaction
42) The dominant interactions underlying the following processes A

A: K- + p → ⅀- + π+ B: µ- + µ+ → K- + K+ C: ⅀+→ n + π+ are
A) A: strong, B: electromagnetic and; C: weak

B) A: strong, B: weak and; C: weak
C) A: weak, B: electromagnetic and; C: strong
D) A: weak, B: electromagnetic and; C: weak
43) The nuclear force are of exchange nature. A nucleon emits a virtual pion of rest C
mass 140 MeV. What is the range of nuclear force?
A) 1.2 × m B) 1.1 × m C) 1.4 × m D) 1.7 × m
44) The wavelength of gamma ray of energy eV is : D
A) 1.84 B) 2.24 C) 6.84 D) 1.24

45) Deuteron is the B
(A) 1- nucleon (B) 2- nucleon (C) 1- proton (D) 2- proton
46) The high energy p-p scattering at 500 MeV energy suggest that at a separation of A
0.5 f, there is which force?
A) Repulsive B) Attractive C) Gravitational D) None of above
47) The deuteron must be formed with spin vector of neutron and proton is B
(A) Antiparallel (B) Parallel (C) Perpendicular (D) None of these
48) From experimental measurement the magnetic moment of deuteron is found to be: B
A) 0.58347 + 0.77703 nm B) 0.85735 + 0.00003 nm
C) 1.85035 +1.54802nm D) 1.85735 + 0.00002 nm
49) For production of electron and positron, the gamma quanta having energy greater A
than…….MeV.
A) 1.02 B) 0.02 C) 2.02 D) 4.02
50) In weak interaction associated particle is C

(A) Pion (B) Photon (C) Intermediate boson (D) Gamma
51) In the low energy n-p scattering the nuclear force is stronger in……..state. A
A) Triplet B) Singlet C) Doublet D) None of above
52) The total cross section for n -p scattering of neutron energy 2 Mev (lab) is in barn A
(A) 2.904 (B) 3.205 (C) 3.409 (D) 2.806
53) The gamma ray have very short wavelength of the order …….m. B
A) B) C) D)
54) The isotropic angular distribution of high energy protons has established that there B
exist a repulsive Core within nucleons when the distance between two
nucleons is taken less than……. .
A) O.1f B) 0.5 f C) 0.9f D) 0.8f
55) In photoelectric absorption the photo electric cross section is directly proportional D
to (where z atomic number).
(A) z1 (B) z2 (C) z4 (D) z5

56) The lowest quantum mechanical state for two body system like deuteron is always A
in …….
A) l=0 B) l=4 C) l= 5 D) l=1
57) In Compton effect the value of Compton wavelength A

(A) 2.426 х 10-12 m (B) 1.356 х 1012 m (C) 2.001 х 10-12 m
(D) 1.859 х 10-12 m
58) A deuteron potential well depth is 35 MeV and its radius is 2 f. The kinetic energy B
of the nucleus is :
A) T = 1.3 MeV B) T = 5.2 MeV C) T = 4.5 MeV D) T = 8.2 MeV
59) In Compton scattering gamma ray is scatter in process with free electron is B
(A) Elastic (B) Inelastic (C) Direct (D) none of these
60) The presence of quadrupole electric moment in the deuteron and the polarisation A
of high energy nucleons scattered by each other indicate the nuclear force
are……….
A) Non- central force B) stationary C) Central D) None of above
61) In photoelectric absorption the energy hv of the incident photon is wholly B

absorbed & electron is ejected from an atom with an energy , where EB binding
energy
(A) E = hv + EB (B) E = hv - EB (C) hv = EB - E (D) E = hv/EB
62) Which process responsible for Ƴ( gamma) -rays with matter? D

A) Photoelectric effect B) Compton scattering
C) electron positron pair production D) all of above
63) A beam of gamma ray incident on a aluminium sheet of 0.1 thickness reduce the D
intensity of incident radiation to 21% of the original intensity the value of mass
absorption coefficient is
(A) 4.30 х 10-3 m2 kg-1 (B) 5.00 х 10-3 m2 kg-1 (C) 4.78 х 10-3 m2 kg-1
(D) 5.78 х 10-3 m2 kg-1
64) What are the range of 5 MeV alpha particle in aluminium if relative stopping power A
RSP of Aluminium is 1600?
A) 2.225 × m B) 1.522 × m C) 4.572 × m D) 6.437 × m
65) The small vibration in the range of particle is B

(A) Interaction (B) Straggling (C) Range (D) dipole moment

66) The gamma ray are not deflected by the electric and magnetic field is …….. A
A) True B) False C) May be D) None of these
67) Minimum thickness of absorber is D

(A) Hadronic (B) Stopping power (C) Straggling (D) Range of particle
68) The energy lost per unit path length B

(A) Interaction (B) Stopping power (C) Range (D) Straggling
69) Spark chamber is a B

(A) Electronic detector (B) Track detector (C) Both A & B
70) The device used to detect, track and identify high energy particles is called as C
A) Accelerator B) Reactor C) Detector D) None of the above
71) The accelerator used for accelerating charged particles like electrons, protons, A
deuterons etc is called as ……………
A) Static accelerator B) Linear accelerator

C) Circular accelerator D) None of these
72) In Van de Graaff generators output voltage is controlled by C

A) Controlling the lower spray point B) Controlling the belt speed
C) Controlling the corona source voltage D) None of the above.
73) The reduction in counting efficiency of the scintillation detector is called as A

A) Quenching B) Decay C) Disintegration D) Reduction
74) Which of the following detectors is used to detect light intensities which are very B
weak?
A) Photovoltaic cell B) Photomultiplier tube
C) Photoemissive tubes D) Photo reflector
75) An efficient Van de Graff generator has a rounded terminal as it A

A) Maximises the electric field around it B) Disrupts the electric field
C) Minimizes the electric field around it D) Shields it from the electric field.
76) Microtron is used to accelerate ------------ A

A) Proton B) Neutron C) Electron D) All of these

77) Bubble chamber has C
(A) Low stopping power (B) Slow count rate (C) High stopping power
78) Van de Graaff generators are useful for B

(A) High voltage pulses only
(B) Very high voltage and low current applications
(C) Constant high voltage and current applications
(D) Very high voltage and high current applications
79) In Synchrocyclotron, frequency of RF oscillator is C

A) 0 B) Constant C) Varies D) None of these
80) The accelerator used for accelerating electrons and protons upto maximum A
energies of 40 GeV and 50 MeV respectively is called as ……………
A) Linear accelerator B) Static accelerator
81) In cloud chamber radiations become visible reflection of light from D
(A) Ions (B) Nuclear radiation (C) Glass window (D) Droplets of fog
82) The accelerator used for accelerating charged particles like electrons, protons, A
deuterons etc is called as ……………
A) Static accelerator B) Linear accelerator

83) A positron has a mass number and charge respectively B

A) 1, 1+ B) 0, 1+ C) 1, 2+ D) 1, 2+
84) Which of the following is a particle – antiparticle pair C

(A) Proton – positron (B) Proton – neutron (C) Electron – positron
(D) Neutron – neutrino
85) The mass of a photon is A

A) Zero B) The negative of that of an electron
C) The same as that of an electron D) About the same as that of a neutron

86) If we ignore the sign, which of the following properties of particles and their D
corresponding antiparticle do NOT have the same size?
A) Mass B) Charge C) Spin D) All of these have the same size
87) The conservation laws of energy and momentum C

A) Are valid for all situations at all levels
B) Are always obeyed at the macroscopic level, but always violated at the atomic
level
C) May be violated at the atomic level if the violation does not last too long
D) Are no longer valid at any level
88) A beam of pions (π+) is incident on a proton target, giving rise to the process B
π+ + p → n + π+ + π+
Assuming that the decay proceeds through strong interactions, the total isospin I
and its third component I3 for the decay products, are
(A) I= 3/2, I3 = 3/2 (B) I= 5/2, I3 = 3/2

(C) I= 5/2, I3 = 5/2 (D) I= 1/2, I3 = -1/2
89) The mass of positron is A
(A) The same as that of an electron (B) The negative of that of an electron
(C) Zero (D) The same as that of a neutron
90) The reaction + → + π0 D
cannot proceed via strong interactions because it violates the conservation of

(A) angular momentum (B) electric charge
(C) baryon number (D) isospin
100) Which one of the following is NOT a member of the lepton family? C
A) Electron B) Muon C) Proton D) Neutrino
101) A particle, which is a composite state of three quarks u, d and s , has electric C
charge, spin and strangeness respectively, equal to
(A) 1, 1 , 1 (B) 0, 0, -1 (C) 0, 1/2, -1 (D) -1, -1/2, +1
102) The isospin and the strangeness of Ώ- baryon are, B

(A) 1, -3 (B) 0, -3 (C) 1, 3 (D) 0, 3

103) The decay process n →p+ + e- + ṽe violates C
(A) Baryon number (B) lepton number (C) isospin (D) strangeness
104) The isospin (I) and baryon number (B) of the up quark is D
(A) I=1, B=1 (B) I=1, B=1/3
(C) I=1/2, B=1 (D) I=1/2, B=1/3
105) When an electron annihilates with a positron, the amount of energy released is C
equal to the
A) binding energy of the hydrogen atom B) rest mass of the electron
C) total rest mass of the electron and the positron D) rest mass of the positron
106) What elementary particles are the building blocks for protons and neutrons? A
A) Quarks B) Leptons C) Photons D) Gluons
107) Neutrino has spin B

(A) 1 (B) 1/2 (C) 0 (D) None of the above
108) The mass of antineutron is A

(A) The same as that of an neutron (B) The same as that of an electron
(C) Zero (D) The same as that of a proton
109) The lapton number for photons is D

(A) 1 (B) 1/2 (C) -1 (D) 0
110) How many colors of quarks are believed to exist? B
A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7
111) Quark obeys C
(A) Bose – Einstein statistics (B) Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics
(C) Fermi – Dirac statistics (D) All the above
112) What is the exchange particle for the electromagnetic interaction? B

A) Positron B) Photon C) Muon D) Electron
113) What are the fundamental particles of an atom? B

A) electron, photon and neutrino
B) Protons, neutrons and electrons
C) The nucleus and electron orbits
D) quark, electron and meson

114) What exchange particle holds the quarks together? C
(A) Muons (B) Mesons (C) Gluons (D) Nucleons
115) Which of the following was NOT on the list of "elementary particles" before 1932? A
A) Positron B) Photon C) Muon D) Electron
116) What type of elementary particles are electrons? B

A) Quarks B) Leptons C) Photons D) Gluons
117) The charge quantum number for electron is A

(A) -1 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) ∞
**********

QUESTION BANK
PHY-402(A) : Nanomaterials-Synthesis, Properties and Applications
Que.
Question Answer
No.
Nanomaterials are the materials with at least one dimension measuring less than
___________
1. C
(A) 1 nm (B) 10 nm
(C) 100 nm (D) 1000 nm
A material with one dimension in Nano range and the other two dimensions are
large is called ___________
2. C
(A) Micro-material (B) Quantum wire
(C) Quantum well (D) Quantum dot
The melting point of particles in nano form ___________
3. (A) Increases (B) Decreases B

(C) Remains same (D) Increases then decreases
The first talk about nano-technology was given by ___________
4. (A) Albert Einstein (B) Newton D

(C) Gordon E. Moore (D) Richard Feynman
The size of atoms is nearly ____________
5. (A) 0.01 nm (B) 0.1 nm B

(C) 1 nm (D) 10 nm
Which property of nanoparticles provides a driving force for diffusion?
6. (A) Optical Properties (B) High surface area to volume ratio B

(C) Sintering (D) There is no such property
Quantum dots can be used in _________
7. (A) Crystallography (B) Optoelectronics B

(C) Mechanics (D) Quantum physics
Vesicle is a type of __________
(A) Nanostructure (B) Nanoparticle
8. D
(C) Nanocrystal (D) Supramolecular system
Meaning of Nano is ________
9. (A) billionth part of unit scale (B) 10-9 part of unit scale D
(C) smaller than µm i.e. micrometer (D) All of the above
The prefix “nano” comes from a _________
10. (A) French word meaning billion (B) Greek word meaning dwarf B
(C) Spanish word meaning particle (D) Latin word meaning invisible
What was the title of Richard Feynman‟s famous speech given on December 29,
1959?
11. C
(A) There is a tiny room at the bottom (B) Things get nanoscopic at the bottom
(C) There is plenty of room at the bottom (D) Bottom? What bottom
6) How many oxygen atoms lined up in a row would fit in a one nanometer space?
12. (A) One (B) Seven B

(C) Sixteen (D) Eighteen
Density of state is defined as the number of ______ per unit energy range.
13. (A) mass (B) area C
(C) state (D) particle
Nanoscience can be studied with the help of ___________
14. (A) Geophysics (B) quantum mechanics B

(C) Newtonian mechanics (D) macro-dynamics
The diameter of human hair is ____ nm
15. (A) 1,00,000 (B) 90,000 D

(C) 75,000 (D) 50,000
If two dimensions are reduced to nanoscale and one dimension is remains large, the
resulting structure is referred as _______
16. B
(A) Quantum dot (B) Quantum wire
(C) Quantum well (D) Quantum state
The size of a virus is ___ nm
17. (A) 5 (B) 50 B
(C) 500 (D) 5000
The width of typical DNA molecule is ____ nm
18. (A) 1 (B) 2 B

(C) 5 (D) 10
The _____________ are two important properties of nanosubstances.
19. (A) sticking and friction (B) sticking and temperature A

(C) pressure and friction (D) temperature and friction
Ferritin can accommodate ________ Fe atoms
20. (A) 45 (B) 450 C

(C) 4500 (D) 45000
Density of states in a quantum wire as ________________
21. (A) Ʃ δ(E-εi) -1/2 (B) Ʃ δ(E-εi) A

(C) Ʃ δ(E-εi) 1/2 (D) Ʃ δ(E-εi) 2
What‟s the procedure in Top-down fabrication method?
22. (A) Nano-particles -> Powder -> Bulk (B) Powder -> Bulk – > Nano-particles C
(C) Bulk -> Powder – > Nano-particles (D) Nano-particle – > Bulk -> Powder
Which of the following is an example of Bottom Up approach?
23. (A) Attrition (B) Colloidal dispersion B

(C) Milling (D) Etching
CVD stands for ____________
24. (A) Carbon vapour density (B) Chemical vapour density C

(C) Chemical vapour deposition (D) Carbon vapour deposition
Chemical solution deposition is also known as ____________
25. (A) Sol-gel (B) CVD A

(C) Plasma spraying (D) Laser pyrolysis
Typical precursor used in sol-gel are ____________
26. (A) Metal oxides (B) Metal dioxides C

(C) Metal alkoxides (D) Metal fluorides
Which of the following is an example of top-down approach for the preparation of
nanomaterials?
27. D
(A) Ultrasonic automization (B) Chemical vapour deposition
(C) Molecular beam epitaxy (D) Mechanical grinding
There are ______ approaches for synthesis of nanomaterials.
28. (A) one (B) two B

(C) three (D) four
For milling operations, what kind of environment is preferred?
29. (A) Acidic (B) Basic D

(C) Active (D) Inert
What is Lithography?
(A) Process used to transfer a pattern to a layer on the chip
30. (B) Process used to develop an oxidation layer on the chip A

(C) Process used to develop a metal layer on the chip
(D) Process used to produce the chip
Nano crystalline materials synthesized by sol-gel technique results in a foam like
structures called ___________
31. D
(A) Gel (B) Aerosol
(C) Foam (D) Aerogel
Which gas serves as buffer gas in Laser ablation?
32. (A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen C

(C) Helium (D) Neon
Laser ablation method is developed by _______
33. (A) Kelvin (B) Richard Smalley B

(C) Watson and crick (D) Neils bohr
Sol-gel method is ________ chemical process.
34. (A) Dry (B) Wet B

(C) Semi liquid (D) Semi solid
The nano tube may _________ without friction.
35. (A) Slides (B) Overlaps C

(C) Under laps (D) Collides
The yield of the laser ablation is ______________
36. (A) 30% (B) 70% B

(C) 80% (D) 90%
____ contains nanoparticles prepared by using biologically processed metal ores.
(A) Homeopathic medicines (B) Ayurvedic „Bhasmas‟
37. B
(C) Modern antibiotics (D) Modern cosmetics
The full form of STM is ______________
38. (A) Scanning Tunneling Microscope (B) Scientific Technical Microscope A

(C) Systematic Technical Microscope (D) Super Tensile Microscope
The process of removing material from a solid surface by irradiating it with LASER
beam called as ________.
39. D
(A) sputtering (B) Electron beam heating
(C) Laser ablation (D) Resistive heating
The wavelength of visible light is ____ nm
40. (A) 40-70 (B) 400-700 B

(C) 4000-7000 (D) 40000-70000
Leaves of __________ plant have been used to synthesize nanoparticles of gold.
41. (A) Mangifera indica (B) Azadirachta indica C

(C) geranium (D) F.religiosa
When particles are reduces towards nanoscale its melting point ___________

The basic foundation of nanophotonics involves interaction between ___and matter.
43. (A) temperature (B) electrons C

(C) light (D) field
Nano crystalline materials synthesised by sol-gel technique results in a foam like
structures called ___________
44. D
(A) Gel (B) Aerosol
(C) Foam (D) Aerogel
In sputter deposition technique some inert gas ions like ______ are incident on a
target at a high energy to fabricate nanostructured thin film
45. A
(A) argon (B) nitrogen
(C) oxygen (D) helium
Silver nanoparticles can be produced intracellularly when silver metal salt is treated
with fungus ______________
46. D
(A) Thermonospora sp. (B) Vermior sp.
(C) klebsilla sp. (D) Verticillium sp
Sol-gel method is known since ____________
47. (A) 1970 (B) 1960 C

(C) 1980 (D) 1990
The sol-gel is a __________ of solid particle.
48. (A) Sublimation (B) Melting C

(C) Colloidal suspension (D) Cool down
__________ undergo hydrolysis and poly condensation reactions.
49. (A) Metal ions (B) Metal carbonates D

(C) Metal nitrates (D) Metal oxides
One of the advantages of sol-gel method is able to get uniform and _________
powder.
50. D
(A) Micro size (B) Large size
(C) Nano size (D) Small size
Sol-gel method can produce __________ systems.
51. (A) Uniform multi component (B) Non uniform multi component A
(C) Multi component (D) Non uniform multi component
Metal nano particles particularly _____________ nano particles are prepared by the
chemical reduction method.
52. A
(A) Silver (B) Gold
(C) Platinum (D) Tungsten
The ___________ and citrate solution are used as reducing agents in chemical
reduction method.
53. A
(A) Hydrazine hydrate (B) Hydrazine
(C) Hydrazone (D) Semi carbazene
The transparent colourless solution solution is changed into pale yellow from
___________ in chemical reduction method.
54. C
(A) pale blue (B) Purple
(C) Pale red (D) Dark brown
The condition n>14 is to form ______ nanostructured film.
55. (A) L-C (B) L-B B

(C) L-T (D) L-M
Buckyballs are made up of ______.
56. (A) nickel. (B) DNA. D

(C) RNA. (D) carbon.
The ______ is used to reduce the resistivity of poly silicon.
57. (A) Photo resist (B) Etching C

(C) Doping impurities (D) None of the mentioned
Which of the following is not a technique in nanolithography?
58. (A) Electron beam lithography (B) Omega beam lithography B

(C) X-ray lithography (C) Laser beam lithography
The compressive strength of a nanotube ____ its tensile strength
59. (A) may be greater than (B) is greater than D

(C) is equal to (D) is less than
The acid used in the synthesis of gold nanoparticles by colloidal route is ___.
60. (A) Auric acid (B) Chloroauric acid B

(C) Chlorogenic acid (D) Chlorosauron acid
In 19th century _________ synthesized gold nanoparticles by wet chemical route.
61. (A) L. Esaki (B) M. Faraday B

(C) E. Mullar (D) E. Ruska
__________ explained nanotubes for the first time.
62. (A) Richard Feynman (B) Richard Smalley C

(C) Sumio lijima (D) Eric Drexler
The initial tools used to help launch the nanoscience revolution were ________
63. (A) Binoculars (B) Microscope C

(C) Scanning probe instruments (D) Interferometer
Which interaction involve in basic foundation of nanophotonics?
64. (A) Light and matter (B) Electrons and photons A

(C) Atoms and particles (D) Electrons and protons
Which property of Nanomaterials makes them suitable to be used for elimination of
pollutants?
65. B
(A) High purity (B) Enhanced chemical activity
(C) Small size (D) Better thermal conductivity
Which is the application of magnetic nanoparticles?
66. (A) Fire protection (B) Water treatment B

(C) Electromagnetic antenna (D) none of these
Which one is not use for lithography?
67. (A) photons (B) particle beam D

(C) scanning probe (D) sputter
________ can accommodate 4500 atoms of iron
68. (A) Ferritin (B) Vibranium A

(C) Adamantium (D) Quarentium
Colloidal metal nanoparticles are often synthesized by ______ of some metal salt or
acid.
69. A
(A) reduction (B) addition
(C) transfer (D) catalyst
Which method makes use of amphiphilic molecules for preparation of
nanostructured film.
70. C
(A) Stark-Banner (S-B) method (B) Scott-Swanson (S-S) method
(C) Langmuir-Blodgett (L-B) method (D) Kishimoto-Kubo (K-K) method
__________ is class of nanoparticles which can be manipulated using magnetic
field.
71. C
(A) Excited nanoparticles (B) Neutral nanoparticles
(C) Magnetic nanoparticles (D) None of these
To produce carbon nanotubes the process CVD stands for _________
72. (A) Carbon vapour density (B) Chemical vapour density C

(C) Chemical vapour deposition (D) Carbon vapour deposition
CNTs stands for ____________
(A) Carbon Nanotubes (B) Carbon Nanotechnology
73. A
(C) Carbon Nano Technique (D) Carbon Nanoscience and
technology
Carbon nanotubes are poor transmitters of electromagnetic radiations due to their __
74. (A) High conductivity (B) Large surface area A

(C) High porosity (D) Chemical Stability
In ______________the containers are rotated at high speed around their own axis;
additionally they may rotate around some central axis.
75. C
(A) vibratory mill (B) attrition mill
(C) planetary mill (D) shaker mill
Size dependent melting point variation of nanoparticles can be investigate by (A)
76. UV-Vis (B) TEM B

(C) SEM (D) FESEM
In XRD study, the diffraction peaks are _____ of nanoparticles than bulk materials
77. (A) broadned (B) sharped A

(C) narrowed (D) shortened
The resolving power of TEM is derived from _______________
78. (A) electrons (B) specimens A

(C) power (D) ocular system
Multi walled CNT are ________ concentric nano tubes.
79. (A) Single (B) Double D

(C) Triple (D) Multiple
A spray of CNT mixture on ceramic coatings gives the ability to resist ________
80. (A) Stains (B) Damage B

(C) Smoothness (D) Clearness
By nano scale distribution of the _______ in matrix improves the life and
performance.
81. B
(A) Carbide (B) Tungsten
(C) Hydrides (D) Nitrites
CNT posses strength up to ________
82. (A) 100Gpa (B) 200Gpa A

(C) 400Gpa (D) 300Gpa
In how many methods the CNT can be prepared?
83. D
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Most promising applications of the CNT is _________
84. (A) Paper batteries (B) Solar cells B

(C) Space elevators (D) Stab proof
Carbon nano tubes are the sheets of graphite about ________
85. (A) 0.1nm (B) 0.2nm C

(C) 0.3nm (D) 0.4nm
Self healing paint can be prepared through
(A) biotechonology (B) nanotechnology
86. B
(C) information techonology (D) one of the above
Nanostructured materials are formed by:

(A) Creating increased surface area per unit volume.
87. (C) Creating decreased surface area per unit volume D

(B) Keeping same surface area
(D) none
How is the appearance of the graph for the density of states in 2D?
88. (A) Staircase (B) Discrete lines A

(C) Parabola (D) Mobius strip
Who coined the word nanotechnology and when?
89. (A) Richard Feynman, 1959 (B) Norio Taniguchi, 1974 B

(C) Eric Drexler, 1986 (D) Sumio lijima, 1991
1 nm = ____m
90. (A) 10-9 (B) 10-8 A

9 8
(C) 10 (D) 10
What ratio decides the efficiency of nanomaterials?
91. (A) Weight to Volume ratio (B) Surface to Volume ratio B

(C) Volume to Weight ratio (D) None of these
The width of typical DNA molecule is ____ nm
92. (A) 1 (B) 2 B

(C) 5 (D) 10
What does „F‟ stand for in FESEM?
(A) Fine (B) Field
93. B
(C) Force (D) Front
The hardness of standard SWNT is _________ Pa
94. (A) 25 x 109 (B) 63 x 106 A

(C) 25 x 106 (D) 25 x 10-9
Nanomaterials are the materials with at least one dimension measuring less than __
95. (A) 1 nm (B) 10 nm C

(C) 100 nm (D) 1000 nm
When particles are reduces towards nanoscale its melting point ___________

Which of the following is used in electron microscope?
96. (A) electron beams (B) magnetic fields D

(C) light waves (D) electron beams and magnetic fields
Which of the following are true for electron microscopy?
(A) specimen should be thin and dry
97. (B) image is obtained on a phosphorescent screen D

(C) electron beam must pass through evacuated chamber
(D) specimen should be thin and dry
Degree of scattering in transmission electron microscope is a function of ________
(A) wavelength of electron beam used
98. (B) number of atoms that lie in the electron path C

(C) number and mass of atoms that lie in the electron path
(D) mass of atoms that lie in the electron path
Which among the following helps us in getting a three-dimensional picture of the
specimen?
99. B
(A) Transmission Electron Microscope (B) Scanning Electron Microscope
(C) Compound Microscope (D)Simple Microscope
The secondary electrons radiated back in scanning microscope is collected by?
100. B
(A) specimen (B) anode (C) vacuum chamber (D) cathode
Where do we obtain the magnified image of the specimen in SEM?
101. (A) cathode ray tube (B) phosphorescent screen A

(C) anode (D) scanning generator
Which of the following techniques are used in Transmission Electron Microscopy
(TEM) for examining cellular structure?
102. D
(A) Negative-Staining (B) Shadow Casting
(C) Ultrathin Sectioning (D) Negative-Staining, Shadow Casting
On what factors do the intensity of secondary electrons depend upon?
(A) shape of the irradiated object
103. (B) chemical composition of the irradiated object D

(C) number of electrons ejected
(D) size and chemical composition of the irradiated object
What is the wavelength range for UV spectrum of light?
104. (A) 400 nm – 700 nm (B) 700 nm to 1 mm D

(C) 0.01 nm to 10 nm (D) 10 nm to 400 nm
Who are the inventors of the scanning tunneling microscope?
105. (A) Gerd Binnig and Heinrich Rohrer (B) Louis Pasteur A
(C) Louis Pasteur (D) Michael Faraday
X-ray diffractometers are not used to identify the physical properties of which of the
following?
106. B
(A) Metals (B) Liquids
(C) Polymeric materials (D) Solids
X-ray diffractometers provide ____________ information about the compounds
present in a solid sample.
107. C
(A) Quantitative (B) Qualitative
(C) Quantitative and qualitative (D) Either quantitative or qualitative
In powder method, the powder sample is contained in which of the following?
108. (A) Thin walled glass capillary tubes (B) Thin walled test tube A
(C) Thin walled curvettes (D) Thin walled flask
Which of the following is the most common instrument for photographic recording
of diffraction patterns?
109. (A) Debye-Scherrer powder camera (B) Gamma camera A

(C) Geiger tube (D) Scintillation counter
With the help of which of the following equations is the distance calculated from a
known wavelength of the source and measured angle?
110. B
(A) Coolidge equation (B) Bragg‟s equation
(C) Debye equation (D) Scherrer equation
In Diffractometer, the identification of a component of the sample from its powder
diffraction pattern is based upon the _________ of lines and their relative
111. ___________ D
(A) Number, length (B) Number, intensity
(C) Position, length (D) Position, intensity
In Diffractometers, line intensities depend on ______ and kind of atomic reflection
centres in each set of plates.
112. A
(A) Number (B) Position
(C) Length (D) Distance between lines
Which of the following variables govern the different X-ray techniques?
113. (A) Radiation, sample, detector (B) Radiation, diffraction, detector A

(C) Heat, mass, proteins (D) Energy, sample, temperature.
Which of the following rays are used in the powder method of crystals?
114. (A) Gamma rays (B) α-rays D

(C) β-rays (D) Monochromatic X-rays
In the powder method, in powder sample various _________ samples are also
present in every possible orientation.
115. B
(A) Miller indices (B) Lattice
(C) Unit cell (D) Atoms
Which of the following shapes are formed by the diffracted radiation in the powder
method?
116. C
(A) Circular (B) Spherical
(C) Conical (D) Cubical
In the powder method of the crystals if the Bragg‟s angle is θ then what is the angle
of the cone formed by the diffracted beams?
117. D
(A) θ (B) 2θ
(C) 3θ (D) 4θ
A convergent beam is obtained by placing which of the following material between
the X-ray source and the sample?
118. D
(A) Soil particles (B) Single crystal of carbon
(C) Linear double crystal of graphite (D) Bent single crystal of quartz
One morphology r nanoscale object each of their dimension range from 1-100 nm is
called as __________.
119. C
(A) Nano Crystal (B) Nanowire
(C) Nanorod (D) Nanostracture
Transmission electron microscopy (TEM) is used for ?
120. (A) Thick (B) Porus C

(C) Thin (D) Heavy
A
LASER and Its Applications PHY-402(B)
N
Question Bank
S
1) A resonant cavity formed by two parallel reflecting mirrors separated by a mirror A
separated by a medium such as air or gas is known as…………..
(A) Optical cavity
(B) Wheatstone’s bridge
(C) Oscillator
(D) Fabry-Perot resonator
2) What is the region enclosed by the optical cavity called? D
(A) Optical Region
(B) Optical System
(C) Optical box
(D) Optical Resonator
3) What is the lifetime of an electron in a metastable state? C
(A) 10-3 sec.
(B) 10-5 sec.
(C) 10-8 sec.
(D) 10-7 sec.
4) The material in which the population inversion is achieved is called…………. A
(A) Active medium
(B) Metastable state
(C) Passive medium
(D) Stable states
5) The lower energy level contains more atoms than upper level under the conditions C
of…………..
(A) Isothermal packaging
(B) Population inversion
(C) Thermal equilibrium
(D) Pumping
6) An incandescent lamp is operating at a temperature of 1000K at an operating B
frequency of 5.2×1014 Hz. Calculate the ratio of stimulated emission rate to
spontaneous emission rate.
(A) 3×10-13
(B) 1.47×10-11
(C) 2×10-12
(D) 1.5×10-13
1 P.T.O.
7) …………..in the laser occurs when photon colliding with an excited atom causes A
the stimulated emission of a second photon.
(A) Light amplification
(B) Attenuation
(C) Dispersion
(D) Population inversion
8) Which of the following is an example of optical pumping? A
(A) Ruby laser
(B) Helium-Neon laser
(C) Semiconductor laser
(D) Dye laser
9) Which of the following is not a basic components LASER C
(A) Lasing material or active medium
(B) External energy source
(C) Population Inversion
(D) Optical resonator
10) Which of the following statements concerning a laser system is incorrect? C
(A) Spontaneous emission occurs in the laser system
(B) The intensity of the laser beam can be varied by changing the reflective
coefficient of the partially reflecting mirror
(C) The laser system does not require an external energy source
(D) The laser medium consists of a metastable state
11) What does the acronym LASER stand for? B
(A) Light Absorption by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
(B) Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
(C) Light Alteration by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
12) Which scientist first came up with the idea of stimulated emission? D
(A) Alexander Graham Bell
(B) Isaac Newton
(C) Arthur Schalow
(D) Albert Einstein
13) Which process gives the laser its special properties as an optical source? D
(A) Dispersion
(B) Stimulated absorption
(C) Spontaneous emission
(D) Stimulated emission
2
14) What is the need to achieve population inversion? A
(A) To excite most of the atoms
(B) To bring most of the atoms to ground state
(C) To achieve a stable condition
(D) To reduce the time of production of laser
15) Laser beam is made a of B
(A) Electrons
(B) Highly coherent photon
(C) Elastic particles
(D) Excited atoms
16) If a hologram is illuminated by white light it will form A
(A) Colourful image
(B) Will not form image
(C) Single colour image
(D) Red image in black and white
17) Which of the following is not a characteristic of LASERS? C
(A) Monochromatic
(B) Coherent
(C) Divergent
(D) Intense
18) Phonons are __________ C
(A) Quanta of energy
(B) Quanta of light waves
(C) Quanta of sound waves
(D) Quanta of heat
19) Which of the following does not provide single-frequency operation? D
(A) Short cavity resonator
(B) DSM lasers
(C) Coupled cavity resonator
(D) Fabry-Perot resonator
20) The role of He in He-Ne laser is D
(A) He is an active medium
(B) population inversion takes place in He
(C) Stimulated emission takes place in He
(D) He atoms help in exciting Ne atoms
3 P.T.O.
21) In Ruby laser which ions give rise to the laser action? B
(A) Al203
(B) Cr3+
(C) Al3+
22) Which of the following is not a laser property? D
(A) Coherence
(B) Extreme brightness
(C) Highly directional
(D) Divergence
23) Which of the following is not a pumping system? D
(A) Optical pumping
(B) Chemical pumping
(C) Electrical pumping
(D) Thermal pumping
24) What is the type of laser used most widely in industrial materials processing D
applications?
(A) Dye Laser
(B) YAG laser
(C) Ruby Laser
(D) Carbon Dioxide Laser
25) The active medium of a helium-neon laser is made up of…………..ratio of A
helium-neon.
(A) 10:1
(B) 10:2
(C) 10:3
(D) 10:4
26) The light source used for optical pumping………….. A
(A) Xenon
(B) Argon
(C) Neon
27) Ruby laser has wavelength………….. C
(A) 6328 Å
(B) 5896 Å
(C) 6943 Å
(D) 6334 Å
4
28) In a Ruby laser, the laser action is achieved by………….. A
(A) Optical pumping
(B) Gas discharge
(C) Electrical Pumping
(D) All of the above
29) An example of a solid-state laser is………….. C
(A) Na-crystal
(B) Iron crystal
(C) Ruby crystal
30) A device that applies the frequency-selective feedback technique to provide a A
single longitudinal operation is referred to as…………..
(A) DSM lasers
(B) Nd: YAG lasers
(C) Glass fiber lasers
(D) QD lasers
31) Nd - YAG laser is a C
(A) Two level laser
(B) Three level laser
(C) Four level laser
(D) Five level laser
32) A ruby laser has a crystal of length 3 cm with a refractive index of 1.60, D
wavelength 0.43 μm. Determine the number of longitudinal modes.
(A) 1×102
(B) 3×106
(C) 2.9×105
(D) 2.2×105
33) The Excimer laser produces light with what wavelength? B
(A) Visible
(B) Ultraviolet
(C) Infrared
34) The pumping source in He-Ne laser B
(A) Optical
(B) Electric discharge
(C) Chemical
(D) Mechanical
5 P.T.O.
35) In Stimulated Absorption, what is the lifetime of atoms ground state? D
(A) 1 second
(B) 1 minute
(C) 1 hour
(D) Infinity
36) In which of the following field Laser are used? D
(A) Defense
(B) Surgery
(C) Medicine
37) Which of the following conditions is very essential for the production of LASER? D
(A) Spontaneous emission process
(B) Population inversion process
(C) Stimulated emission process
(D) All of them
38) In the case of semiconductor lasers, the laser transition is possible only A
in…………..
(A) Indirect bandgap semiconductors
(B) Both direct as well as indirect bandgap semiconductors
(C) Direct bandgap semiconductors
39) The main advantage of gas lasers is that………….. A
(A) They can be operated continuously
(B) They can be operated in the pulse mode
(C) They cannot be operated continuously
40) Ruby is a crystalline substance of Aluminium oxide doped with………….. C
(A) Approximately 0.02% by weight of Chromium oxide
(B) Approximately 0.5% by weight of Chromium oxide
(C) Approximately 0.05% by weight of Chromium oxide
(D) Approximately 0.01% by weight of Chromium oxide
41) In He-Ne laser the common wavelength of the laser is………….. C
(A) 6943 Å
(B) 10600 Å
(C) 6328 Å
6
42) Ruby laser works on the………….. A
(A) Pulsed mode
(B) Non-pulsed mode
(C) Continuous-wave
43) In the case of optical pumping, an external optical source like a Xenon flash lamp A
is employed to produce…………..
(A) High population in the higher energy level of the laser medium
(B) Low population in the higher energy level of the laser medium
(C) Higher population in the lower energy level of the laser medium
(D) Lower population in the metastable state of laser me
44) The material in which population inversion can take place is called………….. A
(A) Active System
(B) Passive medium
(C) Gaseous medium
(D) Vapour medium
45) Which characteristic of LASER allows it to be used in holography? A
(A) Coherency
(B) Directionality
(C) Intensity
(D) Monochromaticity
46) The output of a laser has a pulse duration of 30 ms and an average output power of C
1 W per pulse. How much energy is released per pulse if the wavelength is 6600
Å?
(A) 0.001 J
(B) 0.002 J
(C) 0.003 J
(D) 0.004 J
47) In a semiconductor laser, electrical energy is directly converted to………….. A
(A) Light energy
(B) Heat energy
(C) Sound energy
(D) Nuclear energy
48) Optical pumping is suitable for any medium which is………….. A
(A) Transparent to light
(B) Not transparent to light
(C) Metallic
7 P.T.O.
49) Ruby Laser is…….. A
(E) Pulsed Laser
(F) Continuous Wave Laser
(G) Both A and B
(H) None of the above
50) What type of laser could cause skin cancer if not used properly? C
(A) Red semiconductor laser
(B) Blue semiconductor
(C) Excimer laser
(D) Nd: YAG laser
51) Directionality property of laser can be used in D
(A) Surveying
(B) Remote sensing
(C) Lidar
52) The image produced by holography is C
(A) 1-dimensional
(B) 2-dimensional
(C) 3-dimensional
(D) 4-dimensional
53) The information carrying capacity of a hologram is B
(A) Than an ordinary photograph
(B) More than an ordinary photograph
(C) Equal to an ordinary photograph
(D) All option
54) An nciple of D
(A) Double refraction
(B) Reflection
(C) Total external refraction
(D) Total internal reflection
55) The coherence length of Laser light is C
(A) 4000 Å
(B) 8000 Å
(C) 300 m
(D) 2 µm
8
56) A laser beam is made up of B
(A) Electrons
(B) Highly coherent photon
(C) Elastic particles
(D) Excited atoms
57) Which of the following is solid state Laser? A
(I) Ruby Laser
(J) He-Ne Laser
(K) CO2 Laser
(L) All of the above
58) Which of the following is Gas Laser? B
(M) Ruby Laser
(N) He-Ne Laser
(O) Nd-YAG Laser
(P) All of the above
59) Diode laser consists of…………..doped in a single crystal. A
(A) p and n-type impurities
(B) p-type
(C) n-type
60) Why are lasers used for cutting materials D
(A) It never gets dull
(B) It has a small “heat affected zone”
(C) Accuracy
61) What is the wavelength of red light emitted by a helium-neon laser? B
(A) 122 nanometre
(B) 633 nanometre
(C) 2.43 nanometre
(D) 1.37 micrometre
62) A quarter of a wavelength is equal to how many degrees of phase? A
(A) 90°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 180°
63) The Specific rotation is………….. D
(A) Independent of wavelength
(B) Directly proportional to the wavelength
(C) Inversely proportional to the wavelength
(D) Inversely proportional to the square wavelength
9 P.T.O.
64) Laser radiation is: D
(A) Monochromatic
(B) Directed in a narrow beam
(C) Produced with large power densities
65) The population of the various energy levels of a system in thermal equilibrium is A
given by,
(A) Boltzmann distribution law
(B) Einstein relations
(C) Planck’s law
(D) Beer’s law
66) A semiconductor laser crystal of length 5 cm, refractive index 1.8 is used as an C
optical source. Determine the frequency separation of the modes.
(A) 2.8 GHz
(B) 1.2 GHz
(C) 1.6 GHz
(D) 2 GHz
67) Optical pumping happens via D
(A) Spontaneous emission
(B) Spontaneous absorption
(C) Stimulated emission
(D) Stimulated absorption
68) What is the relationship between B21 and B12? C
(A) B21 > B12
(B) B21 < B12
(C) B21 = B12
(D) No specific relation
69) Which law is used for achieving the relation between the Einstein’s coefficients? B
(A) Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle
(B) Planck’s radiation law
(C) Einstein’s equation
(D) Quantum law?
70) Which of the following can be used in the vibrational analysis of structure? D
(A) Maser
(B) Quarts
(C) Electrical waves
(D) Laser
10
71) Which of the following is used in atomic clocks? C
(A) Laser
(B) Quartz
(C) Maser
(D) Helium
72) Which of the following can be used for the generation of laser pulse? D
(A) Ruby laser
(B) Carbon dioxide laser
(C) Helium Neon laser
(D) Nd- YAG laser
73) In holographic data storage, the information is stored in ______________ C
(A) Pendrives
(B) Cells
(C) Crystals
(D) Diode
74) The technique by which image is obtained from a hologram is called as _______ C
(A) Formation
(B) Construction
(C) Reconstruction
(D) Projection
75) Which of the following is used for the formation of holograms? D
(A) X-ray
(B) Visible Light
(C) Infrared
(D) Lasers
76) The information in the hologram exists in ________ D
(A) Colored Image form
(B) Black and white image form
(C) 3-D image form
(D) Coded form
77) Holography is based on the principle of _________ A
(A) Interference
(B) Diffraction
(C) Interferometer
(D) Polarization
11 P.T.O.
78) The principle of generation of the wavefront from an object from a hologram can D
be used for _________
(A) Data Storage
(B) Transient Microscopy
(C) Interferometry
(D) Pattern recognition
79) The holograms found on credit-cards are an example of ________ B
(A) Volume Holograms
(B) Rainbow Holograms
(C) Reflection Hologram
(D) Hybrid hologram
80) Laser is used in LIDAR for what purpose? B
(A) High-Speed Photography
(B) Range finder
(C) Optical Carrier signal
(D) Drilling
81) Where is ND: YAG most commonly used? A
(A) Cosmetic Surgery
(B) Welding
(C) Photography
(D) Optical Communications
82) Which of the following Einstein’s coefficient represents spontaneous emission? B
(A) A12
(B) A21
(C) B12
(D) B21
83) The correct expression for the rate of stimulated emission is _______________ D
(A) Rse = A21N2
(B) Rse = A21uN2
(C) Rse = B21N2
(D) Rse = B21uN2
84) What is the unit of the coefficient of spontaneous emission? A
(A) s-1
(B) s
(C) J-1
(D) J
12
85) The relationship between N1 and N2 for stimulated emission to be dominant C
is____________
(A) N1 = N2
(B) N1 > N2
(C) N2 > N1
(D) No such relationship
86) During pumping, the atoms are excited to ___________ C
(A) Higher Exited States
(B) Lower Energy states
(C) Meta Stable states
(D) Not Excited
87) At the state when N1 > N2, the intensity of light wave _____________ D
(A) Increases linearly
(B) Increases exponentially
(C) Decreases linearly
(D) Decreases exponentially
88) What will be the relative population of atoms in a ruby layer that produces a light D
beam of wavelength 6943 Å at 300 K
(A) 5 X 10-31
(B) 6 X 10-31
(C) 7 X 10-31
(D) 8 X 10-31
89) Which of the following is a four-level laser? C
(A) ND: YAG
(B) Ruby
(C) He-Ne
(D) Semiconductor laser
90) Which of the following is a three-level laser? C
(A) ND: YAG
(B) Ruby
(C) He-Ne
(D) Semiconductor laser
91) The lifetime of meta-stable state in a Ruby laser is ___________ C
a) 10-8s
b) 10-6s
c) 10-3s
d) 10-2s
13 P.T.O.
92) The ends of the ruby rod works as __________ C
(A) Pumping source
(B) Active medium
(C) Cavity mirrors
(D) Energy levels
93) The pumping mechanism used in Ruby rod is __________ A
(A) Optical Pumping
(B) Electrical Excitation
(C) Chemical pumping
(D) Thermal pumping
94) Which material is used for cooling of the ruby rod for efficient continuous D
operation?
(A) CFC
(B) Liquid helium
(C) Liquid oxygen
(D) Liquid Nitrogen
95) What is the wavelength of the emitted laser in a Ruby laser? A
(A) 694 nm
(B) 650 nm
(C) 780 nm
(D) 754 nm
96) He-Ne laser is a type of ____________ C
(A) Solid laser
(B) Liquid laser
(C) Gas laser
(D) Diode laser
97) The He-Ne laser operates at a wavelength of ____________ B
(A) 540 nm
(B) 632 nm
(C) 690 nm
(D) 717 nm
98) What is the wavelength of the emitted laser by a carbon dioxide? B
(A) 9.4 μm
(B) 10.6 μm
(C) 11.4 μm
(D) 12.5 μm
14
99) Which of the following is a characteristic of semiconductor lasers? B
(A) Output in Visible region
(B) High Efficiency
(C) Output in UV region
(D) Pulsed output
100) In the CO2 molecular gas laser, transition takes place between the___________ C
(A) Molecular states
(B) Atomic states
(C) Vibrational states
(D) Energy states
**********
15 P.T.O.
QUESTION BANK A
PHY- 403(A):Renewable Energy Sources N
S
1) The main composition of biogas is A
A) Methane B) Carbon dioxide C) Nitrogen D) Hydrogen
2) Hydrothermal fluids are in nature. C
(A) Corrosive (B) Abrasive (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
3) Photovoltaic cell converts solar energy into B
(A) heat energy (B) electric energy
(C) mechanical energy (D) chemical energy
4) In which of the following region winds are stronger and constant B
(A) deserts (B) offshore (C) low altitudes sites (D) all of the above
5) In geothermal energy EGS stand for. B
(A) engineered geophysical system (B) enhanced geothermal system
(C) engraved geothermal system (D) exhaust gas system
6) In dry steam hydrothermal plant, we use C
(A) Carnot cycle (B) Brayton cycle
(C) Rankine Cycle (D) None of the above
7) The temperature at the inner core of the earth is about. C
(A) 500 oc (B) 1000 oc (C) 4000 oc (D) 40000 oc
8) Concentrated solar power (CSP) systems use _ to focus a large area of sunlight D
into a small beam.
(A) lenses (B) mirrors (C) tracking systems (D) all of the above
9) The following is (are) the classification of winds C
(A) Global wind (B) Local wind (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
10) The hole on the earth’s surface where the steam from the earth comes out is called as. B
(A) void (B) fumaroles (C) gash (D) mud pot
11) The process of producing energy by utilizing heat trapped the earth. A
(A) geothermal energy (B) hydrothermal energy
(C) wave energy (D) solar Energy
12) The difference, in temperature between the core of the planet and its surface, is B
known as
(A) geothermal coefficient (B) geothermal gradient
(C) geothermal constant (D) none of the above
13) Compared to a conventional steam plant, the temperature and pressure in a geothermal D
plant are.
(A) much higher (B) higher (C) comparable (D) lower
14) Which part of the wind turbines senses wind speed, wind direction, shaft speed and D
torque?
(A) Turbine blade (B) Shaft (C) Rotor (D) Controller
15) The following is (are) type(s) of Geothermal resource D
(A) Hydrothermal (B) Hot dry rock
(C) Geo pressurised (D) All of the above
16) Biomass can be converted to D
(A) methane gas (B) ethanol (C) biodiesel (D) all of the above
17) A stable interface between solid liquid and gaseous promotes C
high rate of electrode process
(A) fuel, electrolyte, electrode (B) electrode, fuel, electrolyte
(C) electrode, electrolyte, fuel (D) fuel, electrode, electrolyte
18) Hot molten rock is called as. A
(A) magma (B) lava (C) ligneous rocks (D) volcano
19) A fuel cell is basically. D
(A) an electro-static energy conversion device
(B) an electro-mechanical conversion device
(C) a thermo-electric energy conversion device
(D) an electro-chemical energy conversion device
20) Following is true for biomass and biofuels D
(A) their contribution in reduction in CO2 emissions is limited
(B) oth emit large amount of air pollution when burned
(C) they consume large amounts of water
(D) all of the above
21) Why is wind turbine designed to stop operation at cut out velocity? A
(A) To protect wheel against damage (B) To make a quick stop in emergencies
(C) To improve the efficiency (D) In order to adjust the blades to wind direction
22) Sun tracking system is required in the case of: A
(A) Cylindrical and parabolic and paraboloid (B) Flat plate collector
(C) Both (a) and (b) (D) None of the above
23) Which fuel cell has the highest operating temperature? B
(A) PAFC (B) SOFC (C) MCFC (D) AFC
24) Widespread use of fuel cell is hindered mainly due to. D
(A) its high weight and size (B) its high efficiency
(C) non-availability of hydrogen (D) its high cost
25) The below schematic diagram represents which life cycle? D
A) Carbon Life Cycle B) Earth minerals Life Cycle

C) Phosphorus Life Cycle D) Fossil Fuel Life Cycle
26) The residual product discharge by the hydrogen oxygen cell is. B
(A) alcohol (B) water (C) hydrogen peroxide (D) potassium permanganate
27) A rotor installed in a fixed orientation with the swept area perpendicular to the pre B
dominate wind direction is called
(A) Nacelle (B) Yaw fixed machines
(C) Blades (D) Anemometer
28) Which of these should not be a properties of fuel cell electrodes? B
(A) good electrical conductors (B) Take part in chemical reaction
(C) highly resistant to corrosive environment (D) should perform charge separation
29) A module is a: C
(A) Series-arrangement of solar cells (B) Parallel arrangement of solar cells
(C) Series-parallel arrangement of solar cells (D) None of the above
30) An ideal emf of Phosphoric Acid Fuel Cell at 25 0C is. A
(A) 1.23 V (B) 2.54 V (C) 3.96 V (D) 0.58 V
31) Which type of windmill has better performance? D
(A) Vertical type wind mills (B) Darrieus type machines
(C) Magnus effect rotor (D) Horizontal type windmills
32) The most mature technology available for hydrogen storage is. C
(A) carbon nanotubes (B) liquid hydrogen storage at low temperature
(C) compressed hydrogen gas in steel tank or cylinder (D) metal hydride
33) Biomass is used in the production of C
(A) fibres (B) chemicals (C) transportation fuels (D) biochemicals
34) Which of these gases or liquids are not used as source of hydrogen in fuel cell? D
(A) C2H6 (B) C2H2 (C) C6H6 (D) C2H5OH
35) The simplest method of hydrogen production is. B
(A) thermolysis of water (B) electrolysis of water
(C) biophotosynthesis (D) steam reforming of methane
36) Production of bioethanol is through fermentation of and starch components B
(A) alcohol (B) sugar (C) milk (D) acid
37) Biodiesel is produced from oils or fats using B
(A) fermentation (B) transesterification
(C) distillation (D) none of the above
38) What does TSR stand for in design consideration of wind mills? A
(A) Tip speed ratio (B) Torque-synchronous ratio
(C) Tip suspension ratio (D) Temporary speed restriction
39) The molten rock within the earth is B
(A) Igneous (B) Magma (C) Sedimentary (D) Metamorphic
40) Hydrogen can be used B
(A) as a primary energy source only
(B) as an energy carrier only
(C) both as primary energy source as well as energy carrier
(D) either as primary energy source nor as energy carrier
41) The type of reactions in a fuel cell is not determine by. C
(A) composition of electrolyte (B) fuel and oxidizer combination
(C) catalytic effects of reaction container (D) materials effects of reaction container
42) The efficiency of solar cells is about: B
(A) 25% (B) 15% (C) 40% (D) 60%
43) Which of the following in MCFC, carbonate of alkali metals in molten phase is used as D
electrolyte.
(A) Na (B) K (C) Li (D) all of the above
44) What does WECS stands for? A
(A) Wind energy conversion system (B) Wind engine control system
(C) Wind energy combined system (D) Wind engine comparison system
45) Which process is control to achive the desired pH value A
(A)seeding (B) cutting (C) Processing (D) Nome of the above

46) In biomethane, the percentage of carbon dioxide is C
(A) 55-60 (B) 35-45 (C) 30-40 (D) 32-43
47) ______ and suitable catalyst are required to promote high rate of electrode processes. B
(A) lower temperature (B) higher temperature
(C) moderate temperature (D) very low temperature
48) Which of the following is not a characteristic of hydrogen? A

(A) black colour (B) odourless (C) tasteless (D) non toxic
49) How much ideal efficiency should practical turbine have? D
(A) 10 – 12% (B) 18 – 25% (C) 80 – 90% (D) 50 – 70%
50) Bioethanol is mixed with to prepare transport fuel B
(A) oil (B) petrol (C) kerosene (D) diesel
51) The aerobic digestion of sewage is utilized in the production of B
(A) metal articles (B) biofuels (C) biomass (D) synthetic fuels
52) A fuel cell is used to convert chemical energy into C
(A) Mechanical energy (B) Solar energy (C) Electrical energy (D) Potential energy
53) What does OTEC stand for? B
(A) Ocean thermal energy cultivation
(B) Ocean thermal energy conversion
(C) Ocean techno energy conservation
(D) Ocean thermal energy consumption
54) Which of the following is a disadvantage of renewable energy? D
A) High pollution B) Available only in few places
C) High running cost D) Unreliable supply
55) Which one of the following statement is not true for a geothermal energy system? D
(A) it is a reliable and cheap source of energy
(B) it is available 24 hours per day
(C) it has no inherent storage feature, so extra storage facility is required
(D) the system is modular in nature
56) Which part of the wind mill acts as a housing for the turbine? C
(A) Wind Vane (B) Shaft (C) Wind mill head (D) Turbine
57) What is the movement of water generated by or associated with the change in mean sea D
level called?
(A) Tidal Variation (B) Tidal volume
(C) Tidal Range (D) Tidal Current
58) Which among the following have a large amount of installed grid interactive renewable A
power capacity in India?
A) Wind power B) Solar power C) Biomass power D) Small Hydro power
59) The voltage at which forward bias current increases rapidly is called as C
A) Breakdown Voltage B) Forward Voltage
C) Knee Voltage D) Voltage barrier
60) The oceanic tides are due to D
(A) Heavy Winds (B) Slight earth quakes
(C) Water force (D) Gravitational interaction
61) Kinetic energy that results from the oscillation of water is called A
(A) Wave energy (B) Tidal energy
(C) Ocean thermal energy (D) Hydro energy
62) Solar cells are made of: C
(A) Aluminium (B) Germanium (C) Silicon (D) Cadmium
63) Which part of the wind turbines senses wind speed, wind direction, shaft speed and D
torque?
(A) Turbine blade (B) Shaft (C) Rotor (D) Controller
64) The solar or photo voltaic cell converts: B
A) Chemical energy to electrical energy B) Solar radiation into electrical energy
C) Solar radiation into thermal energy D) Thermal energy into electrical energy
65) Which of the following component is connected to gear box in horizontal type wind A
turbine?
(A) Low speed shaft (B) High speed shaft (C) Controllers (D) Accelerometer
66) A attached to the float moves up and down inside a cylinder? C

(A) chain (B) barrel (C) piston (D) load
67) In a P-N Junction, the depletion region is reduced when B
A) P side is connected to the negative side of the terminal
B) P side is connected to the positive side of the terminal
C) N side is connected to the positive side of the terminal
D) Never reduced
68) The amount of energy available in the wind at any instant is proportional to of D
the wind speed.
(A) Square root power of two (B) Square root power of three
(C) Square power (D) Cube power
69) How is height of wave determined? A
(A) By wind speed (B) By force of wave
(B) By a immersion scale (D) By a floating device
70) Which of the following region is coated with a metal? A
A) A B) B C) C D) D
71) Why is wind turbine designed to stop operation at cut out velocity? A
(A) To protect wheel against damage (B) To make a quick stop in emergencies
(C) To improve the efficiency (D) In order to adjust the blades to wind direction
72) Which is the type of energy where the energy is harnessed by the heat accumulated on the C
surface of water?
(A) Wind energy (B) Wave energy
(D) Ocean thermal energy conversion (D) Solar energy
73) Select the formula for total power pt? A
(A) Pt = 12gc ρAVi3 (B) Pt = ρAVi3D3
(C) Pt = 12gc Vi3D3 (D) Pt = 2gcVi3

74) The power generated by an horizontal type wind turbines for offshore is ____. A
(A) 6MW (B) 6W (C) 50MW (D) 10W
75) Tidal power is practically B
(A) Exhaustible (B) Inexhaustible (C) Not possible (D) Complicated

76) Which of the following has the lowest efficiency? D
(A) Solar energy (B) Wind energy (C) Wave energy (D) OTEC
77) How is heat loss over come in liquid plate collectors? A
A) By insulation B) By casing
C) By the transparent cover D) From provided tubes
78) Which of the following materials cannot be used as solar cells materials? D
A) Si B) GaAs C) CdS D) PbS
79) Which is the working fluid in open cycle? B
(A) Propane (B) Water (C) Engine oil (D) ISO-butane
80) Which part of flat plate collectors is coated in black? B
A) Transparent cover B) Absorber plate C) Insulation D) Fins
81) What is the inherent weakness of all wind machines? C
(A) Their efficiencies (B) Requires powerful winds to make fan rotate
(C) Their dependency on the wind speed (D) Cannot be easily repaired
82) What is the difference between Photodiode and Solar cell? B
A) No External Bias in Photodiode B) No External Bias in Solar cell
C) Larger surface area in photodiode D) No difference
83) The bio ethanol is subjected to rectification to remove D
A) Sugar B) Enzymes C) Yeast D) Impurities
84) The kinetic energy is used to make power in method. D
(A) Tidal lagoon method (B) Dynamic tidal power
(C) Tidal barrage method (D) Tidal steam generator
85) A solar cell is a D
A) P-type semiconductor B) N-type semiconductor
C) Intrinsic semiconductor D) P-N Junction
86) Warm surface sea water is pumped through a to vaporise the fluid. A
(A) Heat exchanger (B) Generator (C) Evaporator (D) Condenser
87) This is an example of starch crops biomass feedstocks D
(A) corn stover (B) wheat straw (C) orchard prunings (D) sugar cane
88) In hydroelectric power, what is necessary for the production of power throughout the A
year?
(A) Dams filled with water (B) High amount of air

(C) High intense sunlight (D) Nuclear power
89) In which of the following region winds are stronger and constant B
(A) deserts (B) offshore (C) low altitudes sites (D) all of the above
90) Which of the following is a nonrenewable energy resource? D
A) Solar B)metane C) hydroelectric D) caol
91) The solar energy directly used for ______ D
(A) Drying (B) Water heating (C) Distillation (D) All of the above
92) How many types of solar cells? C
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
93) The energy which is stored as latent heat is called as _______ energy C
(A) Mechanical energy (B) Electrical energy (C) Thermal energy (D) None of the above
94) The radiation of solar includes ____________ D
(A) Ultraviolet light and Visible light (B) Radio waves and Infrared waves
(C) X rays and Gamma rays (D) All of the above
95) What is the most commonly used renewable energy? A
(A) Solar energy (B) Tidal energy (C) Hydro energy (D) None of the above
96) What is the basic component of the PV system (Photovoltaic system)? C
(A) Battery (B) Charge collector (C) Solar cell (D) All of the above
97) What are the materials required for the construction of solar cells? C
(A) P-type material (B) N-type material (C) Both a and b (D) None of the above
98) Which is an organic matter produced by plants in direct or indirect forms? B
(A) Solar energy (B) Biomass (C) Wind energy (D) Bio-fuel
99) Bioethanol is mixed with ________ to prepare transport fuel B
(A) oil (B) petrol (C) kerosene (D) diesel
100) The aerobic digestion of sewage is utilized in the production of B
(A) metal articles (B) biofuels (C) biomass (D) synthetic fuels
101) This is an example of starch crops biomass feedstocks D
(A) corn stover (B) wheat straw (C) orchard prunings (D) sugar cane
102) Matter from digested slurry is added to fresh slurry in the digest is called _______. B
(A) seeding (B) processing (C) Both a &b (D) All of the above
103) The digested slurry contain________. A
(A)Methane (B)Ethane (C)Both a & b (D) None of the above
104) The amount of energy available in the wind at any instant is proportional to ___ of the D
wind speed.
(A) Square root power of two (B) Square root power of thre
(C) Square power (D) Cube power
105) Wind energy is harnessed as ______ energy with the help of windmill or turbine. A
(A) Mechanical (B) Solar (C) Electrical (D) Heat
106) Global Cold wind generated from Oceans moves to C
(A) Mountains (B) Equator (C) Plain areas (D) Poles
107) Uneven heating occurs on land surface and water bodies are due to _____ B
(A) Air Currents (B) Solar radiation (C) Lunar eclipse (D) None of the above
108) The following factor(s) affects the distribution of wind energy D
(A) Mountain chains (B) The hills, trees and buildings
(C) Frictional effect of the surface (D) All of the above
109) Warm surface sea water is pumped through a ________ to vaporise the fluid. A
(A) Heat exchanger (B) Turbine (C) Controller (D)Non of above
110) The open cycle system produce __ water. A
(A) Desalinated (B) fresh (C) dirty (D) clean.
111) As the vapour pressure of working fluid increases the size of turbine A
(A) Decreases (B) Increases (C) Remain Constant (D) None of the above
112) _______ turbine is used in closed cycle ocean thermal energy conversion. B
(A) Horizontal (B) Low-pressure (C) High-pressure (D)Vertical
113) Open cycle ocean thermal energy conversion systems use _____ as the working fluid. C
(A) vapour from rivers (B) water from rivers (C) vapour from seawater (D) seawater
114) To turn the Power into AC _____ is used. C

(A). Turbine (B) Heat exchanger (C) Synchronous generator (D) Valve
115) Which of the following is used to locate a geothermal site? A
(A) Drilling wells (B) Reflection (C) Seismograph (D) SONAR
116) Fuel cell converts chemical energy to electrical energy using a reaction that______ A
(A) eliminates combustion of fuel (B) requires combustion of fuel
(C) requires no ignition of fuel (D) fuel is not required
117) Global winds towards westernly direction are known as A

(A) Trade winds (B) Western winds
(C) Eastern winds (D) None of the above
118) Which of the following is not an example of a fuel cell? D
(A) Hydrogen-oxygen cell (B) Methyl-oxygen-alcohol cell
(C) Propane-oxygen cell (D) Hexanone-oxygen cell
119) The type of reactions in a fuel cell is not determined by __________ D

(A) fuel and oxidizer combination (B) composition of electrolyte
(C) materials of anode and cathode (D) catalytic effects of reaction container
120) What is hot dry rock geothermal resource made of? A

(A) Granite (B) Soil
(C) Solid carbon dioxide (D) Liquid nitrogen
**********

M SC Physics

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

You might also like

M SC Physics

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

M SC Physics

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

FACULTY OF SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

KAVAYITRI BAHINABAI CHAUDHARI NORTH

(For syllabus implemented from June - 2021)

Semester Title of Course

1. Prof. I. J. Patil, P.S.G.V.P. Mandal’s A.S.C. College, Shahada (Coordinator of committee)

Prof. S.T. Bendre

Class- MSc-I Subject- Mathematical Methods for Physics (PHY-101) Sem-I

1. If u= (1, -2, 4, 1) and v= (3,1, -5, 0), find d(u,v) ------

(A) 95 (B) 100 (C) -95 (D) 0

2. In vector space, norm of a vector u is - - - - - -

(A) Length or magnitude of vector (B) Area of vector

(C) Volume of vector (D) None of these.

4. Vector can be represented by column or row matrices is called as - - - - - -

(A)Linear transformation ( B) Non-linear transformation

(C) Unitary transformation (D) None of these.

(C) 𝑋 . 𝑌 ≤ 𝑋 – 𝑌 (D) None of these.

6. Inner product of space - - - - -

(A) Non-mapping (B) Mapping

(C) Over-mapping (D) None of these.

7. In Gram-Schmidt orthogonalisation process :Y1 = X1, then Y2 = - - - - - -

8. Orthogonality : Let V be a inner product space, then condition orthogonal is - - -

(A)< 𝑈, 𝑉 > = 1 (B) < 𝑈, 𝑉 > = o

(C) < 𝑈, 𝑉 > = - 1 (D) < 𝑈, 𝑉 > = ∞

(C) X Y . X Y (D) None of these.

10. Using Gram-Schmidt orthogonalisation process, transform the given vectors

11. Cauchy-Schwarz inequality: 𝑋 . 𝑌 ≤- - - - - -

(C) 𝑋 . 𝑌 ≤ 𝑋 – 𝑌 (D) None of these.

(A) Orthogonal (B) Symmetric

(C) Hermitian (D) Unitary.

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5.

14. Find K such that d(u,v) = 6 , where u = (2, K, 1, - 4) and v = ( 3, -1, 6, - 3) - - -

(A) 2, 4 (B) 2, - 4 (C) -2, 4 (D) -2, -4

15. Are the vectors

X = (1, 0, 0 ), X2 = (0, 1, 0 ) and X3 = ( 0, 0, 1) linearly dependent?

(A) Yes (B) No (C) Both A and B (D) None.

vectors ( V1, V2, V3) is - - - - -

(A) Linearly dependent (B) Linearly independent

(C) Null (D) None of these.

17. Find the value of 𝛼 so that the vectors (1, 2, 9, 8 ), ( 2, 0, 0, 𝛼 ), (𝛼, 0, 0, 8 ),

( 0,0, 1, 0 ) are linearly independent.

(A) 𝜶 = ± 4 (B) 𝛼 = ± 5 (C) 𝛼 = ± 6 (D) 𝛼 = ± 3 .

18. If X = ( 3, 2, 0 ) and Y = ( -1, 6, 4 ). Find X-3Y - - - -

(A) (6, 16, 12 ) (B) ( 6, -16, 12 )

(C) (6, -16, -12 ) (D) ( -6, -16, -12 )

(C) Asymmetric (D) Unitary.

20. In a square matrices, each diagonal element is zero and

aij = - aji . Then its matrix will be - - - - - -

(A)Symmetric (B) Skew symmetric

(C) Hermitian (D) Skew Hermitian.

(C) Asymmetric (D) Unitary.

(A)Symmetric (B) Asymmetric

(C) Unitary (D) Hermitian

(C) Hermitian (D) Skew Hermitian

25. Square matrix A is unitary if , - - -

(A) AA* = I = A*A (B) –AA*= I =A*A

(C) A*A* = I = AA (D) None of these.

following statement is/ are correct?

(A) AA* = I = AA (B) –AA= I =A*A

(C) AA = I = AA (D) None of these.