Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
You are on page 1of 12

Crop Processing and Allied Subjects

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. At the critical point, the quality is


a. zero b. unity c. one-third d. two-third e. indeterminate
____ 2. An ideal gas is compressed isothermally. The enthalpy change is
a. always negative d. sometimes positive
b. sometimes negative e. always positive
c. zero
____ 3. Heat is transferred directly from a hot reservoir to a colder reservoir. The process
a. is reversible d. both reversible and irreversible
b. is irreversible e. is indeterminate
c. could be either
____ 4. Select the material with the highest thermal conductivity.
a. air c. glass d. steel e. water
b. copper
____ 5. Air at 20°C blows over a hot plate 50 by 75 cm maintained at 250°C. The convection heat transfer coefficient
is 25 W/m2 C. The heat transfer is
a. 21.6 KW b. 216 KW c. 2.16 KW d. 2.2 KW e. 2.16 MW
____ 6. Consider a 10 cm wall made of polyurethane board (K=0.0260 w/m.K) Which is exposed to still air (h=9.37
w/m2 K) on the insidr and the outer surface exposed to 24 km/h wind/h wind (h=34 W/m2K )
a. 0.075 b. 0.52 c. 1.92 d. 5.73 e. 13.24
____ 7. Two infinitely black plates at 800°C and 300°C exchange heat by radiation. The heat transfer per unit area
(kW/m2) is
a. 1.4 b. 12.0 c. 23.0 d. 40.0 e. 69.0
____ 8. A Carnot refrigerator operates between 0°C and 30°C. What fraction of the cooling effect (kW) is required as
the work input?
a. 0.00 b. 0.11 c. 0.88 d. 1.00 e. 9.10
____ 9. In an “ideal” situation, what is the COP of a refrigeration cycle that is operating between minus 40°C?
a. 0.5 b. 0.0 c. 3.0 d. 5.0 e. 7.0
____ 10. The COP of a given standard refrigeration system is given by:
a. temperature at evaporator over temperature at compressor
b. heat at condenser over work at compressor
c. heat at evaporator over work at compressor
d. work at compressor over heat at condensor
e. work at compressor over heat at evaporator
____ 11. Consider a standard vapor compression cycle:
Enthalpy at the suction of the compressor = h1
Enthalpy at the discharge of the compressor = h2
Enthalpy at the entrance of the expansion valve = h3
Enthalpy at the exit of the expansion valve = h4
The refrigerating effect can be expressed as
a. h2 - h1 b. h3 - h1 c. h4 - h2 d. h3 - h2 e. h4 - h3
____ 12. Severe physiological disorders that develops because of exposure to low but not freezing temperatures are
classified as
a. chilling injury c. desiccation e. shieveling injury
b. dehydration d. deterioration
____ 13. How much ice is needed to cool a gallon of punch from 20°C to 4°C. Assume specific heat of punch is 4.23
kJ/kg C, heat of fusion of ice is 335 kJ/kg and ice initially at freezing temperature.
a. 0.4 b. 0.7 c. 1.0 d. 2.5 e. 3.5
____ 14. Find the vapor pressure (partial pressure) of water in the air if the total pressure = 101.325 kPa, relative
humidity = 50%, saturation pressure at 30 kPa
a. 15.0 kPa b. 30.0 kPa c. 50.0 kPa d. 71.3 kPa e. 86.3 kPa
____ 15. Two just saturated air-vapor mixture are throughly mixed. The final stage of the mixture is
a. still saturated c. completely condensed out e. no way to tell
b. unsaturated d. partly condensed out
____ 16. Generally, palay can be stored safely up to 2 to 3 months at moisture content of
a. 28% b. 24% c. 18% d. 14% e. 10%
____ 17. The recommended temperature for long term storage of fresh food products is
a. ambient temperature d. just below freesing
b. just above freezing e. at low freezing temperature
c. at freezing point
____ 18. Determine the quantity of corn in kilogram at 30% (d.b.) required to give 1 metric ton at 14% (w.b.)?
a. 260 b. 860 c. 1000 d. 1120 e. 1230
____ 19. How much liter of kerosene is needed to dry 1 ton of palay from 30% to 14%? Assume latent heat
vaporization is 2500 kJ/kg; heating value of kerosene is 43 MJ/kj; specific gravity is 0.8 and efficiency of
80%.
a. 11 b. 13 c. 17 d. 21 e. 46
____ 20. Which conveying equipment can best carry materials vertically?
a. belt b. bucket c. chain d. pneumatic e. screw
____ 21. The expression used to indicate the amount of bran removed in the milling process is called
a. bran recovery c. head rice recovery e. milling recovery
b. degree of milling d. milling percentage
____ 22. The amount of foreign materials or impurities from a sample of paddy which is usually expressed as
percentage is called
a. chaff c. immature grains e. scalper
b. dockage d. purity
____ 23. The total amount of bran (in percentage) relative to the total weight of palay is about
a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 14 e. 20
____ 24. The average yield per hectare (tons/ha) of palay in the Philippines is about
a. 0.5 b. 1 c. 3 d. 5 e. 15
____ 25. A type of dryer wherein the flow is transverse to the direction of flow of the product being dried is called
a. batch b. circulating c. concurrent d. counter-flow e. cross-flow
____ 26. A measure of moiture content of air is expressed as a percentage. It is the ratio of the weight of water vapor in
a given volume of air at a given temperature to the maximu quality of water vapor of air could hold at the
same temperature. It is called
a. absolute humidity c. equilibrium d. relative humidity e. saturation
moisture content moisture content
b. critical moisture
content
____ 27. The process of mixing two or more different products together, such as grains and supplement, to obtain
desired food ratio or the process of mixing different quantities of the product with different moisture content
to obtain final mass with a uniform moisture content is called
a. blending b. drying c. grading d. tempering e. turning
____ 28. A rice miller buys 1 ton dried clean palay at P12/kg. assuming that his cost of operation is P3/kg milled rice,
how much should he sell (P/kg) to break-even? Neglect by-products and assume milling recovery of 64%.
a. 14 b. 18 c. 20 d. 22 e. 24
____ 29. Equalization of moisture or temperature throughout the product, bringing to a desired moisture content or
temperature for processing is called
a. drying b. tempering c. curing d. aeration e. dehydration
____ 30. A vapor compression refrigeration system has a 30-kW motor driving compressor with inlet
enthalpy of 345 kJ/kg and discharges with an enthalpy of 398 kJ/kg. Saturated liquid enters the
expansion valve at 238.5 kJ/kg enthalpy. Determine the capacity of the unit in Tons of refrigeration.
a. 14.7 b. 17.1 c. 11.7 d. 16.6
o
____ 31. R-12 enters the evaporator at 3 C (hg=352.76kJ/kg ; hf=202.78kJ/kg). Determine the amount of
flash vapor that may be formed in kg/s if the refrigeration load is 400 kW and condensing
temperature is 37oC (hf=235.503 kJ/kg).
a. 0.734 c. 0.477
b. 0.744 d. 0.374
____ 32. A reversed carnot cycle uses R-12 as the working fluid. Refrigerant enters the condenser as saturated
vapor at 30oC and leaves as saturated liquid. The evaporator temperature is at constant -10oC.
Determine the COP
a. 6.75 b. 6 c. 6.57 d. 7.65
____ 33. The refrigeration system has a refrigerating capacity of 220 kJ/kg. The heat required to remove is
630 kJ/hr. Calculate the mass circulated per hr.
a. 3.18 kg/hr b. 10 kg/hr c. 8 kg/hr d. 2.8 kg/hr
____ 34. If the wet bulb and dry bulb reading of air temperature are identical
a. the thermometers are in error c. the relative humidity is zero
b. the air is saturated d. the relative humidity is zero
o
____ 35. Heat is supplied to 20 lbm of ice at 32 F at the rate of 160 BTU/s. If the heat of fusion is 144 BTU/lb,
how long will it take to convert ice to water at 50oF (Cpw=1BTU/lboR).
a. 25.45s b. 20.25s c. 22.05s d. 25.20s
____ 36. On a cold night the temperature was reported to be same in Fahrenheit and Celsius reading at
(no answer)
a. 33oC c. -33oC
b. -40oC d. 40oC
____ 37. Consider an air-water vapor mixture similar to the atmosphere. If the dry bulb temperature equals the
dew point temperature, the relative humidity is
a. 0% c. 75%
b. 0% d. 100%
____ 38. Sensible heat
a. can be measured with a thermometer c. increases with cold
b. Cannot be measured d. depends on the volume
____ 39. What power is required to drive a refrigeration system with a COP of 5 to remove a heat equivalent
of 100 tons
a. 80 Hp c. 105.2 Hp
b. 94.4 Hp d. 30 Hp
o
____ 40. Atmospheric pressure air enters to a cooling unit at 27 C (Psat=3.5kPa) and has a specific humidity of
0.009 kg of vapor per kg of dry air. Determine the relative humidity.
a. 40.6% b. 43.1% c. 41.3% d. 46%
____ 41. As heat is removed from a substance it gets colder. When no more heat can be removed and the
temperature cannot be lowered any further, we have reached
a. perfect zero c. double zero
b. absolute zero d. cold zero
____ 42. In an ideal refrigeration cycle, liquid leaves the condenser and is expanded in such a manner that the
enthalpy of the liquid is equal to the enthalpy of the resulting saturated mixture. This type of
expansion is known as:
a. throttling process c. adiabatic process d. isochoric
b. isothermal process
____ 43. The lower horizontal line of the refrigeration cycle plotted on the pressure enthalpy diagram
represents
a. compression of refrigerant vapor c. condensation of refrigerant vapor
b. evaporation of liquid refrigerant d. metering of liquid refrigerant
____ 44. 10 kg of ice at 0 C are added to 100 kg of liquid at 40oC with specific heat of 4 kJ/kg K. Calculate
o

the temperature of the liquid just as the ice melts. The heat of fusion of ice is320 kJ/kg
a. 26oC b. 28oC c. 30oC d. 32oC
____ 45. In which part of vapor compression system there is a change in pressure and temperature
a. Evaporator c. compressor
b. condenser d. dryer
____ 46. What refrigerant is most commonly used for air conditioning of passenger air craft
a. ammonia c. CO2
b. R-11 d. air
____ 47. The amount of heat required to change the temperature of one unit weight of substance into one
degree unit of temperature
a. specific heat c. latent heat
b. sensible heat d. None of the above
____ 48. Air at a 4m by 4m by 4m room has a relative humidity of 80%. The pressure in the room is 120kPa
and temperature of 35oC (Psat= 5.628kPa). What is the mass of vapor in air on the room?
(Rv=0.4615kJ/kg K)
a. 2.03kg c. 0.80kg
b. 1.50kg d. 4.80kg
____ 49. What is the heat transfer in the glass surface area of 0.7 m2 having an inside temperature of 25oC and
13oC outside temperature. The thickness of the glass is 0.007m and its thermal conductivity is1.8
W/m K
a. 5.6kW b. 3.6kW c. 6.2kW d. 2.16kW
____ 50. When air is saturated the wet bulb depression is
a. zero c. 50
b. unity d. 100
____ 51. The power of a carnot refrigeration system in maintaining a low temperature region at 238.9 K is 1.1
kW per ton.

The coefficient of performance is


a. 3.0 b. 3.2 c. 4.2 d. 3.5 e. 4.5
____ 52. The heat rejected is
a. 5.26kW b. 4.62kW c. 4.62kW d. 5.62kW e. 5.52kW
____ 53. The temperature of heat rejection is
a. 314.6 K b. 312.6 K c. 331.6 K d. 313.6 K e. 300 K
____ 54. The amount of heat absorbed by one ton of H2O as it changes from solid to liquid state at 32oF is
equivalent to
a. 288000BTU c. 488000BTU
b. 388000BTU d. 188000BTU
____ 55. How much heat in calorie is produced in 5 min by an electric iron which draws 5 amp from a 220
volts line. There are approximately 2.239 cal/joule
a. 738870 c. 739000
b. 738880 d. 739880
____ 56. The boiling point of ammonia at atmospheric pressure is:
a. -28oC c. 28oF
o
b. 28 C d. -28oF
____ 57. Determine the time in seconds will it take to raise temp of 136 kg of water from 30 to 80oC by
means of a 3 kW immersion heater when the heat losses are 10%.
a. 10500s b. 10000s c. 10447s d. 10578s e. 11000s
____ 58. A refrigeration system has a volumetric flow rate of 7 L/s at the suction of compressor. If the
volumetric efficiency of the compressor efficiency is 0.8, estimate the volume displacement rate in
L/s
a. 5.6 b. 6.0 c. 6.5 d. 8.75
____ 59. How much air in kg/s is needed to evaporate 100 kg of moisture in 6 hr if the drying air temperature
is 43oC and the ambient temperature is 30oC. Assume the latent heat of vaporization of H2O is
2500kJ/kg and the specific heat of air is 1 kJ/kg.
a. 0.89 c. 7.69
b. 1.28 d. 192.3
____ 60. Consider 1.0 cm wall made of polyethylene board (k=0.026W/mK) which is exposed to still air
(h=9.37W/m2K) on the inside and the other surface exposed to 24km/hr wind (h=34W/m2K).
Determine the overall coefficient of heat transfer in W/m2K.
a. 0.0075 c. 1.92
b. 0.052 d. 5.73
____ 61. The tank of an air compressor has a volume of 0.2 m3 and is filled with dry air (R=287J/kgK) at a
temperature of35oC. If the absolute pressure of the tank is 7.5 bars, what is the mass of air in the
tank?
a. 1.0 kg c. 1.5 kg
b. 1.7 kg d. 1.2 kg
____ 62. The vertical line of refrigeration cycle plotted in the pressure enthalpy diagram represents
a. compression of refrigerant vapor c. condensation of refrigerant vapor
b. evaporation of liquid refrigerant d. metering/expansion of liquid
refrigerant
____ 63. A refrigeration system on the reversed carnot cycle has a minimum and maximum temperature of
-25oC and 72oC respectively. If the heat rejected in the condenser is 6000 kJ/min. Determine the
required power.
a. 16.868kJ/min c. 1,686.8kJ/min
b. 168.68kJ/min d. 168,680kJ/min
____ 64. A house hold refrigerator with COP of 1.8 removes heat from refrigerated space at a rate of
90kJ/min. Determine the power consumed by the refrigerator
a. 0.96 kW b. 0.83 kW c. 1.5 kW d. 0.56 kW
____ 65. An air conditioner removes heat steadily from a house at a rate of 50 kJ/min, while drawing electric
power at a rate of 6 kW. Determine the rate of heat discharge to the outside air.
a. 410 kJ/min b. 220 kJ/min c. 510 kJ/min d. 120 kJ/min
o
____ 66. A carnot refrigerator operates in a room with temperature of 25 C. The refrigerator consumes 500 W
of power and had a COP of 4.5. Determine the temperature of the refrigerated space.
a. -29.2oC c. -19.2oC
o
b. -39.2 C d. -9.2oC
____ 67. A refrigerator receives 6000 kJ/min of heat when operating between temperature limits of minus
15oC and 38oC. If the coefficient of performance is 60% of a carnot refrigerator operating at the
same temperature limits, find the required power input of the refrigerator.
a. 30.5 kW b. 34.2 kW c. 3.52 kW d. 35.2 kW
____ 68. What is the power in kW produced by a 100 HP engine?
a. 74.6 c. 150
b. 80.5 d. 125
____ 69. Refers to the temperature at which molecular motion ceases, according to the kinetic theory of heat.
a. critical point c. absolute zero
b. triple point d. absolute temperature
____ 70. In a two phase system, 30% moisture means
a. 70% liquid and 30% vapor c. 100% vapor and 30% liquid
b. 70% vapor and 30% liquid d. 100% liquid and 30% vapor
____ 71. Kinetic energy is the energy of the body due to its
a. elevation c. motion
b. temperature d. pressure
____ 72. Power is work done as
a. 33,000 ft-lb c. 2450 kg
b. per unit time d. work times distance
____ 73. To create the Kelvin and Rankine absolute temperature scales, two states were assigned selected
temperature. The two states were
a. ice point and steam point at absolute zero pressure
b. ice point and steam point at absolute zero pressure
c. saturated liquid point and saturated vapor point at atmospheric pressure
d. Ice point and critical point at atmospheric pressure
____ 74. Combustion occurs as the piston is at the top of cylinder thus the process is isometric, if the
temperature increases from 127oC to1327oC during the combustion process. Determine the final
pressure in kPaa if the initial pressure is 200 kPaa.
a. 2000 c. 800
b. 1600 d. 1300
____ 75. Water is flowing with a flow rate of 0.002 m3/s. What is the average velocity at an outlet where the
area is 4 cm2.
a. 50 m/s c. 10 m/s
b. 20 m/s d. 5 m/s
o
____ 76. An inventor proposed to operate an engine between two layers of the ocean. One at 90 F and the
o
other at 40 F. The maximum possible efficiency of the engine is nearest
a. 10.1 % c. 8.1%
b. 9.1 % d. . 7.!%
____ 77. Area under T-s diagram is defined as
a. work c. change in internal energy
b. heat d. none of the above
____ 78. A closed stationary system consists of 2 kg mass. During a certain process, 20 kJ of work is done on
the system and the internal energy increased by 40 kJ/kg.
a. System will gain 120 kJ of heat from surrounding
b. System will not gain heat
c. System will absorb 60 kJ of heat from the surrounding
d. System will transfer 60 kJ of heat to the surrounding

____ 79. Thermodynamics cycle used in thermal power plan


a. Erricson b. Brayton c. Rankine d. Carnot
____ 80. The state of a pure substance is defined completely if we define
a. pressure and temperature c. two intensive properties
b. two independent intensive properties d. any two properties
____ 81. An isentropic process is used to approximate an actual process. For such a process

a. the temperature change must not be large


b. both work and heat transfer is zero
c. no work must occur
d. the heat transfer is zero
____ 82. A gas turbine works on the principle of
a. Carnot Cycle c. Rankine Cycle
b. Bell-Coleman Cycle d. Brayton Cycle
____ 83. What is the theoretical lift of a pump handling water at atmospheric pressure?
a. 33.9 ft c. 24 ft
b. 40 ft d. 26.9 ft
____ 84. The absolute zero temperature in Celsius scale.
a. 100 c. -273
b. 0 d. -273
____ 85. Torque is a force that tend to produce
a. tension c. rotation
b. compression d. bending
____ 86. A mass of 5 kg of saturated vapor at 200 kPa is heated at constant pressure until the temperature
reaches 300oC. Calculate the work done by the steam during this process. At 200 kPa saturated vg=
0.8857 m3/kg, at 200 Kpa and 300oC v= 1316.2 L/kg
a. 430.5 kJ c. 504.3 kJ
b. 540.3 kJ d. 403.5 kJ
____ 87. The process that has no heat transfer
a. Isothermal c. Isentropic
b. Isometric d. Adiabatic
o
____ 88. The boiling point of water in an open container at sea level is 100 C. If the pressure on the open
container is decreased such as going up to the top of a mountain, the boiling point will be
a. increased c. the same
b. decreased d. none of the above
____ 89. A rigid container is heated by the sun. There is no shaft work associated with the container. From the
first law of thermodynamics. You determine the heat added to be
a. equal to the work c. equal to zero
b. equal to the change in internal energy d. equal to unity
____ 90. A steam turbine exhausts at 6.9 kPa into a condenser. 10,000 kg/hr of steam is delivered on inlet at
1.38 MPa and 220oC. The turbine delivers 746 kW. Neglecting heat loss, calculate the quality of
steam entering the condenser. Steam properties; at 1.38 MPa and 220oC h=2058 kJ/kg; at 6.9 kPa
saturated hf= 162.2 kJ/kg, hfg= 2410 kJ/kg
a. 67.5% c. 80.6%
b. 70.5% d. 99.6%
____ 91. A device used to keep moisture from passing through the system
a. humidifier c. evaporator
b. trap d. dehydrator
____ 92. A steam throttling calorimeter receives steam at 830 kPa and discharges it at 124 kPa. If its
thermometer reads 116oC, what is the moisture content of the entering steam. Steam properties; at
0.83 MPa hf= 726.6 kJ/kg, hfg= 2041.6 kJ/kg; at 124 kPa and 116oC h= 2704.7 kJ/kg
a. 1.4% c. 0.4%
b. 3.1% d. 2.5%
____ 93. An idiabatic process is characterized by which of the following?
a. temperature change is zero c. work is zero
b. heat transfer is zero d. absolute zero temperature
____ 94. As heat is removed from a substance it gets colder. When no more heat can be removed and the
temperature cannot be lowered any further, we have reached
a. perfect zero c. double zero
b. absolute zero d. cold zero
____ 95. A 100% efficient pump can draw a suction of.
a. 34 ft H2O c. 29.92 in Hg
b. 14.7 Psi d. all (a-c)
____ 96. If the temperature of the medium is 0oC, what will be the temperature if it is doubled?
a. 0oC c. 273oC
b. 524oR d. 460oF
____ 97. A closed system experiences a reversible process where heat rejection is the only energy transferred.
The entropy change must be
a. zero c. negative
b. positive d. equal to heat transferred
____ 98. If a centrifugal pump tends to vibrate, it might be caused by:
a. misalignment c. clogged or damaged impeller
b. worn bearings d. Any of the above
____ 99. A manometer measures:
a. temperature c. mass
b. pressure d. volume
____ 100. A pump is used to increase the pressure of the water entering the boiler of steam power cycle. Which
statement is true concerning the pump?
a. The pump produces work
b. The pump has no effect on the cycle
c. The enthalpy of water leaving the pump is lower than the enthalpy of water
entering

d. The enthalpy of water leaving the pump is higher than the enthalpy of water
entering

____ 101. A pyrometer measures:


a. temperature c. volume
b. pressure d. mass
____ 102. The steam power cycle is modeled by ideal cycle known as the:
a. Otto Cycle c. Rankine Cycle
b. Brayton Cycle d. Diesel Cycle
____ 103. An open system first law should be utilized for all except:
a. turbine
b. pump
c. piston cylinder with no intake/exhaust valve
d. boiler

____ 104. An inventor claims to have built an engine which will revolutionize the automotive industry. Which
of the following should be the best test to determine if the inventors claim is true?
a. Conservation of mass c. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
b. First law of thermodynamics d. Second law of thermodynamics
____ 105. In an ideal cycle, liquid leaves the condenser and is expanded in such a manner that the enthalpy of
the liquid is equal to the enthalpy of the resulting saturated mixture. This type of expansion is known
as:
a. throttling process c. adiabatic process
b. isothermal process d. isochoric
____ 106. A type of process where the pressure remains constant
a. Isothermal c. Isobaric
b. Isochoric d. Adiabatic
Crop Processing and Allied Subjects
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: E PTS: 1
2. ANS: E PTS: 1
3. ANS: B PTS: 1
4. ANS: B PTS: 1
5. ANS: C PTS: 1
6. ANS: C PTS: 1
7. ANS: E PTS: 1
8. ANS: B PTS: 1
9. ANS: C PTS: 1
10. ANS: C PTS: 1
11. ANS: B PTS: 1
12. ANS: A PTS: 1
13. ANS: B PTS: 1
14. ANS: A PTS: 1
15. ANS: D PTS: 1
16. ANS: D PTS: 1
17. ANS: B PTS: 1
18. ANS: D PTS: 1
19. ANS: C PTS: 1
20. ANS: B PTS: 1
21. ANS: B PTS: 1
22. ANS: B PTS: 1
23. ANS: C PTS: 1
24. ANS: C PTS: 1
25. ANS: E PTS: 1
26. ANS: D PTS: 1
27. ANS: A PTS: 1
28. ANS: A PTS: 1
29. ANS: B PTS: 1
30. ANS: B PTS: 1
31. ANS: B PTS: 1
32. ANS: C PTS: 1
33. ANS: D PTS: 1
34. ANS: B PTS: 1
35. ANS: B PTS: 1
36. ANS: A PTS: 1
37. ANS: D PTS: 1
38. ANS: A PTS: 1
39. ANS: B PTS: 1
40. ANS: C PTS: 1
41. ANS: B PTS: 1
42. ANS: A PTS: 1
43. ANS: B PTS: 1
44. ANS: D PTS: 1
45. ANS: C PTS: 1
46. ANS: D PTS: 1
47. ANS: A PTS: 1
48. ANS: A PTS: 1
49. ANS: D PTS: 1
50. ANS: A PTS: 1
51. ANS: B PTS: 1
52. ANS: B PTS: 1
53. ANS: D PTS: 1
54. ANS: A PTS: 1
55. ANS: A PTS: 1
56. ANS: D PTS: 1
57. ANS: C PTS: 1
58. ANS: D PTS: 1
59. ANS: A PTS: 1
60. ANS: C PTS: 1
61. ANS: B PTS: 1
62. ANS: D PTS: 1
63. ANS: C PTS: 1
64. ANS: B PTS: 1
65. ANS: A PTS: 1
66. ANS: A PTS: 1
67. ANS: B PTS: 1
68. ANS: A PTS: 1
69. ANS: C PTS: 1
70. ANS: B PTS: 1
71. ANS: C PTS: 1
72. ANS: B PTS: 1
73. ANS: A PTS: 1
74. ANS: C PTS: 1
75. ANS: D PTS: 1
76. ANS: B PTS: 1
77. ANS: B PTS: 1
78. ANS: C PTS: 1
79. ANS: A PTS: 1
80. ANS: B PTS: 1
81. ANS: D PTS: 1
82. ANS: D PTS: 1
83. ANS: A PTS: 1
84. ANS: C PTS: 1
85. ANS: C PTS: 1
86. ANS: A PTS: 1
87. ANS: D PTS: 1
88. ANS: B PTS: 1
89. ANS: B PTS: 1
90. ANS: A PTS: 1
91. ANS: D PTS: 1
92. ANS: B PTS: 1
93. ANS: B PTS: 1
94. ANS: B PTS: 1
95. ANS: D PTS: 1
96. ANS: C PTS: 1
97. ANS: C PTS: 1
98. ANS: D PTS: 1
99. ANS: B PTS: 1
100. ANS: D PTS: 1
101. ANS: A PTS: 1
102. ANS: C PTS: 1
103. ANS: B PTS: 1
104. ANS: D PTS: 1
105. ANS: A PTS: 1
106. ANS: C PTS: 1

You might also like