STUDY AID PROJECT D.U.H.S.

BLOOD MODULE QUESTIONS-2018 (D’23)

1) Which type of microcytic anemia is associated with reduced ferritin level?
a) Thalassemia
b) Lead poisoning
c) Iron deficiency anemia
d) ACD
e) Sideroblastic anemia

2) In young patient, mediastinal/ hilar lymphadenopathy is associated with:

a) TB
b) Histoplasmosis
c) Sarcoidosis
d) HIV
e) Lung malignancy

3) Which of these is not included in acute inflammation events?

a) Transmigration at arteriolar end
b) Chemotaxis of leukocytes
c) Adherence of neutrophils to endothelium
d) Vasodilation
e) Increased vascular permeability

4) Malaria is frequently diagnosed by which one of the following test:

a) Culture of organism
b) Serological test
c) PCR based test
d) ELISA
e) Thick and thin film

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5) Thymus is derived from:
a) 1st pharyngeal pouch
b) 2nd pharyngeal pouch
c) 3rd pharyngeal arch
d) 3rd pharyngeal pouch
e) 4th pharyngeal pouch

6) Which of the following is an example of type 3 immune complex hypersensitivity?

a) Contact dermatitis
b) Anaphylaxis
c) Systemic lupus erythematosus
d) Hemolytic anemia

7) The first step in clotting mechanism is the formation of the platelet plug. The platelet plug is
initially weak. In order to strengthen it, it needs:
a) ADP
b) ATP
c) Prostaglandins
d) Fibrin stabilizing factor
e) Growth factor

8) Most severe form of malaria is caused by which malarial parasite?

a) Plasmodium vivax
b) Plasmodium ovale
c) Plasmodium malariae
d) Plasmodium falciparum

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9) What is not part of the vascular events of chronic inflammation?
a) Vasodilation
b) Increased vascular permeability
c) Attraction of leukocytes to site of injury
d) Stasis
e) Vasoconstriction

10) Coagulation factors are proteins that flow in blood in their inactivated form. During a vessel
injury, they become activated. Which of the following factors would be affected by a Vitamin K
deficiency?
a) I, IV, V, IX
b) III, IV, XII, X
c) II, X, VII, IX
d) V, IX, XI, XII

11) Coagulation factors are proteins that flow in blood in their inactivated form. During a vessel injury, they
become activated. During the event of liver failure, absence which of the following substance contributes to an
increased bleeding tendency?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin K
c) Vitamin B12
d) Vitamin C
e) Vitamin E

12) Amount of Hemoglobin in a 70 Kg man?

a) 200 g
b) 500 g
c) 700 g
d) 900 g
e) 1000 g

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13) A 15 year old girl came to the OPD with CBC report, RBC count 5.5, Hb 11.5 MCV 60 and
normal RDW. What further test should be done?
a) Serum ferritin
b) Serum iron/TIBC
c) Reassure the patient and order no further test
d) Hb electrophoresis
e) Bone Marrow examination

14) In sickle cell anemia, glutamate at 6th position of the Beta chain of Hb is substituted by:
a) Glycine
b) Lysine
c) Valine
d) Proline

15) Which of following acts as opsonin:

a) C3a
b) C5a
c) Fc part of IgG
d) Leukotriene
e) Cytokine

16) Which of the following is a strong activator of macrophage:

a) TGF
b) IL-4
c) INF- gamma
d) VEGF
e) IL-10

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17) Inflammation is a process regulated by several mediators. Which of the following is a
negative regulator of inflammation?
a) Leukotriene
b) Lipoxin
c) TNF
d) Prostacyclin
e) Chemokines

18) Which of the following is made up of pseudo stratified columnar epithelium?

a) Palatine tonsil
b) Pharyngeal tonsil
c) Lingual Tonsil
d) Lymph nodes

19) A patient with liver cirrhosis comes with abdominal distention (ascites). Ascites is due to low
level of protein in the plasma. Which of the following proteins could be low?
a) Fibrinogen
b) Gammaglobulin
c) Microglobulin
d) Albumin
e) Alpha globulin

20) Coagulation factors are proteins that flow in blood in their inactivated form. During a vessel
injury, they become activated. Thrombin and thrombodulin complex inactivated Which factors?
a) V and VIII
b) II and III
c) IX and X
d) IX and VII
e) Plasminogen

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21) Vascular leakage caused by contraction of endothelial cells is mediated by?
a) Prostaglandins
b) C5a
c) Leukotriene
d) Histamine
e) TNF

22) Regarding folic acid and b12 function in DNA synthesis which is correct:
a) Folic acid produces pyrimidine
b) Folic acid produces Purine
c) Folic acid produces b12
d) B12 alone takes part in DNA synthesis
e) B12 synthesizes Folic acid

23) What are the substrates of heme synthesis?

a) Succinyl CoA and glycine
b) Succinyl CoA and valine
c) Acetyl CoA and glycine
d) Valine and glycine

24) Auto infarcts can occur in the spleen causing the spleen to become shrunken in which
disease?
a) Immune thrombocytopenia purpura
b) G6PD deficiency
c) Sickle cell disease
d) DIC
e) Hereditary Spherocytosis

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25) Which of the following conditions would give rise to hypersegmented leukocytes seen on
microscope examination?
a) Folic acid deficiency
b) B12 deficiency
c) Sideroblastic anemia
d) Neutropenia

26) Most iron bond to transferrin comes from:

a) Absorbed from intestine
b) Ferritin
c) Hemosiderin
d) Macrophages
e) Reticulocytes

27) Heme synthesis in erythroid tissue is regulated by

a) Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
b) Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
c) Ferrocheletase
d) Ala synthase
e) Prophobilinogen deaminase

28) Which of the following has outer darker region, an inner lighter region with lobules and
laminated acidophilic bodies surrounding them:
a) Thymus
b) Tonsils
c) Lymph nodes
d) Spleen

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29) In which disease is uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase deficient?
a) Porphyria cutanea tarda
b) Acute intermittent porphyria
c) Congenital erythroid porphyria
d) Hereditary coproporphyria
e) Variegette porphyria

30) Which of the following chemical mediators causes vasodilation in acute inflammation?
a) Histamine and NO
b) Leukotriene b4
c) Endothelin
d) C3a and C5a
e) IL-1 and 6

31) In which stage Hb formation starts in erythrocyte maturation:

a) Mature erythroblasts
b) Orthochromatophillic erythroblasts
c) Basophilic erythroblasts
d) Reticulocyte
e) Pro erythroblast

32) Erythropoietin is a hormone that promotes Hematopoiesis. In which organ is it produced?

a) Liver
b) Kidney
c) Spleen
d) Bone marrow
e) Thymus

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33) Which of the following lab studies is most useful in diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia?
a) High MCV and MCH
b) Low MCV and MCH

34) Where in the cell are oxygen free radicals formed?

a) Phagosome
b) Phagolysosome
c) Mitochondria
e) Endoplasmic reticulum

35) An epidemic that occurs over countries and continents and in large populations is called:
a) Sporadic
b) Epidemic
c) Pandemic
d) Endemic
e) Extinct
36) Rate is different from proportion by which word:
a) People
b) Place
c) Time
d) Population
e) Part

37) Symptoms of malaria appear due to destruction of:

a) Macrophage
b) Red blood cells
c) Lymphocytes
d) Neutrophils
e) Platelet

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38) A 45 year old woman being treated by heparin comes in with nose bleeding. Her platelet
count is found to be normal but her aPPT is prolonged that is, 80s. She is diagnosed with
heparin poisoning. Which of the following can reverse the toxic effects of heparin?
a) Alkylating agent
b) Vitamin K
c) Clopidegrol
d) LMWH
e) Protamine sulphate

39) Which unglycosylated protein affects osmotic pressure?

a) Haptoglobin
b) Transthythetin
c) Fibrinogen
d) Albumin
e) Ceruloplasmin

40) Extracellular Hb is bound to a plasma protein in order to avoid loss of Hb in urine. Which
plasma protein binds Hb?
a) Plasminogen
b) Hepixin
c) Hepcidin
d) Haptoglobin
e) Ferritin

41) Major cationic protein is present in granules of which cell?

a) Neutrophils
b) Basophils
c) Eosinophils
d) Monocyte
e) Mast cell

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42) Which of the following about cell cycle is true?
a) Cyclins, cyclin dependent kinases and inhibitors regulate cycle
b) In S phase there is synthesis of organelles
c) G1 is the premitotic phase
d) In mitosis, the entire cell is divided into two

43) Metastatic cancers in lymph node causes it to be?

a) Firm
b) Rubbery, mobile
c) Tender and Non mobile
e) Hard, and non mobile

44) Plasminogen is released from:

a) Liver
b) Platelet
c) Endothelial cells

45) Which of the following has no role in chemotaxis:

a) Leukotriene B4
b) Chemokine
c) C5a
d) Prostaglandin
e) IL-8
46) Regarding reticulocytes, choose the odd one:
a) They synthesize 50% of a RBCs hemoglobin
b) They are less than 1% of all blood cells
c) They contain organelles for Hb synthesis
d) They are immature form of erythrocytes released into blood
e) Stained with supravital staining

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47) Which has same water and electrolyte balance as blood plasma have?
a) Synovial fluid
b) Extracellular fluid
c) Intracellular fluid
d) Cerebrospinal fluid
e) Lymph

48) Principles on which classical conditioning is based on:

a) Pavlovian conditioning
b) Conditioned response
c) Skenner conditioning
d) Higher order conditioning
e) Instrumental conditioning

49) Which of the following has no effect on chemotaxis?

a) TNF and IL-1
b) Prostaglandins
c) C3a and C5a
d) Chemokine
e) Lipoxin

50) Leukotrienes are synthesized by which of the following?

a) Prostaglandins
b) COX1
c) COX2
d) Lipoxygenase
e) Lipoxin

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51) Regarding granulocytes, pick the odd one out:
a) The term polymorph can be used to refer to Eosinophils
b) Granulocytes are also called myeloid cells
c) They contain a single nucleus with multiple lobes
d) They contain specific granules

52) MHC class 1 proteins are found on surface of which cells?

a) Red blood cells
b) Lymphocytes
c) All nucleated cells
d) Macrophages
e) B cells

53) Reticulocyte moves from bone marrow into the circulation through:
a) Transmigration
b) Chemotaxis
c) Diapedesis

54) Platelets are formed from fragments of:

a) Monocytes
b) Reticulocyte
c) Megakaryocyte
d) Myeloid cell

55) The composition of Hb Gower 1 is:

a) A2B2
b) A2 elipson 2
c) A2 delta 2
d) A2 gamma 2
e) Zeta 2 elipson 2

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56) Albumin to globulin ratio is an important measure. When albumin concentration is plasma is
low, the ratio is lowered and one of its functions is decreased. Which of the following
corresponds to that function?
a) Hydrostatic pressure
b) Colloid oncotic pressure
c) Transport

57) A 70 year old man presents with fatigue and shortness of breath. Upon bone marrow
examination, macrocytes are observed. A serum B12 evaluation confirms B12 deficiency. Which
of the following will be used to treat the patient?
a) Folic acid
b) Iron dextran
c) Filgrastim
d) Hydroxycobalamin
e) Erythropoietin

58) Which of the plasma proteins binds Hb?

a) Alpha globulin
b) Beta globulin
c) Haptoglobin
d) Albumin
e) Fibrinogen

59) Plasminogen is entrapped in the it that forms as a result of vessel injury. Which of the
following activated Plasminogen to cause fibrinolysis?
a) Streptokinase
b) Prothrombin activator
c) Tissue plasminogen activator
d) Growth factor

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60) Which of the following is the key marker of chronic inflammation?
a) Lymphocyte
b) Neutrophil
c) Macrophages
d) Plasma cell
e) Immunoblast

61) Tissue damage in chronic inflammation is a result of the action of which of the following?
a) Neutrophil
b) Macrophages
c) T cell
d) Plasma cell
e) B cell

62) Features of red blood cells include:

a) No nucleus
b) Mitochondria present

63) Sensorimotor stage is during which interval:

a) Birth to 2 years
b) 2 years to 7 years
c) Up-till 11 years
d) 4-5 years

64) Which of the following is used to treat megaloblastic anemia?

a) Erythropoietin
b) Filgrastim
c) Iron dextran
d) Vitamin B12

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65) Which of the following cannot be the cause of iron deficiency anemia in a young girl with
irregular menstrual cycles?
a) Menorrhagia
b) Post gastrectomy Iron malabsorption
c) Increased demands, growth and pregnancy
d) Hookworm

66) In which of the following stages does a child have animistic thinking and perceives
inanimate objects to have wishes, wants, and feelings?
a) Sensorimotor
b) Pre operational
c) Formal operational
d) Concrete operational
e) Post natal stage

67) Research methodology in which you move from consequence to exposure?

a) Cohort study
b) Case control study
c) Cross sectional study
d) Case study

68) Which of the following causes formation of giant cell in granulomatous inflammation?
a) Macrophages
b) T cells
c) B cells
d) Plasma cells
e) Epithelial cells

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OSPE 1:
Qs: 69-73
69) Which type of hypersensitivity is shown in the figure?
a) Type 1
b) Type 2
c) Type 3 localized
d) Type 4
e) Type 3 systemic

70) Which cells are involved?

a) Plasma cells
b) Neutrophils
c) T cells
d) Mast cells
e) B cells

71) Which microscopic features are observed In the figure?

a) Vasodilation and leukocyte infiltration
b) Vasoconstriction and edema
c) Vasodilation, edema and congestion
d) Bronchospasm and Vasoconstriction

72) Which of the following antibodies are involved?

a) IgA
b) IgM
c) IgD
d) IgE
e) IgG

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73) Which phase of the reaction is shown?
a) Late phase
b) Immediate phase
c) Intermediate phase
d) Delayed phase
e) Early late phase

OSPE 2:
Qs: 74-78
74) Which of the following conditions is shown in the figure:
a) Liquefactive necrosis
b) Caseous Necrosis
c) Granuloma
d) Fibrinoid necrosis
e) Wheel and flare

75) Which of the following cause the above to occur:

a) Allergy
b) Neoplasia
c) Reaction
d) Myasthenia Gravis
e) Tuberculosis

76) Which of the following is the giant cell in the above figure?
a) Langhan giant cell
b) T cells
c) B cells
d) Macrophage
e) Neutrophils

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77) What is the test to detect this condition?
a) Tuberculin skin test
b) ESR
c) PT
d) PPT
e) Complete blood picture

78) Epithelial cells are of which type?

a) Epithelium
b) Macrophages
c) Lymphocyte
d) Plasma cells
e) Monocyte

OSPE 3:
Qs: 79-83

79) Which type of cell is shown in “A”?

a) Neutrophils
b) Monocyte
c) Eosinophil
d) Basophil
e) Lymphocyte

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80) Which type of cell is shown “C”?
a) Eosinophil
b) Basophil
c) Neutrophil
d) Lymphocyte
e) Monocyte

81) Which type of cell is shown in “D”?

a) Lymphocyte
b) Neutrophil
c) Monocyte
d) Eosinophil
e) Basophil

82) These are the characteristics of which one of the following?

Lobed nucleus, bluish purple cytoplasmic granules and release histamine.
a) Basophils
b) Eosinophils
c) Neutrophils
d) Monocytes
e) Lymphocytes

83) Which leucocyte when enter in tissue becomes macrophage?

a) Lymphocyte
b) Monocyte
c) Eosinophil
d) Basophil
e) Neutrophils

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CBL:
A 17 year old boy comes in complaining of fatigue and shortness of breath. He has history of
blood transfusions since childhood and family history is positive for blood disorder. The lab
findings are: Reticulocyte count: 3%, increased HbF, low Hb and MCV.

84) What is the diagnosis?

a) Thalassemia major
b) Thalassemia Minor
c) Sickle cell disease
d) G6PD deficiency
e) Sideroblastic anemia

85) What does a high reticulocyte indicate?

a) Bone marrow abnormality
b) Aplastic anemia
c) Hemolytic anemia
d) Iron deficiency
e) B12 deficiency

86) What is the composition of normal HbA1?

a) 1 alpha chain, 3 beta
b) 2 alpha, 2 beta
c) 3 alpha, 1 beta
d) 4 alpha, 1 beta

87) What is the composition of HbF?

a) One alpha, two beta
b) One alpha, three beta
c) Two alpha, two gamma
d) One alpha, one beta

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88) Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of anemia?
a) Conjunctiva redness and skin pallor
b) Conjunctiva pallor and tachycardia
c) Yellow sclera and bradycardia
d) Lymphadenopathy and bradycardia
e) Lymphadenopathy and tachycardia

Compiled By:
Batch’23

Edited By:
Study Aid Project (D.U.H.S)

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