1.

Which three statements about network characteristics are

true? (Choose three.)
A. Bitrate is a measure of the data rate in bits per second of a given link in the network.
B. Scalability indicates how many devices there are currently on the network.
C. QoS tells you how well the network is defended from potential threats.
D. Availability is a measure of the probability that the network will be available for use when it is
required.
E. Reliability indicates to what extent you can count upon network components to perform as they are
expected to.

2. At which TCP/IP layer does de-encapsulation first occur?

A. Application
B. Link
C. Transport
D. Internet
E. Physical

3. Which statement about the CLI operation modes is

correct?
A. To change from the Privileged EXEC Mode to the Interface Configuration Mode, you have to type
the configure terminal command first and then type the interface command.
B. To change from the User EXEC Mode to the Interface Configuration Mode, you have to type
interface command.
C. By typing the exit command, you leave the Interface Configuration Mode and go to the Privileged
EXEC Mode.
D. By typing the end command, you leave the Interface Configuration Mode and go to the User EXEC
Mode.

4. Which two devices are responsible for forwarding data to

endpoint devices based on network information? (Choose
two.)
A. Mobile phone
B. Switch
C. Serve
D. Router
E. IP phone

. Where is the MAC table stored in a Cisco switch?

A. Content-addressable memory (CAM)
B. Network interface card (NIC)
C. Random access memory (RAM)
D. Read-only memory (ROM)

6. Which command is used to set 172.20.137.1 as the default

gateway on SwitchX?
A. SwitchX(config)# ip default-gateway 172.20.137.1
B. SwitchX(config)# ip gateway 172.20.137.1 default
C. SwitchX(config)# ip default-router 172.20.137.1
D. SwitchX(config)# ip default-static 172.20.137.1

7. You have subnetted your 192.168.36.0 network address

with a 255.255.255.224 mask. How many subnets are
available?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 10
D. 32

1. Which protocol is used to carry voice streaming?

A. UDP
B. TCP
C. TCP and UDP
D. FTP

2. Which statement about the administrative distance feature

of Cisco routers is correct?
A. Static routes have a default administrative distance of 1 and therefore pre-empt all other entries for
that destination network.
B. Routing protocols have an administrative distance of 4.
C. The higher the administrative distance value, the more reliable the source.
D. Administrative distance represents the trustworthiness of the route source.
E. Administrative distance represents the number of router interfaces that a packet must travel through
before reaching its destination.
 3. Which two options represent details about the neighbor
router that the show cdp neighbor detail command displays?
(Choose two.)
A. Device ID
B. Routing protocol
C. Hello value in seconds
D. Hardware platform
E. List of ports that are shut down

4. When a frame is forwarded to the destination by the

router, what happens with Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses in
the frame?
A. The router changes Layer 2 addresses, while Layer 3 addresses remain the same.
B. The router changes Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses.
C. No addresses are changed by the router.
D. The router changes Layer 3 addresses, while Layer 2 addresses remain the same.

5. Which troubleshooting step would you take if you wanted

to check the NIC on your own device
A. Ping the loopback address.
B. Ping the local interface.
C. Ping the default gateway.
D. Ping the remote server.

6. In which type of IPv6 address does the sender send the

traffic to the nearest of multiple nodes, all of which behave
in the same way as other nodes that are identified by the
same destination address?
A. Unicast
B. Anycast
C. Broadcast
D. Multicast
E. Loopback

7. In IPv6, creating static routes is just like creating IPv4

static routes, but there is an extra feature. Which feature is
that?
A. The next hop can be a link-local and an exit interface or a global address.
B. The static route can be part of a routing protocol.
C. The destination for the static route can be dynamically updated.
D. The distance for the static route can be updated using a policy.

1. Which Cisco IOS command should you use to create a

VLAN?
A. Switch(config)# virtual lan create vlan-id
B. Switch(config)# vlan create vlan-id
C. Switch(config)# vlan vlan-id
D. Switch(config)# virtual lan enable vlan-id

2. Which statement regarding VLANs is true?

A. A VLAN creates a separate Layer 2 broadcast domain.
B. Traffic can be switched between VLANs.
C. All VLANs are associated with the same IPv4 subnet.
D. Routing is not necessary to forward traffic between VLANs.

3. Which option is a key feature of link-state routing

protocols?
A. They are scalable.
B. The convergence takes a lot of time.
C. Updates are only sent periodically.
D. Routers have partial knowledge of the topology.

4. Which two characteristics does BPDU guard offer? (Choose two.)

A. If a BPDU is received, it errdisables the port.

B. It is usually used in a combination with PortFast.

C. It provides immediate transition to the forwarding state.

D. If a BPDU is sent, it shuts down the port.

5. Which two statements about the EtherChannel technology

are true? (Choose two.)
A. EtherChannel provides increased bandwidth by bundling existing FastEthernet 100 Mbps and
GigabitEthernet 1Gbps interfaces into a single EtherChannel.
B. STP can block one of the physical links in an EtherChannel to prevent a loop.
C. You can configure multiple EtherChannel links between two switches, as long as you are within the
allowed number of physical ports.
D. EtherChannel does not allow load balancing of traffic among the physical links within the
EtherChannel.
E. EtherChannel allows redundancy in case one or more links in the EtherChannel fail.

6. What is HSRP?
A. HSRP is an FHRP that is designed by Cisco to create a redundancy framework between network
routers or Layer 3 switches to achieve default gateway failover capabilities.
B. HSRP is a peering feature in the Hot Standby Router Protocol group member health monitoring
system.
C. HSRP is a Hot Standby Router Protocol that needs low CPU memory consumption and no processing
overhead.
D. HSRP is routing protocol that enables routers to dynamically exchange routing information and
properly update routing tables to reflect a failed link in the ne

7. Which statement about WAN connections is true?

A. WAN connections are defined as connections over a public infrastructure.
B. The WAN connection type that is used on the last mile must be the same WAN connection type that
is employed within the service provider network or for interconnecting various service providers.
C. The VPN technology makes the internet an inexpensive and secure option for connecting to remote
offices.
D. The ATM technology requires the establishment of a connection through a service provider network
before communication can start.

1. Which statement describes the named configuration

method?
A. It is only possible to add an individual ACL statement.
B. It is only possible to delete an individual ACL statement.
C. It is only possible to modify an individual ACL entry.
D. It is possible to add and delete an individual ACL entry.

2. An administrator is given the task of configuring only

inside PAT. Which statement about inside PAT is true?
A. When only inside PAT is performed, only source IPv4 address and source port numbers of the
outbound packets are translated.
B. When only inside PAT is performed, destination IPv4 address and destination port numbers of the
inbound packets are translated
C. When only inside PAT is performed source IPv4 address and source port number of the inbound
packets are translated.
D. When only inside PAT is performed, destination IPv4 address and destination port numbers of the
outbound packets are translated.
E. When only inside PAT is performed, source IPv4 address and source port numbers of the outbound
packets, and destination IPv4 address and destination port numbers of the inbound packets are translated.
 3. Which statement is a general guideline for implementing
campus QoS?
A. Police unwanted traffic flows as close to their destinations as possible.
B. Classification or marking should be done at the high-speed core layer.
C. Always use NBAR to classify traffic because all Cisco Catalyst switches support NBAR.
D. Classify and mark applications as close to their sources as technically and administratively feasible.
E. QoS in the campus is generally not a buffer management issue as much as it is a bandwidth
management issue. Therefore, link-efficient mechanisms should be implemented between the access and
distribution layer links.

4. Which device does not emit radio frequencies but can still
interfere with wireless network operation?
A. Microwave oven
B. Wireless video camera
C. Fluorescent light
D. Motion detector
E. Wireless headphones

5. Which physical device does a VRF resemble?

A. Router
B. Layer 2 switch
C. Hub
D. Server
E. Desktop computer

6. Which format stores information using tags that are

defined by the application?
A. HTML
B. XML
C. JSON
D. NX-API

7. Where should the Cisco SD-Access solution be used?

A. Campus LAN
B. Campus WA
C. Service provider WAN
D. Enterprise WAN

1. What is the purpose of the setup utility?

A. To enable you to set up a fault-tolerant boot plan
B. To enable you to create a basic initial configuration
C. To enable you to set up autoinstall
D. To fully configure routing

2. You received an email from a vendor that you use in your

company's IT system, stating that there is a discovered
weakness in their software that compromises its
functionality, and you must install a patch to resolve these
issues. Which term defines this weakness?
A. Threat
B. Vulnerability
C. Exploit
D. Mitigation technique

3. What is the main functionality of the Cisco WSA?

A. Scans email traffic
B. Scans all TCP traffic
C. Scans web traffic
D. Scans STP traffic

4. Which two statements are true regarding asymmetric

encryption algorithms? (Choose two.)
A. Examples of asymmetric encryption algorithms are DES, 3DES, and AES.
B. The key that is used for encryption is different from the key that is used for decryption.
C. Asymmetric algorithms are substantially slower than symmetric algorithms.
D. The key management of symmetric algorithms tends to be simpler than the key management of
asymmetric algorithms.

5. Which three characteristics correctly describe wireless

protected access for enterprise? (Choose three.)
A. Authentication server is required.
B. It offers centralized access control.
C. Encryption uses broadcast key rotation and AES
D. RADIUS is used for backup authentication.
E. Encryption uses TKIP and optional AES

6. Which command should you use to restrict access to the

privileged EXEC mode?
A. Service password secret
B. Service password encryption
C. Enable password secret
D. Enable secret

7. What are two types of switch ports that are used on Cisco
switches as part of the defense against DHCP spoofing
attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Unknown port
B. Untrusted port
C. Unauthorized port
D. Trusted DHCP port
E. Established DHCP port