I.

USE OF RADAR AND ARPA TO MAINTAIN SAFETY OF NAVIGATION

1. How can an ARPA assist the ship to steer a suitable course to make good the entrance to a
channel?Select ground stabilised true motion display and alter course so that own ships
true vector passes through the middle of the entrance to the channel.
2. How is attenuation affected when using waves of shorter wavelength? Attenuation is greater

3. If the radar is set onto the Relative Motion Display, what would an echo of a target with no
trail indicate? Note this the trail of the echo and not a vector.The target is on the same
course and speed as own ship.
4. Target detection ranges are considerably reduced due to shipboard structures like the
Samson posts etc. What are such areas known as? Blind sectors
5. The best land target to use for a radar bearing is : a large headland
6. The function of the waueguide is to : generate the R.F. pulses
7. The purpose of the TM cell is to : paint the heading marker on the display. protect the
receiver during transmission. radiate the radar pulses to the targets. shape the beam in the
horizontal plane
8. The purpose of the transmitter unit is to : detect the returning radar pulses
9. The ship is navigating in dense fog where the visibility is less than one mile. The Arpa
radar is set on a range 12 miles on a course of 314 degrees and own ship has a vector
as shown. What is the vector mode selected on the Arpa? True vectors
10. What can be used on the radar screen to eliminate automatic plotting in selected areas?
Guard zones
11. What corrections must be applied to the echo sounder reading to compare the depth of
water with the depth printed on the chart? Draught of the ship
12. What indicates the true movement of the target being tracked? True vector
13. What is the ability of a radar set to clearly distinguish two targets, on the same
range and slightly different bearings, as two separate targets on the PPI known as?
Range discrimination
14. What is the advantages of a GPS satellite system compared to other navigational aids?The
GPS system gives information about position, speed and time continuously world wide.
15. What is the correct setting of the "Anti sea clutter" control on the radar?A few sea
returns remaining on the screen.
16. What is the probable cause of an error in position of the ship obtained from the GPS
system? Incorrect height of the antenna.
17. What is the rate at which two moving objects approach or separate from each other
called? Relative movement
18. What is used as a portable, plotting device which is clamped on top of the radar screen?
Plotting sheet
19. What is used to control the amplification of echoes received? Brilliance
20. What is used to warn the observer if any distinguishable target closes to a range or
transits a zone chosen by the observer? Guard rings and zones
21. What possible reason could there be for the identification mark associated with a
Racon not being visible on the radar screen? All of the suggested answers.
22. When choosing objects for position fixing by radar ranges you should, if possible, avoid :
small isolated features
23. When two tracked targets are very close to each other, the data of one target shifts
over to the other target. What is this called? Plotting
24. When using the echo sounder in a river the soundings indicated may be incorrect, what
would be the most probable cause of the error?The density of the water
25. Which are the four main elements of a radar system?Transmitter, servo link, antenna,
target
26. Which are the two most important input information required to operate the ARPA
 accurately? Speed and heading
27. Which control on the radar is used to suppress clutter? Anti- clutter
28. Which of the suggested navigational systems is a "Hyperbolic" navigational system and has
hyperbolae as position lines?Loran C
29. Which of these factors govern the echo presentation? All of these.
30. Which of these glues only a bearing and not a range? Racon
31. Which of these is a result of true motion display? Course, speed and aspect of any target
obtained only by plotting of triangle of relative velocities
32. Who should conn the vessel at the time of a search and rescue operation? Master
33. Why should Ground Stabilised True Motion display mode be avoided when using the
Arpa for anti- collision purposesThe collision regulations are based on ship courses
through the water.
34. Why should ground stabilised true motion display mode be avoided when using the arpa for
anti-collision purpose? the collision regulations are based on ship course through the water
What does this control on the radar
indicate? (see figure) Transmitted power
monitor
What is this on the PPI? (see figure)
Clearing bearing.
What does the above diagram indicate? (see
figure) Bearing discrimination.
What is this mark? (see figure) Racon

What type of spurious echoes are these?

(see figure) Multiple echoes.

What is no.4 ? (see figure)

Modulator What is no.12 ? (see

figure) CRT

What is the closest point of approach of target

A ? Between 2 - 2.2

What is the closest point of approach of target

A ? Between 1 - 2 miles

What is the time of closest point of

approach of target A ? Now or passedl;
What is the closest point of approach of target
A?

Less than 1 mile

Which target will have the closest point of

approach
?

Target A
Target ranges are obtained from: the range
marker

A reference for target bearings is provided by

a line on the radar screen called the :
heading marker
Edges of land should be

avoided if possible when position

fixing by radar

because of : the effect of vertical beamwidth

The use of radar ranges in

preference to radar

bearings for

position fixing is because : they are more

accurate.

The best land target to use for radar

ranging is : a small rock
A radar presentation feature

which can often be used to

advantage for position

fixing is : relative motion

Targets echoes appear along a line called
the : heading marker

Radar uses pulse transmission in order to:

detect close range targets

In the equation d = (t x s) r2, the

quantity S is ? 57.The speed of the
radar waves
The unit which radiates the radar pulse
is the: scanner

The main component in the display

unit is the cathode ray unit

The purpose of the anodes in the CRT. Is to :

attract the electrons to the screen
The main component of the transmitter is
power supply
The unit which sends returning ragets
echoes to the receiver is the: scanner unit

The magnetron sends the R.F. pulses to the

display unit
The commonest type of radar scanner
is the : Horizontal slotted waveguide

The transmittedpulse length is determined

by the action of the : magnetron

The transmitter P.R.F. is determined by the :

trigger unit

Radar does not transmit continuously

because it would reduce the life of
components
The purpose of radar is to enable:The
range and bearing of objects to be
obtained

Radar navigational techniques should : only be

used in poor visibility

Positions obtain by radar : should only be used

in restricted visibility
If parts of an adjacent coastline do not
show on the radar, one possible reason is
the : presence of horizontal radar shadow
sectors
 A useful aid to identifying land at long range
is : the calculation of distance to the radar
horizon

If the highest part of the coast is

not the first target detected, the

most likely

reason is : that the scanner is positioned too

low

The preferred method of radar position

fixing for greatest accuracy is : taking a radar
range and radar bearing

An aid to identifying land features at long

range is: a chart with topographic details

A radar fix at long range from land should be

used in preference to other methods.

II. USE OF ECDIS TO MAINTAIN THE SAFETY OF NAVIGATION

1. A coastal passage or voyage plan should indicate the appropriate methods of determining
positions and include which of the following?All of these suggested answers
2. A typical ecdis “base display”shows the following information? Coastline, seamarks and
traffic separation schemes
3. An ECDIS is required to display which information ? : Depth contours
4. An ECDIS is required to display which information ? : Soundings
5. An ECDIS is required to display which information? Hydrographic data
6. As a licensed merchant marine officer you are expected to : All of the above
7. Before using a pre-progammed ECDIS route, what should you do ? : Check all route
data throughly 8.Can A Raster Chart Be Displayed In Head-Up Mode On To Days Ecdis?
Yes
9. Can Raster Charts Provide Navigational Warnings? Only When Used On A Rcd
10. Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS?Yes
11. Chart information details to be used in ECDIS should be the latest edition of information
originated by a government-authorized hydrographic office and conform to the
standards of (the) .
International Hydrographic Organization
12. Define the required interval between position fixes.Such that the vessel cannot be set
 appreciable off course, or into danger by the effects of wind, tide or current
13. Does,IMO specify special training in use of ECDIS ? : YES
14. ECDIS must be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT? Determine magnetic compass
deviation
15. ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases? All of the above, When the
specified limit for deviation from the planned route is exceeded If the ship, within a
specified time set by the watch
officer, is going to cross a safety contour
16. ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases? If the ship is going to reach a
critical point on the planned route
17. ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases? When the specified limit for
deviation from the planned route is exceeded
18. ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the track for the previous : 12 hours
19. ECDIS units incorporate Digital Chart Data Formats, which include Vector and raster
20. How can the ships course change be described in detail ? : by specifying ships present
and future heading
21. How Many Stages Are There In The Planning Of A Safe Voyage Eight
22. How often is it recommended that a position fix is taken during a sea voyage if the ship is in
open waters ? At least every 30 minutes
23. If own ships position in errorneus on an ECDIS system, what is the result ? : all
position, direction & courses taken from the ECDIS are errorneus
24. If the electronic chart is part of an ECDIS, it must display the minimum data required
by IMO/IHO, to include all of the following EXCEPT . Tidal currents
25. Is it necessary to construct a passage plan, (or voyage plan), for transiting a canal or river,
when under
 pilot?A passage plan is always required, irrespective of the length of the voyage, or if the
ship is under pilot
26. Raster-scan chart data is Organized into many separate files
27. Rigging of the Pilot Ladder and embarkation/disembarkation of a pilot should be
supervised by:A responsible Officer
28. SOLAS (The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea) regulations, Chapter 5,
deals with the Safety of Navigation and applies to which vessels?All vessels and on all
voyages
29. The level of database information which cannot be removed from the ECDIS display
and consists of information which is required at all times in all geographic areas and
under all circumstances is
the .Display base information
30. The database information that should be shown when a chart is first displayed on ECDIS is the
_.Standard display information
31. The database resulting from (1) the transformation of the electronic navigational chart
(ENC) by ECDIS for appropriate use, (2) the updates to the ENC by appropriate means,
and (3) the additional data added by the mariner, is called the System electronic
navigational chart
32. The Ecdis System Can Operate In How Many Does? Five
33. The highnest level of commercial navigation accuracy is provided by : DGPS, whitin a coverage
area
34. The paths of intented travel between three or more point is the : Bearing
35. The typical operating range of automatic identifitation system (AIS) at sea is nominaly :
20nm
36. Vector Chart Can? Can Be Displayed With Any Direction Up
37. What chart should be used when navigating ?The largest scale chart onboard for the
area which is properly corrected
38. What does a navigator who user and ECDIS require ? : Good navigation knowledge and a
professional job attitude
39. What is the crucial aspect in executing a voyage in a safe and efficient way?An effective
detailed passage plan fully understood and followed by a competent bridge team.
40. What is the effect of sailing in “course mode” ? : Ships course will not be corrected for
off set, but the course wil be Adjusted towards the nearest waypoint
41. What Is The Imo Definition Of Ecdis? A System That Display Hydrographic Information In
Order To Assist The Safe Navigation
42. What is the main purpose of VTS? Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of the
environment in the vicinity
43. What is the main purpose of VTS?Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of the
environment in the vicinity.
44. What is the main purpose the zoom funtion : to select appropriate chart scale to the actual
situation
45. What is the most inportant thing to know about computerized systems ? : their functions
46. What is the purpose of the “off track” limit ? : assist in controlling the ship track from
 planned track
47. What Is The Purpose Of Voyage Planning? To Support The Bridge
48. When a vessel is transiting a canal with locks and intense bridge activities over many
hours, what management issues should the Master consider?All of these answers
49. When handing over the con of a vessel to a pilot, should the Master insist in discussing the
passage plan with the pilot while he is there to use his local knowledge and advice on the
navigation of the ship?A passage plan should be discussed between the Master and pilot,
when under pilotage in the same way as discussed with the bridge team when deep sea
50. When initially setting up the GPS to provide positions for use with a paper chart, what
Chart Datum should be selected? Select WGS84 and when plotting on the chart apply the
stated corrections.
51. When own ships position input to ECDIS is wrong,what is the result ? : ECDIS will give
warning
52. When planning a voyage crossing large oceans, which of the following answers would most
suitably cover the most critical aspects to be considered when deciding the courses to
steer?The anticipated weather and the need for weather routing. The distances gained by
sailing by great circle. The ship's draught and the loadline limits
53. When planning a voyage crossing large oceans, which of the following answers would most
suitably cover the most critical aspects to be considered when deciding the courses to
steer? The methods of determine position and avoiding areas of increased traffic density.
The limitations of the ships draught and the loadline limits
54. When the route planning process is completed,what should then be done ? : validate and
check all route data
55. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one minute intervals ? : Course made good
history
56. Which of the following answers would best define the term "risk"?Risk is a situation involving
exposure to danger and includes both identification of the occurrence and the likelihood
that it will happen.
57. Which of the following are data layer categories to be displayed on ECDIS?All of the above
58. Which of the following data layer categories is NOT displayed on ECDIS?Ship
hydrodynamic information
59. Which of the following must an ECDIS system be able to perform ? : transformation of
local datum to WGS-’84 datum
60. Which of the following must the electronic chart of an ECDIS display, as required by
IMO/IHO?All of the above
61. Which theoretical minimum number of measurements from satelites does a GPS receiver
need in order to provider an exact three demincional position ? : Two
62. Which type of GPS receiver has at least four channels to process information from
several satelite simultaneusly? : Continuous
63. While navigating using a paper chart marked WGS84 the OOW plots the ships position by
four different methods and they all give slightly different positions. Which of the
following would be considered the most accurate.Radar ranges from two radar
destinctive headlands
64. Who will have the authority to take charge and make appropriate decisions in the
event of a vessel emergency when transiting the Panama Canal?The Panama Canal
Authority
65. With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receiver should provide at a
minimum : None of the above
66. With respect to failure warnings and status indications,GPS receivers should provide,at a
minimum : A warning of losse of position
67. You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel "A" and are passing through the Straits of
Gibraltar. The vessel's speed is 18 knots and your vessel is overtaking several other vessels,
when the visibility reduces down to about 2 nm. What aspects would you consider when
establishing a "safe speed" for your vessel?Deciding safe speed consider: 2 miles visibility;
traffic density; manoeuvrability of vessel; effectiveness of navigational equipment (ARPA
etc); state of sea and currents and navigational hazards.
68. You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel "A" and are passing through the Straits of
Gibraltar. The vessel's speed is 18 knots and your vessel is overtaking several other
vessels, when the visibility reduces down to about 2 nm. What aspects would you consider
when establishing? Safe speed should be where the vessel can come to a stop within the
visible range
69. You are ploting a running fix in an area where there is a determinable current. How should
this current be treated in determining the positon ? : The course and speed made good
should be determined and used to advance the LOP
70. Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180 degrees turn. The ship has a
right-handed propeller and there is equal space either side of the ship (as illustrated).
What would be the most suitable method to make the turn using as little space as
possible?Rudder hard to port, full astern. After gaining some sternway, rudder hard to
 starboard and full ahead

III. MANOEUVRE THE SHIP

1. A balanced rudder has some of the rudder area forward of the rudder axis. About how much
area should this be to call it a balanced rudder? It should be about 20%
2. A ship is equipped with a right-handed fixed pitch propeller, which when going from Full
Ahead to Full Astern will make the ship sheer to starboard. Can anything be done to reduce
this change in heading? The rudder can be put to Hard to Port to reduce the water flow to
the right side of the propeller
3. A ship is passing through a narrow channel and keeping to the starboard side of the fairway,
as illustrated. What could be expected in this situation? The ship will suffer bank rejection
and the bow will be pushed away from the bank
4. A ship is steaming at "Full Ahead" when the engines are changed to "Full Astern". Would this
reversal of engines produce the same results in deep water as in shallow water (where the
under keel clearance is equal to about half the draught)? The effectiveness of the rudder and
propeller are greatly reduced and therefore the results will be considerably different
5. A ship normally turns (swings) around a point which is not the centre of gravity. What is this
point normally called? Pivot Point
6. A ship turns around a point known as the "pivot point". Where is the position of this invisible
point when the ship is stopped and "dead" in the water? At about same position as the
centre of gravity of the ship
7. A tug is moving towards the bow of the ship to make fast and is in the vicinity of the ship's
shoulder, as illustrated. What specific danger should be considered when making this
approach to the bow? The tug may be turned across the bow of the ship and also suffer a
lose of stability with a danger of being turned over if touched by the ship
8. How can the effects of Squat be minimized, when a ship is proceeding in shallow water?
Maintain a slow speed just sufficient to maintain steerage
9. If a ship requires 2 nautical miles to stop in the water from a "crash stop" when proceeding
at full ahead in deep water. What will the stopping distance be in shallow water? A greater
distance
10. On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "AIR DRAUGHT" given.
Which one is the correct one? Air draught is given by C on the figure
11. Ships vary considerably in design and underwater shape, but does the ship's trim ever have
any influence on its steering abilities? Yes, the ship often steers better if trimmed by the
stern
12. The engines are going astern and the ship is making sternway of about 1.5 knots with the
rudder hard to starboard. What effect will this have on the ship's progress? This will give the
stern a lift force to starboard
13. The maximum rudder angle on your ship is 35 degrees. Do you think this is the angle that
 the rudder is most effective? No, the most effective rudder angle is about 25 to 30 degrees,
this is because the rudder is "stalling" at 35 degrees angle
14. The rudder is in the hard over position with the propeller stopped and the ship turning
slowly. On a ship with a single fixed pitch right handed propeller and no thrusters, what
can be done to make the ship increase the speed of turn without significantly increasing the
forward speed of the ship? Give the engines a short kick ahead
15. The ship has a right-handed propeller and is swinging to starboard when the engines are
slow ahead and the rudder is to starboard. The engines are stopped and the rate of swing
rapidly slows down. How could the swing to starboard be maintained without the ship
making much headway. Astern on the engines will allow Transverse Thrust to continue the
swing
16. The ship has completed a 360 degree turn at full speed in deep water. The ship is now to
repeat the turn at full speed in shallow water. What will be the difference in the turning
circle diameter? The turning diameter will be increased in shallow water
17. The ship is required to be stopped in the water as quickly as possible, but without major
changes to the ship's heading. What is the most effective method to achieve this? The use of
the rudder hard over both sides combined with reducing engine power, a method known as
"high frequency rudder cycling"
18. The ship is sailing in shallow water with reduced Under Keel Clearance. If the ship is
steaming with the engines at full RPM, what would be the speed in comparison to the speed
achieved in deep water? Slower than deep water
19. The ship is starting to slow down after steaming at full ahead speed. What will happen to
the position of the "pivot point"? It will move aft as the ship slows down
20. The ship is steaming at Full Ahead when the engines are reversed to "Full Astern" to stop
the ship. The ship has a single, right-handed fixed pitch propeller. What would be the
anticipated reaction of the ship, if there is no wind or current? The ship will probably sheer
to starboard and gradually lose headway
21. The ship is to berth alongside a quay in calm conditions of no wind or current. The ship has
a single fixed pitch right handed propeller. Which angle of approach would be considered the
most favourable? No. 2
22. The ship's engine is going astern and the ship is picking up sternway. The rudder is
amidships and the ship has a single, right-handed, fixed pitch propeller. What would be
expected to happen? The ship will probably start to change heading to starboard and stern
speed will increase
23. The ship's rudder is full over when the ship's engines are full ahead. Will the turning effect
(lift force) of the rudder be changed when the engine is stopped? Yes, the lift force will be
dramatically reduced when the engines are stopped
24. The vessel is in a 360 degrees turn with engine full ahead. If the engine speed is reduced
during the turn, will there be any change in the turning diameter? Yes, the turning
diameter will increase if the speed is reduced.
25. Two ships are meeting in a restricted channel as illustrated. Which of the following actions
would be the most suitable to take on both vessels as they approach and pass each other?
Slow down if possible without losing steerage and be prepared for prompt application of
rudder to counteract any swing as they approach and pass each other.
26. Two ships travelling in opposite directions are to pass each other in a narrow river, as
illustrated. Explain what is likely to happen as they pass each other? Due to interaction, the
bows will repel each other, and then when alongside each other the two ships will be sucked
together and finally the sterns will be repelled as they start to pass clear
27. Two vessels are meeting each other in confined waters. What would be the effects of
interaction between the two vessels as they approach each other? The bows of the ships will
be pushed away from each other
28. What depth of water would be considered as "Shallow Water" in relationship to a change of
the ships manoeuvring characteristics? When the "Under Keel Clearance" is less than 50% of
the draught of the ship
29. What is the correct understanding of the term "a ship with good Directional Stability"? A
ship which when the rudder is left amidships, it will continue on approximately a straight
course
30. What is the correct understanding of the term "bank effect"? If a ship was approaching the
bank at an angle, what would be the effect on the ship? The vessel's bow is pushed away
 from the bank
31. What would be the correct definition of the term "Squat"? Squat is the reduction of
underkeel clearance and the possible change of trim of a ship when it moves through shallow
water due to a reduction in water pressure.
32. What would be the effects of a ship passing into shallow water? The ship is less responsive to
both rudder and propeller.
33. When a ship is lying at anchor in a tidal area using both forward anchors, to what
particular aspect should the officer of the watch be paying special attention? When the ship
swings to the tide the direction of swing should be controlled to avoid the anchor cables
becoming wrapped round each other.
34. Where would the "pivot point" be considered to be located when the ship is proceeding at full
speed ahead and there is no wind or current? At about 1/6 of the ship's length from the
bow
35. Which of the following answers correctly specify the following most common rudders? a)
UNBALANCED,
b) BALANCED, c) SEMI-BALANCED and d) UNDERHUNG BALANCED. i.e. The number in
the picture is related to the letter adjacent to the name of the rudder. 1 = a, 2 = b, 3 = c
and 4 = d
36. Which of the following hull shapes would normally provide a directionally stable ship? A
long ship with a narrow beam.
37. Which type of vessel suffers from the greatest squat effects? Vessel with a high Block
Coefficient
38. Who is responsible for the number and the position of any tugs to be used during a
mooring operation? The Master, with consideration of the advice of the pilot
39. You are sailing in shallow water with a 15% Under Keel Clearance. Turning the ship around,
what space do you need compared to deep water? Need more space than normal

IV. MONITOR THE LOADING, STOWAGE, SECURING, CARE DURING THE VOYAGE
AND THE UNLOADING
1. A bulk carrier loading to summer marks would load to The top of the summer load line mark
2. A cargo of steel swarf and borings (waste steel material from industrial processes) carried on a
Bulk Carrier
 is particularly liable to? Oxygen depletion in the cargo space and self-heating of the cargo
3. A Combination Carrier is: A ship designed to carry either oil or solid bulk cargoes.
4. A good indicator of the possibility of cargo damage on a bulk carrier is The presence of hatch
cover sealing tapes
5. A partly loaded bulk cargo space, whilst the vessel is at sea, may be entered: Under no
circumstances except possibly in an emergency.
6. A stevedore is working in a cargo hold of a bulk carrier while completing discharge of a
concentrate cargo. You suddenly notice that he appears to be taken ill. You should: Assume
problem due to lack of oxygen and/or toxic gas and rescue with self-contained breathing
apparatus.
7. A very dusty cargo is to be loaded in bulk on your vessel. You should: Ensure that all cranes,
deck storerooms etc. are fully closed to prevent entry of dust.
8. After a fresh water rinse, presence of salt in the hold of a bulk carrier can be tested By
carrying out silver nitrate tests which should turn milky in the presence of chlorides
9. After completion of cleaning and testing of the bilge spaces in a cargo hold of a bulk carrier,
it should be checked that the: Drain plate over bilge has been fitted and then covered with
burlap.
10. After completion of discharging coal with a high sulphur content from a bulk carrier, cargo
holds should be inspected and checked for: Areas of corrosion.
11. After discharge of a bulk cargo by grabs and bulldozers (bob cats), you should carefully
check: Access ladders for any signs of damage.
12. After discharge of a bulk cargo by grabs, tank tops and lower hopper side plating must be
checked for: Damage and possible leaks
13. Before starting to ballast double bottom tanks with sea water, the officer responsible for the
operation must ensure that: Correct valves have been opened, air ventilators are open and
ballasting plan has been agreed.
14. Bulk coal cargoes may produce methane and carbon monoxide gases, their main feature
being that both these gases are Flammable and lighter than air
15. Cargo holds are usually swept completely prior to washing on a bulk carrier. This is carried
out so that: Cargo residues will not clog the bilge lines and associated suctions and valves.
16. Cargo sweat is generally caused when Warm and moist air is introduced into a cooler cargo
hold
17. Carrying coal with a high sulphur content in bulk could result in Corrosion of steelwork in
the cargo holds if the cargo becomes wet
18. During bulk cargo operations, it is required by International regulations that: Ship's
personnel must continuously monitor cargo operations.
19. During cargo watch keeping on a bulk carrier, it is required under International regulations
that: The vessel's draughts must be frequently checked and recorded.
20. During the draft survey it is noticed that the vessel is trimmed outside the limits of its trim
correction tables. Immediate actions should be to: Bring the vessel to within the trim limits
imposed by the tank sounding tables prior to carrying out the survey
21. For which of the following reasons would a bulk carrier cargo hold inspection be most likely
to fail? Loose rust all around the cargo hold
22. Hague-Visby rules are applicable to Contracts of carriage evidenced by a bill of lading
23. If the cargo loading rate on a bulk carrier exceeds the de-ballasting rate and thereby
affecting the hull stresses, the OOW must Notify the port state authority with whom the
loading plan has been lodged
24. If the temperature of bulk coal cargo during voyage is noted to be above 55 degree Celsius,
the recommended procedure is to Seal the hold and monitor the cargo using suitable
instruments
25. In a side rolling hatch cover arrangement of a bulk carrier, wedging ensures that: The
compression bar on one panel fits against the seal on the opposite panel.
26. It is common practice for all bulk carriers to be trimmed and levelled on completion of
loading, so as to: Reduce the possibilities of the cargo shifting at sea
27. It is important to remove all traces of salt after washing the cargo holds of a bulk carrier,
because: Salt encourages the corrosion of steelwork.
28. Loading rates of bulk iron ore must be controlled so that: The vessel can manage with de-
ballasting operations
29. On a bulk carrier at the completion of loading and before closing hatch covers, the track
ways must be: Swept and checked clear of obstructions.
30. On a bulk carrier scheduled to load sugar, the cargo holds will certainly fail a pre-loading
inspection if there are signs of: Insect infestation in the bilges.
31. On a bulk carrier, provided it is considered safe to do so, the most effective method of
cleaning a cargo hold that contained grain is to: Sweep and clean cargo holds from the top
down as discharge progresses followed by a final wash.
32. On a Bulk Carrier, which of these statements is correct? Steel slabs must never be
permitted to rest directly against any part of the ship's structure
33. Prior starting the ballasting of tanks on a bulk carrier in extremely cold conditions, it must
be checked that: All air ventilators are open and free from ice build- up.
34. Prior to loading of steel coils in a bulk carrier, all cargo hatch covers must be tested in the
presence of a surveyor. In preparation for this test all hatch covers should be: Fully secured
to sea going condition with all cleats in place.
35. Prior to opening side-rolling hatch covers of a bulk carrier, it must be ensured that: Cross
wedges have been removed.
36. Prior to starting the ballasting operations on a bulk carrier, the responsible officer must
check: That all air pipes are open and that the pipeline and valve system is correctly set up.
37. Prior to starting the hatch cleaning operations on a bulk carrier, a responsible officer of the
ship must carry out a: Risk Assessment, Permit to work /enter and tool-box talk.
38. Prior using ship’s cranes for loading cargo on a bulk carrier, the crane operator must ensure
that: Crane controls are operational, limit switches are functioning properly and weights to
be lifted are within the SWL of the crane
39. The cargo residues inside the hold space of a bulk carrier is least likely to remain hidden
within: Bulkhead corrugations
40. The main problem when a dry bulk cargo develops a flow state is that The cargo shifts
easily causing major stability problems
41. The maximum possibility of sea water entering the cargo hold of a bulk carrier is through:
Hatch covers and coamings
42. The most practical means for inspection of the upper parts of a cargo hold in a bulk carrier
is by the use of: A cherry picker.
43. The recommended way to stow steel wire rod coils on a bulk carrier is With their cores
aligned fore and aft
44. The term cargo sweat refers to Condensation of moisture directly onto the cargo
45. The used dunnage of a bulk carrier is classified under MARPOL: Garbage
46. To conform with "best practise", can you drive a crane and stand-by for a colleague who
has entered a cargo tank at the same time? No.
47. Under international regulations entries be made with regard to the disposal of bulk cargo
residues into the sea in the ships: Garbage record book.
48. Under way to discharging port temperature tests indicate fire in a hold loaded with coal.
What is the first action to be taken? Close all air ventilators and other openings to the hold
in question
49. Upon completion of ballasting operations on a bulk carrier, it must be ensured that: All
valves have been closed, tank ventilators are in open position and sounding pipe caps
replaced.
50. Upon completion of discharging cargo on a bulk carrier by using grabs, the most important
item to check before closing a hatch cover is to: Check that hatch coaming and sealing bar
have not been damaged by grab contact
51. Ventilation of steel cargoes carried on a bulk carrier should be carried out When
 atmospheric air temperature is falling
52. What are the people probably doing in the picture? The people are hosing down the cargo hold
to clean it.
53. What do the letters IMDG stand for? International Maritime Dangerous Goods.
54. What do you understand by the term "Slewing"? Turning or rotating a crane boom.
55. What general background colour is used on warning signs that indicate emergency or first-
aid features, or indicate a safe condition? Green.
56. What is shown in the picture, a crane or a derrick using what loading gear? A deck crane
using grabs.
57. What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SWL" as stamped on lifting gear around the ship?
Safe Working Load.
58. What might safely be used to prevent a load swinging when lifted by a crane? Guide or tag
lines, tended from a safe location.
59. What should you know about the emergency stops on deck? Where they are located and
how to operate them.
60. When accurate draft readings are required, it is recommended to read both port and
starboard drafts. This is because: The vessel may appear up right but may have a slight list
causing difference in the port and starboard actual drafts
61. When ballasting double-bottom tanks on a bulk carrier, the responsible officer must: Avoid
ballasting all tanks together including fore peak tank (FP) and after peak (AP) tank.
62. When carried in bulk, which of the following cargoes is most likely to liquefy due to
compression and/or vibrations? Iron ore concentrates
63. When carrying dry bulk cargoes, a low angle of repose indicates that The cargo is more liable
to shift than
 cargo with a high angle of repose
64. When carrying grain in the hold space of a bulk carrier, the type of paint to be used should
be: Paints approved for use in cargo spaces that may carry edible cargoes.
65. When carrying high sulphur coal on a bulk carrier, the areas of a cargo hold that are most
prone to corrosion are: Steelwork with which wet cargo is in contact.
66. When discharging a bulk cargo, it is required by international regulations that: The method
of unloading must not damage the ship's structure.
67. When loading a bulk carrier at a high loading rate, the vessel will experience highest tension
in bottom structure: During loading of heavy cargo in midship section
68. When loading, it is recommended not to drop iron ore cargo from a height into the cargo
hold bottom because this can cause: Damage to the tank top and double bottom internals
69. When preparing a previously ballasted hold of a bulk carrier for cargo, it must be checked
that: The ballast lines must be blanked off and the bilge lines opened and tested.
70. When washing a cargo hold of a bulk carrier prior to loading a cargo of steel products, it is
usual practice to carry out a fresh water wash after the sea water wash. This is carried out
to: Remove all traces of salt that could possibly contaminate the steel cargo.
71. When washing down during hatch cleaning operations, the officer responsible for the
operation must ensure that: The ship has a large trim by the stern.
72. Who is authorised to operate lifting equipment around the ship? Those ship's personnel who
have been assessed as competent and are duly authorised to do so by the master as per the
procedures as outlined in the ship's SMS system.
73. With a bulk ship in port, when it would it normally be permissible allowed to start painting
over-side only after: The necessary permission has been obtained from the port authority.
74. With respect to carriage of heavy metal cargoes in bulk, the term liquefaction means that
The cargo may suffer moisture migration and become semi-liquid near the top of the stow
75. You are driving a crane and the signalman on deck gives this signal. What does it mean?
(Hand signals as per the Code of Safe Working Practices for Merchant Seamen). Danger, or
emergency stop!
76. You have been assigned to enter a hold and check the general cargo stowed in it, as part of
an on-passage monitoring procedure. What must be in place before you can do that? The
necessary permits, based on valid atmospheric and other applicable tests.
77. You have just witnessed a crew member collapse inside a cargo hold. You should: Raise the
alarm and wait for the rescue party to arrive.

V. INSPECT AND REPORT DEFECTS AND DAMAGE TO CARGO SPACES,

HATCH COVERS AND BALLAST TANKS

1. A bulk carrier has to complete loading at a draft of 10 metres. The current amidship drafts
are 9.96 metres (port side) and 9.98 metres (starboard side). The sinkage remaining to
maximum draft is: 0.03 metres
2. A bulk carrier is loading to complete at a draught of 10.00m when in salt water. She is
 currently floating in dock water and the Dock Water Allowance (DWA) is 80 mm. Her
maximum draught at completion of loading should be 10.08 metres
3. A draft survey is carried out on a bulk carrier to calculate: The quantity of bulk cargo loaded or
discharged
4. After completion of discharge of a dry bulk cargo, the CO2 lines in each cargo hold should be
Blown through with compressed air to ensure that they are clear of any cargo traces
5. Before a bulk carrier can load a full cargo of grain, what additional stability information is
required? Grain loading conditions must be shown and the vessel is in possession of a
Document of Authorization
6. Cargo on a bulk cement carrier is normally discharged by Using its own pumping system and
equipment
7. How much liferaft capacity should be provided on a conventional cargo ship of more than 85
meters in length ? 100% of the complement if it can be readily launched on either side of
the ship. If it cannot be readily launched on either side, 100% must be provided on each
side
8. It is common practice on bulk carriers to fill only one set of ballast tanks at any one time so
as to Ensure that free surfaces in ballast tanks do not become excessive during the ballasting
operation
9. Normally, a vessel sails in salt water and therefore salt water draughts are those which are
referred to. If there is a change in density however, this must be taken into account because
the true draughts of the ship will change. Which of the definitions below is that of this
"Fresh Water Allowance"? The number of millimetres by which a vessel's True Mean Draught
changes when she passes from salt water to fresh water, or vica versa.
10. Reserve Buoyancy is: The buoyancy provided by all enclosed spaces above the waterline
11. The CO2 injection lines into the designated ballast hold of a bulk carrier are sealed Prior to
ballasting the hold
12. The drain pipe covers fitted on the hatch coamings of a bulk carrier are secured In the
event of a cargo hold fire
13. The first line of defence against flooding of a bulk carrier is its: Shell plating
14. The full name for the BC Code is The Code of Safe Practice for Solid Bulk Cargoes
15. The full name for the IMSBC Code is The International Maritime Solid Bulk Cargo Code
16. The hatch cover hydraulic system of a bulk carrier can be damaged by Dust and cargo
particles around the piston seals
17. The perforated plate cover of the cargo hatch bilges are normally covered with burlap, so
as To prevent small particles of cargo draining into the bilges
18. The purpose of the cargo hold ventilator grill is to Prevent any sparks from entering the hold
space
19. To withstand flooding of any one cargo hold, a bulk carrier constructed after 1 July 1999
can be loaded to: The Summer load line
20. What do the letters "TPC" stand for? Tonnes per Centimetre.
21. What do you understand by the term "luffing"? The raising or lowering of a crane jib,
moving the head of the crane and therefore a suspended load horizontally towards or away
from the crane.
22. What facility exists under the ISM Code for the provision of individual control measures for
specific work- related tasks? The Permit to Work system.
23. What general background colour is used on warning signs which require a specific
"mandatory" action, such as one which might require the wearing of a safety harness during
a particular work task? Blue.
24. What is a "consignee"? Any person, organization or government entitles to take delivery of a
consignment.
25. What is meant by the term "segregation"? The planned, separated stowage of cargoes
that may react dangerously with each other in the event of leakage or other damage.
26. What is of utmost concern when steel cargoes are carried in a bulk carrier? Bending
moments being greatly exceeded in the seagoing condition
27. What is the name given to the special list of cargo loaded on board a ship that needs to be
prepared for reporting and other administrative purposes?Manifest.
28. What is this? The United Nations Packaging symbol used for Dangerous Goods.
29. What kinds of checks must be carried out on slings, wires and other items of lifting
equipment before they are used in routine operations? They must be visually inspected and
ascertained, so far as is possible, as being in good working order and fit for purpose.
30. What name is given to the inspection and measurements at the end of a bulk carrier's
loading operation, that determines the weight of cargo lifted based on the observed
draughts, any list, hog or sag, the dock water density and the calculation of ballast and
consumables on the vessel? Draught Survey.
31. When carrying bulk coal cargo, during the voyage methane and carbon monoxide gases are
measure by Using the approved sampling ports fitted on each hatch coaming
32. When loading coal on a Bulk Carrier, the vessel should be provided with Means for
measuring cargo temperatures
33. Which of these is not used to discharge bulk grain? Pumps
VI. MAINTAIN SEAWORTHINESS OF THE SHIP

1. “Parametric Rollin” on a container ship results in: A large unstable roll motion suddenly
occurring in head
 or stern seas.
2. A ‘free flow system’ with reference to an oil tanker means: A vessel without ordinary
bottom lines where the cargo flows from tank to tank through bulkhead valves.
3. A common cause for the weakening of a turnbuckle on container vessels is: Pitting
4. A common problem associated with twist-locks is: Left hand and right hand types exist,
causing uncertainty whether a fitting is locked or open
5. A large GM on a container ship will result in: Quick rolling period and increasing angles of roll.
6. A loaded VLCC ship is stopped and Not Under Command in open sea and is observed to be
drifting towards the SSE at a rate of two (2) knots. Will the direction and rate of drift
be the same for the ship if it was in ballast condition? No, the drift in ballast condition
may be quite different
7. A partially loaded ship is steaming slowly ahead in shallow, confined waters as illustrated in
the diagram. Which of the suggested answers are the most critical external influences
experienced by the vessel? All of the suggested answers are critical
8. A ship moving through heavy seas is affected by the water pressure at the bows causing an
effect known as "Panting". What structure in the forward region of the ship combats the
effects of Panting?Panting beams and stringers
9. After completing all pre-starting checks on the flue gas plant, the first thing that the
operator would do is to: Open the flue gas isolating valve.
10. As per SOLAS a fast rescue boats shall be capable of: Manoeuvring for at least 4 hrs at a
speed of 20 knots in calm water
11. As per SOLAS every fast rescue boat shall be provided with: Thermal protective aids for
at least 10% of the persons the boat is permitted to accommodate or two, which ever is
greater
12. As per SOLAS requirement fast rescue boats shall be constructed in such a way that:
They are self righting or capable of being readily righted by its crew
13. As per SOLAS the Inert Gas System of an oil tanker must deliver the inert gas with a
maximum level of oxygen of: Not more than 5% by volume.
14. At the design phase of a container ship, the loss of strength resulting from the large deck
openings are compensated by: Large deck beams longitudinally and athwartships at the
sides and ends of hatches.
15. Before departing the berth to ensure the stability of a RoRo vessel which if the
following should be completed Close all Ramps and hatch covers
16. By what means can we monitor and control the integrity of the hull? Automatic
detection systems, television surveillance and patrolling of ro-ro cargo spaces
17. Car decks on board ro-ro passenger ships are nomally closed during sea passage. Why are
passengers not allowed to be on the car-deck during sailing? In case of an emergency
situation it can be difficult for passengers to escape. Vehicles, lorries, trailers and other
cargo are maybe lashed and it is a substantial chance for passengers to get injured.
Vehicles and other cargo might also shift when the ship is rolling.
18. Container ships without hatch covers are deemed to comply with the International
 Convention on Load line Rules after: An International Load Line Exemption certificate is
issued in accordance to Article 6.
19. During Crude Oil Washing, those areas of the cargo tank which are not directly struck by
the oil jet from the tank washing machines are referred to as: Shadow areas.
20. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger cabins. What
information shall as a minimum be included in the emergency instructions? The method
of donning life-jackets, escape routes and alarm signals
21. Fast rescue boats construction should be: Rigid, inflated or rigid / inflated
22. Fast rescue boats shall be capable of carrying: At least 5 seated persons and a person lying
down
23. Fast rescue boats shall be stowed and kept in a state of continuous readiness for launching: In
less than 5 minutes
24. From which locations is it normally possible to close watertight doors? Watertight doors
can be closed adjacent to the door and remotely from bridge and also one emergency
remote control station
25. How are the officers informed of the ship's stability in damaged conditions? By
permanently exhibited damage control plans
26. How are the surfaces of ro-ro vehicle decks and ramps treated? With non-skid paints
27. How can an approximate value of the initial transverse Metacentric Height (GM) be found
from the Curve of Statical Stability (GZ curve)? Drawing a tangent to the curve through
the origin and erecting a perpendicular through the angle of heel of 57.3 degrees
28. How long should it take to release at least two thirds of the charge of CO2 that is provided
for a ro-ro cargo space protected with a fixed carbon dioxide fire-extinguishing system?
Not more than 10 minutes
29. How many crews are required to be trained and regularly drilled in all aspects of fast
rescue boats in
 various conditions, including righting after capsizing? At least 2
30. How many fast rescue boats are required to be carried by a passenger ship of 500 GRT
and above? At least one of the rescue boats shall be a fast rescue boat
31. How many lifejackets are required in a passenger cabin? Same number as beds in the cabin
32. How many rescue boats should be provided on passenger ships of 500 gross tons and above?
Two, one on each side of the ship
33. How often shall liferafts be serviced? At intervals not exceeding 12 months
34. How should cargo hold ventilation be carried out on a Ro-Ro vessel loading or discharging
cargoes? With the ventilation fans set to ‘exhaust'
35. How should lashing belts be stowed on board a RoRo vessel? According to their Safe Working
Load (SWL)
36. If a twist lock is found cracked at the base, it should be: Removed from service.
37. If the general alarm is sounding and evacuation of the ship is required. What is the best way
to ensure that all passengers are aware of the situation? Inform the passengers through
Public Address system. Crew with designated emergency duties should proceed to their
cabin section and search all cabins. Guide and evacuate passengers. If the area is
inaccessible report to their superior or the bridge.
38. In context of cargo oil depth and ullage measurements, the abbreviation UTI stands for:
Ullage Temperature Interface.
39. In oil cargo calculations, ASTM table 53A/B is used for: Finding the density of oil at 15°C
from the given density at observed temperature.
40. Is it required to have supplementary emergency electric lighting on board passenger ships?
Yes, all passenger public spaces and alleyways shall be provided with supplementary
electric lighting
41. It is considered essential that container ships should have a large ballast capacity and high
powered ballast pumps, because: These are required for trimming the ships and offsetting
longitudinal bending moments.
42. It is not possible to install double stacking cones on container ships which has: Loaded out-
of-gauge containers.
43. Maximum shearing forces are likely to occur on an oil tanker: At the bulkhead between
empty and full tanks
44. Most search patterns consists of: Parallel track covering a rectangular area
45. Normally, a twist lock should be greased: Between the twistlock cone and associated housing
46. OIf container lashings fail at sea, the normal procedure for the vessel would be to: Enter the
number and type of failed equipment into the lashing equipment file on board
47. On a RoRo vessel carrying no more than 36 passengers, what is the minimum capacity of
the ventilation system protecting standard cargo spaces intended for carriage of motor
vehicles with fuel in their tanks for their own propulsion. 6 air changes per hour
48. On a Ro-Ro vessel what would be the effect of a small GM? A slow roll period
49. On a RoRo vessel why is it important to ensure the vessel is correctly trimmed prior to
commencing cargo operations To ensure the angle between the Ramp and the Quay are in
acceptable limits
50. On a RoRo vessel, how should additional lashings be applied to vehicles if they do not have
 sufficient lashing points? As detailed in the instructions provided by the manufacturer or
shipper
51. On a RoRo vessel, if the Manufacturer and shipper of a vehicle have not provided
instructions and the vehicle does not have fixed lasing points what can be used to secure
the lashings The wheel apertures, or other suitable fixed point on the vehicle
52. On a RoRo vessel, what danger is associated with damaged expanded metal gratings on
loading ramps? Vehicles' tyres may be damaged during cargo operations
53. On a RoRo vessel, what is of major concern when a shallow draught ro-ro vessel is in river
transit in high winds ?Air draught
54. On a RoRo vessel, when cargo has shifted at sea, what could help in reducing acceleration
forces? Operating anti-heeling devices
55. On a RoRo vessel, when loading Double Stacked containers on Maffi Trailers how many twist
locks should have used between the 2 containers One on every corner 4 in total
56. On a RoRo vessel, where is the best place to find information on loading ramp limitations?
In the loading ramp manual
57. On a RoRo vessel, where on board a ship will cargoes experience the least accelerations? At
the intersection of the fore and aft, athwartships and vertical axes of the ship
58. On a RoRo vessel, which of the following can cause an unplanned list at sea? Ballast water
exchange
59. On board a crude oil tanker, guidance on the washing system and equipment along with
the applicable operating procedures, can be found in: The Operating and Equipment
(COW) Manual.
60. On oil tankers, Cargo tanks can be isolated from machinery spaces by: All the answers are
good
61. On the bridge of a RoRo vessel, which of the following doors have no open/closed bridge
indicator
 requirements? Doors leading into the engine room
62. One water fog applicator is required for each pair of breathing apparatus on board which
type of ship? Passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers
63. Parallel sweep search in a co-ordinated manner is achieved when? All facilities proceed with
same speed
64. Passenger ships have a normal requirement of 1 lifejacket per person + 10% for children. In
addition to this, how many lifejackets have to be stowed in conspicuous places on deck or
at the muster stations? 5% extra
65. Passenger ships shall either carry automatically self-righting liferafts or canopied reversible
liferafts. What does it mean that a liferaft is automatically self-righting? The liferaft will
automatically turn back into an upright position when it is empty of people
66. Segregated Ballast Tanks on an oil tanker may best be defined as: Tanks which are
completely separate from cargo or fuel oil systems, being permanently allocated to the
carriage of ballast and fitted with their own pumps and associated piping
67. SOLAS requires the tank coatings in dedicated seawater ballast tanks on oil tankers to be of:
Preferably any light colour.
68. Tanks lids and other access points on an oil tanker are usually shaped round so as to: Avoid
localized stress points at any corners.
69. The ‘buckling’ of strength members of an oil tanker results due to high: Compressive forces
70. The chemical characteristics of effluent water from an inert gas scrubber and the
condensate which collects in the deck mains would be: Acidic in nature.
71. The design features of a container ship with pronounced bow flare, a wide flat transom
stern and wall sided amidships section contribute to: Parametric Rolling
72. The first tier of under-deck containers, on a non-cellular container vessel, are usually
loaded:
Ont
o dunnage laid fore and aft over the tank top.
73. The function of double stacking cones on container vessels is: To link adjacent container
stacks together particularly those in line with buttresses.
74. The function of the scrubber within an Inert Gas system is: To quench, cool and clean the flue
gas.
75. The limitations of a Cargo Securing Manual of a container vessel may include the fact that:
They are drafted whilst the ship is still under construction and need to be checked
against the ship's 'as completed' condition in order to be fully reliable.
76. The longitudinal bending moments caused by cargo distribution on an oil tanker need to be
taken into consideration: During loading, discharging and on loaded passage
77. The main factor when determining the way containers must be lashed is by: Referring to
the cargo securing manual.
78. The main function of a buttress on a container ship is: To support container stacks in a non-
cellular cargo hold.
79. The main function of twist-locks is: To couple containers vertically.
80. The main movements experienced by a container ship, which will create the largest forces
exerted on the container frames and lashings, are: Rolling, Pitching and Heaving.
81. The method to avoid adverse effects of free surface on an oil tanker with full liquid cargo
would be to ensure that: There are at least two longitudinal bulkheads and a large initial
GM
82. The one particular hazard to be taken care against, when using portable steam driven
blowers for ventilating oil cargo tanks is: That the exhaust does not vent into the cargo
tank, in order to prevent possible build-up of static electricity.
83. The primary purpose of the water seal within an inert gas system is: To prevent the
passage of petroleum gases back to the machinery spaces.
84. The proper funtioning of a bridge fitting on containers is prevented due to: Buckling
85. The purpose of having corrugations in the bulkheads of cargo tanks of an oil tanker is to:
Provide strength, but with clean and clear surfaces within the tank.
86. The purpose of the ‘mud box’ fitted on a tanker is to: Restrict any particles and solids
entering the pipeline system.
87. The purpose of the decanting line between two slop tanks, where fitted, is: To enable most
of the recovered oil to be retained in the primary slop tank, while the cleaner part of the
water will flow into the secondary slop tank, where it can be re-used as wash-water.
88. The purpose of the demister unit within the Inert Gas System is: To remove water from the
IGS stream.
89. The purpose of the dovetail foundation on container vessels is: Act as a sliding base for
twistlocks.
90. The residual stability requirements of a container ship state that: A container ship must
always comply with the stability requirements of the International Loadline Rules.
91. Twist locks are preferred over cone-based lashing systems on container vessels because:
Cone-based lashing systems are more prone to failure than twistlocks.
92. What are safety cones used for on a RoRo vessel,? All of the alternatives
93. What are the ideal conditions required to satisfactorily conduct an Inclining
Experiment? All of the suggested answers
94. What are the main elements in a damage control plan? Boundaries of the watertight
compartments for decks and holds. Position of controls for opening and closing of
watertight compartments. Arrangement for correction of list due to flooding.
95. What are the operational requirements for a fast rescue boat? It shall be served by a
suitable launching appliance to launch and retrieve the boat even under severe adverse
weather conditions
96. What arrangement may be installed in passenger ships to reduce unsymmetrical flooding in
damaged condition? Cross flooding arrangement
97. What can be done to minimize the reduction of GM due to free surface? Reduce the number
of slack tanks.
98. What extra precautions should be taken by the officers and crew if some of the passengers
are disabled,
i.e. using wheelchair, cane, blind etc.? All passengers that will require extra assistance,
also in case of an emergency situation/ evacuation, must be registered in order to
allocate crew to assist them if needed.
99. What has a major adverse effect on the manoeuverability of a RoRo car carrier? Wind
100. What is a low location lighting system? A light system powered by battery or
fluorescent signs mounted at deck level indicating the way to the nearest exit
101. What is a Marine Evacuation System? Evacuation Chute(s)/Slide(s) and Liferafts
102. What is most important when using expanded square search? Accurate navigation
103. What is the adequate marking of liferafts for passenger ships on short international
voyages? SOLAS B PACK
104. What is the anticipated rolling period of a ship with a large initial Transverse
Metacentric Height (GM) and would there be any associated dangers to consider? Short
sharp period of roll associated with breaking lashings and shifting cargo
105. What is the correct understanding of the tem "Angle of Loll" when applied to ships
stability? The angle the ship will lie when the ship has a negative GM
106. What is the correct understanding of the term "Bending moments" when applied to
ships? The longitudinal Bending Moment at any section within the ship is the total
moments tending to alter the longitudinal shape of the ship
107. What is the full name of the International Convention dealing with stability of
passenger ships? The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea
108. What is the minimum Initial Transverse Metacentric Height (GM) allowed under the
International Load Line Rules? 0.15 metres
109. What is the name of this unit? A hydrostatic release unit
110. What is the time limit for abandonment of passenger ships? 30 minutes from the time
the abandon ship signal is given
111. What is very important to monitor when distributing cargo? You should always ensure
the ship has sufficient stabilty at all times. Cargo shall preferably be distributed evenly to
 avoid heavy list/ trim
112. What must be ensured immediately after lowering and securing the stern ramp on a
RoRo vessel? Control levers should be locked in the ‘neutral' position
113. What new stability problems would be caused by having deep double bottom tanks on
double hull oil tankers? The Metacentric Height (GM) would have to be considered.
114. What should be observed concerning a ship's water tight integrity? That all water tight
ramps and doors are locked and secured at sea
115. What special requirements applies to fire alarm signalling systems in passenger ships Fail
safe, Centralized in a continuously manned control station, Remote control of fire doors,
Indication of open or closed fire doors, Reactivation of ventilation, Detector status, Back
up powered
116. When a ships derrick or crane lifts a weight off the deck of a ship, from which position
can the centre of gravity of the weight be considered to act? From the head of the derrick
or crane
117. When cargo discharge reaches stripping levels on an oil tanker, it is necessary to reduce
the inert gas pressure so as to: Minimise blowback.
118. When cross-flooding arrangements to correct unsymmetrical flooding and excessive heel
angels in damaged condition are installed in passenger ships, what is the maximum angle
of heel after flooding but before equalization? 15 degrees
119. When is sector search most effective? Position of the search object is accurately known
120. When is the parallel sweep search used? When searching large area
121. When is track line search normally used? When a vessel or aircraft has disappeared without
a trace
122. When shutting down the flue gas plant, the last step that the operator shall carry out
would be to: Shut down of inert gas blower.
123. Where and for what are rubber mats used on board a pure RoRo car carrier? Under the
loading ramp flap to prevent vehicle damage
124. Where on board a RoRo ship will cargoes experience the greatest accelerations? In the
highest stowage positions to each side of the ship
125. Where shall you be able to activate the ship security alert system on board passenger
ships? From the navigation bridge and in at least one other location
126. Which of the following appliances are compulsorily in any ro-ro cargo space intended for
the carriage of motor vehicles with fuel in their tanks for their own propulsion? At least
one portable foam applicator unit
127. Which of these is not a Cargo Transport Unit under the IMDG Code? Road tank vehicle
128. Which one of the following international regulations is normally used when handling
dangerous goods? IMDG code
129. Who is normally deciding which search pattern to use? OSC
130. Why are all RoRo passenger ships divided into vertical ’zones’? Vertical zones are fire
zones which can be divided from each other with fire doors. In case of fire, all fire doors
in front and aft of the fire will be closed to prevent spreading of smoke/fire.
131. With reference to container ships, “TEU” refers to: Twenty foot equivalent unit.
132. With reference to oil tanker equipment, the abbreviation VECS stands for: Vapour
Emission Control System.
133. With reference to the efficiency of cargo pumps on oil tankers, the abbreviation NPSH
stands for: Net Pressure Suction Head.

VII. APPLY MEDICAL FIRST AID ON BOARD SHIP

1. A burn may occur when electricity of high current and voltage passes through the body. Most
damage occurs at the points of entry and exit of electricity. What is the treatment of
electrical burns? Place sterile dressing over the burn and secure with a bandage.
2. A casualty suddenly loses consciousness and falls to the ground letting out a strange cry. The
pasient is red-blue in the face and froth may appear around the mouth. You are witnessing
a major epileptic attack. What should you do? Loose tight clothing, ask all unnecessary
bystanders to leave and carefully place something soft under the head. If casualty is
unconscious, place the person in Recovery position.
3. A faint is a brief loss of consciousness of no more than momentary duration caused by a
temporary reduction in the flow of blood to the brain.How to prevent anyone from
fainting? Tell the person to sit down and lean forward with the head between the knees
taking deep breaths.
4. Abdominal Thrust is the name on a technique which involves applying a series of thrusts to
the upper abdomen in an attempt to force air out of a choking casualty's lungs. How to
perform this technique? Stand behind the casualty. Clench your fist with the tumb inwards
in the center of upper abdomen. Grasp your fist with your other hand and pull quickly
inwards.
5. After checked for open airway, given the first two inflations and checked the pulse to make
sure that the heart is beating, what is the rate of inflations given until natural breathing is
restored ? 12 - 16 times per
 minute
6. If a person has been overcome by fumes from toxic cargoes such as acetone cyanohydrin and
has ceased breathing, you would: Wait for a resuscitator to be brought from the ship's first
aid locker and use it?
7. If a person is in a state of shock, what of the following is the correct thing of you to do?
Treat and reassure the casualty and stay with the person at all times.
8. If Mouth - to - Mouth (M-T-M) ventilation by itself is unsuccessful and the casualty's heart
stops, or has stopped beating, you must perform External Chest Compression (ECC) in
conjunction with M-T-M. What is the rythm when performing M-T-M in combination
with ECC with one First Aider only ? 15 compressions followed by 2 full ventilations.
9. If Mouth - to - Mouth (M-T-M) ventilation by itself is unsuccessful and the casualty's heart
stops, or has stopped beating, you must perform External Chest Compression (ECC) in
conjunction with M-T-M. When performing ECC, where do you place your hand on the
casualty's body? Place the heel of one hand, two finger breadths above the bottom of
breastbone. Cover the hand with the heel of the other hand.
10. If Mouth - to - Mouth (M-T-M) ventilation by itself is unsuccessful and the casualty's heart
stops, or has stopped beating, you must perform External Chest Compression (ECC) in
conjunction with M-T-M. What is the complete rate when performing ECC? Complete 30
compressions at the rate of 100 compressions per minute
11. In which way may intake of poisonous material occur? All mentioned.
12. Inflatable splints are made in various sizes and are shaped to the upper and lower limbs.
What is the advantages of an inflatable splint? It is more easy to give correct pressure to
the fractured/injured area, and the control of swelling and bleeding is more easy to
observe.
13. It is important that a compress is done correctly. One of the alternative signs , after
completed compress bandage, shows that the bandage may be to tight. Which one?
Swelling below the bandage and heavy pain.
14. Shock is a manifestation of changes in which the circulation fails because either pressure or
volume of circulating blood has fallen to a dangerous level. What is the skin colour of a
patient in shock? Pale or grey.
15. The passage of electrical current through the body may result in severe and sometimes
fatal injuries. You are witness to man getting electric current through his body and is stuck
to the dangerous area. It is impossible to switch off the current by any main switch. How
to break the current safely? Stand on dry insulating material and pull the person away
with isolating material.
16. Treatment of burns and scalds depends on the severity of the injury. What is the correct
thing to do for minor burns and scalds? Place the injured part under slowly running cold
water for at least 10 minutes, but preferably until the pain is gone. If no water is available,
use any cold, harmless liquid.
17. Unconscious casualties who are breathing and whose hearts are beating should be placed in
the Recovery Position. What is the Recovery Position? As shown in figure 1.
18. Unconscious casualties who are breathing and whose hearts are beating should be placed in
the Recovery Position. Why is this position so important? The position ensures that an
open airway is maintained.
19. Unfortunately a fish hook has entered someone's finger. The barb of the hook is even inside
the skin. How to remove the fish hook? Push the hook through the skin until the barb
protrudes, then cut the hook between the barb and the skin and gently withdraw the hook.
20. Unfortunately an insect has become lodged in the ear. How to remove the insect? Gently
flood the casualty's ear with terpid water so that the insect will float out.
21. What do you call the method used for bone-soft part injuries? ICE-method.
22. What does the abbreviation ABC mean in first aid? Air, Breathing, Circulation.
23. What is one of the dangerous states a survivor may suffer from? Hypothermia
24. What will you serve seafarers who has been exposed to cold? Warm nutritious drinks.
25. What will you serve seafarers who have been exposed to heat? Cold drinks and salt.
26. Which muscle is the most persevering one in the body? The heart.
27. Which position is the best to stop bleeding from the nose? Sitting on a chair, leaning
forward, with two fingers pressing the nose together.
28. You are part of a team of two First Aiders in a resuscitation situation. What is the rythm
of resuscitation with two First Aiders? 5 compressions after every 1 inflation
29. You are witnessing someone about to faint. What are the symptoms ? The person may be
very pale, and pulse is slow at first and weak.

VIII. MONITOR COMPLIANCE WITH LEGISLATIVE REQUIREMENTS

1. A master of a Norwegian ship who without sufficient cause refuses to receive onboard
persons whom
 Norwegian authorities must provide transportation for shall be liable to: Fines or
imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months.
2. A master or any other person in authority on board treating a person in an improper
manner or fails to prevent his being so treated by other persons onboard shall be liable to:
Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months.
3. A subordinate who unlawfully brings intoxicating beverages on board shall be liable to: Fines
or in especially aggravating circumstances to imprisonment for a term not exceeding
three months.
4. An Oil Record Book, Part 1,shall be provided to every ship of 400 tons gross tonnage and
above to record machinery space operations.Out of below mentioned operations, it is
compulsory to record: Bunkering of bulk lubricating oil.
5. Any master who makes or permits a false entry to be made in the log book, shall be liable
to fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 1 year according to: The Ship Safety
and Security Act, Section 65..
6. Any person serving on board who without the permission of the shipmaster leaves the ship
in distress or other danger while the master still on board shall be liable to Fines or
imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months.
7. Any ship of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and above shall be fitted with oily-water separating
equipment for the control of machinery space bilges.What kind of equipment is required
in this connection? Either Oil fitting equipment , or Oily-water separating equipment , or
combination of both.
8. Any shipmaster who in distress or other danger abandons the ship without this being
necessary shall be liable to: Imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year.
9. Any shipmaster who refuses to provide any person carried on the ship with anything which
he is entitled to receive in such capacity, or who permits such refusal, shall be liable to:
Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months, but not exceeding 1 year if
there are especially aggravating circumstances.
10. Anyone who violates the provisions of Norwegian law or the provisions of regulations laid
down by virtue of Norwegian law, relating to contract of engagements and account book,
to notification to, appearance before, or to the taking of evidence, shall be liable to: Fines
or imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months.
11. Anyone who without valid reason places, removes, changes or conceals nationality marks or
registration marks of a registered ship shall be liable to: Fines.
12. Are the seafarers entitled to free boat service to exercise their right to go ashore? Where
possible the master shall provide such service. Cost and other circumstances may be taken
into consideration. Yes, but only if it is combined with the agent's use of the same boat.
13. Are there any restrictions about how much sludge we can pump overboard on the sea
voyage? Maximum is 30 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000 part of full cargo on
the ballast voyage.
14. As per the legislation in question, a copy of the provisions, as you know, shall generally
speaking be accessible to the crew. Does this apply as well as to a collective wage
 agreement? Yes, if an employment agreement refers to the collective wage agreement
15. At what number of crew members is it mandatory to have an Working Environment
Committee on board? Minimum eight crew members.
16. Can a Norwegian Consulate execute authority on behalf of the Norwegian Maritime
Directorate (NMD)? A Norwegian Consulate has already duties on behalf of the NMD and
the directorate can in addition instruct a Consulate to act on the directorate's authority.
17. Can an agreement of employment for service on a NIS ship be verbal or has it to be
confirmed in writing? The company has to ensure that an agreement is always confirmed
in writing
18. Can any ground be given for dismissing a seafarer? No, only those listed in the Seamen's
Act as dereliction of duty.
19. Do regulations on the scope of the Seamen's Act apply: to both passengers and cargo ships?
Yes.
20. Do you confirm that personal safety provisions of the Seamen's Act cannot, as per the NIS
Act, be deviated from in a collective wage agreement? Yes
21. Does the employer have to give a reason for a notice of termination?Yes, if the seafrers
demands it
22. Does the nationality of the shipowning company have any importance in general to the
application of Norwegian law on NIS ships?No.
23. Does the seafarer have a right to leave service on board for special reasons? Yes, if the ship,
for example, is not in a seaworthy condition for the voyage and the master fails to take
steps to remedy the defects
24. Editing (Preparation)of the book "Excerpts from The Norwegian Passenger and Cargo Ship
Legislation, etc. " is done by: The Norwegian Maritime Directorate.
25. Exemption to serve as master on board a NIS ship for Non Norwegian citizens needs to be
given by: The Norwegian Maritime Directorate
26. For a person whose hours are not divided into watches, the regular working hours on
board a NIS-ship shall be between: 0600 - 1700 hrs
27. For how long shall a ship's log-book be kept on board? For at least two years
28. For how long shall time sheets concerning working hours on board ships be kept after their
completion? For minimum 3 years
29. For how long time must the printout from the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment
(ODME) be retained onboard? Three years
30. For whom does the qualification requirements apply? For personnel assigned to shipboard
duties.
31. How can the master ensure obedience? He shall ensure obedience by the use of force if he
finds it necessary, but not use harsher means than the circumstances make necessary.
32. How does the Norwegian Maritime Directorate keep the master/ shipowners updated on
the new and amended legislation relatives to the book "Excerpts from the Norwegian
Passenger and Cargo Ship Legislation, etc" Through stapled-in supplements in the
quarterly NMD magazine "Navigare" and Ships Documents.
33. How is a Safety Management Certificate obtained? Ship owner has Document of Compliance
issued, and vessel is assessed and holds all statutory certificates
34. How is the basic safety manning determined? The Norwegian Maritime Directorate
determines the basic safety manning after an evaluation which includes, inter alia, job
specifications and qualification requirements.
35. How is the Maritime Employer/Employee Register kept up to date? By reports prepared by
the master/employer.
36. How many Working Environmental committee members should be elected on a ship with a
crew of 13 members? 1 member
37. How shall accidents and health hazards be prevented? By all the other mentioned alternatives.
38. How shall the Norwegian Maritime Directorate be informed when a seafarer is seriously
injured on board? By a telecom report followed by a report on a personal injury report
form
39. How should you, methodically speaking, get to know and to find relevant provisions in the
book "Excerpts Excerpts from the Norwegian Passenger and Cargo Ship Legislation, etc" ?
By help of the Headword Register, the Chronological Register, the table of contents, the
tables of contents in the respective provisions, the Preface, etc.
40. If the master goes ashore, he is obliged to inform: The deck officer of the highest rank present
41. If the subject is subject to manning control, which documentation must the master have at
hand? Master's record and Documentation file.
42. If you use chemicals for cleaning up an oil-spill on the water, what would the chemicals do?
Disperse or dissolve the oil into the water
43. In case of a pollution in US waters, who shall notify the cleaning up contractor (OPA-
90) Qualified Individual
44. In which areas is plastic material accepted for overboard disposal? Not permissible any where.
45. Instructions for "Preparation for welding or hot work in cargo tanks" is laid down by the
Norwegian Maritime Directorate. Which of the following requirements regarding welding
or hot work corresponds to these instructions? If the hot work is to be carried out at the
 bottom of the tank, the entire bottom shall be thoroughly cleaned and all sediments
removed.
46. Instructions for "Preparation for welding or hot work in cargo tanks" is laid down by the
Norwegian Maritime Directorate. Which of the following requirements regarding welding
or hot work corresponds to these instructions? Before hot work or welding in tanks is
started, a complete set of duly signed check lists and certificates shall be provided.
47. Is a repairman not comprised by the specification of crew under obligation to public
supervision of maritime service? Yes, if engaged by the owner.
48. Is there any special area under MARPOL where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or
oil residues? There are special areas where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil
residues
49. MARPOL - Annex I. Your vessel sailed from Bahrain heading for Singapore. 2 days after
departure, you would like to empty your machinery space bilges. What will be the correct
procedures in this connection? Call the bridge and request for position and permission to
discharge overboard through oily water separating and filtering equipment.
50. MARPOL - Annex IV. Your ship has in operation an approved sewage treatment plant
certified by the Administration. During discharge, while vessel is awaiting pilot off Cape
Henry, USA, the surrounding water is iscoloured. What kind of action would be
appropriate to take? Stop discharge.
51. MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage outside "Special Areas". After unpacking spares, you
are left with a limited amount of packing materials. Is this prohibited, if not, what will be
the nearest distance to land for disposal into the sea of these materials? This is prohibited
52. MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage. Your vessel is in the Red Sea (Special Area) and
the Chief Cook is requesting to have some food waste burned in the incinerator. Due to
problems with incinerator, you decide to have the waste ground in the Grinder (Lump
size max. 25 mm) and disposed off into the sea. Is this prohibited, if not, how far from
nearest land is this legal? 12 miles
53. Most minor oilspills are caused by: Human error
54. New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the previous
instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content (60 litters per nautical mile) was changed
to: 30 litters per nautical mile
55. Notification logging procedures .(OPA-90) Every report or message must be logged
including time and date
56. Prior to entering service on a vessel in foreign trade for the first time you are required to
have a health certificate not older than? Three months.
57. Service as master on board a NIS-ship for non-Norwegian citizens has to be approved by:
The Norwegian Maritime Directorate
58. Shall a special form for employment agreement be used for service on NIS ships? Yes,
on a form prescribed or approved by the Norwegian Maritime Directorate
59. Shipboard Emergency Drills must be carried out at least (OPA-90): Once a month
60. Ships of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and more, shall be fitted with oil filtering equipment,
complying with Reg.14 (7) of MARPOL for the control of machinery space bilges. What
would be the maximum oil content of oily-water mixture to pass through the filter? 15
ppm
61. Ships registered in the Norwegian International Ship Register are subject to public control
in accordance with: The Seaworthiness Act
62. Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going overboard by doing what? Plugging the
scuppers
63. The book "Excerpts from The Norwegian Passenger and Cargo Ship Legislation, etc." has
notes about whether international regulations have been implented by Norway. Where
can you find these notes? In the main Section numbered VII
64. The OPA-90 notification requirement is: Notify as soon as you have knowledge of any spill,
or threat of a spill
65. To achieve safe maritime operation, the Norwegian Maritime Directorate works in
compliance with: The International Maritime Organization (IMO)
66. To which Act(s) do(es) the special provisions relating to the seafarers in the NIS Act chiefly
relate? The Act relating to hours of work and the Seamen's Act
67. To which document does the following clause relate? "The contract is subject to Norwegian
laws and Norwegian courts, but cases concerning the employee's service on the ship may
be brought against the owner before a Norwegian court or before a court in the
employee's country of residence. The agreement as mentioned in the first sentence is not
a hindrance to a case being brought before a court in another country when it ensues
from the lugano Convention that such action shall be permitted" To individual
employment agreements for service on NIS ships
68. To whom do the certification requirements apply on a NIS cargo vessel? To persons in
certificated positions as per the manning certificate and certificated positions of
additional manning, if any
69. To whom working on Norwegian ships does the Seamen's Act in principle apply? To
everyone engaged in work on board, except those who only work on board while the ship
is in port
70. Under ISM, what is a "non-conformity"? An observed situation where objective evidence
indicates the non- fulfilment of a specified requirement
71. Watch keeping engineers shall have a minimum of knowledge of the vessel's engine room
and operation of its functions prior to being accepted as Engineer on Duty, and shall
acknowledge his familiarization with the equipment by signing a check list listing all units
he shall be able to operate. Minimum knowledge is: He shall have all the knowledge as
listed in the other alternatives
72. What are the average maximum working hours which may not be exceeded, in a year on
NIS-ships? 2912 hours
73. What are the duties of the master regarding a sick or injured seafarer? He shall arrange for
proper, including medical, care.
74. What are the duties of the master, specially stated in the NIS act chapter 3? To make a
copy of the NIS act and the CBA accessible to the crew if referred to in a contract
75. What are the master's duties if punishable acts are committed on board? If at sea, the
master shall immediately undertake an investigation, secure evidence and take
statements, inform Norwegian Consulate/Maritime Directorate
76. What are the ordinary working hours on NIS ships? Maximum 8 hours per day, or 40 hours
per week
77. What are the prerequisites for a CBA (Collective Bargaining Agreement) to be applied to
service on NIS ships? That the CBA expressly states that it applies to NIS ships and is
subject to Norwegian laws and courts of law unless courts of another country is explicity
mentioned.
78. What are the prerequisites for having a ship registered in NIS? That the shipowner is a
Norwegian subject or fulfils other requirements stated in Norwegian acts
79. What can be the result of public supervision of maritime service of seafarers? It could be any
of the alternatives listed.
80. What do you understand by the term “Risk Assessment”, and how would this be carried
out on board? Identify the hazards, quantify the risks, put control measures in place,
monitor the work activity and review
81. What does ISM stand for? The International Management Code for the Safe Operation of
Ships and for Pollution Prevention
82. What does it mean in relation to the Seamen's Act that no collective wage agreement
applies to the employment relationship? That the Seamen's Act applies in full
83. What does normally form the basis for permission to a Non-Norwegian deck or marine
engineer officer to serve in a position for which a certificate of competency is required on
NIS ships? A certificate issued by the authorities of a state which has acceded to the
STCW-Convention
84. What does the term DISCHARGE mean, as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations? All the other
alternatives
85. What is an endorsement/qualification document? A document, which together with the
national certificate is entitling the holder to serve in a position for which a certificate of
competency is required
86. What is definition on clean ballast as per MARPOL Annex 1? Ballast with an oil content of
less than 15 ppm
87. What is supervision of maritime service of seafarers? Control by the master/employer and
public supervisory authority that the requirements of law or agreement concerning the
employee's service on board are satisfied.
88. What is the best way to avoid pollution from small oil-spills aboard a ship? Contain any oil-
spill onboard the ship
89. What is the book named: "Excerpts from the Norwegian Passenger and Cargo Ship
Legislation, etc"? An unofficial translation of "Den norske skipskontrolls regeler" leaving
out some provisions, such as speed limits, relating to local Norwegian waters. (The
authorised Norwegian original applies in cases of discrepancies etc.);
90. What is the disadvantage of using chemicals on an oil-spill on the water? The chemicals
make it difficult to remove the oil from the water
91. What is the main theme of modern safety practice? Making use of Risk Assessment as a
means to improving safety
92. What is the minimum age for a seafarer on a NIS ship (foreign trade)? A person may serve
on board as from the 17th. calendar year
93. What is the period of validity of the Safety Management Certificate 5 years
94. What is the purpose of the O.D.M.E. (Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment) printer ? To
prove that oil has been pumped overboard according to regulations
95. What must be done before a holder of a Non- Norwegian certificate can serve in a position
for which a certificate of competency is required on NIS ships? A duly completed
 application with certificate etc. must be made to the public supervisory authorities as an
endorsment/ qualification document
96. What shall the master do upon the termination of the employment relationship as to
supervision of maritime service? Verify that the sefarer has been given his rights according
to law or agreement, make entries in the sea service book or record of service, have a
report on seamen sent to the Maritime Employer/Employee Register.
97. What should you do with the ashes from your vessels incinerator which had burned garbage
containing plastics? Discharge to a shore facility only
98. What would be the preferred colour to use when maintaining the paint on shell, plating,
structure and bottom/tanktopp in the engine room? White or light grey to ensure all
minor spills and leakages are noticed and dealt with.
99. When a pollution incident occurs there is a plan for actions to be undertaken. State which
of following priority sequences to be considered: Stop pumps - report - clean up?
100. Where is the master's responsibility for observing the provisions related to supervision of
maritime service stated? In the Act relating to the enrolment of employees onboard ships.
101. Which Act has a provision that reads as follows: " The shipmaster shall take care that a
copy of this Act and of the regulations issued in pursuance of the Act is to be found on
board" ? The Seaworthiness Act.
102. Which document must a foreign master definitely have before his documents may be
considered for public supervision of maritime service? A letter "Exemption from the
nationality requirement for foreign shipmasters"
103. Which documents shall the master submit to the consulate for supervision of maritime
service of a Non- Norwegian rating? Employment agreement, report on seamen and
documentation that the
 seafarer has the necessary qualifications, health certificate, record of service etc.
104. Which entries shall the master make in the sea service book or record of service in
connection with supervision of maritime service? Entries regarding the seafarer's service
time, vacation days due etc.
105. Which institution gives regulations concerning certificates of competency for marine deck
and engineer officers? The Norwegian Maritime Directorate
106. Which law applies to NIS-ships? Norwegian law unless otherwise provided in or pursuant to
a statue?
107. Which of the connections you are shown, are the dedicated shore connection (MARPOL-
connection) for discharging of sewage ? 4
108. Which of the following signal letters states that the ship is registered in NIS? LAPQ4
109. Which of the following would be considered pollution, when discharged overboard, under
the US water pollution laws? All of the mentioned
110. Which personnel must undergo familiarization training on board Everyone
111. Which PPM is allowed for discharging of "Bilge Water" overboard? 15 PPM
112. Which provisions concerning holidays must the master ensure that is carried onboard? The
Act relating to holydays and Regulations relating to holydays for employees on ships.
113. Which provisions generally speaking govern the rights and duties of the employee and
employer on NIS ships? Norwegian Seamen's Act, NIS Act
114. Which ships does the ISM code apply to All passenger ships, all cargo ships of 500GRT or
above
115. Which statement(s) is true of a gasoline spill? It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil
spill
116. Which, if any, are the restrictions for trading areas on NIS ship when cargo is concerned?
They may not carry cargo between Norwegian ports.
117. Who are required to have participated in emergency preparedness training on a NIS
cargo ship? All members of the crew
118. Who are to pay the expenses in connection with public supervision of maritime service? The
employer.
119. Who is responsible for ensuring that ratings forming part of a watch and personnel
assisting or performing cargo operations on tankers are properly qualified? It is
incumbent on the shipowners and the master to ensure that the requirements are
complied with and documented.
120. Who is responsible for implementation of working environment work on board? Both
master and shipping company.
121. Who is responsible for the ship being safely manned? The master and the shipowner are
responsible for the adequate manning of the ship.
122. Who issues an international load line certificate for a NIS cargo vessel of 500 gross tons
and above? The recognized classification society, were the vessel is classified.
123. Who may through delegation/agreement be given authority to survey a NIS cargo vessel
of 500 gross tons and above (offshore units excepted)? A ship's classification society
recognized by the Norwegian Maritime Directorate.
124. Who shall submit a request for trade certificate for a NIS cargo vessel of less then 500
 gross tons? Owner or master
125. Why shall a duly qualified officer supervise any potential polluting operation?To avoid
pollution.
126. Will an individual contract of engagement for service on NIS ships be legally accepted? Yes,
provided it appears, amongst others, the wages and overtimepay and that it is subject to
Norwegian laws and courts, but may be brought before a court in the employee's country
of residence
127. With respect to the ISM, what training in additional to lifeboat and fire drills must be
carried out? Familiarization, and other drills identified as necessary by the ship
128. You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Algeria, in the Mediterranean Sea.
Are you allowed to dump food waste overboard? No, food waste can not be dumped
overboard
129. You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Nigeria, West Africa. Are you
allowed to dump empty glass bottles overboard ? Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they
are ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 25 mm
openings
130. You are onboard a vessel off the West African coast. You want to dump a mixture of food
waste, glass bottles and floating packing materials. Is this allowed? and if so, how far off
the coast would you have to be? This is prohibited
131. You are taking fuel on your vessel in the US when you notice oil on the water around
your vessel. You are to stop taking fuel and: Notify the US Coast Guard

IX. APPLICATION OF LEADERSHIP AND TEAMWORKING SKILLS

1. All necessary information for the next port of call should be: Procured before departure from a
port
2. An alien crewmember with a D-1 permit leaves the vessel in a foreign port and fails to
return. The first report you make should be to the Immigration Service
3. An emergency situation on board must be reported to the company by: The fastest means
available
4. Berapa tahunkan berlakunya DOC ( Documen Of Compliance ) ? 3 th
5. Bukti objective yang ditemukan menunjukkan kondisi yang tidak memenuhi persyaratan
keselamatan yang ditetapkan sewaktu dilakukan external audit dan diberi catatan untuk
diperbaiki namun sewaktu external audit berikutnya tidak dilakukan perbaikan disebut
dengan temuan : Finding
6. Identify 4 of the Five Steps in Team Formation and Development. Forming, Storming,
Norming and Performing
7. If Master finds reason to doubt whether the agent is giving the vessel's interest full and
proper attention he should: Investigate the matter carefully and report the findings to the
company
8. It is the Master's responsibility to ensure that: concerned personnel carry out the on-board
traing progamme effectively
9. Manajemen yang cenderung pada pengaturan massa yang banyak dimana kita harus mampu
mengatasinya, disebut : Crowd Management
10. Manajemen yang mengatur segala sesuatu keadaan yang susah diatur atau dalam situasi
krisis, disebut : Crisis Management
11. Master of every ship must provide: A link between the shipboard training officer and the
company training officer ashore
12. Onboard training should be organised in such a way that: It is an integral part of the overall
training plan
13. Pihak – pihak mana sajakah yang tidak terlibat dalam pemberlakuan ISM Code ? Buruh
14. Prior to arrival at a US port from a foreign port, as per present regulation, the USCG
requires: 96 hours notice of arrival
15. Prior to ordering stores for any department; The store inventory should be checked so that
you order only the items required
16. Proper and accurate inventory of stores should be maintained inorder to: Control the ship's
budget
17. Representative of the port authorities should always receive the best possible treatment:
For ship's clearance to take place quickly and without complications
18. Salah satu keuntungan adanya ISM Code bagi pelaut adalah : Menjadikan kapal sebagai
tempat bekerja yang aman bagi pelaut
19. Suatu manajemen kapal yang sudah berjalan dengan baik dapat dilihat dari indicator –
Indikator, diantara indicator – indicator tersebut adalah SMC :
20. Suatu proses atau sejumlah aktivitas yang berkesinambungan dan saling berhubungan yang
melibatkan manusia, tekhnologi, metode, modal untuk mencapai suatu tujuan organisasi
didalam pengoperasian kapal disebut : Shipping Management
21. The majority of convensions adopted under the auspices of IMO fall into which of the three
main categories: Maritime Safety, Prevention of Marine pollution, Liability and
compensation
22. The office phone, fax, telex and after office hours telephone numbers can be found in: The
 Ship's emergency contingency manual
23. The proper way to correct a mistake in the logbook is to draw one line through the entry,
rewrite, and initial the correction
24. The responsible person for maintaining budget on board normally is: Master
25. The Roles and Responsibilities of a team includes: c) Quality Management
26. To be an effective communicator in a team c) Never Listen by yourself
27. To help Create and Manage Diversity in a team you need to b) Actively discourage
members to ask for help as it is a sign of weakness
28. To help turn an individual into becoming a Team Player we would need to d) Reward and
motivate them
29. To maintain good relationship among the crew on board a vessel, one must
be:Understanding, Co- operative, and have respect from both sides
30. What Individual or Group Behaviours might lead to an effective Team? d) Able to listen to
feedback
31. When observing how teams communicate what signs do we see when identifying effective
team decision making? b) Decision reached by voting or by consensus
32. Where will you normally find the ship's documents including Crew Passports and CDC on
board a vessel? Ship's Office
33. Which of the Following is not a Type of Team?Individual
34. Which of the following will be reported to a company on the emergency phone? All
accidents where crew are injured or killed
35. Which of these is a Disadvantage of Teamwork?More time is taken to perform the tasks
36. Which of these is an Advantage of Teamwork? Can provide Support
37. Who is responsible for the safe keeping of the ship's documents?Master
38. Why is it important to have good relationship on-board a vessel? It leads to better work
performance and positive atmosphere among the crew
39. Why is it important to make weekly/routine rounds in the accomodation areas? To
ensure that cabins and common spaces are maintained in a clean, safe and hygienic
condition
40. Yang bertugas tanggung jawab semua peralatan keselamatan yang ada diatas kapal adalah :
Mualim III
41. Yang tidak termasuk setifikat sesuai dengan ISM Code adalah : CLC