Legaledge Test Series: Mock Common Law Admission Test 2022 Mock Clat #33

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MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2022

MOCK CLAT #33
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Duration : 120 Minutes Candidate Name : _____________
Max. Marks : 150 Batch : _____________
Centre Name : __________ Contact No. : _____________
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INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (Test ID: 2486130)
1. No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There are 150 multiple choice objective type questions.
3. There is negative marking of 0.25 for every incorrect answer. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are
150
4. You have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with a BALL PEN
(BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the Taj Mahal located?", the correct answer is (b).
The student has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below:
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
5. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered incorrect and
no marks will be awarded for the same.
6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.
7. Do not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and, in the spaces, provided for.
8. You are not required to submit the OMR Answer Sheet and Test Paper after the test.
9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
10. Impersonation is an offence and the student, apart from disqualification, may have to face criminal prosecution.
11. You have to scan the QR code only after completion of offline test.
12. You cannot leave the examination hall without punching your answers on the portal.
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions(Q.1-Q.30): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Passage(Q.1-Q.5): The efficacy of total lockdowns as a public health measure is yet to be proven. But we seem
to have allowed our imagination and thinking to get trapped into that logic, regardless of the social and economic
costs to society. Countries that imposed lockdowns, including China, have seen a re-emergence of infections
while Sweden that did not impose a lockdown has close to zero deaths today. However, it’s apparent that
localised restrictions on movements in high positivity areas for a limited period make sense.
The impact of lockdowns has undoubtedly been painful at both the macro and micro-levels. Amongst the worst
affected are children, ironically the least vulnerable.
Morbidity and mortality among children have been comparatively lower. As per a recent UK study, deaths are
two per million and hospitalisation under severe conditions about 1 in 50,000. Studies carried out in the US,
Ireland, Norway, Germany and other parts of the world have shown very low to negligible transmission of
infection in, and due to, schools, particularly where the discipline of wearing masks, physical distancing and
personal hygiene has been enforced even moderately. In fact, most countries have persisted with in-person
learning. Only a handful have shut down schools. India is one of them.
While we have no information regarding the cohort of children who have been hospitalised or have died due to
Covid over the past 18 months, as in the case of adults, children with _____ such as diabetes or obesity are likely
to be more vulnerable. Such data, along with seropositivity studies, need to be triangulated and analysed to enable
evidence-based policy formulation instead of panic or speculation guiding decision making.
Available evidence seems to suggest that from a strictly epidemiological standpoint, there is weak justification
for the stringent and prolonged lockdown of schools – particularly, primary schools. We do hear of online classes.
But with less than a quarter of the country having internet access and the lackadaisical manner of the
implementation of online learning by untrained teachers, the reach of such instruction to even urban students has
been patchy. Students from rich families attending “good” schools may have benefitted somewhat from online
education, but they are only a minuscule section of the learners.
The impact of this policy is generational and has undone a lot of the gains in education. A large number of
children are now joining the workforce– they are missing out on the joys of learning.
1. From the passage, it can be inferred that

(a) Affluent students only can attend competent schools.
(b) The children currently looking for employment may not be not equipped to enter the workforce.
(c) Rather puerile students are able to attend online education.
(d) The children joining the workforce will have to do an on the job learning to cover up for the inadequate
learning.
2. It is evident that from a pandemic stance, lengthy lockdown of schools

(a) remains absolutely unjustified.
(b) is strictly perilous for the students.
(c) is accounted for inadequately.
(d) explains the weak regime imposing diktat.
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 2 of 36
3. For the three major reasons mentioned in the passage, which one of the followings would be not related to
‘negligible transmission of infection’?
(a) Discipline of wearing full-sleeves clothes.
(b) Maintaining physical distancing along with personal hygiene.
(c) Enforcing fixed number of students per class.
(d) Both A and C
4. Children with such as diabetes or obesity are likely to be more vulnerable. Fill in the blank with the word from
the options that makes the sentence coherent.
(a) comorbidities (b) seropositivity (c) geniality (d) Machiavellian
5. The word ‘lackadaisical’ is the antonym of:

(a) uninterested (b) enervated (c) enthusiastic (d) offhand
Passage(Q.6-Q.10): A proposed change in what can be classified as "green energy" by the European Union will
have disastrous consequences for global climate efforts, if its greed-driven leadership is not stopped soon. On
New Year's Eve, the European Commission (EC) quietly distributed a draft proposal to EU member states to
classify gas- and nuclear-powered electricity generation as "green energy options" eligible for investment
incentives. The underhanded timing of the proposal's release over a holiday weekend was likely intentional, as
the new "taxonomy" would almost completely undo what tenuous progress was made at last year's COP26
climate summit. The EC seemed to realize that proposing environmental destruction as a matter of continental
policy would not be popular with the public, and so distributed the draft at a time when public attention would
be elsewhere.
The public has since caught up, however. The proposed changes have been met with bitter protests, and for good
reason. The new rules would effectively derail what has been fairly rapid progress in transitioning to renewable
energy across Europe and completely end any hope of the EU collectively achieving its emissions reduction
commitments by 2030. As the EU has until now aggressively marketed itself as the benchmark for climate
mitigation action as far as energy is concerned, its latest move will likely encourage other countries to similarly
roll back their own efforts. Under the proposal, which would go into effect in 2023 if approved by a majority of
EU member states, permits for new nuclear plants could continue to be issued until 2045, while permits for work
needed to extend the life of existing nuclear plants could be issued until 2040. For gas plants, the proposal
establishes a deadline of 2031 for new construction permits, and makes the non-binding stipulation that carbon
emission limits should be set "well below" those of comparable coal plants.
The reasoning behind the proposed changes is that they would help lower-income countries transition from coal
power to eventually sustainable sources. The proposal, however, represents a significant step backward from
what the EU has already achieved. Under its current commitment, the EU would have to reduce emissions from
gas power plants by 32 to 37 percent by 2030, along with replacing coal plants, in order to meet its target.
Increasing gas power obviously will not accomplish that. Nuclear power is likewise not emissions-free, although
it is certainly a far cleaner option. CO2 emissions from operations in most modern nuclear plants (those with
either advanced reactors or the even newer third-generation EPR pressurized water reactors) range from 18.2 to
24.4 grams of CO2 per kilowatt-hour (gCO2/kWh). When related emissions from fuel processing and
construction are factored in, the emissions increase to 40 to 116 gCO2/kWh.
The bigger problem with nuclear power, as critics (most notably the Austrian government) have pointed out, is
that the new rules would contravene existing EU legal definitions. Under the current taxonomy, investments and
activities can only be described as "sustainable" if they both contribute to climate objectives and do no significant
harm to other environmental objectives, including circular economy, biodiversity and pollution reduction
objectives.
6. The author is-
(a) Presenting a hypothetical situation.
(b) Portraying a bleak situation.
(c) Portraying his happiness on the situation.
(d) Objectively describes the current environment situation.
7. Which of the following is the closest meaning to the word “Taxonomy”?

(a) Disorder (b) Segregation (c) Unification (d) Nomenclature
8. All of the following can be inferred from the sentence except

(a) The author is unhappy with the proposed changes in classifying gas- and nuclear-powered electricity
generation as "green energy options".
(b) The draft proposal to EU member states to classify gas- and nuclear-powered electricity generation as "green
energy options" was a covert attempt to avoid public uproar.
(c) The public found the proposed changes unpalatable.
(d) The new rules would effectively derail what has been fairly rapid progress in transitioning to renewable
energy across Europe.
9. According to the passage, which of the following is/ are true?

I. EU has until now aggressively marketed itself as the benchmark for climate mitigation action.
II. The bigger problem with nuclear power is that the new rules would contravene existing EU legal definitions.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) None of the above
10. Which of the following reflects the overall tone of the author?
(a) Rabble-rousing (b) Neutral (c) Acclamatory (d) Disquieting
Directions (Q.11-Q.16): As humans continue to rapidly expand the scope of their domination of nature -
bulldozing and burning down forests and other natural areas, wiping out species, and breaking down ecosystem
functions - a growing number of influential scientists and conservationists think that protecting half of the planet
in some form is going to be key to keeping it habitable. The idea first received public attention in 2016 when
E.O. Wilson, the legendary 90-year-old conservation biologist, published the idea in his book Half Earth: Our
Planet's Fight for Life. "We now have enough measurements of extinction rates and the likely rate in the future
to know that it is approaching a thousand times the baseline of what existed before humanity came along," he
told The New York Times in a 2016 interview.
Once thought of as aspirational, many are now taking these ideas seriously, not only as a firewall to protect
biodiversity, but also to mitigate continued climate warming. One of the major reasons for adoption of these
extreme preservation goals is a 2019 report by the Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity
and Ecosystem Services (IPBES), which found that more than 1 million species are at risk of extinction. That
report concluded that it's not only species that are at risk, however. The myriad life-support functions that these
species and ecosystems provide also are threatened – everything from clean water and air to flood control and
climate regulation, food and a host of other services.
The ambitious goal of protecting and restoring natural systems on a large scale is shared by a number of groups
and people. The Wyss Campaign for Nature is working in partnership with the National Geographic Society to
support the goals of the so-called "30x30" movement, a highly ambitious initiative that aims to protect 30% of
the planet, on land and at sea, by 2030.
All eyes are now on the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), a multilateral treaty created by the United
Nations to write a 10-year biodiversity plan. The 2010 CBD meeting called for 17% of the terrestrial planet to
be protected in some form and 10% of the oceans by 2020. That goal was not reached - currently about 16% of
the terrestrial planet has been protected, and less than 8% of marine ecosystems. So, reaching the 2030 goal
would require a near doubling of land protections and a quadrupling of ocean protections - all in the next decade.
It's a daunting challenge, even if the will is there, with some countries - notably Brazil and the US - moving in
the opposite direction. Brazilian President Jair Bolsonaro has opened up the Amazon rainforest to an onslaught
of land-clearing, logging and agricultural development. And last year the Trump Administration eliminated the
Landscape Conservation Cooperative Network, an Obama-era program that created 22 research centres to tackle
landscape-level conservation problems across the US.
11. Which of the following is/are true according to the passage?

i. The book Half Earth: Our Planet's Fight for Life is authored by E.O. Wilson.
ii. In a 2016 interview to the New York Times, E.O. Wilson said that we do not have enough measurements of
extinction rates.
iii. The goal of protecting and restoring natural systems on a large scale is shared by a number of groups and
people.
(a) Only i) (b) Both i) and iii) (c) Only ii (d) Both ii) and iii)
12. What was the finding of the 2019 Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem
Services (IPBES) report?
(a) It found that less than 1 million species were at risk of extinction.
(b) It found that more than 1 million species were at risk of extinction.
(c) It found that more than 3 million species were at risk of extinction.
(d) It found that less than 3 million species were at risk of extinction.
13. Which of the followings is working in partnership with the Wyss Campaign for Nature?
(a) National Geographic Society.
(b) United Nations Environment Programme.
(c) World Wide Fund for Nature.
(d) Earth Day.
14. Which of the following correctly defines the aim of '30x30' movement?
(a) To protect 30% of the existing wildlife in their natural habitat.
(b) To build 30 new dams across the world.
(c) To destroy 30% of the natural resources.
(d) To protect 30% of the planet, on land and at sea, by 2030.
15. According to the passage, what is Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)?

(a) A unilateral treaty, formed by the United Nations, in order to chart out a 10 years biodiversity plan.
(b) A multilateral treaty, formed by the United Nations, in order to chart out a 10 years biodiversity plan.
(c) A unilateral treaty formed by the United Nations, in order to chart out a 15 years biodiversity plan.
(d) A multilateral treaty, formed by the United Nations, in order to chart out a 20 years biodiversity plan.
16. What did the Landscape Conservation Cooperative Network do?

(a) It created 33 research centres to tackle landscape-level conservation problems across the US.
(b) It created 22 research centres to tackle ocean-level conservation problems across the US.
(c) It created 22 research centres to tackle atmospheric-level conservation problems across the US.
(d) It created 22 research centres to tackle landscape-level conservation problems across the US.
Passage: (Q.17-Q.21): Two years into a raging pandemic, Corona continues to have most of civilization in a
chokehold. As expected, people haven’t taken kindly to the fact that their prayers, wishes, science-approved
vaccines and safety measures have done next to nothing to make it go away. Needless to say, fear, fraying
tempers and fraught emotions have come to the fore, creating a toxic climate that claims as many victims as the
variants of a virus.
People need to present this calamity with a united front and yet, we have seldom been more divided. We can’t
agree on whether the vaccines are lifesavers guaranteed to save humanity or a placebo concocted by the
pharmaceutical companies to make trillions and profit from collective suffering in collusion with heartless
capitalists. The double-jabbed and the vaccine sceptics are butting heads leading to explosive results with World
No 1 tennis champion, Novak Djokovic, being the most high-profile casualty.
The outspoken Novak Djokovic has been one of the most visible vaccine sceptics and his stubborn stance has
endeared him to his fans who were infuriated at the public humiliation of a great champion by slimy politicians
while earning him the dire wrath of most others. His detractors sought to drown him in a wave of social media-
engineered derision, mocking his spiritual beliefs and the pseudoscience he supposedly peddles. This inability
to find a middle ground in light of the ever-widening chasm between science and spirituality is our biggest failure
in modern times and it needs to be bridged. We must make the attempt to develop a system of knowledge that is
free from the fallacies of science and the failings of religion. In the tussle between faith and intellect, neither can
hope to subsume the other which is how we have arrived at this hopeless impasse.
It wasn’t always this way. Ibn Sina—polymath, philosopher and physician whose innovative theorizing in
metaphysics elevated the soul to the realm of the intellect—gave the world the Canon, the foundation of modern
medicine which was taught as a textbook in Europe and the Islamic lands. Michelangelo was a devout Catholic
who risked eternal damnation to perform dissections on corpses to satisfy his scientific curiosity about anatomy
which he felt was crucial to enhance his prowess as a sculptor and painter.
India’s great mathematicians like Aryabhata and Brahmagupta managed to find a way to reconcile the demands
of their faith with science, making unequalled contributions to the study of numbers even as they gazed upon the
stars. These are the giants we must emulate. After all, differences in race, culture and beliefs notwithstanding,
diversity is a beautiful thing especially when the divisive elements find a way to beat the odds and coexist in
truth and harmony.
17. Choose the option which interprets the following line, ‘Corona continues to have most of civilization in a
chokehold’.
(a) Covid have gripped the whole civilization.
(b) Covid had closely tied civilization to us.
(c) Covid has restrained civilization and continues to do so.
(d) Covid has retrained humans to be civilised and continues to do so.
18. Which of the following is appropriate title for this passage?

(a) Science of the spirituality.
(b) Spirituality behind the science.
(c) Schism between Science and Spirituality.
(d) Divination between science and spirituality.
19. According to the passage, select the correct statement?

(a) Docile stance of Novak Djokovic has endeared him to the politicians.
(b) There is a toxic climate due to the air quality during COVID.
(c) People can present this calamity with segregated view.
(d) Fear, fraying tempers and fraught emotions have come to the fore with the new virus variant.
20. What, according to the passage, is the main/significant work of Ibn Sina?
(a) Innovative theorising in metaphysics.
(b) The foundation of modern medicine
(c) Elevated the soul to the realm of the intellect
(d) To perform dissections on corpses.
21. What, according to the author, is the achievement attained by India’s great mathematician?
(a) Quarrel between science and faith.
(b) To restore demands of faith with science.
(c) To reconcile divine with science.
(d) The relation between science and faith.
Passage(Q.22-Q.26): Northern Ireland has been plunged into political crisis amid reports that the first minister,
Paul Givan, is to resign over Brexit. Such a move, reported by the BBC’s Stephen Nolan show, would threaten
the future of the government and trigger the resignation of the deputy first minister, Michelle O’Neill, Sinn
Féin’s (opposition party) leader in Northern Ireland. Neither leader can stay in power if the other quits. The
reported move comes just days after the DUP gave Brussels a 21 February deadline to resolve the dispute over
Brexit checks and just hours after Ireland’s agriculture minister, Edwin Poots, also a DUP representative, ordered
a halt to Brexit checks on food and farm products coming into Northern Ireland from Great Britain.
The resignation of the first and deputy first minister would not trigger the immediate collapse of the Irish
executive allowing it to stumble on till the elections in May. Under the rules, the parties would have six weeks
to nominate replacements. But critics say the resignation of the two ministers will further destabilise Northern
Ireland and prevent key decisions on an upcoming budget from being made. Doug Beattie, the UUP leader, said
that the resignation would not create leverage in the negotiations over the Irish Sea border but “create more
destabilisation here in Northern Ireland”.
Simon Coveney told the BBC: “It will create more hardship for the people of Northern Ireland; We will not be
able to get a budget agreed and through, and at the end of it all, the protocol will still be there.” The latest DUP
manoeuvres are being seen by rivals as positioning ahead of the May elections and come amid repeated threats
by the party leader, Sir Jeffrey Donaldson, to quit Stormont over the Brexit checks. The ruling party’s popularity
has fallen over its handling of Brexit, leaving Sinn Féin in pole position to be the largest party for the first time
according to recent opinion polls.
Alliance party MP Stephen Farry said the resignation of the first minister would be “an act of huge harm” to
Northern Ireland. The Northern Ireland executive would be unable to approve a three-year budget that is
currently out to consultation. Also under threat would be the appointment of a victims’ commissioner to deal
with troubles legacy killings and injuries and a grant scheme to give householders a £200 grant against rising
energy bills. The Traditional Unionist Voice leader, Jim Allister, told the BBC’s Stephen Nolan it was “about
time” the first minister resigned, saying it would be “better later than never” if Givan carried out his threat.
“There can never be a settlement on this issue,” he said of the Northern Ireland protocol. “The protocol is worse
than a pandemic for our constitution position, the protocol kills the union [of the United Kingdom]”, said Allister.
22. What is Doug Beattie’s take on the resignation of Paul Givan?

(a) It will not give weight to the discussions over the Irish Sea boundary but bring stability in Northern Ireland.
(b) It will expedite the process of stability in Northern Ireland and also give leverage to the discussions over the
Irish Sea boundary.
(c) It will give leverage to the discussions over the Irish Sea boundary, leading to further instability in Northern
Ireland.
(d) It will cause further instability in Northern Ireland than provide weight to the discussions over the Irish Sea
boundary.
23. What is the advantage that the Sinn Féin party has achieved because of the decline of the reputation of the ruling
party?
(a) It can influence the recent Brexit turmoil.
(b) It can lure in the ministers from the ruling party to join them due to the decline in their reputation.
(c) It has earned the probability of becoming the largest party for the first time.
(d) It can provide the budget for the coming fiscal year.
24. Which one among the following options can be the reason behind the resignation of the first minister, Paul
Givan?
(a) Brexit, where the DUP’s setting a deadline of February 21 for Brussels to resolve the Brexit check dispute
and the Ireland agriculture minister’s order to stop the Brexit checks on food and farm products coming from
the UK to Northern Ireland.
(b) Rivals perceive the new DUP maneuvers as positioning ahead of the May polls, and they come after the
party's leader, Sir Jeffrey Donaldson, who has threatened to quit Stormont over the Brexit checks.
(c) A three-year budget that is presently out for comment would be impossible for the Northern Ireland
administration to adopt.
(d) Givan realized that his party is bound to lose the majority in the upcoming elections and hence, he showed
the white feathers, along with some ministers in his cabinet.
25. According to Stephen Farry, which one among the following is NOT a massive act of harm to Northern Ireland,
following the departure of Givan?
(a) A grant plan to provide homeowners with a £200 payment to help with rising energy prices, would be
jeopardised.
(b) Providing any negotiating advantage in the Irish Sea border talks would be out of the question.
(c) The appointment of a victims' commissioner to deal with troubled legacy deaths and injuries would be
affected.
(d) A three-year budget that is presently out for comment would be impossible for the Northern Ireland
administration to adopt.
26. Why will the situation in Northern Ireland still be distressful even though the resignations of the first and deputy
first ministers would not result in the Irish government collapsing immediately?
(a) The parties would have six weeks to designate successors under the guidelines.
(b) It would further lead to instability in Northern Ireland and prevent essential decisions to be made on a budget
that is forthcoming.
(c) The opposition leader will take advantage of the turmoil, owing to the absence of leaders in the ruling party
and this will lead to riots and protests.
(d) The vacant post will lead to competition among the ministers, eventually leading to factions within a single
party.
Passage(Q.27-Q.30): Elizabeth was born nearly 500 years ago, in 1533. Her father, King Henry VIII, had six
wives. When Elizabeth was two, her father ordered her mother’s execution. ‘Off with her head!’ Elizabeth was
very clever, but she had a difficult childhood with her bad-tempered father and so many stepmothers. She was
put in prison in the Tower of London for two months when she was twenty. Elizabeth became queen in 1558.
‘Your sister is dead. You are the new queen.’ The English people liked Elizabeth and called her ‘Good Queen
Bess’. But Elizabeth was often bad tempered and bossy. ‘I said give me my wig!’ Elizabeth sent explorers sailing
around the world. In 1577, Sir Francis Drake set sail in his ship, the Pelican. ‘Goodbye, Francis. Discover some
new countries and bring me back some Spanish treasure!’
In 1588, the Spanish king sent a huge fleet of ships to attack England. It was called ‘the Spanish Armada’.
Elizabeth gave a famous speech to inspire her army. ‘My loving people! I know I have the body of a weak
woman, but I have the heart and stomach of a king. I will live or die amongst you all, but I know we shall have
a famous victory!’ Spain lost the battle.
Elizabeth’s cousin, Mary, was Queen of Scotland. Mary had to run away from Scotland and she asked Elizabeth
to protect her. ‘Please protect me, Elizabeth!’ Elizabeth was afraid that Mary wanted to become Queen of
England. She locked Mary up. Nineteen years later she ordered Mary’s execution. ‘Off with her head!’ Elizabeth
was queen for 45 years. It was a golden age for England. She died in 1603, aged 70, and James I, Mary’s son,
became king. ‘Queen Elizabeth is dead. Long live King James!’
27. In which year, Elizabeth’s mother was got executed by his father?
(a) 1533 (b) 1558 (c) 1577 (d) 1535
28. According to the passage, which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) In 1588, the Spanish king sent a huge fleet of ships to attack England.
(b) Mary, the Queen of Scotland, was locked up by Queen Elizabeth for nineteen years, later to be executed.
(c) Elizabeth gave a famous speech to inspire her army and her army won the battle.
(d) The queen of Scotland said, “I have the heart and stomach of a king”.
29. The main objective of the author is to

(a) give a brief biographical anecdote on Queen Elizabeth.
(b) provide background information on Queen Elizabeth.
(c) showcase the accomplishments of Queen Elizabeth.
(d) Narrate a story of Queen Elizabeth from birth till her becoming the queen.
30. ‘My loving people! I know I have the body of a weak woman, but I have the heart and stomach of a king.” Which
of the following literary devices is reflected in the given statement?
(a) Allegory (b) Imagery (c) Consonance (d) Paradox
SECTION-B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Directions (Q.31–Q.65): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
Passage(Q.31-Q.35): According to Putin, modern Ukraine was “entirely and fully created by Russia, more
specifically the Bolshevik, communist Russia… This process began practically immediately after the [1]
revolution, and moreover Lenin and his associates did it in the sloppiest way in relation to Russia — by dividing,
tearing from her pieces of her own historical territory”.
Ukraine is in the east of Europe, and is bound by Russia to its northeast, east, and southeast, and the Black Sea
in the south. In the southwest, west, and north, Ukraine shares borders, in the clockwise direction, with Moldova,
Romania, Hungary, Slovakia, Poland, and Belarus.
It is the largest country in Europe after Russia itself, with an area of 603,550 sq km, or about 6% of the continent.
Ukraine is, of course, dwarfed by Russia, which sprawls over almost 4 million sq km and [2] of Europe.
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/russia-invasion-ukraine-history-creation-
explained-7791147/
31. In the above passage, [1] marks the year when Bolshevik revolution started. Which of the following is the correct
answer?
(a) 1907 (b) 1915 (c) 1917 (d) 1921
32. Which of the following will replace [2] in the above passage?
(a) 40% (b) 30% (c) 25% (d) 20%
33. Which of the following is TRUE about Ukraine?

(a) Ukraine is the poorest country in Europe in terms of gross domestic product and gross national income per
capita.
(b) It has deposits of iron ore and coal, and exports corn, sunflower oil, iron and iron products, and wheat.
(c) India is Ukraine’s largest export destination in the Asia Pacific region.
(d) All of the above
34. Which of the following is one of the cities which Russia has declared independent republic from Ukraine?
(a) Luhansk (b) Kyiv (c) Kharkiv (d) Lviv
35. Ukraine became the part of erstwhile USSR in which of the following years?
(a) 1917 (b) 1920 (c) 1922 (d) 1942
Passage(Q.36-Q.40): The Union cabinet on Tuesday approved the setting up of a G20 Secretariat and related
structures that will implement policy decisions and be responsible for arrangements for India’s forthcoming
presidency of the group in 2023.
India will hold the presidency of the G20 from December 1, 2022, to November 30, 2023, culminating with the
G20 Summit in India next year.
The decision on setting up the secretariat and other structures was made at a cabinet meeting chaired by Prime
Minister Narendra Modi.
The G20 Secretariat will handle work related to knowledge, content, technical, media, security and logistical
aspects of India’s presidency of the inter-governmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union
(EU).
The secretariat will be manned by officers and staff from the external affairs and finance ministries, and other
relevant line ministries and departments and domain knowledge experts. It will be functional till February 2024.
https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/india-preps-for-g20-presidency-from-1-dec-greenlights-setting-
up-a-secretariat-101644938503470.html
36. Who among the following is the President of G20 in 2022?
(a) Italy (b) Indonesia (c) Saudi Arabia (d) UK
37. Who among the following is the Indian G20 Sherpa?

(a) Nirmala Sitharaman (b) Prakash Javadekar
(c) Piyush Goyal (d) Ashwini Vaishnav
38. The permanent secretariat of G20 is located at which of the following cities?
(a) New York (b) Paris (c) Belarus (d) None of the above
39. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about G20?

(a) The G20 members represent more than 80 percent of world GDP
(b) It represents 75 percent of international trade
(c) It represents 60 percent of the world population.
(d) It represents 90 percent of the world’s nuclear weapon.
40. Which of the following is TRUE about G20?

(a) The G20 was formed in 1999.
(b) The first G20 summit was held in 2008.
(c) To prepare for the annual summit, the G20 Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors, together with
Sherpas meet several times a year.
Passage(Q.41-Q.45): The Indian Institute of Science (IISc.) has installed and commissioned [1], one of the most
powerful supercomputers in India, and the largest in an Indian academic institution, under the National
Supercomputing Mission (NSM). The system is expected to power diverse research and educational pursuits. It
has a total supercomputing capacity of 3.3 petaflops (1 petaflop equals a quadrillion, or 10^15 floating-point
operations per second).
It has been designed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC). A majority of the
components used to build this system have been manufactured and assembled within India, along with an
indigenous software stack developed by C-DAC, in line with the Make in India initiative. NSM is steered jointly
by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
(MeitY), and implemented by C-DAC and IISc.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/bangalore/iisc-commissions-one-of-indias-most-powerful-
supercomputers/article65012062.ece
(a) PARAM Brahma (b) PARAM Yukti
(c) Param Pravega (d) PARAM Sanganak
42. Which of the following is TRUE about National Computing Mission?

(a) The Mission has supported the deployment of 10 supercomputer systems so far.
(b) The National Supercomputing Mission in its three phases plans to increase India’s supercomputing capability
to 45 petaflops.
(c) Entering the third phase of the mission, design and development of indigenous server nodes, interconnect
switch, storage, and system software stack has been initiated with 85 per cent indigenous manufacturing.
43. Which of the following Countries has the fastest speed Supercomputer?
(a) USA (b) China (c) Japan (d) France
44. Which of the following is India’s first Supercomputer?
(a) PARAM 8000 (b) PARAM Shivay (c) PARAM Shakti (d) PARAM Brahma
45. Which of the following countries has the greatest number of Supercomputers?
(a) USA (b) Japan (c) France (d) China
Passage(Q.46-Q50): Preliminary findings from the fifth round of the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5
2019-20) have suggested improvement in a host of welfare goals which translates to reduction in deprivation,
the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) said on Saturday.
This improvement will get reflected in the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) when its next edition
will be brought out, the PMO said. The baseline national MPI was earlier prepared based on the fourth round of
the National Family Health Survey of 2015-16.
The PMO said preliminary observations from the summary data factsheets of the latest round of NFHS released
on 24 November are encouraging.
“They suggest improvement in access to clean cooking fuel, sanitation, and electricity which translates to
reduction in deprivation. Additionally, the state reports released for 22 States and union territories suggest
reduction in deprivation in school attendance, drinking water, bank accounts and housing. These improvements
indicate an overall direction of significant reduction in the incidence of multidimensional poverty in the
forthcoming index based on NFHS 5 (2019-20) household micro data," the PMO said.
https://www.livemint.com/news/india/multidimensional-poverty-index-to-show-improvement-on-ground-fy16-
20-pmo-11637998220556.html
46. According to Global Multidimensional Poverty Index, India has ranked at which of the following?
(a) 55th (b) 66th (c) 72nd (d) 88th
47. The National Multidimensional Poverty Index uses the methodology developed by which of the following?
(a) Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative
(b) United Nations Development Program
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Both a and b
48. Which of the following is NOT one of the indicators used in the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index?
(a) Education (b) Health
(c) Per Capita Income (d) Standard of Life
49. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the National Multidimensional Poverty Index?
(a) Bihar has the maximum percentage of population living in poverty among all the States and the Union
Territories.
(b) The National Multidimensional Poverty Index is released by NITI Aayog.
(c) The National Multidimensional Poverty Index was based on NFHS 4 Data.
(d) All of the above.
50. Which of the following States has topped the National Multidimensional Poverty Index?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Kerala (d) Mizoram
Passage(Q.51-Q.55): Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Monday launched the Indian Space Association (ISpA),
an industry body consisting of various stakeholders of the Indian space domain. The members of the organisation
include government bodies such as Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and private telecom companies
such as Bharti Airtel’s One Web, Tata Group’s Nelcom, L&T, MapMyIndia, and others.
Ever since the race to reach the space and then land on the Moon began between the US and the erstwhile USSR,
governments across the world have poured millions of dollars to push the envelope in term of exploring the
edges of the space. With time, governments and government agencies collaborated to explore newer planets and
galaxies in search of life forms that exist outside Earth.
In the recent past, private sector companies such as Elon Musk’s SpaceX, Richard Branson’s Virgin Galactic,
and Jeff Bezos’ Blue Origin have taken the lead in spaceflight, promising to start tourist flights to space.
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/indian-space-association-narendra-modi-7565248/
51. Who among the following is the chairperson of ISRO?
(a) K. Sivan (b) S. Somnath (c) K Radhakrishnan (d) G. Madhvan Nair
52. Which of the following is the work with which ISpA will deal?
(a) ISpA will also work towards building global linkages for the Indian space industry.
(b) ISpA will undertake Policy Advocacy and engage with all stakeholders in the Indian Space domain,
including the Government and its Agencies.
(c) One of the main goals of the ISpA is to supplement the government’s efforts towards making India a global
leader in commercial space-based excursions.
53. Who among the following is the Director-General of Indian Space Association?
(a) A.K. Bhatt (b) Jayant Patil (c) S. Somnath (d) K. Sivan
54. Which of the following is not one of the pillars of Governments approach to space reforms?
(a) freedom of innovation to the private sector.
(b) the role of the government as an enabler.
(c) preparing youth for the future.
(d) to lead the space race in the world.
55. Which among the following is the first satellite launched by ISRO?
(a) Aryabhata (b) Bhaskara Sega I (c) Rohini RS I (d) INSAT 1A
Passage(Q.56-Q.60): Two more beaches in India have been awarded “Blue Flag” certification, an international
eco-level tag, taking the total number of such beaches in the country to [1], the Environment Ministry said on
Tuesday.
The two beaches to receive the certification this year are [2] in Kerala and Eden in Puducherry, it said.
The Foundation for Environment Education (FEE), Denmark, which accords the Blue Flag certification, has also
given re-certification for eight nominated beaches - Shivrajpur-Gujarat, Ghoghla-Diu, Kasarkod and Padubidri-
Karnataka, Kappad-Kerala, Rushikonda- Andhra Pradesh, Golden-Odisha and Radhanagar- Andaman and
Nicobar, which were awarded the Blue Flag certificate last year, the ministry said.
https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/two-more-beaches-in-india-awarded-prestigious-blue-flag-tag-
details-here-101632270649443.html
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 15
(a) Kovalam (b) Varkala (c) Bekal (d) Munnar
58. Which of the following is TRUE about Blue Certification?
(a) Blue Flag beaches are considered the cleanest beaches of the world.
(b) Blue Flag certification is a globally recognised eco-label accorded on the basis of 33 stringent criteria.
(c) The recommendations are done by an independent national jury composed of eminent environmentalists and
scientists.
59. Which of the following countries tops the list of the Blue Flag Certification?
(a) France (b) Spain (c) U.K. (d) Bahamas
60. What is the Name of the India’s own Eco-Label?
(a) BEAMS (b) SEAMS (c) CLEANSEA (d) BEACHPLUS
Passage(Q.61-Q.65): A Haridwar court granted bail to Dasna Devi temple chief priest and Hindutva leader Yati
Narsinghanand on Tuesday in the controversial Haridwar Dharma Sansad hate speech case of December last
year.
Narsinghanand will, however, stay in jail in connection with another FIR registered against him for allegedly
making derogatory comments on women from a specific community.
Talking to The Indian Express, general secretary of Yati Narsinghanand Saraswati Foundation Trust, Udita Tyagi
said that while bail applications in both the hate speech cases and the objectionable comments case were denied
last month by the CJM court, Additional District and Sessions judge Bharat Bhushan Pandey granted bail to
Narsinghanand after a virtual hearing in the hate speech case on Monday.
On January 15, the Haridwar Police had arrested Narsinghanand from Sarvanand Ghat where he was sitting on
a hunger strike to protest against the arrest of Waseem Rizvi aka Jitendra Narayan Tyagi on January 13. Tyagi
too, was named in the hate speech case. Yati was arrested for making derogatory remarks against women of a
particular community and hate speech during a three-day “Dharam Sansad” held last month in Haridwar. A bail
application of Juna Akhara Mahamandleshwar and Yati Narsinghanand was denied by a CJM court in Haridwar.
https://indianexpress.com/article/india/yati-narsinghanand-bail-dharma-sansad-case-7762411/
61. Which of the following committees recommended inserting Sections 153 C (b) and Section 505 A in the IPC for
incitement to commit an offence on grounds of religion, race, caste or community, sex, gender identity, sexual
orientation, place of birth, residence, language, disability or tribe?
(a) Jeevan Reddy Committee (b) Viswanathan Committee
(c) Subramanian Committee (d) Mehra Committee
62. Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India provides Free Speech as a fundamental right?
(a) Article 19(1)(a) (b) Article 19(1)(b) (c) Article 19(1)(g) (d) Article 19(1)(f)
63. Section 66A of IT Act, was stuck down by the Supreme Court of India as Violative of Freedom of Speech and
Expression in which of the following landmark ruling?
(a) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
(b) KB Abbas v. Union of India
(c) Ajay Goswami vs Union Of India & Ors
(d) D.P. Anand vs State Of Tamil Nadu and Another
64. Which section of Representation of People’s Act, 1951, prevents a person convicted of the illegal use of the
freedom of speech from contesting an election?
(a) Section 4 (b) Section 8 (c) Section 10 (d) Section 12
65. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable restriction to the Freedom of Speech under Indian Constitution?
(a) Public Order (b) Decency or Morality
(c) Contempt of Court (d) Health
SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.66 – Q.105): Read the comprehensions carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.66-Q.70): In a noteworthy decision, the Kerala High Court on Wednesday has ruled that the admin
of a WhatsApp group cannot be held vicariously liable if a member of the group posts objectionable content in
the group.
Justice Kauser Edappagath observed that this was so because vicarious liability in criminal law can only be
fastened when a statute prescribes so. The Court also recalled that it is the basic principle of criminal
jurisprudence that mens rea must be an ingredient of an offence and both the act and intent must concur to
constitute a crime.
In the facts and circumstances of the case, the specific question to be answered was whether the petitioner could
be vicariously held liable for the act of the first accused. The Court noted that vicarious liability in civil and
service matters arises usually because of some or the other legal relationship between two people which may be
anyone for example there lies a legal relationship between doctor-nurse, master-servant, minor-guardian etc.
However, relying upon a few precedents, it was found that vicarious criminal liability can be fastened only by
reason of a provision of a statute and not otherwise. Therefore, since no special penal law creates vicarious
liability, it was held that an Admin of a WhatsApp group cannot be held liable for the objectionable post by a
group member.
The Judge also emphasized that there was nothing on record to suggest that the petitioner had published or
transmitted or caused to be published or transmitted in any electronic form the alleged obscene material or he
browsed or downloaded the said material or, in any way, facilitated abusing children online. Since the basic
ingredients of the offences alleged are altogether absent as against the petitioner, the Court found it a fit case
where it can exercise its extraordinary jurisdiction under Section 482 of Cr.P.C.
(Source: Breaking: Admin Of WhatsApp Group Not Vicariously Liable For Objectionable Post By Group
Member: Kerala High Court, livelaw)
66. JUGNU and PREETA were two admin who created a group called “FRIENDS”. In March 2020, JUGNU, the
accused posted a porn video depicting children engaged in sexually explicit acts in the group. Accordingly, a
crime was registered against both the accused under Sections 67B (a),(b) and (d) of the Information Technology
Act, 2000 and Sections 13, 14 and 15 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offence Act. Decide
(a) For publishing sexually explicit content in the Whatsapp group, both jugnu and preeta will be held
vicariously accountable.
(b) Only Jugnu will be held accountable, as Preeta lacked mens rea and did not participate in a malicious way.
(c) Jugnu will be held accountable because both the conduct and the intent were found to be malicious.
(d) Jugnu will be held accountable for publishing or transmitting child abuse online and facilitating it not Preeta.
67. Continuing with the same circumstances as the last one, what would be the best argument in Preeta's favour to
allow her to escape vicarious criminal liability?
(a) In the absence of a special penal law creating vicarious liability, an Admin of a WhatsApp group cannot be
held liable for the objectionable post by a group member.
(b) In the absence of a special penal law creating vicarious liability, an Admin of a WhatsApp group cannot be
held liable for the objectionable post by another group admin.
(c) A vicarious criminal liability can be fastened only by reason of a provision of a statute and not otherwise.
(d) Absence of both the act and intent to constitute a crime.
68. Para 3 of the passage states, “The Court noted that vicarious liability in civil and service matters arises usually
because of some or the other legal relationship between two people. Thus, the wrongful act of the servant is
deemed to be the act of the master as well. “The doctrine of liability of the master for act of his servant is based
on the maxim:
(a) Respondeat superior (b) qui facit per alium facit per se
(c) only A (d) Both A and B
69. Chose a statement which best describes the context of the passage:
(a) In criminal law intention is an essential constituent of the crime, but in law of torts intention is irrelevant.
(b) Vicarious liability refers to a situation where someone is held responsible for the actions or omissions of
another person.
(c) The liability of master and servant is joint and several in exceptional cases.
(d) The liability of the admin of a WhatsApp group and its members is joint and several.
70. A new station waggon was purchased by the Phillips family. They chose this car since the entire family would
be able to use it. It was big enough to suit everyone's needs. Harry, the youngest son, was 17 when he decided
to take the car out for a spin. He decided to spin the tires at a stop sign to impress a bunch of girls. However, he
forgot to put his foot on the brake, forcing the car to crash into the junction, resulting in a three-car pile-up.
Determine who will be held liable if civil vicarious liability is imposed.
(a) Harry will be held liable for his negligence.
(b) Harry will not be held liable as he is a minor.
(c) The entire family can be held liable.
(d) Harry can be only held liable when a statute prescribes so.
Passage(Q.71-Q.75): The Meghalaya High Court has held that Magistrate cannot employ his power under
Sections 451/457, Cr.P.C. when trial or inquiry has not been set in motion. Sections 451 and 457 deal with an
order for custody and disposal of property pending trial and procedure by police upon seizure of property
respectively.
While setting aside the order of the Magistrate under such Sections, the Single Judge Bench of Justice W.
Diengdoh observed,
"…at the time of passing of the original impugned order, the matter was still under investigation by the Customs
officials and the stage of prosecution has not yet commenced as evident from the fact that the relevant sanction
for prosecution by the Principal Commissioner of Customs or Commissioner of Customs have not yet been
issued to enable the Court to take cognizance of the offence. Therefore, the learned Magistrate in the absence of
a trial or inquiry could not have passed the said impugned order under Section 451/457 Cr.P.C." court also
observed that if the case is in pursuance with the special law no court will interfere in it.
"It may be mentioned that the Customs Act, 1962 is a special Act while the Code of Criminal Procedure deals
with the general law. It is also well settled that the provisions of the Special Act will override the provisions of
the general law. The principles that general law yields to special law should they operate in the same field on
same subject will be applicable here and if does not happen so then general law will be applicable."
(Source: Magistrate Can't Use Power U/S 451/457 Cr.P.C. When Trial Or Inquiry Has Not Been Set In Motion:
Meghalaya High Court, livelaw)
71. On the basis of specific information, the revenue officers, shilong unit had intercepted three trucks on
09.04.2021. On being searched, a total number of 1500 bags of foreign origin black pepper weighing about
75,000 KGs were seized. The three drivers and two helpers were arrested the said trucks were also seized under
the relevant provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 ("the Act"). The accused will be tried and prosecuted under the
provision of the Customs Act. Owners of the truck moved to high court seeking release of the items seized as
they were seized beyond the period prescribed in Code of criminal procedure. Choose a suitable alternative in
the light of information given in the passage and facts regarding the jurisdiction of High Court:
(a) The high court will have jurisdiction to try the case and hence can order for release of items seized on bonds.
(b) The high court cannot encroach upon the jurisdiction of special law.
(c) The principles that sates general law yields to special law should they operate in the same field on same
subject will be applicable here.
(d) Because the prescribed timeframe for seizing goods has been surpassed, the high court will have jurisdiction.
72. Both Criminal Procedure Code and Passports Act provide impounding seizure of passports respectively. What
will be the position of special law if both the acts do not operate in the same field on same subject?
(a) Special will yield to general law.
(b) General law will prevail.
(c) Court will draw a harmonious construction between the two statutes.
(d) General Law will prevail over special law.
73. Jeetu was detained by a court order on murder accusations, and his passport was subsequently seized
(confiscated) by the investigating authorities after the order of court under the provision of CrPC(General law).
Criminal Procedure Code and Passport act provides for seize(confiscation) of passport by court and impounding
of passport by police officer respectively.. Jeetu makes an application under section 482 of the HC to have the
investigation authorities' order overturned. Decide keeping mind that passport act holds the position of special
law.
(a) Jeetu will succeed as an investigating authority, which is governed by general law, has trampled on the
jurisdiction of special law.
(b) Jeetu will not succeed as investigating authorities which is governed by general law encroached upon the
jurisdiction of special law.
(c) Jeetu will succeed as the court will order in jeetu’s favour.
(d) Jeetu will not succeed as the principles that states general law yields to special law should they operate in
the same field on same subject will not be applicable here.
74. In Latin Maxim special Provision prevails over the general provisions do means
(a) Generalia specialibus non derogant.
(b) Contemporanea Exposition Est Fortissima in lege
(c) Ut res Magis valeat quampareat.
(d) Noscitur a sociis
75. ASSERTION: Special law can be made and will prevail over general law.
REASON: The principles that states general law yields to special law should they operate in the same field on
same subject will be not be applicable in case if the provision of special law is in conflict with that of fundamental
rights.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are false but R is not correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Passage (Q.76-Q.80): Justice Jasjit Singh Bedi has held that in addition to there being a requirement of mens
rea pointing to instigation by the accused to goad the deceased into committing suicide, there must be a
proximate and live link present between such abetment and the consequent suicide, to establish the offence of
abetment to suicide under S.306 of IPC.
The ingredients of abetment must be fulfilled to establish the abetment of suicide under Section 306 of IPC and
merely a suicide note with the name of the accused shall not suffice for the same, Punjab and Haryana High
Court has held. The apex court had further added that the words uttered in a quarrel or words uttered in the spur
of a moment could not be taken to be laced with mens rea.
The High Court further referred to the Apex Court's judgments in Netai Dutta v. State of West Bengal,
S.S.Chheena v. Vijay Kumar Mahajan & Anr., and Gurcharan Singh v. the State of Punjab, where it had been
held that "to constitute abetment, the intention and involvement of the accused to aid or instigate commission of
suicide are imperative and any severance or absence of these constituents would militate against this indictment."
Further stating that "Contiguity, continuity, culpability and complicity of the indictable acts or omission are the
concomitant indices of abetment.", the Supreme Court had succinctly put that "S.306 of IPC criminalizes the
sustained incitement for suicide."
(Source: S. 306 IPC | Merely Being Named In Suicide Note Doesn't Establish Guilt Of Accused, Proximate Link
Between Alleged Abetment & Suicide A Must: P&H HC)
76. Jaswinder Singh had found that his son had committed suicide by hanging from the girder by tying a bed sheet
around his neck and a note was found in front of his chest stating that he had committed suicide because of
harassment by the accused. Accused had been charged with S.306 of IPC. Choose an appropriate alternative that
will work in the accused's favour.
(a) Prima facie requirement of mens rea pointing towards instigation by the accused.
(b) There must be a link between abetment and the consequent suicide.
(c) Ingredients of abetment are not fulfilled.
(d) Suicide note with the name of the accused.
77. Determine the culpability of accused in the circumstances given above?

(a) The accused cannot be held accountable under section 306 of the IPC because there was no purpose or
involvement on the part of the accused to aid or provoke the commission of suicide.
(b) The accused cannot be held accountable under section 306 of the Indian Penal Code since there is no
proximate and live link between the abetment and the later suicide.
(c) The letter be treated as dying declaration and hence the accused will be liable under the offence of abetment
to suicide under S.306 of IPC.
(d) Both (A) and (B)
78. Assume, in the same circumstances as given in Q76, that the accused had a quarrel with the deceased the day
before the incident and left the town. Because the deceased was unable to cope with the situation, he decided to
commit suicide after being told he was useless. S.306 of the IPC had been filed against the accused.
(a) The accused will be charged with abetment to suicide under Section 306 of the Indian Penal Code.
(b) Since he immediately left town and was not present at the time of the incident, the accused would not be
held guilty for the offence of abetment to suicide under S.306 of the IPC.
(c) As a proximate and live link exists between such abetment and the subsequent suicide, the accused will be
held accountable for the offence of abetment to suicide under S.306 of the IPC.
(d) The accused will not be held accountable since he lacked mens rea.
79. ASSERTION: S.306 of the IPC do not decriminalizes the prolonged incitement to suicide.
Reason: The indicators of abetment are contiguity, continuity, culpability, and complicity of the indictable acts
or omissions.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A .
80. Chavi had a very bad influence on Martha, his girl friend. She even told him that if at any point he leaves her,
she will commit suicide. Threatened by her continuous warnings, chavi broke up Martha. Martha on the next
day died consuming a rat poison. Decide the culpability of chavi in the present circumstances under the offence
of abetment to suicide under S.306 of IPC.
(a) Chavi should be held accountable since he broke up with Martha despite knowing that she would commit
suicide if he leaves her.
(b) Chavi should not be held liable as he was threatened by Martha’s psychotic nature.
(c) Chavi should be held liable as there is a proximate cause between the acts of chavi’s breaking up with Martha
and subsequent suicide.
(d) Chavi should not be held liable as he did not abetted neither had the intention or involvement in aiding or
instigating commission of suicide.
Passage(Q.81-Q.84): The Delhi High Court has reiterated the various necessary factors to be kept in mind before
making a person vicariously liable for offences committed by a company under sec. 138 of the Negotiable
Instruments Act, 1881.
Justice Subramonium Prasad listed out the following factors as laid down by the Supreme Court in various
judgments:
- The primary responsibility is on the complainant to make specific averments as are required under the law in
the complaint so as to make the accused vicariously liable otherwise such complaint will be dismissed. For
fastening the criminal liability, there is no presumption that every Director knows about the transaction.
-Section 141 does not make all the Directors liable for the offence. The criminal liability can be fastened only
on those who, at the time of the commission of the offence, were in charge of and were responsible for the
conduct of the business of the company.
-Vicarious liability can be inferred against a company registered or incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956
only if the requisite statements, which are required to be averred in the complaint/petition, are made so as to
make the accused therein vicariously liable for offence committed by the company along with averments in the
petition containing that accused were in charge of and responsible for the business of the company and by virtue
of their position they are liable to be proceeded with.
-The person sought to be made liable should be in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the business of
the company at the relevant time. This has to be averred as a fact as there is no deemed liability of a Director in
such cases.
The Court added that it was for the petitioner to establish in trial that he was not responsible for the conduct of
the business of the company owing to his age and that the mere ipse dixit of the petitioner that he is 80 years of
age and was unable to manage the affairs of the company could not be accepted and the complaint could not be
quashed on that basis under section 482 of CrPC.
(Source: Delhi High Court Reiterates Factors To Be Considered Before Making A Person Vicariously Liable
For Offences By Company Under S.138 NI Act, livelaw)
81. The passage talks about vicarious liability of the Directors of a company under Sections 138 and 141 of the
Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881. In light of the passage's context, choose an incorrect statement:
(a) The Court explained the duty of a Magistrate while issuing process and his power to dismiss a complaint.
(b) It is settled law that at the time of issuing of the process the Magistrate is required to see only the allegations
in the complaint and where allegations in the complaint or the charge-sheet do not constitute an offence
against a person, the complaint is liable to be dismissed.
(c) If, at the time the offence was committed, the person accused was in charge of, and responsible for the
conduct of business of the company and if statutory compliance of Section 141 of the NI Act has been made,
the High Court cannot quash the proceedings against the person accused under Section 482 CrPC.
(d) Merely being a director of a company is not sufficient to make the person liable under Section 141 of the
Act.
82. Last para of the passage provides that it was for the petitioner to establish in trial that he was not responsible for
the conduct of the business of the company owing to his age and that the mere ipse dixit of the petitioner that he
is 80 years of age and was unable to manage the affairs of the company could not be accepted and the complaint
could not be quashed on that basis. What does the expression “ipse dixit” mean?
(a) A person's own assertion without relying on any authority or proof.
(b) A dogmatic and unproven statement.
(c) A person's own assertion relying on any authority or proof.
(d) A statement proved on the basis of evidence.
83. Radhe filed a complaint against his company's directors under section 141 of the NI Act. It was claimed that
starting in 2019, employees' salaries, including the complainant's, began to be delayed, and the corporation failed
to meet statutory requirements such as PF, ESI, and other benefits. It was also said that, because the dues and
arrears of salary were rising, the complainant had offered to take a salary cut at the request of the Director. When
the cheques were presented for encashment, however, they were returned with the note "insufficient fund."
Choose a statement that will be taken into account when the directors are held vicariously accountable for the
company's operations.
(a) It has to be averred as a fact as there is no deemed liability of a director in such cases.
(b) The person sought to be made liable is in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the business of the
company at the relevant time.
(c) Complainant to make specific averments as is required under the law in the complaint so as to make the
accused vicariously liable.
(d) Complainant to make specific averments as is required under the law that all directors are aware of the
transaction.
84. ASSERTION: Accsued has the right to approach court under Section 482 CrPC, to quash the process under
Sections 138 and 141.
Reason: Section 141 extends criminal liability on account of dishonour of cheque in case of a company to every
person who at the time of the offence, was in charge of, and was responsible for the conduct of the business of
the company.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
Passage(Q.85-Q.89): A Delhi Court has observed that for a contract to be enforceable, the restraint of trade
clause included in it must be reasonable. It added that the reasonability can be ascertained on the grounds of
time period, geographic location and scope of work.
Doing a legislative analysis of sec. 27 of the Indian Contract Act which states that every agreement by which
any one is restrained from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business of any kind, is to that extent void,
the Court said:
"There is one exception to this rule-that if the goodwill of a business has been sold, an agreement to refrain from
carrying on similar business, if it appears to the Court to be reasonable, would be protected and would be
enforced." Another exception is found in the Partnership Act.
It is a sufficient justification, if the restriction is reasonable, that is, in reference to the interests of the parties
concerned and reasonable in reference to the interests of the public, so framed and so guarded as to afford
adequate protection to the party in whose favour it is imposed, while at the same time it is no way injurious to
the public," the Judge added.
The Court cannot restrain the defendant from using his own acumen or skills to compete with the plaintiff in the
same kind of business. The restriction which the plaintiff is seeking to impose upon the defendant is of permanent
and unlimited nature and is not reasonable," the Court said.
Accordingly, the plaintiff's application was dismissed.
(Source: Restraint Of Trade Clause Must Be Reasonable For A Contract To Be Enforceable: Delhi Court,
Livelaw)
85. In which of the following agreements, restraint of trade is valid?
(a) An agreement to purchase an intangible asset owned by, and associated with, the operation of a business
entity.
(b) Contracts involving the buying illegal weapons, murder for hire contracts, and contracts to buy drugs.
(c) Two similar business owners, in a partnership, came to an agreement that only one of their factories would
work at a time and the profit will be shared between them.
(d) All of the above.
86. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) A restraint of trade clause in a contract of employment may restrict an employee's freedom to contract both
during and after the termination of his employment.
(b) In some circumstances where severance is possible a court will strike out an unreasonable part of a restraint
of trade and allow the reasonable part of the clause to be enforced.
(c) A restraint of trade clause may be valid if the person seeking to enforce it can show it is reasonable in the
circumstances.
(d) If a restraint of trade clause is too wide the courts can change its wording to make it reasonable.
87. Sunita has been engaged as a senior manager by the XCL agency. She had to sign a bond with the company
stating that she would stay for at least three years and that if she decides to leave early, she would be barred from
working in a similar business for a year. For bounty hunting criminal refugees, the company collaborates with
Los Angeles police departments. Sunita was not allowed to work in a similar industry as she had access to
sensitive information that could be exploited against the public good. Determine whether the reasonable
restriction clause is valid.
(a) It is valid as it in reference to the interests of the parties concerned.
(b) It is not valid as restriction of trade and business is a violation of fundamental right guaranteed under article
19 (1) (g) of COI.
(c) It is not valid as one cannot restrain the defendant from using his own acumen or skills to compete with the
plaintiff in the same kind of business.
(d) It is valid as the restriction is justified on grounds of public interest.
88. COLA COCO wants to sell their goodwill to Co Pepsi. What will NOT be a fair restraint in a trade deal, according
to your interpretation of the passage?
(a) Restraining seller from using firms name in the market.
(b) Restraining seller from presenting himself as carrying on the business of the firm.
(c) Restraining the buyer solicit the custom of persons who were dealing with the firm before its dissolution
(d) The seller can carry on any business similar to that of the firm within specified local limits with reasonable
justification
89. ASSERTION: A negative covenant that the employee would not engage himself in a trade or business or would
not get himself employed by any other master for whom he would perform similar or substantially similar duties
is not therefore a restraint of trade.
REASON: Negative covenants operative during the period of the contract of employment when the employee
is bound to serve his employer exclusively are generally not regarded as restraint of trade and therefore do not
fall under Section 27 of the Contract Act.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
Passage(Q.90-Q.94): Right to appeal in criminal law jurisprudence acquires a special position, since it draws
upon the ideological base of Article 21 of the Constitution of India. As per Article 21 of the constitution, life and
personal liberty of a person cannot be taken away by state except in accordance with the procedure established
by law. The procedure established by law has been creatively interpreted by the Supreme Court to include within
its scope the implicit guarantee of a fair, just and reasonable procedure. Right to appeal in guarding against any
suffering due to errors of the court ensures fairness of this procedure and therefore forms an essential part of the
criminal law system.
A complainant is a person who prefers a complaint as defined under Section 2(d) of CrPC to the magistrate, upon
which the court can subsequently take cognizance of the offence under Section 190(1)(a), CrPC.
Section 378(4) provides the complainant with the right to an appeal against an order of acquittal passed by a
criminal court to the High Court. However, this right is subject to an important condition i.e. grant of special
leave to appeal by the HC to appeal from such order, upon application made by the complainant. It is important
to note that such leave is important for the "very presentation of appeal", i.e. memorandum of appeal can only
be presented when a grant of appeal has been made by the HC. Now, as clear from the legislative framing of
Section 372 proviso, this right to appeal is not restricted by the condition of obtaining any leave from the High
court in case of FIR.
The current position discriminates between a person who is only a victim and not a complainant, and a person
who is a victim and also a complainant. While the person in the first category has the right to appeal under
Section 372, without any limitation of obtaining a special leave; the second category has to mandatorily obtain
the same.
[Extracted with revisions from ‘Right To Appeal Against Acquittal Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 : The
Rule Of Victim v. Complainant’ published on livelaw https://www.livelaw.in/lawschool/law-school-cover-
story/right-to-appeal-crpc-acquittal-order-victim-complainant-section-327-section-378-187753]
90. X committed theft against Y's property by stealing his bike from his possession. Y makes a complaint of the
same under Section 2(d) of CrPC, upon which cognizance is taken under Section 190(1)(a), and subsequently an
acquittal order is passed by the court. The lower court acquits X. Does Y have to obtain a special leave to file
appeal against X's acquittal?
(a) Yes, because Y is only a complainant and not a victim since he has made a complaint under Section 2(d) of
CrPC
(b) Yes, because Y is both a complainant since he made a complaint under Section 2(d) of CrPC as well as a
victim since he suffered a loss of his property
(c) No, because Y is only a complainant and not a victim since he has made a complaint under Section 2(d) of
CrPC
(d) No, because Y is a victim since he suffered a loss of his property and so he does not face any limitation of
obtaining a special leave
91. The Government passed a new law called SADA. Under this law, any person could be arrested in the interest of
national security. However, unlike other laws which allow an individual to be granted bail as well as to be
produced before a magistrate within 24 hours of arrest, SADA expressly prohibited these rights. Mohan is
arrested in the interest of national security under SADA. His bail application was also not heard. Can he contest
that this is a violation of his personal liberty?
(a) Yes, because Mohan’s personal liberty has been curtailed because his bail application was not even heard
(b) No, because Mohan's personal liberty has not been curtailed at all and hearing the application of bail is up to
the discretion of the Court
(c) Yes, because SADA lays down a fair, just and reasonable procedure for granting of bail
(d) No, because Mohan' personal liberty has been curtailed in accordance with the procedure established by law
92. Shakti made a complaint to the magistrate against Sonam for forgery. Sonam was Shakti’s servant who had
forged Shakti’s signature on a cheque of Rs. 1 lakh in Sonam’s name. When Shakti found out about this, she
immediately filed a complaint with the magistrate. When the matter was heard by the district court, Sonam was
acquitted because Shakti was unable to give cogent proof that it was Sonam only who had forged the signatures.
Shakti wanted to appeal against this decision and filed a special leave to appeal in the High Court. However, the
leave to appeal was dismissed. Shakti is very sure that it was Sonam who forged the cheque. Can she appeal
against Sonam’s acquittal?
(a) Yes, because Shakti is a complainant and in order to file an appeal against the decision of the district court,
she needs to obtain a special leave to appeal.
(b) Yes, because Shakti has already filed for a special leave to appeal against the decision of the district court
before the High Court.
(c) No, because Shakti has to obtain a special leave to appeal in order to appeal against Sonam’s acquittal but
the same has been denied.
(d) No, because Shakti has already filed for a special leave to appeal against the decision of the district court
before the High Court.
93. In the previous situation, the factual scenario changed. The High Court granted Sonam’s special leave to appeal
after Shakti was acquitted by the lower court. While the lower court did not grant her justice, Shakti was resolved
to take up the matter with higher authorities. With this change in facts, is Shakti now in a position to file an
appeal against Shakti before the High Court?
(a) Yes, because Shakti is a complainant and in order to file an appeal against the decision of the district court,
she needs to obtain a special leave to appeal.
(b) Yes, because Shakti has obtained a special leave to appeal from the High Court
(c) No, because Shakti is a complainant and in order to file an appeal against the decision of the district court,
she needs to obtain a special leave to appeal
(d) No, because Shakti is a victim and she did not need to obtain a special leave to appeal in the first place
94. R subjected Q to unwanted physical advances. Despite Q being visibly uncomfortable, R continued his predatory
behaviour. This left Q in a mentally and physically disturbed state and she decided to file an FIR. A trial
commenced and R was let go scot-free. This development was very upsetting for Q as no justice was meted out
to her as a victim. She wants to file an appeal against the decision of the trial court. If Q has not obtained a
special leave to appeal, can she still file an appeal before the High Court?
(a) No, because Q is a complainant so in order to appeal against R’s acquittal, she needs to obtain a special leave
to appeal
(b) No, because Q has the right to appeal under Section 372 without any limitation of obtaining a special leave
(c) Yes, because Q is a complainant so in order to appeal against R’s acquittal, she needs to obtain a special
leave to appeal
(d) Yes, because Q has the right to appeal under Section 372 without any limitation of obtaining a special leave
Passage(Q.95-Q.99): A Supreme Court bench comprising Justices KM Joseph and S. Ravindra Bhat observed
that “Practices or rules or norms rooted in historical prejudice, gender stereotypes and paternalism have no place
in our society”. The Court said this in its recent judgment while disapproving a gender-based stereotype. The
Supreme Court held that the condition imposing a gender cap as to the number of women or men, who can
perform in orchestras and bands in licenced bars is unconstitutional.
The court added that, such measures which claim protection in reality are destructive of Article 15(3) as they
masquerade as special provisions and operate to limit or exclude altogether women’s choice of their avocation.
In case there were any real concern for the safety of women, the state is under a duty to create situations
conducive to their working, to run that extra mile to facilitate their employment, rather than to thwart it, and
stifle their choice.
Article 15(3) states that the state is open to make special provisions for women and children. However, the court
have clarified that such special provisions can be made in favour of and not against women. It implies that state
can discriminate in favour of women against men but not vice versa.
The SC have repeatedly emphasized that whenever challenges arise, particularly based on gender, it is the task
of the judges to scrutinize closely, whether, if and the extent to which the impugned practices are rooted in
historical prejudice, gender stereotypes and paternalism. Such attitudes have no place in our society
Article 19(1)(g)- All citizens shall have the right to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade
or business. The fundamental right is not absolute but subject to any existing law or subsequent law imposing
reasonable restrictions in the interests of general public.
(SOURCE: https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/supreme-court-orchestra-bars-gender-cap-unconstitutional-
hotel-priya-a-proprietorship-vs-state-of-maharashtra-192337, https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1218090/)
95. The State of Maharashtra enacted a law wherein it restricted women from working in liquor shops. A widow,
Samaira who has a son is the only bread-earner in her family. Because of the newly enacted law, she was unable
to maintain the education of her son and the daily food for her family. Suppose you are a lawyer known to
Samaira and she asks for your help. What would you suggest her?
(a) I would suggest her to file a writ petition before the SC because her fundamental right under Article19(1)(g)
and Article 15(3) is violated.
(b) I would suggest her to find any other source of living as it is a law brought in public interest.
(c) I would suggest her to keep working in the liquor shop as she has a son to feed and teach.
(d) I would suggest her to ask the government for an alternative source of income.
96. Taking the same facts as above into consideration. Suppose Samaira approaches the Supreme Court against the
law. In light of the above passage, what shall the Supreme Court (SC) do?
(a) The SC shall strike down the law only on the ground that the fundamental right of women under Article
19(1)(g) is violated.
(b) The SC shall not strike down the law because it is imposing reasonable restriction in the interest of general
public.
(c) The SC shall not strike down the law because the state is empowered to make special provisions in the
interest of women.
(d) The SC shall strike down the law on the ground that it is violative of Article 19(1)(g) and also Article 15(3).
97. The Union of India enacted a policy under which, a condition was made in respect to women army officers. The
condition read that, ‘a serving unmarried women army officer must obtain prior permission of the authorities
before marriage’. A group of women officers offended by the said policy, challenges it for being against them
before the SC. Decide its validity in the light of above passage?
(a) The policy is invalid down because it is violating right to privacy of women.
(b) The policy is invalid because it has kept in its ambit only unmarried women and not men and hence
discriminatory.
(c) The policy is invalid because the state can discriminate in favour of women and not against them.
(d) The policy is valid because it is in interest of women, where life becomes quite different after marriage.
98. Suppose, India from few months back is witnessing an increasing rate of prostitution (the practice or occupation
of engaging in sexual activity with someone for payment). Since, there is no law to prevent it, the media is
debating this issue on a wide scale and criticising the government. In the light of above passage, decide what
should the government do?
(a) The Sate shall immediately enact a law banning prostitution.
(b) The State shall enact a law criminalising prostitution.
(c) The State shall enact a law preventing forceful prostitution.
(d) The State shall not do anything because it falls under freedom of profession.
99. Suppose a woman from Rajasthan challenges before the SC, the traditional practice of compulsorily doing
ghunghat infront of her elder in-laws. In the light of the above passage, how is the SC supposed to deal?
(a) The SC shall not interfere with the practice because it a tradition.
(b) The SC shall interfere and find out whether it as a gender stereotype.
(c) The SC shall not interfere because it may be choice of some women.
(d) The SC shall interfere and strike down the practice without investigating the matter.
Passage(Q.100-Q.105): The Supreme Court on Tuesday held that if the prosecution has failed to prove the basic
facts alleged against the accused, the burden of proof cannot then be shifted to the accused by resorting to Section
106 of the Indian Evidence Act A Bench held that Section 106 of the Evidence Act is not intended to relieve the
prosecution from discharging its duty to prove the guilt of the accused.
Section 106 reads as, when any fact is especially within the knowledge of any person, the burden of proving that
fact is upon him.
"The prosecution having failed to prove the basic facts as alleged against the accused, the burden could not be
shifted on the accused by pressing into service the provisions contained in Section 106 of the Evidence Act," the
Court said.
The Court also placed reliance on its 1956 judgment in Shambu Nath Mehra vs. State of Ajmer which had held
that Section 106 of the Evidence Act is designed to meet certain exceptional cases in which it would be
impossible, or at any rate disproportionately difficult, for the prosecution to establish facts within the accused's
knowledge.
The accused had been charged and held guilty by the Sessions Court for offences under Sections 302 (murder)
read with Section 34 (criminal act with common intention) and Section 201 of the Indian Penal Code (causing
disappearance of evidence of office, or giving false information to screen offender).
The Bench relied on the judgment in Sharad Birdhichand Sarda v. State of Maharashtra, and opined that “it
is a settled position of law that circumstances how so ever strong cannot take place of proof and that the guilt
of the accused have to be proved by the prosecution beyond reasonable doubt.”
Specifically on the contention of the prosecution regarding Section 106, the Court said that the same was
misplaced since the provision is not intended to relieve the prosecution of burden of proof. Thus accused is
acquitted.
Source: https://www.barandbench.com/news/prosecution-cannot-shift-burden-of-proof-to-accused-by-
resorting-to-section-106-indian-evidence-act-supreme-court
100. During a murder trial, the accused in the case, A, was being tried for same and his guilt was proven adequately
by the prosecution. Now the court gave A the opportunity to prove his innocence in front of the court by
defending him. Has the court done so correctly?
(a) Yes, as the court was obliged to give A the opportunity to defend himself.
(b) No, as the burden of proof is being shifted here in the case.
(c) No, as the court should satisfy the guilt based on the prosecution’s arguments only.
(d) Yes, as the prosecution herein has proven guilty beyond doubt, thus opportunity to defend should be given
to the accused.
101. In the above case, had the prosecution not been able to prove the guilt beyond reasonable doubt, but it was
established that the accused was an escaped offender, would the court be liable to hold the accused guilty for
murder unless he is able to prove his innocence?
(a) No, as that would amount to the court showing bias in this case.
(b) Yes, as the accused herein is a repeat offender and deserves the strictest punishment for his erstwhile crimes.
(c) Yes, as the accused also deserves an opportunity for defending himself and thus, should be allowed to
contend.
(d) No, as the prosecution failed to prove the innocence so burden of proof will not shift.
102. While considering a murder case, the prosecution had presented all circumstantial evidence, and was about to
move on to summoning and presenting eyewitnesses, however, satisfied by the evidence; the court allowed for
the prosecution to skip the same and held the accused as guilty of the offence. Was the court correct in doing so?
(a) No, as the matter here was not proven beyond reasonable doubt here.
(b) No, as the court jumped the gun in not hearing the witnesses.
(c) Yes, as the court has complete discretion in deciding the matter and being satisfied with the extent of the
proof showed.
(d) Yes, as the court was satisfied of the guilt here and decided to expeditiously dispose of the trial.
103. In the above case, if the guilt been proven beyond reasonable doubt by the prosecution, and in furtherance of the
same, the court allowed section 106 to be invoked in order to obtain the facts pertaining to the accused within
his knowledge, would the same amount to a contravention of law here?
(a) No, as the guilt was proven beyond reasonable doubt.
(b) No, as the section was invoked only to obtain particular facts and not for proving guilt.
(c) Yes, as the court cannot invoke the section without the prosecution praying for the same.
(d) Yes, as the court has untenably shifted the burden of proof on the accused instead of the prosecution.
104. Abhay and Kanishka were two contracting parties who were now arguing before the court since the allegations
were being presented wherein it was prayed by Abhay that the contract was sullied and breached by Kanishka
and should be punished for the same. The court, in order to obtain facts pertaining to why the breach occurred
allowed for section 106 IEA to be invoked and ordered Kanishka to make submissions appropriately and testify.
Is the court correct in doing so?
(a) Yes, as the court is empowered to get to the bottom of all the matters.
(b) No, as the matter here does not fall within the ambit of the passage above.
(c) No, as the IEA does not apply to civil proceedings.
(d) Yes, as the court herein is a criminal court and should be allowed to determine the standard of guilt here.
105. In the above mentioned case, assuming that section 106 is applicable to civil proceedings, and the plaintiff wants
to prove the intent of breaching the contract beyond reasonable doubt here, can the court invoke the section 106
and burden of proof be shifted to kanishka?
(a) Yes, as the breach of a contract is a criminal offence.
(b) No, as the breach of contract is not a criminal offence here.
(c) Yes, as the offender has committed a criminal offence and can be made to testify in furtherance of section
106.
(d) No, as the extent of proof is not mentioned.
SECTION - D: LOGICAL REASONING
Passage(Q.106-Q.110): The launch of a new digital rupee in the upcoming year will boost financial inclusion
in Asia’s No.3 economy and eventually make more Indians cut their dependence on physical cash, according to
accountants, currency exchange operators and crypto experts. The move will also provide a cost-efficient
alternative to cash and make international transactions easier, they said. The launch “would give great comfort
and trust in the use of digital currency,” Lily Vadera, a former executive director at the Reserve Bank of India
told DH.
It “would provide a cost-efficient alternative to cash as the cost of printing, storing, transportation and
distribution of currency can be reduced considerably and hopefully bring down the dependence of cash in the
economy,” said Vadera, who is currently a senior advisor at law firm Cyril Amarchand Mangaldas. The
comments came just a day after Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman used her budget speech to reveal that the
Reserve Bank of India will launch its digital currency in the year starting April 2022 and tax the income from
the transfer of virtual assets at 30 per cent.
The digital rupee, or the central bank digital currency (CBDC), could be exchanged for cash, Prime Minister
Narendra Modi clarified, adding that it will make online payments more secure and give a push to the digital
economy down the lane. Denizens of the digital currency world agreed. The experts see RBI determining the
supply of the digital rupee and also tracking how it gets distributed to various individuals If the CBDC runs on
blockchain technology, it will be extremely advantageous to the average Indian, they pointed out.
“The RBI’s digital currency will help even those who do not have a bank account as it can be digitally
transferred”, Bhagaban Behera, CEO & Co-Founder, Defy said. “This type of transaction wouldn't need to pass
through multiple banks and take several days. It could all happen nearly instantaneously on one digital ledger.
Consumers also wouldn't need a commercial bank account to use CBDC”.
“Being on blockchain will also make international transactions simpler - a person in the US or Europe can easily
transact with the Indian Rupee, if anyone prefers to,” Subburaj told DH. One disadvantage at the start would be
the fact that only a small share of the Indian Rupee in circulation may be on the blockchain, and hence, large
transactions may have to wait, he said. Others such as Amit Jaju, Senior Managing Director at Ankura
Consulting’s India arm urged the government to closely evaluate the broader concerns related to money
laundering, fraud, data privacy and cyber security tied to cryptocurrencies. Bengaluru-based chartered
accountant B E Kumar Prasad urged people to pick the RBI-backed digital rupee over unregulated crypto assets
citing the lower risks generally associated with an asset regulated by a central bank.
106. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) Experts see digital rupee as a big boon to India.
(b) Experts criticize the digital rupee.
(c) Experts focused on evolution of the digital rupee.
(d) Experts present a dismal future for digital rupee.
107. “It would provide a cost-efficient alternative to cash as the cost of printing, storing, transportation and
distribution of currency can be reduced considerably and hopefully bring down the dependence of cash in the
economy,” said Vadera, who is currently a senior advisor at law firm Cyril Amarchand Mangaldas. Which of
the following (s) is/are assumptions behind the lines?
Assumptions:
I. The alternative to cash is good for the economy.
II. The law firm Cyril Amarchand Mangaldas is a reputable firm.
III. Vadera is one of the senior advisors at Cyril Amarchand Mangaldas.
IV. Reliance on cash in the economy will significantly condense with the alternative to cash.
V. Cash currency involves the cost of printing, storing, transportation and distribution of currency.
(a) I, III & IV (b) III, IV & V (c) I, & II (d) All of the following.
108. Managing Director at Ankura Consulting’s India arm urged the government to closely evaluate the broader
concerns related to which of the following?
I. Money laundering
II. Fraud
III. Data privacy
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Only III (d) All of the above
109. Based on the understanding of the passage, two statements have been provided. Choose from the options, the
relationship between the two statements.
Statement 1: The launch of a new digital rupee is in the upcoming year.
Statement II: The launch will boost financial inclusion in Asia’s No.3 economy.
(a) If ‘I’ is the effect and ‘II’ is its immediate and principal cause.
(b) If ‘I’ is the immediate and principal cause and ‘II’ is its effect.
(c) If ‘I’ is an effect but ‘II’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
(d) If ‘II’ is an effect but ‘I’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
110. In paragraph four, what can be inferred from Bhagaban Behera’s saying?
(a) The saying is advisory. (b) The saying is motivating.
(c) The saying is pessimistic. (d) The saying is critical.
Passage(Q.111-Q.115): The Body Farm, known officially as the University of Tennessee Anthropological
Research Facility, is a gruesome place. It is a hectare of land near Knoxville, cut off from the rest of the world
by razor wire, that has, for more than three decades, been at the forefront of forensic science. It is both a
laboratory which examines how corpses decay in different circumstances, so that matters such as time of death
can be established more accurately, and a training facility for those whose jobs require an understanding of such
processes.
To study a body forensically, though, you first have to find it. For a corpse dumped in a city this is hard enough.
If the burial site is a forest it can be near impossible. Searchers must cover huge amounts of ground, and may
therefore not do so as thoroughly as might be desirable. Vegetation broken by people burying bodies is easy to
overlook. And soil perturbed by digging tends not to remain perturbed for long once it has been exposed to wind
and rain.
For homicide detectives, then, woodlands are a problem. At least, they have been until now. For Neal Stewart,
co-director of the Tennessee Plant Research Centre, another part of the university, reckons that a bit of botanical
thinking brought to bear on the matter may turn trees from being cover for the disposal of bodies to signposts
showing just where they are hidden.
The most obvious is fertilization-for bodies are good fertilisers. Calculations suggest that a decaying adult human
body releases about 2.6kg of nitrogenous compounds (mostly ammonia) into the surrounding soil. Such an
overdose would surely have consequences for nearby plant life. In particular, it would increase chlorophyll
production, and thus cause a perceptible greening of plants near a buried body. In principle, this would be true
of the decay of the body of any large animal. But the remains of wild creatures, left on the surface, are usually
scavenged quickly. People with a human body to dispose of, generally prefer to inter it so that it cannot be seen.
A more subtle change in the foliage near a buried body would be brought about by any cadmium present within
its flesh and bones. Cadmium is rare in nature, but not in some human bodies. Smokers, and also those who work
in industries involving welding or electroplating, have high concentrations of this metal. Cadmium is easily taken
in by plants through their roots and, once present in their leaves, affects the structure of a molecular complex
called photosystem two, which houses chlorophyll. That changes the way this complex absorbs and reflects light.
This, in turn, affects the colour of the leaves.
111. Which of the these presents a contrast to the following sentence as mentioned in paragraph three:
“a bit of botanical thinking brought to bear on the matter may turn trees from being cover for the disposal of
bodies to signposts showing just where they are hidden.”
(a) Botany provides insight on how to notice unusual patches of plants.
(b) The difference in trees near the disposed bodies and those that are not can only be spotted by botanists.
(c) The soil around the area where the bodies have been buried as a disposal have a rare sighting of rodents
scavenging the soil.
(d) Trees are preferred sites of disposed bodies as they provide natural camouflage.
112. Which of the following is not an assumption that supports the arguments presented in the second paragraph?
(a) Forensic science doesn't include study of the location of the disposed bodies.
(b) Forests cannot be easily mapped.
(c) Cities do not have many areas of perturbed soil.
(d) Presence of human intervention is hard to detect in a natural environment.
113. What processes does the author refer to when he/she says, “an understanding of such processes” in paragraph
one?
(a) The process of corpse decaying under different circumstances.
(b) The process of studying forensic science.
(c) The process of isolating a facility.
(d) The process of fortifying laboratories.
114. According to the passage, why do people with a human body to dispose of, prefer to inter it so that it cannot be
seen?
(a) They do not want it to be scavenged by wild animals.
(b) They care about the environment.
(c) They do not want it to be found by anyone.
(d) It is illegal to dispose of human bodies.
115. According to the passage, which of the following statements would the author most agree with?
(a) Human bodies should be offered as an alternative to chemical fertilizers.
(b) Every discoloured plant should be dug up to find buried bodies from underneath.
(c) Bodies found devoid of cadmium cannot be declared as murders.
(d) None of the above
Passage(Q.116-Q.120): As environmental regulation is far from a Formula 1 race, speed should not be the key
criteria for assessing it. This is why the Union environment ministry’s plan to rate State Environment Impact
Assessment Authorities (SEIAAs) by faster green clearances raises questions. The rating is being undertaken
within the ease of doing business (EoDB) framework. While balancing economic and environmental interests is
complex and necessary work for governments to do, the specific mandate of SEIAAs is to safeguard the
environment. The ranking that really matters here is how India’s air, water and land quality compare to other
countries today. Of course it is not in public interest to have the clearance process mired in red tape either. In
this regard NDA has done well to rectify the UPA-era logjam. Prescribed timeline is down to 75 days, from the
previous 105 days. But we cannot keep speeding down this path illimitably. Plus, it is not as if states’ EoDB
rankings are sole determinants of actual investment flows. Tamil Nadu ranks lower than both UP and Bengal.
But the state attracts some very big projects. Ola’s e-scooter plant in Krishnagiri being a recent example.
Consider that SEIAA members will get the top score if they undertake site visits in less than 10% of cases, but
the bottom score if visits are undertaken in over 20% cases. This is a strange incentive given that these state
authorities are supposed to be staffed by experts in local ecology precisely so they can rigorously analyze the
impact of a particular project. [1] Even though the pandemic has forced grant of clearances through virtual
meetings, this is not a desirable policy when it comes to the future of our ecologically sensitive areas. From
Uttarakhand to Kerala, SEIAAs need to be independent of both business and governments. They should put the
environment first, and last.
116. The argument of the author depends on which of the following assumptions?
I. Excessive interference of bureaucracy increases the time taken to clear environmental projects.
II. Not all discussions that can happen via in person mode can happen through virtual meets.
(a) Only I. (b) Only II. (c) Both I & II. (d) Neither I nor II.
117. The author’s arguments logically support which of the following courses of action?
(a) The prescribed timeline to clear environment projects is reduced to 50 days.
(b) More and more virtual meets are organized to clear environmental projects.
(c) The Union government does away with rating SEIAAs of every state.
(d) None of the above courses of actions are logically supported by the passage.
118. Which of the following would lend strength to the author’s arguments?
(a) States are likely to hurry the passing of environmental projects to get better ratings.
(b) Speed ratings would increase the sense of competition and long due projects would be cleared on priority.
(c) India ranks low globally in the various environmental ratings such as that of air, land and water.
(d) The public has the right to information about various environmental projects that are being cleared in their
states.
119. What can be said to be true about statement [1]?

(a) This statement strengthens the claim made by the author in the previous sentence.
(b) This statement is by itself a complete argument, containing a claim and a premise.
(c) This statement presents counter arguments to a claim made by the author in the previous statement.
(d) This statement contains a claim made by the author, though no support has been provided.
120. What can be concluded from the information given in the passage?
i. The prescribed timeline of clearing environmental projects has been reduced to approximately 30% of the
previous timeline.
ii. The previous timeline for clearing environmental projects is close to 40% more than what it is today at
present.
iii. UP and Bengal are better in clearing environmental projects than Tamil Nadu.
(a) Only i and ii (b) Only i and iii (c) Only ii (d) Only iii
Passage(Q.121-Q.125): The Commonwealth Games is just five months away, the Asian Games is seven months
and the Indian Olympic Association is in shambles. The two along with the Olympics are the three major events
to which the IOA sends the names of athletes—not just to the organising nations but also to the sports ministry
for approval. Besides players and coaches, the IOA also selects officials who would visit the Games under
different capacities. It facilitates accreditation for visiting media too.
With the fight between IOA president Narinder Batra and secretary Rajeev Mehta raging, there seems to be
uncertainty at an inopportune moment. The athletes and coaches of course would be selected by the respective
federations but for other officials and the media, there is no clarity. Especially after the latest fight when Batra
invalidated the official email ID and IOA website, last week on January 8, which Mehta claimed was illegal. At
another level, this sparring over not sharing the email password seems at best juvenile.
What is more perturbing is Mehta’s statement that there is no executive council because the tenure got over on
November 14 when it finished four years in office and as per the IOA constitution, it has ceased to exist. This
too would complicate matters. The IOA has not called for an annual general meeting or a special general meeting
to extend the tenure of the executive council as of now.
The matter pertaining to the election and revised constitution to align it with the Sports Code is still pending in
the Delhi High Court. With the tussle between the president and secretary becoming bitter, things are expected
to get worse. There is no sign of truce after a meeting before the AGM on November 19. With big-ticket events
just a few months away, the IOA should get its house in order. At the same time, one hopes the court decides on
the matter soon. Otherwise, the chaos has the potential to rip apart the current dispensation in the IOA,
irrespective of whose side one is on. As of now it seems the situation is getting out of hand.
121. Out of the following, what has been suggested by the author in the passage? Choose the best option.
(a) The crisis at the IOA should be solved diplomatically.
(b) The timing of the tussle in the IOA does not help its course.
(c) The IOA would soon organise a special meeting to sort things out.
(d) Athletes would not be able to take part in the upcoming competition.
122. If the information in the given passage is true, then which of the following can be concluded?
(a) The Olympic Games would take place in the month of July.
(b) The Commonwealth Games would take place in the month of May.
(c) The Asian Games are scheduled to take place in the month of February.
(d) None of the above can be concluded from the information given in the passage.
123. The structure of paragraph four in the context of the given passage is best depicted by:
(a) The author has presented solutions to the ongoing problems.
(b) The author gives reasons for why the crisis is not going to improve.
(c) The author explains that the problem may not be easily solved.
(d) The author portrays the body concerned in a bad light.
124. Out of the given statements, which of the following statement is a factual statement?
Statement I: The Commonwealth Games is just five months away; the Asian Games is seven months and the
Indian Olympic Association is in shambles.
Statement II: The IOA has not called for an annual general meeting or a special general meeting to extend the
tenure of the executive council as of now.
Statement III: With the fight between IOA president Narinder Batra and secretary Rajeev Mehta raging, there
seems to be uncertainty at an inopportune moment.
Statement IV: The matter pertaining to the election and revised constitution to align it with the Sports Code is
still pending in the Delhi High Court.
Statement V: At another level, this sparring over not sharing the email password seems at best juvenile.
(a) II & IV (b) I, II & IV (c) III & V (d) I & IV
125. The arguments of the author that the tussle within the IOA has come at an inopportune moment is weakened by
which of the following pieces of evidence?
(a) Narinder Batra and Rajiv Mehta are childhood friends, they will sort out their problems soon, without any
external intervention.
(b) A novel disease has emerged and is spreading exponentially, a complete lockdown would be required to stop
the spread for over a year.
(c) Narinder Batra and Rajiv Mehta were at loggerheads in preceding events, leading to the two teams not
qualifying in the international sports events.
(d) The tussle in the IOA does not affect the teams qualifying for the major sporting events as the selections of
the players to overall management was finalized a year ago.
Passage(Q.126-Q.130): India may be on course to introduce e-passports, with embedded microchips and
futuristic technology, to improve security and make immigration clearance a breeze at border posts worldwide,
but some basic flaws at the ground level need a quick resolution. The detection of as many as 200 passports
made on the basis of fake documents in the region in the recent past has resulted in hectic activity to plug the
gaps, and hold the officials accountable for the lapses. The police chiefs of Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh
need to accord due importance and urgency to the Regional Passport Officer’s letter that calls for strict adherence
to the standard operating procedures to be followed for the police verification of each applicant.
An obvious recommendation is to visit the residence of the applicant as well as enquire from neighbours, putting
an end to the casual approach of calling the applicant along with two witnesses to the police station for
completing the verification process. The use of the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems (CCTNS)
has also been suggested to check the crime record of the applicant instead of checking it manually only at one
police station. Haryana has already taken the lead by suspending police officials on charges of negligence in
clearing applications, and ordering re-verification of passports issued in some districts last year.
A clear message of a crackdown has to go out to tighten the noose around fraudsters, who prey on the gullible
and offer a variety of illegal options. The hi-tech paraphernalia found by the Special Cell of Delhi Police as it
busted a fake visa racket earlier this week shows that even in this age of biometrics and advanced security
features, there is no dearth of those willing to trap and those eager to take the bait, no matter the risk involved.
Fast-track action could be a deterrent.
126. Which among the following is one of the opinions of the author regarding passports in India?
(a) E-passports perfectly fit in as far as India is concerned.
(b) The authorities should up the ante as far as verification is concerned.
(c) E-passports need to be scrapped due to so many fraudulent activities.
(d) The burden of proof of the address should be of the applicant.
127. The argument of the author depends on which of the following assumptions?
(a) The applicants cannot convince any of their neighbours to give modified statements to the authorities.
(b) All the passports that have been fraudulently issued are due to the mistakes of the officials.
(c) There is a huge possibility that the fraudsters responsible for making forged passports will not be punished.
(d) E-passport is a bullet-proof approach to tackling the ground level need.
128. Which among the following has been used as a premise to support the author’s argument?
(a) E-passports would make immigration clearance a smoother process.
(b) Enabling e-passports is a significant step towards becoming a developed nation.
(c) The present police verification process is not very safe and secure.
(d) Fraudsters will find a way to navigate around the e-passports.
129. Out of the following, which option, if true, lends support to the author’s arguments?
I. Fast track action gives the impression that all fraudsters would be nabbed and punished.
II. In a credible survey conducted last year, 75% of the population said that they would not apply for passports
without due diligence.
III. Fraudsters have a clearcut workaround for every security feature that the authorities have or can add in future.
(a) Only I (b) Only I and II (c) Only I and III (d) Only II and III
130. With which of the following options would the author of the passage not agree with?
(a) Many e-passports have been issued through the use of fake documents.
(b) Use of CCTNS would make the verification process more efficient.
(c) Re-verification of passports is possible in today’s day and age.
(d) A strict adherence to the standard operating procedures to police verification of each applicant.
Directions(Q.131-Q.133): These questions are based on the following information.
Five boys – P, Q, R, S and T – are of different heights and are sitting in a row, in the decreasing order of their
heights from left to right. Two persons sit in between R and T. T is shorter than at least two other boys. Q is
neither the tallest nor the shortest. S is sitting adjacent to both Q and T.
131. Who is the tallest person?

(a) P (b) R (c) S (d) Cannot be determined
132. Who is sitting exactly in the middle of the row?

(a) R (b) Q (c) S (d) Cannot be determined.
133. Which of the following pairs of persons always sit adjacent to each other?
(a) Q and S (b) S and T (c) R and Q (d) More than one of the above
134. If each letter of the English alphabet is assigned an even numerical value in increasing order such that they are
multiples of 3, such as A = 6, B = 12, and so on, then what will be the code of 'NOUGAT'?
(a) 849612644690 (b) 7296124486126
(c) 8490126426120 (d) 486012602480
135. S, R and M are siblings of each other and only R among them is a female member. Q is S's son and W is Q's
grandfather. N is the sister-in-law of S and has no children. How is N related to W ?
(a) Daughter-in-law (b) Sister
(c) Sister-in-law (d) Mother
SECTION - E: QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.136-Q.140): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: Line
graph given below shows the distance between Delhi to five different cities in kilo meter and Table given
below shows the speed of five different cars in km/hr
3500
3000
Distance from Delhi (in km)
2500
2000
1500
1000
500
0
City A City B City C City D City E
Cars Speed (in kmph)

P 40
Q -
R 60
S -
T 75
NOTE: - Some data is missing you have to calculate according to question.
136. Time taken by car ‘P’ to travel from city ‘E’ to Delhi and then Delhi to city ‘B’, is equal to the time taken by car
‘R’ to travel from Delhi to city ‘A’ and then city ‘A’ to city ‘B’. Find the distance between city ‘A’ and city ‘B’?
(a) 5650 km (b) 5750 km (c) 5450 km (d) 5550 km
137. Find the approximate time car ‘T’ takes to reach city ‘E’ from city ‘A’ if city ‘A’ and city ‘E’ is north and east
direction of Delhi respectively?
(a) 24 hours (b) 27 hours (c) 20 hours (d) 36 hours
138. Car Q and Car S start from Delhi for city B and city C respectively and they reached in equal time. If Car Q and
Car S starts from city B and city D respectively at same time and move towards each other, then time taken by
car Q to cross car S is what percent of the time taken by car Q to reach city B from Delhi. Distance between city
B and city D is 1500 km?
(a) 25% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 40%
139. A thief runs in a car S from Delhi to city E and after 6 hours of running, a policeman started to catch him in a
car R. Due to this, thief increases the speed of his car by 100%. By this, the policeman is able to catch him at
3/5th of the distance of city E from Delhi. Find the initial speed of car ‘S’?
(a) 15 km/hr (b) 27 km/hr (c) 20 km/hr (d) 25 km/hr.
140. Car P and Car Q start from Delhi for city A. Car Q first reaches at city A and meets car P in between the way,
200 km from city ‘A’. Find after how much time they will meet second time after first time meeting if they
continue their to and fro motion?
(a) 24 hours (b) 15 hours (c) 16 hours (d) 20 hours
1
In a box there are marbles in three colours - red, violet and blue. The probability of selecting one red marble is 4
and the probability of selecting one violet marble is 5/12. The number of blue marbles in the box is 8.
141. If all the marbles are numbered starting from 1, 2, 3, and so on then what is the probability of selecting one
marble which is numbered as a multiple of 3 or 4 out of the total marbles?
(a) 2/5 (b) 1/6 (c) 3/8 (d) 1/2
142. What is the total number of marbles in the box?
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 24
143. When two marbles drawn from box then find the probability that both marbles are red.
(a) 2/25 (b) 1/93 (c) 3/88 (d) 5/92
144. What is the probability of selecting one blue marble is
(a) 2/5 (b) 1/3 (c) 3/8 (d) 1/2
145. When two marbles are drawn from box then find the probability that both marbles are violet.
(a) 2/25 (b) 15/92 (c) 3/88 (d) 5/92
A company XYZ Ltd has three units - P, Q and H. In each of these units there are five departments—Production,
Marketing, Finance, HR and Accounts. The total number of employees in P, Q and H are in the ratio 3:5:4. The
total number of employees in Production, Marketing, Finance, HR and Accounts in all the three units together
are in the ratio 5 : 3: 1: 1: 2. The ratio of the number of male employees of XYZ Ltd to that of the female
employees of XYZ Ltd is 2 : 1. In each of the three units, there is no female employee in the Production
department and no male employee in the HR department. In each of Marketing, Finance and Accounts
departments at each of the units, males and females are equal in number. Also the total number of employees in
Marketing, Finance and Accounts departments are equally distributed among each of the units. The company
has 36,000 employees in total and the number of male employees in the production department at P, Q and H
are in the ratio 2: 8: 5.
146. What is the total number of male employees in units P and H together?
(a) 7500 (b) 10000 (c) 9000 (d) None of these
147. The number of female employees in the HR and the Marketing departments together is what percentage
of the total number of employees in Q?
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 331/3% (d) 20%
148. In which unit is the number of female employees as a percentage of the total number of employees, the highest?
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) All of the above
149. In how many departments of XYZ Ltd is the number of employees, as a percentage of the number of employees
in P, more than 80%?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 4
150. The number of male employees in the Production and the female employees in HR departments together is what
percentage of the total number of employees in company?
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 331/3% (d) 20%
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

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LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2022

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1. From the passage, it can be inferred that

2. It is evident that from a pandemic stance, lengthy lockdown of schools

5. The word ‘lackadaisical’ is the antonym of:

7. Which of the following is the closest meaning to the word “Taxonomy”?

8. All of the following can be inferred from the sentence except

9. According to the passage, which of the following is/ are true?

11. Which of the following is/are true according to the passage?

15. According to the passage, what is Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)?

16. What did the Landscape Conservation Cooperative Network do?

18. Which of the following is appropriate title for this passage?

19. According to the passage, select the correct statement?

22. What is Doug Beattie’s take on the resignation of Paul Givan?

28. According to the passage, which of the following statements is incorrect?

29. The main objective of the author is to

33. Which of the following is TRUE about Ukraine?

37. Who among the following is the Indian G20 Sherpa?

39. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about G20?

40. Which of the following is TRUE about G20?

42. Which of the following is TRUE about National Computing Mission?

77. Determine the culpability of accused in the circumstances given above?

86. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

106. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

119. What can be said to be true about statement [1]?

131. Who is the tallest person?

132. Who is sitting exactly in the middle of the row?

Cars Speed (in kmph)

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