1. An injury to the thoracodorsal nerve would probably affect the strength of which of the following movements? a.

Abduction of the arm b. Lateral rotation of the arm c. Adduction of the scapula d. Extension of the arm 2. Which of the following bones is associated with the lateral longitudinal arch of the foot? a. Talus b. Medial three metatarsals c. Navicular d. Cuboid 3. The portal venous system includes which of the following veins? a. Left suprarenal vein b. Inferior epigastric vein c. Superior rectal vein d. Azygos vein 4. The accessory hemiazygos vein drains into a. Right brachiocephalic vein b. Superior vena cava c. Azygos vein d. Hemiazygos vein 5. SVC syndrome is most commonly associated with a. Mediastinal fibrosis b. Lymphoma c. Small cell CA lung d. Non small cell Ca lung 6. Which of the following is not supplied by superior mesenteric artery a. Jejunum b. Appendix c. Ascending colon d. Sigmoid colon 7. All of the following muscles are part of rotator cuff except a. Deltoid b. Supraspinatus c. Infraspinatus d. Teres minor 8. All of the following veins lack valves except a. Femoral vein b. Portal vein c. IVC d. Dural venous sinuses

9. Artery supplying major part of superolateral surface of brain is a. Middle cerebral artery b. Anterior cerebral artery c. Posterior cerebral artery d. Vertebral artery 10. Enlarged corneal nerves may be seen in all of the following except: a. Keratoconus. b. Herpes simplex keratitis. c. Leprosy. d. Neurofibromatosis 11. Even if thrombosis is present in the coronary sinus, which of the following cardiac veins might remain normal in diameter? a. Great cardiac vein b. Middle cardiac vein c. Anterior cardiac vein d. Small cardiac vein 12. S4 following is true, a. ventricular filling b. rapid ejection phase c. can be heard with human ear d. frequency more than 20 hertz 13. Facial nerve does not supply which structure of the face a. Auricular muscle b. Posterior belly of diagastric muscle c. Parotid gland d. Submandibular gland 14. Phantom limb is explained by a. Webers law b. Law of projection c. Fechners law of degeneration d. Pascals law 15. Type of collagen found in vitreous humor a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV 16. Substance used to measure renal perfusion a. Inulin b. PAH c. Creatinine d. Mannitol 17. In sickle cell disease a. Glutamic acid, at position No.5 of beta-globin chain of haemoglobin is replaced by valine b. Glutamic acid, at position No.6 of beta-globin chain of haemoglobin is replaced by valine c. Valine at position No.6 of beta-globin chain of haemoglobin is replaced by glutamtic acid

d. 18. a. b. c. d. 19. a. b. c. d. 20. a. b. c. d. 21. a. b. c. d. 22. a. b. c. d. 23. a. b. c. d. 24. a. b. c. d. 25. a. b. c. d. 26. a. b. c. d. 27.

Valine at position No.5 of beta-globin chain of haemoglobin is replaced by glutamtic acid Sensory fiber with least conduction velocity C-fiber Alpha fiber Beta fiber Gamma fiber Substance present in both serum and plasma Fibrinogen Factor II Factor IV Factor V Hyperpyrexia is body temperature greater than 105.6 106.7 107.6 108.7 Reticulocytosis is not seen in Chronic renal failure anemia Hemorrhage Hereditary spherocytosis Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria U wave is due to Ventricular repolarization Papillary muscle repolarisation Atrial repolarization Ventricular depolarization True statement regarding purkinje fibres Are myelinated fibres Have action potential about a tenth as long as those in the heart muscle Have conduction velocity of four times than that of the heart muscle All of the above Site of action of ADH is PCT DCT Loop of henle Collecting ducts Most potent stimulus for bile secretion is Gastrin Bile acid Bile salt Secretin All are carried through anterolateral system except Proprioception Temperature Pain Crude touch Function of flocculonodular lobe of cerebellum is

a. b. c. d. 28. a. b. c. d. 29. a. b. c. d. 30. a. b. c. d. 31. a. b. c. d. 32. a. b. c. d. 33. a. b. c. d. 34. a. b. c. d. 35. a. b. c. d. 36. a. b.

Co-ordination of movements Equilibrium Chemoreception Planning of movements Melatonin is associated with all of the following except Vomiting Pituitary gland secretion Sleep mechanism Jetlag Influx of which of the following ion is responsible for IPSP Potassium ion Chloride ion Calcium ion Sodium ion Capacitation of sperms occurs in Vas deferens Prostatic urethra Female genital tract Epididymis Ketone bodies are used by A/E Muscle Liver Kidney Brain Anderson disease is due to lack of Branching enzyme Debranching enzyme Acid maltase Myophosphorylase Carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism occurs in which cycle Glycolysis Malate shuttle Urea cycle Citric acid cycle L-CAT activator lipoprotein is Apo A1 Apo C2 ApoC3 ApoE Saturated fatty acids is maximum in which of the following Sunflower oil Coconut oil Soyabean Safflower oil Final product of purine metabolism is Uric acid Creatinine

c. Xanthine d. Phosphate 37. Watsons DNA model is a. Right handed , parallel b. Left handed, anti parallel c. Left handed parallel d. Right handed, anti parallel 38. Northern blotting technique is used for the a. DNA b. Protein c. RNA d. Protein DNA interaction 39. Sodium fluoride is added to blood, as it inhibits a. Hexokinase b. Glucokinase c. Glucose-6-phosphatase d. Enolase 40. Best indicator of protein quality is a. Net protein utilization b. Digestibility coefficient c. Biological value d. Amino acid score 41. Source of nitrogen in urea cycle is a. Glutamate and aspartate b. Glutamine and NH3 c. Arginine and aspirate d. NH3 and aspartate 42. Red infarct is seen in a. Kidney b. Heart c. Brain d. Small intestine 43. Isolated atrial amyloidosis is due to deposition of amyloid which is similar to a. beta 2 microglobulin b. transthyretin c. ANF d. Pyrin 44. Call-exner bodies are seen in a. Theca cell tumour b. Yolk sac tumour c. Granulose cell tumour d. Fibroma of ovary 45. Which one of the following is not true in the case of myotonic dystrophy? A. Cardiac defect B. Cataract C. Enlarged testis

D. Frontal baldness 46. First change seen in acute inflammation is a. Increased permeability b. Vasodilation c. Neutrophil migration d. Vasoconstriction 47. NBT assay is used to evaluate a. Granulocyte diapedesis b. T cell function c. Superoxide production by PMNs d. Staining characteristics of B lymphocyte 48. Hydatid cyst is does not calcify in a. Lungs b. Liver c. Kidney d. Brain 49. CA-125 is marker for a. Color cancer b. Ovarian cancer c. Pancreatic cancer d. Stomach cancer 50. Qualitative defect of vWF is seen in a) vWD-1 b) vWD-2 c) vWD-3 d) vWD-4 51. CD-15 helps in assessment of which of the following a. Adult T-cell leukemia b. Hodgkins disease c. Mycosis fungoides d. Larger granular lymphocytic leukemia 52. Hypocalcaemia is seen with which of the following a. Thyrotoxicosis b. Hyperparathyroidism c. Acute pancreatitis d. Addison disease 53. All of the following are true regarding Crohns disease except a. Skip lesions b. Inflammation limited to mucosa c. Crypt abscess seen d. Fistulae formation is seen 54. Which of the following antibody is highly specific for celiac disease a. Anti-gliadin antibodies b. IgA antibodies to tissue transglutaminase c. Anti-endomysial antibody d. All of the above 55. t (9,22)(q-34;q11) translocation is commonly associated

a. AML b. ALL c. CML d. CLL 56. In acute myeloid leukemia, Auer rods are numerous in a. M2 b. M3 c. M4 d. M5 57. Nodular glomerulosclerosis is associated with a. Henoch Schonlein purpura b. Hemolytic uremic syndrome c. Hypertension d. Diabetes mellitus 58. Hypercalcaemia is seen in a. Prostate CA b. Non SCLC c. Small cell CA d. Carcinoid tumor 59. All of the following are true for Sarcoidosis except a. Kveim test can be used to b. Caseating epithelioid granulomas c. Most commonly involves lungs d. CD4:CD8> 3:1 60. Reverse CAMP test seen in A/E a. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum b. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis c. Clostridium perfringens d. Streptococcus agalactiae 61. Tunica reaction is seen in infection with a. R.prowazekii b. R.akari c. R.mooseri d. R.rickettsii 62. Pasteurization of milk is determined by a. Methylene blue reduction test b. Phophatase test c. Turbidity test d. Resazurin test 63. Swimming pool granuloma is caused by a. Mycobacterium chelone b. Mycobacterium kansasii c. Mycobacterium marinum d. Mycobacterium ulcerans 64. Most common cause of acute bacterial endocarditis is a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus viridians

c. Streptococcus intermedius d. Staph endocariditis 65. Which is the only mycobacterium producing a toxin? a. M. ulcerans b. M. gordonae c. M. avium d. M. kansasii 66. Sclerotic bodies are seen in a. Sporotrichosiss b. Histoplasmosis c. Chromoblastomycosis d. Rhinosporodiosis 67. Biological indicator for determining efficacy of autoclaving is a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Clostridium perfringens c. Bacillus stearothermophilus d. Salmonella typhi 68. Which organism can penetrate intact cornea a. Pneumococcus b. Gonococci c. Pseudomonas d. Staphylococci 69. Non bile stained eggs is found in a. Ancylostoma duodenale b. Trichuris trichura c. Ascaris lumbricoides d. All of the above 70. Two nuclei at the tail tip is seen in a. Brugian malayi b. Wucheria bancrofti c. Onchocerca volvulus d. Mansonella ozzardi 71. Operation theatres are sterilized by a. Ethylene oxide gas b. Formaldehyde gas c. Washing with soap water d. Carbolic acid spraying 72. Gas producing salmonella are a/e a. S. cholera b. S. typhi c. S. typhimurium d. S. entertidis 73. True about Cryptococcus is all except a. Possesses Laccase b. Urease positive c. Does not require vitamin d. Primary site of infection is lung

74. Rat bite fever is caused by a) Bartonella bacilliformis b) Bartonella henselae c) Streptobacillus moniliformis d) Campylobacter fetus 75. Orphan drugs are a. Commercially easy to obtain b. Drugs to treat rare disease c. Developed with an intention of monetary gain d. All of the above 76. Drug of choice for acute migraine is a. Methysergide b. Sumatriptan c. Ergotamine d. Propranolol 77. Tolerance develops to all the following actions of morphine except a. Miosis b. Respiratory depression, c. Euphoria d. Sedation 78. Which of the following is the shortest acting beta blocker a. Acebutolol b. Sotalol c. Bisoprolol d. Esmolol 79. Drug of choice for paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is a. Digoxin b. Propranolol c. Adenosine d. Diltiazem 80. Which of the following is the most potent glucocorticoid a. Hydrocortisone b. Prednisolone c. Betamethasone d. Triamcinolone 81. Drug of choice for petit mal seizures is a. Ethosuximide b. Carbamazepine c. Phenytoin d. Valproate 82. Which of the following drug causes does not causes thrombocytopenia a. Methotrexate b. Aspirin c. Ticlopidine d. Heparin 83. All are protease inhibitors except

a. Ritonavir b. Abacavir c. Saquinavir d. Amprenavir 84. Low molecular weight heparin mainly inhibits which factor a. Factor IIla b. Facto VIIIa c. Factor Xa d. Factor XIIa 85. Which of the following is not used in glaucoma in a hypertensive patients: a. Dipivefrine b. Beta blockers c. Alpha agonist d. Trabeculoplasty 86. Which of the following is a potassium sparing drug a. Indapamide b. Furosemide c. Eplerenone d. Mannitol 87. All are the following are Beta-lactamase inhibitors except a. Clavulanic acid b. Aztreonam c. Sulbactam d. Tazobactam 88. Drug acting on cell wall of gram positive bacteria a. Gentamycin b. Ciprofloxacin c. Tetracycline d. Vancomycin 89. Which of the following anticancer drug causes peripheral neuropathy a. Methotreaxate b. Vincristine c. Cytarabine d. Etoposide 90. 1% atropine is given in uveitis is a. Cause mydriasis and prevent formation of anterior synechiae b. Cause miosis and prevent formation of posterior synechiae c. Cause mydriasis and prevent formation of posterior synechiae d. Cause miosis and prevent formation of posterior synechiae 91. Amongst the following extrapyramidal side effect is commonest with which drug a. Thioradizine b. Haloperidol c. Clozapine d. Ziprasidone 92. Which of the following drug is contraindicated in glaucoma a. Adrenaline

b. c. d. 93.

Timolol Atropine Pilocarpine Norepinephrin has no effect on a. alpha1 receptor b.alpha2 receptor c. beta1 receptor d.beta2 receptor 94. Thalidomide is useful in a. Treatment of leprosy b. Treatment of type II lepra reaction c. Treatment of type I lepra reaction d. Treatment of neuritic leprosy 95. All the following are mechanism of action of oral contraceptive pills except a. Inhibiton of ovualtion b. Prevents fertilisation c. Prevents implantation of fertilised ovum d. Interferes with placental function 96. The following are features of autism except a. Lack of eye contact b. Gross hearing defect c. Failure to acquire speech d. Intrusive stereotypies 97. Brain death is characterized by a. Absent spinal reflexes b. Cortical death following widespread brain injury c. Absence of brainstem reflexes d. Core temperature of the body is below 35 degree C 98. Pin point pupils are seen in all of the following conditions except a. Organophosphrous poisoning b. Opiod poisoning c. Cerebello pontine hemarroge d. Dhatura poisoning 99. Not used for treating acute iron poisoning a. Desferrioxamine b. BAL c. Magnesium hydroxide d. Hemodialysis 100. Most common type of finger impression is a. Arch b. Whorl c. Loop d. Composite 101. Plaque is transmitted by a. Flea b. Soft tick

c. Mites d. Hard tick 102. Which of the following is secondary level of prevention a. Prophylactic drug administration b. Admitting disabled child in special schools c. Vaccination d. Cervical pap smear checking 103. Incubation period knowledge helps in all of the following expect a. Isolation b. Quarantine c. Detecting source of infection d. Vaccination 104. Prevalence is a a. Rate b. Ratio c. Proportion d. Percentage 105. True regarding case control study are all of the following except a. Possibility of bias b. Odds ratio can be derived c. Relatively inexpensive d. Attributable risk can be known 106. Post exposure vaccination for measles should be done in a. 1 day of exposure b. 2 day of exposure c. 3 day of exposure d. 7 day of exposure Chandlers index is associated with 107. a. Round worm b. Hook worm c. Pin worm d. Tape worm 108. Disease spread by hard tick is a. Rocky mountain spotted fever b. Epidemic typhus c. Murine typhus d. Scrub typhus 109. Measles is infective for a. Two days before and 4 days after rash b. Four days before and five days after rash c. Entire incubation period d. Only during scabs falling 110. A person has episodes of vomiting 6 hrs after consuming milk. Organism responsible for this may be a. Clostridium perfringenes b. E.coli c. Salmonella typhi d. Staphylococcus

111. To achieve a NRR of 1, couple protection rate should be a. More than 30% b. More than 40% c. More than 50% d. More than 60% 112. PQLI includes all of the following except a. Per capita income b. Literacy rate c. Life expectancy at 1 year d. Infant mortality 113. Infant mortality rate of India as per 2007 census is a. 34 b. 44 c. 54 d. 64 114. Venturimeter is used for a. Measuring chlorine demand b. Measuring air velocity c. Measuring sand bed resistance d. Measuring dissolving capacity of gas 115. Exclusive breast feeding is recommended by WHO upto a. 3 months b. 4 months c. 6 months d. 9 months 116. India is at which stage of Demographic cycle a. High stationary b. Early stationary c. Late expanding d. Low stationary 117. Toxin responsible for epidemic dropsy is a. BOAA b. Sanguinarine c. Pyrrolizidine d. Ergots 118. Vitamin A prophylaxis is given to children every a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 12 months d. 18 months 119. Which of the following is false regarding acrodermatitis enteropathica a. Low serum zinc levels b. Triad of diarrhea, alopecia and dermatitis c. Poor immunity d. None of the above 120. Sodium content in reduced osmolarity ORS is a. 1.5 grams/litre

b. 2.5 grams /litre c. 3.5 grams /litre d. 4.5 grams/litre 121. Nitrates in drinking water indicates a. Remote faecal pollution b. Recent faecal pollution c. Unpolluted water d. Water fit for drinking 122. Which of the following committee proposed the concept of primary health centre in India a. Mukerjhi committee b. Bhore committee c. Kartar singh committee d. Mudaliar committee 123. Which of the following is incorrect about ASHA a. 1 ASHA worker per 1000 populaiton b. Resident of local community c. Part of sub centre d. 25-45 years of age 124. Death needs to be registered within a. 4 days b. 7 days c. 14 days d. 18 days 125. All of the following disease are reported to WHO except a. Plague b. Yellow fever c. Polio d. Cholera 126. Percentage of a data can be depicted on a a. Pie chart b. Bar diagram c. Histogram d. Graph 127. Influenza pandemics shows which type of trend a. Secular b. Cyclical c. Seasonal d. None of the above 128. False statement about Japanese encephalitis is a. It is caused by flavivirus b. Transmitted by aedes mosquito c. Horse shows symptoms of disease d. Man is dead-end host 129. Human anatomical waste is put is a. Yellow b. Red c. Blue

d. Black 130. The critical path method in health planning and management is a. Shortest time taken to complete the project b. Longest path taken to complete the project c. Mid-point for reviewing the project d. None of the above 131. All of the following are measures of dispersion except a. Mean deviation b. Mode c. Range d. Standard deviation 132. Segmented double-stranded RNA is seen in a. Reovirus b. Enterovirus c. Rhabdovirus d. Parvovirus 133. Most common cause of conductive deafness in children less than 12 yrs a. CSOM b. Otosclerosis c. Serous otitis media d. Atresia of auditory canals on both sides 134. CSF rhinorrhoea most commonly is due to the fracture of a. Nasal bones b. Cribriform plate c. Temporal bone d. Maxillary bone 135. Calorie test based on thermal stimulation of which part of the semi circular canals a. Lateral b. Posterior c. Anterior d. All of the above 136. Sickness benefit under ESI Act is payable for how many days in a year a. 71 days b. 81 days c. 91 days d. 101 days 137. Quarantine period for yellow fever is a. 1 day b. 2 days c. 6 days d. 10 days 138. Which of the following statement is true regarding Acanthamoeba keratitis? a. For the isolation of the causative agent, corneal scraping should be cultured on a nutrient agar plate. b. The causative agent, Acanthamoeba is a helminth whose normal habitat is soil. c. Keratitis due to Acanthamoeba is not seen in the immunocompromised host. d. Acanthamoeba does not depend upon a human host for the completion of its life cycle. 139. 1mm change in the axial length of the eyeball produces a change in refractive index by

a. 1D b. 2D c. 3D d. 4D 140. All of the following are seen in retinitis pigmentosa except a. Prominent retinal vessels b. Ring scotoma c. Pigmentation around the retinal veins a. Pale disc 141. All are true regarding direct ophthalmoscopy except a. Image is erect b. Magnification is more than indirect ophthalmoscopy c. Wide area of fundus with least magnification can be seen in hypermetropics d. It has a large field of view 142. Trachoma can cause all of the following except a. Loss of vision b. Clouding of the cornea c. Trichiasis d. Enopthalmos 143. True about keratoconus are all of the following except a. Can be seen in Downs syndrome b. It manifests just after birth c. Munson sign is characteristic d. Corneal transplantation is needed in severe cases 144. 18 year old girl presents with amenorrhea, anorexia, weight loss and with milk discharge from the nipples.What is the likely diagnosis? a. HIV b. Occult carcinoma c. Anorexia nervosa d. Hypothyroidism 145. Treatment for dendritic ulcer includes all except a. Penetrating keratoplasty b. Acyclovir c. Steroids d. Debridement of the edges of the ulcer 146. Structure commonly involved in sympathetic ophthalmitis a. Cornea b. Lens c. Optic nerve d. Iris and ciliary body 147. True about open angle glaucoma are all except a. Open anterior chamber angle b. Frequent change in presbyopic correction c. Rapid vision loss d. Commonest form of glaucoma 148. Neovascular glaucoma is caused by a. CRVO

b. Choroid milenona c. Diabetes d. All of the above 149. Ectopia lentis is seen in all of the following except a. Marfans syndrome b. Homocystinuria c. Weil-Marchesani syndrome d. Down syndrome 150. Cotton wool spots are commonly seen in A/E a. HIV b. Rectal detachment c. Hypertension d. Pancreatitis 151. Laser used to manage after cataract a. Excimer laser b. Argon green laser c. Diode laser d. Nd: YAG laser 152. Recurrent vitreous hemorrhage in young individual indicates a. Eales disease b. Glaucoma c. Chorioretinitis d. Coats disease 153. All of the following childhood tumors cause proptosis except b. Retinoblastoma c. Metastatic neuroblastoma d. Rhabdomyosarcoma e. Leukemia 154. According to WHO, blindness is defined as a. Visual acuity of less than 1/60 b. Visual acuity of less than 3/60 c. Visual acuity of less than 6/60 d. Visual acuity of less than 6/18 155. Neurotrophic keratitis involves which nerve a. Trochlear b. Trigeminal c. Abducens d. Facial 156. Vision 2020-Right to sight by WHO targets all expect a. Cataract b. Trachoma c. Epidemic conjunctivitis d. Onchocerciasis 157. True regarding retinoscopy are all of the following except a. Helps in estimating the condition of the refraction b. Usually performed at 1m distance c. Consists of a plane and a concave mirror

d. Hypermetropes show an against movement 158. The most common cause of thrombocytopenia in pregnant mother is, a. benign gestational thrombocytopenia b. preeclampsia c. immune thrombocytopenia d. abruptio placenta 159. All cause mydriasis with cycloplegia except? a. Atropine b. Tropicamide c. Cyclopentolate d. Pilocarpine 160. Dialysis is not effective in a. Salicylate poisoning b. Digoxin poisoning c. Barbiturate poisoning d. Methanol poisoning 161. Not a feature of hereditary spherocytosis a. Autosomal dominant b. Increased RBC surface area c. Increased MCHC d. Normal or decreased MCV 162. Which of the following is not a cause of Cor Pulmonale a. Intermittent pulmonary embolism b. Kyphoscoliosis c. COPD d. Mitral stenosis 163. All are true about PNH except a. Splenectomy useful b. Defect in stem cells c. Neutropenia, anemia, pancytopenia d. Intravascular hemolysis 164. Wide split fixed 2nd heart sound is heard in a. Normal individuals b. Left bundle branch block c. ASD d. VSD 165. True regarding secondary prophylaxis of a 6 years old child with carditis is a. Duration of prophylaxis is life long b. Duration of prophylaxis is till 18 years c. Duration of prophylaxis is at least 5 years after onset d. Duration of prophylaxis is till 25 years of age 166. A young hysterical woman while hyperventilating is likely to develop all except: a. Rise in pH

b. Low pCO2 c. Albumin carrying ve change d. Hypercalcemia

167. Which of the following is seen in a patient with tricuspid incompetence a. Hepatic pulsation b. A wave in JVP c. Mid diastolic murmur d. Normal cardiac output 168. Rupture of myocardium takes place in what duration after myocardial infarction a. First week 1-3 days b. Second week 3-7 days c. Third week 7-14 days d. Fourth week > 2 weeks 169. All are true about PAN except a) Glomerulolnephritis b) HBV is an etiologic factor c) Associated with hairy cell leukemia d) ANCA negative Large a waves in JVP represents 170. a. Complete heart block b. 1st degree A-V block c. Sinus bradycardia d. Tachycardia 171. Which of the following is the most common sustained arrhythmia a. Inappropriate sinus tachycardia b. Junctional premature complexes c. Atrial fibrillation d. Atrial flutter 172. Most preferred biochemical markers in patient presenting with recurrent myocardial infarction a. Myoglobin b. Cardiac specific troponins c. CK-MB d. All of the above 173. A 20 year old female patient has non exertional chest pain. On ausculatation she had multiple non ejection clicks in a. Serum markers b. Chest x-ray c. Electrocardiography d. Echocardiography 174. A patient with inferior wall myocardial infarction is in shock the reason is a. Right ventricular infarction b. Mitral regurgitation c. Infarction causing septal defect d. Decreased ejection fraction from left ventricle 175. True statement regarding oliguria a. Urine formation less than 50 mL/24 hours

b. Urine formation less than 250mL/24 hours c. Urine formation of less than 500 mL/24 hours d. Urine formation less than 750 mL/24 hours 176. Most common CNS manifestation of HIV infection in a. Seizures b. Dementia c. Focal neurologic deficits d. Stroke 177. Epworth score is done for: A. COPD B. Asthma C. Obstructive sleep apnea D. Pneumonia 178. BCG vaccine is diluted with a. Normal saline b. Distilled water c. Dextrose d. Colloids Nicoladoni branhams sign is seen in 179. a. Buerger disease b. Arteriovenous fistula c. Raynauds disease d. Peripheral aneurysm 180. aMost commonly ruptured organ in blunt trauma to abdomen is a. Adrenals b. Kidney c. Liver d. Spleen 181. Which of the following is not true regarding hyperplastic tuberculosis a. Mass in right iliac fossa may be the presenting features b. Barium studies are helpful in diagnosis c. IIeo-caecal junction is common site of involvement d. Should be managed by surgical resection of the involved segment 182. Dumping syndrome is characterized by all of the following except a. Colic b. Tremors and giddiness c. Hyperglycemia d. Epigastric fullness 183. Spigelian hernia is a. Hernia passing through the obturator canal b. Hernia occurring through the linea alba c. Hernia through the triangle of petit d. Hernia occurring at the level of arcuate line 184. Hernia which often simulates a peptic ulcer is a. Umbilical hernia b. Incisional hernia c. Strangulated hernia

d. Fatty hernia of linea alba 185. Investigation of choice in vesico-ureteric reflux is a. CT scan b. Voiding cystourethrography c. Intravenous urography d. X-ray KUB 186. Delirium, mental confusion and nausea in patients who had undergone transurethral resection of prostate sugg a. Hypermatremia b. Sepsis c. Hepatic coma d. Water retention 187. Cobra head appearance on excretory urography is suggestive of a. Horseshoe kidney b. Duplication of renal pelvis c. Simple cyst of kidney d. Ureterocele 188. Spider-leg appearance is seen in a. Pyelonephritis b. Polycystic kidney c. Renal artery stenosis d. Ureteric stones 189. Most unfavorable/poor prognosis is seen in which type of breast cancer a. Tubular carcinoma b. Medullary carcinoma c. Colloid carcinoma d. Inflammatory carcinoma 190. Most common congenital anomaly of the face is a. Cleft lip alone b. Isolated cleft palate c. Cleft lip and cleft palate d. All have equal incidence 191. True about flail chest are all except a. Ultimately leads to respiratory failure b. Paradoxical respiration c. Fracture of 3-4 ribs d. Mediastinal shift 192. Most common symptom in pulmonary embolism a. Dyspnea b. Pleuritic chest pain c. Cyanosis d. Hemoptysis 193. Most common subtype of basal cell carcinoma is a. Superficial basal cell carcinoma b. Nodular basal cell carcinoma c. Sclerosing basal cell carcinoma d. Pigmented basal cell carcinoma 194. Most common histological type of carcinoma of base of tongue

a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Adeno carcinoma c. Basal cell carcinoma d. Transitional cell carcinoma 195. Serum amylase level is increased in all of the following except a. Intestinal obstruction b. Perforated ulcer c. Acute pancreatitis d. Acute appendicitis 196. HLA matching is not necessary for a. Liver transplant b. Renal transplant c. Heart transplant d. Corneal transplant 197. Adson test is positive in a. Cervical spondylosis b. Cervical rib c. Cervical vertebral fracture d. Superior vena cava syndrome 198. Which one of the following soft tissue sarcomas frequently metastasizes to lymph nodes? a. Fibrosarcoma. b. Osteosarcoma. c. Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma. d. Alveolar soft part sarcoma. 199. Most serious complication of fracture of a long bone is a. Fat embolism b. Pulmonary embolism c. Deep vein thrombosis d. Associated joint injuires Uncommon in colles fracture 200. a. Non union b. Carpal tunnel syndrome c. Rupture of EPL tendon d. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy 201. Inversion and eversion occurs at a. Subtalor joints b. Ankle joint c. Inferior tibiofibular joint d. All of the above 202. Supracondylar fracture commonly results in injury to a. Musculocutaneous nerve b. Radial nerve c. Ulnar nerve d. Median nerve 203. Complication of fracture of humeral lateral epicondyle is a. Non union b. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy

c. Cubitus valgus deformity d. All of the above Commonest presenting symptom of Potts spine in 204. a. Cold abscess b. Back pain c. Decreased spinal movements d. Collapse of spine 205. Most common tumor of spine is a. Secondaries b. Ewings sarcoma c. Oteosarcoma d. Multiple myeloma 206. Spondylolysis is more common in a. Intervertebral disc b. Anterior part c. Pars interarticularis d. Annulus fibrosus 207. Lymphedema praecox occurs a) In utero b) At birth c) Before 35 yrs d) Before 60 yrs 208. Luschkas joint is important because of following except a. Also called uncovertebral joint b. Commonest site of osteophyte formation c. They are true synovial joints d. Vertebral artery may be compressed by its osteophyte 209. Anterior fontanella ossifies by a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 15 months d. 18 months 210. Largest fetal head diameter a. Occipitofrontal b. Suboccipitofrontal c. Mentovertical d. Submentovertical 211. Puberty is precocious if there is breast and pubic hair growth before the age of a. 8 yrs b. 9yrs c. 10yrs d. 11yrs 212. Cut-off Value Of Cervical Length At 24 Weeks Of Gestation For Prediction Of Preterm Delivery Is : A 0.5cm B 1.5cm C 2.5cm D 3.5cm

213. During pregnancy, maximum urinary HCG level is reached in: a. 30.day b. 50.days c. 70.days d. 90.days 214. Accurate diagnosis of anencephaly on ultrasound can be done at a. 5 weeks of gestation b. 8 weeks of gestation c. 10 weeks of gestation d. 14 weeks of gestation 215. Drug of choice in chronically hypertensive pregnant women requiring long term antihypertensive therapy a. Nifedipine b. Metaprolol c. Methyldopa d. Hydralazine 216. Maximal level of cardiac output is seen at a. 22-26 weeks of pregnancy b. 26-30 weeks of pregnancy c. 30-34 weeks of pregnancy d. 34-36 weeks of pregnancy 217. Advantages of median episiotomy over mediolateral episiotomy are all except a. Less blood loss b. Easy repair c. Extension of the incision is easy d. Muscles are not cut Which of the following is not a parameter in Bishops score 218. a. Cervical consistency b. Station of head c. Position of head d. Cervical length Which of the following doesnt prevent prolapse 219. a. Perineal body b. Pubocervical ligament c. Broad ligament d. Transverse cervical ligament 220. Post partum hemorrhage in a spontaneous delivery is commonly due to a. Traumatic b. Uterine atony c. Blood coagulopathy d. Mixed caused 221. A women with a history of repeated abortions gave birth to a low birth weight baby. The child is having rashes a. Congenital HIV b. Congenital Syphilis c. Congenital rubella d. Pemphigus 222. Most common site of ectopic pregnancy in fallopian tube a. Infundibulum

b. Ampulla c. Isthmus d. Interstitium 223. 35 yr old woman is observed to have CIN III on colposcopic biopsy. Next line of management a. Cryotherapy b. Conisation c. LEEP d. Hysterectomy 224. Hormone responsible for ferning pattern of cervical mucus a. Progesterone b. Estrogen c. LH d. Prolactin 225. Shortest diameter of true pelvis amongst the followings is: a. True conjugate b. Diagonal conjugate c. Interspinous diameter d. Interuberous diameter 226. If division of fertilized egg takes place in between 5-8 days. It would give rise to which kind of twin pregnancy a. Monochorionic/monoamniotic b. Monochorinoic/diamniotic c. Dichorionic/monoammniotic d. Siamese twins 227. Gold standard investigation in diagnosing PID is a. Anti chalamydial Ab b. Laparoscopy c. USG d. Blood leucocyte count 228. MC side effect of IUD insertion a. Bleeding b. Pain c. Pelvic inefction d. Ectopic pregnancy 229. Strawberry vagina is seen in a. Candidiasis b. Trichomoniasis c. Syphilis d. Bacterial vaginosis 230. A female presented with thick white discharge and pruritus, aetiological agent is a. Gardnerella b. Trichomonas vaginalis c. Candida d. Gonococci Meigs syndrome is associated with ovarian 231. a. Teratoma b. Brenner tumour c. Fibroma

d. Theca cell tumour 232. Hirsuitism is seen in all except a. Acromegaly b. Hyperthyroidism c. Arrhenoblastoma d. PCOD 233. 18 year old girl presented with primary amenorrhea, normal breast development, absent pubic and axillary hai a. Turner syndrome b. Mullerian agenesis c. Premature ovarian failure d. Testicular feminizing syndrome 234. The Commonest Cause Of Breech Presentation Is A Hydraminios B Oligohydramnios C Prematurity D Contracted Pelvis 235. Gynaecomastia is seen in all except a. Spironolactone b. Hypothyroidism c. Klinefelters syndrome d. Cirrhotic liver disease 236. Ovarian Tumours Commonly Arises From A Surface Epithelium B Germinal Epithelium C Stroma D Stem cells 237. Water content of liquor amnii is said to be replaced every: A. One Hour B. Three hours C. Ten hours D. 24 hours 238. Most important in establishing diagnosis of leprosy is a. Evidence of neural involvement b. Hypo pigmented patches c. Slit smear for AFB d. Positive lepromin test 239. Most common fungal infection in neutropenic patient is a. Candidiasis b. Aspergillosis c. Histoplasmosis d. None of the above 240. Drug of choice for cerebral malaria is: a. Chloroquine b. Quinine c. Primaquine d. Sulfadoxine 241. Ash leaf spots are seen in

a. Psoriasis b. Tuberous sclerosis c. Multiple sclerosis d. Pemphigus vulgaris 242. Nail deformity commonly seen in lichen planus are all of the following except a. Pterygium b. Longitudnal groves c. Oncholysis d. Beaus lines 243. Treatment of choice for type 2 lepra reaction is a. Systemic steroid b. Clofazimine c. Colchicine d. Thalidomide 244. Drug of choice for dermatitis herpetiformis a. Rifampicin b. Thalidomide c. Dapsone d. Clofazimine 245. True isomorphic phenomenon is not seen in a. Warts b. Lichen planus c. Vitiligo d. Psoriasis Itos test is used in the diagnosis of 246. a. Gonorrhea b. Herpes c. Chancroid d. Granuloma venerum 247. Berkeley membrane is seen in a. Psoriasis b. Pemphigus c. Tinea capitis d. Pityriasis rubra 248. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome characterized by A/E a. Decreased T cells b. Normal IgG c. Raised IgM d. Raised IgE 249. Pin index of oxygen is a. 0,5 b. 1,5 c. 2,5 d. 3,5 All of the following are true korsakoffs psychosis except 250. a. Organic amnestic syndrome b. Insight present

c. Mamillary bodies involve d. It may follow wernickes encephalopathy 251. Which of the following is the drug of choice for medication resistant schizophrenia a. Haloperidol b. Chlorpromazine c. Clozapine d. Flupentiol 252. All are true regarding narcolepsy except 10 40 % patients have coincident catalepsy a) b) Positive family history present c) Orexins are decreased in this disorder d) REM sleep is distorted 253. Drug of choice for compulsive disorder is a. Sertraline b. Alprazolam c. Chlorpromazine d. Fluoxetine 254. Most common cause for erectile dysfunction is a. Psychological b. Vasuclar c. Neuronal d. Hormonal 255. Basal ganglia calcification is seen in all of the following except a. Hypoparathyroidism b. Hypothyroidism c. Hyperparthyroidism d. Acromegaly 256. USG finding in chronic renal disease may be a. Enlarged kidney b. Nortal kidney c. Shrunken kidney d. All of the above 257. Radioactivity acts on which phase of cell cycle a. G1 b. G2 c. M d. S 258. Element most commonly used in brachytherpay of carcinoma cervis a. 1-123 b. 1-125 c. 1-127 d. 1-131 259. Radium emits which of the following radiations a. Gamma rays b. Alpha rays c. Beta rays d. All of the above

260. Filament in X-ray machine is made up of a. Molybdenum b. Tungsten c. Strontium d. Silver 261. Most radiosensitive tissue is a. Liver b. Fat c. Bone marrow d. Nervous tissue Marble Bone appearance is seen in: 262. a. Osteomalacia b. Osteopetrosis c. Rickets d. Osteoporsis 263. The technique employed in radiotherapy to counteract the effect of tumor motion due to breathing is known as a. Arc technique b. Modulation c. Gating d. Shunting 264. Which one of the following tumors shows calcification on CT scan? a. Ependymoma b. Meduloblastoma c. Meningioma d. CNS lymphoma 265. Which one of the following radioisotope is not used as permanent implant? a. Radium b. Phosphorus c. Gold-198 d. Caesium-137 266. All emit Beta rays only except a. Strontium b. Yttrium c. Phosphorous d. Iodine 267. Acidosis with normal anion gap a) Methanol poisoning b) Renal failure c) Renal tubular acidosis d) Diabetic ketoacidosis 268. The following is the definition of nephrotic range proteinuria in children, a. 40 mg/sq. m/hr

b. 4 mg/ sq. m/hr c. 50 mg/sq. m/hr d. 5 mg/sq. m/hr 269. Which of the following markers of Downs syndrome is increased in first trimester? a. Alpha feto protein b. HCG c. PAPP-A (Pregnancy Associated Placental Protein A) d. None of the above 270 Which is the drug of choice for the treatment of pneumonia? a. Penicillin b. Ampicillin c. Cotrimoxazole d. Chloramphenicol 271 Ogive is a. Line diagram b. Frequency polygon c.Cumulative Frequency curve d. Scatter diagram 272 Enzyme coagulase is produced by a. Brodetella pertussis b. Yersinia pestis c. Francisella tularensis d. Pasteurella multocida 273 Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis all are true except a. Virus isolated from brain cells in HeLa cell lines b. Measles virus strains isolated from SSPE are defective c. Patients have high levels of measles virus antibody in serum e. Antibodies are demonstrated in CSF 274 Which is a minor criteria for diagnosis of RF according to modified duckett jones criteria, a. ASO titre b. Past h/o RF c. Fever d. Sub cutaneous nodules

275 A 36 year old female with symptoms of hyperthyroidism with episodic hypertension. He is tall with marfanoid habi a. MEN I b. MEN 2 A

c. MEN 2 B d. MEN 2 C 276. First disease is the name given to a. Chicken pox b. Measles c. Infectious mononucleosis d. Scarlet fever 277 A patient who had sustained a severe crush injury to the lower extremities 2 days prior is noted to have frequent long runs of ventricular tachycardia on the electrocardiogram (ECG) monitor, although his blood pressure is stable at 115/75 mm Hg. A formal ECG reveals peaked Which of the following is the most appropriate initial therapy in the management of this patient? a. Administer 1 mg epinephrine b. Administer insulin and 25% dextrose in water c. Administer sodium bicarbonate d. Administer calcium gluconate 278 True regarding cortical blindness: a. Direct and consensual reflexes are present in both the eyes b. Direct and consensual reflexes absent in both the eyes c. Direct reflexes is present and consensual absent on the normal side d. Direct reflexes is absent on normal side and consensual reflex present 279 Shanti aged 27 yrs presented with complaints of difficulty in reading near print. There is ptosis and diplopic in all directions. She is having: a. III CN palsy b. Myasthenia gravis c. Presbyopia d. VICN palsy 280 The sigmoid colon: a. Is a retroperitoneal organ b. Receives parasympathetic fibers from the vagus nerve c. Receives blood mainly from the superior mesenteric artery d. Drains its venous blood into the portal venous system 281 All of the following agents can be given for induction of anaesthesia in children Except: a. Halothane b. Sevoflurane c. Morphine

d. Nitrous oxide 282 All of the following are true accept: a. Halothane is good as an analgesic agent b. Halothane sensitizes the heart to action of catacholamines c. Halothane relaxes brochi & is preferred in anaesthetics d.Halothane may cause liver cell necrosis 283 Almond odour is seen in which poisoning a. Chloral hydrate b. Cocaine c. Cannabis d. Cyanide 284 Drug that is radioprotective a. Paclitaxel b. Vincristine c. Amifostine d. Etoposide 285 A patient present with waxy flexibility, negativitism and rigidity. Diagnosis is a. Catatonic Schizophrenia b. Paranoid schizophrenia c.Hebephrenic schizophrenia d.Simple schizophrenia 286 Nesritide is A. Brain natriuretic peptide analogue B. Endothelin R antagonist C. Gp IIb/IIIa antagonist D. TNF alpha antagonist

287 The following are associated with beta 2 agonist treatment except, A. Hyperkalemia B. Hyperglycemia C. Detrusor relaxation D. Relaxation of gut and bronchial muscles 288 The following drug is not useful for MRSA, A. Cefaclor B. Cotrimoxazole C. Ciprofloxacin D. Vancomycin 289 A 25-year-old woman and her husband visit an infertility clinic. During work-up, an endometrial biopsy is performe Histologic examination of the biopsy shows complex adenomatous hyperplasia. Which lesion is MOST likely to be prese A. Immature teratoma B. Brenner tumor

C. Granulosa cell tumor D. Serous adenocarcinoma 290 Which of the following serologic tests is positive during the serologic gap or window of a typical acute hepatitis B v A. HBV core antigen B. Anti-HBV epsilon antigen C. HBV surface antigen D. Anti-HBV core antigen 291 The quellung test has been used to identify strains of which of the following organism? A. Enterococcus faecalis B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae 292 Which amino acids is ketogenic but not glucogenic? A. Glutamate B. Phenylalanine C. Tyrosine D. Leucine 293 Sexual asphyxia is associated with which of the following perversions A. Voyeurism B. Masochism C. Sadism D. Fetishism 294 Which organism is found only in humans? A. Salmonella typhimurium B. Salmonella typhi C. Salmonella choleraesuis D. Yersinia enterocolitica

295 Why do patient with the carcinoid syndrome develop loss of appetite, generalized weakness abdominal pain vomiti in sunlight exposed areas? A. Failure to elaborate serotonin B. Vitamin B 12 deficiency C. Thiamine deficiency D. Niacin deficiency

296 A 65-yrs-old man with advanced lung cancer complains of painful burning in his fingertips. Examination reveals widened fingertips, with flattening of the proximal nail cuticle angle. The nail bed is spongy. This is A. Vascular oversupply due to angiogenic factors B. Bony resorption due to parathyroid hormone like substance C. Infection with coagulase-negative staphylococci D. Abnormal platelet endothelial interaction 297 Kohler's disease is A. Osteochondrosis of the lunate B. Osteochondrosis of the navicular C. Tuberculosis of the scaphoid

D. Syphilitic dactylitis 298 Investigation of choice for Acute sinusitis is: A. X-ray (Waters' view) B. CT Scan C. MRI D. Ultrasonography 299 If mean, median and mode are 10, 18, 26 respectively, the distribution is A. Symmetric B. Normal C. Positively skewed D. Negatively skewed 300 The theory of MRI was elucidated by: A. Felix Block and Edward Purcell B. Werner Forssman C. Hounsfield D. Goldman

e for this may be

e non ejection clicks investigation of choice would be

ection of prostate suggests

ertensive therapy

child is having rashes over palm rhinitis. The most probable diagnosis is

nd of twin pregnancy

t pubic and axillary hair, condition is

breathing is known as:

ll with marfanoid habitus. He also has mucosal neuromas. What is the diagnosis?

mal ECG reveals peaked T waves, and widening of the QRS complex.

rial biopsy is performed. OST likely to be present in this patient?

cal acute hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection?

abdominal pain vomiting stomatitis and a skin rash that is pigmented and scaling

l bed is spongy. This is due to: