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These Questions Prepared by: SONU (HEETSON)

Microsoft Windows Questions and Answers

Here we are sharing with you the Microsoft windows questions that can grow your
Microsoft general knowledge that help you in competitive exams.

1.An operating system version designed for use with a media center PC is Microsoft Window XP
Ans. Media center edition

2. Which one is the default „word Processor‟ for Microsoft Windows?


a) MS Word b) MS Paint
c) Word Pad d) Notepad
Ans. c

3.Which mode loads minimal set of drivers when starting Windows?


Ans. Safe Mode

4. Which operating system doesn‟t support networking between computers?


a) Windows 3.1 b) Windows 95 c) Windows 2000 d) Windows NT
Ans. a

5. Which key combination is used to minimize all open windows and displays in the screen?
Ans. Windows key + D

6. How many users can access a share folder simultaneously from a Windows XP machine?
a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) Unlimited
Ans. c

7. Which of the following windows do not have start button


a) Windows Vista b) Windows 7 c) Windows 8 d) Windows 95
Ans. c

8. Which of the following Operating systems is better for implementing a Client Server network
a) MS DOS b) Windows 95 c) Windows 98 d) Windows 2000
Ans. d

9. Which one is the latest release of Windows Client Operating system?


a) Windows XP b) Windows 7
c) Windows 8 d) Windows 10
Ans. d

10. Which function key needs to be press during reboot to enter in Safe Mode of a Windows
machine?
Ans. F8

11.To make a window wider, you would move the pointer until it changes to the Horizontal Resize
shape and then _____.
Ans. Drag

12. Which one is used for making presentation file from Microsoft Office package?
Ans. MS PowerPoint

13.The window which shows icons for things like the mouse, sound, and display is_____.
Ans. Control Panel
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14. To see Help for Windows itself you could_____


Ans. Open the start menu or screen and search for Help or Press F1 key

15. Which is used for making presentation file from Microsoft Office package?
Ans. MS PowerPoint

16.My computer was introduced from____


Ans. Windows 95

17. Which of these folders in Windows is used by browsers to cache web pages
Ans. Temporary Internet Files

18. What is the name of Virtual Assistant included in MS Windows 10


Ans. Cortana

19. What would you type in Run window to open „MS Word‟
Ans. Winword.exe

20. Shortcut key to permanent delete the file without sending it to the recycle bin.
Ans. Shift + Del

21. What will be the shortcut key in windows to perform cut operation?
Ans. Ctrl + X

22. Zip files are


Ans. Compressed files

23. Which of the following is the files directly used by operating system?
Ans. .ini

24. In Windows operating system it is a very important part of Windows, clicking on it opens up
what is called the start menu
Ans. Start Button

25. In Windows operating system the _____ is the main screen area that one sees after he turn on
a computer and log on to Windows.
Ans. Desktop

26. Word Processors that is the part of Windows operating system


a) Adobe Photoshop b) Word pad
Ans. b

27. In Windows operating system these are small pictures that represent files, folders, programs,
and other items. Each one is used to make the computer do something.
Ans. Icons

28. Microsoft Windows provides a graphics application named


Ans. Paint
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29. It is a visual aspect that indicates that a control is ready to receive input from you in Windows
operating system
Ans. Text Boxes

30. In Windows operating system it is the long horizontal bar at the bottom of a screen. Unlike the
desktop, which can get obscured by the windows on top of it, it is visible almost all time.
Ans. Taskbar

31. In Windows operating system it sits at the bottom of windows desktop screen. It shows you
which programs are running and allows you to switch between them. It also contains the Start
button which one can use to access programs, folders, and computer settings.
Ans. Taskbar

32. In Windows operating system it is a window that is used to display text or to receive text from
you. The type of text it displays or the type of text you are asked to provide depends on the
application or the situation.
Ans. Text boxes

33. In Windows operating system the clock in Windows xp sits on the_____ and displays the
system time.
Ans. Taskbar

34. Text Editor that is the part of Windows operating system


Ans. Notepad

35. In Windows operating system when you delete a file or folder, it doesn‟t actually get deleted
right away, it goes to the _____.
Ans. Recycle bin

36. How can you find the amount of memory installed on your computer?
Ans. Right click on “My Computer”/Properties

37. How can you tell which printers are installed on a computer?
Ans. Open “My computer”/Printers

38. Which windows program allow you to quickly locate a file or folder?
Ans. Find under the start button and /or Windows Explorer

39. Where can you find the most recent files you worked on in Windows?
a) Under start/Document
b) Under Open Word Document
c) Start/Find/Files or folders
d) There is no way to find them by themselves
Ans. a

40. Which key starts the spell checker in all Windows applications?
Ans. F7

41. Which key move the cursor to the end and beginning of a line with a single keystroke
Ans. End and Home

42. Which keyboard shortcut enables you to save in any Windows application?
Ans. Ctrl + S
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43. A Microsoft Windows is _____


Ans. Operating system

44. Which one is an example for OS?


A Antivirus B Windows C MS Office D Macromedia
Ans. b

45. Where does the minimized application reside in windows?


A Task bar
B My computer
C My Document
D Recent documents
Ans. a

46. Which is the order of files and directories in Windows Explore?


A Serially
B Sequentially
C hierarchically
D Aplhabtically
Ans. c

47. What steps should be taken, if windows not updated automatically?


A start - control panel - settings - add programs - enable automatic update
B start - setting - control panel - system - enable automatic updated
C re- install windows OS
D restart windows
Ans. b

48. Which of the following is not application software?


a) Windows NT b) Page Maker
Ans. a

49. Which of the following operating system does not implement the multitasking truly?
a) Window 98 b) MS DOS
Ans. b

50. Which of the following windows version support 64 bit processor?


a) window 98 b) window XP
Ans. b

51. Window _____ is an application program used to search files and folders.
Ans. Explorer

52. _______ is the first 64 bit OS from Microsoft.


Ans. Window XP

53. The first version of Windows was _____


Ans. Windows 1.0

54. To operate window the disk should have _____ MB empty space.
Ans. 16
These Questions Prepared by: SONU (HEETSON)
1. Which one is a „text editor‟ for Microsoft Windows?
a) Notepad b) Wordpad

2. What is the maximum size of a word document created?


a) 512 GB b) 32 MB c) 10 GB d) 10 MB

3. In Windows, start button is used to_____


a) Run application b) Device setting c) Turn off the system d) All of these

4. What is the maximum number of Primary Partitions that can be created on a Hard disk?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

5. Which key combination is used to close a open application in Window machine?


a) Ctrl + X b) Ctrl + C c) Ctrl + E d) Alt + F4

6. Total number of function keys in computer keyboard?


a) 6 b) 102 c) 12 d) 4

7. Which key combination is used to permanently delete a file or folder?


a) Ctrl + D b) Ctrl + Del c) Alt + Del d) Shift + Del

8. Which web browser is provided default with a windows machine?


a) Chrome b) Mozila c) Netscape d) IE ( Internet Explorer)

9. Which company bought the popular video teleconferencing software „Skype‟?


a) Whatsapp b) Facebook c) Heetson d) Microsoft

10. When was start button first released in Windows


a) Window 98 b) Window 95 c) Window 2000 d) Window NT

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Computer MCQ for All Competitive Exams

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These Questions Prepared by: SONU (Heetson)
Operating system
1. DOS stands for_________.
a) Disk operating system b) Drive operating system
c) Disk operation socket d) disk open supply
Ans. A

2. In a single unit of computer we can use more than _______OS But at a time we may run only
one OS.
Ans. 1

3. GUI stands for_________.


a) Graphical user interface b) Graphics uniq icon
c) group user interface d) game user interface
Ans. A

4. UNIX stands for __________.


a) union interface Xerox b) user normal interface
c) user normal interface d) Unicode information computing system, source
Ans. D

5. Unix operating system developed in year_____.


a) 1969 b) 1981
c) 1984 d) 1954
Ans. A

6. Ken Thompson and Dennis Ritchie developed an operating system name______


a) MAC b) window
c) UNIX d) Linux
Ans. C

7. ________ is an open source software.


a) UNIX b) LINUX c) Window d) MAC
Ans. B

8. The first linux kernel was released in ________.


a) 1991 b) 1992 c) 1999 d) 1984
Ans. A

9. The computer and software system that control the machine is called _______
Ans. Embedded System

10. MAC operating system was developed by ________.


a) Steve jobs b) Abhinandan c) sunder pichai d) Dennis Richie
Ans. A

11.The components that process data are located in ________


Ans. System Unit

12. Operating system is the most common type of ________ software.


a) System b) Application
c) Utility d) Symbian
Ans. A
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13. Multitasking and multiuser is feature of _____.
a) Linux b) Window c) Symbian d) Mac
Ans. a

14. The pc and the apple mac are example of ________


a) software b) application c) company d) platforms
Ans. D

15. An operating system is said to be multiuser if more than______ user can work simultaneously.
a) one b) two c) three d) four
Ans. A

16. The computer and software system that control the machine is __________.
a) control system b) embedded system c) operating system d) firmware software
Ans. b

17. Data and program stored in main memory when _________.


a) the processor uses them b) computer on
c) computer off d) computer connected to internet
Ans. a

18. Computer Process data into info By working exclusively with _________
a) Codes b) Numbers c) Programming language d) Processing language
Ans. b

19. When creating a computer program, the_________ designs the structure of the program.
a) System Analyst b) Compute programmer c) Computer designer d) Programmer
Ans. a

20. ______is a computer program that directly executes instructions written in a programming or
scripting language, without requiring them previously to have been compiled into a machine
language program.
a) Compiler b) Assembler c) Language converter d) interpreter
Ans. d

21. _________is a computer program that translate and executes program at run time line by line.
a) Compiler b) Assembler c) Language converter d) interpreter
Ans. d

22. Inheritance is an ______Principle.


a) OOP b) Programming c) Object oriented d) Internet
Ans. a

23.Which one is an example for OS?


A Antivirus B Windows C MS Office D Macromedia
Ans. b

24.Which acts as an intermediate between a user and a computer?


A Macros
B Antivirus
C MS Office
D Operating system
Ans. d
These Questions Prepared by: SONU (Heetson)
25.Where does the minimized application reside in windows?
A Task bar
B My computer
C My Document
D Recent documents
Ans. a

26.Which control panel applet gives the information of computer?


A System and security
B Hardware and sound
C Programs
D Appearance and personalization
Ans. a

27.What is the extension of applet files in control panel?


A .Ctl
B .Cpl
C .Cal
D .Csl
Ans. b

28.Which is the order of files and directories in Windows Explore?


A Serially
B Sequentially
C hierarchically
D Aplhabtically
Ans. c

29.What steps should be taken, if windows not updated automatically?


A start - control panel - settings - add programs - enable automatic update
B start - setting - control panel - system - enable automatic updated
C re- install windows OS
D restart windows
Ans. b

30.What should be done, if the pen drive is not deducted?


A Device Manger → right click on USB root hub → disable device
B Device Manger → right click on USB root hub → enable device
C Device Manger → right click on USB root hub → scan for hardware changes
D Device Manger → right click on USB root hub → Update drives
Ans. b

31.If there are multiple recycle bin for a hard disk


a) You can set different size for each recycle bin
b) You can make any one of them default recycle bin
Ans. a

32. Identify false statement


a) You can find deleted files in recycle bin
b) You can increase free space of disk by sending files in recycle bin
Ans. b

33. If the displayed system time and date is wrong, you can reset it using
Ans. Control Panel
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34. You should save your computer from?
a) Viruses b) Time bombs c) Worms d) All of these
Ans. d

35. A Microsoft windows is a(n)


Ans. Operating system

36. A co-processor
a) is relatively easy to support in software
b) works with any application
Ans. a

37. Which of the following is a program group?


a) Accessories b) Word c) Paint d) All of these
Ans. a

38. Which of the following is not application software?


a) Windows NT b) Page Maker
Ans. a

39. The ____ Program compresses large files into a smaller file
Ans. WinZip

40. Which of the following is an example of a real time operating system?


a) Lynx b) MS DOS c) Window XP d) Process Control
Ans. d

41. Which of the following operating system does not implement the multitasking truly?
a) Window 98 b) MS DOS
Ans. b

42. Which of the following windows version support 64 bit processor?


a) window 98 b) window XP
Ans. b

43. What program runs first after computer is booted and loading GUI?
a) Desktop manager b) Authentication
Ans. b

44. Which of the following operating system is better for implementing a client-server network
a) MS DOS b) Windows 2000
Ans. b

45. Which is the latest version of MS windows?


a) Window 2008 b) Windows 10
Ans. b

46. Which operating system doesn’t support networking between computers?


a) Windows 3.1 b) Windows 95
Ans. a

47. Which of the following does not support more than one program at a time?
a) DOS b) Linux
Ans. a
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48. Which of the following is not an operating system?


a) DOS b) Oracle
Ans. b

49. Linux is a(n)____ operating system.


Ans. Open source

50. Which operating system can you give smallest file name?
a) Windows b) DOS
Ans. b

51. Which one is not operating system?


a) P11 b) OS/2
Ans. a

52. Which of the following is not a multitasking operating system?


a) Windows b) DOS
Ans. b

53. You should choose sleep option when


a) The computer is tired after working for the whole day
b) You are leaving for a very short time and want to resume you work shortly
Ans. b

54. The ____ displays the name of every computer user on the computer
a) Wish list screen b) Welcome screen
Ans. b

55. The category of software most appropriate for controlling the design and layout of complex
document like newsletters and brochure is:
a) Word Processing b) Computer aided design
Ans. a

56. Which one is not a system tool?


a) Backup
b) Virus scanning
Ans. c

57. The memory which allocated space for DOS and application is called
Ans. Conventional memory

58. The operating system creates ____ from the physical computer.
Ans. Virtual computers

59. Which mode loads minimal set of drivers when starting windows?
a) Safe mode
b) Normal mode
Ans. a

60. Which of the following are loaded in Safe mode?


a) Keyboard driver b) Mouse driver c) VGA drive d) All of these
Ans. d
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61. A ____ is a named location on a disk where files are stored
Ans. Folder

62. Which type of command requires additional files to perform specific operations?
Ans. External commands

63. Which of the following is system software?


a) Operating system b) Compiler c) Utilities d) All of these
Ans. d

64. A user interface that is easy to use is considered to be


a) User happy b) User simple c) User friendly d) None of these
Ans. c

65. The ____ is the drive containing the files to be copied


a) Source drive b) Destination drive
Ans. a

66. The most recent version of MAC OS is based on the ____ operating system.
a) Windows b) Linux c) UNIX d) CMOS
Ans. c

67. In windows, start button is used to


a) Run applications b) Device setting c) Turn off system d) All of these
Ans. d

68. Which one is true for unconditional disk formatting?


a) Destroys every byte of data on a disk by overwriting it with blank spaces
b) Do not check/scan surface after format
Ans. a

69. Once text has been cut to the clipboard, you can _____ that text into another document
Ans. Paste

70. Which of the following operating system reads and reacts in actual time?
a) Quick Response system
b) Real Time System
Ans. b

71. All of the following are True regarding virtual memory except
a) Any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory
b) The setting for the amount of hard disk drive space to allocate virtual memory can be manually
change
c) This temporary storage is called the swap file or page
d) Virtual memory is the physical space of the hard drive
Ans. a

72. The essential difference between an operating system like linux and one like windows is that
a) Any programmer can modify linuxcode which is not permitted with windows
Ans. b

73. The Basic Input Output System (BIOS) resides in _____


Ans. ROM
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74. Which of the following does not occur during the Power-on-self-test (POST)?
a) The scan disk utility begins to run
b) The video card and video memory are tested
Ans. a

75. Recently deleted files are stored in____.


Ans. Recycle bin

76. Which components appear in the initial Windows start up display?


a) Dialog box b) Taskbar
Ans. b

77. A small part of taskbar that has icons of background running application is
a) Task bar b) System tray
Ans. b

78. An operating system version designed for use with a media center PC is Microsoft WindowsXP
a) Home edition b) Media center edition
Ans. b

79. An operating system version designed for use with a tablet PC is Microsoft Windows XP
a) Home edition b) Tablet PC edition
Ans. b

80. ____ runs on a computer hardware and serves as a platform for other system to run on
Ans. Operating system

81. Which is the first program run on a computer when the computer boots up?
Ans. Operating system

82. The _____ contains commands associated with the my computer window
a) Start menu b) System menu
Ans. b

83. _____ is the layer of a computer system between the hardware and the user program
Ans. Operating system

84. When you start up the computer the boot up storage at which the BIOS version manufacturer
and data are displayed on the monitor is called
Ans. Power on self test (POST)

85. The operating system is the most common type of ____ software
Ans. System

86. Which of the following is not essential to shut down your computer?
a) Save all opened files b) Switch off monitor
Ans. b

87. You can move window to a different position on your screen by dragging it by its_____
Ans. Move handle

88. A bar that inform you that available options in your computer, opened applications, background
running applications and can be used to switch between applications quickly is ______
Ans. Task bar
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89. Which components appear in the initial windows start up display?


a) Task bar b) Start menu
Ans. a

90. Taskbar is used for


a) Navigation program b) Switching between program c) Start a program d) All of these
Ans. d

91. How to install the new font in window XP


Ans. Start > setting > control panel > font > Install new font

92. When a peripheral device needs immediate attention from the operation system, it generates a
a) Spool b) Interrupt
Ans. b

93. Windows displays various options to shut down. Which is suitable at the end of day?
a) shut down b) Restart
Ans. a

94. Which shutdown method is often called warm boot?


Ans. Restart

95. _____ is most often done after fixing a problem, adding a new program or making
configuration change
Ans. Restart

96. _____is a compromise mode between shut down and sleep mode because it does not
consume power and remembers the current state of your desktop
Ans. Hibernate

97. You should choose this mode if you don’t know how long you won’t use your computer but
want to have the same desktop state when you resume
Ans. Hibernate

98. The category of operating system that you most likely have running on your PDA computer is a
_____ Operating system
Ans. Single user, single task

99. Running multiple program at the same time is called:


Ans. Multitasking

100. What is the meaning of “Hibernate” in Windows XP/Windows 7?


Ans. Shutdown the computer without closing the running applications

101. What do you mean by dialog box?


a) Interactive message box b) Group of options
c) set of controls d) All of these
Ans. d

102. To properly exit Windows


a) Click the stop button on the desktop b) Select shut down from Start menu
Ans. b
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103. Which is not a system tool?
a) Folder b) Backup
Ans. a

104. A utility that can be used to minimize the number of fragmented files and enhance the speed
a) Disk space b) Defrag
Ans. b

105. How can you optimize performance of your computer?


a) Delete unused files b) Defrag disk c) Scan for virus d) All of these
Ans. d

106. Recently used application file list appears in the Windows operating system
a) Setting menu b) Documents menu
Ans. b

107. The title bar always displays on


Ans. Top of the open windows

108. Booting means


Ans. Restarting computer

109.When you open my computer on desktop you see the information of


a) Hard disk b) CD
c) Removable disk d) All of these
Ans. d

110. _____ is an intermediate storage for deleted files


Ans. Recycle bin

111. We can start the application from?


a) Network place b) Run
Ans. b

112. Which of the following is not process states?


a) New
b) Running
c) Ready
d) Finished
Ans. d

113. Save operation mean____


Ans. Put data into secondary storage

114. A spooler is a
Ans. Program that coordinates the print job that are waiting to process

115. The problem with ____ file is that they slow your computer’s operation
a) Fragmented
b) Formatted
Ans. a

116. User action such as keystroke or mouse click are referred to as


Ans. Event
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117. What is the method of handling deadlocks?


a) Use a protocol to ensure that the system will never enter a deadlock state
b) Allow the system to enter the deadlock state and then recover
c) Pretend that deadlocks never occur in the system
d) All of these
Ans. d

118. To display a shortcut menu for an object you use


Ans. Right click the object

119. Which of the following separate primary file and extension is


a) Dot b) Period c) Point d) All of these
Ans. d

120. In Microsoft windows, the graphical pattern on the desktop used as background for windows
is______
Ans. Wall paper

121. All of the following are task performed by the operating system except
a) Managing hardware on the computer
b) Controlling the access that application program has to the CPU
c) Performing housekeeping task like file compression and disk defragmentation
d) Provide an interface for user to interact with computer
Ans. c

122. Which of the following is not a Operating system?


a) CP/M
b) Pascal
Ans. b

123. Operating system is like a


a) Government
b) Parliament
Ans. a

124. Underlined character on the menu or dialog box known as


a) Hot spot b) Hot key
Ans. b

125. Start/ Restart the computer is called


Ans. Boot

126. Which file is transferred when computer is start up?


Ans. System files

127. Which is built directly on the hardware?


Ans. Operating system

128. _____ system is built directly on the hardware


Ans. Operating

129. The Purpose of Run command in start menu is to


Ans. Start Programs
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130. You can select My computer icon and press Alt + Enter to
Ans. Open System Properties dialog box

131. Generally quick launch toolbar is displayed on


Ans. The left side of taskbar

132. Which file system Windows 95 typically use?


a) FAT 16 b) FAT 32
Ans. b

133. Which of the following is not a mode in starting Windows?


a) Command Prompt b) Safe Mode c) Normal Mode d) Turbo Mode
Ans. d

134. Which is the default mode for Windows to start?


Ans. Normal mode

135. NTFS stands for


Ans. New Technology File System

136. Which of the following is not the function of Operating System?


a) Resource Management b) File management
c) Networking d) Processor Management
Ans. c

137. The following applications may appear on system tray except


a) System Clock b) Volume Control c) Network Connection d) MS Office Suite
Ans. d

138. What is the default location of saving and opening file?


Ans. My documents

139. The OS used to operate the mobile phone is a


Ans. Embedded OS

140. UNIX operating system is a(n)


a) Time sharing operating system b) Multi-user operating system
c) Multi-tasking operating system d) All of these
Ans. d

141. The ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple program at the same
time is called _____
Ans. Multitasking

142. _____ is used in operating system to separate mechanism from policy


a) Single level implementation
b) Two level implementation
Ans. b

143. Which Operating system doesn’t support long file names?


a) OS/2 b) Windows 95
c) MS DOS d) Windows NT
Ans. c
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144. We need system files to run
Ans. MS word b) MS Excel c) MS DOS d) MS Access
Ans. c

145. What is the function of folder?


a) Save files b) Delete files c) Move files d) All of these
Ans. d

146. Which button might you find in a Windows title bar?


a) Close button b) Maximize button c) Minimize button d) All of these
Ans. d

147. Press the ____ button to have the window fill the entire screen
Ans. Maximize

148. Which windows features can be accessed from the start menu?
a) Help b) Window Explorer c) Microsoft Network d) All of these
Ans. d

149. _____ are list of commands that appear on the screen


Ans. Menus

150. A real time operating system in most likely to be used for which of the following task
a) Controlling access to a shared printer in a network
b) Controlling the fuel injections system of an automobile engines
Ans. b

151. An operating system is a program or a group of programs that


a) Helps in checking the spelling of word
b) Manages the resources of the computer
Ans. b

152. What is the function of an operating system?


a) Manages computer’s resources very efficiently
b) Takes care of scheduling jobs for execution
c) Manages the flow of data and instructions
d) All of these
Ans. d

153. The Primary job of the operating system is


a) Mange Commands b) Manage Resources
Ans. b

154. _____ is a new windows features that offers a number of methods for searching for a file or
folder?
Ans. Find

155. When we double click on my computer


Ans. Show the list of your computer drive

156. Which of the following is the part of the operating system?


a) Cell b) FAT c) Kernel d) Disk
Ans. c
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157. The Operating feature the integrates the file created in different application into WebPages
Ans. Web integration

158. Operating system manages


a) Memory b) Processor c) I /O devices d) All of these
Ans. d

159. Use of icons and windows are characteristics of _____ interface.


Ans. Graphical user

160. Windows can run _____


a) One application only b) Two application c) Four application d) All of these
Ans. d

161. Fonts install from


a) Add from control panel b) Font setup file
c) Font.exe file d) All of these
Ans. d

162. Which is not concerned with control panel?


a) Printer b) Run application c) Font d) Keyboard
Ans. b

163. Press ____ key while booting to display Advanced Boot Menu
Ans. F8

164. Multiprogramming systems_____


Ans. Execute more jobs in the same time period

165. Which of the following appear in Windows menu bar?


a) Help b) File c) Edit d) All of these
Ans. d

166. The operating system allows the user to organize the computer’s contents in a hierarchical
structure of directories that include all of the following except:
a) Files b) Folders c) Drives d) System
Ans. d

167. Desktop is a
a) Provides work space
b) Display program
Ans. a

168. Which of the following is not a system tool?


a) Scandisk b) Drive space
c) Disk defragmenter d) Doskey
Ans. d

169. The program that is responsible for loading the operating system into RAM is called
Ans. Bootstrap program

170. System files allocated at


Ans. Boot area
These Questions Prepared by: SONU (Heetson)
171. _____ transforms one interface into other inrerface
a) Program b) Software c) Data d) None
Ans. b

172. _____ interface consists of thing like program counter, register, interrupts and terminal
Ans. Hardware

173. _____ show characteristics with both hardware and software


Ans. operating system

174. Which of the following resources must be protected by the operating system?
a) I /O b) Memory c) CPU d) All of these
Ans. d

175. Font folder is located on


Ans. Control Panel folder

176. From where do you change mouse setting?


Ans. Control Panel > Mouse

177. Part of the POST process in to ensure that the test of essential peripheral device coincides
with the hardware configuration that stored in
Ans. CMOS

178. The memory resident portion of operating system is called the


Ans. Kernel

179. Boot startup process


Ans. Loads system files to RAM

180. Small pictures appear on the desktop is called


Ans. Icon

181. A graphical user interface displays


a) Graphics b) Text c) Both A and B
Ans. c

182. To change the screen saver you can go from


a) Control panel display
b) Right click in desktop and properties
c) Both A and B
Ans. c

183. You can add or remove program from


Ans. Add/Remove program from control panel

184. An embedded object might appear in a document as


Ans. Embedding

185. When a computer is first turned on or restarted, a special type of absolute loader called
Ans. Bootstrap loader

186. In which type of the OS, the response time is very crucial.
Ans. Real time Operating system
These Questions Prepared by: SONU (Heetson)

187. Which of the following is a correct association between a vendor and an operating system
a) Redhat Linux
b) Microsoft Unix
Ans. a

188. ______ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by
which users can interact with the computer
Ans. The Operating system

189. Which one of the following is not a layer of operating system?


a) Kernel b) Shell
c) Application program d) Critical selection
Ans. d

190. Which is not the function of the operating system?


a) Memory management b) Disk management
c) Application management d) Virus protection
Ans. d

191. Internet Explorer is


a) An internet browser b) Provided by Windows OS
c) An access point for World wide web d) All of these
Ans. d

192. The windows feature is the ability of computer to automatically configure a new hardware
component is that
Ans. Plug and play

193. Which of the following is not a part of the control panel?


a) Date and time b) My documents c) Add or remove program d) Display
Ans. b

194. The _____ provides information about hardware installation, configuration and hardware
status
Ans. Device manager

195. A program in execution is called____


Ans. A Process

196. When was MS Windows operating system introduced?


Ans. 1985

197. The First operating system was developed in


Ans. 1956

198. The maximum length of any single path from the root directory
Ans. 63

199. The part of machine level instruction, which tells the central processor that has to be done, is
Ans. Operation code

200. A system program that combined modules of a program into a form suitable for execution
Ans. Linking loader
These Questions Prepared by: SONU (Heetson)
201. Process is
Ans. A program in execution

202. Addressing structure


Ans. Defines the fundamental method of determining effective operand addresses

203. Supervisor state is


Ans. only allowed to the operating system

204. User-Friendly Systems are:


a) easy to develop
b) Becoming more common
Ans. b

205. A system program that sets up an executable program in main memory ready for execution is
Ans. Loader

206. Which of the following are loaded into main memory when the computer is booted?
Ans. internal command instructions

207. What is the name given to the organized collection of software that controls the overall
operation of a computer?
Ans. Operating system

208. System generation:


Ans. various in difficulty between systems

209. What is the name of the operating system for the laptop computer called MacLite?
Ans. OZ

210. Memory management is:


Ans. critical for even the simplest operating system

211. What is the name given to all the programs inside the computer with makes it usable?
Ans. System software

212. Which of the following is characteristic of an operating system?


a) resource management b) error recovery
c) memory management d) All of these
Ans. d

213. Capacity planning is independent of the


Ans. Operating system

214. What is the name of the operating system that reads and reacts in terms of actual time.
Ans. Real time system

215. The operating system of a computer serves as a software interface between the user and___
Ans. Hardware

216. When you rename a file five times then the number of file in the disk is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5
Ans. a
Windows System Administrator Interview Questions
1. What is an IP address?
2. What is a subnet mask?
3. What is ARP?
4. What is ARP Cache Poisoning?
5. What is the ANDing process?
6. What is a default gateway? What happens if I don't have one?
7. Can a workstation computer be configured to browse the Internet and yet NOT have a default
gateway?
8. What is a subnet?
9. What is APIPA?
10. What is an RFC? Name a few if possible (not necessarily the numbers, just the ideas behind them)
11. What is RFC 1918?
12. What is CIDR?
13. You have the following Network ID: 192.115.103.64/27. What is the IP range for your network?
14. You have the following Network ID: 131.112.0.0. You need at least 500 hosts per network.
15. How many networks can you create? What subnet mask will you use?
16. You need to view at network traffic. What will you use? Name a few tools
17. How do I know the path that a packet takes to the destination?
18. What does the ping 192.168.0.1 -l 1000 -n 100 command do?
19. What is DHCP? What are the benefits and drawbacks of using it?
20. Describe the steps taken by the client and DHCP server in order to obtain an IP address.
21. What is the DHCPNACK and when do I get one? Name 2 scenarios.
22. What ports are used by DHCP and the DHCP clients?
23. Describe the process of installing a DHCP server in an AD infrastructure.
24. What is DHCPINFORM?
25. Describe the integration between DHCP and DNS.
26. What options in DHCP do you regularly use for an MS network?
27. What are User Classes and Vendor Classes in DHCP?
28. How do I configure a client machine to use a specific User Class?
29. What is the BOOTP protocol used for, where might you find it in Windows network infrastructure?
30. DNS zones - describe the differences between the 4 types.
31. DNS record types - describe the most important ones.
32. Describe the process of working with an external domain name
33. Describe the importance of DNS to AD.
34. Describe a few methods of finding an MX record for a remote domain on the Internet.
35. What does "Disable Recursion" in DNS mean?
36. What could cause the Forwarders and Root Hints to be grayed out?
37. What is a "Single Label domain name" and what sort of issues can it cause?
38. What is the "in-addr.arpa" zone used for?
39. What are the requirements from DNS to support AD?
40. How do you manually create SRV records in DNS?
41. Name 3 benefits of using AD-integrated zones.
42. What are the benefits of using Windows 2003 DNS when using AD-integrated zones?
43. You installed a new AD domain and the new (and first) DC has not registered its SRV records in DNS.
Name a few possible causes.
44. What are the benefits and scenarios of using Stub zones?
45. What are the benefits and scenarios of using Conditional Forwarding?
46. What are the differences between Windows Clustering, Network Load Balancing and Round Robin,
and scenarios for each use?
47. How do I work with the Host Name Cache on a Client Computer?
48. How do I clear the DNS cache on the DNS server?
49. What is the 224.0.1.24 address used for?
50. What is WINS and when do we use it?
51. Can you have a Microsoft-based network without any WINS server on it? What are the
"considerations" regarding not using WINS?
52. Describe the differences between WINS push and pull replications.
53. What is the difference between tombstoning a WINS record and simply deleting it?
54. Name the NetBIOS names you might expect from a Windows 2003 DC that is registered in WINS.
55. Describe the role of the Routing Table on a Host and on a Router.
56. What are Routing Protocols? Why do we need them? Name a few.
57. What are Router Interfaces? What types can they be?
58. In Windows 2003 Routing, what are the interface filters?
59. What is NAT?
60. What is the real difference between NAT and PAT?
61. How do you configure NAT on Windows 2003?
62. How do you allow inbound traffic for specific hosts on Windows 2003 NAT?
63. What is VPN? What types of VPN does Windows 2000 and beyond work with natively?
64. What is IAS? In what scenarios do we use it?
65. What's the difference between Mixed mode and Native mode in AD when dealing with RRAS?
66. What is the "RAS and IAS" group in AD?
67. What are Conditions and Profile in RRAS Policies?
68. What types or authentication can a Windows 2003 based RRAS work with?
69. How does SSL work?
70. How does IPSec work?
71. How do I deploy IPSec for a large number of computers?
72. What types of authentication can IPSec use?
73. What is PFS (Perfect Forward Secrecy) in IPSec?
74. How do I monitor IPSec?
75. Looking at IPSec-encrypted traffic with a sniffer. What packet types do I see?
76. What can you do with NETSH?
77. How do I look at the open ports on my machine?
78. What is Active Directory?
79. What is LDAP?
80. Can you connect Active Directory to other 3rd-party Directory Services? Name a few options.
81. Where is the AD database held? What other folders are related to AD?
82. What is the SYSVOL folder?
83. Name the AD NCs and replication issues for each NC.
84. What are application partitions? When do I use them?
85. How do you create a new application partition?
86. How do you view replication properties for AD partitions and DCs?
87. What is the Global Catalog?
88. How do you view all the GCs in the forest?
89. Why not make all DCs in a large forest as GCs?
90. Trying to look at the Schema, how can I do that?
91. What are the Support Tools? Why do I need them?
92. What is LDP? What is REPLMON? What is ADSIEDIT? What is NETDOM? What is REPADMIN?
93. What are sites? What are they used for?
94. What's the difference between a site link's schedule and interval?
95. What is the KCC?
96. What is the ISTG? Who has that role by default?
97. What are the requirements for installing AD on a new server?
98. What can you do to promote a server to DC if you're in a remote location with slow WAN link?
99. How can you forcibly remove AD from a server, and what do you do later? o Can I get user
passwords from the AD database?
100. What tool would I use to try to grab security related packets from the wire?
101. Name some OU Design Considerations.
102. What is tombstone lifetime attribute?
103. What do you do to install a new Windows 2003 DC in a Windows 2000 AD?
104. What do you do to install a new Windows 2003 R2 DC in a Windows 2003 AD?
105. How would you find all users that have not logged on since last month?
106. What are the DS* commands?
107. What's the difference between LDIFDE and CSVDE? Usage considerations?
108. What are the FSMO roles? Who has them by default? What happens when each one fails?
109. What FSMO placement considerations do you know of?
110. I want to look at the RID allocation table for a DC. What do I do?
111. What's the difference between transferring a FSMO role and seizing one? Which one should
you NOT seize? Why?
112. How do you configure a "stand-by operation master" for any of the roles?
113. How do you backup AD?
114. How do you restore AD?
115. How do you change the DS Restore admin password?
116. Why can't you restore a DC that was backed up 4 months ago?
117. What are GPOs?
118. What is the order in which GPOs are applied?
119. Name a few benefits of using GPMC.
120. What are the GPC and the GPT? Where can I find them?
121. What are GPO links? What special things can I do to them?
122. What can I do to prevent inheritance from above?
123. How can I override blocking of inheritance?
124. How can you determine what GPO was and was not applied for a user? Name a few ways to
do that.
125. A user claims he did not receive a GPO, yet his user and computer accounts are in the right
OU, and everyone else there gets the GPO. What will you look for?
126. Name a few differences in Vista GPOs.
127. Name some GPO settings in the computer and user parts.
128. What are Administrative Templates?
129. What's the difference between Software Publishing and Assigning?
130. Can I deploy non-MSI software with GPO?
131. You want to Standardize the Desktop Environments (wallpaper, My Documents, Start menu,
printers etc.) on the computers in one department. How would you do that?
132. Tell me a bit about the Capabilities of Exchange Server.
133. What are the different Exchange 2003 versions?
134. What's the main differences between Exchange 5.5 and Exchange 2000/2003?
135. What are the major network infrastructure for installing Exchange 2003?
136. What is the latest Exchange 2003 Service Pack? Name a few changes in functionality in that
SP.
137. What are the disk considerations when installing Exchange (RAID types, locations and so on).
138. You got a new HP DL380 (2U) server, dual Xeon, 4GB of RAM, 7 SAS disks, 64-bit. What do
you do next to install Exchange 2003? (you have AD in place)
139. Why not install Exchange on the same machine as a DC?
140. How would you prepare the AD Schema in advance before installing Exchange?
141. What type or permissions do you need in order to install the first Exchange Server in a
forest? And in a domain?
142. How would you verify that the Schema was actually updated?
143. What type of memory optimization changes could you do for Exchange 2003?
144. How would you check your Exchange configuration settings to see if they're right?
145. What are the Exchange management tools? How and where can you install them?
146. What types of permissions are configurable for Exchange?
147. How can you grant access for an administrator to access all mailboxes on a specific server?
148. What is the Send As permission?
149. What other management tools are used to manage and control Exchange 2003? Name the
tools you'd use.
150. What are Exchange Recipient types? Name 5.
151. You created a mailbox for a user, yet the mailbox does not appear in ESM. Why?
152. You wanted to change mailbox access permissions for a mailbox, yet you see the SELF
permission alone on the permissions list. Why?
153. What are Query Based Distribution groups?
154. What type of groups would you use when configuring distribution groups in a multiple
domain forest?
155. Name a few configuration options for Exchange recipients.
156. What's the difference between Exchange 2003 Std. and Ent. editions when related to
storage options and size?
157. Name a few configuration options related to mailbox stores.
158. What are System Public Folders? Where would you find them?
159. How would you plan and configure Public Folder redundancy?
160. How can you immediately stop PF replication?
161. How can you prevent PF referral across slow WAN links?
162. What types of PF management tools might you use?
163. What are the differences between Administrative Permissions and Client Permissions in PF?
164. How can you configure PF replication from the command prompt in Exchange 2003?
165. What are the message hygiene options you can use natively in Exchange 2003?
166. What are the configuration options in IMF?
167. What are virtual servers? When would you use more than one?
168. Name some of the SMTP Virtual Server configuration options.
169. What is a Mail Relay? Name a few known mail relay software or hardware options.
170. What is a Smart Host? Where would you configure it?
171. What are Routing Groups? When would you use them?
172. What are the types of Connectors you can use in Exchange?
173. What is the cost option in Exchange connectors?
174. What is the Link State Table? How would you view it?
175. How would you configure mail transfer security between 2 routing groups?
176. What is the Routing Group Master? Who holds that role?
177. Explain the configuration steps required to allow Exchange 2003 to send and ceive email
from the Internet (consider a one-site multiple server scenario).
178. What is DS2MB?
179. What is Forms Based Authentication?
180. How would you configure OWA's settings on an Exchange server?
181. What is DSACCESS?
182. What are Recipient Policies?
183. How would you work with Multiple Recipient Policies?
184. What is the "issue" with trying to remove email addresses added by recipient policies? How
would you fix that?
185. What is the RUS?
186. When would you need to manually create additional RUS?
187. What are Address Lists?
188. How would you modify the filter properties of one of the default address lists?
189. How can you create multiple GALs and allow the users to only see the one related to them?
190. What is a Front End server? In what scenarios would you use one?
191. What type of authentication is used on the front end servers?
192. When would you use NLB?
193. How would you achieve incoming mail redundancy?
194. What are the 4 types of Exchange backups?
195. What is the Dial-Tone server scenario?
196. When would you use offline backup?
197. How do you re-install Exchange on a server that has crashed but with AD intact?
198. What is the Dumpster?
199. What are the e00xxxxx.log files?
200. What is the e00.chk file?
201. What is Circular Logging? When would you use it?
202. What's the difference between Online and Offline defrag?
203. How would you know if it is time to perform an offline defrag of your Exchange stores?
204. How would you plan for, and perform the offline defrag?
205. What is the eseutil command?
206. What is the isinteg command?
207. How would you monitor Exchange's services and performance? Name 2 or 3 options.
208. Name all the client connection options in Exchange 2003.
209. What is Direct Push? What are the requirements to run it?
210. How would you remote wipe a PPC?
211. What are the issues with connecting Outlook from a remote computer to your mailbox?
212. How would you solve those issues? Name 2 or 3 methods
213. What is RPC over HTTP? What are the requirements to run it?
214. What is Cached Mode in OL2003/2007?
215. What are the benefits and "issues" when using cached mode? How would you tackle those
issues?
216. What is S/MIME? What are the usage scenarios for S/MIME?
217. What are the IPSec usage scenarios for Exchange 2003?
218. How do you enable SSL on OWA?
219. What are the considerations for obtaining a digital certificate for SSL on Exchange?
220. Name a few 3rd-party CAs.
221. What do you need to consider when using a client-type AV software on an Exchange server?
222. What are the different clustering options in Exchange 2003? Which one would you choose
and why?
223. What is FSB?
224. What are Vcore and Vi/o?
225. On what type of socket can you install a Pentium 4 CPU?
226. What is SMP?
227. Which Intel and AMD processors support SMP?
228. How do LGA sockets differ from PGA and SEC?
229. What is the difference between Pentium 4 and Pentium Core 2 Duo? Explain the new
technology.
230. How does IRQ priority works?
231. What technology enables you to upgrade your computer's BIOS by simply using a software?
232. What happens if you dissemble the battery located on the Mother-Board?
233. How do L1, L2, and L3 work?
234. How should we install RAM on a Dual-Channel Motherboard?
235. What is the advantage of serial over parallel bus?
236. Is USB using serial or parallel bus? What about Firewire?
237. How much power is supplied to each USB port?
238. When should you change your bus-powered USB hub to a self-powered USB hub?
239. What is a UPS?
240. What is the difference between standby and online UPS?
241. What is LBA (in Hard-Disks)?
242. How many Hard Disks can you install on an E-IDE controller?
243. Can you configure two hard disks to use the Master setting on the same PC?
244. What is the difference between Narrow-SCSI and Wide-SCSI?
245. What is SAS?
246. What are the three main reasons for using RAID?
247. Is RAID 0 considered to be a redundant Solution? Why?
248. How many disks can be used for RAID 1?
249. How does RAID 5 work?
250. What is the smallest number of disks required for RAID5? What other types of RAID do you
know?

Here are a few more:

1. How will you find out the status of thousands of servers in your organization?
2. How would you find out the hardware configuration of the servers?
3. In a RAID 5, if two hard disks go down, will you still be able to recover data?
4. What are the common troubleshooting (remote) tools you have used?
5. what is a 'minidump'?
6. How would you enable kernel dump?
7. The computer policy is not applying - what do you think could be the problem?
8. Name some differences between Windows Server 2003 and 2008?
9. A critical server is down but a user wants to access it urgently. How will you handle this situation?

And yet some more:

1. Active Directory first appeared in which Operating System? (Ans: Windows 2000)
2. Name some differences between Windows 2000 and Windows Server 2003.
3. What are the different types of backups in Windows Server 2003?
4. Which service(s) does NetBiosName depend on?
Windows Administrator L2 Interview Question - System Administrator http://www.systemadministrator.in/index.php/interview-questions/225-windows-administrator-l2-inter...

Windows Administrator L2 Interview Question

1. What is the purpose of having AD?

Active directory is a directory service that identifies all resources on a network and makes that information available to users and services. The Main purpose
of AD is to control and authenticate network resources.

2. Explain about sysvol folder?

The sysvol folder stores the server's copy of the domain's public files. The contents such as group policy, users, and groups of the sysvol folder are replicated
to all domain controllers in the domain. The sysvol folder must be located on an NTFS volume.

3.Explain Functions of Active Directory?

AD enables centralization in a domain environment. The Main purpose of AD is to control and authenticate network resources.

4. What is the name of AD database?

AD database is NTDS.DIT

5. Explain briefly about AD Partition?

The Active Directory database is logically separated into directory partitions:

Schema Partition: Only one schema partition exists per forest. The schema partition is stored on all domain controllers in a forest. The schema partition
contains definitions of all objects and attributes that you can create in the directory, and the rules for creating and manipulating them. Schema information is
replicated to all domain controllers in the attribute definitions.

Configuration Partition: There is only one configuration partition per forest. Second on all domain controllers in a forest, the configuration partition
contains information about the forest-wide active directory structure including what domains and sites exist, which domain controllers exist in each forest,
and which services are available. Configuration information is replicated to all domain controllers in a forest.

Domain Partition: Many domain partitions can exist per forest. Domain partitions are stored on each domain controller in a given domain. A domain
partition contains information about users, groups, computers and organizational units. The domain partition is replicated to all domain controllers of that
domain. All objects in every domain partition in a forest are stored in the global catalog with only a subset of their attribute values.
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partition contains information about users, groups, computers and organizational units. The domain partition is replicated to all domain controllers of that
domain. All objects in every domain partition in a forest are stored in the global catalog with only a subset of their attribute values.

Application Partition: Application partitions store information about application in Active Directory. Each application determines how it stores, categorizes,
and uses application specific information. To prevent unnecessary replication to specific application partitions, you can designate which domain controllers in a
forest host specific application partitions. Unlike a domain partitions, an application partition cannot store security principal objects, such as user accounts. In
addition, the data in an application partition is not stored in the global catalog.

6. Explain different zone involved in DNS Server?

DNS has two different Zones Forward Lookup Zone and Reverse Lookup Zone. There two Zones are categorized into three zones and are as follows

Primary zone: It contains the read and writable copy of the DNS Database.

Secondary Zone: It acts as a backup for the primary zone and contains the read only copy of the DNS database.

Stub zone: It is also read-only like a secondary zone; stub zone contains only SOA, copies of NS and A records for all name servers authoritative for the
zone.

7. Explain Briefly about Stub Zone?

It is also read-only like a secondary zone, so administrators can't manually add, remove, or modify resource records on it. But secondary zones contain
copies of all the resource records in the corresponding zone on the master name server; stub zones contain only three kinds of resource records:

A copy of the SOA record for the zone.

Copies of NS records for all name servers authoritative for the zone.

Copies of A records for all name servers authoritative for the zone.

8. Explain File Replication Service (FRS).

File Replication Service is a Microsoft service which replicates folders stored in sysvol shared folders on domain controllers and distributed file system shared
folders. This service is a part of Microsoft’s Active Directory Service.

9. What is authoritative and non-authoritative restore?


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9. What is authoritative and non-authoritative restore?

Nonauthoritative restore: When a nonauthoritative restore is performed, Active Directory is restored from backup media on the domain controller. This
information is then updated during replication from the other domain controllers. The nonauthoritative restore method is the default method to restore
system state data to a domain controller.

Authoritative restore: In an authoritative restore, Active Directory is installed to the point of the last backup job. This method is typically used to recover
Active Directory objects that were deleted in error. An authoritative restore is performed by first performing a nonauthoritative restore, and then running the
Ntdsutil utility prior to restarting the server. You use the Ntdsutil utility to indicate those items that are authoritative. Items that are marked as authoritative
are not updated when the other domain controllers replicate to the particular domain controller.

10. What is the replication protocol involved in replication from PDC and ADC?

Normally Remote Procedure Call (RPC)is used to replicate data and is always used for intrasite replication since it is required to support the FRS. RPC
depends on IP (internet protocol) for transport.
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)may be used for replication between sites.

11. What are the benefits of AD integrated DNS?

A few advantages that Active Directory-integrated zone implementations have over standard primary zone implementations are:

Active Directory replication is faster, which means that the time needed to transfer zone data between zones is far less.

The Active Directory replication topology is used for Active Directory replication, and for Active Directory-integrated zone replication. There is no longer a

need for DNS replication when DNS and Active Directory are integrated.

Active Directory-integrated zones can enjoy the security features of Active Directory.

The need to manage your Active Directory domains and DNS namespaces as separate entities is eliminated. This in turn reduces administrative overhead.

When DNS and Active Directory are integrated; the Active Directory-integrated zones are replicated, and stored on any new domain controllers

automatically. Synchronization takes place automatically when new domain controllers are deployed.

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12. Explain some types of DNS records?

A Record: Binds an Name with an IP Address


PTR Record: Binds an IP Address with an Host Name
NS Record: Is name of an DNS Server
MX Record: Responsible for Mail receiving mail from different MTA

13. How many tables are there in NTDS.DIT?

The Active Directory ESE database, NTDS.DIT, consists of the following tables:

Schema table
the types of objects that can be created in the Active Directory, relationships between them, and the optional and mandatory attributes on each type of
object. This table is fairly static and much smaller than the data table.

Link table
contains linked attributes, which contain values referring to other objects in the Active Directory. Take the Member Of attribute on a user object. That
attribute contains values that reference groups to which the user belongs. This is also far smaller than the data table.

Data table
users, groups, application-specific data, and any other data stored in the Active Directory. The data table can be thought of as having rows where each row
represents an instance of an object such as a user, and columns where each column represents an attribute in the schema such as Given Name.

14. What is the purpose of the command NETDOM?

NETDOM is a command-line tool that allows management of Windows domains and trust relationships. It is used for batch management of trusts, joining
computers to domains, verifying trusts, and secure channels.

15. What is REPADMIN?

This command-line tool assists administrators in diagnosing replication problems between Windows domain controllers. Administrators can use Repadmin to
view the replication topology (sometimes referred to as RepsFrom and RepsTo) as seen from the perspective of each domain controller.

16. What is the purpose of the command repmon?

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16. What is the purpose of the command repmon?

Replmon displays information about Active Directory Replication.

17. How will take backup of registry using NTBACKUP?

Using System State.

18. Explain briefly about Super Scope.

Using a super scope, you can group multiple scopes as a single administrative entity. With this feature, a DHCP server can: Support DHCP clients on a single
physical network segment (such as a single Ethernet LAN segment) where multiple logical IP networks are used. When more than one logical IP network is
used on each physical subnet or network, such configurations are often called multinets.

19. Explain how client obtain IP address from DHCP Server?

It’s a four-step process consisting of (a) IP request, (b) IP offer, (c) IP selection and (d) acknowledgement.

20. Explain about SRV Record.

For mapping a DNS domain name to a specified list of DNS host computers that offer a specific type of service, such as Active Directory domain controllers.

21. What are the advantages of having RAID 5?

Strip set with Distributed Parity. Fault Torrance. 100% Data guarantee.

22. How client are get authenticated with Active Directory Server?

Using PDC Emulator roles involved in FSMO.


If you create same user name or Computer name, AD through an error that the object already exists, Can you explain how AD identifies the existing object?
Using RID Master roles involved in FSMO.

23. How will verify Active Directory successful installation?

Check DNS services and errors, check for domain name resolution, check for RPC, NTFRS, DNS and replication related errors
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Check DNS services and errors, check for domain name resolution, check for RPC, NTFRS, DNS and replication related errors

24. Group Policy file extension in Windows 2003 Server

*.adm files

25. What is Global Catalog?

Global Catalog is a server which maintains the information about multiple domains with trust relationship agreement. The global catalog is a distributed data
repository that contains a searchable, partial representation of every object in every domain in a multidomain Active Directory forest.

26. What is Active Directory schema?

The Active Directory schema contains formal definitions of every object class that can be created in an Active Directory forest it also contains formal
definitions of every attribute that can exist in an Active Directory object.

27. What is a site?

one or more well-connected highly reliable and fast TCP/IP subnets. A site allows administrator to configure active directory access and replication topology
to take advantage of the physical network.

28. What is the file that’s responsible for keep all Active Directory database?

Schema master.

29. What is the ntds.dit file default size?

40Mb

30. What’s the difference between local, global and universal groups?

Domain local groups assign access permissions to global domain groups for local domain resources. Global groups provide access to resources in other
trusted domains. Universal groups grant access to resources in all trusted domains.

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trusted domains. Universal groups grant access to resources in all trusted domains.

31. I am trying to create a new universal user group. Why can’t I?

Universal groups are allowed only in native-mode Windows Server 2003 environments. Native mode requires that all domain controllers be promoted to
Windows Server 2003 Active Directory.

32. What is LSDOU?

Its group policy inheritance model, where the policies are applied to Local machines, Sites, Domains and Organizational Units.

33. What is the command used to change computer name, Make Client Member of Domain?

Using the command netdom

34. Difference between SID and GUID?

A security identifier (SID) is a unique value of variable length that is used to identify a security principal or security group in Windows operating systems.
Well-known SIDs are a group of SIDs that identify generic users or generic groups. Their values remain constant across all operating systems.

35. Explain FSMO in Details.

In a forest, there are at least five FSMO roles that are assigned to one or more domain controllers. The five FSMO roles are:
Schema Master: The schema master domain controller controls all updates and modifications to the schema. To update the schema of a forest, you must
have access to the schema master. There can be only one schema master in the whole forest.

Domain naming master: The domain naming master domain controller controls the addition or removal of domains in the forest. There can be only one
domain naming master in the whole forest.

Infrastructure Master: The infrastructure is responsible for updating references from objects in its domain to objects in other domains. At any one time,
there can be only one domain controller acting as the infrastructure master in each domain.

Relative ID (RID) Master: The RID master is responsible for processing RID pool requests from all domain controllers in a particular domain. At any one
time, there can be only one domain controller acting as the RID master in the domain.
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Relative ID (RID) Master: The RID master is responsible for processing RID pool requests from all domain controllers in a particular domain. At any one
time, there can be only one domain controller acting as the RID master in the domain.

PDC Emulator: The PDC emulator is a domain controller that advertises itself as the primary domain controller (PDC) to workstations, member servers, and
domain controllers that are running earlier versions of Windows.

36. Which service is responsible for replicating files in SYSVOL folder?

File Replication Service (FRS)

37. Can you Move FSMO roles?

Yes, moving a FSMO server role is a manual process, it does not happen automatically. But what if you only have one domain controller in your domain? That
is fine. If you have only one domain controller in your organization then you have one forest, one domain, and of course the one domain controller. All 5
FSMO server roles will exist on that DC. There is no rule that says you have to have one server for each FSMO server role.

38. What permissions you should have in order to transfer a FSMO role?

Before you can transfer a role, you must have the appropriate permissions depending on which role you plan to transfer:
Schema Master - member of the Schema Admins group

Domain Naming Master - member of the Enterprise Admins group

PDC Emulator - member of the Domain Admins group and/or the Enterprise Admins group

RID Master - member of the Domain Admins group and/or the Enterprise Admins group

Infrastructure Master - member of the Domain Admins group and/or the Enterprise Admins group

39. How to restore Group policy setting back to default?

The following command would replace both the Default Domain Security Policy and Default. Domain Controller Security Policy. You can specify Domain or DC
instead of both, to onlyrestore one or the other.> dcgpofix /target: Both

40. What is caching only DNS Server?

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40. What is caching only DNS Server?

When DNS is installed, and you do not add or configure any zones for the DNS server, the DNS server functions as a caching-only DNS server by default.
Caching-only DNS servers do not host zones, and are not authoritative for any DNS domain. The information stored by caching-only DNS servers is the name
resolution data that the server has collected through resolving name resolution queries.

41. By Default how many shares in SYSVOL folder?

By default, a share with the domain name will be there under the SYSVOL folder.

Under the domain name share, two folders named Policies & Scripts will be there.

42. Zone not loaded by DNS server. How you troubleshoot?

Need to check Zone Transfer is enabled for all DNS Servers.

Also check the required Name Server has been added in the Authoritative Name Server Tab in DNS properties.

43. What is LDAP?

LDAP (lightweight directory access protocol) is an internet protocol which Email and other services is used to look up information from the server.

44. What is ADSIEDIT?

ADSIEdit is a Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in that acts as a low-level editor for Active Directory. It is a Graphical User Interface (GUI) tool.
Network administrators can use it for common administrative tasks such as adding, deleting, and moving objects with a directory service.

45. What are application partitions? When do I use them?

AN application directory partition is a directory partition that is replicated only to specific domain controller. Only domain controller running windows Server
2003 can host a replica of application directory partition. Using an application directory partition provides redundancy, availability or fault tolerance by
replicating data to specific domain controller pr any set of domain controllers anywhere in the forest.

46. How do you create a new application partition?


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46. How do you create a new application partition?

Use the DnsCmd command to create an application directory partition.

47. Why WINS server is required

Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS) is an older network service (a protocol) that takes computer names as input and returns the numeric IP address of
the computer with that name or vice versa.

48. What is the purpose of the command ntdsutil?

To transfer or seize FSMO Roles.

49. Explain Forest Functional Level in Windows 2003 Server.

50. Explain Domain Functional Level in Windows 2003 Server.

51. How will you extend schema database?

52. What is the purpose of adprep command?

53. Briefly explain about netlogon?

54. What are forwarders in DNS server?

55. Explain about root hints.

56. Explain types of DNS queries?

57. How you will defragment AD Database?

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Windows Administrator L1 Interview Question

1. What is the different between Workgroup and Domain? Domain Server has Centralized Control Where else Workgroup has no Centralized
Control

Domain Network has higher level of security when compared to Workgroup.

Domain Network Implementation and Maintained cost is very less when compared to that of workgroup.

Time constrain is very less when compared to that of a Workgroup.

Administrator has overall control on the network where else workgroup has no control.

2. How will assign Local Administrator rights for domain user?

Navigate to Local User and Groups add the domain users to administrators group in the local system.

3. How will you restrict user logon timing in domain?

Navigate to Active Directory Users and Computers, User Properties select logon times and restrict the user logon timing as needed.

4. What is the purpose of sysvol?

The sysvol folder stores the server's copy of the domain's public files. The contents such as group policy, users, and groups of the sysvol folder are replicated
to all domain controllers in the domain. The sysvol folder must be located on an NTFS volume.

5. What is OU? Explain its Uses.

Organization Unit is set of active directory object within a domain. It is used to design an organization structure, Restrict user’s visibility and to delegate
control.

6. Explain different edition of windows 2003 Server?

Windows Server 2003, Standard Edition: - is aimed towards small to medium sized businesses. Standard Edition supports file and printer sharing, offers

secure Internet connectivity, and allows centralized desktop application deployment.


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Windows Server 2003, Standard Edition: - is aimed towards small to medium sized businesses. Standard Edition supports file and printer sharing, offers

secure Internet connectivity, and allows centralized desktop application deployment.

Windows Server 2003, Enterprise Edition: - is aimed towards medium to large businesses. It is a full-function server operating system that supports up to

eight processors and provides enterprise-class features and support for up to 32 GB of memory.

Windows Server 2003, Web Edition: - is mainly for building and hosting Web applications, Web pages, and XML Web Services.

Windows Server 2003, Datacenter Edition: - is the flagship of the Windows Server line and designed for immense infrastructures demanding high security and

reliability.

7. What is DNS Server?

Domain Name System is used to resolve domain name to IP Address and also used to resolve IP Address to Domain Name. It has two zones Forward and
Reverse Lookup Zone. Forward Lookup Zone resolve Domain name to IP address. Reverse Lookup Zone is used to resolve IP address to Domain Name.
Some records associate with DNS

A Record binds Name with IP Address

PTR Record binds IP Address to Name

8. Why DNS server is required for Active Directory?

The key reason for integrating DNS with AD is that client server communication takes place with Domain Name. Network needs IP address to reach the
destination; In order to resolve Domain Name to IP Address we need DNS Server. If DNS Server is not configured properly the network becomes slow.

9. What is the Purpose of A and PTR Record?

A Record OR Host Record is used to bind a Name with IP Address.

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PTR Record is used to bind an IP Address with Name.

10. What is the purpose of DHCP Server?

DHCP Server is used to assign IP address automatically to all the clients’ computers. It is useful in large enterprise network, where we may not able track
the IP address and also used to avoid IP conflict.

11. Explain about Scope in DHCP Server?

Scope is collective information of assigning IP address for clients. It contains information like IP Address Range, Exclusion Range, Lease Period, Reservation,
Router IP Address, DNS Address, etc. Based on the scope configuration DHCP allocates IP address to its entire client.

12. Explain about Group Scopes?

13. How will you backup DNS Server?

Backup the directory “%System Root%\System32\DNS”.

14. How will backup DHCP Server?

First Method: Backup the directory in the %System Root%\System32\DHCP folder.

Alternate method: Open DHCP Console select server to backup and restore DHCP database.

15. Explain APIPA.

A Windows-based computer that is configured to use DHCP can automatically assign itself an Internet Protocol (IP) address if a DHCP server is not available
or does not exist. The Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) has reserved 169.254.0.0-169.254.255.255 for Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA).

16. Explain about AD Database.

Windows 2003 Active Directory data store, the actual database file, is %System Root%\NTDS\NTDS.DIT. AD Database all information such as User Accounts,
Groups, Computer Information, Domain Controller information, Group Policy, Organization Unit,etc.

17. Explain about Group Policy.

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17. Explain about Group Policy.

Group policies are used by administrators to configure and control user environment settings. Group Policy Objects (GPOs) are used to configure group
policies which are applied to sites, domains, and organizational units (OUs) .There is a maximum of 1000 applicable group policies.

18. What is the default time for group policy refresh interval time?

The default refresh interval for policies is 90 minutes. The default refresh interval for domain controllers is 5 minutes. Group policy object's group policy
refresh intervals may be changed in the group policy object.

19. Explain Hidden Share.

Hidden or administrative shares are share names with a dollar sign ($) appended to their names. Administrative shares are usually created automatically for
the root of each drive letter. They do not display in the network browse list.

20. What ports are used by DHCP and the DHCP clients?

Requests are on UDP port 68, Server replies on UDP 67.

21. How do I configure a client machine to use a specific IP Address?

By reserving an IP Address using client machine MAC or Physical address.

22. Name 3 benefits of using AD-integrated zones.

AD Integrated Zones allow Secure Dynamic Updates. I.e. there will not be any duplicate or unwanted records. Since all the information are validated in

active directory.

By creating AD- integrated zone you can also trace hacker and spammer by creating reverse zone.

AD integrated zones are stored as part of the active directory and support domain-wide or forest-wide replication through application partitions in AD.

23. How do you backup & Restore AD?

Using Windows NTBackup Utility. In Backup select systemstate will include active directory backup. Restore the Same using NTBackup Utility.

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Using Windows NTBackup Utility. In Backup select systemstate will include active directory backup. Restore the Same using NTBackup Utility.

24. How do you change the DS Restore admin password?

Using NTDSUTIL tool.

25. How can you forcibly remove AD from a server?

Using the command dcpromo /forceremoval

26. What will be the problem if DNS Server fails?

If your DNS server fails, No Client will able to reach the Domain Controller, which will create authentication and Control Issues.

27. How can you restrict running certain applications on a machine?

The Group Policy Object Editor and the Software Restriction Policies extension of Group Policy Object Editor are used to restrict running certain applications on
a machine. For Windows XP computers that are not participating in a domain, you can use the Local Security Settings snap-in to access Software Restriction
Policies.

28. What can you do to promote a server to DC?

Using the command dcpromo

29. How will map a folder through AD?

Specify the network share path (UNC) in the active directory users home directory.

30. Explain Quotas.

Disk Quota is a feature or service of NTFS which helps to restrict or manage the disk usage from the normal user. It can be implemented per user user per
volume basis.By default it is disabled. Administrative privilege is required to perform the task. In 2003server we can control only drive but in 2008server we
can establish quota in folder level.

31. Explain Backup Methodology.

The different types of backup methodologies are:


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31. Explain Backup Methodology.

The different types of backup methodologies are:

Normal Backup:-This is default backup in which all files are backed up even if it was backed up before.

Incremental Backup:-In this type of backup only the files that haven’t been backed up are taken care of or backed up.

Differential Backup:-This backup is similar to incremental backup because it does not take backup of those files backed up by normal backup but different

from incremental because it will take backup of differentially backed up files at next time of differential backup.

System Backup:-This type of backup takes backup of files namely, Boot file, COM+Class Registry, Registry. But in server it takes backup of ADS.

ASR Backup:-This type of backup takes backup of entire boot partition including OS and user data. This should be the last troubleshooting method to recover

an os from disaster.

32. Explain how to publish printer through AD.

Navigate to Active Directory Users and Computers, Create new printer and add the printer i.e. the printer share name (UNC) Path. Automatically the printer
will be published in Active Directory.

33. Explain the functionality of FTP Server?

File Transfer Protocol is used transfer large volume of files and huge number of files simultaneous between different geographic locations.

34. Specify the Port Number for AD, DNS, DHCP, HTTP, HTTPS, SMTP, POP3 & FTP

AD - 389

DNS - 53

DHCP - 67,68

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HTTP - 80

HTTPS - 443

SMTP - 25

POP3 - 110

FTP - 21,22

35. Explain Virtual Directory in IIS?

A virtual server can have one home directory and any number of other publishing directories. These other publishing directories are referred to as virtual
directories.

36. What is Exclusion Range in DHCP Server?

Exclusion Range is used to hold a range IP addresses. Those IP Address can be used or may not be used in the network, but DHCP server does not assign
those IP to its client.

37. Explain SOA Record.

Start Of Authority (SOA) Records indicate that Name Server is authoritative server for the domain.

38. What command is used to clear DNS cache in client PC?

Ipconfig /flushdns

39. Explain Secure Dynamic Updates in DNS Server.

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39. Explain Secure Dynamic Updates in DNS Server.

Only when installing active directory and DNS in the same server (AD Integrated Zones) we can select Secure Dynamic Updates. Then all the records will
automatically be updated in DNS. Since all the information is validated in active directory there will not be any duplicate or unwanted records.

40. Explain FRS in detail.

File Replication Service is a Microsoft service which replicates folders stored in sysvol shared folders on domain controllers and distributed file system shared
folders. This service is a part of Microsoft’s active directory service.

41. Explain the protocol involved in ADC replication.

Remote Procedure Call (RPC) is the protocol used in ADC replication.

42. Explain the difference between Patches and Service pack.

Patches are fixes, updates or enhancements for a particular program whereas service packs include a collection of

43. What is WSUS?

WSUS is Windows Software Update Services. It is server provided by Microsoft free of cost to manage patches for windows environment centralized.

44. How client server communication takes place in WSUS server?

Using Web Server or Web Services

45. What is the difference between Dynamic Disk and Basic Disk?

Basic Disk: Basic Disk uses a partition table to manage all partitions on the disk, and it is supported by DOS and all Windows versions. A disk with installed
OS would be default initialized to a basic one. A basic disk contains basic volumes, such as primary partitions, extended partition, and all logical partitions are
contained in extended partition.

Dynamic Disk: Dynamic Disk is supported in Windows 2000 and later operating system. Dynamic disks do not use a partition table to track all partitions, but
use a hidden database (LDM) to track information about dynamic volumes or dynamic partitions on the disk. With dynamic disks you can create volumes that
span multiple disks such as spanned and striped volumes, and can also create fault-tolerant volumes such as mirrored volumes and RAID 5 volumes.
Compared to a Basic Disk, Dynamic Disk offers greater flexibility.

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span multiple disks such as spanned and striped volumes, and can also create fault-tolerant volumes such as mirrored volumes and RAID 5 volumes.
Compared to a Basic Disk, Dynamic Disk offers greater flexibility.

46. What is maximum Size of file system NTFS and FAT32?

NTFS - 16TB

FAT32 - 4GB

47. What is “hosts” files?

The hosts file is a computer file used in an operating system to map hostnames to IP addresses. The hosts file is a plain-text file and is traditionally named
hosts.

48. What is “lmhosts” files?

The lmhosts files are a computer file used in an operating system to map NetBIOS name. It is equivalent that of WINS.

49. Explain About Global Catalog.

global catalog contains a complete replica of all objects in Active Directory for its Host domain, and contains a partial replica of all objects in Active Directory
for every other domain in the forest.

50. Name some OU design considerations.

It is used to design an organization structure, Restrict user’s visibility and to delegate control.

51. Name a few benefits of using GPMC.

GPMC is used to customize group policy.

It is easy to maintain different OU policy effectively.

Provide option to take backup and restore group policy.

52. You want to standardize the desktop environments (wallpaper, My Documents, Start menu, printers etc.) on the computers in one
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52. You want to standardize the desktop environments (wallpaper, My Documents, Start menu, printers etc.) on the computers in one
department. How would you do that?

Configure Group Policy based on OU.

53. By default, if the name is not found in the cache or local hosts file, what is the first step the client takes to resolve the FQDN name into
an IP address?

Create a record in DNS Server

54. You are administering a network connected to the Internet. Your users complain that everything is slow. Preliminary research of the
problem indicates that it takes a considerable amount of time to resolve names of resources on the Internet. What is the most likely reason
for this?

DNS Issues

55. Describe how the DHCP lease is obtained.

It’s a four-step process consisting of (a) IP request, (b) IP offer, (c) IP selection and (d) acknowledgement.

56. I can’t seem to access the Internet, don’t have any access to the corporate network and on ipconfig my address is 169.254.*.*. What
happened?

The 169.254.*.* netmask is assigned to Windows machines running 98/2000/XP if the DHCP server is not available. The name for the technology is APIPA
(Automatic Private Internet Protocol Addressing).

57. We’ve installed a new Windows-based DHCP server, however, the users do not seem to be getting DHCP leases off of it.

The server must be authorized first with the Active Directory.

58. How do you configure mandatory profiles?

Rename ntuser.dat to ntuser.man

59. What is Page File and Virtual Memory?

Page File Is Storage Space For The Virtual Memory, Page File Uses Hard Disk Space As a Memory To Provide Memory Allocation...
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Page File Is Storage Space For The Virtual Memory, Page File Uses Hard Disk Space As a Memory To Provide Memory Allocation...

60. What is the difference between DNS in Windows 2000 & Windows 2003 Server?

We can rename or moved the domain name without rebuilding in windows 2003 server, but in windows 2000 server, we can't do that.

61. Where are group policies stored?

%SystemRoot%System32\Group Policy

62. What are GPT and GPC?

Group policy template and group policy container.

63. Where is GPT stored?

%System Root%\SYSVOL\sysvol\domain name\Policies\GUID

64. You change the group policies, and now the computer and user settings are in conflict. Which one has the highest priority?

The computer settings take priority.

65. What hidden shares exist on Windows Server 2003 installation?

Admin$, Drive$, IPC$, NETLOGON, print$ and SYSVOL.

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Desktop Administrator Interview Question

1. What is the difference between Windows XP & Windows 7?

Windows Defender, Parental Control, Windows Touch and Tap instead of point and Click, Multiple
Active Firewall.

2. One Fine Morning System is not booting up. Explain what would be the problem.

2x2 or 2x4 Power Connector Not Plugged In

Processor Issues

Memory Issues

Monitor Issues

Power Supply and Chassis Issues

Cable Issues

Electrical Short or Overload

Defective Components

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Defective Components

3. System No Display. What the steps are to Diagnoses the problem?

Check the monitor is switched on and the power indicator LED of the monitor is glowing. Check the
monitor power connection.

Adjust the contrast/brightness knob of the monitor to maximum.

Check whether the monitor is connected properly to the video adapter of the system.

If your system has add-on video adapter, switch off the system and remove the power.

Check whether the CPU, memory are connected properly to the motherboard.

4. System is power on, but beep sound occurs. What would be the problem?

One long beep: Memory problem

One long and two short beeps: Video error

One long and three short beeps: Video error

Continuous beeps: Video/memory problem

Other beeps: Check the motherboard manual

5. Different and NTFS and FAT32.

NTFS

Allows access local to w2k w2k3 XP win NT4 with SP4 & later may get access for some file.

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Allows access local to w2k w2k3 XP win NT4 with SP4 & later may get access for some file.

Maximum size of partition is 2 Terabytes & more.

Maximum File size is up to 16TB.

File & folder Encryption is possible only in NTFS.

FAT 32

Fat 32 Allows access to win 95 98 win millennium win2k xp on local partition.

Maximum size of partition is up to 2 TB.

Maximum File size is up to 4 GB.

File & folder Encryption is not possible.

6. How will you convert FAT32 to NTFS?

To convert a volume to NTFS from the command prompt

Open Command Prompt.

In the command prompt window, type

convert drive_letter: /fs:ntfs

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convert drive_letter: /fs:ntfs

For example, typing convert D: /fs:ntfs would format drive D: with the ntfs format.

7. What are primary Partition, Extended Partition and Logical Partition?

A primary partition contains one file system. The first partition (C:) must be a primary partition..

An extended partition is a primary partition which contains secondary partition(s). A hard disk may contain only one extended partition..

Extended partition that is sub divided into many drives is called as Logical partition..

8. In a computer how many primary partition can be held.

Four Primary partitions can be done...

9. Difference between Microsoft outlook and Outlook Express.

Microsoft Outlook:

Files will be saved in .PST Format.

Have some Additional Features like Address Book, Contacts, and Remainderetc...

Not a free product have to purchase it..

Outlook Express:

Files will be saved in .DBX Format.

Don’t have any additional features.


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Don’t have any additional features.

Free product that comes along with the OS Installation.

10. What is Virus?

Vital Information Resource under Seige.It is an executable Program which Performs Malicious activities in the system.

11. What is Antivirus?

An Antivirus Is a Software that protects the system from Virus Attack..

12. What is the difference between Delete and Quarantine in Action methodology for Virus Scanning?

Delete will delete all the virus infected files and Quarantine create a copy from an infected file and produce a new one..

13. What are the procedures for cleaning an infected virus system?

Unplug the system from the Network if it is in a Network & Scan the System with the Updated Antivirus..

14. What is SMTP Protocol? What is the port Number used by SMTP?

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol which performs all outgoing Mail. The port number is 25.

15. What is POP3 Protocol? What is the port Number used by POP3?

Post Office Protocol which performs all incoming mails. The Port number is 110.

16. Tell me the procedure for Backup and Restore Mail in Outlook Express.

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16. Tell me the procedure for Backup and Restore Mail in Outlook Express.

Go to C:\Documents & Setting\User Profile\Application Data\Local Settings\Identities\Outlook Express & Copy the .DBX files and Save it in another location as
a Backup. Copy the files from the location that was saved as a Backup & Go to the same path & Paste it.

17. Tell me the Procedure for Backup and Restore Mail in Microsoft Express.

Go to C:\Documents & Setting\User Profile\Application Data\Local Settings\Microsoft \Outlook Express & Copy the .PST files and Save it in another location as
a Backup..

Copy the files from the location that was saved as a Backup & Go to the same path & Paste it.

18. How will you repair a PST Files?

Using scanpst.exe files

19. How to set Password for PST Files?

Select Go | Folder List from the menu.

Click on the root item of the desired PST file with the right mouse button.

If you want to protect only certain email folders with a password, you can move them to a newly created PST file and assign a password only for that file.

Select Properties for... from the menu.

Click Advanced....

Now click Change Password....


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Now click Change Password....

Enter the desired password under both New password: and Verify password:.

If a password had already been set for the PST file, enter that phrase under Old password:.

If you assign a password to a previously unprotected PST file, leave the Old password: field blank.

To remove the password from a PST file, enter it under Old password: and leave both New password: and Verify password: blank.

Click OK.

Click OK again.

Now click Cancel.

20. How to set store a mail copy in Server for 30 days while configuring mail in Microsoft outlook?

Go to Outlook 2007's Tools, Account Settings, and With the Account Settings dialog open, select the account and click Change, then click More Settings. Look
on the Advanced tab..

21. How to set Rules in Microsoft outlook in order to organize mailbox?

Open Microsoft Outlook.

7 of 17 Click Tools. 3/13/2014 4:14 PM


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Open Microsoft Outlook.

Click Tools.

Click Rules Wizard.

Click the New button and run through the wizard..

22. Explain about Junk Mail option in outlook.

Low. This level is designed to catch only the most obvious junk e-mail messages. You can make the filter more aggressive, but if you do it may catch
legitimate messages sometimes. Any message that is caught by the Junk E-mail Filter is moved to a special Junk E-mail folder. You should review messages
in the Junk E-mail folder from time to time to make sure that they are not legitimate messages that you want to see.

23. Explain about Registry?

This is a database used by Microsoft Windows to store configuration information about the software installed on a computer. This information includes things
like the desktop background, program settings, and file extension associations.

24. How to backup and Restore Registry?

Import and Export from regedit.

25. When system booting “NTLDR file Missing” Error. What would be the solution?

Boot the System from the OS cd and Select Repair Option

26. When XP is booting up system gets restart automatically. What would be the solution?

May be RAM problem so replace it...


Virus would have affected..
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May be RAM problem so replace it...


Virus would have affected..

27. Explain about Windows Firewall?

Firewall Restricts the System from Unwanted Traffic.

28. Difference between Administrators and Power Users?

Members of the Administrator group have total control over the computer and everything on it. The user named Administrator is the default account within
this group

The Power User class can perform any task except for those reserved for Administrators. They are allowed to carry out functions that will not directly affect
the operating system or risk security

29. What is Service Pack? Is it needed to be installed in all the system?

A service pack (in short SP) is a collection of updates, fixes and/or enhancements to a software program delivered in the form of a single installable
package.
Yes it should be installed in all the systems.

30. What is Device Drivers? Why it is needed?

A device driver is a program that controls a particular type of device that is attached to your computer. There are device drivers for printers, displays,
CD-ROM readers, diskette drives, and so on

31. Explain about Local Printer and Network Printer?

A network printer is shared by more than one computer using the IP Address that is assigned to the printer.
A local printer is directly connected to one computer & shared using sharing & security

32. Explain detail how to install a Network Printer?

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To install the printer using an IP address, go to Start>Control Panel>Printers and Faxes and then click the Add Printer icon. Next, click Create a new port,
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32. Explain detail how to install a Network Printer?

To install the printer using an IP address, go to Start>Control Panel>Printers and Faxes and then click the Add Printer icon. Next, click Create a new port,
then select Standard TCP/IP Port from the drop-down menu. You will then be asked to enter an IP address. Enter the IP address of the print server and
click Next. You will be asked to select the printer manufacturer and the model from the list. If you do not see your printer listed, insert the disk that came
with the printer and click Have Disk.
If you do not know the IP address of the printer, you can sometime select Browse for printer in the beginning of the process. If the networked printer is
attached to another computer is being shared, you will need to enter the name of the computer followed by the share name of the printer. For example:
\\computername\printername.

33. How does virus get loaded into computer?

Through Exe Files, Pen drive, CD, E-mail, Internet Etc...

34. What is Boot Process in a computer?

First is the POST, this stands for Power On Self-Test, for the computer. This process tests memory as well as a number of other subsystems. You can usually
monitor this as it runs each test. After that is complete the system will run POST for any device that has BIOS (Basic Input-Output System).

35. What is the difference between RAM & ROM?

RAM – Random Access Memory which is called as Temporary Memory..


ROM- Read Only Memory which stores the data Permanently.

36. What is Cache Memory?

Cache memory is fast memory that is used to hold the most recently accessed data in slower main memory. The idea is that frequently accessed data will
stay in cache, which allows the CPU to access it more quickly, which means it doesn't have to wait for the data to arrive.

37. What is the difference between Primary Storage and Secondary Storage?

Usually the primary storage is a hard drive(s). Secondary is a flash drive(s), cd and so on. But nowadays, it's mostly a game of words.

The primary memory of CPU is the place where computer program and data is stored during processing. this storage unite is often called either main
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The primary memory of CPU is the place where computer program and data is stored during processing. this storage unite is often called either main
memory or primary memory..

There is usually two types primary memory

1. RAM 2:.ROM
The devices of computer that store information such as software and data permanently are called secondary storage device.

There are many types of secondary storage devices such as ,magneticdisk, Hard disk floppy disk , CD Rom , magnetic tape etc...

38. How to increase or set virtual memory in Window XP?

Click Start, and then click Control Panel.

ClickPerformance and Maintenance, and then click System.

On the Advanced tab, under Performance, click Settings.

On the Advanced tab, under Virtual memory, click Change.

UnderDrive [Volume Label], click the drive that contains the paging file that you want to change.

UnderPaging file size for selected drive, click to Custom size check box. You can enter the amount of memory you would like to reserve for Virtual memory

by entering the initial and maximum size. ClickSet

39. What are the advantages of having SATA HDD over PATA HDD?

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39. What are the advantages of having SATA HDD over PATA HDD?

SATA HDD uses different channel for incoming and outgoing traffic. Wherelse PATA HDD uses same Channel for incoming and outgoing traffic.

40. What are Bidirectional and Unidirectional Bus?

The address bus (sometimes called the memory bus) transports memory addresses which the processor wants to access in order to read or write data. It is a
unidirectional bus.
The data bus transfers instructions coming from or going to the processor. It is a bidirectional bus.

41. How does the browser know to go to a certain IP address when you enter a domain like google.com?

Whenever an address is typed on the browser it immediately connects with the DNS.This DNS Finds the IP address related to the Domain & connects with the
Server & the requested web page will be displayed.

42. What’s the difference between L1 and L2 cache?

Short for Level 1 cache, a memory cache built into the microprocessor.

Short for Level 2 cache, cache memory that is external to the microprocessor. In general, L2 cache memory, also called the secondary cache, resides on a
separate chip from the microprocessor chip.

43. What is BIOS? How to clear password for BIOS?

BIOS or Basic Input/output System is the first program accessed by the processor during start up to ensure that all the other basic programs, hard drives,
ports, peripherals and the central processing unit are in good working condition.
In order to clear the password for BIOS Just Remove the CMOS Battery & Insert it again after Sometime or Change the Jumper Settings.

44. What difference between original motherboard & chipset motherboard?

A chipset is a group of microchips designed to work as a unit in performing one or more related functions.
They are chip or chips on a motherboard containing various functions supporting the CPU.

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They are chip or chips on a motherboard containing various functions supporting the CPU.

Motherboard is the "heart" of your PC -- it handles system resources (IRQ lines, DMA channels, I/O locations), as well as core components like the CPU, and
all system memory. It accepts expansion devices such as sound and network cards, and modems. The main printed circuit board in a computer that carries
the system buses. It is equipped with sockets to which all processors, memory modules, plug-in cards, daughterboard, or peripheral devices are connected.

45. What is the SMPS? Explain about its output voltage?

Switch Mode Power Supply is an electronic power supply Unit that incorporates a switching regulator in order to provide the required output voltage

46. What is Power Good Signal? Explain its functionality.

In addition to the voltages and currents that a computer needs to operate, power supplies also provide a signal called the Power-Good signal, sometimes
written as Power_OK or Power Good or you can distinguish it by its gray color. Its purpose is to tell the computer all is well with the power supply and that
the computer can continue to operate normally. If the Power-Good signal is not present at startup, the CPU is held in reset state. If a Power-Good signal goes
down during operation the CPU will shutdown. The Power-Good signal prevents the computer from attempting to operate on improper voltages and
damaging itself.

47. What is the difference between AGP and PCI graphics cards?

AGP stands for 'Accelerated Graphics Port’ the speed at which the AGP bus transfers data to and from the video card was too Fast.
PCI stands for 'Peripheral Component Interconnect’ the speed at which the PCI bus transfers data to and from the video card was too Slow.

48. While Installing Windows XP File Missing Error Occurs. What would be the Problem?

If you are attempting to boot from a CD-ROM and are receiving this error message it is likely that the diskette does not have all the necessary files and/or is
corrupt.

49. What is Defragmentation? Why it’s needed?

Defragmentation is a process that reduces the amount of fragmentation in file systems. It does this by physically organizing the contents of the disk to store
the pieces of each file close together and contiguously.

50. One fine morning system is not able to login into domain. What could be the problem?
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50. One fine morning system is not able to login into domain. What could be the problem?

May be Network problem.

Password would have expired.

May be some restriction policy applied.

51. In a workgroup environment how many system can access a shared folder simultaneously.

10 Systems

52. What is command to view computer name?

Ipconfig /all or hostname

53. Explain Ping command in detail.

Packet Internet Gopher is a simple command line network tool that you can use to verify your connectivity to a network.

54. What would the problem if system gets restarted frequently?

RAM problem, Virus Attack, Dust in processor FAN.

55. What would the problem if the system gets hanged off?

RAM problem,OS Corrupt,Virus Attack,Hard Disk Problem.

56. What could be the problem if hard disk gets in problem?

Disk boot failure, Hard Disk not detected, CableProblem, BlueScreen, No power supply, Bad Sectors.

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57. What is msconfig? Why it is used?

Microsoft System Configuration Utility is a utility to troubleshoot the Windows startup process.

58. What is Remote Desktop? Why it is used?

Remote Desktop is used to take another network system remotely Remote desktop allows you to control the desktop and, indeed, the entire contents of a
computer from another machine entirely

59. How to run legacy application in windows xp?

In both XP , right click on the executable of the application you wish to run.
Select "Properties".

Select the "Compatibility" tab on the "Properties" dialogue box.

There will be a number of options. Choose "Windows 95 or 98 compatibility mode"

60. What is the command to shutdown and restart the computer?

Shutdown –s –t 00

61. What is system restore? Why it is used?

System Restore helps you restore your computer's system files to an earlier point in time. It's a way to undo system changes to your computer without
affecting your personal files, such as email, documents, or photos.

62. What is Ghost?

Ghost is a software product from Symantec that can clone (copy) the entire contents of a hard disk to another computer's hard disk or to storage media,
automatically formatting and partitioning the target disk. This product is especially useful where one system is to be replicated on a number of computers or
when someone wants to back up everything on their personal computer.

63. Difference between Public and Private IP?


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63. Difference between Public and Private IP?

Check systemadministrator.in Website

64. Difference between Windows Vista and Windows 7?

Check systemadministrator.in Website

65. Difference between Core2duo and Dual Core Processor?

Check systemadministrator.in Website

66. Difference between Core i3, Core i5 & Core i7?

Check systemadministrator.in Website

67. How will you deploy Windows XP or Windows 7 in 100 Computers simultaneously?

Using SCCM (System Center Configuration Manager), MDT (Microsoft Deployment Toolkit), WDS (Windows Deployment Services) tools

68. How will update patches or Service pack in multiple computers?

Using WSUS (Windows Software Update Service) tool.

69. Which are the tools you use for remote support?

Dame Ware, Remote Assistance, Remote Desktop, Ammy Admin

70. What is bitlocker?

BitLocker lets you encrypt the hard drive(s) on your Windows 7 and Vista Enterprise, Windows 7 and Vista Ultimate or Windows Server 2008 and R2.

71. What are Host & LMHosts Files?

Host File: Windows Internet Explorer is set to automatically take instructions from a special file that can be found as part of the default installation of the
Operating system.Windows XP it is in C:\WINDOWS\SYSTEM32\DRIVERS\etc
LMHOSTS:LMHOSTS file is for LAN Manager name resolution with the TCP/IP protocol. The file is similar in format to the HOSTS file, but its function is to
resolve IP addresses for a server that is not on the local subnet (the same wire)

72. Difference between 32 bit and 64bit OS Versions?

73. What are Ping and Traceroute?

Ping is a program that sends a series of packets over a network or the Internet to a specific computer in order to generate a response from that
computer.Traceroute is a utility that records the route (the specific gateway computers at each hop) through the Internet between your computer and a
specified destination computer. It also calculates and displays the amount of time each hop took.

74. How can recover a file encrypted using EFS?


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74. How can recover a file encrypted using EFS?

Use Domain Recovery Agents

75. What is telnet?

Telnet is a protocol that allows you to connect to remote computers (called hosts) over a TCP/IP network (such as the Internet).

76. What is VPN?

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a network technology that creates a secure network connection over a public network such as the Internet or a private
network owned by a service provider. Large corporations, educational institutions, and government agencies use VPN technology to enable remote users to
securely connect to a private network

77. Difference between Hub and Switch?

78. How will you fine tune OS?

Clean tmp Files, Run Defragmentation, Run Scan Disk, Disk Cleanup, Check for Antivirus, Increase system virtual memory,

79. Difference between Safe and Normal mode?

Safe mode is an alternate boot method for Windows operating systems that makes it easier to diagnose problems. The only startup programs loaded are the
operating system and drivers for the mouse, keyboard, and display modes display.

80. BSOD. Blue screen on Death

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Security Administrator Level 1 Question

1. What is a Firewall?
Firewall is a device will acts as security layer for all incoming and outgoing traffic for a network

2. What is a gateway?
Gateway is entry and exit point for a network.

3. Will firewall acts as a gateway?


Yes

4. What are the basic configurations you do while configuring a new firewall?
Configure LAN Network in the firewall
Configure WAN Network in the firewall
Write policies to allow internet, mail, etc.

5. What is all the firewall you handle?


Fortigate, Juniper, Sonicwall

6. Explain few Fortigate firewall model?


40c, 60c, 110c, 210b

7. Explain few sonic wall firewall model?


NSA 240, NSA 2400, TZ Series

8. Explain few juniper firewall model?


SSG Model, SRX Models

9. What is Firmware version in Fortigate?


Fortios 4.0 or Fortios 5.0

10. What is Firmware version in Sonic Wall?


Sonicos 5.0

11. What is Firmware version in Juniper?


Junos 11.0

12. How do mange firewall remotely?


By enabling HTTP or HTTPS access to wan interface

13. What is a difference between Proxy & Firewall?


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13. What is a difference between Proxy & Firewall?


Proxy server will never acts a gateway devices but firewall acts as gateway devices

14. What is NAT?


Internet standard that enables a local-area network (LAN) to use one set of IP addresses for internal traffic and a second set of addresses for external
traffic.is the process of modifying IP address information in IP packet headers while in transit across a traffic routing device.

15. Explain Different types of NAT?


Source NAT, Destination NAT, Static NAT

16. Tell the port no for the following


HTTP – 80, HTTPS – 443, FTP – 20 & 21, RDP – 3389,SSH - 22,IMAP-143,SMTP – 25,POP3 – 110,MSSQL – 1433,LDAP – 389

17. Describe in general how you manage a firewall.


Configuring firewall to acts a gateway device
Configure firewall for Load balancing/Failover with two ISP’s
Configure firewall for writing LAN to WAN & WAN to LAN Policies
Configure firewall for UTM Feature
Configure firewall as VPN Server
Monitor Network traffic and log

18. What are the different types of Policy can be configured in firewall?
LAN to LAN Policy, LAN to WAN Policy, WAN to LAN Policy

19. Can we set time based policy in firewall?


Yes

20. What is the difference between router ACLs and Firewall Polices?

21. What is DMZ?


DMZ (demilitarized zone) is a computer host or small network inserted as a "neutral zone" between a company's private network and the outside public
network. It prevents outside users from getting direct access to a server that has company data.

22. Explain a scenario in which situation we plan for DMZ?


Server or separate Networks

23. Is it possible to terminate more than two ISP’s in a firewall?


Yes

24. What is UTM?


Unified Threat Management indicates you get a security solution with Anti Spam, Anti Virus, Web Filtering, Web Proxy, Mail Proxy, Content Filtering, VPN
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24. What is UTM?


Unified Threat Management indicates you get a security solution with Anti Spam, Anti Virus, Web Filtering, Web Proxy, Mail Proxy, Content Filtering, VPN
and Firewall.

25. Explain about gateway antivirus?


A feature of network security appliances that provides integrated antivirus security on the appliance to block potential threats before reaching the
network. Gateway antivirus allows corporate and enterprise to check for viruses at the application layer using a web-based scanning service.

26. What is web filter?


Web filter is a feature in firewall to block website based on category (jobs, Politics, Web Based Email, etc…), from database provided by the firewall
product vendor.

27. How web filter works?


Web Filter works with license provided by firewall, Web filter works if the firewall is able to communicate with web filter database server provided by the
firewall vendor.

28. How Application filter works?


Application filter is same as web filter to block unwanted application getting access using the common service like HTTP, HTTPS, etc…

29. What is denial of Service attack?


Denial-of-service attack, a type of attack on a network that is designed to bring the network to its knees by flooding it with useless traffic. Many DoS
attacks, such as the Ping of Death and Teardrop attacks, exploit limitations in the TCP/IP protocols. For all known DoS attacks, there are software fixes that
system administrators can install to limit the damage caused by the attacks.

30. What is vulnerability test and how to you perform the test?
Vulnerability test is a penetration test to find all the security issues in the Network, based on the test we can take action. Tools to test vulnerability is
Nessus, Openvas

31. What is zero day attack prevention?


The implications of a Zero-Day attack are that the software vendors can't address the vulnerability and patch the software prior to the vulnerability's
exposure. When a Zero-Day attack gets exposed along with a newly-discovered vulnerability, it may take several weeks or months for the software vendors
to create a patch. In the meantime, each computer that carries the vulnerable software is exposed to the attack.

32. Is it possible to configure firewall for User Authentication for Internet Access? Explain how
Yes, using Identity based polices

33. Explain IPS / IDS?


An intrusion detection system (IDS) inspects all inbound and outbound network activity and identifies suspicious patterns that may indicate a network or
system attack from someone attempting to break into or compromise a system.

Intrusionpreventionsystem is used in computer security. It provides policies and rules for network traffic along with an intrusion detection system for alerting
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Intrusionpreventionsystem is used in computer security. It provides policies and rules for network traffic along with an intrusion detection system for alerting
system or network administrators to suspicious traffic, but allows the administrator to provide the action upon being alerted. Some compare an IPS to a
combination of IDS and an application layer firewall for protection.

34. Explain the difference between trusted and untrusted networks?


Trusted network is protected network i.e. LAN where else untrusted network is open network i.e. WAN

35. What is the difference between IPsec and SSL VPN?


Traditional VPN's rely on IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) to tunnel between the two endpoints. IPsec works on the Network Layer of the OSI Model-
securing all data that travels between the two endpoints without an association to any specific application.

SSL is a common protocol and most web browsers have SSL capabilities built in. Therefore almost every computer in the world is already equipped with the
necessary "client software" to connect to an SSL VPN.

36. What is site to site VPN?


Site-to-site VPN allows offices in multiple fixed locations to establish secure connections with each other over a public network such as the Internet.
Site-to-site VPN extends the company's network, making computer resources from one location available to employees at other locations.

37. What is SSL?


Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is a commonly-used protocol for managing the security of a message transmission on the Internet. SSL has recently been
succeeded by Transport Layer Security (TLS), which is based on SSL. SSL uses a program layer located between the Internet's Hypertext Transfer Protocol
(HTTP) and Transport Control Protocol (TCP) layers.

38. How do we create SSL Certificate?


We can create SSL Certificate using Certificate Server or with service providers like godaddy, etc.

39. What is the advantage of having SSL VPN over IPsec?


SSL VPN's have been gaining in prevalence and popularity; however they are not the right solution for every instance. Likewise, IPsec VPN's are not
suited for every instance either.

40. What are the different types of VPN?


IPsec, SSL, PPTP, L2TP

41. What requirements should a VPN fulfill?


VPN Devices, VPN Encryption and VPN Components.

42. How many ways are there to implement VPN architecture?

43. What are the different ways authentication mechanisms in VPN?


EAP authentication method, MS Chap Authentication method, unencrypted passwords (PAP), Shiva Password Authentication Protocol (SPAP)
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43. What are the different ways authentication mechanisms in VPN?


EAP authentication method, MS Chap Authentication method, unencrypted passwords (PAP), Shiva Password Authentication Protocol (SPAP)

44. Explain the basic of encryption in VPN?


VPN can optionally use encryption. Traditionally it use IPSEC with an encryption method such as AES or 3DES. Encryption takes a plain text and a key and
then applies an algorithm to produce a ciphertext. The keys can be static or negotiated.

45. Explain different components in PKI?


A PKI (public key infrastructure) enables users of a basically unsecure public network such as the Internet to securely and privately exchange data and
money through the use of a public and a private cryptographic key pair that is obtained and shared through a trusted authority.

46. Explain tunneling?


A technology that enables one network to send its data via another network's connections. Tunneling works by encapsulating a network protocol within
packets carried by the second network.

47. Can you explain static and dynamic tunnels?


Static Tunnel: The manually created tunnels are called Static Tunnels. Static tunnels creation is the only choice when global discovery of hosts and tunnel
partners are disabled by enhancing Xpress tunnels into manually created tunnels. The priority is higher when compared with static tunnel.

Dynamic Tunnel: The tunnels that are auto-discovered are known as dynamic tunnels. Dynamic tunnels are created quickly and automatically after the
Packet Shaper is reset. At the time of preventing automatic tunnel, dynamic tunnels are allowed to setup the situation.

48. Provide an overview of various components in IPsec?


IPsec contains the following elements:

Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP): Provides confidentiality, authentication, and integrity.

Authentication Header (AH): Provides authentication and integrity.

Internet Key Exchange (IKE): Provides key management and Security Association (SA) management.

49. Describe the Authentication Header (AH) Protocol?


Authentication Header (AH) is a member of the IPsec protocol suite. AH guarantees connectionless integrity and data origin authentication of IP packets.
Further, it can optionally protect against replay attacks by using the sliding window technique and discarding old packets

50. What is ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)?


Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is a member of the IPsec protocol suite. In IPsec it provides origin authenticity, integrity, and confidentiality
protection of packets. ESP also supports encryption-only and authentication-only configurations, but using encryption without authentication is strongly
discouraged because it is insecure.
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protection of packets. ESP also supports encryption-only and authentication-only configurations, but using encryption without authentication is strongly
discouraged because it is insecure.

51. What is Transport and Tunnel mode?


IPsec can be run in either tunnel mode or transport mode. Each of these modes has its own particular uses and care should be taken to ensure that the
correct one is selected for the solution:

Tunnel mode is most commonly used between gateways, or at an end-station to a gateway, the gateway acting as a proxy for the hosts behind it.

Transport mode is used between end-stations or between an end-station and a gateway, if the gateway is being treated as a host

52. Explain IKE (Internet Key Exchange)


Internet Key Exchange (IKE) is an IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) standard protocol used to ensure security for virtual private network (VPN)
negotiation and remote host or network access.The IKE protocol ensures security for Security Association (SA) communication without the preconfiguration
that would otherwise be required.

53. Explain IKE phases?


IKE phase 1. IKE authenticates IPsec peers and negotiates IKE SAs during this phase, setting up a secure channel for negotiating IPsec SAs in phase 2.

IKE phase 2. IKE negotiates IPsec SA parameters and sets up matching IPsec SAs in the peers.

54. Explain IKE modes


Main Mode&Aggressive Mode

55. Explain the features and model of the firewall in your organization?

56. What is your vision for organization security?

57. Tell me how firewall is placed in your organization?

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