different fluid and electrolyte imbalances that are

Introduction associated with chronic renal failure.

Assorted and challenging questions about Medical- 1. Disequilibrium syndrome is always a risk in all clients
Surgical Nursing that covers topics like: Chronic Renal undergoing hemodialysis for chronic renal failure. The
Failure, Breast Cancer, Leukemia, Blood Transfusion, nurse should assess Mr. Roberto for which of the
Burn Injury and Nursing Research. following sign and symptom associated with
Disequilibrium syndrome?
Topics
A. Hypertension, Tachycardia and Fever
Topics or concepts included in this exam are:
B. Imbalance, gait abnormality and inability to stand up
C. Restlessness, irritability and generalized weakness
 Chronic Renal Failure
D. Headache, deteriorating level of consciousness and
 Kidney Transplantation
twitching
 Burn Injury
 Breast Cancer
2. After Mr. Roberto completed his hemodialysis, The
 Leukemia
nurse should use which indicators to evaluate the
 Blood Transfusion
client’s status after dialysis?
 Chest Tube
 Measles
A. Potassium level and weight
 Tuberculosis
B. Vital signs and Blood Urea Nitrogen
 Leprosy
C. Blood Urea Nitrogen and Creatinine level
 Nursing Research
D. Vital signs and weight

Guidelines 3. Mr. Roberto’s chronic renal failure was caused by a

crush injury to the lower leg right after an accident.
 Read each question carefully and choose
The acute renal failure progresses to chronic renal
the best answer.
failure until now, his case is irreversible. The nurse is
 You are given one minute per question.
correct in determining that the cause of Mr.
Spend your time wisely!
Roberto’s Acute renal failure before was:
 Answers and rationales (if any) are given
below. Be sure to read them.
A. Prerenal
 If you need more clarifications, please
B. Post renal
direct them to the comments section.
C. Renal
D. Extrarenal
Questions

4. Mr. Roberto misses 2 sessions of hemodialysis. Blood

SITUATION: Mr. Roberto was long diagnosed
was drawn and is sent for analysis. Which electrolyte
with chronic renal failure. You are his nurse and the
following question assesses your knowledge in the
disturbance is expected in a client with chronic renal care
failure? D. Take the blood pressure on the right arm instead

A. Hypernatremia 9. Mr. Roberto Complains of tingling in the finger and

B. Hyperkalemia twitching of the muscles. This is caused by:
C. Hypokalemia
D. Alkalemia A. Acidosis
B. Potassium retention
5. In Mr. Roberto’s ECG tracing, you would expect to C. Calcium Depletion
find: D. Sodium chloride depletion

A. Depressed T wave 10. Which of the following is an appropriate instruction

B. Presence of U wave for Mr. Roberto?
C. A peaked T wave
D. Inverted T wave A. Follow a high potassium diet
B. Strictly follow the hemodialysis schedule
6. The main indicator of the need for hemodialysis is: C. Use salt substitute instead of the normal table salt
D. Use alcohol on the skin to clean it due to
A. Ascites integumentary changes
B. Acidosis
C. Hypertension SITUATION: Mr. Roberto’s condition continues to
D. Hyperkalemia worsen and the doctor suggested Kidney
Transplantation.
7. To gain access to the vein and artery, an AV shunt
was used for Mr. Roberto. The most serious problem 11. Mr. Roberto has just received a renal transplant and
with regards to the AV shunt is: has started cyclosporine therapy to prevent graft
rejection. Which of the following condition is a major
A. Septicemia complication of this drug therapy?
B. Clot formation
C. Exsanguination A. Depression
D. Vessel sclerosis B. Hemorrhage
C. Infection
8. When caring for Mr. Roberto’s AV shunt on his right D. Peptic ulcer disease
arm, you should:
12. Which of the following is the rationale why
A. Cover the entire cannula with an elastic bandage Azathioprine (Imuran), Prednisone or Cyclosporine
B. Notify the physician if a bruit and thrill are present (SandImmune) is given in a client that has undergone
C. User surgical aseptic technique when giving shunt Kidney Transplantation?
A. To enhance the immune system preventing
rejection
B. To suppress the immune system preventing
rejection
C. To enhance kidney function
D. To protect the newly transplanted kidney from
invading pathogens
13. Immunosuppression following Kidney
transplantation is continued:
A. For life
B. 24 hours after transplantation
C. A week after transplantation
D. Until the kidney is not anymore rejected
14. Steroids, if used following kidney transplantation
would cause which of the following side effects?
A. Alopecia
B. Increase Cholesterol Level
C. Orthostatic Hypotension
D. Increase Blood Glucose Level
15. Mr. Roberto was readmitted to the hospital with
acute graft rejection. Which of the following
assessment finding would be expected?
A. Hypotension
B. Normal Body Temperature
C. Decreased WBC
D. Elevated BUN and Creatinine
SITUATION: Nanette was rushed to the hospital due to
burns. Witnesses told the emergency team that
Nanette fell asleep while she is holding her cigarette
thus, burning the bed sheets and herself. 2nd and 3rd
degree burns are on the face, neck, anterior and
posterior trunk as well as the anterior of the left leg
and the whole right arm was burned. First degree
burns are located on the anterior portion of the right
leg and the anterior portion of the right and left arm.
Nanette is a 110 lbs female client.
16. The priority nursing intervention for Nanette is to:
A. Assess airway, breathing and circulation
B. Check Nanette’s Vital Signs
C. Apply ointment over the burned surface
D. Administer oxygen inhalation
17. Using the rule of nine, the percentage of the burned
area on Nanette’s skin is:
A. 63%
B. 81%
C. 90%
D. 72%
18. The rationale in giving IV fluids for Miss Nanette is
to prevent:
A. Cardiogenic shock
B. Septic Shock
C. Hypovolemic shock
D. Neurogenic Shock
19. A second degree burn on Nanette is characterized
by:
A. Eschars
B. Broken skin with fat exposed
C. Blisters and Edema
D. Insensate wound draining purple fluid
20. During the first 48 hours, Burn victims is observed
for metabolic acidosis resulting from loss of bicarbonate
ions that arises from:
A. Potassium loss
B. Calcium loss
C. Sodium loss
D. Magnesium loss
21. IV fluid that is commonly used in clients
with dehydration, diarrhea and burns is:
A. Lactated Ringers
B. D5 NSS
C. Normal Saline Solution
D. NSS Plus potassium
22. The doctor uses Parkland/Baxter formula in
computing the amount of fluid needed for Nanette’s
resuscitation. You would expect that the doctor will
order how many milliliters of IV fluids?
A. 6 liters during the first 8 hours, 3 liters on the next 8
hours and another 3 liters on another 8 hours.
B. 12 liters during the first 8 hours and another 12
liters on the succeeding 16 hours
C. 8 liters during the first 8 hours, 4 liters on the next 8
hours and another 8 liters on another 8 hours
D. 10 liters during the first 8 hours and another 10
liters on the succeeding 16 hours
23. During the emergent phase of burn, which of the
following is an expected finding on Nanette?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Elevated hematocrit levels
C. Increased blood pressure
D. Increased urinary output
24. Which electrolyte disturbance is the most lethal in
client with burn?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia
25. The priority consideration for Nanette during the
early phase of burn is:
A. Pain
B. Body Image
C. Fluid status
D. Infection of the wound
SITUATION: Joanna Marie, a 40 year old client was
diagnosed with breast cancer.
26. The nurse is instruction Joanna about breast self
examination. The nurse instructs Joanna to perform
Breast Self Examination:
A. At the onset of menstruation
B. 1 week after menstruation begins
C. Every month during ovulation
D. Weekly at the same time each day
27. Joanna is taking Adriamycin together
with tamoxifen. You know that Adriamycin works by:
A. Inhibiting DNA Synthesis
B. Preventing Folic acid synthesis
C. Changing the osmotic gradient of the cell
D. Increase cell wall permeability
28. Joanna’s tumor is said to be ERP+. You know
that Estrogen receptor positive tumor is:
A. A good indicator of the possibility of breast
reconstruction
B. A good indicator for giving an estrogen replacement
therapy to decrease the tumor size 33. Allowing Joanna to perform deep breathing exercise
C. An indicator that the client might respond will prevent:
to tamoxifen
D. An indicator that metastasis has already occurred A. Pneumonia
B. Bronchitis
29. Which of the following may be use to her post C. Atelectasis
operatively? D. Lymphedema

A. Cystoclysis bottle 34. The nurse is teaching the sisters of Joanna about
B. 3 way bottle system Mammography, The nurse tells the client that:
C. Jackson Pratt Drain
D. Pleural drainage A. Mammography takes about 1 hour
B. To avoid the use of deodorant, powders and creams
30. All of the following are applicable nursing diagnosis on the day of the test
for Joanna except: C. There is no discomfort associated with the
procedure
A. Pain upon lying down D. To maintain an NPO status 8 hours before the
B. Body Image Disturbance procedure
C. Potential for sexual dysfunction
D. Self care deficit r/t immobility of the arm 35. Joanna was brought to the hospice. During your
visit, Joanna expresses that “If I can just live a little
31. Rationale for elevating the arm of Joanna post longer to see my 3 sons finish college, I will be ready to
operatively is to: die.” Which phase of the grieving process Is Joanna
experiencing?
A. Improve coping ability
B. Prevent infection A. Denial
C. Improve Edema B. Bargaining
D. Decrease bleeding and drainage C. Depression
D. Anger
32. After Modified radical mastectomy, which
assessment finding indicates that Joanna is experiencing 36. In the Philippines, The use of this method is strongly
a complication related to surgery? suggested and recommended than any other methods
to decrease death due to breast cancer:
A. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson Pratt drain
B. Pain at the incision site A. BSE
C. Complaints of decreased sensation in the operative B. Mammography
site C. Breast Biopsy
D. Arm edema on the operative arm D. Surgery
37. The nurse is teaching a group of women to perform 1. Non encapsulated mass
breast self-examination. The nurse should explain that 2. Fixed, irregular and hard
the purpose of performing the examination is to 3. Presence of Orange peel skin
discover: 4. Soft and mobile

A. Thickness and Fullness A. 1,2,3

B. Malignant or Benign Lumps B. 1,2
C. changes from previous self-examinations. C. 1,2,4
D. Fibrocystic masses D. 1,3,4

38. Anita, Joanna’s sister is performing BSE and she
stands in front of the Mirror. The rationale for standing
in front of the mirror is to check for:
A. Unusual discharges coming out from the breast
B. Any obvious malignancy
C. The Size and Contour of the breast
D. Thickness and lumps in the breast
39. The nurse puts a folded towel under the left
shoulder of the Client to be examined for clinical BSE.
Why is this so?
SITUATION: Agnes, a client with Leukemia is in the
clinic for her routine check up.
41. Which finding is unlikely when assessing Agnes?
A. Small abdomen
B. Bruises and Petechiae
C. Increased WBC Counts
D. Dyspnea during exercise or exertion
42. The most appropriate diagnostic examination for
Agnes is:

A. To make the left shoulder nearer to the hands of the A. RBC Exam
clinician for palpation B. WBC Count
B. To make the pectoralis muscle prominent, toning C. Complete Blood Count
the breast tissue for better palpation D. Bone Marrow Aspiration
C. To put the breast in a more lateral position to better
ease the palpation 43. What should you encourage her to use in order to
D. To balance and spread the breast tissue thus easing maintain her oral hygiene?
palpation
A. Use regular toothbrush
40. 30. A 52-year-old female tells the nurse that she has B. Gargle with mouthwash only
found a painless lump in her right breast during her C. Use cotton pledget only
monthly self-examination. Which assessment finding D. Use soft toothbrush
would strongly suggest that this client’s lump is
cancerous? 44. Which of the following complications are the three
main consequence of leukemia?
A. Bone deformities, Infection and Anemia
B. Anemia, Infection and Bleeding tendencies
C. Leukopenia, Thrombocytopenia and Anemia
D. Leukocytosis, Thrombocytosis and Polycythemia
45. You noticed that Agnes’ nose is bleeding, You would
instruct Agnes to:
A. lie supine with his neck extended.
B. sit upright, leaning slightly forward.
C. blow his nose and then put lateral pressure on his
nose.
D. hold his nose while bending forward at the waist.
SITUATION: Mr. Ramos is a 60 year old male client
admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis
of pneumonia. He complains of pain when coughing.
46. What action should the nurse take in assisting Mr.
Ramos in doing deep breathing and coughing exercise?
A. Recognize that the patient is too sick to cough at
this time
B. Splint the patient’s chest while he coughs
C. Turn Mr. Ramos to the unaffected side and ask him
to cough
D. Encourage her to cough and then give
her pain medication as ordered
47. A sputum specimen was collected from Mr. Ramos
for culture and sensitivity. This study is to ascertain
which of the following facts?
A. The virulence of microorganism involved
B. The antibiotics which would be most helpful
C. The patients probably reaction to the causative
microorganism
D. The patient’s sensitivity to antibiotics
48. Laboratory reports shows RBC : 2,000,000, WBC:
5,000 and Platelets : 300,000. Considering the above
findings which of the following clinical manifestation is
the most likely manifestation Mr. Ramos is to exhibit?
A. Decrease respiration and increase pulse
B. Normal Respiration and increase pulse
C. Increase respiration and normal pulse
D. Increase pulse and increase respiration
49. Because of these laboratory findings, the nurse is
aware that her most appropriate action is to prevent
which of the following?
A. Infections and cross contamination
C. Injury might lead to bleeding
B. Over activity that might lead to exhaustion
D. Hypercoagulation that might lead
to thrombus formation
50. Upon discharge, the health teaching of the nurse to
Mr. Ramos should include which of the following
except:
A. Avoid fatigue
B. Maintain hygiene
C. Maintain the usual exercise
D. Avoid drafts
SITUATION: Blood transfusion was ordered for Andre
after an episode of severe bleeding.
51. Before blood transfusion, The nurse priority is to
assess Andre for which of the following?
A. Clotting time
B. Vital Signs
C. Sodium
D. Weight
52. Before administering the transfusion, The nurse A. Isotonic
must start an IV infusion of which of the following? B. Hypotonic
C. Normosol
A. Sterile water D. Hypertonic
B. NSS
C. D5W 57. Which of the following are signs of hemolytic
D. D5LR reaction during blood transfusion?

53. Which of the following is an appropriate needle for A. Itching, urticaria and wheezing
Blood transfusion? B. Cough, dyspnea, pulmonary congestion
C. High fever and chills
A. A butterfly needle D. Fever and backache
B. An 18 gauge angiocatheter
C. A 25 gauge angiocatheter 58. In any event of an adverse hemolytic reaction
D. A 21 gauge angiocatheter during blood transfusion, Nursing intervention should
focus on:
54. Which of the following is not expected to be done
by the nurse in case of a whole blood transfusion? A. Slow the infusion, Call the physician and assess the
patient
A. Assess the venipuncture for any signs of bleeding or B. Stop the infusion, Assess the client, Send the
hematoma remaining blood to the laboratory and call the
B. Prepare the blood transfusion using a microdrip physician
tubing C. Stop the infusion, Call the physician and assess the
C. Assess the patient closely for any reaction client
D. Make sure that the drip chamber of the IV fluid is D. Slow the confusion and keep a patent IV line open
partially filled with blood for administration of medication

55. Which of the following is the recommended flow 59. The nurse knows that after receiving the blood from
rate for the first 20 minutes of blood transfusion? the blood bank, it should be administered within:

A. 10 A. 1 hour
B. 20 B. 2 hours
C. 40 C. 4 hours
D. 60 D. 6 hours

56. Solutions that are said to be compatible with the 60. During blood administration, the nurse should
osmolarity of the body are called: carefully monitor adverse reaction. To monitor this, it is
essential for the nurse to:
A. Stay with the client for the first 15 minutes of blood
administration
B. Stay with the client for the entire period of blood
administration
C. Run the infusion at a faster rate during the first 15
minutes
D. Tell the client to notify the staff immediately for any
adverse reaction
SITUATION : John Mark is a 21 year old male client who
was rushed following an automobile accident. He is
very anxious, dyspneic and in severe pain.
61. The nurse notices that John’s chest tube was
dislodged from the chest. The most appropriate nursing
intervention is to:
A. Notify the physician
B. Cover the insertion site with petrolatum gauze
C. Immersed the tube into a bottle of sterile water
D. Clamp the tube
62. To ensure that the system is functioning effectively,
the nurse should:
A. Observe for intermittent bubbling in the water seal
chamber
B. Flush the chest tube with 30 to 60 ml of NSS every 4
hours
C. Maintain the client in a side lying position always
D. Strip the chest tube in the direction towards the
client
63. JM’s chest tube is said to be functioning correctly
when which of the following is observed?
A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
B. Fluctuation in the water seal chamber
C. Suction tubing attached to the wall unit
D. Vesicular breath sounds heard in all lung fields
64. He is intubated with an endotracheal tube and is
placed on a mechanical ventilator. Which findings alerts
the nurse to an additional problem with regards to the
respiratory function?
A. Dull on percussion in the 3rd to 5th intercostal
space, midclavicular line
B. Decreased paradoxical motion
C. Louder breath sounds on the right chest
D. Vesicular breath sound heard at the lung bases
65. The right chest wall of Peter moves in during
inspiration and balloons out when he exhales. He is very
dyspneic. The nurse understands that this symptom is
indicative of:
A. Hemothorax
B. Flail Chest
C. Atelectasis
D. Pleural effusion
SITUATION : Rene is a 3 y/o boy brought to the health
center for fever and cough. You noted grayish pinpoint
dots located at the buccal mucosa. A maculopapular
rash was noted on his face. Questions 20-25 refer to
this.
66. The patient’s disease is most likely:
A. Rubeola
B. Diphtheria
C. Rubella
D. Pneumonia
67. The lesion in his buccal mucosa is called:
A. Forchheimer’s spot 72. A client suspected of having tetanus asks the nurse
B. Pseudomembrane about immunizations against tetanus. The nurse
C. Ghon’s tubercle explains that the major benefit in using tetanus
D. Koplik’s spot antitoxin is that it:

68. What is the exanthem of measles? A. Stimulates plasma cells directly

B. Provides a high titer of antibodies
A. Maculopapular rash C. Provide immediate active immunity
B. Pseudomembrane D. Stimulates long-lasting passive immunity
C. Forchheimer’s spot
D. Koplik’s spot 73. Miss Kate is a bread vendor and you are buying a
bread from her. You noticed that she receives and
69. The nurse knows that the most common changes money and then hold the bread without
complication of Measles is: washing her hand. As a nurse, What will you say to Miss
Kate?
A Pneumonia and laryngotracheitis
B. Encephalitis A. Miss, don’t touch the bread I’ll be the one to pick it
C. Otitis Media up
D. Bronchiectasis B. Miss, please wash your hands before you pick up
those breads
70. Measles vaccine is given at how many months? C. Miss, use a pick up forceps when picking up those
breads
A. At birth D. Miss, your hands are dirty I guess I’ll try another
B. 1 ½ months bread shop
C. 6 months
D. 9 months 74. The Causative agent of Tuberculosis is said to be:

71. All of the following are necessary household A. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

management in preventing the spread of Measles at
home except:
A. Boil foods that are not eaten by the patient
B. Separate eating utensils of the patient from that of
other members of the family
C. Isolate the patient when symptoms start to appear
D. Children should be watch out for complications of
the disease
B. Hansen’s Bacilli
C. Bacillus Anthracis
D. Group A Beta Hemolytic Streptococcus
75. A client who was exposed to hepatitis A is given
gamma globulin to provide passive immunity which:
A. Increases the production of short lived antibodies
B. Provides antibodies that neutralize the antigen
C. Accelerates antigen-antibody union at the hepatic
sites
D. Stimulates the lymphatic system to produce large C. Madarosis
number of antibodies D. Gynecomastia

76. They are the proteins in the body that are produced 80. Which among the following person is most
in response to the invasion to pathogens and susceptible to leprosy?
microorganisms.
A. Mark, 21 year old athlete
A. Antigen B. Arvinn, 16 year old student
B. Amino Acids C. JC, 12 year old student
C. Agglutinogen D. Clarence, 9 year old student
D. Antibody
81. The nurse is documenting her care for a client with
77. A nursing instructor asks a nursing student to iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following nursing
describe human immunoglobulin. The student correctly diagnoses is most appropriate?
states that these types of vaccine are:
A. Impaired gas exchange
A. Vaccine that have their virulence diminished so as to B. Deficient fluid volume
not produce a full blown clinical illness C. Ineffective airway clearance
B. Vaccine that contains pathogens made inactive by D. Ineffective breathing pattern
either chemicals or heat
C. Bacterial toxins that have been made inactive by 82. The nurse walks into the room of a client who has
either chemicals or heat had surgery for testicular cancer. The client says that
D. Vaccines collected from pooled blood of people and he’ll be undesirable to his wife, and he becomes tearful.
provide antibodies to variety of diseases He expresses that he has spoiled a happy, satisfying sex
life with his wife, and says that he thinks it might be
78. Mode of transmission of leprosy aside from skin best if he would just die. Based on these signs and
contact is by: symptoms, which nursing diagnosis would be most
appropriate for planning purposes?
A. Oral fecal
B. Sexual contact A. Situational low self-esteem
C. Borrowing utensil B. Unilateral neglect
D. Droplet infection C. Social isolation
D. Risk for loneliness
79. Which of the following is not a late sign and
symptoms of leprosy? 83. A 92-year-old client with prostate cancer and
multiple metastases is in respiratory distress and is
A. Paralysis admitted to a medical unit from a skilled nursing facility.
B. Contractures His advance directive states that he doesn’t want to be
placed on a ventilator or receive cardiopulmonary
resuscitation. Based on the client’s advance directive,
the nursing plan of care should include which
intervention?
A. Check on the client once per shift.
B. Provide mouth and skin care only if the family
requests it.
C. Turn the client only if he’s uncomfortable.
D. Provide emotional support and pain relief.
84. Which of these findings is an early sign of bladder
cancer?
A. Painless Hematuria
B. Occasional Polyuria
C. Nocturia
D. Dysuria
85. During a late stage of acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome (AIDS), a client demonstrates signs of AIDS-
related dementia. The nurse should give the highest
priority to which nursing diagnosis?
A. Bathing or hygiene self-care deficit
B. Ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion
C. Dysfunctional grieving
D. Risk for injury
86. When assessing a client with partial thickness burns
over 60% of the body, which of the following should the
nurse report immediately?
A. Complaints of intense thirst
B. Moderate to severe pain
C. Urine output of 70 ml the 1st hour
D. Hoarseness of the voice
87. A client with a solar burn of the chest, back, face,
and arms is seen in urgent care. The nurse’s primary
concern should be:
A. fluid resuscitation.
B. infection.
C. body image.
D. pain management.
88. client is admitted to the hospital following a burn
injury to the left hand and arm. The client’s burn is
described as white and leathery with no blisters. Which
degree of severity is this burn?
A. First degree burn
B. Second degree burn
C. Third degree burn
D. Fourth degree burn
89. A client with end-stage liver cancer tells the nurse
he doesn’t want extraordinary measures used to
prolong his life. He asks what he must do to make these
wishes known and legally binding. How should the
nurse respond to the client?
A. Tell him that it’s a legal question beyond the scope
of nursing practice.
B. Give him a copy of the client’s bill of rights.
C. Provide information on active euthanasia.
D. Discuss documenting his wishes in an advance
directive.
90. A client is admitted to the hospital with an
exacerbation of her chronic systemic lupus
erythematosus (SLE). She gets angry when her call bell
isn’t answered immediately. The most appropriate
response to her would be:
A. “You seem angry. Would you like to talk about it?”
B. “Calm down. You know that stress will make your
symptoms worse.”
C. “Would you like to talk about the problem with the
nursing supervisor?”
D. “I can see you’re angry. I’ll come back when you’ve
calmed down.”
SITUATION: Consider the following hypothesis: “The
Job turnover rate and job dissatisfaction levels of
graduate nurses who have worked less than 2 years is
higher than for those graduate nurses who have
worked for more than 2 years”
91. A systematic, objective, process of analyzing
phenomena importance to nursing is termed as:
A. Nursing research
B. Research
C. Scientific research
D. Research process
92. The major reason for conducting nursing research is
to:
A. Improve nursing care for clients
B. Promote the growth of the nursing profession
C. Document to cost effectiveness of nursing care
D. Ensure accountability of nursing practice
93. Which is you independent variable?
A. Job dissatisfaction
B. Job turnover rate
C. Job dissatisfaction and Job turnover rate
D. Length of employment
94. Which is your dependent variable?
A. Job dissatisfaction
B. Job turnover rate
C. Job dissatisfaction and job turnover rate
D. Length of employment
95. The type of hypothesis in this situation is classified
as:
A. Simple, Directional
B. Simple, Non Directional
C. Complex, Directional
D. Complex, Research
96. The problem that a researcher would like to give
emphasis “Is there a relationship between timing of the
administration of psychological support and feelings of
wellbeing among terminally ill patients”. The
appropriate null hypothesis for this problem is:
A. Feelings of wellbeing of terminally ill patients who
received psychological support is similar to the feelings
of wellbeing of those terminally ill patients who did
receive said psychological support.
B. There is no relationship between the timing of
administration of psychological support and feelings of
well-being among terminally ill patients
C. Factors are not appropriate to determine any
desired results
D. There is no relationship between the timing of the
administration of psychological support and feelings of
adequacy among terminally ill patients
97. In the above number, your dependent variable is:
A. Terminally ill patients
B. Feelings of wellbeing
C. Timing of psychological support
D. Time
98. In the recent technological innovations, which of 8. C. User surgical aseptic technique when
the following describe researches that are made to giving shunt care
improve and make human life easier? 9. C. Calcium Depletion
10. B. Strictly follow the hemodialysis schedule
A. Pure research 11. C. Infection
B. Applied research 12. B. To suppress the immune system
C. Basic research preventing rejection
D. Experimental research 13. A. For life
14. D. Increase Blood Glucose Level
99. After the researcher has determined and read 15. D. Elevated BUN and Creatinine
relevant literature, she has to: 16. A. Assess airway, breathing and circulation
17. A. 63%
A. Write down the review 18. C. Hypovolemic shock
B. Organized the relevant literature 19. C. Blisters and Edema
C. Analyze potential literature 20. C. Sodium loss
D. Integrate the review of literature 21. A. Lactated Ringers
22. A. 6 liters during the first 8 hours, 3 liters
100. The final product of review of related literature is: on the next 8 hours and another 3 liters on
another 8 hours.
A. Pool of related literature 23. B. Elevated hematocrit levels
B. Organized relevant literature 24. C. Hyperkalemia
C. Analyzed potential literature 25. C. Fluid status
D. Written review of literature 26. B. 1 week after menstruation begins
27. A. Inhibiting DNA Synthesis

Answers 28. C. An indicator that the client might

respond to tamoxifen
Here are the answers for the exam. Unfortunately, 29. C. Jackson Pratt Drain
rationales are not given. If you need clarifications or 30. A. Pain upon lying down
disputes, please direct them to the comments section 31. C. Improve Edema
and we’ll be glad to give you an explanation. 32. D. Arm edema on the operative arm
33. C. Atelectasis
1. D. Headache, deteriorating level of 34. B. To avoid the use of deodorant, powders
consciousness and twitching and creams on the day of the test
2. D. Vital signs and weight 35. B. Bargaining
3. C. Renal 36. A. BSE
4. B. Hyperkalemia 37. C. changes from previous self-
5. C. A peaked T wave examinations.
6. D. Hyperkalemia 38. C. The Size and Contour of the breast
7. C. Exsanguination
39. D. To balance and spread the breast tissue 67. D. Koplik’s spot
thus easing palpation 68. A. Maculopapular rash
40. A. 1,2,3 69. A Pneumonia and laryngotracheitis
41. A. Small abdomen 70. D. 9 months
42. D. Bone Marrow Aspiration 71. A. Boil foods that are not eaten by the
43. D. Use soft toothbrush patient
44. B. Anemia, Infection 72. B. Provides a high titer of antibodies
and Bleeding tendencies 73. C. Miss, Use a pick up forceps when picking
45. B. sit upright, leaning slightly forward. up those breads
46. B. Splint the patient’s chest while he 74. A. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
coughs 75. B. Provides antibodies that neutralize the
47. B. The antibiotics which would be most antigen
helpful 76. D. Antibody
48. D. Increase pulse and increase respiration 77. D. Vaccines collected from pooled blood of
49. B. Over activity that might lead to people and provide antibodies to variety of
exhaustion diseases
50. C. Maintain the usual exercise 78. D. Droplet infection
51. B. Vital Signs 79. A. Paralysis
52. B. NSS 80. D. Clarence, 9 year old student
53. B. An 18 gauge angiocatheter 81. A. Impaired gas exchange
54. B. Prepare the blood transfusion using a 82. A. Situational low self-esteem
microdrip tubingB. 20 83. D. Provide emotional support and pain
55. B. 20 relief.
56. A. Isotonic 84. A. Painless Hematuria
57. D. Fever and backache 85. D. Risk for injury
58. B. Stop the infusion, Assess the client, Send 86. D. Hoarseness of the voice
the remaining blood to the laboratory and 87. D. pain management.
call the physician 88. C. Third degree burn
59. B. 2 Hours 89. D. Discuss documenting his wishes in an
60. A. Stay with the client for the first 15 advance directive.
minutes of blood administration 90. A. “You seem angry. Would you like to talk
61. B. Cover the insertion site with petrolatum about it?”
gauze 91. A. Nursing research
62. A. Observe for intermittent bubbling in the 92. A. Improve nursing care for clients
water seal chamber 93. D. Length of employment
63. B. Fluctuation in the water seal chamber 94. C. Job dissatisfaction and Job turn over rate
64. C. Louder breath sounds on the right chest 95. C. Complex, Directional
65. B. Flail Chest 96. B. There is no relationship between the
66. A. Rubeola timing of administration of psychological
 support and feelings of well-being among
terminally ill patients
97. C. Timing of psychological support
98. B. Applied research
99. B. Organized the relevant literature
100. D. Written review of literature