18/07/2021 @® CODE-B Aakash Medical] IIT-JEE| Foundations Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623458 MM : 720 FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2021 time: 3.00 Hrs. Test -10 Topics covered : Mock Test for NEET (Complete Syllabus of class XI & XIl) | Instructions (i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle. (ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle. (ii) Dark only one cree for each entry, (iv) Dark te circle in the space provided only. (v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluld or any other rubbing material on Answer sheet, (vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score, CHEMISTRY Choose the correct answer 1. Two elements A and B combiné to form two | 4. In which of the following options, the order of compounds AB and AB:. If 0.2 mol. of AcB arrangement does not agree with the variation of weights 8.8 g and 0.1 mol of AzBs weighs 10.8 g, property indicated against it? then the atomic weights ofA and B respectively (1) N=C>B8e>B —(lonisaton enthalpy) (1) 2uand16u (2) t4uand teu (2) F>O>N>C —— (Electronegativty) (3) Muand12u (4) 16uand 14u (3) S*>Ch>K*> Mg (lonic radi) 2.200 mL of 0.1 M H:S01 and 300 mL of 0.2 M HCI (4) 0>S>Se>Te (Negative value of are mixed together. The molarity of H* in the electron gain enthalpy) resultant mixture is 5. The IUPAC official name of the element with 4) 02M (0 atomic number 106 is (2) 01M (1) Mendelevium (2) Dubnium (3) 002M (3) Seaborgium (4) Bohrium (4) 001M 6. Correct order of stability is. 3. The energy of the radiation whose wavelength is 66 nm, is (1) Np > NB > Np (1) 3x10 J (2) No >N5>N3 (2) 3x10J (3) Np = Nz > Ng (3) 1 10-85 ) NeoNp>Ne (4) 3x 10-5 (4) Ng>Nz>N3 (1)Test-10 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2021 7 10. " 12. 13. The hybridization of central atoms in GIFs, NHs and XeFs respectively are (1) sp, dsp?, sp? (2) sp°d, sp°, spc? (3) sp°, sp°, spt (4) sp*a, sp*, spc By what factor does the root mean square velocity of a gaseous molecule increases when the temperature (in Kelvin) is quadrupled? (1) 2 (2) 24 (3) 4 (4) 8 The pressure exerted by 56 g of Nz gas at 500 K in 8.21 L vessel is (1) 10 atm (2) 12.atm (3) atm (4) 4atm The enthalpy change for the following reaction HC = CH + 2He -» CHs~ CHs ill be Given bond energy data C=C = 897 kslmol C-H= 414 kilmol HH = 436 kuimol C=C =347 kulmol (1) 414 kJ/mol (2) 296 kJ/mol (3) =296 kalo! (4) 428 kslmol Which of the following reactions represents standard enthalpy of formation? (1) Ha(g) + a(g) + 2HI(g) (2) 2C0(g) + Ox(g) -» 2C0x9) (3) 2C4dlamond) + 3Hx(9) + 30,0) > CoHsOH()) (4) Ha(g) +5029) > H0() pH of saturated solution of Ca(OH)z is (Ksp of Ca(OH)2) = 4 x 10-4) (1) 12.3 119 (3) 10.7 (4) 13.3 For the reversible reaction, 2NHs(g) <2 Ne(g) + SHo(Q); AH = 925 Kd, the reaction shits in the forward direction by (1) Decreasing temperature (2) Addition of inert gas at constant volume (3) Addition of inert gas at constant pressure (4) Addition of catalyst 14. 15. 16. 17 18. 19, 20. Oxidation states of N in NzO, & in SO and Cr in CrOs respectively are (1) 2, +4, +6 (2) +1, 46,46 (3) +1, 46,43 (4) 42, 46,44 Percentage strength of 44,8 volume of HzO2 is (1) 16.4% (2) 13.6% (3) 17.2% (4) 12.1% ‘The ion which has the highest hydration enthalpy is a) ue (2) Nat @K (4) Ro Incorrect statement about silicones is (1) Water repelling in nature (2) Low thermal stability (3) High diloctric strength (4) Biocompatible During estimation of nitrogen present in an ‘organic compound by Kjeldahl's method, the ‘ammonia evolved from 0.7 g of the compound, neutralized 20 mL of 1M HzSOx. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is (1) 56% (2) 75% (3) 80% (4) 90% Consider the following resonating structures I I CH,=CH-C-H gS i GH,-cH=b-k g ul. 6H,-CH bn The correct order of stabilty is (1) > u> i> n> (@) > m>1 (4) >t Consider the following reactions, cu/523 K 100 aim OH, + Or MoO, ‘Aand B respectively are (1) HCHO, CH:OH (3) CHsOH, HCHO. (2) CHsCOOH, CH:OH (4) CHsOH, CHsCOOH (2)Final Test Si 24 22. 23, 24, 25. 26. for NEET-2021 Consider the following reaction sequence, ‘COONa (Major) ‘The major product (B) is ‘© 6 6 9 Excess of lead in drinking water can cause (1) Methemoglobinemia (2) Brown mottling of teeth (3) Damage in kidney (4) Laxative effect A metal crystallises with a bec lattice. If the edge. length of the unit cell is 440 pm, then the radius of the metal atoms is (1) 220.1 pm (2) 175.5 pm (3) 200 pm (4) 190.5 pm Incorrect statement among the following is (1) Frenkel defect is also called as dislocation defect (2) Interstitial defect increases the density of the substance (3) Vacancy defect can be shown by:non-ionic solids, (4) Schottky defect is shown by ionic substances in which there is a large difference in the size of the ions The van't Hoff factor ()) for a dilute aqueous solution of the strong electrolyte Ala(SOs)s is. 3 Qa (3) 35 4) 5 1 of anon electrolyte solute is dissolved in 200 g of benzene. If the elevation in boiling is, 0.259 K, then the molar mass of the solute is (Ke for benzene is 2.53 K kg mol") (1) 50g (2) 40g (8) 809 (4) 259 27. 28. 29, 30. 34 32, 33, 34, 36. Test-10 (Code-B) Given the standard electrode _ potentials, Z0#2n = -0.76 V, AP'IAI = ~1.66 V, Ca®'/Ca = 2.87 V, Na‘INa = ~2.71 V, Mg?/Mg = -2.36 V. ‘The correct order of reducing power of these metals is (1) Zn> Al> Mg > Na>Ca (2) Ca>Mg>Al>Zn>Na (3) Ca>Na>Mg>Al> Zn (4) Na>Ca>Mg>Al> Zn Half life period of a first order reaction is 34.65 minutes. The specific rate constant of the reaction is (1) 8 «10° mint (2) 1% 10 mi (3) 2% 107 mire (4) 2 102 minr* Which among the following is an example of foam? (1) Dust (2) Hair cream (3) Butter (4) Froth Zone refining is used for which of the following elements? (1) cu Ti (3) Ge (4) Ni ‘An ore of Zn among the following is (1) Haematite (2) Siderite (3) Malachite (4) Calamine Match the processes given in column! with the catalyst given in columr-Il and identify the correct code. Column-t Columnstt a. Deacon's process (i) V20s b. Contact process (ji) Rh gauge c. Ostwald's process (ii) FezOs d. Haber’s process (iv) CuCk. (1) (i, BG, (iv), AQ) (2) a(iv), BG, efi, AG) (3) afiv), BG), ct), ai) (4) afi), bE, ofv), ai) Maximum P-OH bonds are present in (1) HsPOs (2) HaPOs (3) HsP20s (4) HeP208 The element which has the highest enthalpy of atomisation is ti av (3) cr (4) Ma Which of the following lanthanoid ions is paramagnetic? (1) Ye (2) La (3) Ga (4) Lu @)Test-10 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2021 36. The IUPAC name of Ka[Cr(C20«)s] is (1) Potassium tioxalatochromium() (2) Potassium trioxalatochromate(||) (3) Potassium trioxalatochromium(|I|) (4) Potassium tioxalatochromate(I) Most acidic compound among the following is OH NO, (1) “o's (2) ‘© © Consider the -—_—following Dror Hoare ‘Aand B are 37. 38. 39. Consider the following reaction CHyCH,CN SERIE! ,q MO" 9 24000 (is CH,CH, (1) HDO=N-Ok No, CH.CH.. @ c= N= NH NO, No, H @ Ob Sc=n-ni-4O)-N0, CH,CH. a yee -NH-{O)-NO, reaction, sequence, 40. 4a 42, 43, 44, 45, ‘The compound which gives Tollen's test but does not gives Fehiling’s test is I (1) CH,-C-CH (2) CHscHO (3) HCOOH CHO (4) or Which of the following amines diazotization most easily? NH, NH, ) O (2) O No, OCH. NH, NH, (3) G (4) © a Nitrobenzene on reaction with zinc and NaOH in the presence of methanol gives (1) Hydrazobenzene (2). Antine (8) Azobenzene (4) Azoxybenzene Biodegradable polyamide among the following is (1) Buna-N (2) Nylon-2-Nylon-6 (3) Terylene (4) PHEV Non-reducing sugar among the following is (1) Matose (2) Glucose (3) Sucrose. (4) Lactose Bithionol is a/an (1) Antiseptic (2) Antiertity drug (@) Trangulizer (4) Antibiotic undergoes (4)for NEET-2021 Test-10 (Code-B) 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51 The dimensional formula for force couple is (1) [MT] (2) [LT (3) ML-T*] (4) (ML"T"] Two towns A and B are connected by a regular bus service from A to B in every 12 minutes. A man cycling with a speed of 20 km fr from B to ‘A meets buses at an interval of 4 minutes. With what speed (assumed constant) do the buses ply on the road? (1) 10 km 4 (2) 20km ht (3) 40 km 4 (4) 80 km ht A trolley car with a gun is moving along a straight line, if the bullet is fired with a muzzle velocity of 10 ms in the backward direction at an angle of 37° with the horizontal, then the velocity of the trolley for which the bullet comes out vertically upwards, is (1) 8 mis (2) 4mis (3) 10 mis (4) 6 mis Two particles P and Q are revolving on the two concentric circles in x-y planes with time periods. 2s and 6 s respectively in same sense of rotation. Time period of particle P with respect to Qwill be (1) 8s (2) 3s @)6s (4) 158 Two blocks of masses 1 kg and 2 kg are connected with an ideal spring of constant K Nim and placed at rest on smooth horizontal surface. If they are given velocities v m/s and 2v.mis as shown in the diagram, then the “maximum compression (in SI units) in the spring is sy pag tka oro]? ka wy off aw ve @ fz fe A particle of mass 1 kg is projected with a speed of 2 mis at an angle of 37° with the ground at {= 0. The angular momentum of the particle about the point of projection at t= 0.15 sis (1) 0.25 kg més-* (2) 0.36 kg més (3) 0.15 kg més-* (4) 0.18 kg ms 52. 53, 54, 55. 56. 87, A solid sphere of radius 1.26 m rotating with an angular speed of 5 radis is placed in a rough horizontal surface. If initial velocity of centre of sphere is zero, then velocity of centre of sphere after it starts pure roling is (1) 0.9 mis (2) 1.8 m/s (3) 36 mis (4) 42m/s A block attached to a string describes a vertical circle of radius 1 m. f block has a velocity rg at the highest point, then ratio of maximum and minimum tension in string is (13 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 1 A disc is moving on a rough horizontal surface. Disc is rolling with sliding. During this kind of mation of disc (1) Angular momentum about the centre of mass. is conserved (2) Total kinetic energy is conserved (3) Only” the conserved rotational kinetic energy is (4) The angular momentum about the point of contact with the surface is conserved Two point masses of mass m each are released from a very large separation. They start to move towards each other. The kinetic energy of one mass with respect to other when separation between them is r, will be 2 2 (n 200% (a) font r r Gm? Gm? oS 4) Se The Young's modulus of a material is three times its modulus of rigidity. Its Poisson's ratio is ama (2) -05 (3) 0.25 (4) 05 A capillary tube of length 8 cm is immersed 2 cm inside the water vertically then water rises up to 4 cm in the capillary. If the same tube is immersed 5 cm inside the water then water will rise in capillary up to a height of (1) 4em (2) 30m (3) Sem (4) 8om (5)Test-10 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2021 58. 59, 60. 61 62, 63, ‘A block of mass 1 kg is placed on a rough horizontal surface as shown below. if the coefficient of static friction between block and surface is 0.5, then the maximum contact force between block and surface will be [g = 10 m/s?) 1kg Lor (1) 10N (2) EN (3) 5¥5N (4) 10V5N A disc of radius 6 m is rotating with an uniform angular velocity of 2 rad/s performing horizontal circular motion. A coin placed on the disc is rotating with the disc without slipping. If coefficient between the coin and the disc is 0.4, then the maximum distance of the coin from the centre to rotate without slipping is (1) 25m (2) 1m @) 3m (4) 15m ‘A rod of length 50 cm has the temperature gradient 60° Gim. ifthe temperature of hotter end of the rod is 28°C, then the temperature of the colder end is (1) 58°C (2) -2°C (3) -58°C @) 2c In an adiabatic process, if pressure of a gasiis proportional to the square of its absolute temperature, then the ratio of molar specific heat at constant volume to that at constant pressure is «) @ 3 @) Two portions A and B of a vessel:having equal volumes have same gas at same pressure and at temperature To and 37» and they are separated by a pattiion. When the partition is removed, the gas mixes. The final temperature will be (4) 2 oe (2) 2% @ 2 2 ‘A block is performing simple harmonic motion. When the displacements from the stable equilibrium position are 5 om and 4 om, the corresponding velocities of the block are 8 cm/s and 10 emis. The time period of the block is (1) 1875 (2) 3.145 (3) 6.28 (4) 12.585 64, 65. 66. 67. 68, ‘tuning fork produces 6 beats per second when it is sounded with a stretched string A having tension of 25 kg wt. If same tuning fork is sounded with another identical string B having tension of 16 kg weight then number of beats remains same. The frequency of tuning fork is, (1) 60 Hz (2) 54 Hz (3) 66 Hz (4) 50 Hz A point charge of 1 uC Is placed at @ point A(t, 0, 0) m and another identical charge Is placed at B(0, 0, 1) m. The force between them is (1) 18 102N (2) 45% 10°N (3) 6109 N (4) 9*10°1N Two insulating sheets of area A each are charged to charge densities +0 respectively. if they form a parallel and -o plate capacitor then electrostatic force on positive sheet is Ac? @ 2Aa? Ac? 3 a) 22 @ = os A parallel plate capacitor of area A. Plate separation d and capacitance C is filled with two dielectric materials having dielectric constant 2K and 3K ag shown in the figure. Effective capacitance across the points A and B is 5 (1) 5K (2) 3Ko 2 4 3) 2ke () Ake @% @ 4 Two identical batteries each of emf 4 V and intemal resistanco 2.9 aro connected in series with an extemal resistor. The maximum power across the external resistor willbe (1) 4w (2) 2W a) aw (4) 16W (6)Final Test Si for NEET-2021 Test-10 (Code-B) 69. 70. nm 72. 73. 74, In a potentiometer experiment, if two colls are connected in series to support each other, the balance point is at 2 m and when calls are connected in series to oppose each other, the balance point is at 1m. The ratio of electromotive forces of two cells is, a4 (2) 2 @) 3 (4) 1 The sound level at a point is increased by 20 4B, By what factor is the pressure amplitude Increased? (1) 10 (2) 100 (3) 1000 (4) 20 A point source is emitting an electromagnetic wave with a certain frequency uniformly in all directions. If the wave is moving away from the source in same medium, then select incorrect option: (1) The speed of the wave is decreasing (2) The wavelength of the wave is decreasing (3) Frequency of wave remains constant (4) Option (1) and (2) ‘A bar magnet is kept parallel to the: earth's. magnetic field then number of neutral points obtained in the horizontal plane containing the bar magnet is, (1) Infinite 24 @) 2 (4) 4 A short dipole is at origin and directed towards positive x-axis. The electric field at a point A(0, a, O)is 2. The electric field at a point B(a, 0, 0) will be Me (2) 2E é @-§ (4) 26 Ata place, the dip angle is 30° when dip circle is in geographical meridian and the dip angle is found to be 45° when the dip circle is in a plane Perpendicular to the geographical meridian. The dip angle in magnetic meridian is () cot) @) ten"(3) (3) tan-¥(a) (4) cot"(4) 75. 76, 77. 78. 79) 80. at A train is moving with a speed of 20 mis from North to South on the rails which are separated by 2 m. If the vertical component of earth's magnetic fld at that place is 4 x 10, the emt induced across the axle of train is () tev (2) 32v (3) 08 mv (4) 16mv In Young's double slit experiment the intensity at a given point on screen is J, where the corresponding path difference is one-fourth of the wavelength of light. fis the maximum intensity, then select correct relation (1) 3 =4h @) 4h=h (3) 2h=h (4) h=2b In a transformer, primary and the secondary coils of a transformer have 20 and 200. tums respectively. the primary coi is connected to a battery of steady voltage of 4 vots. The voltage across the secondary col is () 25v av (3) 40 (4) Zero The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given’ by B<(100Vr T) sina « 10% t= 2.% 10%x). The average energy density of the wave is (1) 1.25407 Jim? (2) 2.5 * 10°? Jim? (3). 1.5 * 107 Jim? (4) 1.25 « 10°? Jim? The LC oscillation is similar to the mechanical oscilation ofa block attached to a spring, Then (1) Magnetic energy resembles to potential energy of spring (2) Capacitance resembles to inertial mass (8) Electrical energy resembles to kinetic energy of the block (4) Electrical energy resembles energy of spring to potential If parent nucleus 2X" emits two B positive particles, then for daughter nucleus atomic number is yz (2) 2-2 @ze1 (4) 242 Bohr's atomic model is applicable for (1) All atoms (2) Hydrogen atom only (3) All single electron species (4) Helium ion only mTest-10 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2021 82, 83, 84, 85, 86. 1 92, 93, In astronomical telescope, the focal length of the eyepiece and objective are 4 om and respectively, The tube length is 64.5 angular magnification is (1) 14 (2) 15 (3) 133 (4) 144 60 cm m, The ‘A proton and an alpha particle are accelerated from rest to the same accelerated voltage. The de-Broglie wavelength 4p and ie are in the ratio, (1) W241 (2) 2:4 (3) 22:4 (a) 4s4 The resistivity of a substance decreases with increase in temperature then the substan be ce may (1) Insulator (2) Semiconductor (3) Conductor (4) Both (1) and The output of an AND gate is connected the inputs of NOR gate. The combination as (1) NOT gate (2) AND gate (3) NOR gate (4) NAND gate’ @) to both will act Radiowave of constant amplitude can be, produced with (1) LeD (2) Oscillator (3) Reetifier (4) Logic gate detergent formulation in removing oily stait the laundry? (1) Celulases (2) Proteases (3) Lipases (4) Pectinases 87. Ina common base amplifier the phase difference between the input and output voltage is (1) Fra (2) mrad (3) Zero (4) Frad 88, The ionisation energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. The ionisation energy of a double ionised lithium atom will be (1) 13.6¢V (2) 40.8 ev (3) 1224eVv (4) 272ev 89. The image formed by an objective lens of compound microscope is (1) Virtual and enlarged (2) Real and diminished (3) Real and enlarged (4) Virtual and diminished 90. Sunlight is passing normally through a glass slab of thickness 8 mm with refractive index of 1.5 Time taken by light to pass through the slab is (1) 440-8 (2) 510-5 (3) 8x 10-"'s (414% 10-71 Which of the following chemi¢als are used in ins from How many intermediate hosts are required to complete the life cycle by the human trer Parasite, commonly called liver fluke? (1) Zero (2) One (3) Two (4) Three matode The mean annual precipitation in biomes like coniferous forest and tropical forest are and (il) Here (i) and (i) respectively would be (1) 360 em and 300 em (2) 150 cm — 450 cm and 50 cm — 150 em (3) 25 cm—75 cm and 50 m — 200 em (4) 50 cm— 250 cm and 150 cm — 450 cm 0) 94, Pusa sem-2 variety of flat bean which is resistant to insect pests was developed by (1) Mutation (2) Meristern culture (3) Protoplast fusion and embryo culture (4) Hybridisation and selection 95. The Roquefort cheese are ripened by (1) Propionibacterium species (2) Streptomyces species (3) Penicilium species (4) Monascus species 96. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the ecological pyramids? (1) The base of the pyramid represents the primary consumers (2) Pyramid of energy is always upright (3) In inverted pyramid of biomass, primary producer's biomass is much lower as compare to primary consumers (4) Pyramid of number can be upright, inverted on um shaped (8)97. 98, 99, 100. 101 102. al Test S for NEET-2021 ‘As per Rivet popper hypothesis, in an ecosystem major functions are driven by (1) Key species (2) Alion species (3) Humans (4) Extinct species Which of the following statements is correct? (1) Cel cycle is not a genetically controlled process (2) DNA replication occurs during interkinesis of meiosis, (3) Duplication of cell organelles occur during Gz phase only (4) RNA synthesis does not take place in interphase In which of the following stage, the microtubules. of spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosome? (1) Anaphase (2) Metaphase (3) Telophase (4) Prophase Which of the following Archaebacteria? (1) They are halophiles, methanogens as well as thermoacidophiles (2) Some are obligate anaerobes (3) They lack cell wall (4) They belong to domain Archaea of three domain system of classification Choose the correct match from the columns, is incorrect about Column! | [Column.l (Taxonomic (Organism)| | category) (1) |Wheat = Division Monocotyledonae (2) [Potato |— Order Sapindales (3) [cat — |Family Carnivore (4) [Dog |Family Canidae Marchantia shows all of the _ following characteristics, except (1) Divecious plant (2) Presence of archegonia (3) Antheridiophore is hidden inside the thallus (4) Asexual reproduction occurs by the formation of gemmae 103. 104. 105. 4106. 107. 108. Test-10 (Code-B) Choose the wrong match related to stored food in different groups of organisms (1) Green algae - Starch (2) Redalgae ———Floridean starch (3) Brown algae — Mannitol (4) Blue green algae — Paramylum starch Identify the characteristic of Cycas which is not present in Pinus. (1) Naked seed without fruit (2) Pollination by wind (3) They have coralloid roots that show symbiotic association with cyanobacteria (4) Branched stem with needle ike leaves Read the following statements and choose the ‘option which is true for them a. Simple diffusion in organisms is a siow process b. Gaseous exchange in plants occurs only by simple diffusion Facilitated diffusion requires transporters d. Facilitated diffusion shows uphill movement of molecules (1), a, bland ¢ are correct (2) bis incorrect (3) byeand d are correct, (4) Only dis correct Select the incorrect option w.rs. significance of transpiration, (1) Supplies water for photosynthesis (2) Keeps cells flaccid (3) Cools leaf surfaces (4) Creates transpiration pull Which of the following is not an autosomal Mendelian disorder? (1) Thalassemia (3) Colour blindness Select the correct match (2) Sickle cell anaemia (4) Cystic fibrosis (1) Flagella = Cyanobacteria (2) Water lily = Entomophily (3) Para-ascorbic — Inhibits seed acid dormancy (4) Root pressure — Breaks water column. in xylem ()Test-10 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2021 109. 110. a 112 113. 114. 115, Which of the following statements is incorrect? (1) RuBisCO shows affinity with CO» and O2 (2) RUBP is a five-carbon ketose sugar (3) PEPcase catalyses the CO» fixation in bundle sheath cells of Cs plants (4) During Cs cycle, PEP is regenerated in mesophyll cells, ‘Some plants requires exposure of light less than critical photoperiod for flowering. These plant groups are (1) Short day plants (2) Long day plants (3) Day-neutral plants (4) Only perennial plant Tricarboxylic acid cycle first elucidated by (1) Mitchel! (2) Embden (3) Munch (4) Hans Krebs How many H°, e and ATPs are required to’ synthesise the two molecules of NH» from one molecule of nitrogen in Nz-fixation? le] [ATP] (1) 4H BaP (2) 8H 16ATP (3) 18H" 16e- —16ATP. (4) HY 16e"—S2ATP For which of the following mineral elements in Plants, reservoir pool is atmosphere? (1) Potassium (2) Nitrogen (3) Phosphorus (4) tron The approximate life span of crow and crocodile are respectively (1) 5 years and 55 years (2) 10 years and 150 years (3) 15 years and 60 years (4) 100 years and 60 years Select the correct option w.r.t. the terms used to denote the bisexual condition in plants. (1) Homothallic and dioecious (2) Heterothallic and dioecious (3) Heterothallic and monoecious (4) Homothallic and monoecious 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121 ‘The T-S. of anther reveals that the anther is (1) Bilobed structure (2) Trigonal structure (3) Trisporangiate (4) Always with two sporangia Choose the wrong pollination (1) Nectar and pollen grains are the usual floral reward to the animals involved in pollination (2) The pollen grains are generally sticky in animal pollinated flowers (3) The pollen grains are generally non-sticky in anemophilous flowers. (4) Flowers that attract flies and beetles are odourless. Select the incorrect match w.rt. dicot embryo statement regarding (1) Radicle — Root tip (2) Plumule — Stem tip (3) Epicoty!_ — Cylindrical portion of cotyledon (4) Hypocoty!|- Cylindrical portion of embryonal axis Find the probability of occurrence of a progeny With BbIl genotype in the folowing Mendelian test cross’ BbLI = bbil 2 1 4 Qty 3 4 oF oF A linkage group is a linearly arranged group of linked genes present on a chromosome. Transiocations, a type of -_ chromosomal aberration, is defined as the (1) Exchange of genes between two homologous chromosomes (2) Exchange of genes between two different linkage groups (8) Crossing over between same linkage group (4) Rotation of a section of DNA within a chromosome Humans skin colour and Humans heights are controlled by (1) Asingle gene and two genes respectively (2) Three alleles of a gene and two alleles of a gene respectively (3) Environmental conditions only (4) Polygenes (10)al Test S for NEET-2021 Test-10 (Code-B) 122. 123. 124. 126. 126. 127. 128. A tall human male with feminine character, involving an extra X-chromosome is a case of (1) Down's syndrome (2) Tumer's syndrome (3) Klinefelter’s syndrome (4) Edward syndrome Which one of the following symbols and its representation used in human pedigree analysis is incorrect? (1) O=D. Marriage to close relatives, (2) OAD Parenticouple ©. _ Socios (4) & Parent with three affected offsprings Select the process which is/are energetically very expensive (1) Translation only: (2) Transcription and translation only (3) Replication only (4) All replication, transcription and translation The two aspects which are not the salient features of genetic code, is their being (1) Specific and universal (2) Degenerate and triplet (3) Non degenerate and overlapping (4) Universal and commaless nature By using radioactive thymidine who experimentally proved in eukaryote that the DNA in chromosome, replicate semi conservatively? (1) Cairns: (2) Taylor and colleagues (3) Meselson and stah! (4) Watson and Crick Human genome project has been called a mega project due to all, except (1) Huge cost estimated to be 9 billion us dollars (2) It solved ethical, legal and social issues (3) It has to identify and sequence a very large: number of base pairs (3 * 10° bp) (4) It required large number of scientists, technicians and supporting staffs. Select the incorrect match (1) Euchromatin - Loosely packed chromatin (2) Introns — Present only in mature mRNA (3) Ribozyme ~ A nucleic acid (4) lacy gene ~ Permeability of f-galactosides 129. 130. 131 182 133. 134, 135. Solection of pea plants by Mendel had the following contrasting traits that was considered in his experiment, except (1) Pediceliate and sessile flower (2) Round and wrinkled seed (3) Yellow and green seed colour (4) Green and yellow pod color How many of the following structures have single set of chromosome? Prothallus of Adiantum, Protonema of moss Archegonium of Cycas Synergid of egg apparatus @. Cotyledon of rice (1) Five (2) Four (3) Two (4) Three The root hairs are different from stem hairs in being (1) Multicetular in structure (2) Unicalular structures of root (3) Branched and stiff in nature (4), The unique feature to prevent water loss due totranspiration The anatomy of dicot stem reveals the presence of a b, c 4 (1) Scattered vascular bundles (2) Vascular bundles arranged in a ring (@) Sclerenchymatous hypodermis (4) Water containing cavity in vascular bundle The fruit of A develops from monocarpellary superior ovaries and mesocarp whereas endocarp is hard and stony. Here ‘A represents (1) Coconut (2) Apple (3) Mango (4) Strawberry Opposite phylotaxy is found in (1) Calotropis and Alstonia (2) Alstonia and guava (3) Guava and Calotropis (4) China rose and Mustard Identify the family to which the given floral formula belong is fibrous $key cies adeno (1) Uiiaceae (@) Brassicaceae (2) Solanaceae (4) Fabaceae (11)Test-0 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2021 136. Which of the following animals represents cellular a 5 ¢ ° tevel of body organisation? (1|orop- __[Sizzard- [Hepatic fapiohian (1) Seypha (2) Ancylostoma lrinding of fusedtor —feaocao- _fubulos- fcoa ltorage ot fsocrete exchange of (8) Hydra (4) Bombyx Jartctes food [ivestive juice fore 187- Complete the analogy (2i|cizzare-— |Croptorage|Hepatic —_faoighian Platyheiminthes : Triploblastic acoelomate : lansing of Jortood —fesacae- —_fubutes- Coelenterates fooa Jestonatezeton a (1) Triplobiastic coelomate (2)]Oesophagus Ores (Hepatic [alpighian (2) Diploblastic coelomate | conduction |arinding of feaecae- tubules (3) Diploblastic acoctomate [oteod food re ce ein gestive juice function (4) Radially symmetrical coelomate (#)|Crop-storage|Gizara- [Hepatic [apighian 138. All of the following are features of Arthropods lotood,fonnaing ot eaceae- fubcios- except fooa lsecrte excretory in (1) Organ system level of body organisation parices _[Hoestve vce Juncton 139. 140. 141 (2) Balancing organs are present in all insects called statocysts (3) Development may be direct or indirect (4) They are mostly dioecious ‘All of the following features are represented) by mammals except (1) Mammary glands (2) Body hairs (3) Ear pinna (4) Dorsal four chambered heart Select the mismatch w.r.t. scientific name of animals with their common names (1) Panthera leo = Lion (2) Omithorhynchus — Platypus (3) Scoliodon = Dog fish (4) Ichthyophis - Toad In following given figure identify A, 8, C and D. Choose the option which correctly represents their features 142 143 144. Read the following statements A and B and choose the option with correct answer Statement-A : On an average, female of cockroach produces 9-10 oothecae, each containing 14-16 eggs. Statement-B : The nymph grows by moulting about 13 times to reach the adult form. (1), Both statements A and B are correct, (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect, (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement B is correct Al of the following are secretion of exocrine glands except (1) Saliva (2) Earwax (3) Hormone (4) Mil Select the incorrect match (1) Epithet tissue ~ Calls are loosely arranged with large intercellular matrix (2) Connective ~ Most abundant and maximally tissue distributed in the body of complex animals (3) Muscular — Generally plays an active role in tissue movements of the body (4) Neural — Exerts the greatest control over, tissue the body's responsiveness to changing conditions (12)Final Test Si for NEET-2021 Test-10 (Code-B) 145. 148. 147. 148, 149, 150. Choose the correct statement (1) The matrix of bone is solid, pliable and resists ‘compression (2) Lacunae are present only in bones and not in cartilage (3) Bones interact with skeletal muscles not attached with them to bring about movements (4) Collagen fibres are present in both bones and cartilages Which of the following components of cell constitutes maximum percentage of total cellular mass? (1) Proteins (2) Water (3) Nucleic acids (4) Carbohydrates Match items given in Column-| with those in Column-II and choose the option with all correct match. Column-1 Columnelt a. Pigment (Morphine Alkaloid i) Insulin Hormone (li) Collagen’ d. Intercellular ground (jv) Anthocyanin substance (1) ati), BG), etl), Afiv) (2) aliv), BG), ei), Ai) (3) ativ), bai), ett), Ati) (4) afi), b«i), ct), tiv) In humans, the chemical process of digestion is, initiated in the (1) Buccal cavity (2) Stomach (3) Small intestine (4) Ocsophagus The ileo-caecal valve prevents back flow of (1) Food substances from small intestine into stomach (2) Food substances from caecum into colon (3) Faecal matter from caecum into colon (4) Faecal matter from caecum into ileum Respiration involves following steps (i) Pulmonary ventilation (i) Transport of gases by blood (ii) Difusion of O2 and COz between blood and tissues (iv) Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane (v) Cellular respiration ‘Arrange above steps in a correct order starting from breathing 1) (i, HC), WD 8) (Gd, 6. @ (2) (i), (iv), (id ili), (v) (4) (ii ii), , Civ), (v) 151 152 153. 154, 155. 156. 157. The volume of air which is left in lungs after normal expiration is (1) Expiratory capacity (2) Residual volume (3) Functional residual capacity (4) Vital capacity Which of the following blood cells constitute ‘minimum percentage of formed elements? (1) Enjthrocytes (2) Neutrophils (2) Basophils (4) Eosinophils Select the mismatch (1) Cardiac — Sequential event in heart which is cycle cyclically repeated (2) Stroke — 5000 mminute by each ventricle volume (3) LUB_— — Produced during initiation of ventricular systole (4) DUB. _— Produced due to closure of somilunar valves What percentage of cardiac output is filtered out by each kidney per minute? (1) 10 percent (2) 20 percent (3) 30 percent (4) 40 percent Choose the Incorrect statement (1) Neural mechanism causing micturition is called micturition reflex (2) The CNS passes on motor messages to initiate contraction of voluntary muscles of urinary bladder (3) Stretch receptors on the wall of urinary bladder after stretching send signals to CNS (4) An adutt human exoretes, on an average, 1 to 1.5 litres of urine per day In each meromyosin molecule, LMM represents (1) Head (2) Short arm (3) Cross arm (4) Tal Which one of the following type of synovial joints allow metacarpal of thumb to move freely more or less in all directions? (1) Gliding joint (3) Pivot joint (2) Ball and socket joint (4) Saddle joint (13)Test-10 (Code-B) Final Test Series for NEET-2021 158. 159. 160. 161 162. 163. Choose the wert Parkinson's disease \correct statement (1) Characterized by tremors and progressive rigidity of imbs (2) Degeneration of brain neurons that are involved in regulation of movement (3) It is caused due to deficiency of inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA (4) Neurons which degenerate are responsible for secretion of neurotransmitter, dopamine Read the following statements A and 8 and choose the correct answer Statement-A : All parts of hindbrain are included in brain stem Statement-B : In inner ear, membranous labyrinth is surrounded by endolymph (1) Both statements are incorrect (2) Both statements are correct (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement B is correct Which one of the following is an example of mixed/heterocrine gland? (1) Adrenal (2) Pancreas (3) Parathyroid (4) Thyroid Select the correct matching of a hormone, its source and function. Hormone Source Function (1) Oxytocin Posterior —_Stimillates the pituitary synthesis of milk in mammary glanc (2) Consol ‘Adrenal Causes hyperglycemia medulla (3) Insulin Islets of Enhances cellular Langerhans glucose uptake and its utilisation (4) Testosterone Thymus Regulates function of, male accessory sex organs Choose edd one w.rt, bacterial diseases in animals (1) Anthrax (2) Mastitis (3) Ranikhet disease (4) Pullorum Denaturation, annealing and extension are steps in each cycle of (1) Polymerase chain reaction (2) ELISA (3) Agarose gel electrophoresis (4) Downstream processing 164. 165. 166. 167 168. 169. In rDNA technology, during the process of Isolation of genetic material, purified DNA Is ultimately precipitates out after the addition of (1) toe (2) Calcium (3) Ethidium bromide (4) Chilled ethanol A transgenic food crop which may help in solving problem of night blindness in developing countries is (1) Flavr savr tomatoes (2) Bt brinjal (3) Btcotton (4) Golden rice Read following statements and choose the option with only incorrect statements a, Health can be defined as a state of complete physical, mental and social well being b. Cancer is an infectious disease and considered as major cause of death. ©. Pathogens cannot adapt within the host due to presence of barriers d. Infectious diseases are easily transmitted from one person to another (1) aandb (2) band (3) candd (4) aandd Entamoeba histolytica is a _A__ parasite in the B of humans which causes amoebiasis. Choose the option which fil the blanks A and B correctly A (1) Bacteria (2) Roundworm (3) Protozoan (4) Protozoan B ‘Small intestine Large intestine Large intestine Stomach Antigen binding site of immunoglobulin is consist of (1) Variable region of heavy chain only (2) Variable region of light chain only (3) Constant region of both light and heavy chain (4) Variable region of both heavy and light chain Morphine is a drug, obtained from (1) Latex of Papaver somniferum (2) Leaves of Cannabis sativa (3) Flowers of Datura (4) Fruits of Erythroxyium coca (14)al Test S for NEET-2021 Test-10 (Code-B) 170. in 172. 173. 174. 176. Match the following columns | and I! and choose the option with only correct match. Column-| Column-ll a. Charles Darwin (i) Malay Archipelago Wallace (i) H.M.S, Beagle cc. Industrial (ii) (pea? = 1 melanism d. Hardy-Weinberg (jv) Biston betularia principle (1) ai), BG), efi), div) 3) ati), BG, etiv), diy (2) atv), bei, ef), i) (4) ai, b¢v), (9, i) The first mammals were ike _A_. They were _B__ and protected their unborn young inside the mother's body. Choose the option which correctly represents A and 8 A (1) Monkeys (2) Platypus @) Platypus Viviparous (4) Shrews, Viviparous Placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf represent (1) Adaptive radiation (2) Homology (3) Divergent evolution (4) Convergent evolution Which of the following sets of diseases are completely curable if detected early and treated properly? (1) Hepattis-B, gonorrhoea, syphilis (2) Genital warts, chlamydiasis, syphilis (3) Genital herpes, HIV infection and hepatitis-B (4) Chlamydiasis, gonorthoea, AIDS Oral contraceptive pills do not (1) Inhibit ovulation and implantation (2) Alter the quality of cervical mucus (3) Possess progesterone-estrogen combination ‘or progesterone alone (4) Prevent the deposition of semen in vagina Estrous cycle is characteristic feature of (1) All mammats (2) Only primates (3) All mammals except human females (4) Mammalian females other than primates B Viviparous Oviparous a 176. 17 178 479. 180. Which of the following is a pre-fertlization event? (1) Gamete transfer (2) Syngamy (3) Release of 2" polar body (4) Embryogenesis Identify the statements as true(T) or false(F) and choose the correct option. a. Inhibin is produced by nurse cells in testes and mainly inhibits the secretion of LH LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase GnRH is switch on hormone for puberty in both male and female. In a normal pregnant woman, high level of circulating hCG is responsible for stimulating synthesis of oestrogen and progesterone from corpus luteum a b (1) Tue True (2) False (3) True (4) False Inhuman females, birth canal is formed by (1) Uterus and cervix (2) Only cervical canal (3) Uterus, cervix and vagina (4) Cervical canal and vagina Which of the following structures is not included in male sex accessory ducts? (1) Rete testis (2) Seminiferous tubules (3) Epididymis (4) Vas deferens Select the mismatch ° a False False False True True False True False Tue False True (1) Gametogenesis -— Formation of gametes (2) Insemination — Transfer of sperms into epididy (3) Implantation — Attachment of blastocyst into the uterine wall 4) = Delivery of the baby from mother’s womb (15)ALL RIGHTS RESERVED. All rights including copyright and.translation rights etc. reserved and vests ‘exclusively with AESL. No part ofthis publication may be reproduced, distributed, redistributed, copied or transmitted in any form or by any means-graphical, electronic or mechanical, methods including photocopying, recording, taping or stored on information retrieval systems of any nature or reproduced on any disc, tape, media, information storage device, without the prior written permission of AESL. 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