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1.

Sexual reproduction has an evolutionary advantage over asexual reproduction


because it
A) results in both males and females of a species.
B) is a more lengthy process.
C) promotes genetic variability to cope with changes in the environment.
D) is controlled by many hormonal mechanisms.
E) protects and nurtures the embryo.

2. Which of the following statements about asexual reproduction is false?


A) It occurs in some species of fishes, amphibians, and reptiles.
B) Asexually reproducing species tend to live in variable environments.
C) Asexually reproducing species tend to be sessile.
D) Asexually reproducing species tend to live in sparse populations.
E) One method of asexual reproduction is parthenogenesis.

3. What characteristic is shared by the processes of budding and regeneration?


A) Both can lead to the production of a new individual through mitotic growth.
B) Both use meiosis to replace lost tissue.
C) Both can lead to the production of a new individual through meiotic growth.
D) Both serve as a trigger for the sexual phase of reproduction.
E) Both occur only in the apical meristem of plants.

4. In the early 1900s, oyster fishermen cut starfish into pieces and threw them back
into the sea to kill predators of the oysters. This practice led to an explosion in
the starfish population because
A) other starfish ate the pieces and were able to increase their reproductive output.
B) several pieces from each original starfish regenerated into a new individual.
C) removing competition from the weak starfish that were caught allowed stronger
starfish to increase their reproductive output.
D) the oyster population grew in response to this new supply of food, allowing the
population of their predators to increase as well.
E) None of the above

5. Which of the following statements about asexual reproduction is false?


A) Cell division occurs only by mitosis.
B) Populations can grow until limited by resources.
C) Single individuals can produce offspring.
D) Genetic diversity in a population is generated in changing environments.
E) No energy expenditure is required for mating and fertilization.

6. Which of the following results in progeny that inherit all the characteristics of a

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single parent?
A) Copulation
B) Asexual reproduction
C) Gametogenesis
D) Sexual reproduction
E) Fertilization

7. Animal reproduction without sex


A) occurs by budding.
B) occurs by parthenogenesis.
C) occurs by regeneration.
D) is seen mostly in invertebrates.
E) All of the above

8. The sexual role played by an individual of the parthenogenic whiptail lizard


species
A) depends on its testosterone levels.
B) determines whether it will produce sperm.
C) depends on its current stage in the ovarian cycle.
D) determines whether it will fertilize its mate's eggs.
E) is determined at birth.

9. Which of the following is not a component of asexual reproduction?


A) Identical genetic makeup of parent and progeny
B) Fertilization
C) Parthenogenesis
D) Regeneration
E) Budding

10. Which of the following statements is true?


A) Asexual reproduction involves an inefficient use of resources.
B) Sexually reproducing species are found in relatively constant environments where
genetic diversity is relatively unimportant.
C) Because it is produced by meiosis, a bud is genetically distinct from the parent.
D) Only damaged tissues or lost limbs can be replaced by regeneration.
E) In some species, parthenogenesis requires sexual behavior, courtship displays, and
mating.

11. Parthenogenesis, or the development of offspring from unfertilized eggs,


A) is theoretically possible but has never been confirmed in nature
B) occurs only in fish.

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C) depends on cyclical hormonal states in whiptail lizards.
D) allows some species to produce only females.
E) Both c and d

12. The parthenogenic whiptail lizard species, Cnemidophorus uniparens, is


comprised of all females, yet they need stimulation from a male for ovulation to
occur. How then do they reproduce?
A) Females hybridize with males of a related species, but accept only some of the
chromosomes in the sperm.
B) Females that are the most fit become males temporarily, produce and transfer
sperm to other females, and then revert to being females.
C) The least fit females become males temporarily, produce and transfer sperm to
other females, and then revert to being female.
D) Females with high progesterone levels act like males, but they do not produce any
sperm.
E) Females with high estrogen levels act like males, but they do not produce any
sperm.

13. In male gametogenesis, the second meiotic division produces four haploid
A) germ cells.
B) primary spermatocytes.
C) secondary spermatocytes.
D) spermatids.
E) spermatogonia.

Use the following to answer questions 14-19:

Match the cell states listed below with the description of a cell in each question that follows.
Each item may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
a. Oogonia
b. Spermatogonia
c. Spermatid
d. Primary spermatocyte
e. Secondary spermatocyte

14. Initial products of germ cells in the female gonad

15. Initial products of germ cells of the male gonad

16. Cell resulting from the initial mitotic division of a spermatogonium

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17. First haploid germ cell produced in spermatogenesis

18. Cell resulting from the second meiotic division

19. The cell type that differentiates into a sperm cell at the end of spermatogenesis

20. Unlike spermatogenesis, oogenesis in humans


A) is continuous over the life of the woman.
B) begins prenatally.
C) produces four haploid gametes.
D) occurs at a rapid rate.
E) results in swimming cells.

Use the following to answer questions 21-25:

Match the cell stages listed below with the description of a cell in each question that follows.
Each item may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
a. Second polar body
b. Primary oocyte
c. Secondary oocyte
d. First polar body
e. Ootid

21. Stage during which the energy, raw materials, and RNA needed for the first cell
divisions after fertilization are acquired.

22. First essential haploid germ cell produced during oogenesis

23. Daughter cell to the secondary oocyte

24. Largest haploid cell resulting from second meiotic division of oogenesis

25. The cell type that differentiates into the mature ovum at the end of oogenesis

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26. The end result of spermatogenesis is the production of four haploid spermatids.
The end result of oogenesis is the production of
A) four haploid ootids.
B) two haploid ootids.
C) one diploid ootid.
D) two diploid ootids.
E) one haploid ootid.

27. Reproductive systems involving external fertilization are most common in


A) terrestrial animals.
B) populations with many more males than females.
C) animals that are aquatic.
D) animals that produce few gametes.
E) animals that are widely dispersed.

28. Which of the following statements about blocks to polyspermy in sea urchins is
false?
A) Blocks to polyspermy are triggered by fusion of the plasma membranes of the
sperm and egg and entry of the sperm into the egg.
B) Blocks to polyspermy prevent more than one sperm from entering an egg.
C) The fast block causes release of the acrosomal enzymes.
D) The fast block results from a change in electric-charge difference across the plasma
membrane of the egg.
E) The slow block results from the release of calcium.

29. Hermaphrodites are organisms that


A) possess both male and female reproductive systems.
B) breed for a time as one sex and then breed as the other.
C) develop offspring from unfertilized eggs.
D) usually fertilize themselves.
E) have abnormal reproductive organs.

30. The term “dioecious” refers to


A) patterns of inheritance.
B) circulatory physiology.
C) patterns of cleavage in developing embryos.
D) the evolutionary origin of species.
E) separate male and female reproductive systems.

31. Some species of mites and scorpions use indirect fertilization, excreting a
gelatinous container of sperm called a(n)

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A) spermatophore.
B) spermatogonium.
C) spermatid.
D) cloaca.
E) amplexus.

32. For reproductive purposes, a penis is necessary for


A) all male animals.
B) all organisms except for hermaphrodites.
C) species with external fertilization.
D) species with internal fertilization.
E) species in which courtship precedes mating.

33. Which of the following is the most likely advantage of hermaphroditism?


A) For a given species, every organism is a potential mate.
B) As compared to reproduction in dioecious species, simpler behavior patterns are
required for mate selection.
C) More rapid reproduction of genetically successful individuals is possible through
asexual reproduction as compared to sexual reproduction.
D) Complex hormonal control and feedback mechanisms are not required for
reproduction.
E) Both b and c

34. Generally, among vertebrates


A) cells are haploid during embryological development and become diploid at birth.
B) cells are diploid during embryological development and become haploid at birth.
C) cells are diploid during adult life and are haploid as a blastocyst.
D) only gametic cells are haploid.
E) only gametic cells are diploid.

35. With a few exceptions, mammals are


A) oviparous.
B) ovoviviparous.
C) viviparous.
D) multiparous.
E) marsupial.

36. Which of the following statements about mammals is false?


A) All mammals have internal fertilization.
B) Some species of mammals are oviparous.
C) The uterine cycles of most mammals do not involve menstruation.

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D) Some species of mammals are ovoviviparous.
E) All of the above are true; none is false.

37. Semen, which is the fluid matrix for sperm during emission and ejaculation,
contains all of the following except
A) seminal fluid from the seminal vesicles.
B) glucose to serve as an energy source for the sperm.
C) alkaline secretions from the prostate gland.
D) hormonelike substances called prostaglandins.
E) clotting enzymes.

38. In the testis, male sex hormones are produced by the


A) epididymis.
B) Leydig cells.
C) scrotum.
D) seminiferous tubules.
E) vas deferens.

39. After spermatogenesis, sperm cells are generally stored in the


A) spermatophore.
B) prostate gland.
C) vas deferens.
D) seminiferous tubule.
E) epididymis.

40. Which of the following is the correct order of the structures through which sperm
pass from the time they are produced to ejaculation?
A) Vas deferens, seminiferous tubules, epididymis, urethra
B) Epididymis, seminiferous tubules, vas deferens, urethra
C) Seminiferous tubules, vas deferens, epididymis, urethra
D) Seminiferous tubules, epididymis, vas deferens, urethra
E) Vas deferens, urethra, epididymis, seminiferous tubules

41. Which of the following anatomical features is shared in most mammals by both
the reproductive and excretory systems?
A) Prostate gland
B) Seminiferous tubules
C) Vas deferens
D) Urethra
E) Epididymis

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42. Which of the following is the physiological mechanism for erection of the penis
in human males?
A) Contraction of skeletal muscle
B) Engorgement of spongy tissue
C) Contraction of smooth muscles
D) Emission of glandular fluid
E) Accumulation of intercellular fluid

43. Which of the following statements about the prostate gland is false?
A) Secretions from the prostate gland are contained in semen.
B) Secretions from the prostate gland make the uterine environment more hospitable
to sperm.
C) Secretions from the prostate gland convert semen into a gelatinous mass.
D) The prostate gland surrounds the urethra as it leaves the bladder.
E) All of the above are true; none is false.

44. If the seminal vesicles in a human male are defective,


A) the man makes functional sperm but he is unable to ejaculate.
B) the man's sperm lack functional flagella.
C) the fluid needed to lubricate the man's urethra for easier sperm travel is defective.
D) the man's semen lacks the fructose fuel needed for the sperm to swim.
E) the man's Leydig cells do not make testosterone needed to stimulate
spermatogenesis.

45. If the hypothalamus in a human male does not produce GnRH in normal
amounts,
A) he makes functional sperm but is unable to ejaculate.
B) his sperm lack functional flagella.
C) the fluid needed to lubricate his urethra for sperm travel is defective.
D) his semen lacks the fructose fuel needed for the sperm to swim.
E) his Leydig cells do not make the testosterone needed to stimulate spermatogenesis.

46. The egg is propelled through the oviduct by means of


A) cilia on its surface.
B) its flagellum.
C) uterine contractions.
D) cilia lining the oviduct.
E) amoeboid motion.

47. The blastocyst normally implants within the

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A) vas deferens.
B) ovarian follicle tissue.
C) endometrium of the uterus.
D) myometrium of the vagina.
E) chorion.

48. Which of the following is the correct sequence of structures through which a
mammalian sperm passes before fertilizing an egg?
A) Uterus, vagina, cervix, oviduct, ovary
B) Vagina, cervix, uterus, oviduct
C) Oviduct, uterus, vagina, ovary, body cavity
D) Vagina, cervix, oviduct, uterus
E) Vagina, uterus, oviduct, body cavity

49. A human female has the largest number of primary oocytes in her ovaries
A) at birth.
B) just before puberty.
C) early in her fertile years.
D) midway through her fertile years.
E) at menopause.

50. At birth, a female has about one million primary oocytes in each ovary. During a
woman's fertile years, about _______ of these oocytes will mature completely
into eggs and be released at ovulation.
A) 100
B) 200
C) 300
D) 450
E) None of the above

51. If the egg is not fertilized following ovulation, the follicle cells
A) move with the egg into the oviduct.
B) degenerate.
C) develop into a corpus luteum.
D) stop secreting hormones.
E) begin to develop a new egg.

52. In the early half of the menstrual cycle, before ovulation, the steroid hormone at
its highest level in the blood is
A) estrogen.
B) follicle-stimulating hormone.

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C) luteinizing hormone.
D) progesterone.
E) testosterone.

53. Which of the following is the immediate trigger for ovulation and formation of
the corpus luteum?
A) A peak in estrogen
B) A peak in luteinizing hormone
C) A peak in progesterone
D) Presence of sperm in the reproductive tract
E) Readiness of the endometrial lining of the uterus

54. Progesterone and estrogen are hormones produced by the


A) anterior pituitary.
B) posterior pituitary.
C) Sertoli cells.
D) hypothalamus.
E) corpus luteum.

55. Which of the following describes the principal difference between menstrual and
estrus cycles?
A) The estrus cycle occurs if the female is fertilized, whereas the menstrual cycle
occurs if the female is not fertilized.
B) The menstrual cycle occurs if the female is fertilized, whereas the estrus cycle
occurs if the female is not fertilized.
C) The estrus cycle lacks menstruation.
D) The menstrual cycle occurs in mammals, whereas the estrus cycle occurs in birds.
E) Only the menstrual cycle is controlled by estrogen.

56. In comparison to females from other mammalian species, the human female
A) has fewer reproductive cycles per year.
B) reabsorbs the uterine lining following the completion of her uterine cycle.
C) must copulate in order to ovulate.
D) can be continuously sexually receptive.
E) has cycles that are under hormonal control.

57. The two pituitary gonadotropins that coordinate female reproductive events are
_______ and _______.
A) follicle-stimulating hormone; estrogen
B) estrogen; progesterone
C) follicle-stimulating hormone; progesterone

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D) luteinizing hormone; progesterone
E) luteinizing hormone; follicle-stimulating hormone

58. New follicles do not mature as long as the corpus luteum is maintained because
A) the hormones released from the corpus luteum inhibit gonadotropin release.
B) the hormones released from the corpus luteum inhibit ovarian secretion.
C) the ovary receives negative feedback from the endometrial lining of the uterus.
D) the ovary receives negative feedback as long as the egg is viable.
E) new follicle development depends upon the hormones released from the corpus
luteum.

59. The hormone that normally triggers mammalian ovulation is


A) progesterone.
B) follicle-stimulating hormone.
C) luteinizing hormone.
D) estrogen.
E) prolactin.

60. Pregnancy tests detect the presence of


A) luteinizing hormone.
B) follicle-stimulating hormone.
C) human chorionic gonadotropin.
D) estrogen.
E) progesterone.

61. Injections of which of the following hormones will induce labor in a pregnant
woman?
A) Estrogen
B) Human chorionic gonadotropin
C) Progesterone
D) Oxytocin
E) Prolactin

62. In the female sexual response, the structure that is most sensitive is the
A) breast.
B) clitoris.
C) labium.
D) uterus.
E) vagina.

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63. Which of the following represents the four phases of the human sexual response
in the correct order?
A) Excitement, refractory, plateau, orgasm
B) Plateau, excitement, orgasm, resolution
C) Plateau, excitement, refractory, orgasm
D) Excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution
E) Excitement, plateau, refractory, orgasm

64. Which of the following statements about human reproduction is false?


A) Women are most likely to be fertile from day 10 to day 20 of their ovarian cycle.
B) Ovulation can be detected by tracking the woman's body temperature.
C) An ovum remains viable for up to 36 hours after ovulation.
D) Sperm may survive for up to 6 days in the female reproductive tract.
E) All of the above are true; none is false.

65. Most methods of birth control focus on


A) preventing oogenesis.
B) preventing spermatogenesis.
C) preventing fertilization.
D) decreasing libido.
E) decreasing testosterone levels.

66. Spontaneous abortions


A) typically occur late in pregnancy.
B) nearly always follow a pregnancy that has been painful.
C) often occur before the woman even knows she is pregnant.
D) are another name for therapeutic abortions.
E) None of the above

67. Which of the following is the most effective form of birth control?
A) Vasectomy
B) Condom
C) Intrauterine device
D) Rhythm method
E) Birth control pill

68. Which method of contraception also helps prevent the spread of sexually
transmitted disease?
A) Diaphragm
B) Cervical cap
C) Condom

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D) IUD
E) Birth control pill

69. The contragestational pill RU-486 blocks _______ receptors.


A) luteinizing hormone
B) progesterone
C) estrogen
D) follicle-stimulating hormone
E) gonadotropin-releasing hormone

70. Which birth control method prevents ovulation?


A) Vasectomy
B) Intrauterine device
C) Condom
D) Rhythm method
E) Birth control pill

71. A vasectomy is a minor operation that involves removing a small section of the
_______ and tying off the loose ends.
A) epididymis
B) urethra
C) oviduct
D) vas deferens
E) seminiferous tubules

72. The intrauterine device is a means of birth control that prevents


A) ovulation.
B) fertilization.
C) implantation.
D) ejaculation.
E) sperm from reaching the egg.

73. Which of the following methods of contraception prevents the egg from entering
the uterus?
A) Coitus interruptus
B) Condom
C) RU-486
D) Diaphragm
E) Tubal ligation

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74. Which of the following contraceptive methods has a success rate greater than 95
percent?
A) Spermicidal jellies
B) Condoms
C) Diaphragms
D) Oral hormones (“the pill”)
E) All of the above

75. In which of the following procedures does fertilization occur within the female
reproductive tract?
A) In vitro fertilization
B) Artificial insemination
C) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
D) Both b and c
E) None of the above

76. _______ is a specialized type of asexual reproduction in which offspring develop from
unfertilized eggs.

77. Very early in the life of a new mammalian embryo, a population of cells arises during
the first few cell divisions. These special cells, called _______, ultimately end up in the
region of the developing gonads, where they become gametes.

78. The enzyme-containing cap at the front of the head of a sperm is called the _______.

79. In mammals, the species-specific mechanism by which egg and sperm recognize one
another is found in the _______.

80. The behavior that transfers sperm into the female's reproductive tract is _______.

81. Species with separate male and female members are called _______.

82. A major evolutionary step allowing the first reptiles to succeed on land was the
development of the _______.

83. As opposed to viviparous animals, _______ animals lay eggs in the environment, and
their offspring go through embryonic stages outside the body of the mother.

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84. The _______ of the human male contains sperm and secretions from bulbourethral
glands, seminal vesicles, and the prostate gland.

85. The uterus opens into the vagina at a muscular necklike region called the _______.

86. In humans, fertilization typically occurs when the egg is located in the _______.

87. A _______ consists of one egg cell and the surrounding ovarian cells.

88. The corpus luteum secretes the hormones _______ and _______.

89. Females of most mammals have a period of sexual receptivity called _______.

90. Following fertilization, human chorionic gonadotropin secreted by the _______ keeps
the corpus luteum functional.

91. The synthetic hormones in birth control pills cause suspension of the ovarian cycle,
which operates by means of feedback to the _______ and the _______.

92. During the _______ phase of a woman's sexual response, blood drains from the genitals.

93. The male sexual response includes a(n) _______ period following orgasm, during which
the male cannot achieve a full erection.

94. Spontaneous abortions, commonly called _______, may result from a chromosomal
abnormality or from a problem in the process of implantation.

95. A reproductive technology called _______, commonly used in the production of


livestock, involves placing sperm in the correct location in the female reproductive tract.

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Use the following to answer questions 96-97:

Refer to the diagram below of the human male reproductive system.

96. Based on the diagram, which of the following statements is true?


A) While exiting the male, sperm go from point 3 to point 4 to point 5 to point 6.
B) The structure shown at point 7 produces a neutralizing and lubricating solution.
C) The material shown at point 8 is muscle tissue that contracts to produce an
erection.
D) Sperm are stored in the structure at point 4.
E) Seminal fluids are produced by the structures at points 1 and 3.

97. Based on the diagram, which of the following statements is true?


A) The structure at point 2 is cut in a vasectomy.
B) The structure at point 3 is the epididymis.
C) The structure at point 2 joins the urethra behind the bladder.
D) The structure at point 6 contributes an alkaline fluid that makes up about 30 percent
of the volume of semen.

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E) All of the above

Use the following to answer questions 98-99:

Refer to the graph below, depicting the average blood concentrations of three circulating
hormones in 100 healthy adult women. Each hormone plays a role in regulating some aspect of
the ovarian and/or uterine cycle.

98. Based on the graph, which of the following statements is true?


A) Curve A represents estrogen levels.
B) Curve B represents progesterone levels.
C) Curve C represents a hormone secreted from the anterior pituitary gland.
D) Curve C represents a hormone that is produced by the corpus luteum.
E) Both a and d

99. Based on the graph, which of the following statements is true?


A) The hormone in curve A is a pituitary hormone.
B) The hormone in curve B stimulates ovulation.
C) The hormone is curve C stimulates growth of the follicle.
D) The hormone in curve A is produced by the follicle cells.
E) Both a and b

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Answer Key

1. C
2. B
3. A
4. B
5. D
6. B
7. E
8. C
9. B
10. E
11. E
12. D
13. D
14. a
15. b
16. d
17. e
18. c
19. c
20. B
21. b
22. c
23. a
24. e
25. e
26. E
27. C
28. C
29. A
30. E
31. A
32. D
33. A
34. D
35. C
36. D
37. B
38. B
39. E
40. D
41. D
42. B
43. E
44. D

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45. E
46. D
47. C
48. B
49. A
50. D
51. B
52. A
53. B
54. E
55. C
56. D
57. E
58. A
59. C
60. C
61. D
62. B
63. D
64. E
65. C
66. C
67. A
68. C
69. B
70. E
71. D
72. C
73. E
74. D
75. B
76. Parthenogenesis
77. germ cells
78. acrosome
79. zona pellucida
80. copulation
81. dioecious
82. amniote egg
83. oviparous
84. ejaculate (or semen)
85. cervix
86. oviduct
87. follicle
88. progesterone; estrogen
89. estrus
90. blastocyst (or embryo)

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91. anterior pituitary; hypothalamus
92. resolution
93. refractory
94. miscarriages
95. artificial insemination
96. B
97. E
98. D
99. E

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