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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PRESTORMINGTM TEST BOOKLET


T.B.C: P-SIA-D-UPGI GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER – I
Serial: 202101 POLITY - I
A
TEST – 1

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises
four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In
case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the
best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate.
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concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE
QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that question
will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO


1. A ‘person of Indian origin’ who has an 4. A democratic polity essentially signifies which
adequate knowledge of a language of the following?
specified in the Eight schedule to the
(a) Head of the state enjoys a hereditary
Indian Constitution can easily become
Citizen of India by which one of the position
following ways? (b) Head of the state is elected directly or

(a) By birth indirectly

(b) By descent (c) Supreme power rests with the people


(d) Limited government
(c) By Registration

(d) By Naturalization

5. Which of the following principles mentioned in

2. Which of the following parts of the the Preamble aims at overcoming hindrances
constitution does not contain any to national integration like communalism,
provision indicating that India is secular casteism, regionalism, etc.?
state?
(a) Social justice
(a) Preamble
(b) Fraternity
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Directive Principles (c) Liberty
(d) Fundamental Duties (d) Secularism

3. The Directive Principles of State Policy


6. Which of the following is/are the justiciable
provided in the constitution of India
rights provided under the constitution of
contains
India?
1. Goals and objectives that a society
should adopt 1. Right to maternity relief
2. Certain rights that individuals should 2. Right to information
enjoy apart from the Fundamental 3. Right to free legal aid to all
Rights
Select the correct answer using the codes given
3. Certain policies that the government
below.
should adopt
Select the correct answer using the codes (a) 1 and 2 only
given below (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

SIA-A-GKN (1-A)
7. Which one of the following statements is 3. Article 27 does not prohibit the state to
correct with reference to the right to education collect taxes for the promotion or
under the Article 21A of the Indian maintenance of all religions
Constitution? Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) This provision was added by the 84th
(a) 1 only
Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) It declares that the State shall provide free
(c) 1 and 3 only
and compulsory education to every child
(d) 1, 2 and 3
until he completes the age of 14 years.
(c) This provision makes only elementary
education a Fundamental Right 10. Consider the following statements
(d) It mandates 25% reservation for 1. Constitution empowers the Parliament and
disadvantaged sections of the society state legislatures to restrict or abrogate the
fundamental rights of the members of
8. Consider the following statements regarding armed forces

right against exploitation under the Indian 2. A law enacted under Article 33 can also

Constitution exclude the court martial from the writ


jurisdiction of both the Supreme Court and
1. The right under Article 23 is available to
the high courts
both citizens and non-citizens
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Article 24 does not prohibit the
correct?
employment of children below the age of 14
(a) 1 only
years in any harmless or innocent work
(b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2
correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
11. Consider the following statements
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. All the rights provided outside of the part
III of the constitution of India are non-
justiciable in nature
9. Which of the following statements is/are
2. Part III of the constitution of India contains
correct with reference to the right to freedom
more political rights than the social and
of religion under the Indian Constitution?
economic rights
1. Article 25 covers both religious beliefs and Which of the statements given above is/are
religious practices correct?
2. Article 25 guarantees collective freedom of (a) 1 only
religion, while Article 26 protects rights of (b) 2 only
individuals (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

SIA-A-GKN (2-A)
12. Which one of the following is not a Gandhian Which of the statements given above is/are
Principle provided in the Directive Principles of correct?
State Policy under the Constitution of India? (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(a) Organisation of village panchayats
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Promotion of cottage industries
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Uniform civil code
(d) Prohibition of the slaughter of cows
15. Consider following statements with reference
to the Schedules of Indian constitution
13. Which of the following statements is/are
1. Any provisions of the schedules of the
correct with reference to the reorganization of
Constitution of India can be amended by
states under the provisions of the
the simple majority of the Parliament
Constitution?
2. One of the first mentions of Schedules was
1. No Bill for the purposes can be introduced made in the Government of India Act, 1935
except on the recommendation of the Which of the statements given above is/are
President correct?
2. Parliament can increase the area of any (a) 1 only
state but cannot reduce it (b) 2 only

3. A bill for the purpose of reorganization of (c) Both 1 and 2


(d) Neither 1 nor 2
states can be introduced only in the Lok
Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given 16. Consider the following statements with

below. reference to the Article 20 of the Indian


Constitution
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. The immunity under the Article extends
(c) 1 and 3 only only against punishment by courts for a

(d) 1, 2 and 3 criminal offence under an ex-post-facto law


2. No person accused of any offence shall be
compelled to be a witness against himself
14. Consider the following statements with
3. Guarantee against double jeopardy under
reference to the Indian Constitution the Article also applicable to the
1. A Foreign territory acquired by India can departmental proceedings
be admitted to India only as a union Which of the statements given above is/are
territory. correct?
(a) 2 only
2. A territory separated from an existing state
(b) 1 and 3 only
can be reorganized into a full-fledged new
(c) 1 and 2 only
state.
(d) 1, 2 and 3

SIA-A-GKN (3-A)
17. Which among the following acts relaxed the 2. The official demand for a Constituent
central control over the provinces by assembly was made by Indian national
demarcating and separating the central and congress at the Lahore session of 1929.
provincial subjects?
3. The demand for a Constituent assembly
(a) Indian Councils Act of 1892 was for the first time accepted by British in
(b) Government of India Act 1909 the August offer of 1940.
(c) Government of India Act 1919 Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Government of India Act 1935 correct?

(a) 1 only
18. With reference to the Interim government
(b) 2 only
formed in 1946, consider the following
(c) 1 and 3 only
statements:
(d) 2 and 3 only
1. The members of the viceroy executive
council were the members of the interim
government. 20. Consider the following statements regarding
Tropical forest alliance(TFA):
2. Jawaharlal Nehru held the portfolio of
external affairs and Common wealth 1. It is a global public-private partnership
relations. dedicated to collaborative action to realize
sustainable rural development and better
3. Sardar Vallabhbhaipatel was designated
growth opportunities based on reduced
the Vice- president of the council.
deforestation and sustainable land use
Which of the statements given above is/are
management in tropical forest countries.
correct?
2. The secretariat of TFA is hosted by the
(a) 1 and 2 only World Economic Forum(WEF).
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. It was founded in 2015 at the Paris climate

(c) 1 only summit.

(d) 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are


correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only


19. Consider the following statements regarding
Constituent assembly: (b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only


1. M.N Roy was the first Indian to put forward
the idea of a Constituent assembly. (d) 1, 2 and 3

SIA-A-GKN (4-A)
21. In the context of recent changes made by 23. Recently, the K-4 missile was successfully test
Election commission in the Postal ballot fired by India. Consider the following
system, consider the following statements: statements regarding K-4:

1. The Person with disabilities and elderly 1. K-4 is a nuclear-capable short-range


above 80 years were made eligible to vote submarine-launched ballistic missile.
through postal ballot.
2. The missile is powered by Solid fuel
2. Under postal ballot system, Electronically
propellant.
Transmitted Postal Ballot Papers (ETPB)
3. The missile has a high delivery accuracy
are distributed to electors and returned
electronically. with Circular error probability of 40m or
less.
3. Service voters have the option of either
voting through postal ballot or through a Which of the statements given above is/are
proxy voter. correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 3 only


correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only
24. Which of the following is the most suitable

22. Consider the following statements regarding a argument to conclude that the authority of the

ethnic group which was in news recently: Constitution is higher than that of the
Parliament?
1. They are known to celebrate a five-day long
ritualistic festival named Lai Haroba. (a) The Constitution was framed before the
Parliament came into being.
2. They are the majority ethnic group of one
of the North eastern states. (b) The makers of the Constitution were more

3. They speak a Tibeto-Burman language, eminent leaders than the members of the

which is also included in the eighth Parliament.


schedule of the Constitution. (c) The Constitution cannot be amended by
Identify the ethnic group from the above given the Parliament.
information.
(d) The constitution determined how
(a) Kuki tribes. Parliament is to be formed and what are its
(b) Meitei Community power along with limitations.

(c) Mishmi tribe

(d) None of the above

SIA-A-GKN (5-A)
25. Arrange the following states in chronological Which of the statements are correct?
order of their formation:
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. Himachal Pradesh (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Telangana (c) 1 and 3 only
3. Goa (d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Maharashtra

Select the correct answer from the codes:


28. Consider the following statements:
(a) 4-3-1-2
1. The Parliament can prescribe residence
(b) 3-4-1-2
within a state or union territory as a
(c) 4-1-3-2
condition for certain employments.
(d) 1-3-4-2
2. The Constitution does not prohibit
discrimination on grounds of residence.

26. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are

1. In India, a naturalized citizen is eligible for correct?

the office of the President. (a) 1 only


2. In India, foreigners cannot vote in elections (b) 2 only
to Lok Sabha and state legislature, unlike (c) Both 1 and 2
Non Resident Indians, who are eligible to (d) Neither 1 nor 2
vote.

Which of the statements given above is/are


29. Which of the following statements regarding
correct?
fundamental duties is/are correct?
(a) 1 only 1. They imply that citizens are not mere
(b) 2 only
spectators but active participants in the
(c) Both 1 and 2
realization of national goals.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. They help in determining the
constitutional validity of a law.
3. They are enforceable by court of law.
27. Consider the following statements:

1. Unlike in Britain, Indian Parliament is not Select the correct answer using the codes

a sovereign body. given:

2. Unlike in USA, Indian judiciary is (a) 1 and 2 only


integrated. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Unlike USA, Indian federation is not the (c) 1 and 3 only
result of an agreement by the states. (d) 1, 2 and 3

SIA-A-GKN (6-A)
30. Consider the following statements: 32. Which of the following commissions/

1. The state can make provisions for the Committee is/are related to states
reorganization in India?
advancement of socially and educationally
backward classes even in unaided private 1. Dhar commission
educational institutions. 2. JVP commission
2. The state cannot make provisions for the
3. Balwant Rai Mehta committee
advancement of socially and educationally
backward classes in minority educational 4. Fazl Ali commission

institutions. Select the correct answer using the code given

Which of the statements given above is/are below.

correct? (a) 1 and 3 only

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only


(b) 2 only
(c) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

33. Recently, IMD decided to revise the normal


31. Which of the following words of the preamble
onset and withdrawal dates for the monsoon
describe the nature of Indian state?
in India. In this context, arrange the following
1. Sovereign
places in India in correct chronological order
2. Secular of the onset of South west monsoon(date on
which monsoon reaches there):
3. Liberty
1. Guwahati
4. Democratic
2. Ahmedabad
5. Fraternity
3. Surat
Select the correct answer using the code given
below. 4. Jaipur

(a) 1,2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(a) 1-3-2-4
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(b) 1-2-3-4
(d) 3,4 and 5 only
(c) 2-3-4-1

(d) 1-4-2-3

SIA-A-GKN (7-A)
34. ‘Bio rock technology’, sometimes seen in the 37. The government announced the setting up of
news , is related to which of the following? the New ,Emerging and Strategic Technologies
(a) Preventing Eutrophication of lakes. (NEST) division. In this context, consider the
following statements:
(b) Coral restoration by calcium carbonate
formation 1. The NEST division has been created under
(c) Artificial weathering of rocks the Ministry of Science and technology.

(d) Promoting inland fishery 2. It will help in collaboration with foreign


partners in the field of 5G and artificial
intelligence.
35. Consider the following statements regarding
Polycrack technology, seen in news recently: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. It is the world’s very first patented correct?
heterogeneous catalytic process which
(a) 1 only
converts multiple feedstocks into
hydrocarbon liquid fuels, gas, carbon as (b) 2 only
well as water. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. The process is a closed loop system and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
does not emit any hazardous pollutants
into the atmosphere.

3. The technology was recently used by 38. The third schedule of the Indian constitution
Indian Railway to construct the country's contains forms of oaths or affirmations for
first government Waste to Energy Plant in certain offices. Which of the following
Bhubaneswar, Orissa. Constitutional offices are mentioned there?
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Office of president.
correct?
2. The Union ministers
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only 3. The judges of Supreme court

(c) 1 only 4. The CAG of India

(d) 1, 2 and 3 5. Office of Governor.

Select the correct answer using the code given


36. Which of the following terms means existence below.
of more than one level of government in the
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
country?
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) Unitary
(b) Federalism (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Republic
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) Sovereign

SIA-A-GKN (8-A)
39. Article 1 of the Indian constitution describes Which of the statements given above is/are
India as a ‘union of states’. What is/are the correct?
implications of this expression?
(a) 1 only
1. Indian federation is not a result of (b) 2 only
agreement among the states. (c) Both 1 and 2

2. States do not have Territorial Integrity. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Select the correct answer using the code given


42. Under which of the following circumstances
below.
can the Habeas Corpus not be issued?
(a) 1 only
1. Against private individuals
(b) 2 only 2. When the detention is lawful

(c) Both 1 and 2 3. When the detention is by a competent


court
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
40. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. The fundamental right against exploitation
(b) 2 and 3 only
also mandates the State to impose
(c) 1 and 3 only
compulsory service for public purposes.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. When imposing such service, the state can
make discriminations on grounds of
43. Consider the following statements
gender.
1. The Indian Council Act of 1909 allowed the
Which of the statements given above is/are
members of the legislative council to
correct?
discuss the foreign policy
(a) 1 only
2. The Government of India Act 1919
(b) 2 only
introduced the universal franchise for the
(c) Both 1 and 2
first time in India
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. The Government of India Act 1935
extended separate electorates for

41. Consider the following statements: scheduled castes, Women and Labours
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. The Constituent Assembly did not consist
correct?
of members from the Muslim League.
(a) 3 only
2. The Constituent Assembly is the first
(b) 2 and 3 only
Parliament of free India.
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

SIA-A-GKN (9-A)
44. Which one of the following statements is not 46. India’s first underwater Metro will be launched
correct with reference to the Preamble? in which of the following cities?

(a) Preamble is a part of constitution and can (a) Kolkata


be amended under article 368 (b) Chennai
(b) Preamble indicates basic structure of the
(c) Mumbai
constitution
(c) It declares the rights and freedoms (d) Visakhapatnam

intended for its people


(d) The Preamble of the constitution was
47. Who among the following national leaders was
enacted before the constitution was
not a part of the constituent assembly?
enacted
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
45. The Ministry of Environment Forest & Climate
(c) BR Ambedkar
Change (MoEFCC) has released the
(d) JB Kriplani
Enforcement & Monitoring Guidelines for
Sand Mining (EMGSM-2020). In this regard,
consider the following statements about Sand 48. Identify the Not correctly matched pairs:
Mining:
Space Telescope Wavelength region
1. Sand is a major mineral defined under 1. Spitzer Space - Infrared region
Mines and Minerals (Development and Telescope -
Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act). 2. Chandra - Gamma ray region
2. Control of illegal mining is under the Observatory
legislative and administrative jurisdiction 3. James Webb - - X- ray region
of state governments. Telescope

3. No riverbed mining operation allowed in Select the correct answer using the code given
the monsoon period as per the guideline. below.

Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 2 only


correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

SIA-A-GKN (10-A)
49. Which of the following is the correct definition Which of the statements given above is/are
of the term ‘ploonets’, recently in news? correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) These are earth-like planets found in other
(b) 2 only
solar systems in other galaxies.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) These are moons that have escaped the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
bonds of their planets.
(c) These are celestial bodies that revolve
around a star but are smaller in size than 52. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Indian Constitution
the average planet.
(d) These are satellites of planets that have 1. It provides mutual exclusion of state and

similar conditions as the planets religion in order to protect individual

themselves. freedom
2. It provided for the concept of asymmetric
federalism
50. Which of the following statements regarding
3. It encourages equal respect between
Gravitational Waves is not correct?
communities
(a) These are ripples caused in the space-time Which of the statements given above is/are
continuum caused by violent, energetic correct?
processes. (a) 1 only
(b) Events that are not very violent, involving (b) 2 and 3 only
bodies of lesser mass and densities can (c) 1 and 2 only
also generate gravitational waves, but they (d) 1, 2 and 3

are too weak to be detected.


(c) Gravitational waves can be detected and 53. Consider the following statements with
studied through space telescopes. reference to the fundamental rights of the
(d) Gravitational waves can help to study and Indian Constitution
understand the origin of the universe. 1. A fundamental right may only be changed
by amending the Constitution itself

51. The term 'Sovereign' in the Preamble of the 2. Fundamental rights are not absolute rights

Indian Constitution indicates that Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1. People have supreme right to make
(a) 1 only
decisions on internal as well as external
(b) 2 only
matters
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. No external power can dictate the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
government of India.

SIA-A-GKN (11-A)
54. Which principle among the following was not Which of the statements given above is/are
added to the Directive Principles of State Policy correct?
by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Secure opportunities for healthy
(b) 2 and 3 only
development of children
(b) Minimise inequalities in income, status, (c) 3 only
facilities and opportunities
(d) 1,2 and 3
(c) Improve the environment and to safeguard
forests and wild life
(d) Promote equal justice and to provide free
57. Which of the following rights are available only
legal aid
to citizens of India and not to aliens?

1. Right to life and personal liberty.


55. With reference to the Constitution of India,
consider the following 2. Right to freedom speech and expression

1. Fundamental Rights 3. Right to vote in elections


2. Fundamental Duties
4. Right to contest elections
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the above provisions of the 5. Right to equality before law
Constitution of India is/are aided by the
Select the correct answer using the code given
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
below.
Guarantee Scheme launched by the
Government of India? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

56. Consider the following statements:


58. Which one of the following writs shall be issued
1. ‘Union of India’ is a wider expression than
when the court finds that a particular office
‘territory of India’.
holder is not doing legal duty?
2. Union of India includes territories of the
(a) Certiorari
states, Union territories as well as
territories acquired by Indian government. (b) Quo Warranto
(c) Mandamus
3. The laws made for acquisition of a foreign
territory by Parliament are not to be (d) Prohibition

considered as an amendment of the


constitution under article 368.

SIA-A-GKN (12-A)
59. Consider the following statements with respect 61. Consider the following statements with
to Overseas citizen of India(OCI): reference to the Constitutional provisions
related to the citizenship
1. The registered Overseas Citizens of India
shall not be entitled to the rights conferred 1. It extensively deals with the problem of
on a citizen of India under article 16 of the acquisition or loss of citizenship
Constitution with regard to equality of subsequent to its commencement
opportunity in matters of public 2. It prescribes only three ways of losing
employment. citizenship
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. OCI cardholders are exempted from
correct?
registration with foreigners regional
(a) 1 only
registration officer(FRRO) for any length of
(b) 2 only
stay in India.
(c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?

(a) 1 only 62. Consider the following statements

(b) 2 only 1. Constitution does not say anything about

(c) Both 1 and 2 enforcing fundamental duties


2. The inclusion of fundamental duties has
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
not changed the status of our fundamental
rights
60. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above is/are
reference to the cultural and educational correct?
rights under the Article 29 of the Constitution (a) 1 only
of India? (b) 2 only

1. It grants protection to religious, linguistic (c) Both 1 and 2

and ethnic minorities (d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. It is applicable to all the citizens residing


63. Though ‘right to livelihood’ is not a
any part of the India
fundamental right explicitly mentioned in Part
Which of the statements given above is/are
III of the Constitution of India, it is an implicit
correct?
fundamental right under the
(a) 1 only
(a) Article 14
(b) 2 only
(b) Article 19
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Article 21
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Article 24

SIA-A-GKN (13-A)
64. Consider the following statements Which of the statements given above is/are not

1. Fundamental Rights cannot be limited correct?

even for purposes of implementing (a) 1 only

Directive Principles under any (b) 2 only

circumstances. (c) Both 1 and 2

2. Fundamental Rights restrain the (d) Neither 1 nor 2

government from doing certain things


while Directive Principles exhort the 67. Consider the following statements with
government to do certain things. reference to the Article 13 of the Indian
Which of the statements given above is/are Constitution
correct? 1. It expressively provides for the doctrine of
(a) 1 only judicial review
(b) 2 only 2. The term ‘law’ in the article does not
(c) Both 1 and 2 include non-legislative sources of law, that
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is, custom or usage having the force of law
Which of the statements given above is/are
65. Consider the following statements with correct?
reference to the right to property under the (a) 1 only
Indian Constitution (b) 2 only

1. Right to property is part of the basic (c) Both 1 and 2

structure of the Constitution (d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. Right to property is a constitutional as well


as a fundamental rights 68. Which one of the following statements is not
Which of the statements given above is/are correct with reference to the Article 14 of the
correct? Constitution of India?
(a) 1 only (a) It provides for both Equality before Law
(b) 2 only and Equal Protection of Laws
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) It does not apply where equals and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 unequals are treated differently
(c) It forbids even reasonable classification of
66. Consider the following statements persons, objects and transactions
(d) ‘Rule of Law’ as embodied in article is a
1. All the fundamental rights are available
‘basic feature’ of the constitution
against the arbitrary action of the state as
well as private individuals
2. Fundamental Rights cannot be restricted
while martial law is in force in any area

SIA-A-GKN (14-A)
69. With reference to citizenship amendment act 71. ‘Absence of arbitrary power’ is implicit in
2019, consider the following statements: which of the following constitutional
principles?
1. The act makes certain classes of illegal
migrants from three countries- Pakistan, 1. Rule of law
Afghanistan and Bangladesh- eligible to 2. Equality before law
apply for citizenship of India.
3. Equal protection of law
2. The specified classes of illegal migrants can
Select the correct answer using the code given
avail the relaxed norms of citizenship
below.
under the registration route.
(a) 1 only
3. The amended act is applicable across the
country. (b) 2 and 3 only

Which of the above given statements is/are not (c) 1 and 2 only

correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only 72. With reference to the right given by the

(c) 3 only Constitution of India, freedom of movement


out of the country is a fundamental right
(d) 1 and 3 only
provided by

(a) Article 19
70. Consider the following statements with regard
(b) Article 21
to Article 13 of the Indian Constitution:
(c) Article 14
1. Article 13 provides for the doctrine of
judicial review available only to the (d) None of these

supreme court and high court of India.

2. Any law including a constitutional 73. ‘Digital Sky Platform’, sometimes seen in the
amendment act which is inconsistent with news, is related to which of the following?
any of the fundamental rights shall be (a) Drone regulation in India
declared null and void.
(b) Space based internet
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Air traffic management
correct?
(d) Satellite communication management.
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

SIA-A-GKN (15-A)
74. With respect to preventive detention, consider 76. United Nations Convention for the Law of the
the following statements: Sea (UNCLOS) is an international treaty which
was adopted and signed in 1982. Which of the
1. Only Parliament has the exclusive power to
following institutions were created by this
make laws on preventive detention under
convention?
article 22 of the constitution.
1. International seabed authority.
2. The maximum period of detention cannot
exceed 120 days unless an advisory board 2. International tribunal for the law of seas.

recommends for extension of detention 3. International Whaling commission.


period. 4. Commission on the Limits of the
3. The protection against preventive Continental Shelf.
detention under article 22 is available to Select the correct answer using the code given
both citizens as well as non- citizens. below.

Which of the statements given above is/are not (a) 1 and 3 only
correct ?
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
77. With reference to National Company Law
(d) 3 only
Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT), consider the
following statements:

75. Consider the following statements 1. NCLAT was constituted under Insolvency

1. The term ‘untouchability’ has not been and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016.

defined in the Constitution. 2. It is the appellate tribunal against the


2. Article 17 of the Indian Constitution also orders passed by NCLT as well as
covers social boycott of a few individuals or Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
their exclusion from religious services (IBBI).

Which of the statements given above is/are 3. It derives its appellate powers both from
correct? Companies act, 2013 as well as IBC, 2016.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

SIA-A-GKN (16-A)
78. Consider the following pairs: 80. ‘Blue dot network’ ,sometimes seen in news, is

Folk arts./festivals State related to which of the following fields?

1. Kaksar folk dance - Orissa (a) Infrastructure development.

2. Bathukamma Festival - Telangana (b) Plastic pollution in Oceans.

3. Bhortal Nritya - Arunachal (c) Blockchain technology development

Pradesh (d) Intellectual property rights.

4. Gramiya Kalai - Tamil Nadu

Which of the above given pairs is/are correctly 81. Consider the following statements:
matched?
1. Mandamus can be issued against judicial
(a) 1 and 2 only bodies.

(b) 1 and 3 only 2. Prohibition cannot be issued against


legislative bodies.
(c) 2 and 4 only
3. Certiorari can be issued against
(d) 1 and 4 only
administrative authorities.

Which of the statements given above is/are


79. With reference to reservation policy in India, correct?
consider the following statements:
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. Reservation in appointments to
(b) 2 and 3 only
government jobs is available only to
(c) 1 and 3 only
Scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Reservation in matters of promotions is
available to all the backward classes which
are not adequately represented according 82. Consider the following statements regarding
to the state. Directive Principles:

3. Reservation in appointments and 1. They facilitate continuity in government


promotions under articles 16(4) and 16(4A) policies.
of the Constitution is not a fundamental 2. They provide for social and economic
right. rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 3 only (b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2


(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

SIA-A-GKN (17-A)
83. Conservation of wildlife and nature is an Which of the above given statements is/are
important part of which of the following parts correct?
of the constitution? (a) 1 only
1. Fundamental Duties (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Fundamental Rights (c) 1 and 2 only
3. Directive Principles
(d) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
86. Which of the following can be identified as the
(a) 1 and 2 only purpose(s) of a Constitution?
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Lays out ideals that form the basis of the
(c) 1 and 3 only country
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. To define the nature of the country’s
political system
3. To save the citizens from themselves
84. Which of the following acts for the first time
Select the correct answer using the codes
gave recognition to ‘Portfolio System’ in the
given:
Indian politico- administrative system?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Government of India act of 1858
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Indian councils act of 1861 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Indian council act of 1892

(d) Government of India act of 1919


87. Consider the following statements regarding
the Presidential form of government:
85. Consider the following statements: 1. The executive is not accountable to the
1. The Indian council act of 1861 made a legislature.

beginning of representative institutions by 2. The doctrine of separation of powers is a


characteristic feature of this form of
associating Indians with the law making
government.
process.
3. There is a separate head of State and head
2. ‘Dyarchy’ and ‘Bicameralism’ were of government.
introduced for the first time by Morley- Select the correct answer using the codes
Minto reforms of 1909. given:

3. System of communal representation for (a) 2 only


Muslims was introduced by Government of (b) 2 and 3 only
India act of 1919. (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

SIA-A-GKN (18-A)
88. Consider the following statements: 90. Consider the following statements:

1. The power of the Parliament to abrogate 1. Not all provisions in part III of the
the fundamental rights of members of constitution are in the nature of rights
armed forces cannot be challenged in any available to citizens against the state.
court.
2. Reservation in educational institutions
2. The power of the Parliament to abrogate
and public employment is a fundamental
the fundamental rights of members of
right.
armed forces also includes non-
combatants. 3. Rights provided in part III are fundamental

Which of the statements given above is/are as they cannot be amended by ordinary

correct? law of the parliament.

(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are

(b) 2 only correct?


(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only
89. Which of the following is/are correct regarding
(d) 1 and 3 only
rights?

1. Rights provide protection against arbitrary


action of the state. 91. Which of the following is/are defined in the

2. Rights are a source of self-respect and Constitution?


dignity 1. Religious Minorities
3. Rights are necessary for an individual’s
2. Martial Law
wellbeing
3. Linguistic Minorities
4. Rights primarily helps individuals develop
Select the correct answer using the code given
their talents
below.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below. (a) 1 only

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) None of the Above

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

SIA-A-GKN (19-A)
92. Which of the following is not the correct 94. Consider the following statements about
justification for making directive principles ‘microgravity’ that was in news recently:

non- justiciable and legally non- enforceable? 1. Microgravity is the condition in which
there is absence of gravity.
(a) The constitution makers had faith in the
2. Astronauts in a space station float because
awakened public opinion rather than court
of absence of gravity in space.
procedures for fulfillment of these
3. Microgravity conditions can be created on
principles.
Earth to train the astronauts.
(b) The directive principles were considered
Which of the statements given above is/are
less important than the fundamental
correct?
rights at the time of constitution making.
(a) 1 only
(c) The country did not have the financial
(b) 3 only
where with all to fulfill the promises made (c) 1 and 3 only
under DPSPs. (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) The vast diversity and backwardness on
the country would create hindrance in the
95. Consider the following statements:
effective implementation of the directives.
1. Neutrinos are formed as a result of
radioactive decay.
93. Which of the following rights can be classified 2. Neutrinos are harmful to humans and
as constitutional rights or non- fundamental other living beings.
rights in India? 3. Neutrinos are not affected by magnetic
fields or gravity.
1. Right to property.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Right to vote in loksabha elections.
correct?
3. Right to trade, commerce and intercourse
(a) 2 only
throughout the territory of India.
(b) 3 only
4. Right to constitutional remedies. (c) 1 and 3 only

Select the correct answer using the code given (d) 1, 2 and 3

below.

(a) 1 and 2 only 96. The Copernicus Programme that was in news
recently is related to which of the following?
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) Probe to outer space
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) Study of the gas giants
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) Study of Jupiter’s moons
(d) Earth observation

SIA-A-GKN (20-A)
97. Consider the following statements with respect 3. It is listed in Schedule I of Wildlife
to National Commission for Minority (Protection) Act, 1972.
Educational Institutions (NCMEI) :
4. Recently, the Madhyapradesh Government
1. It is a quasi judicial body mandated to achieved the first-ever successful radio-
regulate the certification of minority tagging of the Indian pangolin.
educational institutions all over India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Linguistic minorities are outside the correct?
purview of NCMEI.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
3. The commission can certify a MEI but does (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
not have the power to cancel the minority
(c) 2,3 and 4 only
status granted to institutions.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only 100. Consider the following statements:

(b) 1 only 1. India is the largest consumer of Crude and


largest exporter of refined oil products.
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. Import dependence of India on natural gas
(d) 1, 2 and 3
is lesser when compared to Crude oil.

3. Saudi Arabia was the largest oil Exporter


98. ‘Global Terrorism Index’ is released by which to India in the fiscal year 2019-20.
of the following organizations?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Economic Intelligence Unit correct?
(b) Transparency International
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) World Economic forum
(b) 2 only
(d) Institute for Economics and Peace
(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
99. Consider the following statements regarding
‘Indian Pangolin’:

1. They are the only mammals wholly-covered


in scales.

2. The Indian Pangolin is under “Critically


Endangered” category of IUCN Red List

SIA-A-GKN (21-A)

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