c.

electric clipper
TLE (1) - COSMETOLOGY d. razor
1) In facial, make-up foundation serves as make-up base. What is the 6) Arrange the following cosmetics in their order of use in applying
type of foundation recommended for dry skin? make-up?
a. cake I. Curl lash
b. cream II. Eyeliner
c. liquid III. Eye shadow
d. stick IV. Mascara
2) The purpose of thinning the hair is to remove its excess bilk a. I, II, III, IV
without shortening its length. What is the best shear to use for b. II, III, IV, I
thinning bulky hair? c. III, II, I, IV
a. all-purpose shear d. IV, I, II, III
b. clipping shear 7) A make-up tool that makes eyelashes wavy is:
c. razor a. blush on brush
d. thinning shear b. curl lash
3) The process of thinning, tapering and shortening of the hair is c. eye liner
called: d. mascara
a. hair cutting 8) A corrective make-up that makes small eyes appear bigger is:
b. hair drying a. adding lines on the eyelids
c. hair setting b. using dark colored eye shadow
d. hair styling c. using light colored eye shadow
4) Make-up is applied to the face for the purpose of improving its d. using mascara
appearance. To give color to the cheeks, which of the following 9) An emery board is used to shape the ________ of the nails.
should be applied? a. cuticle
a. Eye shadow b. free edge
b. Lipstick c. lunula
c. Mascara d. root of the nails
d. Rogue
10) An orange wood stick is used to:
5) To correct misshaped eyebrows, it is best to use: a. apply oil on the nails
a. depilatory b. remove excess cuticle remover
b. eyebrow pencil c. remove excess nail polish around the nails
d. remove stain on nails
11) The ability of the hair to absorb moisture whether the hair is 16) The first cosmetic applied on the nail when applying nail polish
coarse, medium or fine is: is:
a. hair analysis a. base coat
b. hair elasticity b. colored nail polish
c. hair porosity c. cuticle remover
d. hair texture d. top coat
12) Foot cosmetics with tiny particles that helps remove stubborn 17) What is the proper term for the practice of dividing the hair into
dirt when giving foot spa is: smaller, more workable pieces for the purpose of control?
a. foot balm a. Bunching
b. foot scrub b. Spitting
c. foot soak c. Sectioning
d. foot spray d. Texturizing
13) Arrange steps in cleaning the nails: 18) A darker shade of eye color makes the natural color of the eye
I. Apply cuticle remover appear ________.
II. Cut & file nails a. Lighter
III. Push cuticle b. Darker
IV. Trim cuticle c. Smaller
a. I, III, II, IV d. Deeper
b. II, I, III, IV 19) Mariana would like to apply the principles she learned in
c. III, I, IV, II corrective make-up to a friend whose lips are broad. Which should
d. I, III, IV, I you not recommend?
14) One best way of shaping the eyebrow with the use of shave is: a. apply light color lipstick
a. Depilation b. apply lip gloss
b. Epilation c. use lip liner at the outer portions of the lips
c. Threading d. use lip liner on the inner lips
d. Waxing 20) The nail is composed mainly of:
15) A heavy make-up is suitable for: a. Melanin
a. casual affair b. Keratin
b. evening affair c. Collagen
c. picture affair d. Sebum
d. night swimming 21) Customer A is complaining and getting pushy about the pedicure
service she received. If you were the pedicurist, what would you do?
a. Tell your customer to look for another pedicurist. c. Make a good impression by wearing obtrusive jewelry to look at
b. Refrain from becoming emotional and continue working without your best.
being bothered by the complained. d. Be ethical in all your dealings with clients and others with whom
c. Remain cool and calm, pleasant and professional. you come in contact.
d. Ask for an apology, maintain professionalism and ask what she 26) Lisa applied as public teacher. She doesn't have any experience
wants. for job interview. Could you please help her decide? What type of
22) Which of these is the first thing the pedicurist should do to avoid clothing will she wear?
such situation? a. Casual dress
a. Be courteous. b. Sunday dress
b. Ask the customer what she wants for her toenails like the shape, c. Business attire
color, etc. d. Party dress
c. Decide you own design and styles. 27) What type of make-up may she put on?
c. Proceed to the service right after customer A says that she wants a. Corrective make-up
pedicuring. b. Light make-up
23) Which is NOT desirable quality for effective client relation? c. Heavy make-up
a. emotional control d. Photographic make-up
b. positive approach 28) Miss T was invited as one of the principal sponsors in her best
c. good manners friend's daughter's wedding. She went to a salon to have hairstyle,
d. discussing personal life makeup, manicure and pedicure. Miss T wants a neatly finished up
24) Which of the following statement is NOT true? style. Which of the following styles is best suited for her?
a. Cosmetologist is one of the best advertisements for a salon. a. French Twist Hairstyle
b. Salon owners and managers do not consider appearance, b. Laced-up and Elegant Hairstyle
personality and poise to be as important as technical knowledge and c. Chignon
manual skills. d. Petal and Blooms Hairstyle
c. The female cosmetologist should wear stylish shoes that fit and are 29) Which of the following makeup does she need?
comfortable at the end of a long day. a. Day make-up
d. All female stylists should have their hair done at least once a week b. Evening make-up
and their hair should reflect the best workmanship of the salon. c. Photographic make-up
25) The following are guidelines for good human relations and d. Theatrical/Fantasy make-up
professional attitude, EXCEPT one: 30) Miss T has short nails. What nail shape is best for her?
a. Always greet a client by name with a pleasant tone of voice. a. Round nail
b. Show interest in the client's personal preferences. b. Oval nail
c. Square nail b. sideward motion from the base to the fingertips to clean the nails
d. Pointed nail and fingers.
31) Which of these are implements? c. upward motion from the base to the fingertips to clean the nails
a. chair, manicure pillow, and finger bowl and fingers.
b. assorted colored polish, top coat, base coat, and cuticle remover d. sawing motion from the base to the fingertips to clean the nails
c. cuticle pusher, nail brush, cuticle nipper, nail file and orange wood and fingers.
stick 36) Which is created by allowing the nail to grow out straight and
d. cotton, hand towel, antiseptic solution, alcohol, and nail polish then filing the tip straight across at right angles with the rest of the
remover nail plate?
32) Which of these are cosmetics? a. round nail
a. cotton, hand towel, antiseptic solution, alcohol, and nail polish b. square nail
remover c. pointed nail
b. top coat, base coat, assorted colored polish and cuticle remover d. oval nail
c. finger bowl, manicure pillow, and chair 37) Massage is part of manicuring and pedicuring services. When is
d. orange wood stick, cuticle pusher, cuticle nipper, nail file and nail a massage applied? Before _________.
brush a. removing old polish
33) Which of these are equipment? b. coloring polish
a. cuticle remover, base coat, top coat, and assorted colored polish c. base coat
b. cuticle nipper, nail file, nail brush, orange wood stick and cuticle d. top coat
pusher 38) Which of the following is the last step in manicuring/pedicuring?
c. hand towel, nail polish remover, and antiseptic solution a. apply top coat
d. manicure pillow, chair, and finger bowl b. clean under free edge
34) Which of these is the correct way to use cuticle nail file? c. re-examine nails and cuticles
a. The pointed side is used to push back and moisten the cuticles. d. dry fingertips
b. The dull spade side is used to scrape and moisten the cuticles. 39) Which of these is an imaginative and artistic process of caring
c. The pointed side is used to push back and remove the cuticles. for the nails and toenails, involving special care and expertise for
d. The dull spade side is used to push back and loosen the cuticles. bringing out the best effects?
35) Which of these is the correct way to use nail brush? Insert the a. nail tattoo
ring finger and pinky in the nail brush handle and brush the nails b. nail art
with a _________. c. nail extender
a. downward motion from the base to the fingertips to clean the nails d. nail technician
and fingers.
40) Which of the following statement is CORRECT? coat, and top coat
a. Adult fingernails grow at an average rate of 1/8 inch a month. II. Solvent, lotion, cuticle oil, and nail art designs
b. Older people nail grow slowly than younger people. III. Tray basket, emery board, orangewood stick, nail brush, nail file,
c. Fingernails grow more easily than toenails. and nail polish remover
d. The rate of nail growth is greatest during winter. IV. Finger bowl, manicure pillows, hand towel, antiseptic solution,
41) Which is the technical term for nail? and nail buffer
a. Onyx a. I only
b. Onychosis b. I and II
c. Onychology c. I and III
d. Keratin d. I and IV
42) Which refer to hand-held tools used in manicure which are 46) In shaping the nails, what comes first?
durable and must be sanitized after use with each client? a. Hold the client's finger between the thumb and the two fingers of
a. Cosmetics the left hand.
b. Equipment b. Hold the file or emery board in the right hand and tilt it slightly so
c. Materials that filling is confined mainly to the underside of the free edge.
d. Implements c. Discuss with the client the nail shape best suited for him/her. File
43) Which of the following term refers to a light, continuous stroking the nails at the left hand starting with the little finger and working
movement applied with the fingers and palms in a slow and rhythmic towards the thumb.
manner? d. Shape the nails.
a. friction 47) Teacher F is a MAPEH teacher. Sometimes or most of the time
b. vibration she is exposed to the sunlight. What type of skin protection should
c. petrissage she apply?
d. effleurage a. face toners
44) It is not good to apply massage when a person has _________. b. anti-aging body creams
a. high blood pressure and heart condition c. body mask
b. mayoma and diabetic d. SPF lotion
c. deliver a baby 48) Which of the following drinks can she take to hydrate herself?
d. cancer a. soft drinks
45) If you are going to start a home service as a manicurist/pedicurist b. gatorade
and your parents give you ₱500.00 to start with, which equipment, c. cobra juice
implements, cosmetics and materials should you buy first? d. plain water
I. Nail cutter, nail pusher, cuticle nipper, assorted nail polish, base
49) Which part of the body is best for the color testing of a c. weakening muscle tissue
foundation? d. correcting skin disorders
a. earlobe 55) Which of the following is a common skin disorder caused by the
b. jawline formation of sebaceous matter within or under the skin?
c. nose a. blackheads
d. cheek b. whiteheads
50) Which aids in maintaining face? c. pimples
a. face cleansers d. acne
b. face toners 56) Which of the following facial is recommended for dry, scaly
c. face lotions skin, or skin that is inclined to wrinkles?
d. face serums a. plain facial
51) Which one helps to moisturize the face to return lost moisture b. packs and masks
and hydrate the skin to slow down the skin's aging process? c. facial for dry
a. anti-aging face creams d. hot oil mask facial
b. face toners 57) Mitch has acne problem so she went to a cosmetologist for an
c. face exfoliators advice, though she is under medical care. What would be the role of
d. face cream the cosmetologist?
52) Which among the following would be the first step in giving a. Work closely with the client's physician to carry out instructions as
facial? to the kind and frequency of facial treatments.
a. apply cleansing cream b. Advice the client to stop the medication from the physician.
b. apply treatment mask c. She can have her own separate medication aside from the
c. apply moisturizer physician.
d. apply massage cream d. Refuse and do not give further service.
53) Which of the following statement is NOT a concern in analyzing 58) Under medical direction, the following are the measures of
the client's skin? If the _________. limitation in cosmetic treatment for acne, EXCEPT:
a. skin is dry, normal, or oily a. Remove blackheads using proper procedures
b. shape of the face b. Reduce the oiliness of the skin by local application
c. lines or creases exist c. Apply moisturizer
d. skin texture is smooth or rough d. Clean the face
54) Which of the following is NOT beneficial for facial treatments? 59) What kind of cosmetic is used to set the foundation, giving a
a. Softening and improving skin texture and complexion matte finish, and also to conceal small flaws or blemishes?
b. Helping prevent the formation of wrinkles and aging lines a. powder
b. lipstick 64) Mika noticeably has gray hairs but she is only 11 years old and
c. eyeliner she is not an albino. What may be the cause of gray hairs at this early
d. blush age?
60) Which of the following provides the backdrop for the entire a. Lack of sleep and overexposed to computers.
colorful facial make-up artistry? b. She has serious illness.
a. concealer c. She has defects in pigment formation occurring at birth.
b. blush d. A result of the natural aging process of humans.
c. cheek color 65) Who is an albino? A person born with _________.
d. foundation a. an hypertrichosis or superfluous hair, an abnormal development of
61) How is highlight produced for corrective make-up? A highlight hair
is produced when: b. an absence of coloring matter in the hair shaft, which is
a. a darker foundation than the original one is applied to a particular accompanied by no marked of pigment coloring in the skin or irises
part of the face of the eyes
b. a lighter shade than the original one is applied to a particular part c. androgenetic alopecia
of the face d. a small involuntary muscle attached to the underside of a hair
c. a medium shade similar to the original one is applied to a follicle
particular part of the face 66) What type of haircutting is done when one holds the shears at an
d. a shadow subdues or minimizes prominent features angle to the hair strand other than 90 degrees?
62) What must one remember in giving facial manipulations to a. blunt cut
induce relaxation? b. beveled cut
a. routine c. graduated cut
b. tempo d. undercutting
c. pressure 67) Which of the following safety measures in haircutting is NOT
d. skin type true?
63) A client comes into the salon for a scalp treatment. She has some a. Always palm the shears when combing the hair.
obvious abrasions on her scalp. Which treatment would be b. When cutting bangs or any area close to the skin.
acceptable? c. Beginners should always use a guard when razor cutting.
a. Apply an antiseptic scalp treatment with minimum massage. d. Cut past the second knuckle when cutting on the inside of the
b. Apply an oil treatment with a heat cap. hand.
c. Advise the client of her scalp condition and reschedule her 68) Which is an art of arranging the hair with attractive shapes and
appointment. styles?
d. Give a first aid treatment and proceed with manipulations. a. Hairstyling
b. Hair trimming c. Hair setting
c. Curling d. Traditional finger waving
d. Waving 74) Which is done to increase the circulation of the blood to the
69) David cut the hair of Miss P. David just did partially wet and scalp, rest and soothe the nerves, stimulate the muscles and the
partially dry of Miss P's hair. What would be the result of Miss P's activity of the scalp glands?
hair? a. Shampooing
a. Even b. Hair treatment
b. Uneven c. Scalp manipulation
c. Perfect d. Rebonding
d. Curly 75) Which is the correct way to remove tangles from the hair before
70) Following a haircut, when is texturizing performed most hairstyling.
effectively? a. Crown
a. On dry hair styled the way it will typically be worn. b. Forehead
b. At the shampoo bowl after the conditioner is applied. c. Nape of the neck
c. On soaking wet hair that has been brushed. d. Back of the head
d. On moderately damp hair prior to styling. 76) Under normal circumstances, how many strands of hair does an
71) The following are some myths about hair growth, EXCEPT: average person shed per day?
a. Close clipping, shaving, trimming, cutting, or singeing has an a. 20-50
effect on the rate of hair growth. b. 40-100
b. The application of oils increases hair growth. c. 80-120
c. Hair grows after death. d. 150-200
d. Normal, healthy hair grows and sheds each follicle repeatedly 77) Hair is distributed all over the body, EXCEPT:
cycles through three stages. a. Soles of the feet
72) Cutting the hair for a graduated effect is called _________. b. Earlobe
a. taped haircutting c. Han
b. wedge haircutting
c. sectioning
d. barbering
73) Which of the following is an art of creating curls or weaving?
a. Hairstyling
b. Thermal styling
ANSWERS: 33. D 67. D
1. B 34. D 68. A
2. D 35. A 69. B
3. A 36. B 70. A
4. D 37. C 71. D
5. B 38. A 72. A
6. C 39. B 73. C
7. B 40. A 74. C
8. A 41. A 75. C
9. B 42. D 76. B
10. C 43. D 77. A
11. C 44. A
12. B 45. C
13. C 46. C
14. A 47. D
15. B 48. D
16. A 49. B
17. C 50. A
18. A 51. D
19. C 52. A
20. B 53. B
21. D 54. C
22. B 55. B
23. D 56. D
24. B 57. A
25. C 58. C
26. C 59. A
27. B 60. D
28. B 61. B
29. C 62. B
30. A 63. C
31. C 64. C
32. B 65. B
66. B
 c. Vent pipe
TLE (2) - Plumbing d. Drain pipe
1) A person who installs pipes, fixtures and other apparatus to 6) It is a fitting or device that provides liquid seal to prevent the back
convey and supply water in buildings and to dispose and discharge passage of air.
waste water. a. Loop
a. Carpenter b. Fixture
b. Plumber c. Sewer
c. Mason d. Trap
d. Mechanic
7) The tools used to tighten or loosen hexagonal fittings like unions
2) It is a receptacle or vault used to collect organic waste discharged and other metal fittings.
from the house sewer. a. Pipe vise
a. Septic tank b. Pliers
b. Manhole c. Wrenches
c. Water tank d. Threader
d. Waste tank
8) The kind of fitting used to connect fixed pipe and fixtures is a
3) The semi-liquid substance accumulated at the bottom of the septic ________.
tank. a. Wye fitting
a. Scum b. Coupling
b. Sediment c. Union fitting
c. Sludge d. Reducer
d. Silt
9) A fitting or device installed at the inlet of a water pump to prevent
4) An underground tunnel that carries off the drainage and waste backflow of water.
matter from a home or town is called: a. Ball valve
a. Drainage system b. Check valve
b. Fixture c. Blackwater valve
c. Sewerage d. Gate valve
d. Sewer
10) It is a device installed in water lines that can be closed or opened
5) The pipe that conveys waste from various fixture other than from to allow installation or troubleshooting of fixtures.
the water closet. a. Check valve
a. Waste pipe b. Gate valve
b. Soil pipe c. Ball valve
d. Float valve
11) A schedule 40 pipe is: a. Vent pipe
a. Thicker than schedule 20 b. Cleanout
b. Thicker than schedule 80 c. Drain
c. Thinner than schedule 10 d. Tee fitting
d. None among the choices 17) Plastic pipes are commonly used in water fixture installation
12) What material is used to seal off threaded fittings to avoid nowadays. Which of the following is preferred?
leakage? a. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
a. Masking tape b. Chlorinated PVC (CPVC)
b. Teflon tape c. Cross-linked polyethylene (PEX)
c. Scotch tape d. Polyethylene
d. Adhesive gum 18) The Plumbing Code on House Drain provides that there must be
13) What must be installed to prevent siphonage or backflow of the no more than two closets that shall discharge into a ________ pipe
water seal in the drainage system? diameter.
a. Vent pipe a. 3 inches or 75 mm
b. Drain pipe b. 80 mm
c. Soil pipe c. less than 75 mm
d. Cleanout d. 70 mm
14) Which of the following is NOT required by the National 19) A metal or plastic fitting used to connect smaller pipe from a
Plumbing Code? larger pipe.
a. Drainage pipe should be inclined properly for a downward gravity a. Reducer
flow of water. b. Elbow
b. Drainage pipe should be provided with adequate cleanout. c. Union
c. No vent pipe is needed. d. Coupling
d. All pipe joints must be well-fitted and tightly connected. 20) As a basic prerequisite for most plumbing project, what should
15) What is the ideal inclination of a horizontal waste pipe as be connected for each faucet, toilet, and fixtures?
recommended by the National Plumbing Code? a. Fixture shutoffs
a. 2% slope b. Main shutoffs
b. 3% slope c. Intermediate shutoffs
c. 4% slope d. Valves
d. 0% slope or level position 21) A plumber wants to tighten and loosen pipes. Which tool is
16) For purposes of troubleshooting in case of stoppage of flow, appropriate?
what must be installed in the pipe system? a. Pipe cutter
b. Flux 27) A plumber wants to cut pipes. Which holding tool is needed?
c. Pipe wrench a. Vise grip
d. Butane torch b. Pipe threader
22) A plumber wants to cut metal pipe. Which tool is appropriate? c. Yoke vise
a. Hacksaw d. Pipe wrench
b. Back saw 28) A plumber wants to hold pipe by hand. What tool is needed?
c. Handsaw a. Vise grip
d. Drywall knife b. Pipe threader
23) Metal with semi-rigid auger whose end is usually fitted with a c. Yoke vise
hook or corkscrew is called ________. d. Pipe wrench
a. plumber's snake 29) The following are good plumbing practices, EXCEPT:
b. plunger a. rainwater harvesting
c. valve b. water conservation
d. bushing c. gray water recycling
24) If your toilet has trouble, you use rubber funnel-shape instrument d. excessive water consumption
attached to the end of the handle for unblocking. What is this tool? 30) Water contaminants are being forced back into the water piping
a. plumber's snake system. Which term is referred to?
b. valve a. Water flow
c. plunger b. Back flow
d. bushing c. Pressure
25) Which plumbing tool is used for gripping large pipes and d. Harvesting
irregular objects? 31) The following are examples of plumbing fixtures, EXCEPT:
a. monkey wrench a. water closet
b. chain wrench b. drainage
c. yoke vise c. shower
d. pipe wrench d. urinals
26) A plumber wants to create thread outside pipe by hand. Which 32) Which statement is NOT true about plumbing standards based on
tool is appropriate? Republic Act 1378 which is known as "Plumbing Law"?
a. Pipe cutter a. Each fixture directly connected to the drainage system shall be
b. Pipe threader equipped with a water-sealed trap.
c. Yoke vise b. Plumbing shall be designed and adjusted to use the maximum
d. Pipe wrench quantity of water consistent with proper performance and cleaning.
c. Water closet must be located in a room which is properly lighted c. maintain the trap seals
and ventilated. d. give pressure differentials in the public sewer
d. No substance which will clog the pipes, produce explosive 38) Rainwater from the roof down to the ground passes through what
mixtures, destroy the pipes or their joints or interfere unduly with the pipe?
sewage disposal process shall be allowed to enter the building a. Down spout
drainage system. b. Conductor
33) A compartment that receives solid or liquid waste, located below c. Gutter
the normal grade of the gravity system is called ________. d. Vent
a. septic 39) A pipe that conveys only liquid waste is called ________.
b. sump a. vent pipe
c. trap b. soil pipe
d. interceptor c. main pipe
34) Which is true toxic substance? d. waste pipe
a. Hazardous to human health 40) If you install water supply inside the building, what is the
b. A fixture drain for a laboratory diameter of pipes needed?
c. Not hazardous to human health a. 4 inches
d. Bedpan washer and sterilizer drain b. 1 inch
35) Water that is safe for drinking, cooking, and personal use is c. 0.75 inch
________. d. 0.5 inch
a. potable 41) In which type of pipes does portable water travel
b. purified a. ABS pipes
c. clean b. Galvanized pipes
d. healthy c. Cast iron pipes
36) Which among the following best describes a toilet bowl? d. PVC pipes (orange)
a. A room or booth containing a toilet 42) If your water system has leak, where can you shut off the flow of
b. The Box Type compartment holding water for flushing the toilet water?
c. An opening in the wall or ceiling near a. Gate valve
d. The device that provides a supply of water and/or its disposal, e.g. b. Globe valve
sinks, tubs, toilet c. Check valve
37) Plumbing ventilation means to ________. d. Angle valve
a. carry sewer gas out and relieve pressure of the drainage system 43) A plumber wants to install a liquid seal to prevent sewer gasses
b. discourage corrosion in the drainage piping from entering the building. What device is needed?
a. Union c. Cap
b. Trap d. Plug
c. Backflow preventer 49) A plumber wants to connect two length of pipes. Which fitting is
d. Pump necessary?
44) A plumber wants to shut off the flow of water just 90 degrees a. Coupling
turn. Which valve is appropriate? b. Elbow
a. Gate valve c. Tee
b. Globe valve d. Pipe wrench
c. Check valve 50) If there is leaking in the water supply of lavatory, sink, and water
d. Angle valve closet, which valve are you going to shut off?
45) What do you call those flexible waterproof ribbon for covering a. Gate valve
threaded pipes joints to prevent leakage? b. Globe valve
a. Rubber bond c. Check valve
b. Masking tape d. Angle valve
c. Teflon tape 51) If you install a soil pipe, what is the standard pitch or slope?
d. Tape a. 5%
46) If the end of a PVC pipe is fitted with a male adopter, what b. 10%
fitting will be used to stop the flow of the water? c. 2%
a. Elbow d. 1%
b. Coupling 52) If you put source of potable water, what is the minimum safe
c. Cap distance from the septic tank?
d. Plug a. 15 meters
47) How many PVC pipes can be installed in a 7.50 meter distance? b. 10 meters
a. 2 pcs. c. 5 meters
b. 2.5 pcs. d. 20 meters
c. 3 pcs. 53) No cesspool, septic tank or drain fields shall be located within
d. 3.5 pcs. how many meter radius from the well?
48) If the end of the PVC pipe is fitted with a female adopter, what a. 15 meters
fitting will be used to stop the flow of the water? b. 10 meters
a. Elbow c. 50 meters
b. Coupling d. 45 meters
54) If you plan to drill for a well that can supply water for public use, pipe that you are going to use?
what is the minimum meter radius from a well to the residences? a. 20.0 m
a. 150 meters b. 6 ft.
b. 100 meters c. 3.0 m
c. 50 meters d. 20 ft.
d. 200 meters 60) All plumbing fixtures must have P-trap, EXCEPT:
55) Every trap for bath tubs, lavatories, sink, and other similar a. lavatory
fixture shall be _________. b. water closet
a. self-regulating c. sink
b. tight d. bath tub
c. fix
d. self cleaning
56) There should be no concrete sanitary sewers existing within how
many meter radius from the well?
a. 15 meters
b. 10 meters
c. 50 meters
d. 45 meters
57) The standard length of a PVC pipe is _________.
a. 12 ft.
b. 2.0 m
c. 6.0 m
d. 10 ft.
58) If you want to estimate the number of G.I. pipes needed from
your house to the main supply, what is the standard length of a G.I.
pipe that you are going to use?
a. 20.0 m
b. 6 ft.
c. 3.0 m
d. 20 ft.
59) If you want to estimate the number of PVC pipes needed from
your house to the main supply, what is the standard length of a PVC
ANSWERS: 33. A
1. B 34. A
2. A 35. A
3. C 36. B
4. D 37. A
5. A 38. A
6. D 39. D
7. C 40. D
8. C 41. B
9. B 42. A
10. C 43. C
11. A 44. B
12. B 45. C
13. A 46. C
14. C 47. B
15. A 48. D
16. B 49. A
17. A 50. D
18. A 51. C
19. A 52. A
20. A 53. D
21. C 54. B
22. A 55. D
23. A 56. A
24. C 57. D
25. B 58. B
26. B 59. C
27. C 60. B
28. A
29. D
30. B
31. B
32. B
 6) In Ohm's Law, to find the unknown voltage in the circuit, the
TLE (3) - Basic Electricity formula to be used is:
1) A form of electricity where the flow of current is always in the a. E = I x R
same direction: b. E = I / R
a. voltage c. I = E / R
b. power d. R = E / I
c. alternating current 7) What amount of current does a 40-watt fluorescent lamp draw
d. direct current from a 220 volts power source?
2) The force which opposes and reduces the flow of electrical current a. 5.5 amperes
is recognized as ________. b. 0.18 amperes
a. power c. 25.5 amperes
b. resistance d. 50.5 amperes
c. electromagnetism 8) There are several factors involved in electrical wiring installation
d. frequency but the foremost consideration is ________.
3) A part of an electric circuit which converts electrical energy into a. cost
another form of energy to do work is ________. b. labor
a. load c. safety
b. circuit d function
c. source 9) The standard number or diameter of wires for convenience outlet
d. control layout should be?
4) A part of an electrical circuit, consists of batteries, generator or a a. 12
main electrical power which supplies electricity is called ________. b. 14
a. control c. 18
b. load d. 10
c. source 10) To comply with the requirements of the Philippine Electrical
d. voltage Code, the appropriate fuse rating for lighting outlet should be
5) A law that states that current is directly proportional to voltage ________.
and inversely proportional to resistance is known as ________. a. 15 amperes
a. PEC b. 30 amperes
b. Law of Resistivity c. 60 amperes
c. Kirchoff's Law d. 20 amperes
d. Ohm's Law
11) Planning and designing of electrical wiring plan is being done in 16) What is the voltage required by an automatic pressure cooker
order to: having a resistance of 20 ohms when the current flowing is 8
a. Provide efficient and effective wiring system of the building. amperes?
b. Maintain quality workmanship. a. 240 volts
c. Avoid overloaded circuit. b. 480 volts
d. Protect the circuit from high current. c. 120 volts
12) Circuit breakers are used to protect household electrical circuits. d. 160 volts
What is the ampacity rating of the breaker used for convenience 17) In a 220-volt power line, three 50-watt incandescent bulbs are
outlets or general purpose circuits? connected in parallel. How many more bulbs will light if one of the
a. 20 amperes bulbs is open?
b. 30 amperes a. One
c. 15 amperes b. Two
d. 60 amperes c. All
13) An electrical component used to control electrical circuit in two d. None
different locations is called: 18) In a simple electrical connection, one of the lines of the source is
a. four-way switch connected to ________.
b. three-way switch a. Terminal 1 of the load
c. push-button switch b. Terminal 2 of the load
d. remote controlled switch c. Terminal 1 of the switch
14) To conserve energy, what kind of lamp should be used in d. Terminal 1 & 2 of the switch
lighting fixtures? 19) Which of the following electrical symbols in wiring diagram
a. Incandescent lamp means that there are three wires running in a line?
b. Mercury lamp a. ----/-/-/----
c. Compact fluorescent lamp b. -----/-/-/-/----
d. Neon lamp c. ------------
15) The size of electrical wire recommended for installing lighting d. S3W
fixtures is: 20) A series connected dry cells will result to ________.
a. No. 12 AWG a. increase in the amount of current
b. No. 10 AWG b. increase in the amount of voltage
c. No. 18 AWG c. increase total resistance
d. No. 14 AWG d. more powerful supply of electricty
21) What type of switch is used to control alternately three-phase 26) Which is an exposed wiring method that uses cleats, knowbs,
line system using two sources of power? tubes and flexible tubing for the protection and support of single
a. Double Pole Single Throw Switch insulated conductor run in or on building and not concealed by the
b. Single Pole Double Throw Switch building structure?
c. Triple Pole Single Throw Switch a. Open wiring on insulators
d. Triple Pole Double Throw Switch b. Armored cable wiring
22) Which of the following is the best conductor of electricity? c. Concealed knob and tube wiring
a. Copper d. Metal clad cable wiring
b. Aluminum 27) What will happen if two 100-W, 230 V incadescent lamps are
c. Silver connected in series across a 230 V source?
d. Gold a. Both lamps will consume more power.
23) What type of switch is used when you want to control one lamp b. Both lamps will get burnt.
or group of lamps in two different locations? c. Each lamp will give lesser output lights.
a. Two, 3-way switch d. Each lamp will give more output lights.
b. One, 4-way switch 28) What is the reason why electrical appliances are connected in
c. Two, single switch parallel rather than in series?
d. Duplex switch a. Parallel connection consumes lesser power.
24) Cells are connected in parallel to increase the ________ capacity b. Parallel connection is simpler than series connection.
of the cells. c. Each appliances consumes more power if connected in series.
a. current d. It makes the operation of each appliance independent of each
b. voltage other.
c. resistance 29) When replacing a busted fuse which of the following is
d. inductance important?
25) The resistors are to be connected in four possible types of circuit a. same size and type
connections namely series, parallel, series-parallel and parallel- b. same type but different rating
series. Which type of connection will give the least amount of c. same size but different rating
equivalent resistance? d. different size and type
a. Series 30) Which of the following is a source of alternating current?
b. Parallel a. Dynamo
c. Series-parallel b. Battery
d. Parallel-series c. Dry cell
d. Alternator
31) When there is a break in the circuit and the current could not b. Energizer
pass through, the circuit is ________. c. Eveready
a. closed d. Secondary battery
b. shorted 37) Which is used to change mechanical energy into electrical
c. grounded energy?
d. open a. Battery
32) Which term usually refers to a device that produces an electric b. Circuit
current when light falls upon them? c. Dry cell
a. Solar cell d. Generator
b. Dry cell 38) A process in splitting the atom of uranum is called ________.
c. Solar lamp a. fusion
d. Solar light b. fission
33) Which is synchronous alternating-current machine that changes c. friction
mechanical power into electrical power? d. tension
a. Dynamo 39) A process by joining hydrogen atoms which causes heat hotter
b. Motor than the sun is called ________.
c. Alternator a. fusion
d. Lathe machine b. fission
34) Which battery CANNOT be recharged after its chemical energy c. friction
has been depleted? d. tension
a. Energizer 40) Which transforms heat energy to electric energy?
b. Eveready a. Transformers
c. Primary battery b. Battery
d. Secondary battery c. Generator
35) Which generator generates direct current? d. Thermocouple
a. Alternator 41) Which is the kinetic energy of falling water?
b. Dynamo a. Thermo energy
c. Battery b. Hydro energy
d. Adaptor c. Solar energy
36) Which battery can be recharged after each chemical energy has d. Mechanical energy
been depleted? 42) Which is a solar collector that is capable of producing voltage
a. Primary battery when exposed to radiant energy (sunlight)?
a. Photoelectric c. 200 w
b. Photovoltaic system d. 250 w
c. Photoemission system 48) If 18 resistances, each of a value of 36 ohms, are connected in
d. Solar light parallel, then the total resistance is ________.
43) Energy derived or extracted from the internal heat of the earth is a. 36 ohms
called ________. b. 2 ohms
a. volcanic c. 648 ohms
b. geothermal d. 54 ohms
c. thermal 49) A toaster takes 10 A from a 120v line. The power used is:
d. chemical a. 12 w
44) Which refers to the extraction of electrons from a substance by b. 130 w
sunlight on incident electromagnetic radiation? c. 1,200 w
a. Photoelectric effect d. 120 w
b. Photovoltaic effect 50) What is the resistance of a 100 w, 110-v incandescent lamp?
c. Photoemission a. 121 ohms
d. Electron microscopy b. 115 ohms
45) Which statement is TRUE? c. 125 ohms
a. Bigger size of wire has higher resistance. d. 12.1 ohms
b. Bigger size of wire has lower resistance. 51) How many kilowatts is the water heater if it draws a current of
c. Long wire has lesser resistance. 10 amperes and has a resistance of 23 ohms?
d. Short wire has higher resistance. a. 23 Kw
46) A small light ulb with a resistance of 100 ohms is connected b. 2,300 Kw
across a 120-v line. What is the current through the bulb? c. 230 Kw
a. 1.2 A d. 2.3 Kw
b. 0.012 A 52) The resistance of an electrical wire is inversely proportional to its
c. 0.12 A ________.
d. 12 A a. length
47) A 200-v lamp has a resistance of 400 ohms. The power rating in b. cross sectional area
watts of lamp is ________. c. temperature
a. 100 w d. material
b. 600 w 53) A fluorescent lamp unit connected to a 110v AC line takes 1.2A
and requires 110w power. What is its power factor?
a. 0.9 c. 2.5 Hp
b. 0.833 d. 23 Hp
c. 0.866 59) How many kilowatts does a certain appliance consume for 5
d. 0.8 hours of useif it has a power rating of 1.5 Hp?
54) An electric heater uses 20kw-in 8 hours. If the voltage across the a. 56 Kw
heater is 240 volts. What is the heater resistance? b. 7.5 Kw
a. 2.5 ohms c. 5.6 Kw
b. 83.3 ohms d. 75 Kw
c. 23.04 ohms 60) A cell supplies a load current of 0.5A for a period of 20 hours
d. 2.30 ohms until its terminal voltage falls to an unacceptable level. How long can
55) The resistance of a 230v incandescent lamp is 300 ohms. What it be expected to supply a current of 100mA?
current is required to operate the lamp? a. 50 hours
a. 0.85 A b. 100 hours
b. 0.77 A c. 60 hours
c. 1.30 A d. 70 hours
d. 7.74 A 61) A battery is rated 200Ah. If it is used to supply a constant current
56) A group of lamps operates a current of 12 A and a voltage of of 8Ah. How long can the battery last until it becomes unusable?
120v. What is the total power of the lamps? a. 20 hours
a. 1.44 kw b. 2.5 hours
b. 1.20 kw c. 15 hours
c. 1.34 kw d. 2.5 hours
d. 14.4 kw 62) The resistance of 500 meters of a certain wire is 125 ohms. What
57) What is the maximum load capacity of a 15A circuit breaker length of the same wire will have a resistance of 60 ohms?
protecting a branch circuit that supplies a continuous load? a. 24 meters
a. 15 A b. 225 meters
b. 10 A c. 240 meters
c. 12 A d. 235 meters
d. 14 A 63) If three equal resistances are connected in parallel,the equivalent
58) What is the horsepower rating of an electric water pump if it has resistance of the circuit will be ________ the value of one resistor.
a power rating of 1.75 Kw? a. three time
a. 2 Hp b. half
b. 2.3 Hp
c. one-third c. metal moulding
d. the same d. electrical metallic tubing
64) Find the cost of using a 100W, 220V lamp for 20 hours at P3.00 69) Armored cable is commercially known as ________.
per kW-hr? a. BX cable
a. P6.00 b. flat cable
b. P9.00 c. metallic cable
c. P10.00 d. duplex cable
d. P60.00 70) Which type of cable is fabricated assembly of insulated
65) Which is a box with a blank cover is inserted in one or more runs conductors enclosed in a flexible metal sheath?
of raceway to facilitate pulling of the conductors? a. Underground cable
a. Blank box b. Armored cable
b. Junction box c. Flat cable
c. Terminal box d. Flexible cable
d. Pull box 71) Flat cable assembly shall be installed for ________.
66) Which is a box with a blank cover for joining runs of conduits I. concealed work only
and providing space for connection and branching of enclosed II. exposed work only
conductors? a. I only
a. Blank box b. II only
b. Junction box c. I and II
c. Terminal box d. cannot be determined
d. Pull box 72) An assembly of two pieces of insulating material provided with
67) The minimum size of wire used in electrical wiring is the no.14 grooves for holding one or more conductors at a definite scpacing
AWG. Under the SI standard, what is the diameter of this wire? from the surface wired over and from each other, and with holes for
a. 1.2 mm fastening in position is called:
b. 1.6 mm a. split knob
c. 1.5 mm b. cleat
d. 2.0 mm c. spool insulator
68) A thin-walled steel raceway of circularwith a corrosion-resistant d. strain insulator
coating for protection of wires or cable is ________. 73) Which is a wiring method that uses knobs, tubes, and flexible
a. rigid metal conduit non-metallic tubing for the protection and support of single insulated
b. flexible metal pipe conductors concealed in hollow spaces of walls and ceilings of
buildings?
a. Knob and tube wiring c. stranded
b. Open wiring on insulators d. duplex
c. Concealed knob and tube wiring 79) What type of socket is used for outdoor or wet location in wiring
d. Open wiring with knob and tubes installation?
74) Which term refers to that switch or outlet body that is embedded a. Waterproof socket
or hidden in the wall? b. Special purpose socket
a. Surface type c. Weatherproof socket
b. Flush type d. Outdoor socket
c. Concealed type 80) What is the smallest size of wire permitted by the Code to be
d. Open type used in wiring installation?
75) The use of surface non-metallic raceway is not permitted in all a. 2.0 mm squared
the following, EXCEPT: b. 3.5 mm squared
a. dry locations c. 2.0 mm
b. where subject to severe physical damage d. 1.25 mm squared
c. where voltage is over 300 V 81) Which one of the following uses is permitted by the Code to be
d. where concealed used for surface non-metallic raceway?
76) When the entire switch or outlet body is visible and extends a. dry locations
beyond the wall surface, the device is said to be ________. b. where concealed
a. Wall type c. where subject to severe physical damage
b. Surface type d. where voltage is over 300 V
c. Flush type 82) Service entrance using copper conductors shall have sufficient
d. Open type capacity and shall not be smaller than ________.
77) What device automatically breaks the circuit the moment an a. 5.5 mm squared
overload or short circuit occurs? b. 3.5 mm squared
a. Breaker switch c. 14 mm squared
b. Overload d. 8.0 mm squared
c. Circuit breaker 83) If two identical lamps give normal light when connected in
d. Main switch parallel in a 230v line are reconnected in series in the same line, the
78) Which term is used when two conductors are embedded in one bulb will ________.
solid mass of rubber insulation? a. give more light
a. two in one b. not light
b. three in one
c. give less light 89) A certain residential house has lighting load of 1.1 kVA and an
d. blows out appliance load of 10A at 220 volts, single phase, two wires, 60 Hz.
84) When flexible metal conduit is installed as a fixed raceway, it The branch circuit fuse protection for lighting and appliance loads
shall be secured within ________ on each side of every outlet box. are ________ and ________, respectively.
a. 250 mm a. 20 A and 60 A
b. 300 mm b. 20 A and 30 A
c. 100 mm c. 15 A and 30 A
d. 150 mm d. 15 A and 20 A
85) A short circuit can be detected by using ________. 90) Live vegetation or trees ________ used for support of overhead
a. an ohmmeter conductors spans.
b. a megger a. shall be
c. an oscilloscope b. should be
d. an ammeter c. shall not be
d. should not be
86) The electrical plans for residential house include the following
items, EXCEPT: 91) Light fixtures suspended from the ceiling by chains should be
a. Substation plan wired so that the wires ________.
b. Location plan a. will be grounded
c. Floor plan showing location of service b. will not touch the chains
d. Layout of wiring plan for general lighting and receptacles outlets c. will support the fixture
d. will not support the fixture
87) If installed in raceways, conductors of size ________ and larger
shall be stranded. 92) In rigid metal conduit wiring, conduit of 15-20 mm diameter
a. 5.5 mm squared shall be supported at least every ________.
b. 8.0 mm squared a. 2,500 mm
c. 14 mm squared b. 3,500 mm
d. 3.5 mm squared c. 1,800 mm
d. 3,800 mm
88) At least ________ of free conductor shall be left at each outlet,
junction and switch point for splices or connection of fixture or 93) Why do conductors need additional wiring insulators?
devices. a. Electrical wiring needs to be protected from mechanical harm.
a. 250 mm b. Wires are connected by joints therefore need reinsulation.
b. 175 mm c. Wires touches wood surface therefore need protection.
c. 150 mm d. Wires skin is weak.
d. 300 mm
94) What is the total number of mechanical degrees that an electrical remaining bulbs?
pipe run maybe bent between pull points? a. it will not lit
a. 360 degrees b. its brightness is reduced
b. 180 degrees c. its brightness increases
c. 120 degrees d. its brightness in maintained
d. 270 degrees
95) Rigid non-metallic conduit shall be supported within ________
of each box.
a. 600 mm
b. 800 mm
c. 900 mm
d. 760 mm
96) Electrical metallic tubing smaller than ________ electrical trade
size shall NOT be used.
a. 12 mm
b. 10 mm
c. 15 mm
d. 20 mm
97) Type AC cable shall be secured by approved staples, straps,
hangers or similar fittings at intervals NOT exceeding ________.
a. 1,250 mm
b. 1,300 mm
c. 1,500 mm
d. 1,000 mm
98) In concealed knob and tube wiring, the clearance to be
maintained between conductors is ________.
a. 65 mm
b. 45 mm
c. 76 mm
d. 50 mm
99) Three bulbs are connected in parallel and controlled by a single
switch. If one of the 3 bulbs is busted, what will happen to the
ANSWERS: 33. C 67. B
1. D 34. C 68. D
2. B 35. B 69. A
3. A 36. D 70. B
4. C 37. D 71. B
5. D 38. B 72. B
6. A 39. A 73. C
7. B 40. D 74. B
8. C 41. B 75. A
9. A 42. B 76. B
10. D 43. B 77. C
11. A 44. A 78. D
12. A 45. B 79. C
13. B 46. C 80. A
14. C 47. A 81. A
15. D 48. B 82. D
16. D 49. C 83. C
17. B 50. A 84. B
18. A 51. D 85. A
19. A 52. B 86. A
20. B 53. B 87. B
21. D 54. C 88. C
22. C 55. B 89. D
23. A 56. A 90. C
24. A 57. C 91. D
25. B 58. B 92. D
26. A 59. C 93. A
27. C 60. B 94. A
28. D 61. B 95. C
29. A 62. C 96. C
30. D 63. C 97. B
31. D 64. A 98. C
32. A 65. D 99. D
66. B
TLE (4) - Foods 5) Meats are considered rich in proteins. What kind of protein is
found in connective tissue of meat that converts to gelatin when it is
1) Jonas has sautéed some meat in the pan. There are some brown cooked?
bits left on the bottom of the pan. While the pan was still on the a. Elastic
stove, he added some white wine and scarped the bottom of the pan. b. Gluten
What do you call the techniques just used? c. Marbling
a. Cleaning d. Collagen
b. Deglazing
c. Caramelizing 6) Which of these nutrients is an anti-oxidant?
d. Flambé a. Vitamin E
b. Calcium
2) Energy value is express in terms of calories which represents the c. Fiber
chemical energy that released as heat when food is oxidized. Which d. Vitamin B12
nutrient has more than twice the calorie per gram?
a. Carbohydrates 7) Which cooking method destroys nutrients?
b. Protein a. Boiling
c. Fat b. Roasting
d. Minerals c. Slow cooking
d. All of the above
3) Food furnishes the body with the different nutrients it needs.
Which of the following nutrients is needed as the main structural 8) Which food is the "best source of thiamine?"
component of the body? a. Pork
a. Carbohydrates b. Milk
b. Protein c. Carrots
c. Fat d. Potatoes
d. Fiber 9) What happens to carbohydrates that are not used right away as
4) Frostings are products that are closely associated with sugar. What energy?
kind of sugar is used primarily in the preparation of flat icings with a. They are stored in the body as fat.
butter cream? b. They are stored in the body as amino acids.
a. brown sugar c. They circulate through the bloodstream until they are burned as
b. refined sugar fat.
c. granulated sugar d. They are all used immediately as energy.
d. confectioner sugar 10) All of these are good sources of Vitamin C. Which one has the
most vitamin C?
a. 1 cup of sliced strawberries
b. 1 cup of chopped green chili peppers c. they become less palatable
c. 1 cup of orange sections d. they become hard to digest
d. 1 cup of diced tomatoes 16) To minimize meat shrinkage and retain much of its nutritive
11) Saturated fats raise the cholesterol level in our bloodstream. value, the best cooking temperature is?
Saturated fats can be found in? a. moist heat
a. Olives b. low to moderate heat
b. Beans c. high heat
c. Movie theater popcorn d. dry heat
d. Fish 17) What does "proofing" mean?
12) Water boils at 212 degrees. What does "rolling boil" means? The a. Weighing the dough to make sure loaves are the same size.
bubbles are: b. Letting the yeast grow to produce carbon dioxide.
a. rolling non-stop c. Testing cakes for doneness.
b. forming rapidly and cannot be stopped when stirred d. Brushing risen loaves before baking with egg whites for a shiny
c. forming slowly and can be stopped when stirred glazed finish.
d. spilling out of a container 18) Why should eggs be beaten with the use of copper bowl? Copper
13) Which of the following ingredients will use creaming method? bowl ________.
a. butter, flour and egg a. is special metal that makes egg fresher
b. flour, butter and egg b. makes egg fluffy and moist
c. butter, egg and sugar c. keeps eggs fresh and firm
d. flour butter and sugar d. has special property which stabilizes the eggs
14) Onions when peeled or cut irritate the eyes and give biting 19) What do you call that pourable mixture of flour, liquid and other
sensations on the tongue. This is due to the presence of: ingredients?
a. sulfoxide a. Dough
b. sulfur compounds b. Batter
c. sodium nitrate c. Cream
d. mustard oil d. Syrup
15) The practice of adding baking soda when cooking vegetables for 20) Which flour typically forms the most gluten?
the purpose of retaining the green color and the crispness should be a. cake flour
avoided primarily because: b. all purpose flour
a. the flavor of the vegetable is modified c. bread flour
b. vitamin C is destroyed in the presence of alkali d. pastry flour
21) Diana is cooking eggs for breakfast. She breaks the eggs one at a b. mince
time into a dish and slide them into a hot water for about 3 to 5 c. flake
minutes or unitl the whites are coagulated and yolks are still soft. d. grate
What procedure in cooking eggs does she apply? 26) Food is more appetizing to the eye if small portions of colorful
a. Boiling food such as celery, parsley and tomatoes are added to a dish to
b. Poaching improve its appearance. Which of the term applied to the statement?
c. Simmering a. glace
d. Blanching b. garnish
22) Every chef knows that "mise enplace" is the first step to a c. frosting
successful food preparation. This French term which means putting d. decoration
everything in place applies to ________. 27) What vegetable cut is appropriate for potato in preparing
a. throwing the garbage menudo?
b. sautéing the spices a. slice
c. creaming the butter b. mince
d. pre-heating the oven c. julienne
23) Mixed vegetables are best when cooked very briefly by dipping d. cubes
the food into a boiling water until they are crisp-tender and then into 28) Which is a thickening agent made by the combination of 1 part
cold water. This practice is called ________. melted butter and 1 part flour, cooked together?
a. Blanching a. Roux
b. Baking b. Roe
c. Sautéing c. Raw
d. Steaming d. Row
24) Pasta is cooked in boiling water with salt and oil for about 12 to 29) The food is prepared by skewing the meat, seasoned and brushed
15 minutes or until "al dente." Al dente is an Italian term which with oil, placed on greased grid and cooked over live coals. Which is
means ________. referred to?
a. firm yet tender to the bite a. Broil
b. soft and soggy b. Bake
c. pleasant flavor c. Barbeque
d. crisp texture d. Pan fry
25) A student is preparing chicken macaroni salad as an appetizer 30) Which term applies when eggs and cream are beaten rapidly until
dish. What will the student do for the cooked chicken? thick and stiff with a whisk to incorporate air and increase volume?
a. chop a. Creaming
b. Whipping c. Vitamin E
c. Blending d. Vitamin C
d. Stirring 36) The food pyramid illustrates the balance of foods needed for a
31) To soak the meat or fish in a mixture of oil, vinegar and wine to healthy lifestyle. Fat, sugar, salt and alcohol are group under what
add flavor and make it tender is to ________ it. classification?
a. marinade a. Eat Least Food
b. season b. Eat Moderately Foods
c. dip c. Eat All Foods
d. marinate d. Eat Most Foods
32) Working the dough by stretching and folding in a floured surface 37) The following are physiological functions of food, EXCEPT:
to obtain the required consistency is ________. a. give energy
a. Beating b. build and repair cells
b. Kneading c. provide satisfaction
c. Punching d. regulate body process
d. Folding 38) CHON is the chemical formula for ________.
33) Which of the following term may apply in cutting vegetables into a. carbohydrates
thin match sticks size which are used to garnished dishes? b. protein
a. Mirepoix c. fat
b. Macedoine d. minerals
c. Brunoise 39) What vitamin deficiency is present when a person suffers from
d. Julienne poor night vision or blindness?
34) A 50g serving size of chiffon cake contains 3g fat, 22g a. Retinol
carbohydrates and 3g protein. How many kcal are in a serving size of b. Thiamine
chiffon cake? c. Niacin
a. 117 kcal d. Folic acid
b. 127 kcal 40) What disease would result to a person who has an iron
c. 137 kcal deficiency?
d. 147 kcal a. Cough and cold
35) Fat-soluble vitamins can easily be dissolved in fat. The following b. Nose bleed
are examples of fat soluble vitamins, EXCEPT: c. Anemia
a. Vitamin D d. Xeropthalmia
b. Vitamin K
41) Which of the following fruit and vegetables have higher water c. 74 kcal
percentage composition? d. 84 kcal
a. Apple 47) Which antioxidant vitamin helps to absorb iron?
b. Strawberry a. Vitamin C
c. Carrots b. Vitamin A
d. Tomatoes c. Vitamin D
42) Which is NOT a function of fat? d. Vitamin E
a. Enhance flavor and palatability of food 48) Which is not a function of water?
b. Carrier of fat-soluble vitamins a. Regulate body processes
c. Protect the heart and kidneys b. Carrier of waste products
d. Repair body tissues c. Provides energy
43) The following vegetables are good sources of carotene, d. Regulates body temperature
EXCEPT: 49) What do you call the sugar in milk or milk carbohydrate?
a. Mangoes a. Fructose
b. Carrots b. Lactose
c. Legumes c. Glucose
d. Tomatoes d. Sucrose
44) Which is NOT a group from the Food Guide Pyramid? 50) The loss of riboflavin in milk can be prevented if milk is
a. water, milk, yogurt ________.
b. food additives a. heated to a boiling point
c. chicken, pork, egg b. pasteurized before packing
d. rice, corn, pasta c. kept cold and protected from light
45) Which statement regarding vitamins is most accurate? d. fermented and sealed
a. Inorganic substances needed in the body 51) Eliza wants to celebrate her birthday in a restaurant. She ordered
b. Cannot be destroyed by heat, light or oxygen food from appetizer to dessert at P300.00 per cover, good for 60 pax
c. Regulate physiological processes and she paid a total amount of P18,000. What type of menu did she
d. Control composition of body fluids avail of?
46) Estimate the kilocalorie value of a 25g biscuit with 16g total a. Table d'hote
carbohydrates. b. Cycle menu
a. 54 kcal c. Ala carte
b. 64 kcal d. Static menu
52) A TLE teacher plans to prepare Chicken Galantina for her food 57) Mother wants to prepare Callos and Goto for father's birthday
and nutrition class. What cooking method is applied for this chicken party. Which variety of meat could you suggest for these recipes?
dish? a. Tongue
a. Broiling b. Tripe
b. Roasting c. Heart
c. Frying d. Liver
d. Steaming 58) The teacher demonstrated to the students the proper way of
53) Sauce is a richly flavored thickened liquid, used to complement a slitting the abdominal part of the poultry and pulling out the entrails.
meal. What leading sauce is used in making Carbonara? This step in dressing chicken is referred to as ________.
a. Veloute sauce a. slaughtering
b. Brown sauce b. defeathering
c. Bechamel sauce c. evisceration
d. Tomato sauce d. scalding
54) Vegetables have different degrees of doneness. It is done when it 59) The students are preparing food for their culminating activity.
has reached the desired degree of tenderness. The following are the They are expected to invite 100 guests. What type of service is more
guidelines to achieve proper doneness in vegetables, EXCEPT: convenient for 100 guests with limited space and food servers?
a. cook vegetables close to serving time a. Counter service
b. cut vegetables into uniform pieces b. Russian service
c. separate tough part from tender part c. Buffet service
d. cook different kinds of vegetables together d. French service
55) Eggs serve many important functions in cookery. What is the 60) Jessa plans to cook Bopiz for her catering function. Which part
function of eggs when it is used to bind food together? of pork cuts would she buy?
a. as a leavening agent a. Leg
b. as a thickening agent b. Loin
c. as a clarifying agent c. Picnic
d. as an emulsifying agent d. Variety
56) In an American service, all drinks should be served ________ of 61) What is the function of eggs in mayonnaise preparation?
the guest. a. Emulsifying agent
a. at the right side b. Thickening agent
b. at the left side c. Browning agent
c. across d. Leavening agent
d. in front
62) Why do we buy food from approved sources? c. use of margarine
a. cheaper price d. trim all visible fats from meat
b. guarantee safe and wholesome food 68) What is the menu pattern for breakfast?
c. good customer service a. fruits, protein dish, cereal, beverage
d. accessibility and comfort b. appetizer, protein dish, pasta, dessert
63) Which of the following reasons for cooking meat is FALSE? c. cereal, protein dish, beverage
a. improve flavor and appearance d. soup, vegetable dish, dessert
b. tenderize meat 69) Which is considered as the most important meal of the day?
c. unavailability of nutrients a. Supper
d. destroy harmful microorganisms b. Lunch
64) Which of the following is NOT a moist-heat method of cooking? c. Breakfast
a. Scalding d. Brunch
b. Stewing 70) The main course or courses of dinner consisting usually of meat,
c. Baking fish or pulses with or without accompaniments is called ________.
d. Steaming a. entrée
65) One sachet of powdered juice contains 60g orange flavor. How b. espagnole
many liters of water should be added if the proportion is 1g powder, c. emincer
20 mL water? d. entremets
a. 3.5 L 71) The main goal in meal planning, food preparation and service is
b. 2.3 L _________.
c. 2.0 L a. present low cost foods
d. 1.2 L b. serve appetizing meals
66) How many ounces is 1 cup of soda? c. satisfaction of family members
a. 6 ounces d. keep meals nutritionally adequate
b. 8 ounces 72) Which food group is a good source of fiber?
c. 12 ounces a. milk, yogurt, cheese
d. 16 ounces b. meat, poultry, eggs
67) Which of the statement about the general direction for Low- c. bread, rice, pasta
Cholesterol diets is FALSE? d. banana, apples, oranges
a. use of corn oil 73) Which of the following is NOT a principle in planning meals?
b. avoid coconut milk a. Plan meals ahead of time.
b. Plan meals that have interesting variety.
c. Plan meals that are rich in essential nutrients. b. Serve food from the left side of the guest with service person's left
d. Plan meals that are expensive and entail more time to prepare. hand
74) Which of the following has the biggest expense in the food c. Scrape and stack dirty plates on guest table
budget? d. Bring all food to the guest at the same time
a. Meat 80) Which of the following is an example of a low cost dish?
b. Fruits a. Pork adobo
c. Cereals b. Chicken kare-kare
d. Dairy c. Baked mussels
75) Which is a low cost but nutritious dish? d. Seafood sinigang
a. Grilled fish 81) When the recipe calls for steaming fish and a steamer is not
b. Beef with broccoli available, what will you do?
c. Ginataang monggo with dilis a. Place the fish wrap in banana leaf and cook in a tightly covered
d. Chicken lollipop with tartar sauce frying pan containing water.
76) One of the functions required before assembling the food b. Place the fish in a frying pan and cover with coconut milk.
materials to produce quality meals is ________. c. Place the fish in a casserole lined with barbecue stick and apply
a. market list heat.
b. menu planning d. Place the fish in a frying pan, add water and cook.
c. mis en place card 82) Baking chiffon cake requires a baking temperature of 350
d. standardized recipe degrees Fahrenheit. What is its equivalent in Centigrade if your oven
77) When guests enter into a restaurant the first thing that a thermostat was set in degree Celsius?
receptionist should offer is ________. a. 176 degree Celsius
a. water b. 186 degree Celsius
b. appetizer c. 196 degree Celsius
c. bread and butter d. 206 degree Celsius
d. menu card 83) Olivia bakes cheese bread, forming a fairly firm, porous
78) Which of the following is the CORRECT menu sequence? structure. What gives structure to the cheese bread?
a. main dish, appetizers, cereals, beverages, desserts a. Albumen
b. appetizers, main dish, cereals, beverages, desserts b. Gluten
c. cereals, main dish, appetizers, beverages, desserts c. Whey
d. desserts, main dish, cereals, appetizers, beverages d. Casein
79) Which of the following statement about service rule is FALSE? 84) What will you do to the shortening if you want to make quick
a. Serve women before men breads using the biscuit method?
a. Melt the shortening c. chef
b. Cream the shortening d. palette
c. Fold in the shortening 90) Which is usually done with a fork to make small holes in
d. Cut in the shortening bottoms and side of crust for single crust pies?
85) The students are cutting apples for their apple pie filling. They a. Docking
noticed that browning occurs at the cut surfaces of apples. What b. Punching
process may have caused the browning color of an apple? c. Cutting
a. Reaction between protein, amino acids and sugar d. Fluting
b. Oxidative enzymatic changes 91) Which is known as strong flour because it contains 12-14%
c. Carmelization of sugar protein?
d. Over handling a. All purpose flour
86) Which is NOT a function of salt in food? b. Cake flour
a. flavor enhancer c. Pastry flour
b. preservative d. Bread flour
c. increase volume 92) Which phrase describes a good characteristic of pastry?
d. control agent a. wet and brown
87) Which statement about conventional method of mixing is b. tender and flaky
FALSE? c. dry and hard
a. time consuming d. sweet and mushy
b. produce velvety texture 93) The following are some safety risks in baking, EXCEPT:
c. one-bowl method a. hot oven
d. alternate addition of dry and liquid ingredients b. moving parts
88) Which ingredient controls and regulates the fermentation in c. sufficient light
bread making? d. cutting equipment
a. Yeast 94) Which icing is made from shortening, sugar syrup and eggs?
b. Salt a. boiled icing
c. Baking powder b. royal icing
d. Sugar c. buttercream icing
89) A blunt knife with an extremely flexible steel blade primary used d. fondant icing
for mixing colors in cake designing is ________ knife. 95) When the pastry shell is baked before it can be filled, this is
a. cake called ________.
b. serrated a. molding
b. blind baking
c. proofing
d. resting
96) Which of the following does NOT belong to the group?
a. Muffin
b. Popover
c. Waffle
d. Pie
97) Which living organism feeds in sugar to produce alcohol and
carbon dioxide?
a. Yeast
b. Bacteria
c. Fungi
d. Mold
98) What disease-causing microorganism is commonly found in
eggs?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Salmonella
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Shigella
ANSWERS: 33. D 67. C
1. B 34. B 68. A
2. C 35. D 69. C
3. B 36. A 70. A
4. D 37. C 71. D
5. D 38. B 72. C
6. A 39. A 73. D
7. D 40. C 74. A
8. A 41. D 75. C
9. A 42. D 76. B
10. B 43. C 77. D
11. C 44. B 78. B
12. B 45. C 79. C
13. C 46. B 80. C
14. B 47. A 81. A
15. B 48. C 82. A
16. A 49. B 83. B
17. B 50. C 84. D
18. D 51. A 85. B
19. B 52. D 86. C
20. C 53. C 87. C
21. B 54. D 88. B
22. D 55. B 89. D
23. A 56. A 90. A
24. A 57. B 91. D
25. C 58. C 92. B
26. B 59. C 93. C
27. D 60. D 94. C
28. A 61. A 95. B
29. C 62. B 96. D
30. B 63. C 97. A
31. D 64. C 98. B
32. B 65. D
66. B
TLE (5) - Carpentry and Masonry 6) There are numerous kinds of saw. When sawing along the grain of
wood, you need a ________.
1) The preparation of good quality lumber includes several stages. a. back saw
When it is dried, the process involved is? b. cross cut saw
a. seasoning c. rip saw
b. staining d. circular saw
c. lumbering
d. logging 7) In measuring cylindrical object, what is the appropriate tool to be
used?
2) The smallest division of the metric scale that you can find in the a. ruler
steel rule is ________. b. caliper
a. decimeter c. pull-push rule
b. centimeter d. meter stick
c. millimeter
d. meter 8) Fastening materials are important in woodworks. The most
common of these materials is ________.
3) What is the conversion equivalent of one inch to centimeters? a. dowel
a. 25.4 b. bolts
b. 2.54 c. screw
c. 0.254 d. nails
d. 0.0254
9) A wood product made of three or more veneer slice that are laid
4) Find the total number of board feet of six pieces of lumber with a one upon the other and bonded with glue or synthetic resin is
dimension of 2" x 4" x 12'. ________.
a. 8 bd. ft. a. Pressed wood
b. 96 bd. ft. b. Plywood
c. 48 bd. ft. c. Particle board
d. 480 bd. ft. d. Soft wood
5) A seasoned lumber is ideal for carpentry works. Which among the 10) Which of the following tools is used in checking the squareness
following is best to use? of the corners and flatness of a surface?
a. Sun dried a. Straightedge
b. Kiln dried b. Steel square
c. Air dried c. Sliding T-bevel
d. Natural dried d. Try square
11) The strongest form of wood joint applicable for table legs is a. Floor joist
________. b. Sill
a. miter c. Header
b. mortise and tenon d. Girder
c. dado 17) A type of roof frame consisting series of triangles used to
d. butt and lap distribute loads and stiffen the structure of the roof is ________.
12) You are almost finished with your project. One of the procedure a. Girts
below is done before the application of finishing materials. b. Rafter
a. cutting c. Truss
b. spraying d. Purlins
c. sanding 18) A triangular file is used to sharpen a saw. What is the angle of
d. varnishing the file set against the bevel of the tooth of a cross cut saw?
13) A surfaced lumber where four of its sides are smooth or planed is a. 30 degrees
called: b. 45 degrees
a. S3S c. 90 degrees
b. S2S d. 60 degrees
c. Rough 19) What kind of wood finishing material is used when you want a
d. S4S solid color instead of a wood pattern finish?
14) In carpentry, splicing or joining of wood using two side blocks is a. Opaque finishes
called: b. Bleaches
a. Lapping c. Stains
b. Scarfing d. Lacquers
c. Fishing 20) A saw angle should be adjusted depending on the kind of wood.
d. Jointing What is the recommended angle for soft and thin wood?
15) There is considerable number of wood joints. The simplest and a. 30-45 degrees
easiest to make is ________. b. 60 degrees
a. Lap joint c. 80 degrees
b. Dado joint d. 20 degrees
c. Miter joint 21) Which is considered to be the oldest and most commonly used
d. Butt joint building material?
16) In a wooden floor system, the major horizontal support member a. Cement
upon which the floor system is laid is the ________. b. Wood
c. Steel 27) Which lumber has been put through planing machine which
d. Sand gives fine surface?
22) A wood which is obtained from conifers and are used for a. rough
framing? b. smooth
a. Hard wood c. dressed
b. Soft wood d. worked
c. Dark wood 28) Which lumber that has been dresses and matched, ship lapped, or
d. Brown wood patterned?
23) Which wood is obtained from deciduous trees? a. rough
a. Hard wood b. smooth
b. Soft wood c. dressed
c. Dark wood d. worked
d. Brown wood 29) Which is a plank of wood that has been roughly cut?
24) Which is a binding agent that reacts with water to form a hard a. Timber
stone-like substance? b. Board
a. Glue c. Lumber
b. Cement d. Block
c. Mortar 30) Which lumber has been cut from logs radially to the growth rings
d. Grout and the fiber runs about parallel to the face?
25) Which term refers to inert materials when bound together into a a. Edge-grain
conglomerated mass from concrete? b. Angle-grain
a. Aggregates c. Flat-grain
b. Gravel d. Close-grain
c. Cement 31) Which lumber has been cut tangentially to the growth rings and
d. Water the fiber runs about 90 degrees to the face?
26) A lumber that has been sawed, edged, and trimmed in which a. Edge-grain
cutting marks are visible is ________. b. Angle-grain
a. rough c. Flat-grain
b. smooth d. Close-grain
c. dressed 32) Which is the art of building with stone, bricks, concrete blocks of
d. worked other similar materials?
a. Carpentry
b. Concrete a. Hat
c. Mortar b. Belt and harness
d. Masonry c. Helmet
33) If you want to go upstairs, which part do you hold on to? d. Shed
a. Handrail 39) In the construction site, what protects the carpenter from falling?
b. Tread a. Hat
c. Handle b. Belt and harness
d. Riser c. Helmet
34) If you want to upstairs, which part do you step on? d. Shed
a. Handrail 40) These are compress baked clay that are processed into workable
b. Tread materials?
c. Handle a. Stone
d. Riser b. Sand
35) What makes the door swing when you close and open it? c. Bricks
a. Door knob d. CHB
b. Door lock 41) Which lumber has wood fibers that are packed closely together?
c. Door shutter a. Edge-grain
d. Door hinge b. Angle-grain
36) A carpenter wants to construct a stair, what could be the standard c. Flat-grain
height of the riser? d. Close-grain
a. 5-6 inches 42) Which lumber has wood fiber that do not run parallel to the
b. 6-8 inches board?
c. 8-10 inches a. Edge-grain
d. 10-12 inches b. Cross-grain
37) In masonry works, it is necessary to wear protective equipment, c. Flat-grain
EXCEPT: d. Close-grain
a. mask 43) A carpenter makes a picture frame. Which type of joint is
b. goggles appropriate?
c. gloves a. Dado joint
d. ear muffs b. Tenon joint
38) In the construction site, what protects the carpenter from falling c. Lap joint
objects? d. Miter joint
44) A carpenter fixes shelves of a bookcase. Which type of joint is b. Butt joint
appropriate? c. Lap joint
a. Dado joint d. Miter joint
b. Mortise and Tenon joint 50) Which wood joint describes the technique for joining two pieces
c. Lap joint by cutting of 45 degrees angle?
d. Miter joint a. Rabbet joint
45) In which wood joint is the end of one member inserted to hole of b. Butt joint
the other member? c. Lap joint
a. Dado joint d. Miter joint
b. Mortise and Tenon joint 51) Which wood joint protects the room occupants from seeing
c. Lap joint outside?
d. Miter joint a. Rabbet joint
46) Which wood joint describes the technique for joining two pieces b. Butt joint
by putting one side over the other? c. Bridle joint
a. Dado joint d. Miter joint
b. Butt joint 52) Which wood joint is used to support the middle of a bench?
c. Lap joint a. Dado joint
d. Miter joint b. Butt joint
47) Which wood joint describes the technique for joining two pieces c. Bridle joint
by putting one end over the other? d. Miter joint
a. Dado joint 53) Which unit is the basic linear unit of an English system?
b. Butt joint a. foot
c. Lap joint b. meter
d. Miter joint c. yard
48) A carpenter wants to make a dining table. Which joint is d. inch
appropriate to become rigid and durable? 54) Which unit is the basic linear unit of a Metric system?
a. Miter joint a. foot
b. Mortise and Tenon joint b. meter
c. Dado joint c. yard
d. Butt joint d. inch
49) Which is the simplest type of wood joint? 55) If you have 2 ft length of a piece of wood, how long is it in
a. Dado joint inches?
a. 25 a. 5
b. 12 b. 0.05
c. 22 c. 0.005
d. 24 d. 0.5
56) If you have 2 yards length of a piece of wood, how long is it in 62) How tall is a 10 meter building in inches?
inches? a. 3.937
a. 82 b. 39.37
b. 72 c. 393.7
c. 84 d. 3,937
d. 64 63) A carpenter wants to measure long distances. Which tool is
57) 10 yards length of wood is how many feet? appropriate?
a. 36 a. Ruler
b. 35 b. Extension rule
c. 30 c. Meter stick
d. 24 d. Pull-push rule
58) One decameter of G.I. sheets is how many centimeters? 64) A carpenter wants to mark very rough objects. Which tool is
a. 10 appropriate?
b. 20 a. Chalk line
c. 100 b. Extension rule
d. 1,000 c. Level
59) A 2" x 3" x 12' lumber is how many board feet? d. Border line
a. 2 65) A carpenter wants to obtain vertical line. Which tool is
b. 6 appropriate?
c. 8 a. Ruler
d. 10 b. Level
60) 5 pcs. of a 1" x 1' x 8' lumber is how many board feet? c. Plum bob
a. 30 d. Pull-push rule
b. 35 66) A carpenter wants to cut lumber across the grain. Which tool is
c. 40 appropriate?
d. 45 a. crosscut saw
61) 50 millimeters length of a piece of lumber is how many b. rip cut saw
decimeter?
c. back saw 72) A mason wants to mix and move mortar in brick laying. Which
d. hacksaw tool is appropriate?
67) A carpenter wants to fasten and remove nails. Which tool is a. Pointing trowel
appropriate? b. Crandall
a. Hammer c. Cold chisel
b. Ballpen hammer d. Brick trowel
c. Claw hammer 73) A mason wants to mix concrete. Which tool is appropriate?
d. Sledge hammer a. Shovel
68) A carpenter wants to smoothen wood surfaces. Which tool is b. Buttering
appropriate? c. Trowel
a. File d. Float
b. Sand paper 74) A mason lays bricks. Which tool is appropriate?
c. Back saw a. Shovel
d. Plane b. Hawk
69) A mason wants to create a smooth finish of concrete after c. Trowel
floating. Which tool is appropriate? d. Float
a. Brick hammer 75) Which is flat with handle at the back usually made of wood?
b. Concrete trowel a. Shovel
c. Plane b. Buttering
d. Float c. Trowel
70) A mason wants to set or cut brick, block, or stone. Which tool is d. Float
appropriate? 76) Which tool is used in shaping and forming concrete edges?
a. Claw hammer a. Shovel
b. Crandall b. Buttering
c. Mason's hammer c. Edger
d. Star drill d. Float
71) A mason wants to repair mortar joints. Which tool is 77) A mason wants to mix concrete for column and slab. Which
appropriate? mixture is appropriate?
a. Pointing trowel a. 1 : 2 : 4
b. Crandall b. 1 : 1 1/2 : 3
c. Cold chisel c. 1 : 2 1/2 : 5
d. Brick trowel d. 1 : 3 : 6
78) A mason wants to mix class B mixture. Which mixture is a. Concrete
correct? b. Grout
a. 1 : 2 : 4 c. Mortar
b. 1 : 1 1/2 : 3 d. Bricks
c. 1 : 2 1/2 : 5 84) Which is an artificial stone that results from mixing cement,
d. 1 : 3 : 6 sand, and water?
79) A mason wants to mix concrete for a slab in the ground. Which a. Concrete
mixture is appropriate? b. Grout
a. 1 : 2 : 4 c. Mortar
b. 1 : 1 1/2 : 3 d. Bricks
c. 1 : 2 1/2 : 5 85) Which is an artificial stone that results from mixing cement and
d. 1 : 3 : 6 water?
80) A mason wants to mix concrete for hollow block filler. Which a. Concrete
mixture is appropriate? b. Grout
a. 1 : 2 : 4 c. Mortar
b. 1 : 1 1/2 : 3 d. Bricks
c. 1 : 2 1/2 : 5 86) Which term refers to the process of finishing using mortar?
d. 1 : 3 : 6 a. Finishing
81) Which refers to the ease with which the fresh concrete can be b. Fine finishing
molded without segregation? c. Concreting
a. Plasticity d. Plastering
b. Consistency 87) A mason wants to lay ceramic tiles. Where does he start?
c. Mobility a. Front
d. Grout b. Left
82) Which refers to the degree of wetness or slump of the concrete c. Right
mixture? d. Center
a. Plasticity 88) A mason wants to lay concrete hollow blocks. Where does he
b. Consistency start?
c. Mobility a. Front
d. Grout b. Left
83) Which is an artificial stone that results from mixing cement, c. Right
sand, gravel, and water? d. Center
89) A mason wants to mix mortar for plastering. What does he mix? b. ₱1,900
a. cement and water c. ₱2,000
b. cement and sand d. ₱2,100
c. sand and water 95) A carpenter bought 10 pcs. of a 2" x 4" x 6' lumber. If the price
d. water and cement of lumber is P50.00 per board foot, how much did he pay?
90) A mason wants to lay concrete hollow blocks into a 10 sq.m. a. ₱1,800
wall. How many CHB are needed? b. ₱1,900
a. 100 pcs. c. ₱2,000
b. 120 pcs. d. ₱2,100
c. 122.5 pcs. 96) A carpenter bought 10 pcs. of a 2" x 6" x 4' lumber. If the price
d. 125 pcs. of lumber is P50.00 per board foot, how much did he pay?
91) A mason wants to lay 16" by 16" ceramic tiles in a 10 sq.m. a. ₱1,800
room. How many tiles are needed? b. ₱1,900
a. 60 pcs. c. ₱2,000
b. 61.5 pcs. d. ₱2,100
c. 62.5 pcs. 97) Which tile is appropriate in the toilet and bathroom flooring?
d. 63 pcs. a. Glaze tiles
92) How many CHBs are installed for a wall having a dimension of b. Ceramic tiles
2.5 m width and 4.0 m height? c. Non-skid granite tiles
a. 125 pcs. d. Clay tiles
b. 122.5 pcs. 98) Bricks are laid where its longer side is exposed to view. This
c. 300 pcs. arrangement is called ________.
d. 400 pcs. a. Header
93) How many 8" x 8" wall tiles are needed in a wall 2.5 m width b. Stretcher
and 4.0 m height? c. Bond
a. 300 pcs. d. Mortar
b. 500 pcs. 99) The most widely used masonry materials for construction works
c. 550 pcs. are?
d. 600 pcs. a. Ashlar
94) A carpenter bought 10 pcs. of a 2" x 3" x 8' lumber. If the price b. Bricks
of lumber is ₱50.00 per board foot, how much did he pay? c. Rubble stones
a. ₱1,800 d. Concrete hollow blocks
100) It is a masonry material manufactured from clay and other a. Correct proportion of ingredients.
materials? b. Proper method of mixing.
a. Stones c. Adequate protection of concrete during curing.
b. Stucco d. Dropping concrete mixture from high elevation.
c. Bricks 106) What class of concrete mixture is consisting of 1 bag cement, 2
d. Concrete pavers cu. ft. of sand, and 4 cu. ft. of gravel or 1:2:4?
101) What is the tool used to guide the vertical position in laying a. Class AA
bricks? b. Class A
a. Plumb bob c. Class B
b. Water hose level d. Class C
c. Spirit level 107) How many cubic yard of concrete do you need to cover a space
d. String or chord with an area of 25 square foot and a slab thickness of four (4)
102) Which among the following is a surface finishing tool for inches?
concrete? a. 0.34 cu. yd.
a. Crandal b. 0.32 cu. yd.
b. Bolster c. 0.25 cu. yd.
c. Float d. 0.51 cu. yd.
d. Spade 108) What tool or instrument is used to set-up the lateral level of a
103) Which of the following is NOT a requirement to consider in concrete fence?
proportioning concrete mixture? a. Water hose level
a. Economy b. Spirit level
b. Workability c. Plumb bob
c. Strength d. Straight edge
d. Flexibility 109) According to the building code of the Philippines, for how
104) Concrete is said to be workable if it can be molded or deformed many days shall concrete be maintained above 10 °C temperature
without segregation. This characteristic is known as ________. and in a moist condition?
a. Consistency a. 3 days
b. Plasticity b. 5 days
c. Mobility c. 7 days
d. Workability d. 10 days
105) The following are factors that regulate the strength of concrete, 110) Which of the following are known as coarse aggregates in a
EXCEPT: concrete mixture?
a. Sand b. Stirrups
b. Soil c. Spiral tie
c. Gravel d. Rebars
d. Stones 116) The structure that holds the poured concrete until it hardens to
111) What do you call the process of hardening of concrete? form the concrete beam or post.
a. Curing a. Scaffolding
b. Setting b. Batter board
c. Hardening c. Forms
d. Molding d. Stake
112) What is the type of hydraulic cement is widely used in small 117) To convert from feet to get number of meters, multiply feet by?
and large construction including roads and highways? a. 0.3048
a. Hydraulic cement b. 25.4
b. Portland cement c. 30.48
c. Pozzolan cement d. 2.54
d. Lime
113) How many pieces of 4" x 8" x 16" concrete hollow blocks
(CHB) can be laid per bag of cement as mortar?
a. 55 to 60 pcs.
b. 25 to 30 pcs.
c. 30 to 36 pcs.
d. 40 to 40 pcs.
114) What ingredient in concrete is added to the batch immediately
before or during its mixing to improve its durability and accelerate
strength development?
a. Fine aggregates
b. Coarse aggregates
c. Admixture
d. Water
115) Which of the following refers to the structural reinforcing
member that holds or binds together the main reinforcement of a
column?
a. Lateral tie
ANSWERS: 23. A 56. B 86. D
1. A 24. B 57. C 87. D
2. C 25. A 58. D 88. B
3. B 26. A 59. B 89. B
4. C 27. C 60. C 90. D
5. B 28. D 61. A 91. C
6. C (rip saw) - A back saw is 29. C 62. C 92. A
used for making cuts for wood 30. C 63. D 93. B
joints; cross cut saw is used to 31. A 64. A 94. C
cut wood across its grain; while 32. D 65. C 95. C
circular saw is a mechanized 33. A 66. A 96. C
saw. 34. B 67. C 97. C
7. B 35. D 68. D - A carpenter's plane is a 98. B
8. D 36. B hand tool with an adjustable 99. D
9. B 37. D blade for smoothing or shaping 100. C
10. B 38. C wood. 101. A
11. B 39. B 69. B 102. C
12. C 40. C 70. C 103. D
13. D (S4S) - S2S means two 41. D 71. A 104. B
sides of the lumber are planed or 42. B 72. D 105. D
smooth. No such term as S3S; 43. D 73. A 106. B
and Rough means that the piece 44. A 74. B 107. A
of lumber is not planed. 45. B 75. D 108. B
14. C 46. C 76. C 109. C
15. A 47. B 77. B 110. C
16. C 48. B 78. C 111. A
17. C 49. B 79. A 112. B
18. D - 60 degrees for cross cut 50. D 80. D 113. A
saw; and 90 degrees for a rip saw 51. A 81. A 114. C
19. A 52. C 82. B 115. B
20. A 53. D 83. A 116. C
21. B 54. B 84. C 117. A
22. B 55. D 85. B
TLE (6) - Basic Electronics a. allow current to flow in both directions
b. multiply voltage
1) A schematic diagram shows the components of an electronic c. allow current to flow in one direction only
circuit by means of: d. not allow any current flow
a. Symbol
b. Construction 7) There are various types of diodes. This diode that acts as a
c. Physical appearance regulator is the ________.
d. Linear appearance a. Silicon diode
b. Crystal diode
2) What is the best place for electronic hand tools and equipment? c. LED
a. Tool box d. Zener diode
b. Tool cabinet
c. Tool room 8) You will find an electrode nearest the white band on a rectifier.
d. Tool bag What is it?
a. Anode
3) Imagine three resistors in parallel, with values of 22 ohms, 27 b. Cathode
ohms, and 33 ohms. If a 12 V battery is connected across this c. Gate
combination, what is the current drawn from the battery? d. Main Terminal
a. 1.4 A
b. 15 mA 9) When a diode is tested and the reading is zero, it means the diode
c. 150 mA is ________.
d. 1.5 A a. Shorted
b. Open
4) Which of the following is a non-polarized electronic component? c. Leaky
a. Transistor d. Good
b. Resistor
c. Diode 10) If the transistor is an NPN type, the base is ________.
d. Electrolytic capacitor a. negative & positive
b. negative
5) The voltage rating found in a capacitor is called ________. c. positive
a. Peak-reverse voltage d. common
b. Working voltage
c. Blow-up voltage 11) If the arrow of a transistor symbol is pointing inward it tells us
d. Breakdown voltage that the transistor is:
a. NPN
6) A diode is an electronic part that at all times is expected to do one b. PNP
of the following functions. Which one is it?
c. Bipolar 17) The condition of a loud speaker is tested more accurately using
d. Injunction one of the ranges listed below:
12) In the electronic symbol of a transistor, the electrode with an a. R x 1K
arrow is the: b. R x 10
a. Emitter c. R x 1
b. Base d. R x 10K
c. Collector 18) Working efficiently is a good work habit. Tinning the tip of a
d. Cathode soldering iron refers to:
13) The production of magnetic field by current in a conductor is a. Cleaning the tip with a sand paper
________. b. Making the tip pointed
a. Electromagnetism c. Cutting the tip
b. Ferromagnetism d. Applying flux to the tip
c. Magnetism 19) The common cause of an erratic or distorted sound of a transistor
d. Diamagnetism radio is a defective?
14) The type of current whose amplitude drops to zero periodically a. Amplifier
and is produced in rectifier is known as ________. b. Volume control
a. Pulsating Direct Current c. Antenna
b. Damped Alternating Current d. Tuner
c. Varying Direct Current 20) An appliance with 110 Volts AC Supply is accidentally plugged
d. Saw tooth wave to a 220 Volts AC outlet. What component is usually destroyed?
15) Printed on the dial of an AM radio is an RF band covering a. Switch
_________. b. AC plug
a. kHz 76 - 90 MHz c. Line fuse
b. 88 - 108 MHz d. Power transformer
c. 16 Hz - 20 kHz 21) The word electron was derived from the Greek word "elektron",
d. 535 - 1,605 kHz which means:
16) An ordinary radio can be tuned to different stations. The a. to rub
electronic component responsible for this function is the: b. to flow
a. Tuning capacitor c. amber
b. Oscillator coil d. friction
c. IF transformer 22) The peak to peak voltage in a 117 V AC outlet is ________.
d. Detector diode a. 620 V
b. 165.5 V b. series
c. 331 V c. series-parallel
d. 220 V d. cannot be determined
23) Which is a type of modulation where the amplitude of the 29) Which is an electrical unit of measuring a power?
carriers is changed in accordance with demodulating signal? a. Ohms
a. FM b. Ampere
b. PDM c. Watt
c. AM d. Volt
d. PCM 30) A category of a resistor which obey Ohm's Law is ________.
24) The actual flow of current is from ________. a. linear
a. negative to positive b. non-linear
b. positive to negative c. potentiometer
c. positive to positive d. resistance
d. negative to negative 31) Which is an electronic device that is used to limit or oppose the
25) The rate of doing work is called ________. flow of current in a circuit?
a. energy a. Capacitor
b. power b. Resistor
c. voltage c. Diode
d. resistance d. Inductor
26) MilliHenry is equal to ________. 32) An instrument that is used to measure the amount of resistance in
a. 10th Henry a circuit is called ________.
b. 100th Henry a. DC voltmeter
c. 1,000th Henry b. ohmmeter
d. 1,000,000th Henry c. AC voltmeter
27) An inductor opposes any change in ________. d. ammeter
a. voltage 33) Solder is a mixture of ________.
b. current a. tin lead
c. frequency b. zinc and lead
d. modulation c. zinc and tin
28) A circuit having two or more current paths is a ________ d. copper and lead
connection. 34) The common used soldering lead is ________.
a. parallel a. 40-60
b. 60-40 a. higher
c. 50-50 b. lower
d. 50-40 c. the same
35) A standard 220VAC has a frequency of ________. d. cannot be determined
a. 45 Hz 41) A 100n capacitor in parallel with 10n produces ________.
b. 30 Hz a. 90n
c. 50 Hz b. 110n
d. 60 Hz c. 100n
36) A low frequency speaker is sometimes known as ________. d. cannot be determined
a. tweeter 42) The 10k resistor in parallel with 10k produces ________.
b. squeaker a. 10K
c. woofer b. 20K
d. howler c. 5K
37) The three leads of a common transistor are a/an: d. cannot be determined
a. collector base emitter 43) The 2 pcs. of 3V batteries are connected in series. The output
b. emitter collector base voltage is ________.
c. base collector case a. 3V
d. collector base emitter b. 6V
38) Connecting lead from the negative to the positive of a battery c. 0V
will produce a/an ________. d. cannot be determined
a. high resistance circuit 44) An electronic device that is used to limit or oppose the flow of
b. low current path current in a circuit is called a ________.
c. short circuit a. capacitor
d. open circuit b. resistor
39) What is the approximate characteristic voltage that develops c. diode
across a red LED? d. inductor
a. 1.7 V 45) Which tool is needed in removing soldered components in the
b. 0.6 V circuit board?
c. 3.4 V a. Long nose pliers
d. 6 V b. Desoldering pump
40) If two resistors are placed in series, the final resistance is c. Diagonal cutting pliers
________. d. Wire stripper
46) Which tool is used in joining or soldering electronic components c. environmental temperature sensitivity
in the circuit board? d. persistence limitations
a. Soldering iron 52) Which is TRUE of a series DC motor with no load?
b. Electrical pliers a. Tends to stop or not start
c. Desoldering pump b. Maybe damaged by excessive speed
d. Long nose plier c. Has reverse direction
47) Which tool is used to hold or pick up components in the circuit d. Becomes an AC generator
board? 53) A fuse marked 250V, 650m can be used in circuits with an "open
a. Mechanical pliers fuse" supply voltage of ________.
b. Long nose pliers a. 125 Volts
c. Electrical pliers b. 500 Volts
d. Wire stripper c. 5,000 Volts
48) Which tool is used in turning slotted screws? d. 250 Volts
a. Flat screw driver 54) To prevent transistor from getting hot, use ________.
b. Phillips screw driver a. silicon grease
c. Electrical pliers b. insulator
d. Wire stripper c. heat sink
49) Which is a pocket-sized tool that provides maximum safety when d. exhaust fan
pulling cartridge fuses and checking electrical connections? 55) To obtain a higher value of resistance, resistors are ________.
a. Fuse puller a. reverse
b. Screw driver b. parallel
c. Desoldering tool c. forward
d. Mini drill d. series
50) If a 10K resistor is placed across a 10 v supply, the current will 56) Which fuse has its internal fusible wire wrapped around an
be ________. insulator?
a. 10 mA a. a slow-blow type fuse
b. 0.001 mA b. an inductive fuse
c. 1 mA c. a capacitive fuse
d. 65 mA d. intended for high voltage fuse
51) A disadvantage of LCD (liquid crystal display) is ________. 57) Which would be considered "basic components of a power
a. high current demands supply"?
b. slow reactance to input a. zener, regulator, transformer
b. regulator, diode, AC power, load b. Pulsating DC voltage
c. transformer, bridge, capacitor, load c. DC output voltage
d. filter, regulator, rectifier, transformer d. AC and DC voltage outputs
58) Which presents the rise and fall of alternating current and 64) When checking an open resistor using an ohmmeter the
voltages? resistance reads
a. Graph ________.
b. Sine wave a. zero level
c. Fluctuation b. high resistance but within the tolerance
d. Cycle c. infinite
59) When two capacitors are connected in parallel, the capacitance d. low but not zero
will ________. 65) Moving one plate of a capacitor further away from the other will
a. increase ________.
b. have the same value a. decrease capacitance
c. decrease b. increase capacitance
d. increase and decrease c. decrease voltage rating
60) Which circuit has the most gain? d. increase mutual transductunce
a. Common emitter 66) In checking capacitor to see if it is shorted, open or leaky, you
b. Common collector would use the ________ ohmmeter range.
c. Common base a. lowest
d. Emitter follower b. highest
61) Which rectifier circuit uses four diodes for its rectification? c. middle
a. half-wave rectifier d. upper
b. full-wave rectifier 67) A schematic diagram shows the components of an electronic
c. full-wave rectifier circuit by means of ________.
d. split type rectifier a. a symbol
62) When a resistor is open, the resistance ________. b. a construction
a. increases c. physical appearance
b. gets zero d. linear appearance
c. decreases 68) If there are only two resistors with the same values in parallel
d. is infinite circuit, which formula may be used to find its total resistance?
63) A low voltage power supply converts ________. a. Rt = R/n
a. AC voltage output b. Rt = (R1xR2) / (R1+R2)
c. 1/Rt = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + ......1/Rn c. Signal tracer
d. Rt = (R1+R2) / (R1xR2) d. Signal generator
69) Which hand tool is used solely for cutting metals? 75) What is the another name for connection diagram?
a. utility knife a. Wiring diagram
b. saw b. Block diagram
c. magnifying glass c. Pictorial diagram
d. paint brush d. Schematic diagram
70) What is the reason why threads become stripped? 76) Which equipment is used to discharge electrical charges
a. screws are over tightened produced by the human body?
b. screws are heated a. Audio generator
c. screws are molded b. Signal generator
d. screws are painted c. ESD
71) In what instrument is the ohmmeter found? d. VOM
a. Ammeter 77) Which term refers to the set of rules or practices to ensure no
b. Tube tester accident prevention?
c. Capacitor tester a. Safety practices
d. VOM b. Rules and regulation
72) From what part of the ohmmeter do you derive resistance c. Policy order
reading? d. Action plan
a. Range multiplier 78) What tools are NOT recommended to be used in electronics
b. Reading scale works?
c. Test probes a. brand new tools
d. Pointer b. branded tools
73) Which instrument serves as 3 measuring instruments in one? c. damaged tools
a. Audio generator d. locally produced tools
b. Oscilloscope 79) Which type of lines is used to show mechanical linkages between
c. Signal generator components or parts on schematic diagram?
d. VOM a. Connecting lines
74) Which device produces simple waveforms? b. Dashed lines
a. Audio amplifier c. Medium lines
b. VOM d. Thin lines
80) What does VOM mean? transmitted by the AM transmitter is by means of line to sight.
a. AC Voltmeter c. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because the signals
b. Ohmmeter transmitted by the AM transmitter is by means of line to ground.
c. DC Milliammeter d. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because the signals
d. Volt-Ohm-Milliammeter transmitted by the AM transmitter is by means of line to televise.
81) Which tool is used to cut the insulation without cutting the wire? 86) Why is it needed to place antenna in higher or an elevated area
a. utility knife particularly in a mountainous place?
b. hacksaw I. All signals transmitted by the transmitter station is by means of
c. side cutter line to ground; the higher antenna the more signal can be received.
d. wire stripper II. The antenna is placed in higher or elevated area in order to
82) What does LED stands for? capture the wind direction.
a. Light emitting display III. Signals transmitted by the transmitter station is by means of line
b. Low energy display of sight; the higher antenna the more signal can be received.
c. Light emitting diode a. I only
d. Light emitting detector b. III only
c. II only
83) Which picture or sketch shows the components of a circuit and d. I, II, III
how these components are connected together?
a. Wiring diagram 87) A Service Electronics Technician cleaned the terminal of the
b. Block diagram component using sand paper or knife before it soldered to the PCB.
c. Pictorial diagram What is the main purpose of that cleaning?
d. Schematic diagram a. To attract more charges.
b. To remove the insulator so that soldering can be made easily.
84) 3 pieces of resistors in which the values are 10 ohm, 20 ohms, c. To attract electrons, protons, and neutrons.
and 50 ohms. If the 20 ohms is open, what will be the reading in the d. To maximize the desired voltages.
ohmmeter?
a. 60 ohms 88) If the Service Electronics Technician applied the so-called pre-
b. 0 tinning, how should be the process be?
c. infinite a. The Service Electronics Technician applies a little amount of
d. 80 ohms soldering lead and soldering flux to the tip during pre-heating of the
soldering iron.
85) Why does an AM receiver receive or pick-up signal despite the b. The Service Electronics Technician cleans the soldering tip using
far distance from the transmitter compared to the FM receiver? files, sand paper or a cutter.
a. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because of the transistor. c. The Service Electronics Technician allows his soldering iron to
b. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because the signals heat atleast 40 minutes before he uses it and solders with the terminal
ANSWERS: 33. A 67. A
1. A 34. B 68. B
2. A 35. D 69. B
3. A 36. C 70. A
4. B 37. D 71. D
5. B 38. C 72. A
6. C 39. C 73. D
7. D 40. A 74. D
8. B 41. A 75. D
9. A 42. C 76. C
10. C 43. B 77. A
11. B 44. B 78. C
12. A 45. B 79. A
13. A 46. A 80. D
14. A 47. B 81. D
15. D 48. A 82. C
16. A 49. A 83. C
17. C 50. B 84. C
18. D 51. B 85. C
19. B 52. B 86. B
20. C 53. A 87. B
21. B 54. C 88. A
22. D 55. D
23. C 56. D
24. A 57. B
25. B 58. B
26. C 59. A
27. B 60. A
28. A 61. C
29. C 62. D
30. A 63. B
31. B 64. C
32. B 65. A
66. B
TLE (7) - Entrepreneurship 5) When an entrepreneur communicates with people through
interviews, observations and advertisement on what is new, what
1) In the entrepreneurial world, new ideas and opportunities are entrepreneurial activity does he/she engage?
evolving. What is the ability to create new things, invest in new a. Statistical study
enterprises and expand business? b. Marketing study
a. Creativity c. Entrepreneurial scanning
b. Entrepreneurship d. Environmental scanning
c. Manufacturing
d. Producing 6) There are P's in preparing market research. Which P in marketing
is designed to communicate the product to customers?
2) Alvin has transferred to a new locality. He observed that there is a. Place
an opportunity for him to put up his own business since he has b. Price
enough capital and very much interested to the idea. Which of these c. People
factors must he possess so that he will not rely on the services of the d. Promotion
employees?
a. Markets 7) The site of the business enterprise is one of the requirements of
b. Manpower entrepreneurship. Which of the following is the most important in
c. Supply of resources choosing the best location for the business?
d. Knowledge/Skills a. access to supplies and raw materials
b. clean, decent and peaceful environment
3) Management functions and principles play a very critical role in c. less competitors in the area
running a business. What principle of planning specifies that the d. enough capital to pay space rental
objectives of an entrepreneur should match the needs of the society?
a. must be realistic 8) Which term refers to people, institutions or organizations for
b. must be based on felt needs whom the business is designed?
c. must focus on dealing with a crisis a. sample
d. must start with a simple project b. population
c. market
4) Entrepreneurs use various management tools to succeed in a d. society
business. What management tool is used to analyze business
opportunities? 9) Which one is not included in planning a business?
a. Environmental scanning a. how and when to do it
b. Market study b. how to increase profits
c. Market survey c. what to expect in the future
d. SWOT d. what to do
10) What is the benefit of business planning wherein the 15) These are the perishable tangible used in the production process.
entrepreneur determines whether the business is profitable or not? a. Financial resources
a. minimize cost production b. Human resources
b. detect the weakness of the business c. Information resources
c. eliminate business risk d. Material resources
d. estimate sales 16) Which method of establishing a business starts from scratch?
11) What is thinking ahead of objectives, strategies, financing, a. buy-out
production, marketing, profit proposal and growth facilities? b. franchising
a. forecasting c. loan
b. managing d. start-up
c. planning 17) What brief description of the market describes the buyers and
d. projecting users of the product and the area of dispersion?
12) Business enterprises should operate in a dynamic environment in a. market analysis
order to survive. What kind of environment includes technological, b. market dispersion
social and ethical/political factors? c. marketing
a. Macro environment d. market study
b. Micro environment 18) It is a type of organization wherein a superior delegates authority
c. Technological environment to a subordinate.
d. Social environment a. committee type
13) Mr. Silva purchased a right to operate an already established b. functional type
business, what type of retail ownership is it? c. line type
a. Corporate d. line and staff type
b. Franchise 19) Which is one disadvantage of a functional type of organization?
c. Independent a. Morale is likely to be low when discipline is weak.
d. Single-store-ownership b. Each manager is supreme in his own field.
14) Who among the following is the principal actor of the c. It is difficult to secure executives and superiors with an all around
production? knowledge.
a. Entrepreneur d. There is greater flexibility.
b. Customer 20) What type of product, as designed, produced and marketed by
c. Production manager the seller?
d. Worker a. Licensed brand
b. National brand
c. Private label brand 25) If her business idea is a boutique, what quality of a future
d. Trademark entrepreneur is INAPPROPRIATE?
21) Which of the following is the correct definition of the term a. Relaxed
"entrepreneur"? A person who ________. b. Hard worker
a. pursues opportunity without regard to resources c. Risk taker
b. starts a new business with the aim of making a profit d. Innovative
c. seeks to create value for local communities, people or customer by 26) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an
starting new ventures which exploit new products, processes or entrepreneur?
markets. a. Coping with failure
d. seeks to generate value through creation or expansion of economic b. Irritated
activity, by identifying and exploiting new products, processes or c. Opportunity seeker
markets d. Persistent
22) Which of the following skills are NOT needed by an 27) Which among these characteristics of an entrepreneur is
entrepreneur? UNDESIRABLE?
a. Technical skills a. Opportunity seeker
b. Personal entrepreneurial skills b. Goal setter
c. Working skills c. Futuristic
d. Business management skills d. Impassive
23) Which of the following statement is INAPPROPRIATE in 28) Which of the following is a primary cause of failure in small
starting a business? business?
a. Study the concepts and principles of entrepreneurial skills. a. Poor financial control
b. Cope with failures of the business. b. Poor location
c. Undergo training on entrepreneurial skills. c. Management mistakes
d. Know what characteristics are needed to become an entrepreneur. d. Improper inventory control
24) Which of the following is NOT a source of fund for Mr. 29) Which of these traits gets an entrepreneur off of his feet and puts
Fajardo's future business? him into action, turning daydream into reality?
a. Seek assistance from Central Bank of the Philippines. a. Perseverance
b. Borrow money from friends and relatives. b. Ambition
c. Avail of the government program on financing micro-macro c. Creativity
business. d. Enthusiasm
d. Use part of her retirement benefit. 30) Which entrepreneurial trait gives an entrepreneur a positive
outlook in life which gives the energy to pursue his endeavors?
a. Perseverance 35) Which is considered a vehicle for informing target market about
b. Ambition the enterprise and the products or services?
c. Creativity a. Product
d. Enthusiasm b. Price
31) Which trait is an entrepreneur able to withstand the troubles that c. Place
come with a starting business? d. Promotion
a. Perseverance 36) At what stage of marketing effort does an entrepreneur
b. Ambition concentrate on targeting a new market of buyers and taking market
c. Creativity share from competitors by price cutting or relaunching the product?
d. Enthusiasm a. Introduction
32) What is the general function of marketing, involves the physical b. Growth
meeting point for buyers and sellers at the point of production or via c. Maturity
some other means of communication? d. Decline
a. Specific functions 37) Which of the following is NOT appropriate in running a small-
b. Exchange functions scale business?
c. Physical functions a. Keeping clear records
d. Facilitating functions b. Verifying profit and loss
33) Which type of marketing functions, enables the actual flow of c. Managing cash flow
commodities through space and time from producer to consumer and d. Distribution channel
their transformation to a form desirable function to the consumers? 38) Which marketing channel operates with capital owned directly
a. Specific functions by the operators and their partners, or in some cases by shareholders?
b. Exchange functions a. Cooperatives
c. Physical functions b. Independent, locally based private enterprise
d. Facilitating functions c. Marketing boards and other state enterprises
34) From a social viewpoint, which of the following statements d. Transnational companies
about marketing objective is NOT true? 39) At which stage of a product life cycle must an entrepreneur
a. Assist in the efficient allocation of resources. decide whether he wants to try to rejuvenate the product by investing
b. Create wealth and promote economic growth. in development and aggressive marketing or to quietly admit defeat
c. Improve income distribution among different sectors of the and exit the market?
economy. a. Introduction
d. Maintain instability of supply and demand for marketed goods. b. Growth
c. Maturity c. Are we on course?
d. Decline d. Where would we like to be?
40) A marketing mix that can have both tangible and intangible 45) Which of these stages is the final stage in the marketing planning
aspects and is the thing you offer to satisfy your customers' wants process flow chart?
and needs is ________. a. Control
a. Product b. Marketing planning mix
b. Packaging c. Setting marketing objectives
c. Price d. Setting the product price
d. Promotion 46) An entrepreneur might select a target market probably because
41) Which is considered to be the best way to assess entrepreneurial the target market ________.
projects or business ventures? a. is attractive to the business and matches its supply capabilities
a. Environmental analysis b. is large and well-served with existing products
b. SWOT analysis c. is fully understood by the entrepreneur
c. Competitor analysis d. has a proven track record for buying product
d. PEST analysis 47) A carefully thought structured formal commercial report that is
42) An analysis that provides the details for opportunities and threats extraordinary well documented and clearly written to safeguard any
of a business to make better decisions regarding marketing plan is wastage of further investment project is called ________.
termed ________. a. Portfolio
a. Environmental analysis b. Business plan
b. SWOT analysis c. Resume
c. Competitor analysis d. Feasibility study
d. PEST analysis 48) Which is considered as a comprehensive and effective blueprint
43) The acronym SWOT stands for: to guide an entrepreneur in a business venture?
a. Strengths-Weaknesses-Options-Testing a. Resume
b. Strengths-Weaknesses-Opportunities-Testing b. Portfolio
c. Strengths-Weaknesses-Options-Threats c. Business plan
d. Strengths-Weaknesses-Opportunities-Threats d. Insurance plan
44) Which question is asked at the first stage in the marketing
planning process of an enterprise?
a. Where are we now?
b. Where are we heading?
ANSWERS: 33. C
1. B 34. D
2. D 35. C
3. B 36. C
4. D 37. C
5. B 38. B
6. D 39. D
7. A 40. A
8. C 41. B
9. B 42. D
10. C 43. D
11. C 44. A
12. A 45. A
13. B 46. A
14. C 47. D
15. D 48. C
16. D
17. D
18. C
19. A
20. C
21. C
22. C
23. B
24. A
25. A
26. B
27. D
28. B
29. B
30. D
31. A
32. B
TLE (8) - Business Math b. ₱1,535
c. ₱1,565
1) Find the profit of Weng's water refilling business with revenue of d. ₱1,040
₱56,000,000 and costs of ₱42,000,000.
a. ₱14,000,000 6) Ron's Manufacturing offers discounts on most of its products.
b. ₱140,000 What is the trade discount rate on an item with a list price of ₱16.79
c. ₱1,400,000 and a net price of? ₱2.42?
d. ₱14,000 a. 22%
b. 26%
2) Norma's food stall has costs of ₱2,900. Her total food sales are c. 54%
₱11,600. What percent of her food sales do the food costs represent? d. 74%
a. 20%
b. 25% 7) What type of financial statement summarizes the information
c. 27% concerning the cash inflows and outflows during a particular period?
d. 30% a. Balance sheet
b. Statement cash flows
3) Marvin needs 250 cookies for a buffet. He will make oatmeal c. Income statement
raisin, macaroons, and chocolate chunk cookies. He wants 25% of d. Statement of retained earning
the cookies to be oatmeal raisin and 15% of the cookies to be
macaroons. How many chocolate chunk cookies must Marvin bake? 8) Closing entries are made:
a. 150 a. so that financial statements can be made
b. 125 b. in order to terminate the business as an operating entity
c. 140 c. in order to transfer net income/loss and owner's drawings to the
d. 100 owner's capital account
d. so that all assets, liabilities, and owner's capital accounts will have
4) If a shirt is marked down 25%, what will the purchase price be? zero balances when the next accounting period starts
a. ₱25
b. 75% of its original price 9) Suppliers who allow business to receive goods and services before
c. 50% off paying for them are known as:
d. ₱75 a. Finance companies
b. Leasing companies
5) A customer places a special order through 480 Furniture Store. c. Trade companies
The list price in the manufacturer's catalog is ₱1,600. 480 Furniture d. Trade debtors
receives a 35% trade discount. What is the net price for the furniture
order? 10) Which of the following is an example of external finance?
a. ₱560 a. Disposal by a business of surplus assets
b. Bank loan
c. Day to day cash from sales to customers c. expenses exceeding revenues
d. Money loaned from trade suppliers through extended credit d. liabilities exceeding assets
11) A shareholder sells his shares for more than he paid for them. 17) Assets are normally recorded at:
This is known as: a. cost
a. Capital gain b. appraised value
b. Profit on disposal c. market value
c. God deal d. management's estimated value
d. Capital allowance 18) Which financial report measures results for a period of time?
12) The point at which the level of sales of a business exactly equals a. Balance Sheet
its costs is known as the: b. Income Statement
a. Break-even point c. Trial Balance
b. Insolvency point d. All of the listed answers
c. Start-up stage 19) Using the double entry system, every business transaction
d. Profit point _________.
13) Working capital is: a. affects two or more accounts
a. Current Assets-Current Liabilities b. affects only asset accounts
b. Notes Payable c. affects only one account
c. Current Liabilities d. affects only income statement
d. Accounts Payable 20) A debt incurred by buying goods or services from a supplier on
14) Which of the following does not appear in a Balance Sheet? credit is called _________.
a. Cash a. property
b. Equipment b. accounts payable
c. Accounts Payable c. an expense
d. Depreciation Expense d. accounts receivable
15) Adjusting entries are used to:
a. close the books
b. record accruals
c. correct errors
d. all of the listed answers are correct
16) Net Income or Profit results from:
a. revenues exceeding expenses
b. assets exceeding liabilities
ANSWERS:
1. A
2. B
3. A
4. B
5. D
6. B
7. B
8. C
9. C
10. B
11. A
12. A
13. A
14. D
15. D
16. A
17. A
18. B
19. A
20. B