Question Paper: Biology - 100 Chemistry - 50 Physics - 50

Mark Group NEET Test Series (Round-IV) Date : 29/06/2022
720 PCB PCB Mock Test : 03 Time : 03 Hrs. 20 Mins.
Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Biology - 100
Question Booklet Version Roll Number Question Booklet Sr. No.
P-11 (Write this number on

your Answer Sheet) 0
This is to certify that, the entries of RCC-2021 Roll No. and Answer Sheet No. have been correctly written and verified.
Candidate’s Signature
Question Paper Invigilator’s Signature
• Test Syllabus •
Physics : (11th + 12th) Complete Syllabus
Chemistry : (11th + 12th) Complete Syllabus
Biology : (11th + 12th) Complete Syllabus
• Next Exam Syllabus (Date : 01/07/2022) •
PCB Mock Test–04

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
Section ‘A’ : Physics
Section ‘A’ 05. The level of water in a tank is 5 m high. A
01. At a temperature of 30°C, the susceptibility of hole of the area 10 cm2 is made in the bottom
a paramagnetic material is found to be X. Its of the tank. The rate of leakage of water from
susceptibility at 333°C is the hole is
1) 0.5 X 2) 2 X 3) 11.1 X 4) 0.09 X 1) 10–2 m3 s –1 2) 102 m3 s–1
3 –1
02. A length l of wire carries a steady current i. It is 3) 10 m s 4) 10–4 m3 s –1
bent first to form a circular plane coil of one turn. 06. A prism has a refracting angle of 60°. When
The same length is now bent more sharply to placed in the position of minimum deviation,
give three loops of smaller radius. The magnetic it produces a deviation of 30°. The angle of
field at the centre caused by the same current is incidence is
1) One-third of its first value 1) 30° 2) 45°
2) Unaltered 3) 15° 4) 60°
3) Three times of its initial value 07. If we add impurity to a metal those atoms also
4) Nine times of its initial value deflect electrons. Therefore,
03. For the system shown 1) The electrical and thermal conductivities both
in the figure, the increase
inclined plane is fixed, 2) The electrical and thermal conductivities both
all the pulleys are light decrease
and friction is absent 3) The electrical conductivity increases but
everywhere. The thermal conductivity decreases
tension in the string will be 4) The electrical conductivity decrease but
2 thermal conductivity increases
3
1) mg sin  2) mg sin  08. Which of the following physical quantities
3 2
has neither dimensions nor unit?
1
3) mg sin  4) 2mg sin  1) Angle
2 2) Luminous intensity
04. Two masses m1 and m2 are
3) Coefficient of friction
suspended together by a
4) Current
massless spring of spring
09. A metal rod of Young’s modulus Y and coefficient
constant k (Figure). When the
of linear expansion  is held at its two ends such
masses are in equilibrium, m1 is
removed without disturbing the that its length remains constant on changing the
system. Find the angular temperature. If its temperature is raised by t°C,
frequency of oscillation of m 2 the thermal stress developed in it is
t Y
k k 1) 2)
1)   m 2)   Y E
m2  m1
2 1
3) Y t 4)
3) Can’t be determined 4) None of these Y t
Space For Rough Work
PCB MOCK TEST : 03 2 Date : 29/06/2022

10. A body is vibrating in simple harmonic 13. The difference between nth and (n + 1)th Bohr’s
motion with an amplitude of 0.06 m and radius of H atom is equal to it’s (n – 1)th Bohr’s
frequency of 15 Hz. The maximum velocity radius. The value of n is
and acceleration of the body is 1) 1 2) 2
1) 9.80 m s–1 and 9.03 × 102 m s–2 3) 3 4) 4
2) 8.90 m s–1 and 8.21 × 102 m s–2 14. Radioactive element decays to form a stable
3) 6.82 m s–1 and 7.62 × 102 m s–2 nuclide, then the rate of decay of reactant
4) 5.65 m s–1 and 5.32 × 102 m s–2  dN 
  will vary with time (t) as shown in figure
11. A uniform electric field and a uniform  dt 
magnetic field exist in a region in the same
direction. An electron is projected with a
velocity pointed in the same direction. Then
the electron will be 1) 2)
1) Be deflected to the left without increase in speed
2) Be deflected to the right without increase in speed
dN
3) Not be deflected but its speed will decrease dt
4) Not be deflected but its speed will increase
12. If the energy and wavelength of electron are 3) 4)
E and , then the graph between log E and log
 will be t
15. Two identical pn junctions may be connected
in series with a battery in three ways as
shown in figure. The potential drops across
the two pn junctions are equal in
1) 2)
1) circuit 1 and circuit 2

2) circuit 2 and circuit 3
3) 4) 3) circuit 3 and circuit 1
4) circuit 1 only

18. The given figure represents an arrangement
16. Two identical point
of potentiometer for
charges q and placed
the calculation of
at x = – a and x = a , internal resistance
as shown in figure. (r) of the unknown
The graph showing battery (E). The
the variation of E balance length is
along the x-axis is (assuming positive E to be 70.0 cm with the
key opened and 60.0 cm with the key closed.
taken along the + x-axis)
R is 132.40. The internal resistance (r) of the
unknown cell will be
1) 22.1  2) 113.5 
3) 154.5  4) 10 .
1) 2) 19. Two objects A and B are of lengths 5 cm and
7 cm determined with errors 0.1 cm and 0.2 cm
respectively. What is the error in determining
(a) the total length and (b) the difference in
their lengths?
1) (12  0.3) cm, (2  0.3) cm
2) (12  0.3) cm, (2  0.1) cm
3) (12  0.1) cm, (2  0.3) cm
3) 4)
4) 12cm, 2cm
20. A particle moves along a straight line. Its
position at any instant is given by
17. N identical cells, each of emf E and internal 8t 3
x  32t  where x is in metres and t in
resistance r, are joined in series to form a closed 3
circuit. It is observed that mistakenly one cell seconds. Find the instant when particle comes
has been joined with its polarity reversed. The to rest and reverses its direction
potential difference across each cell, except the 1) 1 s 2) 2 s
wrongly connected one is V. Then 3) 3 s 4) 4 s
21. A block of mass m is placed at rest on an
2E  N 1 inclined plane of inclination  to the
1) V  2) V   E horizontal. If the coefficient of friction
N  N 
between the block and the plane is  , then
the force, which the inclined plane exerts on
 N 2  2N  the block is
3) V   E 4) V   E 1) mg 2) mgcos
 N   N 2
3) mgsin 4) mgcos  1   2

22. Fuel is consumed at the rate of 50 kg/s in a 27. A disc of moment of inertia 40 kg m2 acquires
rocket. The velocity of exhaust gases is 2 km/s. the angular velocity of 20 rad/s in 0.4 s starting
The thrust on rocket is from rest them torque applied is
1) 2 × 104 kg–wt 2) 1 × 104 kg–wt 1) 1800 Nm 2) 3000 Nm
3) 1 × 105 kg–wt 4) 2 × 105 kg-wt 3) 2000 Nm 4) 1200 Nm
23. A body of mass 4 kg is acted upon by a force 28. A child is standing with folded hands at the
which causes a displacement in it given by centre of a platform rotating about its central
x = t2 m, where t is time in second. The work axis. The kinetic energy of the system is K.
done by force in 4s is The child now stretches his arm so that
moment of inertia of the system is doubled.
1) 64 J 2) 128 J
The kjnetic energy of the system now is
3) 200 J 4) 240 J
K
24. If the angular speed of the earth is doubled, 1) 2K 2)
the value of acceleration due to gravity at the 2
north-pole :
K
1) is doubled 2) is halved 3) 4) 4K
2
3) remains same 4) becomes zero 29. A rope 1 cm is diameter breaks if the tension
25. The magnitude of the potential energy per unit in it exceeds 500 N. The maximum tension that
mass of the object at the surface of earth is E. may be given to a similar rope of diameter
Then the escape velocity of the object is 2 cm is
1) 2E 2) 4E 2 1) 500 N 2) 250 N
3) 1000N 4) 2000 N
3) E 4) E /2
30. Due to thermal expansion, with rise in
26. If the system is released, then the acceleration temperature
of the centre of mass of the system is
a) Metallic scale reading becomes lesser than
true value
b) Pendulum clock goes fast
c) A floating body sinks a little more
d) The weight of a body in a liquid increases
1) only (a) is correct
2) (a) & (b) are correct
3) (a), (b) & (d) are correct
g g 4) (a), (c) & (d) are correct
1) 2) 3) g 4) 2g
4 2

31. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator 35. A person at rest is observing two trains one
is 6 and operates at room temperature 28°C. coming towards him and other leaving with
The temperature inside the refrigerator is the same speed 4 m/s. If their whistling
1) –23°C 2) –18°C frequencies are 240 Hz each, then the number
3) –9°C 4) –15°C of beats per second heard by the person will
be (if velocity of sound is 320 m/s)
32. A box (thermally insulated) has two
1) 3 2) 6
chambers separated by a membrane. One of
volume V contains an ideal gas at temperature 3) 9 4) zero
V Section ‘B’
T. The other of volume is evacuated. If the 36. Two pendulums of time period 3 s and 7 s
2
membrane breaks down, the gas temperature respectively start oscillating simultaneously
will be from two opposite extreme positions. After
how much least time they will be in phase
3
1) T 2) T 21 21
2 1) s 2) s
8 4
2T T
3) 4) 21 21
3 2 3) s 4) s
2 10
33. The molar specific heat at constant volume
13R 37. A light particle moving horizontal with a speed
of gas mixture is . The gas mixture of 12 ms–1 strikes head-on a very heavy block
6
consists of moving in the same direction at 10 ms–1. The
1) 2 moles of argon and 4 moles of O2 collision is one dimensional and elastic. After
the collision, the particle wil
2) 2 moles of O2 and 4 moles of argon
3) 2 moles of O2 and 4 moles of H2
4) 2 moles of CO2 and 4 moles of argon
34. An open organ pipe of length L vibrates in
second harmonic mode. The pressure
vibration is maximum
1) move at 2ms–1 in its original direction
1) at the two ends
2) at a distance L/4 from either end inside the 2) move at 8ms–1 in its original direction
tube
3) move at 8ms–1 opposite to its original direction
3) at the mid - point of the tube
4) at a distance L/3 from either end inside the 4) move at 12ms –1 opposite to its original
tube direction

41. The logic circuit shown below has the input
38. A particle at rest start moving along a circle
wave forms A and B as shown. Pick out the
 20 
of radius   m with constant tangential correct output waveform.
  
acceleration. If the velocity of the particle is
80 m/s at the end of the second revolution
after motion has begun, the tangential
acceleration is
1) 40 m/s 2 2) 640 m/s 2
3) 160 m/s 2 4) 40 m/s 2

39. A parallel plate capacitor C0 is charged to a
potential V 0 . The energy stored in the
1) 2)
capacitor when the charging battery is kept
connected and the plate separation is doubled
is U1. The energy stored in the capacitor when 3) 4)
the charging battery is disconnected and the
separation between plated is doubled is U2 , 42. The difference in the variation of resistance
with temperature in a metal and a
U1
then semiconductor arises essentially due to the
U2 is difference in the
1 1) crystal structure
1) 4 2)
4 2) variation of the number of charge carriers
with temperature in semiconductor only and
1 in metals due to change in relaxation time
3) 2 4)
2
3) type of bonding
40. Two similar point charges q1 and q2 are placed
at a distance r, apart in air. The force between 4) variation of scattering mechanism with
them is F1. A dielectric slab of thickness t (< r) temperature.
and dielectric constant K is placed between 43. Consider a nuclear decay process
the charges. Then the force between the same
A   B   C (stable)
F1
charges is F2. The ratio F is At a certain time, the activity of nuclei A is x
2 and the net rate of increase of number of nuclei
1) 1 2) K B is y. The activity of nuclei B at this instant
2 2 is
 r tt K   r 
3)   4)   1) y 2) x – y
 r   r tt K  3) y – x 4) x

44. Both the frequency and the intensity of a beam
47. A uniformly wound solenoid coil of self-
of light falling on the surface of photoelectric inductance 1.8 × 10–4 H resistance 6Ω is broken
material are increased by a factor of two. This
will up into two identical coils are then connected
1) increase both, the maximum kinetic energy in parallel across a 12 V battery of negligible
of the photo-electrons, as well as photoelectric resistance. The time constant for the current
saturation current by a factor of two in the circuit is
2) increase the maximum kinetic energy of the 1) 0.1 × 10–4 s 2) 0.2 × 10–4 s
photo-electrons by a factor greater than two
and would i ncrease the photoelectric 3) 0.3 × 10–4 s 4) 0.4 × 10–4 s
saturation current by a factor of two. 48. Two uniform wires of the same material are
3) increase the maximum kinetic energy of the vibrating under the same tension. If the first
photoelectrons by a factor greater than two overtone of the first wire is equal to the second
and will have no effect on the magnitude of
overtone of the second wire and radius of the
the photoelectric saturation current produced
first wire is twice the radius of the second wire
4) increase the maximum kinetic energy of the
emitted photo-electrons by a factor of two but then the ratio of the lengths of the first wire
will have no effect on the saturation to second wire is
photoelectric current.
45. A sphere of mass m and radius r rolls on a 1 1
1) 2)
horizontal plane without slipping with the 3 4
speed u. Now, if it rolls up on a rough inclined
plane (with pure rolling) , the maximum 1 1
3) 4)
height it would attain will be 5 6
3u2 5u2 7 u2 11u2 49. Ratio of intensities in consecutive maxima in
1) 2) 3) 4)
4g 2g 10 g 9g a diffraction pattern due to a single slit is
46. A charged particle q 1) 1 : 2 : 3 2) 1 : 4 : 9
enters a region of
uniform magnetic 2 3 4 4
field B (out of page) 3) 1 : : 4) 1 : :
2  2 9  25 2
2
and is deflected
distance d after 50. A body cools from 50°C to 40°C in 5 minutes.
travelling a horizontal distance a. The Its temperature comes down to 33.33°C in the
magnitude of the momentum of the particle is next 5 minutes. The temperature of the
surrounding is
qB  a 2  qB
1) 2  d  d  2) 1) 15°C 2) 20°C
  2
3) 25°C 4) 10°C
3) Zero 4) 2qB

Section ‘B’ : Chemistry
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
SECTION-A 56. According to the kinetic theory of gases, the ratio
51. Which of the following weighs more [N.B. 19] of the rms velocity of molecular oxygen and
molecular hydrogen at 300 K is [N.B. 148]
1) 5g atoms of calcium
1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 4
2) 67.2 litres of O2 at STP
3) 1g mole of CO2 3) 1 : 16 4) 1 : 2 2
24
4) 3 × 10 atom of carbon 57. Which of the following is not correct ? [N.B. 181]
52. The wave number of spectral line for a given 1) G is zero for a reversible reaction
transition is x cm–1 for He+, then its value for 2) G is positive for a spontaneous reaction
Be+3 for the same transition is [cm1] [N.B. 48]
3) G is negative for a spontaneous reaction
1) x 2) 4x
4) G is positive for a non-spontaneous reaction
3) x/4 4) 16x
58. The H° f for CO2 (g), CO(g) and H2O(g) are
53. Ionic radii of N 3– , O 2– and F – (in A) of are –393.5, –110.5 and –241.8 kJ/mol respectively, the
respectively [N.B. 87]
standard enthalpy change (in kJ) for the reaction
1) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71 2) 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40 CO2(g) + H2(g)  CO(g) + H2O(g) is : [N.B. 177]
3) 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36 4) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40 1) 524.1 2) +41.2
54. The molecular orbital shown in the diagram can 3) –262.2 4) –41.2
be designated as [N.B. 121]
59. An aqueous buffer is prepared by adding 100 ml
of 0.1 mol L–1 acetic acid to 50 ml of 0.2 mol L–1 of
+ –
sodium acetate. If pKa of acetic acid is 4.76 the
pH of the buffer is [N.B. 227]
– +
1) 4.26 2) 5.76
1)  2)  3) 3.76 4) 4.76
3)  4)  60. Which of the following arrangements represents
increasing oxidation number of the central
55. Consider the following four xenon compounds
atom? [N.B. 267]
: XeF2, XeF4, XeF6 and XeO3. The pair of xenon
compound expected to have non-zero dipole 1) CrO2–, ClO3–, CrO42–, MnO4–
moment [N.B. 111] 2) ClO3–, CrO42–, MnO4–, CrO2–
1) XeF4 and XeF6 2) XeF2 and XeF4 3) CrO2–, ClO3–, MnO4–, CrO42–
3) XeF2 and XeO3 4) XeF6 and XeO3 4) CrO42–, MnO4–, CrO2–, ClO3–
PCB GRAND TEST - 03 9 Date : 29/06/2022

61. Match the following [N.B. 304] 65. Addition of HBr to 1-butene in the presence of
Column I Column II peroxide produce [N.B. 390]
(i) Na2CO3.10H2O A) Portland cement 1) n-Butylbromide 2) Sec-butylbromide
ingredient 3) Isobutylbromide 4) tert-butylbromide
(ii) Mg(HCO3)2 B) Castner-Keller process 66. Which on ozonolysis produce Acetaldehyde and
(iii) NaOH C) Solvay Process Acetone molecules [N.B. 361]
(iv) Ca3Al2O6 D) Temporary hardness 1) 1-Butene 2) 2-Butene
1) i-C, ii-B, iii-D, iv-A 2) i-C, ii-D, iii-B, iv-A 3) 2-Pentene 4) 2-methyl-2-Butene
3) i-D, ii-A, iii-B, iv-C 4) i-B, ii-C, iii-A, iv-D 67. Name of reaction Catalyst
62. Arrange the pKa values of hydroxy groups of
(A) Hydrogenation of oils (1) Fe
methanol, trifluoroacetic acid, Phenol and
(B) Ostwald’s process (2) Ni
benzyl alcohol in ascending order : [N.B. 335]
1) Trifluoroacetic acid < phenol < benzyl alcohol (C) Contact’s process (3) V2O5
< methanol (D) Haber’s process (4) Pt
2) Trifluoroacetic acid < benzyl alcohol < phenol The correct match is [N.B. 176]
< methanol 1) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
3) Phenol < trifluoroacetic acid < benzyl alcohol 3) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 4) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
< methanol
68. The number of crystal systems and the number
4) Trifluoroacetic acid < methanol < phenol < of Bravaislattices (space lattices) are, respectively
benzyl alcohol
[N.B. 10]
63. Which one of the following is Aromatic ?
1) 14 and 7 2) 7 and 32
[N.B. 339]
3) 32 and 14 4) 7 and 14
1) 2) 69. 6g of a non volatile non electrolyte x when
dissolved in 100 g water freezes at –0.465°C. The
+
molar mass of x is [Kf(H2O) = 1.86 KK gmol–1]
3) 4)
1) 120 g 2) 60 g [N.B. 52]
64. The most stable carbocation among the
3) 240 g 4) 360 g
following [N.B. 350]
 70. When 3.86 amperes current is passed through
1) (CH3)3C CH CH3 an electrolyte for 50 minutes 2.4 grams of

divalent metal is deposited. The gram atomic
2) CH3CH2 CH CH2CH3

weight of the metal (in grams) is [N.B. 85]
3) CH3 CH CH2CH2CH3 1) 24 2) 12

4) CH3CH2 CH 2 3) 64 4) 40

71. For a hypothetical reaction A + B  C. Identify 75. Among the following which will not produce
order of reaction from the following data. nitrogen gas upon heating is [N.B. 175]
1) NaN3 2) NH4NO3
-1
S.No. [A]M [B]M rate r[ML ] [N.B. 102] 3) (NH4)2Cr2O7 4) NH3(excess) + Cl2
I 0.25 0.25 3  103 76. Which one of the following arrangements does
II 0.50 0.25 6  103 not give the correct picture of the trends
III 0.50 0.5 1.2  10 2 indicated against it ? [N.B. 198]
1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Oxidizing power
1) 0 2) 1 2) Cl > F > Br > I : Electron gain enthalpy
3) 2 4) 3 3) F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2 : Bond dissociation energy
72. Rate of reaction can be expressesd by following 4) F > Cl > Br > I : Electronegativity
rate expression Rate = k[A]2[B], if concentration
77. The correct order of reactivity towards S N1
of A is increased by 3 times. and concentration
reaction among the following compound is
of B is increased by 2 times, how many times
rate of reaction increases ? [N.B. 101] Me
(A) Br (B)
1) 9 times 2) 27 times Br
3) 18 times 4) 8 times (C) Me Me [N.B. 303]

73. Point out the false statement [N.B. 136] Br
1) Brownian movement and Tyndall effect are 1) A > B > C 2) B > C > A
shown by colloidal systems 3) B > A > C 4) C > B > A
2) Gold number is a measure of the protective 78. From amongst the following alcohols the one
power of a lyophillic colloid that would react fastest with conc. HCl and
3) The colloidal solution of a liquid in liquid is anhydrous ZnCl2, is [N.B. 294]
called gel 1) 2-Butanol
4) Hardy-Schulze rule is related with coagulation 2) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
74. Extractiton of zinc from zinc blende is achieved 3) 2-Methylpropan-1-ol
by [N.B. 156] 4) 1-Butanol
1) Electrolytic reduction 79. The carboxylic acid which undergoes H.V.Z.
reaction is [N.B. 383]
2) Roasting followed by reduction with carbon
a) CH3–CH2–COOH b) (CH3)2CH–COOH
3) Roasting followed by reduction with another
method c) H–COOH d) C6H5–COOH
4) Roasting followed by self reduction 1) a, b only 2) a, b, d
3) b, c only 4) a, b, c, d

80. Cannizaro reaction is not given by [N.B. 372] 84. The bacteriostatic antibiotic among the
following is [N.B. 454]
1) Formaldehyde
A. Ofloxacin B. Tetracycline
2) Acetaldehyde
C. Chloramphenicol D. Erythromycin
3) Benzaldehyde
1) A and B only 2) A, B, C only
4) Trimethylacetaldehyde
3) B, C, D only 4) A, B, C, D
81. The best method used to separate the mixture
85. Which of the following are condensation
of ortho and para nitro phenols 1 : 1 is
polymers ? [N.B. 443]
[N.B. 357]
A. Teflon B. Glyptal
1) crystallisation
C. Nylon 6, 6 D. BUNA-S
2) steam distillation 1) A and D only 2) A and B only
3) distillation under reduced pressure 3) B and C only 4) A and C only
4) sublimation SECTION-B
82. Which reagent used to distinguished 1°, 2° and 86. Correct statements of the following are
3° amines [N.B. 401] A) Ionic bond is formed between two more
1) CHCl3/KOH electro negative elements
2) CH3COCl/H+ B) PCl5 is an electron deficient molecule among
PCl5, CO2, NH3 and BCl3
3) C6H5COCl/H+
C) SnCl2 is non linear molecule among SnCl2,
4) C6H5SO2Cl XeF2, BeF2 and N2O
83. Which one of the following statements is D) The order of dipole moments is
correct? [N.B. 420] BF3 < H2S < H2O [N.B. 111]
1) All amino acids except lysine are opitcally 1) A, B, C 2) C, D
active 3) B, C, D 4) A, B
2) All amino acids are optically active 87. Regarding III A group elements the incorrect
3) All amino acids except glycine are optically statement is [N.B. 318]
active 1) Mp-B > Al > Tl > In > Ga
4) All amino acids except glutamic acids are 2) EN - B > Tl > In > Ga > Al
optically active 3) IP1 - B > Tl > Ga > Al > In
4) Density - Tl > In > Ga > Al > B

88. Identify the incorrect statement from the Re d.Hot RX

91. CaC2 + H2O  A 
Fe tube
 B 
Lewis acid
C
following
A. Basic nature of hydrides increases from NH3 Incorrect statement is
to BiH3 [N.B. 393]
B. H2S is most volatile hydride of VIA group
1) A is C2H2
elements
C. The correct order of acidic nature of hydrides 2) B and C are homologues
of VIIA group elements is HI > HBr > HCl > HF 3) B can undergo electrophilic substitution
D. The correct order of oxidising ability of 4) C-C bond length in A > C – C bond length in B
oxyacid of chlorine is
92. Match the following
HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl [N.B. 173]
1) A and D Column I Column II
2) B and C a. Kolbe’s reaction i) Aldehydes
3) A, B, C b. Stephen reaction ii) Primary amines
4) A, B, C, D c. Hoffmann iii) Alkyl fluorides
89. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
Bromamide degradation
interstitial compounds of transition elements ?
[N.B. 230] d. Swarts reaction iv) Salicylic acid
1) The formulae of these compounds do not The correct match is [N.B. 379]
correspond to any normal oxidation state 1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
2) They have melting points higher than those
2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
of pureelements
3) They are very hard and some compounds 3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
approach diamond in hardness 4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
4) They are insulators in contrast to the transition 93. Which of the following can undergo
metals nucleophilic substitution very easily [N.B. 313]
90. Hybridisation of Ni in [NiCl4]–2 , [Ni(CN)4 ]–2 ,
1) chlorobenzene
Ni(CO)4 is respectively [N.B. 254]
1) sp3, sp3, sp3 2) 1-chloro-2,4,6-trinitrobenzene
2) sp2, sp3, sp 3) 1-chloro-2,4-dinitrobenzene
2 3 3
3) dsp , sp , sp 4) 1-chloro-2-nitrobenzene
3 2 3
4) sp , dsp , sp

94. The major product in the following conversions 98. The equilibrium constant for A2 + B2  2AB is
HBr(excess)
CH3O CH=CH–CH3 
Heat
  ? 1
5 then equilibriium constant for AB  A +
[N.B. 389] 2 2
1) HO 1
CH2–CH–CH3 B would be [N.B. 201]
| 2 2
Br
1) 0.447 2) 51/2
2) HO CH–CH2–CH3
| 1
Br 3) 0.20 4)
4
3) CH3O CH2–CH–CH3 99. The standard reduction potentials of Zn+2/Zn,
|
Br Cu+2/Cu and Ag+/Ag are respectively are –0.76V,
+0.34 V and +0.8 V. The following cells are
4) CH3O CH–CH2–CH3 constructed
|
Br i) Zn/Zn+2//Cu+2/Cu
95. Which of the following gases is not a green ii) Zn/Zn+2//Ag+/Ag
house gas ? [N.B. 408]
iii) Cu/Cu+2//Ag+/Ag
1) CO 2) O3
the correct order of E°cell of these cells is
3) CH4 4) H2O vapour
[N.B. 69]
96. The velocity of electron in hydrogen atom is
7.26 × 107 cm/sec. The angular moment of the 1) ii > iii > i 2) ii > i > iii
electron is [N.B. 48] 3) i > ii > iii 4) iii > i > ii
100. A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
h 2h
1) 2) [N.B. 57]
 
1) 6% glucose solution
3h 25h 2) 25% glucose solution
3) 4)
2 2
3) 1M glucose solution
97. In an adiabatic process, no transfer of heat takes 4) 0.05 M Glucose solution
place between system and surroundings. Choose
the correct option for free expanssion of an ideal
gas under adiabatic condition from the
following. [N.B. 166]
1) q = 0, T  0, w = 0 2) q  0, T 0, w = 0
3) q = 0, T = 0, w = 0 4) q = 0, T < 0, w  0

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
108. Identify the correct option
SECTION - C : Botany
[NCERT Page. no. 73]
Section-A
101. The scientific term for biological classification
categories is the
1) Species 2) Taxon
3) Phylum 4) Domain
102. Basis of classification according to Whittaker
[NCERT- Pg. XI - 17]
1) Cell structure 1) A = This type of flower is hypogynous

2) Mode of reproduction B = This type of flower is seen in mustard
3) Phylogenetic relationship C = This type of flower is with inferior ovary
4) All of these 2) A = This type of flower is seen in plum, rose
103. Which of the following is not mentioned in and peach
Whittaker 's classification? [NCERT- Pg. XI - 16] B = This is epigynous flower with inferior ovary
1) Virus 2) Viroids C = In this type of flower gynoecium occupies
the highest position
3) Lichens 4) All of these
3) A = This type of flower is seen in plum, rose
104. In algae, the most common type of asexual spore and peach
is [NCERT 11th Page, 30]
B = This is epigynous flower with superior
1) Zoospore 2) Akinete ovary
3) Chlamydospore 4) Hypnospore C = In this type of flower gynoecium occupies
105. The prothallus of pteridophytes the highest position
1) Are diploid 4) A = This type of flower is perigynous
2) Grow in cool, dry and shady places B = This type of flower is epigynous
3) Bear antheridia and archegonia at maturity C = This type of flower possess inferior ovary
4) May be haploid 109. Phloem fibres are [NCERT 11th Page, 88]
106. Match the columns w.r.t. phyllotaxy : 1) also called as wood fibres
[NCERT Page. no. 71] 2) generally absent in the primary phloem
3) always absent in the secondary phloem
Column-I Column-II
A. Alternate (i) Psidium 4) always present in the primary phloem
B. Opposite (ii) Hibiscus 110. Match column I (organic compound) with column
superposed II (examples) and choose the correct combination
from the given options.
C. Opposite decussate (iii) Calotropis
[NCERT 11th, Page no. 144]
D. Whorled (iv) Alstonia
1) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (iii), D = (ii) Column-I Column-II
(Organic Compounds) (Examples)
2) A = (ii), B = (iv), C = (i), D = (iii)
A. Fatty acid I. Glutamic acid
3) A = (iii), B = (iv), C = (i), D = (ii)
B. Phospholipid II. Tryptophan
4) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iii), D = (iv) C. Aromatic amino acid III. Lecithin
107. Exarch is a condition of [NCERT 11th Page, 87] D. Acidic amino acid IV. Palmitic acid
1) Phloem arrangement in the stem 1) A – I; B – II; C – III, D – IV
2) Phloem arrangement in the root 2) A – IV; B – III; C – II, D – I
3) Xylem arrangement in root 3) A – II; B – III; C – IV, D – I
4) Xylem arrangement in stem 4) A – III; B – IV; C – I, D – II
PCB MOCK TEST : 03 15 Date :29/06/2022

116. The total number of substrate level
111. Terrestrial plants take up huge amount of water phosphorylation in cellular respiration as a result
daily but most of it is lost to the air through
of complete oxidation of one glucose molecule is :
evaporation from the leaves i.e. -
1) 6 2) 3
[NCERT Pg. XI - 179]
3) 5 4) 4
1) Guttation 2) Transpiration
117. Growth can be defined as - [NCERT- Pg. XI - 240]
3) Active transport 4) Mass flow
1) a reversible increase in size of an organ or its
112. The given set up is used [NCERT- Pg. XI - 195]
parts (but not of an individual cell).
2) a reversible increase in size of an organ (but
not of its parts or even of an individual cell).
3) an irreversible permanent increase in size of an
organ or its parts or even of an individual cell.
4) an irreversible permanent increase in size of an
organ or its parts (but not of an individual cell).
1) For nutrient solution culture
118. ___________ is a phytohormone that could fit
2) For Hydroponics either of the groups, but it is largely an inhibitor
3) For nutrient solution culture & Hydroponics of growth activities. [NCERT- Pg. XI - 250]
4) To measure growth of a plant 1) Ethylene 2) Auxins
113. More than ______ elements of the ______ 3) Abscisic acid 4) Cytokinins
discovered so far are found in different plants. 119. Development of an organism from female gamete
[NCERT- Pg. XI - 196] / egg without involving fertilization is
1) 60, 105 2) 105, 160 [NCERT- Pg. 14]
3) 30, 60 4) 4, 105 1) Adventive embryony
114. ‘Chlorophyll-a is the main photosynthetic 2) Polyembryony
pigment.’ This is justified as : [NCERT Page. no. 211] 3) Parhenocarpy
1) The wavelengths at which there is maximum 4) Parthenogenesis
absorption by chlorophyll-a, i.e., in the blue and
120. Multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil is found in
red-regions, also show higher rate of
[NCERT 12th Page, 25]
photosynthesis
2) Chlorophyll-a is the only photosynthetic 1) Papaver 2) Michelia
pigment which can eject electron to initiate light 3) Hibiscus 4) More than 1 correct
reaction 121. In some cereals like rice and wheat, pollen grains
3) Chlorophyll-a is abundantly present lose viability within ________ but in members of
4) More than one option is correct. Rosaceae, Leguminosae and Solanaceae, pollen
viability is maintained for ____. [NCERT 12th Page, 24]
115. Match the columns : [NCERT Page. no. 207]
1) Months, years 2) Years, months
Column-I Column-II
A. Joseph Priestley (i) Green plant parts 3) Months, 30 minutes 4) 30 minutes, months
synthesise sugar 122. Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with
B. Jan Ingenhousz (ii) Photosynthesis is light a 3 : 1 ratio for a particular trait. What does this
dependent reaction
mean? [NCERT- Pg. XII - 72]
C. Julius von Sachs (iii) Discovered oxygen
D. Cornelius van (iv) Plants purify fouled air 1) The parents were true-breeding for contrasting
Niel traits
1) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (iii), D = (i) 2) Both the parents were heterozygous for a single
2) A = (iv), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (i) trait
3) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iii), D = (iv) 3) The blending of traits has occurred
4) A = (iii), B = (iv), C = (i), D = (ii) 4) Each offspring has the same alleles for each of
the two traits

129. Which of the following is / are the roles of
123. A typical monohybrid test-cross ratio is :
[NCERT- Pg. XII - 73]
predation in any ecosystem
a) Predation acts as a conduit for energy transfer
1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 1 : 2
accross trophic levels
3) 2 : 3 4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
b) Maintains prey population under control.
124. When crossing an organism that is homozygous c) Maintains species diversity by reducing the
recessive for a single trait with a heterozygote,
intensity of competing prey species.
what is the chance of producing an offspring with
[NCERT 12th, Pg. 233, predation]
the homozygous recessive phenotype ? [ N C E R T -
Pg. XII - 78]
1) a, b only 2) b, c only
1) 25% 2) 50% 3) a, c only 4) a, b and c
3) 0% 4) 75% 130. Which of the folowing event takes place
successive seral stage during ecological succession
125. Watson and Crick gave the famous double helix
a) Change in the diversity of species of organism
DNA model based on ____ produced by
b) Increase in number of species of organism
[NCERT 12th Page, 97]
c) Increase in total biomass
1) Density gradient centrifugation; Meselson and
[NCERT 12th, Pg. 150, para 4, Lines 3, 4, 5]
Stahl
1) a, b, c 2) a only
2) Density gradient centrifugation; Maurice
3) a and c only 4) a and b only
Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin
131. Which of the following are the areas where
3) X-ray diffraction; Meselson and Stahl
secondary succession starts.
4) X-diffraction; Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind a) Newly created pond or reservoir
Franklin
b) Abandoned form lands
126. A typical nucleosome contains __________ of DNA
c) Burned or cut forest [NCERT 12th, Pg. 250, Last para
helix [NCERT 12th Page, 99]
and page 251 1st para]
1) 400 bp 2) 600 bp 1) a, b, c 2) a and b only
3) 200 bp 4) 500 bp 3) b and c only 4) a and c only
127. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. 132. India has more than __P__ genetically different
transcription unit? [NCERT 12th Page, 108] strasns of rice [i.e. inventories] while there are
1) The terminator is located towards 3’-end an “estimated” __Q__ varieties of rice in India.
(downstream) of the coding strand [NCERT 12th, Pg. 259, line 7, 8 and Pg. 214, line 7,8]
2) The promoter is located towards 5’-end 1) 50,000 and 2,00,000 2) 10,000 and 20,000
(upstream) of the coding strand 3) 28,000 and 20,0000 4) 3,000 and 28,000
3) Apart from promoter and terminator, additional 133. Assertion : Data of estimated species doesnot give
regulatory sequences are absent upstream of any figure for prokaryots.
downstream to the promoter. Reason : Conventional taxonomic methods are not
4) A transcription unit is a length of dsDNA suitable to identify microbial species and many
128. Given diagram is of “a fig flower, pollinated by species are simply not culturable under laboratory
an insect”. That insect is conditions. [NCERT 12th, Pg. 260, Last para, Lines 1 to 5]
1) Assertion and reason both are true and reason
[NCERT 12th, Pg. 237, Fig. 13.7]
is the correct explanation of assertion
2) Assertion and reason both are true and reason
is not correct explanation of assertion
3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong
134. Which of the following is not air pollutant
[NCERT 12th, Pg. 272, 2nd para, line 2, 3]
1) Bumble bee 2) Honey bee 1) CO 2) Ozone
3) Wasp 4) Waps 3) Noise 4) None of these

135. Which of the following is true about ozone layer 139. The correct sequance of layers of roots from outer
in stratosphere to inner side is / are [NCERT 11th Page, 91]
a) “Ozone hole” is the area above Antarctica, 1) epidermis, cortex, pericycle, endodermis,
where ozone layer is thinnest. vascular bundles
b) Ozone thickness is given in “Dobson unit”. 2) epidermis, cortex, endodermis, vascular bundle,
c) Ozone hole, over Antartica develop each year pericycle
between late August and early October. 3) epidermis, cortex, endodermis, pericycle,
[NCERT 12th, Pg. 282, Fig. 16.8]
vascular bundle
1) a and b only 2) b and c only 4) Epidermis, pericycle, cortex, endodermis
vascular bundle
3) a and c only 4) a, b, c
140. Match column I (category) with column II
Section-B (secondary metabolites) and choose the correct
136. Bacteria reproduce mainly by ____ during _____ option. [NCERT 11th, Page no. 146]
conditions [NCERT- Pg. XI - 20]
Column I Column II
1) Fission, unfavourable (Category) (Secondary metabolites)
2) Spore, favourable A. Pigments I. Concanavalin A
3) Fission, favourabel B. Terpenoides II. Monoterpenes, Diterpenes
C. Alkaloids III. Morphine, Cadeine
4) Motile spore unfavourable
D. Lectins IV. Carotenoids, Anthocyanin
137. Unlike bryophytes and pteridophytes, in
1) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
gymnosperms the [NCERT 11th Page, 39]
2) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
1) Male and female gametophytes do not have an
independent free-living existence 3) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II
4) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
2) Male gametophytes have an independent
existence but female gametophytes do not 141. Which of the following plant factor affects
transpiration [NCERT Pg. XI - 187]
3) Male gametophytes do not have an independent
existence but female gametophytes have 1) Light 2) Wind
4) Male and female gametophytes have an 3) Humidity 4) Water status of plant
independent free living existence 142. Properties of mesophyll cell and bundle sheath
138. Which of the labels in the diagram given below cells of a C4 plant is given below. Identify the
missing properties marked as A, B, C and D.
are incorrectly mentioned?
Mesophyll cell Bundle sheath cell
Chloroplast granal Chloroplast agranal
A Only PS-I is present
B C
Carboxylation occur
1) A = Only PS-II present, B = Photolysis absent,
C = Photolysis occurs, D = Carboxylation absent
2) A = Both PS-I and PS-II present, B = Contain
more chloroplast, C = contain less chloroplast,
D = RuBisCO present
3) A = Both PS-I and PS-II presnet, B = Photolysis
occurs, C = Photolysis absent,
D = Carboxylation occurs
1) A and D only 2) B and C 4) A = Lack both PS-I and PS-II, B = Contain less
chloroplast, C = Contain more chloroplast,
3) A only 4) A, D, E and F
D = RuBisCO present

147. Match the correct pairs [NCERT 12th, Pg. 282, 1st para]
143. Read the following statements w.r.t. electron
transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation: Column I Column II
[NCERT Page. no. 233 Fig. 14.4] a) Organisms breed i) Mammals and birds
(i) Ubiquinone receives reducing equivalent via only once in life
FADH2 (complex-II) b) Organisms producing ii) Oysters, pelagic, fish
(ii) Cytochrome-c is a small protein attached to large number of
the outer surface of the inner mitochondrial
smaller offspring
membrane
c) Organisms iii) Pacific salman fish,
(iii) Both UQ and cytochrome-c are mobile
electron carriers in the inner mitochondrial producing small bamboo
membrane number of large
(iv) Coupling reaction is : ATP  ADP + Pi size offspring
(v) The presence of O2 is vital as it drives the whole 1) a - iii, b - ii, c - i 2) a - ii, b - i, c - iii
process of removing hydrogen from the system 3) a - iii, b - i, c - ii 4) a - i, b - ii, c - iii
Which of the above statement is/are correct? 148. In ecological succession, there is change in
1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) 2) (iv) only a) Only vegetation b) Only animals
3) (iii), (iv), (v) 4) (i), (iii), (iv) c) Only decomposer [NCERT 12th, Pg. 251, Line 5 to 8]
144. Read the following statements : [NCERT 11th Page, 38] 1) a, b, c 2) a and b
i) Seed is the basis of our agriculture because of 3) b and c 4) only a
its dehydration and dormant nature 149. Which of the following is / are not true about
ii) The oldest viable seed reported is of Lupinus “parthenium”.
arcticus from Artic Tundra a) It is an example of alian species invasion leding
iii) Orchid fruits contain thousands of tiny seeds, to loss of biodiversity [NCERT 12th, Pg. 265]
so do the parasitic species of Orabanche and Striga b) Carrot grass came to India as a contaminant
iv) Apomixis is common in Asteraceae and grasses with imported rice. [NCERT 12th, Pg. 23, Last 3 lines]
v) Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that c) Pollens of carrot grass commonly cause pollen
mimics sexual reproduction allergy
Which of the above statements are correct? 1) a only 2) b only
1) (i), (ii) and (iii) 3) c only 4) None of these
2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) 150. “Montreal protocol” is related with
[NCERT 12th, Pg. 283, para 3]
3) (ii) only
1) e-waste 2) Radio-active waste
4) (v) only
3) Ozone depletion 4) Solid waste
145. Mendel's observation of the segregation of alleles
in gamete formation has its basis in which of the SECTION - D : Zoology
following stages of cell division?
[NCERT- Pg. XII - 75] Section-A
1) Anaphase of mitosis 151. Read the following statements
2) Metaphase of mitosis I) Organ system level of organisation
3) Anaphase-I of meiosis II) Coelomates with segmentation
4) Anaphase-II of meiosis III) Bilateral symmetry and triploblastic
146. Find out the incorrect match (for eukaryotic Select the correct groups of animals having all the
transcription) [NCERT 12th Page, 111] above characters. [NCERT Page No. 49, Fig. 4.4]
1) RNA polymerase - I - rRNA 1) Annelida, Platyhelminthes, Arhtopoda
2) RNA polymerase - II - hnRNA 2) Chordata, Mollusca, Annelida
3) RNA polymerase - III - mRNA 3) Arthropoda, Annelida, Chordata
4) Annelida, Arthrodata, Mollusca
4) RNA polymerase - III - tRNA
152. Match column-I and column-II and choos the 157. Mitosis is seen only in the diploid somatic cells
correct option [NCERT Page No. 49,51,52,53] (and not haploid cells) of [NCERT 11th Page, 164]
Column-I Column-II 1) Humans

a Book lungs i Ctenoplana 2) Chara
b Muscular ii Round worm 3) Gymnosperms and angiosperms
pharynx
4) Bryophytes and pteridophytes
c Chitinous iii Water canal
158. Which stage is marked by the terminalisation of
exoskeleton system
chiasmata? [NCERT 11th Page, 168]
d Bioluminescence iv Scorpion
1) Diakinesis 2) Pachytene
e Sycon v Locusta 3) Leptotene 4) Zygotene
1) a-v,b-ii,c-i,d-iv,e-iii 2) a-iv,b-ii,c-v,d-i,e-iii 159. The undigested and unabsorbed substances form
3) a-iv,b-ii,c-i,d-v,e-iii 4) a-ii,b-iii,c-i,d-iv,e-v small intestine are passed to the large intestine
153. Which of the following statements is/are true through [NCERT- Pg. XI - 259]
about matrix of connective tissue
1) Sphincter of Oddi 2) Ileo-caecal valve
a) Matrix is also known as ground substance
b) Matrix is produced by fibroblast cells 3) sphincter of Boyden 4) Pyloric sphincter
c) Matrix is a modified polysaccharide 160. All of the following are functions of the buccal
[NCERT 11th, Pg. 103, 1st para, Line 5, 6, 7] cavity except [NCERT- Pg. XI - 261]
1) a and b only 2) b and c only 1) Mastication of food into smaller particles

3) a and c only 4) a, b, c
2) Adhering the masticated food particles into a
154. Which of the following is / are true about adipose
bolus to facilitate swallowing
connective tissue
a) Adipocytes have eccentric nucleus 3) Absorption of certain drugs
b) Adipocytes have signet ring appearence 4) Carry out about 30% of protein digestion and
c) Present beneath the skin [NCERT based] absorptive function of ingested food
1) a only 2) b only
161. H+  HCO3 H2 CO3 Here enzyme ‘A’ is
3) a and b only 4) a, b, c
155. The quasifluid nature of ________ enables ________
movement of proteins within the overall bilayer 1) ATPase
of a plasma membrane [NCERT 11th Page, 132]
2) Carbonic anhydrase
1) Protein, lateral 2) Lipid, lateral
3) Lipid, flip-flop 4) Protein, flip-flop 3) Succinic dehydrogenase
156. Read the following statements 4) Ribozyme
A) Mitochondria and plastids are
162. Which of the following is responsible for ABO
semiautonomous cell organelles
blood grouping ? [NCERT Page. no 280]
B) Mitochondria and plastids have their own
replication, transcription and translation 1) Presence or absence of clotting factors.
machinery [NCERT 11th Page, 135, 136] 2) Compatibility of blood groups during blood
1) Both the statements A and B are correct and B transfusion.
is the correct explanation of A
2) Both the statements A and B are correct but B is 3) Presence or absence of surface antigens ( A
not the correct explanation of A and B) on WBCs.
3) Statement A is correct B is incorrect 4) Presence or absence of two surface antigens
4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect (A and B) on the RBCs

163. Which of the following statement is correct
169. During conduction of nerve impulse
regarding blood cells? [NCERT Page. no 279] [NCERT Pg. 318]
1) A healthy individual has 12 - 16 gms of 1) Na+ moves into axoplasm
haemoglobin in every 200 ml of blood
2) Na+ moves out of axoplasm
2) RBC as an average life span of 120 days after
3) K+ moves into axoplasm
which they are destroyed in the spleen
4) Ca++ moves into axoplasm
3) Neutrophils and basophils are phagocytic
cells which destroy foreign organisms 170. Functions of oxytocin is / are
entering the body. 1) smooth muscle contraction
4) A reduction in the number of WBC leads to 2) contraction of uterus
clotting disorders which will lead to excessive 3) milk ejection
loss of blood from the body. 4) All of the above
164. The increase in osmolarity form cortex to 171. A person entering an empty room suddenly finds
medullary interstitium is mainly due to a Tiger right in front on opening the door. Which
[NCERT- Pg. XII - 297] one of the following is likely to happen in his
1) Urea only 2) H+ and K+ neurohormonal control system
1) Sympathetic nervous system is activated
3) NH 4 and NaCl 4) Urea and NaCl
releasing epinephrine & norepinephrine from
165. Choose the incorrect characteristic of urine adrenal medulla
formed in a healthy adult [NCERT- Pg. XII - 298] 2) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the
1) Volume is approximately 1-1.5 L per day cleft & transmit a nerve impulse
2) pH is acidic due to presence of H+ ions 3) Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic
3) Excretes about 25-30 mg of urea per day division of brain
4) Its colur is yellow due to presence of urochrome 4) Sympathetic nervous system is activated
releasing epinephrine & norepinephrine from
166. Which of the following is / are true statement/s
adrenal cortex
a) Decreased oestrogen in blood leads to
172. A human male may produce ______ sperm per
osteoporosis
day [NCERT QR code - graph - 1]
b) Increased PTH in blood leads to osteoporosis
1) 200 to 300 millions 2) 3,00,00,000
c) Decreased bone mass leads to osteoporosis
3) 300 to 400 millions 4) 2,00,00,000
[Question is designed by using two topics is Locomotion Pg.
173. Which of the following statements is /are true
312, Chemical coordination pg. 335, 22.2.5 2nd para line 1, 2]
a) During oogenesis, 2nd meiotic division results
1) a and b only 2) a only
to form second polar body and ootid (Haploid
3) a and c only 4) a, b, c ovum) [NCERT 12th, Pg. 52, line 2, 3]
167. Unit of muscle contraction and muscle are b) The sequence of formation of germ layers in
respectively human embryo is
1) Myofibrils and myofilaments endoderm  ectoderm  mesoderm [NCERT based]
2) Muscle cell and myofibril
c) Sanitary napkins have to be changed after
3) Myofibril and muscle cell every 4 to 5 hours, as per the need.
4) Myofibril and actin and myosin [NCERT 12th, Pg. 51, - menstrual cycle]
168. The inner layer of eye “-------” contains three 1) a and b only 2) b and c only
layers of cells from inside to outside –1–, –2–, – 3) a and c only 4) a, b, and c
3– respectively, 1 and 3 are : [NCERT Pg. 324]
174. The world population was 2000 million in the
1) Retina, 1- Ganglion cells, 3- Photoreceptor cells year _____ and became 6 billion in _____
2) Sclera, 1- Photoreceptor cells, 3- Ganglion cells 1) 1980, 2011 2) 1900, 1970
3) Retina, 1-Ganglion cells, 3 - Bipolar cells 3) 1951, 1971 4) 1900, 2000
4) Retina, 1- Photoreceptor cells, 3- Ganglion cells

175. Which one of the following is not the feature of 180. Match the following column-I and Column-II
an ideal contraceptive? [NCERT- Pg. XII - 173]
1) User friendly Column-I Column-II

2) Irreversible a Sonalika 1 Okra
3) Minimum side effects b Ratna 2 Chickens
4) Easily available c Parbhani Kranti 3 Wheat
176. Read the following statements and choose the

d Leghorn 4 Rice
correct option. [NCERT- Pg. XI - 132] 1) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2 2) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
Statement A: Evolution is a directed process in 3) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1 4) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
the sense of determinism.
181. The given diagram is of
Statement B: Evolution is a stochastic process. [NCERT 12th, Pg. 180, Fig. 10.2 B]
1) Only statement A is correct

2) Only statement B is correct
3) Both statements are correct
4) Both statements are incorrect
177. The evolution of different species in a given area
starting from a point and spreading to other
geographical areas is known as
1) Adenovirus 2) SARS
1) Adaptive convergence
3) covid-19 virus 4) HIV
2) Divergent evolution
182. Ganga action plan and Yamuna action plans are
3) Adaptive radiation initiated to save major rivers in India by
4) Convergent evolution [NCERT 12th, 3rd Para, line 1, 2, 3]
178. Modern day life style has resulted in A of 1) Ministry of public health care
immunity and more sensitivity to B which 2) Ministry of environment and forest
could be due to protected environment. Here A
3) Ministry of forest and river management
and B are [NCERT- Pg. XII - 153]
4) Ministry of town and village development
1) A – lowering B – allergens
183. Which one of the following palindromic base
2) A – increase B – antibodies
sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the
3) A – lowering B – antibodies middle by some particular restriction enzyme?
[NCERT Pg. 196]
4) A – increase B – allergens
1) 5'.............CGTTCG.............3'
179. Select the incorrect statement. [NCERT- Pg. XII - 152]
3'.............ATGGTA.............5'
1) The T-cells themselves do not secrete antibodies
but help B cells to produce them. 2) 5'.............GATATG.............3'
2) A transplant recipient patient has to take 3'.............CTACTA.............5'

immuno-suppressants all their life. 3) 5'.............GAATTC.............3'
3) Toxoids provide passive immunity 3'.............CTTAAG.............5'
4) T-lymphocytes originate in primary lymphoid 4) 5'.............CACGTA.............3'

tissue. 3'.............CTCAGT.............5'

184. In genetic engineering, genes for antibiotics
190. Serum is [NCERT Page. no 279]
resistance are used [NCERT Pg. 199]
1) Blood without corpuscles
1) as selectable markers
2) Blood without fibrinogen
2) to select healthy vectors
3) to keep the cultures free of infection 3) Also called as plasma
4) as sequences from where replication starts. 4) Blood without fibrinogen and corpuscles
185. A transgenic food crop which may help in solving 191. Choose the correct option w.r.t. part of nephron
the probelm of night-blindness in developing and their respective main functions.
countries is [NCERT Pg. 216]
1) Bt. Soybean 2) Golden rice
1) PCT : Selective secretion of
3) Flavr Savr tomatoes 4) Starlink maize
Na+ and Cl–
Section-B
2) DCT : Reabsorption of H+
186. Which one of the following statements about the and K+
given animals is correct
3) Loop of Henle : Maximum
[NCERT Page No. 51, Bit-4.2.4, Line-4]
reabsorption of NaCl
1) Flatworms are coelomates in descending limb
2) Annelida are pseudocoelomates
4) Collecting duct : Allows passage of
3) Mollusca are acoelomate
water and urea
4) Platyhelminthes are acoelomates
192. Fascia arround muscles is made up of _______
187. The interphase nucleus has highly extended tissue. [NCERT 11th, Pg. 304, 2nd para, line 3, 4]
nucleoprotein fibres called [NCERT 11th Page, 138]
1) Chromosomes 2) Chromatin 1) Neural
3) Chromatid 4) Pericentriolar satellite 2) Epithelial

188. How many of the following enzymes act on their 3) Connective
substrates to release glucose?
4) All of these
193. Neurons usually found in embryonic stage are
a) Sucrase b) Lipase
[NCERT Pg. 317]
c) Dipeptidases d) Trypsin
1) Unipolar
e) Lactase
1) Two 2) Three 2) Pseudounipolar
3) Four 4) Five 3) Bipolar
189. O2-Dissociation curve is best described as 4) Multipolar
194. Match the following columns
1) A graphic representation of relationship
between pO2 and percentage saturation of Hb Column I Column II
with O2 A. PRL I. Gonadotropins
2) A graphic representation between amount of B. TSH II. Glucocorticoids
CO2 delivered to the alveoli by every 100 ml of
deoxygenated blood C. ACTH III. Thyroid hormone
3) S-shaped curve depicting the relationship D. LH & FSH IV. Mammary glands
between amount of carbonic anhydrase present 1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
in RBCs and formation of oxyhaemoglobin
4) Graphic relationship between brakdown of 2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
glucose in to H 2 O, CO 2 and energy with 3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
diffusion of CO2 from tissues to blood
4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

195. Match the correct pairs [NCERT 12th, Pg. 47, 1st para] 198. Match the columns and choose the correct option
Column I Column II [NCERT- Pg. XII - 176 & 177]
a) Mammary duct i) duct of lumen Column-I Column-II

b) Mammary tubule ii) Duct of mammary Breeding crops with higher
1 Totipotency a
alveolus levels of nutrients
c) Lactiferous duct iii) Duct of mammary Plant grown from hybrid
2 Micropropagation b
Lobe protoplast
Producing large number of
iv) Milk is sucked out
3 Somal c plants through tisseu
through it
culture.
1) a - iii, b - ii, c - iv 2) a - iii, b - i, c - iv
Capacity to generate a
3) a - ii, b - iii, c - i 4) a - ii, b - iii, c - iv 4 Somatic hybrid d
whole plantfrom an explant
196. Read the following characteristics and choose the
Plants genetically identical
option best described by them 5 Biofortification e
to original plant
1) 1-d,2-c,3-e,4-b,5-a 2) 1-a,2-e,3-b,4-d,5-c
i) Herbivorous
3) 1-c,2-b,3-e,4-d,5-c 4) 1-d,2-e,3-a,4-d,5-c
ii) Long necked
199. Which of the following biofertiliser commonly
iii) Quadruped serves in paddy field
iv) Long tail [NCERT 12th, Pg. 188, last para]
1) Tyrannosaurus 2) Triceratops 1) Rhizobium 2) Mycorrhiza
3) Stegosaurus 4) Brachiosaurus 3) Azotobactor 4) Cyanobacteria
197. NACO conducts various awareness programmes 200. During heat shock to the bacterium, the
to educate people about temperature used for giving thermal shock is
[NCERT Pg. 201]
1) Cancer 2) Drug abuse 1) 52°C 2) 100°C
3) AIDS 4) Alcohol addiction 3) Liquid nitrogen 4) 42°C

Question Paper: Biology - 100 Chemistry - 50 Physics - 50

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Question Paper: Biology - 100 Chemistry - 50 Physics - 50

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Mark Group NEET Test Series (Round-IV) Date : 29/06/2022

720 PCB PCB Mock Test : 03 Time : 03 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Biology - 100

Question Booklet Version Roll Number Question Booklet Sr. No.

P-11 (Write this number on

Physics : (11th + 12th) Complete Syllabus

Chemistry : (11th + 12th) Complete Syllabus

Biology : (11th + 12th) Complete Syllabus

• Next Exam Syllabus (Date : 01/07/2022) •

PCB Mock Test–04

PCB MOCK TEST : 03 2 Date : 29/06/2022

1) circuit 1 and circuit 2

Space For Rough Work

PCB MOCK TEST : 03 3 Date : 29/06/2022

Space For Rough Work

PCB MOCK TEST : 03 4 Date : 29/06/2022

PCB MOCK TEST : 03 5 Date : 29/06/2022

Space For Rough Work

PCB MOCK TEST : 03 6 Date : 29/06/2022

1) 40 m/s 2 2) 640 m/s 2

3) 160 m/s 2 4) 40 m/s 2

Space For Rough Work

PCB MOCK TEST : 03 7 Date : 29/06/2022

Space For Rough Work

PCB MOCK TEST : 03 8 Date : 29/06/2022

Section ‘B’ : Chemistry

Space For Rough Work

PCB GRAND TEST - 03 9 Date : 29/06/2022

Space For Rough Work

PCB GRAND TEST - 03 10 Date : 29/06/2022

3) 18 times 4) 8 times (C) Me Me [N.B. 303]

Space For Rough Work

PCB GRAND TEST - 03 11 Date : 29/06/2022

PCB GRAND TEST - 03 12 Date : 29/06/2022

88. Identify the incorrect statement from the Re d.Hot RX

Space For Rough Work

PCB GRAND TEST - 03 13 Date : 29/06/2022

Space For Rough Work

PCB GRAND TEST - 03 14 Date : 29/06/2022

1) Cell structure 1) A = This type of flower is hypogynous

PCB MOCK TEST : 03 15 Date :29/06/2022

PCB MOCK TEST : 03 16 Date :29/06/2022

PCB MOCK TEST : 03 17 Date :29/06/2022

PCB MOCK TEST : 03 18 Date :29/06/2022

Column-I Column-II 1) Humans

1) a and b only 2) b and c only 1) Mastication of food into smaller particles

PCB MOCK TEST : 03 20 Date :29/06/2022

PCB MOCK TEST : 03 21 Date :29/06/2022

1) User friendly Column-I Column-II

176. Read the following statements and choose the

1) Only statement A is correct

2) A transplant recipient patient has to take 3'.............CTACTA.............5'

4) T-lymphocytes originate in primary lymphoid 4) 5'.............CACGTA.............3'

PCB MOCK TEST : 03 22 Date :29/06/2022

3) Chromatid 4) Pericentriolar satellite 2) Epithelial

PCB MOCK TEST : 03 23 Date :29/06/2022

a) Mammary duct i) duct of lumen Column-I Column-II

PCB MOCK TEST : 03 24 Date :29/06/2022

You might also like