TEST QUESTIONS CHAPTER 2

1. The two kinds of cells in the nervous system are __________, which receive and transmit information to other
cells, and __________, which do not transmit information.

A) neurons, glia

B) glia, hypoglia

C) glia, neurons

D) neurons, corpuscles

2. The outer surface of a cell is called the __________ and the fluid inside the cell is the __________.

A) cytoplasm, endoplasm

B) membrane, nuclear fluid

C) wall, goo

D) membrane, cytoplasm

3. Which structure within an animal cell contains the chromosomes?

A) endoplasmic reticulum

B) mitochondrion

C) membrane

D) nucleus

4. The main feature that distinguishes a neuron from other cells is the neuron's

A) larger nucleus.

B) ability to metabolize a variety of fuels.

C) high internal concentration of sodium ions.

D) varied shape.
5. Which part of a neuron contains the nucleus?

A) cell body

B) dendrites

C) axon

D) presynaptic ending

6. Neurons have one __________, but can have any number of __________.

A) dendrite, axons

B) axon, dendrites

C) cell body, axons

D) axon hillock, cell bodies

7. An axon hillock is

A) the end of an axon, close to the next cell.

B) a swelling in the middle of an axon.

C) a point at which the axon branches in two or more directions.

D) a swelling at the start of an axon, next to the cell body.

8. As a general rule, axons convey information

A) toward dendrites of their own cell.

B) toward their own cell body.

C) away from the cell body.

D) to glia.
9. One way to tell the difference between a dendrite and an axon is that dendrites usually

A) form branches perpendicular to the main trunk of the dendrite.

B) are longer than the axon.

C) are covered with myelin.

D) taper in diameter toward their periphery.

10. An interneuron is

A) a glia cell that separates one neuron from another.

B) a neuron that receives all its information from other neurons and conveys impulses only to other neurons.

C) a neuron that has its cell body in the spinal cord and an axon that extends to a muscle or gland.

D) a cell whose properties are halfway between those of a neuron and those of a glia cell.

11. A neuron that conveys information toward the hippocampus is considered a (an) __________ cell, with
regard to the hippocampus.

A) afferent

B) efferent

C) intrinsic

D) motor

12. A neuron that conveys information away from the hippocampus is considered a (an) __________ cell, with
regard to the hippocampus.

A) afferent

B) efferent

C) intrinsic

D) sensory
13. A neuron that has an axon and dendrites that branch diffusely, but only extend within a small radius, is
probably a(n)_________.

A) Purkinje cell

B) motor neuron in the spinal cord

C) interneuron

D) sensory neuron

14. In the human brain, glia cells are

A) larger than neurons.

B) capable of transmitting impulses when neurons fail to do so.

C) more numerous than neurons.

D) like neurons, except that they lack axons.

15. One function NOT performed by glia is to

A) remove waste materials.

B) build myelin sheaths.

C) transmit information.

D) guide the growth of axons and dendrites.

16. Keeping animals in a varied environment with much stimulation leads to which change in neuronal
structure?

A) Increased branching of dendrites.

B) Increased velocity of action potentials.

C) Increased diameter of cell bodies.

D) Division of mature neurons to form additional neurons.

17. How does the structure of neurons change when an older person becomes senile?

A) No structural change occurs.

B) Neurons develop new but inappropriate connections.

C) Many neurons die and dendrites branch less widely in the remainder.

D) The diameter of axons and cell bodies decreases.

18. The difference in voltage between the inside and the outside of a neuron that typically exists is called the

A) concentration gradient.

B) generator potential.

C) resting potential.

D) shock value.

19. What is meant by the term "concentration gradient"?

A) Sodium ions are more concentrated inside the cell and potassium ions are more concentrated outside.

B) Potassium ions are more concentrated inside the cell and sodium ions are more concentrated outside.

C) Sodium ions are more concentrated in the dendrites and potassium ions are more concentrated in the
axon.

D) Potassium ions are more concentrated in the dendrites and sodium ions are more concentrated in the
axon.

20. The sodium potassium pump pumps sodium ions __________ and potassium ions __________.

A) into the cell, into the cell

B) into the cell, out of the cell

C) out of the cell, out of the cell

D) out of the cell, into the cell

21. The sodium potassium pump makes possible which of the following features of a neuron?

A) Refractory period.

B) Resting potential.

C) Selective permeability.

D) Saltatory conduction.

22. When the neuron is at rest, which of the following forces tends to move potassium ions OUT OF the cell?

A) Concentration gradient.

B) Electrical gradient.

C) Both concentration gradient and electrical gradient.

D) Sodium potassium pump.

23. If a stimulus shifts the potential inside a neuron from the resting potential to a more negative potential,
the result is

A) hyperpolarization.

B) depolarization.

C) an action potential.

D) a threshold.

24. If a stimulus shifts the potential inside a neuron from the resting potential to a potential slightly closer to
zero, the result is known as

A) hyperpolarization.

B) depolarization.

C) selective permeability.

D) the refractory period.

25. A membrane produces an action potential whenever the potential across it reaches

A) the resting potential.

B) 90 mV.

C) the threshold.

D) the myelin sheath.

26. According to the all or none law,

A) every depolarization produces an action potential.

B) every hyperpolarization produces an action potential.

C) the size of the action potential is independent of the strength of the stimulus that initiated it.

D) every depolarization reaches the threshold, even if it fails to produce an action potential.

27. For a given neuron, the resting potential is 70 mV and the threshold is 55 mV.

Stimulus A depolarizes the membrane to exactly 55 mV.

Stimulus B depolarizes the membrane to 40 mV. What can we expect to happen?

A) Stimulus A will produce an action potential of greater amplitude than stimulus B.

B) Stimulus A will produce an action potential that is conducted at a faster speed than that of stimulus B.

C) Stimulus B will produce an action potential and stimulus A will not.

D) Stimulus A and stimulus B will produce action potentials of the same size.

28. How can a neuron signal the difference between an intense stimulus and a stimulus that just barely
reaches the threshold for an instant?

A) Magnitude of the action potential.

B) Speed of the action potential.

C) Frequency of action potentials.

D) Shape of the action potential.

29. During the entire course of events from the start of an action potential until the membrane returns to its
resting potential, the net movement of ions is

A) sodium in, potassium in.

B) sodium out, potassium out.

C) sodium in, potassium out.

D) sodium out, potassium in.

30. The refractory period of a neuron is a period of time when

A) the sodium gates of the membrane are open.

B) the sodium potassium pump is active.

C) a usually adequate stimulus cannot produce an action potential.

D) both the sodium gates and the potassium gates are fully closed.

31. No stimulus can excite a membrane to produce an action potential if

A) the membrane is in its absolute refractory period.

B) it occurs at the same time as a hyperpolarizing stimulus.

C) sodium ions are more concentrated outside the cell than inside.

D) the potassium gates have been blocked.

32. Which feature of a neuron limits the number of action potentials it can produce per second?

A) Threshold.

B) Refractory period.

C) Saltatory conduction.

D) Length of the axon.

33. Suppose we find that the maximum firing rate of a given neuron is 50 action potentials per second. What
is the refractory period of that cell?

A) 50 msec.

B) 1/50 sec.

C) 5 sec.

D) Not enough information is given to determine an answer.

34. Most action potentials begin

A) in the dendrites.

B) in the cell body.

C) at the axon hillock.

D) at the tip of the axon.

35. Once an action potential starts,

A) it is conducted the rest of the way as an electrical current.

B) it needs additional stimuli from outside the cell to keep it going at various points along the axon.

C) it increases in speed as it goes.

D) it is regenerated at various points along the axon, the same way that it began.

36. The velocity of an action potential is

A) the same as the velocity of electricity.

B) approximately the speed of sound.

C) 1 100 m/sec.

D) impossible to measure.
37. On which of the following would action potentials travel the slowest?

A) A thin, myelinated axon.

B) A thin, unmyelinated axon.

C) A thick, myelinated axon.

D) A thick, unmyelinated axon.

38. The function of a myelin sheath is to

A) prevent action potentials from traveling in the wrong direction.

B) increase the velocity of transmission along an axon.

C) increase the magnitude of an action potential.

D) enable an action potential in one cell to influence the transmission in other cells.

39. What are the nodes of Ranvier?

A) Gates in the membrane that admit all ions freely.

B) Branching points in an axon.

C) Places where dendrites join the cell body.

D) Interruptions in the myelin sheath.

40. Saltatory conduction refers to

A) production of an action potential by the movement of sodium ions.

B) transmission of an impulse along a myelinated axon.

C) transmission of impulses along dendrites.

D) transmission of an impulse between one neuron and another.

41.By an IPSP (Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potential), electric potential differences across the postsynaptic
membrane increase.

2. By an EPSP (Excitatory Postsynaptic Potential), electric potential differences across the postsynaptic
membrane increase.

3. By an IPSP, electric potential differences across the postsynaptic membrane decrease.

4. By an EPSP, electric potential differences across the postsynaptic membrane decrease.

A) 1 is true; 2, 3 and 4 are untrue.

B) 1 and 4 are true; 2 and 3 are untrue.

C) 4 is true; 1, 2 and 3 are untrue.

D) 2 and 3 are true; 1 and 4 are untrue.

42. Suppose that the brains of two adult rats are to be investigated.

The first rat was raised in an environment full with fellow rats and sensory stimuli (enriched environment),
and the second was raised singly in a small empty cage (impoverished environment). It will appear that the
brain of the first rat in comparison with the second:

A) contains more nerve cells, whereas the number of synapses of nerve cells is also larger.

B) contains more nerve cells, while the number of synapses of nerve cells remains the same.

C) contains almost the same number of nerve cells; on the other hand, the number of synapses of nerve cells
is increased.

D) contains almost the same number of nerve cells, whereas also the number of synapses of nerve cells
remains the same.
43. Assume that the duration of an action potential is 1 msec and the duration of the refractory period is also
1 msec. What is the largest number of action potentials that can be transported over the axon per second?

A) 1000.

B) 500.

C) 100.

D) 50.

44. Which of the following statements related to nerve and glia cells is NOT true?

A) The myelin sheath around the axon of nerve cells is formed by glia cells.

B) Glia cells have a supportive and feeding function for nerve cells.

C) Nerve cells, just as glia cells, have the power to divide.

D) The brain contains many more glia cells than nerve cells.

45. By the creation of action potentials, shifts in the concentrations of sodium and potassium ions play an
essential role. If we follow these changes over a certain period, we note the following:

A) first potassium ions enter the cell, somewhat later sodium ions leave the cell.

B) first sodium ions enter the cell, somewhat later potassium ions leave the cell.

C) first sodium ions leave the cell, somewhat later potassium ions enter the cell.

D) first potassium ions leave the cell, somewhat later sodium ions enter the cell.

46. The speed that an action potential travels down an axon is increased by

A) an increase in the intensity of the evoking stimulus.

B) increased activity by autoreceptors.

C) the presence of a myelin sheath.

D) the absence of lateral inhibition.

TEST QUESTIONS CHAPTER 3

1. The abbreviation EPSP stands for

A) extra psychic sensory perception.

B) exterior partial sensory process.

C) end point stationary physiology.

D) excitatory post synaptic potential.

2. An EPSP is a

A) graded depolarization.

B) depolarization alternating rapidly with a hyperpolarization.

C) graded hyperpolarization.

D) canceling out of competing effects.

3. If an EPSP adds to what is left of a previous EPSP, what has occurred?

A) Temporal summation.

B) Spatial summation.

C) Saltatory conduction.

D) Inhibitory synaptic transmission.

4. An EPSP results from

A) the deactivation of cytoplasmic enzymes.

B) the opening of sodium channels in the presynaptic membrane.

C) the entry of sodium into the postsynaptic neuron.

D) inherited paranormal psychic abilities.

5. Spatial summation refers to

A) adding two stimuli from the same source that occurred at different times.

B) the decrease in responsiveness by a neuron that has been stimulated repeatedly.

C) adding two stimuli from different sources at the same time.

D) a progressive increase in the magnitude of action potentials in a given axon over time.

6. Where do temporal summation and spatial summation take place?

A) Interneurons, but not motor or receptor neurons.

B) Glia cells.

C) Along the surface of an axon.

D) The postsynaptic membrane in the axon hillock.

7. A normal, healthy animal never contracts the flexor muscles and the extensor muscles of the same leg at the
same time. Why not?

A) The nerves to one set of muscles have inhibitory synapses onto the nerves to the other set.

B) The two sets of muscles are mechanically connected in a way that makes it impossible for both to contract
at the same time.

C) Nerves to flexor muscles release acetylcholine; nerves to extensor muscles release epinephrine.

D) Both muscles are controlled by branches of the same axon.

8. An IPSP is a(n)

A) location where a dendrite branches.

B) interruption in a myelin sheath.

C) subthreshold depolarization.

D) temporary hyperpolarization.
9. Which of the following combinations would be most likely to produce an action potential?

A) Two IPSPs.

B) Two EPSPs.

C) An IPSP plus an EPSP.

D) Any of these combinations would be equally likely to produce an action potential.

10. The distance a synapse is from the axon hillock

A) determines the influence of that synapse: farther synapses have stronger influences.

B) determines the influence of that synapse: nearer synapses have stronger influences.

C) does not matter since EPSPs are all or none.

D) does not matter since IPSPs are all or none.

11. The "spontaneous rate" of a neuron is its

A) resting potential.

B) rate of synthesizing its synaptic transmitter.

C) rate of producing action potentials when it is not stimulated.

D) velocity of action potential.

12. Which of the following is true about spontaneous firing rates of neurons?

A) EPSPs increase the frequency.

B) EPSPs decrease the frequency.

C) IPSPs increase the frequency.

D) B and C are correct.

13. What determines whether a neuron has an action potential?

A) EPSPs.

B) IPSPs.

C) The combined effect of EPSPs and IPSPs.

D) Spontaneous firing rate alone (EPSPs and IPSPs have no effect).

14. What is the chemical relationship between the synaptic transmitters dopamine and norepinephrine?

A) They are chemically unrelated.

B) They are just different names for the same chemical substance.

C) They are both made from acetate and choline, although the two are combined in different ways.

D) The brain can convert dopamine into norepinephrine in one step.

15. The synthesis of neurotransmitter molecules takes place

A) in the bloodstream.

B) in the cell body.

C) in the presynaptic terminal.

D) in either the cell body or the presynaptic terminal, depending on the particular neurotransmitter.

16. When an action potential reaches the end of an axon, the depolarization causes what ionic movement?

A) Bicarbonate out of the presynaptic cell.

B) Lithium out of the presynaptic cell.

C) Iron into the cell.

D) Calcium into the cell.

17. The synaptic cleft is

A) the gap between the presynaptic neuron and the postsynaptic neuron.

B) a packet that stores molecules of the synaptic transmitter.

C) a subthreshold depolarization.

D) a dietary precursor to the synthesis of a synaptic transmitter.

18. When a presynaptic cell releases a neurotransmitter, the chemical

A) reacts with other chemicals present in the synaptic cleft, which, in turn, affect the postsynaptic membrane.

B) diffuses across the synaptic cleft.

C) is actively transported across the synaptic cleft.

D) breaks down into its constituent components before reaching the postsynaptic membrane.

19. The effect that a neurotransmitter has on the postsynaptic neuron is determined by

A) the speed the action potential travelled down the axon.

B) the number of branches in the presynaptic axon.

C) the receptors of the postsynaptic membrane.

D) the number of synaptic vesicles present.

20. Acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme that

A) synthesizes acetylcholine from constituents of the diet.

B) increases the sensitivity of the postsynaptic cell to acetylcholine.

C) blocks further release of the transmitter acetylcholine.

D) breaks acetylcholine down, after its release, into less active components.
21. After acetylcholine attaches to a receptor on the postsynaptic cell,

A) the enzyme acetylcholinesterase breaks it into two fragments.

B) it detaches from the receptor and is reabsorbed intact by the presynaptic cell.

C) the postsynaptic cell metabolizes it as a source of energy.

D) it remains in place until it is displaced by the next batch of acetylcholine released at the synapse.

22. What would be the effect of a drug that inhibits the action of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase?

A) Prolonged action of the transmitter acetylcholine at its synapses.

B) Decreased duration of action of the transmitter acetylcholine at its synapses.

C) Decreased synthesis of the transmitter acetylcholine by the presynaptic cell.

D) Increased synthesis of the transmitter acetylcholine by the presynaptic cell.

23. One way to prolong the effects of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine is to use a drug that

A) prevents calcium from entering the presynaptic cell.

B) stimulates autoreceptors of the presynaptic cell.

C) mimics the effects of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.

D) inhibits the effects of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.

24. A drug that blocks the effects of a neurotransmitter is a(n) __________; a drug that mimics or increases the
effects is a(n) __________.

A) neuromodulator, synergist

B) agonist, antagonist

C) depressant, stimulant

D) antagonist, agonist
25. Saying that a drug has an affinity for a particular receptor means

A) they have similar chemical compositions and produce similar effects.

B) the drug readily binds with the receptor.

C) the drug is attracted to the opposite electrical charge of the receptor.

D) the drug has warm, positive feelings for the receptor.

26. The stronger an agonist's affinity is to a receptor, the __________ powerful a drug it is likely to be; the
stronger an antagonist's affinity the __________ powerful it is likely to be.

A) more, less

B) less, more

C) more, more

D) less, less

27. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways drugs can affect the presynaptic neuron?

A) They may block the synthesis of neurotransmitters.

B) They may stimulate the release of neurotransmitters.

C) They may cause synaptic vesicles to divide and multiply.

D) They may inhibit presynaptic synapses on the presynaptic neuron.

28. A drug that attaches directly to the receptors on the postsynaptic neuron

A) will eventually destroy those receptors.

B) has agonistic effects.

C) has antagonistic effects.

D) could have either agonistic or antagonistic effects.

29. Drugs influence brain activity by

A) affecting presynaptic events.

B) affecting postsynaptic receptors.

C) affecting neurotransmitters in the synapse after transmission has occurred.

D) all of the above

30. The deadly effect of the curare used by Indians on the tips of their arrows to poison wild animals is caused
by:

A) preventing the release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine from the synaptic clefts.

B) disturbing the diffusion process in the synaptic vesicles so that acetylcholine can no longer reach the
postsynaptic membrane.

C) breaking down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft.

D) occupying the postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors so that acetylcholine no longer can function.

31. In general, a psychoactive drug influences synaptic transmission by three of the four following processes:

1. The psychoactive drug occupies postsynaptic receptors, leading to an inactivation of the genuine
neurotransmitter.

2. The psychoactive drug cannot be cleared by the esterase, normally clearing the genuine neurotransmitter.

3. The psychoactive drug leads to a disturbance of the diffusion process in the synaptic cleft, inhibiting
diffusion of the genuine neurotransmitter to the postsynaptic receptors.

4. The psychoactive drug modulates the release of the genuine neurotransmitter from the presynaptic
vesicles. Which process is not known to influence synaptic transmission?
A) 1.

B) 2.

C) 3.

D) 4.

32. Suppose that at rest, the axon hillock of a nerve cell simultaneously receives 10 EPSP's and 3 IPSP's where
all EPSP's are 4 millivolt and IPSP's are 9 millivolt. The result is:

A) a depolarisation; no action potentials are generated.

B) a hyperpolarisation; no action potentials are generated.

C) a depolarisation; one or more action potentials are generated.

D) a hyperpolarisation; one or more action potentials are generated.

33. A. An EPSP (Excitatory PostSynaptic Potential) is a reduction of the electrical potential across a
postsynaptic membrane.

B. During an EPSP, the cell membrane is not permeable for sodium ions.

A) A is false, B is true.

B) A is true, B is false.

C) A is true, B is true.

D) A is false, B is false.

34. Variations in diet control variations in

A) synthesis of synaptic transmitters.

B) synthesis of myelin sheaths.

C) the activity of the sodium potassium pump.

D) the resting potential of the membrane of a neuron.

35. Assume that on the axon hillock in rest simultaneously arrive 10 ESPS's and 4 ISPS's, where all ESPS's are
3 millivolts and all ISPS's are 9 millivolt, then:

A) a depolarisation is caused. No action potentials are generated.

B) a hyperpolarisation is caused. No action potentials are generated.

C) a depolarisation is caused. One or more action potentials are generated.

D) a hyperpolarisation is caused. One or more action potentials are generated.

TEST QUESTIONS CHAPTER 4

1. The central nervous system is made up of the __________ and __________.

A) autonomic nervous system, somatic nervous system

B) cerebrum, cerebellum

C) sympathetic division, parasympathetic division

D) brain, spinal cord

2. The division of the nervous system that is made up of neurons that control the heart, intestines, and other
organs is the

A) central.

B) peripheral.

C) somatic.

D) autonomic.
3. The autonomic and somatic nervous systems make up the

A) central nervous system.

B) endocrine system.

C) peripheral nervous system.

D) subconscious nervous system.

4. An axon in your hand that causes contraction of a muscle fiber in your finger would be part of the __________
nervous system.

A) central

B) somatic

C) sympathetic

D) parasympathetic

5. Comparing the brains of mammals, such as rats and humans, to fish and reptiles, one finds

A) many structures present in the fish and reptile brains that are not present in the mammalian brains.

B) three major areas for mammals, compared to only two for fish and reptiles.

C) the hindbrain forms a larger proportion of the brain in mammals.

D) the forebrain forms a larger proportion of the brain in mammals.

6. Two structures that are on the same side of the body are said to be __________ to each other.

A) ventral

B) medial

C) contralateral

D) ipsilateral
7. Which of the following means "toward the side, away from the midline"?

A) Lateral.

B) Medial.

C) Proximal.

D) Distal.

8. A set of axons within the CNS is called a

A) lamina.

B) column.

C) tract.

D) nerve.

9. What is the difference between a ganglion and a nucleus?

A) Size.

B) Location in the nervous system.

C) Number of cells.

D) All of the above.

10. Which of the following would be found outside the CNS?

A) Tract.

B) Ganglion.

C) Nucleus.

D) Gyrus.

11. The sensory nerves enter the spinal cord on its __________ side; the motor nerves leave the spinal cord on
its __________ side.

A) ventral, dorsal

B) dorsal, ventral

C) right, left

D) left, right

12. Gray matter in the brain and spinal cord consists mainly of

A) cell bodies and dendrites.

B) myelinated axons.

C) unmyelinated axons.

D) mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulums.

13. The portion of the nervous system that prepares the body for "fight or flight" activities, and consists of
two paired chains of ganglia is the __________ nervous system.

A) sympathetic

B) somatic

C) parasympathetic

D) craniosacral
14. The sympathetic and parasympathetic make up the __________ nervous system.

A) somatic

B) autonomic

C) central

D) peripheral

15. Which is controlled by a chain of ganglia near the thoracic and lumbar areas of the spinal cord?

A) Sympathetic nervous system.

B) Parasympathetic nervous system.

C) Both sympathetic and parasympathetic.

D) Neither sympathetic nor parasympathetic.

16. Activity of the sympathetic nervous system increases

A) salivation.

B) adrenal gland secretions.

C) digestive activity.

D) sexual arousal.

17. Activity of the parasympathetic nervous system promotes

A) fight or flight activity.

B) increased heart rate.

C) increased adrenal gland secretions.

D) energy conserving, nonemergency functions.

18. What, generally, is the relationship between the activity of the sympathetic and the parasympathetic
nervous systems?
A) The sympathetic controls internal organs while the parasympathetic controls peripheral organs.

B) The sympathetic usually has specific, localized effects, while the parasympathetic has broad effects.

C) They usually have opposite effects on the same organ.

D) The sympathetic is involved in voluntary behavior, while the parasympathetic is involved in reflexive
behavior.

19. Eye movements are controlled by

A) the sympathetic nervous system.

B) cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6.

C) the cervical region of the spinal cord.

D) the thoracic region of the spinal cord.

20. How many pairs of cranial nerves do humans have?

A) 8.

B) 10.

C) 12.

D) 16.

21. Which of the following is NOT part of the hindbrain?

A) Cerebellum.

B) Hippocampus.

C) Pons.

D) Medulla.

22. Suppose someone suffered damage to cranial nerves 5, 9, and 10.

Which of the following functions would be most likely to be impaired?

A) Vision.

B) Control of arm muscles.

C) Control of leg muscles.

D) Chewing and swallowing.

23. The cerebellum makes a well established contribution to the control of

A) Hunger.

B) Temperature.

C) Olfaction.

D) Movement.

24. Which of the following is NOT part of the forebrain?

A) Hippocampus.

B) Thalamus.

C) Medulla.

D) Cerebral cortex.

25. The forebrain structures located around the brain stem that are important for motivated and emotional
behavior are collectively known as the

A) limbic system.

B) reticular formation.

C) tegmentum.

D) basal ganglia.
26. An impairment of hormonal secretion, feeding, drinking, temperature regulation, or sexual behavior
suggests possible damage to the

A) midbrain.

B) hippocampus.

C) hypothalamus.

D) cerebellum.

27. If you wanted to see the olfactory bulbs, where should you look?

A) In the center of the brain, between the two lateral ventricles.

B) On the dorsal surface of the hindbrain, near the cerebellum.

C) On the dorsal surface of the cerebral cortex, near the central sulcus.

D) On the ventral surface of the brain, near the optic chiasm.

28. Damage to the basal ganglia would most likely result in

A) a movement disorder.

B) problems with visual perception.

C) problems with auditory perception.

D) a loss of cutaneous sensation.

29. The cerebral cortex receives most of its input from neurons in the

A) thalamus.

B) spinal cord.

C) superior colliculus.

D) medulla.
30. The ventricles of the brain contain

A) cell bodies.

B) dendrites and axons.

C) cerebrospinal fluid.

D) glia.

31. What do the ventricles, central canal, and subarachnoid space have in common?

A) All are part of the forebrain.

B) All are filled with cerebrospinal fluid.

C) All are involved in cognitive functioning.

D) All are filled with blood.

32. Each hemisphere of the cerebral cortex receives most of its input from the __________ side of the body and
controls the muscles on the __________ side.

A) ipsilateral, ipsilateral

B) contralateral, contralateral

C) contralateral, ipsilateral

D) ipsilateral, contralateral

33. The large bundle of axons connecting the two hemispheres of the brain is the

A) corpus callosum.

B) tectum.

C) fornix.

D) cerebral cortex.
34. Which part of the cerebral cortex is most important for visual information?

A) Occipital.

B) Parietal.

C) Temporal.

D) Frontal.

35. After damage to the striate cortex in the occipital cortex, a person suffers

A) deafness.

B) blindness.

C) loss of touch and other body sensations.

D) loss of fine motor control.

36. Which part of the cerebral cortex is most important for perception of body information, including the
sense of touch?

A) Occipital lobe.

B) Parietal lobe.

C) Temporal lobe.

D) Frontal lobe.
37. Someone who suddenly loses the ability to identify objects by feeling them has probably suffered damage
to the

A) parietal lobe of the cerebral cortex.

B) temporal lobe of the cerebral cortex.

C) frontal lobe of the cerebral cortex.

D) dorsomedial nucleus of the thalamus.

38. One of the common symptoms of damage to the parietal lobe of the cerebral cortex is

A) loss of ability to identify objects by touch.

B) loss of social inhibitions.

C) outbursts of unprovoked anxiety or aggressive behavior.

D) trouble recognizing faces and other highly complex visual stimuli.

39. What separates the frontal lobe of the cerebral cortex from the parietal lobe?

A) The lateral ventricles.

B) The central sulcus.

C) The corpus callosum.

D) The optic chiasm.

40. The primary area of the cerebral cortex for auditory and equilibrium sensations is the

A) occipital lobe.

B) parietal lobe.

C) temporal lobe.

D) frontal lobe.
41. The temporal lobe of the cerebral cortex is the primary target for which kind of sensory information?

A) Somatosensory, including touch.

B) Auditory and equilibrium.

C) The simplest aspects of vision.

D) Gustatory.

42. A strip along the rear of the frontal lobe, the precentral gyrus, is essential for the control of

A) fine movements.

B) coordination between vision and hearing.

C) emotions.

D) hunger and thirst.

43. A significant difference between the brains of primates and those of most other species is the

A) extensive expansion of primary visual, auditory, and somatosensory cortex.

B) increased number of neurotransmitters.

C) increased speed of neural transmission.

D) extensive folding of the cerebral cortex.

44. What is a lesion?

A) An area of brain next to a blood vessel.

B) A cell that lines the surface of a ventricle.

C) A point from which epileptic seizures originate.

D) An area that has been damaged.

45. In an electroencephalograph

A) radioactively labeled slices of brain tissue are placed on X ray film.

B) 180 X rays are passed through the body and combined in a computer.

C) electrodes are attached to the scalp to record electrical activity of the brain.

D) high resolution images of brain anatomy can be obtained from a living person.

46. Which instrument is used in studies of evoked potentials?

A) Stereotaxic instrument.

B) PET scanner.

C) Electroencephalograph.

D) Phrenological map.

47. Early in development, the nervous system begins as

A) a tube surrounding a fluid filled cavity.

B) a spherical structure in the center of the embryo.

C) a diffuse system of cells scattered throughout the body and not connected to one another.

D) a single layer of cells covering the heart and other internal organs.

48. When do the ventricles and the central canal of the spinal cord form?

A) Shortly after birth in humans.

B) Just as the forebrain starts its rapid phase of growth.

C) At the beginning of the formation of the nervous system.

D) At puberty.
49. The average adult brain weight is 1,200 to 1,400 g. The brain weighs almost that much (1,000 g)

A) at the sixth month after conception.

B) at birth.

C) at 1 year.

D) in early adolescence, but not until after puberty.

50. How does the number of neurons in a fetus compare to the number in an adult of 40 years?

A) They have practically the same number.

B) The adult has about 50 percent more.

C) The adult has about twice as many.

D) The fetus has more.

51. The hypothalamus has a function by:

A) sensory motor coordination.

B) control of the automatic nervous system.

C) perception of sensory impulses.

D) regulation of muscle tone.

52. Which cranial nerves mediate the sensations and the expression of the face?

A) The trigeminal nerve and the facial nerve.

B) The trochlear nerve and the trigeminal nerve.

C) The vagus nerve and the trochlear nerve.

D) The facial nerve and the vagus nerve.

53. Which statement with respect to the cerebellum is NOT correct?

A) The cerebellum is mainly important for sensomotor coordination.

B) The cerebellum is a structure originating from the metencephalon.

C) The cerebellum is located ventrally of the brain stem.

D) Damage of the cerebellum produces deficits in movements.

54. Although the human brain in many respects resembles the brain of animals, there appear to be
quantitative differences. The most striking is that:

A) the size of the human brain is larger, compared to animals.

B) the surface of the human brain is folded, while that of animals is smooth.

C) in the human brain, a corpus callosum is developed.

D) in the human brain, cortical association areas are relatively most expanded.

55. During which state of alertness is the pupil of the eye, under identical light conditions, the most dilated?

A) During REM sleep (paradoxical sleep).

B) During the waking state, associated with beta rhythm in the EEG.

C) During the waking state, associated with alpha rhythm in the EEG.

D) During deep slow wave sleep (stage 3 and stage 4).

56. The feeling of sensations in the right foot can be felt by stimulations of:

A) the dorsal part of the left somatosensory cortex.

B) the dorsal part of the right somatosensory cortex.

C) the lateral part of the right somatosensory cortex.

D) the lateral part of the left somatosensory cortex.

57. The brain develops from the neural tube. At the side of the head five vesicles emerge. The thalamus and
the pons develop respectively from:
A) the telencephalon and the metencephalon.

B) the telencephalon and the mesencephalon.

C) the diencephalon and the metencephalon.

D) the diencephalon and the mesencephalon.

58. Which cranial nerves are involved in moving the eye balls?

A) The optic nerve, the trochlear nerve and the oculomotor nerve.

B) The vagus nerve, the abducens nerve and the optic nerve.

C) The olfactory nerve, the facial nerve and the oculomotor nerve.

D) The oculomotor nerve, the trochlear nerve and the abducens nerve.

TEST QUESTIONS CHAPTER 6

1. In many ways the eye is analogous to a camera. The light sensitive surface in the back of the eye that would
correspond to the film in a camera is the

A) pupil.

B) retina.

C) blind spot.

D) vitreous humor.

2. Where are the rods and cones of the eye located?

A) Retina.

B) Pupil.

C) Optic nerve.

D) Cornea.
3. The fovea is the part of the retina

A) with the greatest perception of detail.

B) that surrounds the point of exit of the optic nerve.

C) that falls in the shadow cast by the pupil.

D) that has only rods, not cones.

4. If you want to see something in fine detail, you should focus the light on which part of your retina?

A) Optic nerve.

B) Fovea.

C) Part containing mostly rods.

D) Cornea.

5. Anatomically, which of the following types of cell in the retina is located closest to the pupil?

A) Rods.

B) Cones.

C) Bipolar cells.

D) Ganglion cells.

6. Rods and cones make direct synaptic contact with __________ and __________.

A) bipolar cells, ganglion cells

B) bipolar cells, horizontal cells

C) ganglion cells, amacrine cells

D) horizontal cells, amacrine cells

7. The optic nerve, which conveys visual information to the brain, is composed of axons from which kind of
cell?
A) Rods and cones.

B) Bipolar cells.

C) Horizontal cells.

D) Ganglion cells.

8. Why is the blind spot of the retina blind?

A) It is on the border between the area with rods and the area with cones.

B) It is the point where the optic nerve leaves the retina and there are no rods or cones.

C) It is in the shadow of the pupil.

D) Activity of the receptors is silenced by excessive lateral inhibition.

9. The point at which the optic nerve leaves the retina is known as the

A) blind spot.

B) fovea.

C) optic chiasm.

D) amacrine.

10. The two kinds of receptors in the retina are

A) rods and cones.

B) rods and reels.

C) rods and guns.

D) cones and cilia.

11. The optic nerves from the two eyes

A) meet to form the optic chiasm, where half of the axons from each eye cross to the other side.
B) go directly to the ipsilateral hemisphere, without contacting each other.

C) go directly to the contralateral hemisphere, without contacting each other.

D) combine to send identical information to each hemisphere.

12. The occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex receives visual information directly from

A) the optic nerves.

B) the cerebellum.

C) the superior colliculus.

D) the lateral geniculate of the thalamus.

13. In comparison to the rods, the cones of the retina are

A) more common toward the periphery of the retina.

B) more sensitive to detail.

C) more sensitive to dim light.

D) more common in rodents and other nocturnal animals.

14. Walking down a dark alley at night, Nathan is startled by the movement of a cat that he sees out of the
"corner of his eye". He is unable to see the cat when he looks directly at it because

A) the fovea is mostly rods.

B) cones are less sensitive to dim light.

C) dark adaptation occurs more quickly in the periphery than it does centrally.

D) in the fovea there is a higher ratio of receptors to ganglion cells.

15. The perception of color depends on

A) rods.

B) cones.
C) both rods and cones.

D) neither rods nor cones.

16. In comparison to the cones, the rods are

A) more concentrated in the fovea.

B) more sensitive to dim light.

C) more important for color vision.

D) more sensitive to detail.

17. Why are humans unable to distinguish colors in their extreme peripheral vision?

A) As light from the periphery bends through the pupil, different wave lengths are distorted to different
degrees.

B) The periphery of the retina responds only to bright lights.

C) The periphery of the retina contains only rods.

D) The cornea and lens focus all colored lights onto the fovea.

18. Retinal ganglion cells form two classes, based on characteristics of their receptive fields: 1) "on centre
off surround" cells, 2) "off centre on surround" cells. A light moves across type 2, so that it FIRST hits the
periphery (surround) and THEN the centre, one would note the following changes in the firing frequency of
this ganglion cell:

A) a reduction in the frequency, followed by an increase until the original level.

B) an increase of the frequency, followed by a reduction until the original level.

C) an increase of the frequency, followed by a reduction falling under the original level.

D) a reduction in the frequency, followed by an increase till over the original level.

19. Compared to the periphery of the retina, the fovea

A) is more sensitive to dim light.

B) has more receptors funnelling their input to each postsynaptic cell.

C) has a greater percentage of cones.

D) has its receptors more spread out.

20. The range of wavelengths detected by the human eye is approximately

A) 10 100 nm.

B) 400 700 nm.

C) 1,000 10,000 nm.

D) 20 20,000 hz.

21. According to the Young Helmholtz theory, color vision is based on

A) a different receptor for each color.

B) three kinds of receptors.

C) a single receptor that produces different responses for each color.

D) the combined influences of rods and cones.

22. In the most common form of color blindness people have difficulty distinguishing between what two
colors?

A) Blue and yellow.

B) Green and blue.

C) Red and green.

D) Hot pink and neon yellow.

23. Males are __________ likely to be color blind compared to females.

A) less

B) equally

C) more

D) much less

24. Lateral inhibition refers to

A) the effects of autoreceptors on the presynaptic membrane.

B) the reduction of activity in one neuron by activity in a neighbouring neuron.

C) the reduction of activity in one neuron due to inactivity in neighbouring neurons.

D) the opposite effects of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.

25. In the vertebrate retina, which type of cell is responsible for lateral inhibition?

A) Horizontal cell.

B) Ganglion cell.

C) Bipolar cell.

D) Glia cell.

26. Horizontal cells in the vertebrate retina receive their input from __________; they send inhibitory input to
__________.

A) rods and cones, ganglion cells

B) rods and cones, bipolar cells

C) bipolar cells, ganglion cells

D) cones, rods

27. What is the receptive field for a neuron in the visual system?
A) The extent of its dendrites.

B) An area of the retina in which stimulation influences the activity of the cell.

C) The area(s) where its axons extend.

D) The set of neurons surrounding it.

28. If stimulating receptor A leads to either excitation or inhibition of a particular neuron in the brain, then
receptor A is part of that neuron's

A) sine wave grating.

B) convergence.

C) receptive field.

D) bipolar area.

29. The typical shape of a receptive field for a retinal bipolar cell is

A) circular, with an inhibitory region in the middle and an excitatory region surrounding it.

B) circular, with an excitatory region in the middle and an inhibitory region surrounding it.

C) bar shaped.

D) either a or b above, depending on the individual cell

30. Which stimulus is most adequate in activating a ganglion cell with an off centre on surround receptive
field?

A) A stimulus which simultaneously lightens the total centre and darkens the total surround.

B) A stimulus which simultaneously lightens the total centre and the total surround.

C) A stimulus which simultaneously darkens the total centre and lightens the total surround.

D) A stimulus which simultaneously darkens the total centre and the total surround.
31. What happens when a small spot of light is moved over the receptive field of an on centre off surround
ganglion cell of the retina in a way that the spot first hits the surround and then the centre?

A) First there is a reduction in the spontaneous firing rate of the cell, followed by a sharp increase.

B) First there is a sharp increase in the spontaneous firing rate of the cell, followed by a reduction.

C) Firstly the cell does not react to the stimulus and then there is a reduction in the spontaneous firing rate.

D) Firstly the cell does not react to the stimulus and then there is a sharp increase in the spontaneous firing
rate.

32. How can one find the receptive field of a cell in the visual system?

A) Determine which structure sends axons to the cell.

B) Determine where the cell sends its own axon.

C) Measure the extent of the cell's dendrites.

D) Shine light on various parts of the retina and determine the cell's responses.

33. If we compare neurons at progressively higher levels of the visual system (bipolar, ganglion, etc.), what do
we generally find about their receptive fields?

A) At higher levels, the receptive fields are smaller, since at each level the cell focuses on a more restricted
portion of the visual field.

B) At higher levels, the receptive fields are larger and more complicated, since they are made up of a
combination of lower level receptive fields.

C) The receptive fields are the same size at all levels.

D) Sometimes they are larger, sometimes smaller; there is no general trend.

34. Axons from the lateral geniculate extend directly to which parts of the cerebral cortex?
A) Striate cortex.

B) Precentral gyrus.

C) Postcentral gyrus.

D) Cingulate gyrus.

35. In which layer of the retina is visual information coded in series of action potentials?

A) In the layer of the receptor cells.

B) In the layer of the bipolar cells.

C) In the layer of the horizontal cells.

D) In the layer of the ganglion cells.

36. The function of the horizontal cells in the retina is related to:

A) colour vision.

B) depth perception.

C) perception of brightness.

D) increase of contrast.

37. The corpus geniculatum laterale is a nucleus:

A) in the thalamus, belonging to the auditory system.

B) in the midbrain, belonging to the auditory system.

C) in the midbrain, belonging to the visual system.

D) in the thalamus, belonging to the visual system.

38. Where is the receptive field of a lateral geniculate cell located?

A) In the retina.
B) In the midbrain.

C) In the thalamus.

D) In the cerebral cortex.

39. Where is the receptive field of a visual cell in the striate cortex located?

A) In the retina.

B) In the lateral geniculate.

C) In the cerebral cortex.

D) In the superior colliculus.

40. Which stimulus is most adequate in activating a ganglion cell with an on centre off surround receptive
field?

A) A stimulus which simultaneously darkens the total centre and lightens the total surround.

B) A stimulus which simultaneously lightens the total centre and the total surround.

C) A stimulus which simultaneously darkens the total centre and the total surround.

D) A stimulus which simultaneously lightens the total centre and darkens the total surround.

41. The three types of cells in the primary visual cortex are known as

A) simple, complex, and hypercomplex.

B) W, X, and Y.

C) bipolar, ganglion, and horizontal.

D) inferior, middle, and superior.

42. A simple cell in the primary visual cortex responds to light in a receptive field shaped like a

A) bar in a particular orientation.

B) bar of a particular length.

C) circle of a particular radius.

D) circle with a hole in the middle.