MCQs on Environmental Pollution

1. Which of the following facts are incorrect?

1. Global warming is the rise in the average temperature of the earth’s climate
system
2. Eutrophication is observed in water bodies
3. The greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon
4. Ozone is harmless to breathe

2. Areas that are under the influence of DDT may observe a decline in the population of
birds. This is due to the fact that
1. Birds stopped laying eggs altogether
2. The eggs did not hatch
3. Predation of the eggs increased
4. None of the above.

3. Measuring BOD (biological oxygen demand) is primarily used for

1. Estimating the types of microbes
2. Determine the level of dissolved oxygen
3. Estimating the quantity of organic matter in sewage water
4. None of the above

4. Cosmic rays, such as gamma rays are a source of

1. Soil Pollution
2. Noise Pollution
3. Thermal Pollution
4. Radiation pollution

5. The primary agenda of the Kyoto protocol is 

1. Regulation of hazardous wastes
2. Regulate the production of nuclear energy
3. Control anthropogenic sources of greenhouse gases
4. None of the above

6. The presence of _________ in a water body is an indicator of water pollution.

1. Zygosporangium
2. E.Coli
3. Deinococcus radiodurans
4. None of the above

7. Eggshells of birds become unusually thin when exposed to the pesticides in their
environment. The protein that gets affected is ________
1. Calmodulin
2. Cysteine
3. Serine
4. None of the above
8. Lichens are good bioindicators for 
1. Environmental radiation
2. Soil pollution
3. Water and air pollution
4. None of the above

9. A moth having a speckled wing, able to blend into its background due to its dark
colouration is called
1. Industrial melanism
2. Adaptation
3. Predation
4. Evolution

10. Carbon dioxide is primarily called a greenhouse gas because

1. Traps heat
2. Traps light
3. Traps warm currents
4. None of the above

11. Trichoderma harzianum is a ________ that is predominantly used as a fungicide

1. Virus
2. Fungus
3. Bacteria
4. Protozoa

12. Greenhouse gases are those that absorb and emit infrared radiation. Examples
inlude__________
1. Nitrogen
2. Ozone
3. Argon
4. None of the above

13. Depletion of the ozone layer is damaging to human health. Negative effects include
1. Skin cancers
2. Osteoporosis
3. Dyspepsia
4. None of the above

14. __________ is an organism used to gauge the quality of an ecosystem. 

1. Decomposers
2. Predator
3. Bio-remediator
4. Bioindicator

15. _________ is a waste disposal method where solid organic wastes are converted to the
residue and gaseous products through combustion.
 1. Incarnation
2. Incineration
3. Incarceration
4. Incubation

16. Which of the following pollutants are responsible for the cause of SMOG?

(a) From incinerators

(b) Emissions from vehicles
(c) Both incinerators and emissions from vehicles
(d) None of the above

17. Which of the following is called the secondary air pollutant?

(a) PANs
(b) Ozone
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Nitrogen Dioxide

18. Which of the following particles is called the particulate pollutants?

(a) Ozone
(b) Radon
(c) Fly Ash
(d) Ethylene

19. Which of the following agents is responsible for turning the Taj Mahal yellow?
(a) Sulphur
(b) Chlorine
(c) Sulphur dioxide
(d) Nitrogen dioxide

20. Which of the following statements is true about SMOG?

(a) SMOG is derived from the fog
(b) SMOG is derived from smoke
(c) SMOG is derived from water vapour
(d) SMOG is derived from both fog and smoke

21. What type of precautions should be taken to survive when the ozone level is high?
(a) Drive less
(b) Stay hydrated
(c) Both A and B
(d) Go for a long walk

22. Which of the following statements is true about the Air Quality Index?
(a) It indicates the colour of the air.
(b) It predicts ozone levels in your area.
(c) It determines the intensity of sound and sound pollution.
 (d) It estimates air pollution mainly sulphur content in the air.

23. The major photochemical smog is________.

(a) Hydrogen peroxide
(b) Chlorofluorocarbon
(c) Peroxyacetyl nitrate
(d) All of the above

24. Which of the following diseases are caused by smog?

(a) Rickets
(b) Bronchitis
(c) Breathing Problems
(d) All of the above

25. DDT and Aluminium cans are examples of ________.

(a) Primary Pollutants
(b) Secondary pollutants
(c) Biodegradable Pollutants
(d) Non Biodegradable Pollutants

26. How many different types of primary pollutants together contribute about 90 per
cent of the global air pollution?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c) Seven
(d) None of the above

27. Which of the following agents is mainly responsible for the secondary pollutants?
(a) Smog and Ozone
(b) Sulphur trioxide
(c) Nitrogen dioxide
(d) All of the above

28. Smoke, fumes, ash, dust, nitric oxide and sulphur dioxide are the main sources of
________.
(a) Primary Pollutants
(b) Secondary pollutants
(c) Bio-Degradable Pollutants
(d) None of the above

29. Which of the following industries plays a major role in polluting air and increasing
air pollution?
(a) Brick manufacturing industries
(b) Manufacture of gases industries
(c) Electrical appliances and electrical goods industries
(d) All of the above
 30. Which of the following gas is more in percentage in the air?
(a) Oxygen gas
(b) Nitrogen gas
(c) Water vapour
(d) Carbon dioxide gas

31. Increased levels of air pollution results in _______.

(a) Soil erosion
(b) Global warming
(c) Respiratory problems
(d) All of the above

32. The Taj Mahal, Lotus Temple, Golden Temple, India Gate and other famous
heritage monuments are being affected by _______.
(a) Air pollution
(b) Water pollution
(c) Noise pollution
(d) All of the above

33. What is the total percentage of nitrogen gas in the air?

(a) 12 per cent
(b) 21 per cent
(c) 78 per cent
(d) 87 per cent

34. Which of the following gases are called Greenhouse gases?

(a) Methane
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Both a and c
35. Which of the following rivers is called the world’s most polluted river?

(a) Ganga River

(b) Chenab River
(c) Cauvery River
(d) Yamuna River

36. Which of the following are the primary causes of water pollution?
(a) Plants
(b) Animals
(c) Human activities
(d) None of these
37. Which of the following techniques is used for reducing the total dissolved solids
(TDS) in the water?
(a) Osmosis
(b) Ion exchange
(c) Distillation
(d) Both b and c

38. Which of the following statements are true about CNG -Compressed natural gas?
(a) It is a clean fuel
(b) It is a harmful fuel
(c) It is a polluting fuel
(d) All of the above

39. Which of the following salts is the main cause of permanent hardness of water?
(a) Magnesium sulphate
(b) Magnesium bicarbonate
(c) Magnesium carbonate
(d) None of the above

40. Which of the following is mainly responsible for the causes of water pollution?
(a) Afforestation
(b) Oil refineries
(c) Paper factories
(d) Both b and c

41. Chlorofluorocarbon are nonflammable chemicals mainly used in _________.

(a) Perfumes
(b) Refrigerators
(c) Air conditioners
(d) All of the above

42. Which of the following techniques is used to determine the concentration of odour
compounds in the given water sample?
(a) Settling
(b) Flushing
(c) Stripping
(d) Chlorination

43. What is the health effects of excess fluoride in drinking water?

(a) Fluorosis
(b) Toothaches
(c) Lung disease
(d) Intestinal infection

44. Which of the following techniques is used to remove fluorides from the water
bodies?
(a) Osmosis
(b) Ion exchange
(c) Lime softening
(d) Both b and c

45. Which of the following is a waterborne disease?

(a) Typhoid
(b) Cholera
(c) Diarrhoea
(d) All of the above

46. The main sources of Arsenic in water are ________.

(a) Floods
(b) Fertilizers
(c) Industrial waste
(d) Both b and c

47. In most freshwater lakes, the algal productivity is limited by the availability of
which of the following inorganic ions?
(a) Carbon
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Phosphorus
(d) All of the above

48. Which of the following diseases or infections is caused due to poor water hygiene?
(a) Leprosy
(b) Trachoma
(c) Conjunctivitis
(d) All of the above

49. Which of the following statements is true about the composition of Calcium
Carbonate (CaCo3) in soft water?
(a) 0 to 30 milligrams of CaCO3 per litre
(b) 30 to 60 milligrams of CaCO3 per litre
(c) 60 to 90 milligrams of CaCO3 per litre
(d) 90 to 120 milligrams of CaCO3 per litre

50. Which of the following salts are the main causes of temporary hardness?
(a) Calcium sulphate
(b) Magnesium sulphate
(c) Magnesium chloride
(d) Magnesium carbonate

51. According to the Geological survey, water with less than 1000 ml/litre of total
dissolved solids is __________.
(a) Brine water
(b) Freshwater
(c) Slightly saline
(d) Moderately saline
 52. The amount of dissolved solids passing through the filters in the process of filtration
is called __________.
(a) Independent of suspended solids
(b) Sum of total solids and suspended solids
(c) Difference between total solids and suspended solids
(d) All of the above

53. Which of the following units is used for measuring the turbidity of water?
(a) EAU Formazin Attenuation Units
(b) FNU- Formazin Nephelometric Unit
(c) NTU – Nephelometric Turbidity Units
(d) All of the above

54. Which of the following is not a waterborne disease?

(a) Measles
(b) Typhoid
(c) Cholera
(d) Hepatitis

55. Which gas is mainly produced due to incomplete burning of wood?

a) CO
b) SO2
c) NO2
d) NO3
56. Which of the following is involved in production of carboxy haemoglobin?
a) CO
b) SO2
c) NO2
d) NO3
57. Which of the following is a liquid form of aerosol?
a) Fume
b) Dust
c) Mist
d) Smoke
58. The maximum size of fly ash is ___________
a) 1μm
b) 100μm
c) 1000μm
d) 10μm
59.  Which of the following leads to a disease called broncho spasm?
a) SO2
 b) SO3
c) SO4
d) CO2
Explanation: SO3 reacts with body fluids forming H2SO4 leading to Broncho spasm.
60.  Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant?
a) SPM
b) PAN
c) SO2
d) NO2
Explanation: Peroxy Acetyl Nitrate is a secondary air pollutant whereas, Suspended
Particulate Matter, SO2 and NO2 are primary air pollutants.
61.  Which of the following serves as an indicator of atmospheric pollution?

a. fern
b. liverworts
c. hornworts
d. epiphytic lichens

62. In 1984, the Bhopal gas tragedy took place because methyl isocyanate

a. reacted with ammonia

b. reacted with water
c. reacted with DDT
d. reacted with CO2

63. Negative soil pollution is

a. reduction in soil productivity due to erosion and overuse

b. reduction in soil productivity due to addition of pesticides and industrial wastes
c. converting fertile land into harden land by dumping ash, sludge and garbage
d. None of the above

64. Air pollution that occurs in sunlight is

a. reducing smog
b. acid rain
c. oxidizing smog
d. fog

65. The layer of atmosphere between 10km to 50km above the sea level is called as

a. troposphere
b. thermosphere
c. stratosphere
d. mesosphere
66. The quantity of DDT at each trophic level in the food chain

a. decreases
b. remains the same
c. increases
d. changes

67. Formation of London smog takes place in

a. winter during day time

b. summer during day time
c. summer during morning time
d. winter during morning time

68. Brewery and sugar factory waste alter the quality of a water body by increasing

a. temperature
b. turbidity
c. pH
d. COD and BOD

69. In a coal-fired power plant electrostatic precipitators are installed to control the
emission of

a. SO2
b. NO2
c. SPM
d. CO

70.  What is noise?

a) Desirable sound
b) Desirable and unwanted sound
c) Undesirable and unwanted sound
d) Undesirable and wanted sound
71.  In which unit sound is measured?
a) Kilometer
b) Pascal
c) Kilogram
d) Decibel
72. What is the dB of a threshold of hearing?
a) 0
b) 10
c) 50
d) 100
 Explanation: Decibel of the threshold of hearing is 0, for the rustle of leaves the dB is 10,
for broadcasting studio dB is 20 and for Bedroom at night the dB is 30. This dB various
based on the noise and the environmental conditions.
73.  What is the ambient noise level in the residential one during night time?
a) 40 dB
b) 45 dB
c) 50 dB
d) 55 dB
74. At what decibel instantaneous rupture of membrane happens?
a) 100
b) 120
c) 146
d) 150
Explanation: Instantaneous rapture of the membrane occurs at the decibel of 150.
Threshold of pain is caused at the decibel of 146. If the noise level increased to 150
decibels than within no time there will be an instantaneous rupture of membrane occurs.
75. What is called for a temporary hearing loss?
a) Temporary ear pain
b) Temporary hearing problem
c) Temporary threshold shift
d) Temporary hearing shift
76. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution, because animals
dependent on_______________
a) Noise
b) Sound
c) Actions
d) Behavior
Explanation: Animals develop a better sense of hearing than us since their survival
depends on it. Wildlife faces far more problems than humans because wildlife depends on
sound to protect themselves from enemies more than humans.
77. When did the Central Pollution Control Board established?
a) 1970
b) 1972
c) 1974
d) 1976
78.  Who appoints the chairman of the Central Pollution Control Board?
a) Central Government
b) State Government
c) Governor of the State
d) President of India
79. Which one of the following is the apex organization in the country in the field of
pollution control?
a) Water Pollution Control Board
b) State Pollution Control Board
c) Central Pollution Control Board
d) Air pollution Control Board
Explanation: The Central Pollution Control Board is the apex organization in the country in the field of
pollution control. It is a technical wing of Ministry of Environment and Forest. It comes under Government
of India.
80. How many officials can be nominated to the Central Pollution Control Board by the
Central Government?
a) Five
b) Ten
c) Twenty
d) Twenty Five
81. Where is the head office of the Central Pollution Control Board?
a) Mumbai
b) Raipur
c) Mysore
d) New Delhi
82. What is the full form of NAMP?
a) National Air Quality Monitoring Program
b) National Air Quality Measuring Program
c) National Air Quantity Monitoring Program
d) National Air Quality Monitoring Protocol
83. When did the Karnataka State Pollution Control Board for Prevention and Control of
Water Pollution constituted?
a) 1974
b) 1978
c) 1982
d) 1985
84.  When did the National Green Tribunal Act constituted?
a) 2000
b) 2005
c) 2010
d) 2015
Explanation: The National Green Tribunal Act was constituted in 2010. It has been
enacted with the objectives to provide for the establishment of a National Green Tribunal
for the effective disposal of cases relating to environmental protection.
85.  Which is the first country to pass the amendment in the parliament to safeguard the
environment?
a) Brazil
b) Denmark
c) China
d) India
Explanation: In 1976, the Indian parliament passed the 42nd amendment to its
constitution for safeguarding the environment. Thus India became the first country in the
world to pass the amendment to safeguard the environment.