Best Medical (NEET) & Engineering Coaching Institute Online - Aakash Itutor

6/14/22, 10:25 AM Best Medical(NEET) & Engineering Coaching Institute Online - Aakash iTutor
Answer keys : Fortnightly Test for One Year Medical-2023(Phase-1)_Test-03
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 1
Electric charge Q is uniformly distributed over a thin ring of radius R. The potential at the centre of the ring is
Options:
Zero
Solution :
Answer (1)
Potential at the centre of a uniformly charged ring

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 2
The unit of electric potential is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
SI unit of electric potential is .
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Question : 3
The shape of equipotential surface for an isolated point charge is
Options:
Cylindrical
Spherical
Cubical
Conical
Solution :
Answer (2)
For any isolated point charge equipotential surfaces are concentric spheres.
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You scored -1 of 4
Question : 4
The correct V–r graph for a uniformly charged conducting sphere is (Where V is potential, R is radius of sphere and r is the
distance from centre)
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
For a uniformly charged conducting sphere

So correct graph should be

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You scored -1 of 4
Question : 5
Which of the following is true for equipotential surface for uniform electric field?
Options:
Equipotential surface is cylindrical
Electric lines are perpendicular to equipotential surface
Electric lines are parallel to equipotential surface
Equipotential surface is spherical
Solution :
Answer (2)
• Electric field lines are always perpendicular to equipotential surface.
• For uniform electric field equipotential surfaces are planar.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 6
The electric potential in the space is given by V = x2, where V is in volt and x is in m. Then the electric field at point (1, 1, 1)
is
Options:
2 V/m, along –ve x-direction
2 V/m, along +ve x-direction
1 V/m, along –ve x-direction
1 V/m, along +ve x-direction
Solution :
Answer (1)
at point (1, 1, 1)
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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 7
Equal charge are given to two conducting spheres of different radii. The potential will
Options:
Be more on the bigger sphere
Be more on the smaller sphere
Be equal on both the spheres
Depend on the nature of the material of the spheres
Solution :
Answer (2)
(Q is constant)

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You scored 0 of 4
Question : 8 skipped
Four point charges +q, +q, –q, –q are placed at the corners of a square as shown in figure. At the centre of the square
(Symbols have their usual meaning)

Options:
E = 0, V = 0
E = 0, V ≠ 0
E ≠ 0, V ≠ 0
E ≠ 0, V = 0
Solution :
Answer (4)
Vnet = 0
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You scored -1 of 4
Question : 9
In figure, four point A, B, C and D are located in the region of uniform electric field E. Select the correct option.

Options:
VA < VB
VC = VD
VB = VD
VA = VD
Solution :
Answer (3)
For uniform electric field

= E × AB × cosθ
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 10
Three charges –Q, –q and 2q are placed at the vertex of equilateral triangle of side length L. If potential at centre is zero,
then correct relation is
Options:
Q=q
Q = 2q
Q = –q
Q = –2q
Solution :
Answer (1)
0 = 2q – Q – q

⇒Q=q
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Question : 11
Expression of electric potential at any point due to any short electric dipole is (Where is dipole moment, is position
vector of point and
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Due to short dipole

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Question : 12
In figure, two points P and Q are located in the region of electric field. The potential difference VP – VQ is

Options:
Positive
Negative
Zero
Cannot be determined
Solution :
Answer (1)
Potential decreases if we move in the direction of electric field
Hence, VP – VQ = positive
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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 13
The angle between electric lines of force and equipotential surface is
Options:
30º
60º
90º
180º
Solution :
Answer (3)
Electric lines of forces are always normal to the equipotential surface
You scored 0 of 4
Six equal charges of magnitude 5 μC are placed at the corners of regular hexagon of side 1 m. The potential at the centre
of hexagon is
Options:
2.7 × 104 V
27 × 104 V
0.27 × 104 V
270 × 104 V
Solution :
Answer (2)
Vnet = V1 + V2 + V3 + V4 + V5 + V6

= 27 × 104 V
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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 15
Two charges +2 μC and +8 μC are placed at two vertices of an equilateral triangle of side 1 m. The potential at third vertex
of the triangle is
Options:
90 × 103 V
9 × 103 V
0.9 × 103 V
900 × 103 V
Solution :
Answer (1)
Potential at point ‘C’

= 90 × 103 V
You scored 0 of 4
The potential due to charged spherical conducting shell of radius 20 cm at point 5 cm distant from centre is V. The potential
on the surface of spherical shell is
Options:
2V
4V
5V
Solution :
Answer (1)
Potential inside a charged spherical cell is constant.

(r ≤ R)

=V
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You scored 0 of 4
Two charges +20 μC and –20 μC are placed 0.35 cm apart. Potential at the centre of the line joining the two charges is
Options:
2V
2.5 V
3.5 V
Zero
Solution :
Answer (4)
V = V1 + V2

= zero
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 18
The electric potential in a region is given by V = 5xy volt, where x and y are in m. The electric field at point (1, 0) is (in V/m)
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
V = 5xy

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Question : 19
The electric potential at point A due to system given below is

Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
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Question : 20
When a positive charge is taken from lower potential to a higher potential, then its electrostatic potential energy
Options:
Decreases
Increases
May increase or decrease
Remain constant
Solution :
Answer (2)
ΔU = q(Vf – Vi) = qΔV

For positive charge, if ΔV is positive ΔU is also positive
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Question : 21
If an electron is brought towards another electron then electrostatic potential energy of the system
Options:
Decreases
Increases
May increase or decrease
Remain unchanged
Solution :
Answer (2)
For two point charges system

If q1 and q2 both are negative then
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 22
An electric dipole of dipole moment is kept in a uniform electric field . The electrostatic potential energy of the dipole
is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Electrostatic potential energy of dipole in uniform field in

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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 23
A positive charge q is carried slowly from a point x to another point y in an electric field of point charge +Q. The work done
by external force is

Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Wext = qΔV

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 24
If a non-volatile solute is dissolved in a volatile solvent, relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to
Options:
Moles of solute
Moles of solvent
Mole fraction of solute
Mole fraction of solvent
Solution :
Answer (3)
Relative lowering in vapour pressure

XB ⇒ mole fraction of solute
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Question : 25
The van’t Hoff factor (i) for the dilute aqueous solution of HCN (10% dissociated) is
Options:
1.90
1.01
1.21
1.10
Solution :
Answer (4)
For HCN, n = 2 and α = 0.1
∴ i = 1 + (2 – 1) × 0.1 = 1.1
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 26
Aqueous solution of which of the following will be of highest freezing point?
Options:
1 M NaCl
0.1 M NaCl
0.1 M Na2SO4
0.01 M Na2SO4
Solution :
Answer (4)
As i × C increases freezing point of solution decreases.
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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 27
Molarity of 1 L pure water is,
Options:
5.55 M
55.5 M
0.555 M
18 M
Solution :
Answer (2)
Mass of 1 L water = 1000 g

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 28
The mixture of solution that forms maximum boiling azeotrope is
Options:
Ethanol and Water
Nitric acid and Water
Benzene and Toluene
Bromoethane and Chloroethane
Solution :
Answer (2)
Ethanol + water ⇒ Positive deviation from Raoult’s law. Nitric acid + water ⇒ Negative deviation from Raoult’s law. Benzene +
Toluene ⇒ Ideal solution

Bromoethane + Chloroethane ⇒ Ideal solution
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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 29
Which of the following colligative properties is widely used to determine molar mass of proteins?
Options:
Relative lowering in vapour pressure
Elevation in boiling point
Depression in freezing point
Osmotic pressure
Solution :
Answer (4)
The osmotic pressure method has following advantage over other methods.

(1) Pressure is measured at room temperature.

(2) Molarity is used instead of molality.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 30
A 0.5 M solution of urea is isotonic with solution of 10 g non-volatile, non-electrolyte unknown solute X in 100 mL of
solution. The molar mass of solute is
Options:
50 g mol–1
100 g mol–1
150 g mol–1
200 g mol–1
Solution :
Answer (4)
πurea = πx

mol–1
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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 31
If Henry’s law constants of He, N2 and O2 gases respectively are 144.97, 76.48 and 34.86 kbar then correct order of
solubility of gases under identical condition is
Options:
He > N2 > O2
He > O2 > N2
O2 > N2 > He
O2 > He > N2
Solution :
Answer (3)
Smaller is the value of KH, greater is the solubility of gas.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 32
If the total pressure is given as PT = 80 + 120 XB then the value of is equal to
Options:
180 mm Hg
150 mm Hg
80 mm Hg
200 mm Hg
Solution :
Answer (3)
mm Hg

mm Hg
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Question : 33
Of the following 0.2 m aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit highest B.P?
Options:
Glucose
Sucrose
Urea
NaCl
Solution :
Answer (4)
As i × c increases, boiling point of solution also increases.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 34
Vapour pressure of water at 100°C is approximately
Options:
760 mmHg
2 atm
77 mmHg
0.80 atm
Solution :
Answer (1)
Vapour pressure of liquid becomes equal to atmospheric pressure at its boiling point.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 35
The relation ∆Tb = Kbm (where ∆Tb is elevation in boiling point and 'm' is molality of solution) holds good for
Options:
Solutions of any solute
Dilute solutions of non-volatile solute only
Solutions of all concentrations but of non-volatile
Dilute solution of volatile solute only
Solution :
Answer (2)
Elevation in boiling point is a colligative property which holds good for only dilute solution of non-volatile solutes.
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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 36
Calculate the molality of a solution of urea in acetic acid if the mole fraction of urea in solution is 0.5 (Molecular weight of
urea = 60)
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Xurea = 0.5

On dividing,

Molality =
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 37
0.2 moles of KCl is dissolved in water to have 500 ml of solution, the molarity is
Options:
0.8 M
0.4 M
0.04 M
0.08 M
Solution :
Answer (2)
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The correct relation for Kb is

(M = mol. mass of solvent, T0 = boiling point of pure solvent, ΔHv = enthalpy of vaporisation respectively)
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 39
When two solutions of concentrations C1 and C2 (C1 > C2) are separated by semipermeable membrane then
Options:
Net flow of solvent molecules occurs from C1 to C2
Net flow of solvent molecules occurs from C2 to C1
Net flow of solute occurs from C2 to C1
Net flow of solute occurs from C1 to C2
Solution :
Answer (2)
According to osmosis flow of solvent particle takes place from solution with lower concentration to solution with higher
concentration through semipermeable membrane.
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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 40
Which of the following holds true for solution showing positive deviation from Raoults law?
Options:
ΔHmix > 0
ΔVmix < 0
ΔSmix < 0
ΔGmix > 0
Solution :
Answer (1)
For positive deviation

ΔHmix > 0

ΔVmix > 0

ΔGmix < 0

ΔSmix > 0
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 41
10 mg NaOH in 1 L solution can be labeled as,
Options:
100 ppm
1 ppm
0.1 ppm
10 ppm
Solution :
Answer (4)
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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 42
Mass of NaOH in 200 ml, 1 M solution of aqueous NaOH will be,
Options:
8g
4g
16 g
0.2 g
Solution :
Answer (1)
Number of mole = M × V(l)

= 1 × 0.2 = 0.2
Mass = 0.2 × 40
=8g
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 43
The mole fraction of benzene in solution containing 5 mol of benzene and 3 mol of CCl4 is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
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You scored 0 of 4
Consider the following graph

Choose the correct option:
Options:
Depression in freezing point = T2 – T1
Elevation in boiling point = T3 – T4
Boyle temperature = T3 – T2
At T2 both solute and solvent will freeze
Solution :
Answer (1)
T2 = freezing point of pure solvent

T1 = freezing point of solution

Hence ΔTf = T2 – T1
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You scored -1 of 4
Question : 45
Which of the following graphs is correct for an ideal binary liquid solution containing non-volatile solute (B) in solvent (A)?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Vapour pressure of solution decrease with increase in mole fraction of non-volatile solid solute.
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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 46
How many among the following have non-endospermic seeds?
Castor, Pea, Groundnut, Maize, Wheat, Coconut
Options:
Two
Three
Four
Five
Solution :
Answer (1)
Pea and groundnut seeds are non-endospermic seeds in which endosperm is completely consumed during embryo
development.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 47
Read the following statements and select the correct set of statements.

a. Apomixis has been reported in some species of Asteraceae and grasses

b. Apomixis is a form of sexual reproduction that mimics asexual reproduction

c. In Citrus and mango, nucellar cells develop into embryo sac
Options:
Only (a) and (b)
Only (b)
Only (a) and (c)
All (a), (b) and (c)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Some species of Asteracae and grasses, evolved the special mechanism to produce seeds without fertilization, called apomixis.
It is a form of asexual reproduction that mimic sexual reproduction.

In Citrus and mango varieties, some of the nucellar cells surrounding the embryo sac start dividing into the embryo sac develop
into the embryos.
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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 48
Removal of anther from a bisexual flower before anther dehisces by using pair of forceps is called
Options:
Bagging
Anthesis
Emasculation
Artificial hybridisation
Solution :
Answer (3)
In a bisexual flower, removal of anthers from the flower but before the anther dehisces using a pair of forcep is referred to as
emasculation.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 49
A plant like papaya can prevent
Options:
Only autogamy
Both geitonogamy and xenogamy
Xenogamy but not geitonogamy
Both autogamy and geitonogamy
Solution :
Answer (4)
A papaya plant is dioecious species and it can prevent both autogamy and geitonogamy.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 50
Scutellum is
Options:
A cotyledon present in the members of grass family
Triploid structure
Remnant part of second cotyledon
Generally found in dicot plant
Solution :
Answer (1)
In the grass family, the single cotyledon is called scutellum that is situated towards one side of the embryonal axis.
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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 51
Seeds
Options:
Do not have any strategy to disperse to new habitat without human involvement
Are often described as a fertilised ovary
Are not able to nourishe young seedling until they are capable of photosynthesis
Can generate new genetic recombinations leading to variations
Solution :
Answer (4)
Seeds have better adaptive strategies for dispersal to new habitat and help the species to colonise area. They have sufficient
food reserve for young seedlings, nourishes until they are capable of photosynthesis.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 52
The parthenocarpic fruit
Options:
Is developed by fusion of gametes
Involve other parts of flowers than ovary
Is always dry
Do not involve fusion of gametes
Solution :
Answer (4)
The parthnocarpic fruits are developed without fertilization.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 53
In monocot leaf, epicotyl has a shoot apex and a few leaf primordia enclosed in a hollow foliar structure called
Options:
Coleoptile
Coleorrhiza
Shoot tip
Radicle
Solution :
Answer (1)
In monocot seeds, few leaf primordia are enclosed in a hollow foliar structure called coleoptile.
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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 54
An outbreeding device which can prevent self-pollination and promotes cross pollination is
Options:
Homogamy
Bisexuality
Cleistogamy
Self-incompatibility
Solution :
Answer (4)
An outbreeding device to prevent inbreeding is self incompatibility and promotes cross pollination.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 55
Select the incorrect statement.
Options:
Integuments get hardens to form hard seed coat
Embryo is developed from zygote
Syngamy results in formation of zygote
Ovules develops into fruit
Solution :
Answer (4)
In post fertilization, ovules matures into seeds and ovary matures into fruits.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 56
Select the correct statement w.r.t. flowering plants.
Options:
Unisexual flowers also require emasculation for artificial hybridisation
Bagging cannot prevent contamination of stigma with pollen
All the events, from pollen deposition on the stigma until pollen tube enters the ovule are together referred as
pollen-pistil interaction
Bisexual flower contains stamens only
Solution :
Answer (3)
If female parent produces unisexual flowers, then there is no need for emasculation.
Bagging helps into prevent contamination of stigma with unwanted pollen.
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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 57
Seeds of both castor and maize have
Options:
Scutellum
Coleorhiza
Coleoptile
Endosperm
Solution :
Answer (4)
Castor is dicot while maize is monocot. Castor lack coleoptile, scutellum and coleorhiza.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 58
How may nuclei are involved in the event of double fertilisation?
Options:
Two
Three
Six
Five
Solution :
Answer (4)
There are five nuclei involved in double fertilization event, two nuclei involve in syngamy and three nuclei are involved in triple
fusion.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 59
An ovary contains single ovule in
Options:
Wheat
Papaya
Watermelon
Orchids
Solution :
Answer (1)
An ovary contains single ovule in wheat.
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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 60
Select the incorrect match
Options:
Fruit – Fertilised ovule
Embryo – Develop at micropylar end
Seed – Basis of agriculture
Perispermic seed – Black pepper
Solution :
Answer (1)
Ovary forms fruit
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 61
The fruit wall is called as
Options:
Endocarp
Pericarp
Endosperm
Testa
Solution :
Answer (2)
The wall of ovary develops into the walls of fruit called pericarp.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 62
Mark the odd one w.r.t. false fruit
Options:
Apple
Banana
Strawberry
Cashew nut
Solution :
Answer (2)
Banana is a parthenocarpic fruit. Apple, Strawberry and cashew nut are false fruit.
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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 63
In hybrid varieties, hybrid characters are not maintained in the next generation because
Options:
Characters cannot segregate
Characters segregate in the progeny
Hybrid seeds provide low yield
They are tolerant to high stress
Solution :
Answer (2)
The seeds collected from hybrid are sown and characters in the progeny will segregate and do not maintain hybrid characters.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 64
Endosperm is product of fusion of
Options:
Two male gametes
On male gamete and on egg cell
One male gamete and two polar nuclei of central cell
An egg cell and two polar nuclei of central cell
Solution :
Answer (3)
Endosperm is a product of triple fusion in which male gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei located in the central cell.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 65
In coconut fruit, white kernel is a/an
Options:
Nuclear endosperm
Cellular endosperm
Free nuclear endosperm
Embryo
Solution :
Answer (2)
In coconut fruit, water from tender coconut is free nuclear endosperm and surrounding white kernel is cellular endosperm.
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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 66
Which part of a flower determines the compatible of pollen grains?
Options:
Ovary
Anther
Synergids
Stigma
Solution :
Answer (4)
Stigma of gynoecium determines the compatible nature of pollen by continuous dialogue between pollen grain and pistil.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 67
Select the haploid and triploid structure respectively.
Options:
Zygote and male gamete
Synergids and antipodal cells
Antipodal cells and primary endosperm cell
Central cell and zygote
Solution :
Answer (3)
Antipodal cells are haploid and primary endosperm cell is triploid structure of embryo sac.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 68
Syngamy
Options:
Is fusion of male gamete with polar nuclei
Is fusion of female gamete with antipodal cells
Results in the formation of a diploid cell
Generally occur at chalazal end of embryo sac
Solution :
Answer (3)
Syngamy is fusion of male gamete with egg cell and it results in the formation of diploid cell, the zygote.
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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 69
Which of the following is injected by doctors to induce delivery?
Options:
Progesterone
Oxytocin
Prolactin
Estrogen
Solution :
Answer (2)
Oxytocin acts on uterine muscles and cause uterine contractions.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 70
_____ is a sticky white or yellow fluid secreted by the breast during the initial few days after birth. Select the option that fills
the blank correctly.
Options:
Placenta
Colostrum
Egg yolk
Blood cell
Solution :
Answer (2)
Colostrum is rich in antibody IgA.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 71
The placenta is formed from the ‘A’ of the embryo and the ‘B’ of the mother. Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ select the correct option.
Options:
A - Uterus; B - Trophoblast
A - Chorion; B - Endometrium
A - Endometrium; B - Chorion
A - Inner cell mass; B - Endometrium
Solution :
Answer (2)
The placenta facilitates the supply of oxygen and nutrients to the embryo.
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Question : 72
In humans, the cleavage starts in
Options:
Fallopian tubes
Uterus
Vagina
Cervix
Solution :
Answer (1)
The mitotic division starts as the zygote moves through the isthmus of the oviduct towards the uterus.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 73
The genetic constitution of a male gamete can be

(a) 44 + XX
(b) 22 + X
(c) 44 + XY
(d) 22 + Y
Select the
correct option.
Options:
a, b and d
c only
d only
c and d
Solution :
Answer (4)
Gametes are haploid cells. The genetic constitution of a male gamete can be 22 + X or 22 + Y.
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Question : 74
The first heart beat of foetus can be heared after ____ month of pregnancy.
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
Options:
One
Three
Fifth
Seventh
Solution :
Answer (1)
Embryo’s heart is formed after one month of pregnancy.
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Question : 75
During fertilisation, the sperms first comes in contact with ‘X’ of ovum.

Select the correct option for X.
Options:
Corona radiata
Zona pellucida
Perivitelline space
Plasma membrane
Solution :
Answer (1)
Acrosomal enzymes dissolve the corona radiata.
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Question : 76
How many hormones from the given box are secreted by non-pregnant females?

Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Estrogen and progesterone are secreted by non-pregnant female as well.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 77
In humans, the act of delivery of foetus after the completion of gestation period is induced by
Options:
Complex neuroendocrine mechanism
Neural mechanism only
Neuroexocrine mechanism only
Endocrine mechanism only
Solution :
Answer (1)
Parturition is the act of delivery of child which is induced by complex neuro-endocrine mechanisms.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 78
During copulation, semen is released by the penis into vagina. This process is called
Options:
Insemination
Spermiation
Spermiogenesis
Ejaculation
Solution :
Answer (1)
Deposition of semen in vagina during copulation is called insemination.
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Question : 79
The hormone which is secreted by the ovary in the later phase of pregnancy is
Options:
Relaxin
Inhibin
hPL
Estrogen
Solution :
Answer (1)
In the later phase of pregnancy, a hormone called relaxin is secreted by the ovary.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 80
In mammals, the time between conception and birth of the foetus is called
Options:
Gestation
Parturition
Lactation
Implantation
Solution :
Answer (1)
Time duration between fertilisation to parturition is called gestation period.
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Question : 81
Read the given statements.

Statement A: The inner cell
mass contains certain cells called stem cells which have the potency to given rise to all the
tissues and organs.

Statement B: The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an inner layer called trophoblast and an outer group of
cells attached to trophoblast called the inner cell mass.
Choose the correct option.
Options:
Both statements A and B are correct
Both statements A and B are incorrect
Only statement A is correct
Only statement B is correct
Solution :
Answer (3)
Trophoblast is the outer layer and inner cell mass is the inner layer of blastocyst.
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Question : 82
Given is the figure showing human foetus within uterus.

Identify the ‘A’ and select the correct option.
Options:
Yolk sac
Placental villi
Embryo
Cavity of uterus
Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 83
During pregnancy, the first movements of foetus are usually observed during
Options:
2nd month
3rd month
4th month
5th month
Solution :
Answer (4)
The first movements of foetus and appearance of hair on head are usually observed during 5th month of pregnancy.
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You scored -1 of 4
Question : 84
All of the following are true for placenta, except
Options:
Supply oxygen, carbon dioxide and nutrients to the embryo
Structural and functional unit between developing embryo and maternal body
Act as an endocrine tissue
Remove waste material produced by the embryo
Solution :
Answer (1)
CO2 is removed from foetus by placenta.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 85
The ploidy of zygote in case of humans is
Options:
2n
3n
4n
Solution :
Answer (1)
Zygote is dploid.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 86
The process when blastocyst becomes embedded in the endometrium of the uterus is called
Options:
Implantation
Parturition
Ovulation
Degeneration
Solution :
Answer (1)
Implantation occur after 7th day of fertilisation.
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You scored -1 of 4
Question : 87
The mammary glands of the female starts producing milk towards the end of pregnancy which is ejected during the lactation
under the action of
Options:
Prolactin
Oxytocin
Oestrogen
Progesterone
Solution :
Answer (2)
Oxytocin is the milk ejecting hormone.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 88
Meiotic division in secondary oocyte is completed until
Options:
Ovulation
Oocyte reaches uterus
Sperm comes in contact with zona pellucida of ovum
The entry of sperm into the cytoplasm of ovum
Solution :
Answer (4)
The entry of sperm into ovum induces the completion of meiotic division of secondary oocyte.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 89
The middle germ layer is
Options:
Mesoderm
Ectoderm
Endoderm
Myometrium
Solution :
Answer (1)
Ectoderm-Outermost germ layer
Endoderm-Innermost germ layer
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You scored 4 of 4
Question : 90
Read the given statements and select the incorrect one.
Options:
By the end of second trimester, the body of foetus is covered with fine hair.
Breast feeding during initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing up a healthy baby.
Sex of the baby is determined by the father.
Just before the infant is delivered, the placenta is expelled out of the uterus.
Solution :
Answer (4)
Soon after the infant is delivered, the placenta is also expelled out of the uterus.
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6/14/22, 10:25 AM Best Medical(NEET) & Engineering Coaching Institute Online - Aakash iTutor

Answer keys : Fortnightly Test for One Year Medical-2023(Phase-1)_Test-03

The unit of electric potential is

SI unit of electric potential is .

The shape of equipotential surface for an isolated point charge is

So correct graph should be

Equipotential surface is cylindrical

Electric lines are perpendicular to equipotential surface

Electric lines are parallel to equipotential surface

Equipotential surface is spherical

2 V/m, along –ve x-direction

2 V/m, along +ve x-direction

1 V/m, along –ve x-direction

1 V/m, along +ve x-direction

Be more on the bigger sphere

Be more on the smaller sphere

Be equal on both the spheres

Depend on the nature of the material of the spheres

vector of point and

The angle between electric lines of force and equipotential surface is

Potential at point ‘C’

The electric potential at point A due to system given below is

May increase or decrease

For positive charge, if ΔV is positive ΔU is also positive

May increase or decrease

If q1 and q2 both are negative then

Mole fraction of solute

Mole fraction of solvent

XB ⇒ mole fraction of solute

Aqueous solution of which of the following will be of highest freezing point?

Molarity of 1 L pure water is,

The mixture of solution that forms maximum boiling azeotrope is

Ethanol and Water

Nitric acid and Water

Benzene and Toluene

Bromoethane and Chloroethane

Bromoethane + Chloroethane ⇒ Ideal solution

Relative lowering in vapour pressure

Elevation in boiling point

Depression in freezing point

(1) Pressure is measured at room temperature.

If the total pressure is given as PT = 80 + 120 XB then the value of is equal to

Vapour pressure of water at 100°C is approximately

Solutions of any solute

Dilute solutions of non-volatile solute only

Solutions of all concentrations but of non-volatile

Dilute solution of volatile solute only

The correct relation for Kb is

Net flow of solvent molecules occurs from C1 to C2

Net flow of solvent molecules occurs from C2 to C1

Net flow of solute occurs from C2 to C1

Net flow of solute occurs from C1 to C2

10 mg NaOH in 1 L solution can be labeled as,

Mass of NaOH in 200 ml, 1 M solution of aqueous NaOH will be,

Consider the following graph

Choose the correct option:

Depression in freezing point = T2 – T1

Elevation in boiling point = T3 – T4

At T2 both solute and solvent will freeze

T1 = freezing point of solution

How many among the following have non-endospermic seeds?

Castor, Pea, Groundnut, Maize, Wheat, Coconut