Radiographic Positioning and Procedure

1. What are the proper breathing instructions for a lateral projection of the cervicothoracic
region
a. Inspiration
b. Expiration
c. Suspension of breathing
d. Continued breathing
2. To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s) must be made
with the
1. epicondyles perpendicular to the cassette.
2. hand pronated and supinated as much as possible.
3. hand lateral and in internal rotation.
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
3. Which of the following projections would reduce the probability of motion by a pediatric
patient
1. PA projection
2. AP projection
3. AP half axial (Waters) projection
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
4. What term describes biologic catalysts which speed up the process of digestion
a. Chyme
b. Bolus
c. Enzymes
d. Hormones
5. In which direction is the finger rotated from the PA projection to properly position the
2nd digit for a lateral projection
a. Medially
b. Laterally
c. Externally
d. Distally
6. What position of the elbow best demonstrates the olecranon process
a. Lateromedial
b. AP
c. Internal oblique
 d. External oblique
7. What is the centering point for an average size RAO stomach
a. Cardiac antrum
b. Duodenal bulb
c. Greater curvature
d. Iliac crest
8. What are the proper breathing instructions for an AP projection of the lower ribs
a. Inspiration
b. Expiration
c. Suspension of breathing
d. Continued breathing
9. Which of the following signal completion of a small bowel study
1. 60 minutes after ingestion of barium
2. Barium in the cecum
3. Barium in the rectum
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
10. Which of the following are rationale for using a 72” FFD with the patient erect for a
routine PA projection of the chest
1. Avoid enlargement of the pulmonary vessels
2. Decrease heart size magnification from 40”FFD
3. Increase image contrast
a. 2 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
11. In the lateral projection of the knee, the
1. femoral condyles are superimposed.
2. patellofemoral joint is visualized.
3. knee is flexed about 20 to 30º.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
12. Arthrography requires the use of
1 general anesthesia.
2 sterile technique.
3 fluoroscopy.
a. 1 and 2 only
 b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
13. Which position requires hyperextension of the wrist with the central ray directed 25-30
degree toward the base of the 3rd metacarpal
a. PA wrist
b. Lateral wrist
c. Carpal canal Gaynor-Hart method
d. Carpal bridge tangential position
14. Which intervertebral foramina is demonstrated only through the specialized Kovacs
method PA oblique axial position
a. T12-L1
b. L3-L4
c. L4-L5
d. L5-S1
15. What names are used to describe the region below the pelvic brim
1. True pelvis
2. Lesser pelvis
3. Greater pelvis
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
16. What is the proper angle of the wrist for oblique position
a. 25 degree
b. 35 degree
c. 45 degree
d. 55 degree
17. Which of the following positions of the foot will cause foreshorthening of the femoral
neck and the projection of the lesser trochanter beyond the medial edge of the femoral
shaft on an AP hip
1. External rotation
2. Neutral rotation
3. Internal rotation
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
18. What structure is of primary interest on an AP tangential position (modified Hickey
method)
a. Sphenoid process
 b. Mastoid process
c. Temporomandibular joints
d. Ethmoid sinuses
19. Which of the following methods demonstrate the scapula in a PA oblique position
1. Lilienfeld
2. Lawrence
3. Lorenz
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
20. All of the following statements regarding large-bowel radiography are true except
a. The large bowel must be completely empty prior to examination.
b. Retained fecal material can simulate pathology.
c. Single-contrast studies help to demonstrate polyps.
d. Double-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions.
21. Which of the following should be superimposed on a lateral position of the facial bones
1. Mandibular rami
2. Orbital roofs
3. The anterior and posterior walls of the maxillary sinuses
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
22. What is the proper centering point for an AP axial position for temporomandibular
joints
a. Glabella
b. 3”above the glabella
c. Nasion
d. 3” above the nasion
23. Which sinuses are visualized through the open-mouth on an open mouth modification
of a parietoacantial projection (Waters method)
a. Maxillary
b. Sphenoid
c. Ethdmoid
d. Frontal
24. Which of the following are critical elements of an operative cholangiographic procedure
1. Minimum exposure time
2. Film centered to the RUQ of the abdomen
3. A pressure injector is available if needed
a. 1 and 2 only
 b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
25. How is the trachea filled with air to better demonstrate its position during an AP
projection
a. The patient slowly inhales during exposure
b. The patient slowly exhales during exposure
c. The patients holds a deep inspiration
d. The patients hold a deep expiration
26. Which of the following position will demonstrate the axillary border of the scapula best
in an AP projection
a. Arm at the side with hand supinated
b. Arm at the side with hand pronated
c. Arm abducted to a 45 degree angle with hand toward the waist
d. Arm abducted to a right angle with hand by head
27. Which of the following is true regarding the PA axial position of the skull by HAAS
method
1. The petrous pyramid of the temporal bone are projected
symmetrically
2. Dorsum sellae is projected within the shadow of the foramen
magnum
3. It is essential a reversed AP axial Towne method position
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
28. What is the purpose of the Valsalva maneuver
a. To close the esophagus
b. To elevate the diaphragm
c. To distend trachea
d. To close the epiglottis
29. What is the range of average obliquity required to demonstrate the sternum as free
from vertebral superimposition as possible in an RAO position
a. 5 – 10 degree
b. 10 – 15 degree
c. 15 – 20 degree
d. 20 – 25 degree
30. What structure is demonstrated on a transthoracic lateral Lawrence method position
1. Proximal 2/3 of humerus
2. Glenoid fossa
3. T2
 a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
31. What is the primary structure of interest on a tangential position (May method) of the
facial bone
a. Sphenoid sinuses
b. Zygomatic arch
c. Superorbital ridge
d. Nasal bone
32. What projection will best demonstrate the tibiofibular articulations
a. AP lower leg
b. Lateral lower leg
c. Medial (internal) oblique lower leg
d. Lateral (external) oblique lower leg
33. When a patient is unable to extend the elbow for an AP projection, which of the
following projections must be obtained
1. Distal humerus
2. Proximal forearm
3. Distal forearm
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
34. Which position produces the best image of the duodenal bulb and pyloric canal during a
barium stomach examination
a. Erect PA
b. Supine PA
c. Prone PA
d. Semi-prone RAO
35. The pars interarticularis is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in a
correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine?
a. Eye
b. Front foot
c. Body
d. Neck
36. What central ray should be used to demonstrate the coccyx on an AP projection
a. 15 degree cephalad
b. 15 degree caudad
c. 10 degree cephalad
d. 10 degree caudad
37. The four major arteries supplying the brain include the
1. brachiocephalic artery.
2. common carotid arteries.
3. vertebral arteries.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
38. Which of the following position will projects the gallbladder free from super imposition
of the vertebral column
a. AP
b. PA
c. LAO
d. LPO
39. Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the
acromioclavicular joints?
1. The procedure is performed in the erect position.
2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints.
3. The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected.
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2 and 3 only
40. What is the proper central ray angulation for a posterior profile (Stenvers method) of
the petrous portion of the temporal bone
a. 12 degree cephalad
b. 15 degree caudad
c. 25 degree cephalad
d. 37 degree caudad
41. Shoulder arthrography may be performed to evaluate
a. humeral dislocation.
b. complete or incomplete rotator cuff tears.
c. osteoarthritis.
d. acromioclavicular joint separation.
42. At what level is the duodenal bulb located
a. T10
b. L2
c. L4
d. L5
43. In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the intervertebral foramina that
are best seen are those
 a. nearest the film.
b. furthest from the film.
c. seen medially.
d. seen inferiorly.
44. Which position best demonstrate the rectum
a. PA
b. Lateral
c. LAO
d. RAO
45. What is the proper angulation of the orbitomeatal line to the image receptor for a
parietoacanthial projection (Waters method) of the PNS
a. 15 degree
b. 25 degree
c. 37 degree
d. 53 degree
46. Which of the following will demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa
1. Beclere method
2. Camp-coventry method
3. Holmblad method
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
47. What is the proper central ray angulation for a PA axial position of the colon
a. 10-20 degree caudad
b. 10-20 degree cephalad
c. 30-40 degree caudad
d. 30-40 degree cephalad
48. Which positions produces the best image of the gastric fundus during a barium stomach
examination
a. Erect PA
b. Supine PA
c. Prone PA
d. Semi-supine LPO
49. Which of the following positions will demonstrate esophageal varices by increasing
venous pressure during esophagram
1. Recumbent LPO
2. Recumbent RAO
3. Erect RAP
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
 c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
50. What is the proper central ray angle for an axiolateral position by the Lysholm method
a. 20 – 25 degree caudad
b. 30 – 35 degree caudad
c. 30 – 35 degree cephalad
d. 40 – 45 degree cephalad
51. Which of the following should be perpendicular to the image receptor for a PA axial
position or Caldwell method of the sinuses
1. Coronal plane
2. Midsagittal plane
3. Orbitomeatal line
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3
52. Where should a Colcher-Sussman ruler be placed for an AP
a. 10 cm above the tabletop
b. 15 cm above the tabletop
c. 10 cm below the symphysis pubis
d. At the level of symphysis pubis
53. Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa?
1. Patient PA, knee flexed 40º, central ray directed caudad 40º to the popliteal
fossa
2. Patient AP, cassette under flexed knee, central ray directed cephalad to knee,
perpendicular to tibia
3. Patient PA, patella parallel to film, heel rotated 5 to 10º lateral, central ray
perpendicular to knee joint

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
54. Knee arthrography may be performed to demonstrate a
1. torn meniscus.
2. Baker's cyst.
3. torn rotator cuff.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
55. The contrast media of choice for use in myelography are
a. ionic non-water-soluble.
b. ionic water-soluble.
c. nonionic water-soluble.
d. gas.
56. What is the normal time period from intravenous injection to the greatest collection of
urographic contrast media in the renal collecting system
a. 30-60 seconds
b. 2-8 minutes
c. 15-20 minutes
d. 45-60 minutes
57. What is the proper angulation of the MSP for a parietoorbital oblique position (Rhese
method) of the optic foramen
a. 15 degree
b. 25 degree
c. 37 degree
d. 53 degree
58. Which projection opens the intervertebral disk spaces of the cervical spine
a. AP with 15 – 20 degree cephalad angulation
b. PA with 15-20 degree cephalad angulation
c. RPO with 15-25 degree caudad angulation
d. Lateral
59. What is the proper position of the patient to produce an AP projection of the left ileum

a. 25 degree LPO
b. 25 degree RPO
c. 40 degree LPO
d. 40 degree RPO
60. What is the primary reason for considering the use of a PA projection of the abdomen in
place of an AP
a. Magnification of the kidneys to increase recorded detail
b. Reduction of gonadal dose
c. Patient motion is reduced
d. Fecal materials drops into the cecum or rectum
61. Which of the following would best demonstrate fluid in the right pleural cavity
a. Left lateral decubitus chest
b. Right lateral decubitus chest
c. Ventral decubitus chest
d. Dorsal decubitus chest
62. What is the proper position of the arm for an inferosuperior axial shoulder joint
projection
 a. Neutral
b. Internal rotation
c. External rotation
d. Pulled across the chest to grip the opposite shoulder
63. What structure is not seen due to superimposition on an anteroposterior projection of
the pelvis if the feet are not inverted
a. Greater trochanter
b. Lesser trochanter
c. Bicipital groove
d. Ischial tuberosity
64. Which of the following structures are best demonstrated with a lateral (external)
oblique projection of the elbow
a. Coronoid process
b. Trochlea
c. Radial head
d. Capitellum
65. Which of the following demonstrates humerus in the true lateral position
1. AP neutral rotation shoulder
2. AP external rotation shoulder
3. AP internal rotation shoulder
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1,2, and 3
66. Which of the following patient position used to emphasize the anterior wall of the
stomach
a. RAO
b. LPO
c. Trendelenburg
d. Right lateral recumbent
67. What are the proper breathing instructions for AP projections of the abdomen
a. Inspiration
b. Expiration
c. Suspension of breathing
d. Continued breathing
68. AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed
1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia
and fibula.
2. following inversion or eversion injuries.
3. to demonstrate a ligament tear.
a. 1 only
 b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
69. In retrograde pyelography, if there is presence of renal calculi, what position is
performed
a. Lateral
b. Supine
c. Prone
d. Oblique
70. What central ray angle should be used to demonstrate the coccyx when patient is prone
a. 15 degree cephalad
b. 15 degree caudad
c. 10 degree cephalad
d. 10 degree caudad
71. What is the primary structure of interest if a patient is positioned supine with the body
rotated approximately 35-45 degree toward the affected side and the CR is directed at
the shoulder joint
a. Greater tubercle of the humerus
b. Lesser tubercle of the humerus
c. Acromioclavicular joint
d. Glenoid fossa
72. Which position best demonstrates the splenic flexure of the colon
a. PA
b. Lateral
c. RAO
d. LAO
73. Which position best demonstrates the ribs that over shadow the heart
a. AP
b. LAT
c. LAO or RPO
d. RAO or LPO
74. Which of the following describes a retrograde pyelogram
1. Cystography
2. Nephrotomograpy
3. Urography
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
75. Which of the following is (are) valid criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm?
1. The radius and ulna should be superimposed proximally and distally.
 2. The coronoid process and radial head should be superimposed.
3. The radial tuberosity should face anteriorly.
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
76. In the lateral projection of the knee, the central ray is angled 5º cephalad in order to
prevent superimposition of which of the following structures on the joint space?
a. Lateral femoral condyle
b. Medial femoral condyle
c. Patella
d. Tibial eminence
77. Which of the following best demonstrate the hepatic flexure or the colon
a. RPO and LAO
b. LPO and RAO
c. RPO and LPO
d. RAO and LAO
78. In the lateral projection of the ankle, the
1. talotibial joint is visualized.
2. talofibular joint is visualized.
3. tibia and fibula are superimposed.
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
79. Which of the following recommend in preparing a patient for urographic examination
1. Reduce hydration for 24 hours
2. Non-gas-forming laxative
3. NPO after midnight the day of the examination
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
80. Which portion of the colon is usually most superior
a. Hepatic flexure
b. Splenic flexure
c. Transverse colon
d. Ascending colon
81. Which of the following structures is visualize on a lateral chest radiograph
1. Heart and diaphragm
2. Costophrenic angles and apices of the lungs
 3. Superimposition of the ribs posterior to the vertebral column
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
82. How many degree of angulation are there between orbitomeatal and infraorbitomeatal
skull base line
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
83. Which position of the elbow projects the ulnar coronoid process from superimposition
a. Lateral oblique
b. Medial oblique
c. AP
d. Lateral
84. Which of the following is normal, non-dislocated position the humeral head in a
scapular Y position of the shoulder joint
1. Superimposed over the junction of the Y
2. Beneath the coracoid process
3. Beneath the acromion process
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
85. What is the proper position of the patient for a lateral projection of the proximal left
femur
a. RAO
b. LAO
c. RPO
d. LPO
86. Which of the following can be detected with postoperative cholangiography
1. The status of sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla
2. The presence of previously undetected stones
3. The patency od the ducts
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
87. What is the average normal transit time for the stomach to empty
a. 2 – 3 hours
 b. 10 – 12 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 48 hours
88. What term is used to describe the baseline between the external auditory meatus and
the outer canthus of the eye
a. Orbitomeatal line
b. Acanthiomeatal line
c. Mentomeatal line
d. Sagittal plane
89. What is the proper centering point for a lateral position of the sella turcica
a. ¾ “anterior and ¾ “inferior to EAM
b. ¾ “posterior and ¾ inferior to EAM
c. ¾ “anterior and ¾ superior to EAM
d. ¾ posterior and superior to EAM
90. What projection is achieved if the patient is position so the MSP and OML are
perpendicular, exiting at the nasion
a. PA
b. Lateral
c. Waters method
d. Caldwell method
91. What position outlines the lesser tuberosity between the humeral head and the greater
tuberosity
a. AP humerus
b. Lateral humerus
c. Transthoracic lateral humerus
d. Axillary shoulder
92. What degree of obliquity from lateral is required to visualize the apophyseal
articulations of the thoracic spine
a. 10 degree
b. 20 degree
c. 30 degree
d. 45 degree
93. Which of the following correctly position the skull for a PA projection by the Caldwell
method for general survey of the cranium
1. OML perpendicular to the IR
2. MSP is parallel to the CR
3. CR is angled 15 degree
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1,2, and 3
94. How many degrees of cephalic angulation are required for an axial plantodorsal
projection of the os calsis
a. 20
b. 30
c. 35
d. 40
95. When viewing a submentovertical projection of the skull, which sinus appears between
the foramen magnum and the maxillary sinuses
1. Sphenoidal
2. Frontal
3. Ethmoid
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
96. Which temporal portion will be demonstrated in an anterior profile projection or Arcelin
method, if the head is turned to the left
a. Right petrous portion
b. Left petrous portion
c. Foramen magnum
d. Palatine plate
97. Contrast medium given intravenously reaches the liver through
a. Arterial circulation
b. Systemic circulation
c. Portal circulation
d. Trendelenburg
98. Which intervertebral disc space is normally at the level of the umbilicus
a. T12-L1
b. L2-L3
c. L3-L4
d. L4-L5
99. Which term describes the accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the intercellular
spaces
a. Abscess
b. Edema
c. Inflammation
d. Infarct
100. During intravenous (IV) urography, the prone position is generally recommended
to demonstrate
1. filling of obstructed ureters.
2. the renal pelvis.
 3. the superior calyces.
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3