DAYANAND SCIENCE COLLEGE, LATUR

12th CET (Revision Batch) 2021-22

10 July 2022 Questions : 150 Max. Marks : 200 Time : 180 Min

Roll No. 0 0 PCM Full Sy. Exam - 11

Important Instructions:
01. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the test Booklet, take out the
Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on carefully with Blue/Black ballpoint pen only.
02. The Test is of 180 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 150 questions. Each question of Physics
and Chemistry carries 1 mark and Mathematics 2 Marks. There will be no Negative Marking,
however difficulty level will be at par with JEE (Main) for Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
03. The question will set on whole syllabus of STD. XI and STD XII of 2021-22 of Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics subject excluding portion which is deleted by Maharashtra Rajya Pathyapustak Nirmeeti va
Abhyaskram Sanshodhan Mandal (¨É½þÉ®úɹ]Åõ ®úÉVªÉ {ÉÉ`ö¬{ÉÖºiÉEò ÊxɨÉÔiÉÒ ´É +¦ªÉɺÉGò¨É ºÉƶÉÉävÉxÉ ¨ÉÆb÷³ý, (¤ÉɱɦÉÉ®úiÉÒ)) for H.S.C. due to
covid-19 pandemic situation.
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Physics: 50, Chemistry: 50 and Mathematics: 50 Questions each

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DSCL_2021-22 PCM - 2 MHT-CET Full Syllabus Exam - 11

PHYSICS T1T2
a) T1  T2 b) T  T
01. A car is accelerating at a rate 'a' in a horizontal 1 2

direction. A simple pendulum is hung from the ceiling T1T2 T1T2

of the car. The time period of oscillation of the c) d)
T1  T2 T12  T22
pendulum is given by
07. A uniform horizontal rod of length 0.40 m and mass
l 1.2 kg is supported by two identical wires as shown.
a) T  2 l b) T  2 
g ga The position where a mass of 4.8 kg be placed on
the rod, so that the same tuning fork may excite the
l l wire on left into its fundamental vibrations and that
c) T  2  d) T  2
(g2  a 2 )1 / 2 (g2  a 2 )1/ 2 on right into its first overtone,
02. A circular disc of mass M and radius R is rotating [g = 10 ms–2 ] is
with angular velocity . If two small spheres each
of mass m are gently attached to two diametrically
opposite points on the edge of the disc, then the new
angular velocity of the disc will be
 M  4m   M 
a)   b)   a) 5 cm from left end b) 10 cm from left end
 M   M  4m 
c) 15 cm from left end d) 35 cm from left end
Mm  M 
c)   d)   08. If 1 ,  2 and 3 are the fundamental frequencies of
 M   M  2m 
thr ee segments of str etched str ing, then the
03. A particle moves in a circle of radius 25 cm at two
fundamental frequency of the overall string is
revolutions per second. The acceleration of the
particle in m/s 2 is . 1 1 1
a) 1  2  3 b)       
a) 2 b) 4 2  1 2 3 

c) 8 2 d) 2 2 c) 12 3 d) [ 1 2  3 ]1/ 3

04. The PE of a particle oscillating on x-axis is given as 09. The vibrations of a string of length 60 cm fixed at
U= 50 + (x – 2)2 J. both ends a r e r epr esented by the equation
a) motion of the particle is SHM with x = 0 as mean  x 
y  4sin   cos(96t) , where x and y are in cm
position  15 
b) motion of the particle is SHM with x = 2 as mean and t in second. The maximum displacement at
position x = 5 cm is
c) motion of the particle is oscillatory but not SHM
a) 2 3 b) 3 2
d) motion of the particle is rectilinear along +ve
x-direction c) 2 cm d) 3 cm
05. Two particle are executing SHM of same amplitude 10. Water rises to a height h in a capillary tube of area
and frequency along the same straight line. The of cross-section A. The height will water rise in a
maximum distance between these two particle is capillary tube of area of cross-section 4A?
2A. The phase difference between the particles a) h/4 b) h/2
is c) 2h d) 4h
 11. The surface tension of a liquid is 5 N m–1 . If a film
a) zero b) is held on a ring of area 0.02 m2 , its surface energy
3
is about
  a) 5 × 10–2 J b) 2.5 × 10–2 J
c) d) –2
6 2 c) 2 × 10 J d) 2 × 10–1 J
06. A body executes SHM under the action of force F 1 12. A film of liquid is formed across a rectangular wire
with time period T 1 . If the force is changed to F 2 it frame, one side of which can slide parallel to itself.
executes SHM with time period T 2 . If both F 1 and When the wire is pulled out, width of the film changes
F 2 act simultaneously in the same direction on the from 0.5 cm to 0.6 cm, the length of the film
body, its time period is remaining at 10 cm. Work done by the forces of
surface tension is
DSCL_2021-22 PCM - 3 MHT-CET Full Syllabus Exam - 11
[given: surface tension of the liquid = 0.072] a) 36 m b) 46 m
a) –14.4 J b) + 14.4 J c) 66 m d) 78 m
19. A body of mass M at rest explodes into three pieces,
c) – 0.72 J d) + 7.2 J
two of which of mass M/4 each, are thrown off in
13. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas perpendicular directions with velocities of 3 m/s and
is found to be proportional to the cube of its absolute 4 m/s respectively. The third piece will be thrown
CP off with a velocity of
temperature. What is the value of C for the gas ? a) 1.5 m/s b) 2.0 m/s
V
c) 2.5 m/s d) 3.0 m/s
3 20. A vessel at rest explodes into three pieces. Two
a) 2 b)
2 pieces having equal masses fly off perpendicular to
one another with the same velocity 30 meter per
4 5 second. The third piece has the three times the mass
c) d)
3 3 of each of the other piece. The magnitude and
14. Which one of the following parameters does not direction of the velocity of the third piece will be
represent a thermodynamic state of a gas?
a) 10 2 m/second and 135° from either
a) Work b) Volume
c) Pressure d) Temperature b) 10 2 m/second and 45° from either
15. A sample of gas expands from volume V1 to V2 . 10
The amount of work done by the gas' is maximum c) m/second and 135° from either
2
when the expansion is
a) Adiabatic b) Isobaric 10
c) Isothermal d) Equal in all above cases d) m/second and 450 from either
2
16. m balls each of mass m and moving with same.
21. Escape velocity of a satellite of the earth at an
Velocity (u) hits a wall elastically and normally in 2
altitude equal to radius of the earth is v. What will
seconds. The force extended by the ball on the wall
be the escape velocity at an altitude equal, to 7R,
is
where R= radius of the earth?
mun a) v/4 b) v/2
a) mun b)
2 c) 2v d) 4v
22. Which of the following has minimum coefficient of
mnu 2
c) 2 mun d) linear expression ?
2
a) Gold b) Aluminium
17. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from
c) Iron d) Platinum
27oC to 927oC. The root mean square velocity of its
23. The velocity of sound is vs in air. If the density of air
molecules becomes
is increased to 4 times, then the new velocity of
a) twice b) half
sound will be
c) four times d) one third
18. The v-t graph of an athlete is shown below. The vs vs
a) b)
distance travelled by him between t = 0 and 2 12
t = 12 s is
3 2
c) 12vs d) vs
2
10 24. The ratio of kinetic energy to total energy of an
8 electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atoms is
v D
6 A a) 1 : 1 b) 1 : – 1
(m/s)
4 c) 2 : 1 d) 1:–2
2 25. The energy levels with transition for the atom are
B C E
shown. The transitions corresponding to emission
O 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
t (s) of radiation of maximum and minimum wavelength
are respectively
DSCL_2021-22 PCM - 4 MHT-CET Full Syllabus Exam - 11

0 eV 3 AB
A – 2 eV a) AB b)
4 2
B C – 4.5 eV
AB AB
D – 10 eV c) d)
4 8
a) B, C b) C, D 32. What is susceptibility of a medium, if its relative
c) A, D d) A, C permeability is 0.05 ?
26. The work function for a metal is 3.6 eV and a) 1.85 b) – 0.15
threshold wavelength is 3000 Å. If work function c) 0.15 d) – 0.85
for another metal is 1.8 eV, then threshold 33. A solenoid having 500 turns / meter has a core of
wavelength must be material with relative permeability 500. The
a) 6000 Å b) 5600 Å magnetisation of the core material if a current of
c) 5200 Å d) 4800 Å 1 A is passed through it is nearly
27. Light of wavelength  which is less than threshold a) 2.5 × 103 A/m b) 2.5 × 105 A/m
wavelength is incident on a photosensitive material. c) 2.5 × 104 A/m d) 2.5 × 102 A/m
If the incident wavelength is decreased so that 34. In a balanced meterbridge, the resistance of bridge
emitted photoelectrons are moving with same wire is 0.1 /cm. Unknown resistance x is
velocity, then stopping potential will connected in left gap and 6  in right gap, null point
a) decrease b) be zero divides the wire in the ratio 2 : 3. What is the current
c) become half d) increase drawn from the battery of 5 V and having negligible
28. In an LCR series AC circuit, the voltage across resistance ?
each of the components L, C and R is 60 volt. The a) 1 A b) 1.5 A
across the LC combination is ....... volt. c) 2 A d) 5 A
60 35. Unknown resistance x  is connected in the left
a) 60 b) gap of the meterbridge and 30  resistance is
2
connected in the right gap of meterbridge. Balance
c) 0 d) 120 point is obtained in the middle of the wire. Where
29. If we increase the frequency of an AC supply, then will be the null point in 40  resistance is used in
inductive reactance right gap keeping x in the left gap ?
a) decreases as it is inversely proportional to the a) 45.8 cm b) 50 cm
frequency. c) 42.8 cm d) 66.6 cm
b) decreases inversely with the square of frequency. 36. If the radius of Gaussian surface is increased then
c) increases it is directly proportional to the electric flux due to a point charge enclosed by the
frequency. surface
d) increases directly with the square of frequency. a) decreases b) remains unchanged
30. The mutual inductance between a primary and c) increases d) is zero
secondary circuit is 0.5 H. The resistance of the 37. Two parallel plates with dielectrics are placed
primary and secondary circuit are 20  and 5  between the plates of capacitor as shown in figure.
respectively. To generate a current 0.4 A in The resultant capacity of capacitor will be
secondary, current in the primary must be changed
(A = area of plate t1 , t2 and t3 are thickness of
at the rate of
dielectric slabs k1 , k2 , k3 are dielectric constants.)
a) 1.6 A/s b) 1.9 A/s
t1 t2 t3
c) 4 A/s d) 8 A/s
31. A coil having effective area A is held with its plane x k1 k2 k3 y
normal to magnetic field of induction B. The
magnetic induction is quickly reduced by 25% of A 0 k1 k2 k3  k1 k2 k3 
its initial value in 2 second. The emf induced across a) t1 t2 t3 b) A 0  t  t  t 
the coil will be  1 2 3 
DSCL_2021-22 PCM - 5 MHT-CET Full Syllabus Exam - 11
42. The current i in the network is
A 0 A 0
c) d)
t1 t2 t3  t1  t2  t3 
 


 

10
k1 k2 k3

5
 k1  k2  k3 


D
38. Four charges q, q, – q and – q are placed at four 5
corners A, B, C and D of a square as shown in


figure. If x is the side of square, then electrostatic

10

20
I


potential energy of the system of charges will be D
(0 is permittivity of free space) if potential energy
of system is zero 5 9V
q q
A B a) 0.2 A b) 0.6 A
c) 0.3 A d) 0 A
O 43. The length of solenoid is l whose windings are made
–q –q of material of density D and resistivity Q. The
C D windings resistance is R. The inductance will be

0  Rm  0  QD 
 2 q2 q2 a)   b) 2 l  Rm 
a) b) 4 l  QD   
40 x 40 2 2 x
0  QD  0  Rm 
2 q 2  q2 c) 4 l  Rm  d)  
c) d)   2 l  QD 
4 0 x 40 2 x
44. A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform
39. The focal length f is relate to the radius of curvature magnetic field. The torque acting on the loop does
of the spherical convex mirror by not depend upon
1 a) area of loop
a) f  r b) f = – r
2 b) number of turns in loop
c) shape of the loop
1
c) f   r d) f = r d) strength of magnetic field
2
45. An electron accelerated through p.d.v. passes it
40. A concave mirror for face viewing has focal length through a uniform transverse magnetic field and
of 0.4 m. The distance at which you hold the mirror experience a force F. If the accelerating potential
from your face in order to see your image upright is increased to 2 V, the electron in the same
with a magnification of 5 is magnetic field will experience a force
a) 0.24 m b) 1.60 m
c) 0.32 m d) 0.16 m F
a) F b)
41. Two particles A and B having charges 20 C and 2
– 5 C respectively are held fixed with a separation c) 2F d) 3 F
of 5 cm. At what position a third charged particle
46. In an npn transistor 200 electrons enter the emitter
should be placed so that it does not experience a
in 10–8 second. If 1% electrons are lost in the base,
net electric force ?
then the current that enters the emitter and the
20 C – 5 C current amplification factor are respectively
A 5 cm B a) 2 × 10–10 A and 49
a) At 5 cm from 20 C on the left side of system b) 3.2 × 10–9 A and 99
b) At 5 cm from – 5 C on the right side c) 1.6 × 10–19 A and 90
c) At 1.25 cm from – 5 C between two charges d) 1.7 × 10–11 A and 70
d) At midpoint between two charges
DSCL_2021-22 PCM - 6 MHT-CET Full Syllabus Exam - 11
47. Satellite power requirement is provided through c) V.P. of liquid > V.P. of a solid
a) solar cell b) lead batteries d) V.P. of a solid > V.P. of a liquid
c) dry cell d) none of the above 56. The relative lowering of vapour pressure of a
48. If the ratio of amplitude of two waves is 4 : 3, then solution of 18 g of glucose in 108 g of water would
the ratio of maximum and minimum intensities is be equal to
a) 16 : 9 b) 9 : 16 a) 0.164 b) 0.18
c) 1 : 49 d) 49 : 1 b) 0.33 d) 0.0164
49. A wavelength of light 5600 Å produces 60 fringes. 57. Which of the following is correct option for free
What will be the number of fringes produced at expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition?
same distance, if wavelength of light used is a) q = 0, T  0, w = 0
4800 Å b) q  0, T = 0, w = 0
a) 51 b) 70 c) q = 0, T = 0, w = 0
c) 60 d) 45 d) q = 0, T < 0, w  0
50. In young's double slit experiment, if wavelength of 58. The heats of combustion of C and CO are ‘xJ’ and
light is doubled without changing other conditions, ‘yJ’ respectively. The heat of formation of CO is
the fringe width will a) y – x J b) 2x – y J
a) be doubled b) halved c) y – 2x J d) x – yJ
c) be quadrupled d) remain unchanged 59. For the formation of NH3(g) at temperature TK, qv
is greater than qp by a factor equal to
CHEMISTRY a) 2T Cal b) T Cal
51. A defect present in AgCl is T
c) Cal d) 4T Cal
a) Frenkel defect 2
b) Schottky defect 60. Number of coulombs required to deposit 90 g of
c) Point defect Al when the electrode reaction is
d) Interstitial impurity defect A l 3+ + 3e–   Al is
52. The volume occupied by atoms of radius r in body a) 9.65 × 10 4 b) 8.685 × 105
centred cubic unit cell is c) 9.65 × 105 d) 6.955
4 3 8 3 61. The emf of the cell in which the reaction
a) r b) r
3 3 2Ag+(aq) + H2(g)   2Ag(s) + 2H+(aq)
16 3 22 3 occurs is 0.80 V. The standard reduction potential
c) r d) r
3 3 of Ag+ / Ag electrode is
53. The mass of unit cell of a body centred cubic crystal a) 0.80 V b) – 0.80 V
of a metal is 72.2 × 10–23 gram. The atomic mass c) 0.40 V d) – 0.40 V
of the metal is 62. The rate of first order reaction is
a) 128.6 g mol–1 b) 108.7 g mol–1 1.8 × 10 –3 mol L–1 min–1 . When the initial
c) 217.4 g mol–1 d) 27.86 g mol–1 concentration is 0.3 mol L–1. The rate constant in
54. Lowering of vapour pressure of a solution is equal the units of second is
to a) 1 × 10–2 s–1 b) 1 × 10–4 s–1
W2 W2  M 2 c) 6 × 10–2 s–1 d) 6 × 10–2 s
a) W  W b) W  M
1 2 1 1 63. The half life period for a zero order reaction is equal
1 W2 M1 P0  W2  M1 to
c) P  W M d) W  M 2K [A]0
0 1 2 1 2
a) [A] b)
55. At a freezing point 0 2K
a) V.P. of solution = V.P. of solvent 0.693 0.693
b) V.P. of a liquid solvent = V.P. of a solid solvent c) d) K[A]
K 0
DSCL_2021-22 PCM - 7 MHT-CET Full Syllabus Exam - 11
64. In H2 O molecule each O–H bond involves 75. The compounds formed by the acid hydrolysis of
a) sp3 -s overlap b) sp2 -s overlap ethyl ethanoate are
c) sp-s overlap d) 2p-s overlap a) Methanoic acid and propan-1-ol
65. 1 mole of methane contains b) Ethanoic acid and ethyl alcohol
a) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of H c) acetone and ethyl alcohol
b) 4 g atoms of hydrogen d) acetone and methyl alcohol
c) 1.81 × 1023 molecules of methane 76. Compound A in the following reaction is
d) 3.0 g of carbon NH3 Br2  KOH
66. The radius of first orbit of hydrogen is 0.53 Å. The A   B   n-butyl amine

radius of second orbit would be
OH
a) 1.06 Å b) 0.26 Å OH
c) 0.53 Å d) 2.12 Å a) b)
O
67. As the temperature of solid surface increases the
extent of adsorption of a gas O
NH–OH
a) increases c) d)
b) decreases OH
c) remains unchanged X Y
77. CH3 –CH2 CH2 –Br  Product 
d) first increases then decreases
68. Oxidat ion number of S in S 8 and S 2 F 2 is CH 3  CH  CH3

respectively
Br
a) + 2, + 1 b) – 2, – 1
c) 0, + 1 d) 0, + 2 In above reaction X and Y are
69. The temperature of a gas in a closed container is a) X = aq. NaOH and Y = HBr
27°C. If the temperature is raised to 327°C. The b) X = alc. NaOH and Y = Br2 / CHCl3
pressure exerted is c) X = alc. NaOH and Y = HBr
a) reduced to half b) doubled d) X = aq. NaOH and Y = Br2 / CHCl3
c) reduced to one-third d) reduced four times 78. Which of the following reaction is an example of
70. A pH of 0.05 M solution of a strong dibasic acid is nucleophilic substitution reaction ?
a) 0.0 b) 1.0 a) 2R – X + Na  R – R + 2NaX
c) 0.2 d) 0.5 b) R – X + N2  R – H + HX
71. Which of these is least likely to act as a Lewis base? c) R – X + Mg  R – MgX
a) BF3 b) PF3 d) R – X + KOH(aq.)  R – OH + KX
c) CO d) F– 79. Methyl chloride reacts with silver acetate to yield
72. The correct decreasing order of thermal stability of a) Acetaldehyde b) Acetyl chloride
hydrogen halides is c) Methyl acetate d) Acetic acid
a) HCl > HF > HBr > HI 80. A ketone an reduction with Na-Hg in water gives
b) HI > HBr > HF > HCl a) Primary alcohol b) Secondary alcohol
c) HF > HCl > HBr > HI c) Tertiary alcohol d) Benzyl alcohol
d) HF > HCl < HBr > HI 81. In Dow’s process starting raw material is
73. In the following pair of oxoacids which pair has a a) Nitrobenzene b) Benzene sulphonic acid
weak acid and a very strong acid ? c) Aniline d) Chlorobenzene
a) HOCl and HClO2 b) HOCl and HClO4 82. Tert. butyl methyl ether on reaction with HI will give
c) HClO3 and HClO4 d) HClO2 and HClO4 a) CH3 I + (CH3 )3 COH
74. BrCl react with water to form b) CH3 I + (CH3 )3 C–I
a) HBr b) Br2 + Cl2 c) CH3 OH + (CH3 )3 C–I
c) HOBr d) HOBr + HCl d) CH3 OH + (CH3 )3 C–OH
DSCL_2021-22 PCM - 8 MHT-CET Full Syllabus Exam - 11
83. In Rosenmund reaction –COCl is converted into 94. co-ordination number and correct charge on Fe in
a) –CHO b) –CO– K3 [Fe(CN)3] is
c) –OH d) –H a) 4 and +2 b) 6 and +3
84. Cyclic ketals are prepared from ketones by the c) 6 and +2 d) 3 and +3
action of 95. An octahedral complex is formed when hybrid
a) Ethanol b) Ethanal orbital of the following type are involved
c) Ethylene glycol d) KMnO4 a) sp 3 b) dsp3
85. Vinegar is an aqueous solution of c) sp3 d d) sp3 d2
a) Ethanol b) Phenol 96. Resonance is due to
c) Formic acid d) Acetic acid a) Migration of H-atoms
86. Alkylation of phthalimide is known as b) Migration of protons
a) Wurtz synthesis b) Sandmeyer synthesis c) Delocalisation of Sigma-electrons
c) Gabriel synthesis d) Grignard synthesis d) Delocalisation of Pi-electrons
87. 1°, 2°, 3° amines can be distinguished by Hinsberg’s 97. According to Huckel rule, an aromatic compound
reagent. Hinsberg’s reagent is must possess
a) Acetic unhydride a) (4n + 1)  electrons b) (4n + 2)  electrons
b) Acetyl chloride c) (4n + 3)  electrons d) 4n  electron
c) Nitrous acid 98. Which of the following are isoelectronic with one
d) Benzene sulphonyl chloride another ?
88. Equimolar quantity of glucose with phenyl hydrazine a) Na+, Ne b) K+, O
gives c) He, O d) Na+, K+
a) Glucose phenyl hydrazine 99. Carbon nanotubes are
b) Glucose phenyl hydrazone a) Conductor of electricity
c) Glucose oxime b) Semiconductor
d) Glucosazone c) Bad conductor
89. Tripeptide contains ......... peptide linkage. d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
a) 1 b) 2 100. Nanogold is used as catalyst in
c) 3 d) 4 a) Organic reaction b) Photocatalyst
90. In which of the following polymer, glycol is an c) Polymarisation d) Metal extraction
important constituent ?
a) Terylene b) Teflon MATHEMATICS
c) Nylon-6 d) Orlon
101. ( p  q )  (~ p  ~ q) is logically equivalent to
O O a) ~ ( p  q ) b) p  q
| 
91.  ]n is t he
[ C  (CH 2 ) 4  C  NH(CH 2 ) 6  NH  c) p  ~ q d) ~ p  q
102. If truth-values of statements p and q are F and T
formula of
respectively, then the truth-value of
a) Nylon-6 b) Nylon-6, 6
a) ~p ~q is T b) p  (q p) is F
c) Polyester fibres d) Polyamide fibres
92. Which of the following ion is coloured ? c) ( p  q)  ( p  ~ q )isF d) p  ~q = T
a) Sc3+ b) Zn2+ 103. Negation of the statement ‘Some roses are red and
c) Cu1+ d) V3+ all lilies are white’ is
93. The transition metal ion with the least magnetic a) All roses are red or some lilies are white.
moment will be with the configuration b) Some roses are not red and all lilies are not white.
a) 3d 7 b) 3d 9 c) All roses are not red or some lilies are not white.
c) 3d 2 d) 3d 3 d) All roses are not red and some lilies are not white.
DSCL_2021-22 PCM - 9 MHT-CET Full Syllabus Exam - 11

111. In ABC ,
0 1 2   1 1 1 
  1  
104. If A  1 2 3  and A–1 =  8 6 2c  , a 2sin  B  C  b 2sin  C  A  c 2sin  A  B 
2   
 3 a 1   5 3 1  sin B  sin C sin C  sin A sin A  sin B

then a) 0 b) a 2  b 2
a) a = 2, c = –1/2 b) a = 1, c = –1 c) b2  c 2 d) c 2  a 2
c) a = –1, c = 1 d) a = 1/2, c = 1/2
112. If 2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ and 2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ represent side AB and
1 0 
105. A    , det (4A–1 ) diagonal BD of parallelogram ABCD, then the
 4 1
acute angle between the diagonals AC and BD is:
a) 16 b) 8
FG 8 IJ FG 4 IJ
c) 4 d) 1
H K H 5K
1 1
a) cos b) cos
69
106. The principal solutions of 3 cosec x  2  0 are
FG 7 I
J FG 3IJ
π 2π 4π 5π
H 69 K H 5K
1 1
a) , b) , c) cos d) cos
3 3 3 3
113. The value of , for which the four points
 2 π 4π
c) , d) ,
3 3 3 3 iˆ  ˆj  kˆ, 2iˆ  3 ˆj  3kˆ, 3iˆ  2 ˆj  3kˆ, iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ
107. The polar co-ordinates of the point whose cartesian are coplanar, is :

 1 1  7 15
co-ordinates are  ,  are a) b)
 2 2 4 8
4 8
 7π   3π  c) d)
a) 1,  b) 1,  7 15
 4   4   
114. The value of [ a  b b  c c  a ] is
 5π   π
c) 1,  d) 1,  a) 0 b) 1
 4   4 c) 2 d) –1
108. If the two lines kx  5xy  9 y  0 are equally 115. Vector area of parallelogram whose adjacent sides
2 2

inclined with the co-ordinate axes, then: k = are given by iˆ  2kˆ and 2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ, is :
a) 5 b) – 5
a) 2iˆ  3 ˆj  kˆ b) 2iˆ  3 ˆj  kˆ
c) ± 9 d) ± 3
109. If the slope of one of the lines ax 2  6 xy  y 2  0 c) 2iˆ  3 ˆj  kˆ d) 2iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ
is square of the other, then a = 116. A line makes 45° with OX, and equal angles with
a) 1 b) 2 OYand OZ. Then the sum of these three angles is
c) 4 d) 8 a) 180° b) 165°
c) 150° d) 135°
110. In  ABC, if A = 90°,
x4 y2 zk
–1  c  –1  b  117. If the line   lies in the plane
then : tan   + tan   = 1 1 2
 ab ca
2x – 4y + z = 7, then : k =
a) 0 b) 1
a) 7 b) –7
  c) no real values d) 4
c) d)
4 6
DSCL_2021-22 PCM - 10 MHT-CET Full Syllabus Exam - 11

x y z 3/4
118. Equation of the plane containing the line   d   x  x  2  
2 3 4 126.   log e
    
dx    x  2  
and perpendicular to the plane containing the lines  
x y z x y z x2  7 x2  1
  and   is
3 4 2 4 2 3 a) b)
x2  4 x2  4
a) x + 2y – 2z = 0 b) 3x + 2y – 2z = 0
c) x – 2y + z = 0 d) 5x + 2y – 4z = 0 x2 1 x x2 1
c) d) e ·
119. Maximum o f P  6 x  11 y subject t o t he x2  4 x2  4
constraints : 2 x  y  104, x  2 y  76, x  0, y  0 1 dy
127. If y  sec(tan x), then is
is dx
a) 440 b) 540 x x
c) 240 d) 170 a) b)
1  x2 1  x2
120. Minimum of Z  12 x  20 y
x
subject to x  y  7 ,5x  2 y  20 , x  0 , y  0 is c) d) None of these
a) 32 b) 84 1  x2
c) 52 d) 64 dy
128. If e x  e y  e x y , then at (2, 2) is
121. If  a1  ib1  a2  ib2      an  ibn   A  iB then dx
a) 2 b) 1
a1
2
 b1
2
 a 2
2
 b2
2
    a n
2
 bn
2
 c) –1 d) e
a) A2 – B2 b) A2 + B2 d 2x
c) A – B d) A + B 129. If y  sin x  e , then 2 
x
dy
122. The number of different signals can be given by
a) – sin x + ex b) (– sin x + ex)–1
using any number of flags from 4 flags of different
colours is sin x  e x sin x  e x
c) d)
a) 24 b) 256 (cos x  e x ) 2 (cos x  e x )3
c) 64 4) 60 130. If a tangent to the curve y = 6x – x2 is parallel to
 n  2 !  n  1!  the line 4x – 2y – 1 = 0, then the point of tangency
lim
123. n  on the curve is
 n  3!
a) (2, 8) b) (8, 2)
a) 1 b) 1/2 c) (6, 1) d) (4, 2)
c) 0 d) 2 131. The diagonal of a square is chenging at the rate of
0.5 cm/sec. Then the rate of change of area, when
1
124. The value of x for which the function x is not the area is 400 cm2 / sec is equal to
2 5
a) 20 2 cm2 / sec b) 10 2 cm2 / sec
defined
a) log2 5 b) log5 2 1 10
c) cm 2 / sec d) cm 2 / sec
c) loge 2 d) loge 5 10 2 2
2 x  2  16
132. On the int erval (1, 3), t he funct ion f (x)
125. If f ( x )  , x  2 , is continuous at x = 2,
4x  24 2
f ( x)  3x  is
then the value of f (2) is x
1 a) strictly decreasing
a) b) 2 b) strictly increasing
2
c) decreasing in (2, 3) only
c) 4 d) 16
d) neither increasing nor decreasing
DSCL_2021-22 PCM - 11 MHT-CET Full Syllabus Exam - 11
133. The maximum value of xy when x + 2y = 8 is  /2
a) 4 b) 8 log(sin x ) dx 
c) 12 d) 16
139. 
0

cos x  1
134.  dx  a) log 2 b)  log
x 2 2
a) 2cos x  c b) 2sin x  c 1 
c)  log d) log 2
2 2
1
c) sin x  c d) cos x  c 140. The area formed by trianglular shaped region
2
bounded by the curve y = sin x, y = cos x and
tan x x = 0 is
135.  sin x · cos x dx  a) 2 1 b) 1

a) 2 sec x  c b) 2 tan x  c c) 2 d) 1  2
1
2 2 141. If y = y  cesin x , then corresponding to this the
c) c d) c
tan x sec x differential equation is

1 dy y dy 1
136.  dx  a) dx  b) dx 
1  tan x 1  x2 1  x2
1 1 dy x
 log  cos x  sin x   c
a)
2 2 c) dx  d) none of these
1  x2
x 1 142. The solut ion of t he different ial equat ion
b)  log  cos x  sin x   c
2 2 dy
( x 2  yx 2 )  y 2  xy 2  0 is
1 1 dx
c)  log  cos x  sin x   c
2 2
x 1 1  y 1 1
x 1 a) log      c b) log      c
d)  log  cos x  sin x   c  y x y x x y
2 2
1 1 1 1
x 3 c) log( xy )    c d) log( xy )    c
x y x y
137.  1  x8 dx 
143. The general solution of the differential equation
a) 4 tan–1 x3 + c
dy
1 ( x  y  3)  1 is
b) tan 1 x 4  c dx
4 a) x + y + 3 = cey
c) x + 4 tan–1 x4 + c b) x + y + 4 = cey
2 1 1 4
c) x + y + 3 = ce–y
d) x  tan x  c d) x + y + 4 = ce–y
4
144. If X ~ B (6, P) and 2 · P(X = 3) = P(X = 2), then
 /2
1 the value of P is
138.  
0
sec x  tan x 11 3
a) b)
a) 1 b) 0 3 11
c) 11 d) 3
c) log e2 d) log (1/2)
e
DSCL_2021-22 PCM - 12 MHT-CET Full Syllabus Exam - 11
145. The probability mass function of random variable 6 10
X is c) d)
7 3
k 148. If the equation
P(X  x )  ; x  0, 1, 2, 3
6 px2 + (2 – q) xy + 3y2 – 6qx + 30y + 6q = 0
 0 ; otherwise then P(X > 0) = represent a circle, then the value of p and q are
a) 3, 1 b) 2, 2
3 1
a) b) c) 3, 2 d) 3, 4
2 3
149. A family has two children, then the probability that
1 2 both the children are girls, given that atleast one of
c) d) them is a girl, is
2 3
146. tan 1° · tan 2° · tan 4° ..... tan 89° = 1 1
a) 1 b) 0 a) b)
2 3
1 1 1
c)  d) c) d)
2 4 5
147. The distance between the parallel lines 3x + 4y = 9
150. If the S.D. of first n natural numbers is 2 , then
and 6x + 8y = 15 is
the value of n must be .....
3 3 a) 5 b) 4
a) b)
2 10 c) 7 d) 6

Space for Rough Work

DSCL_2021-22 PCM - 13 MHT-CET Full Syllabus Exam - 11

MHT-CET Full Syllabus Exam-11 : 2021-22

Date : 10/07/2022
PHYSICS
01. c 02. b 03. b 04. b 05. d 06. d 07. a 08. b 09. a 10. b
11. d 12. a 13. b 14. a 15. b 16. a 17. a 18. c 19. c 20. a
21. b 22. d 23. a 24. b 25. c 26. a 27. d 28. c 29. c 30. c
31. d 32. b 33. b 34. a 35. c 36. b 37. c 38. a 39. a 40. c
41. b 42. c 43. a 44. c 45. c 46. b 47. a 48. d 49. b 50. a
CHEMISTRY
51. a 52. b 53. c 54. d 55. b 56. d 57. c 58. d 59. a 60. c
61. a 62. b 63. b 64. a 65. b 66. d 67. b 68. c 69. b 70. b
71. a 72. c 73. b 74. d 75. b 76. c 77. c 78. d 79. c 80. b
81. d 82. c 83. a 84. c 85. d 86. c 87. d 88. b 89. b 90. a
91. b 92. d 93. b 94. b 95. d 96. d 97. b 98. a 99. d 100. a
MATHEMATICS
101. b 102. c 103. c 104. b 105. a 106. a 107. a 108. c 109. d 110. c
111. a 112. c 113. b 114. a 115. a 116. b 117. a 118. c 119. a 120. b
121. b 122. c 123. c 124. a 125. a 126. a 127. a 128. c 129. d 130. a
131. b 132. b 133. b 134. b 135. b 136. d 137. b 138. c 139. a 140. a
141. a 142. a 143. b 144. b 145. c 146. a 147. b 148. c 149. b 150. a

MHT-CET Full Syllabus Exam-11 : 2021-22

Date : 10/07/2022
PHYSICS
01. c 02. b 03. b 04. b 05. d 06. d 07. a 08. b 09. a 10. b
11. d 12. a 13. b 14. a 15. b 16. a 17. a 18. c 19. c 20. a
21. b 22. d 23. a 24. b 25. c 26. a 27. d 28. c 29. c 30. c
31. d 32. b 33. b 34. a 35. c 36. b 37. c 38. a 39. a 40. c
41. b 42. c 43. a 44. c 45. c 46. b 47. a 48. d 49. b 50. a
CHEMISTRY
51. a 52. b 53. c 54. d 55. b 56. d 57. c 58. d 59. a 60. c
61. a 62. b 63. b 64. a 65. b 66. d 67. b 68. c 69. b 70. b
71. a 72. c 73. b 74. d 75. b 76. c 77. c 78. d 79. c 80. b
81. d 82. c 83. a 84. c 85. d 86. c 87. d 88. b 89. b 90. a
91. b 92. d 93. b 94. b 95. d 96. d 97. b 98. a 99. d 100. a
MATHEMATICS
101. b 102. c 103. c 104. b 105. a 106. a 107. a 108. c 109. d 110. c
111. a 112. c 113. b 114. a 115. a 116. b 117. a 118. c 119. a 120. b
121. b 122. c 123. c 124. a 125. a 126. a 127. a 128. c 129. d 130. a
131. b 132. b 133. b 134. b 135. b 136. d 137. b 138. c 139. a 140. a
141. a 142. a 143. b 144. b 145. c 146. a 147. b 148. c 149. b 150. a