Test is part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 2022

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I) Test Code

FULL LENGTH TEST (FLT)–7 TS22E1054

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK

THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN or MISSING PAGES OR
ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English Only. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet (OMR sheet) provided.
Read the directions in the Answer Sheet.

4. All items carry equal marks.

5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions contained therein.

6. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to
take away with you the Test Booklet.

7. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

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1. With reference to the administration and Which of the statements given above are
society during the Satvahana period, correct?
consider the following statements: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. The practice of donating revenue of a (b) 1 and 3 only
village to a Brahmana or Sangha was (c) 2 and 3 only
started by the Satavahana rulers.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Anyone who cleared the forest and tilled
a plot could claim the ownership of the
4. With reference to the medieval Indian
land.
history, the term ‘Ziyarat’ relates to which
3. The societies were not governed by the
of the following?
rules laid down by the Brahminical
(a) Form of tribute paid to the local rulers.
texts.
(b) Donations made towards royal treasury.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (c) Pilgrimage to the tombs of the Sufi
saints.
(a) 1 only
(d) Periodic assessment of land revenue.
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
5. With reference to the Treaty of Purandar
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(1665), consider the following statements:
1. It was concluded between Raja Jai
2. With reference to ‘Dhamma’ of Ashoka,
Singh of Amber and Shivaji. 2. A
consider the following statements:
Mansab of 5,000 was granted to Shivaji.
1. The principles of Dhamma were
Which of the statements given above is/are
formulated so as to be acceptable to the
correct?
people belonging to different
(a) 1 only
communities.
(b) 2 only
2. It attacked ceremonies and sacrifices
practised on various occasions, as (c) Both 1 and 2
meaningless. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 6. With reference to the First Battle of Panipat
(a) 1 only (1526), consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only 1. It was fought between the armies of
(c) Both 1 and 2 Babur and Sultan Ibrahim Lodi.

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. The people of India came to know about

gun-powder with the advent of Babur in
this Battle.
3. With reference to the group of monuments
3. This Battle brought under Babur’s
at Hampi, consider the following
control the entire area upto Delhi and
statements:
Agra.
1. It was the last capital of the kingdom of
Which of the statements given above are
Vijayanagar.
correct?
2. It is located on the banks of river
(a) 1 and 2 only
Ghataprabha.
(b) 1 and 3 only
3. Elements of the Indo-Islamic
architecture are visible in some (c) 2 and 3 only
monuments. (d) 1, 2 and 3

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7. With reference to the policies of Akbar, Which of the statements given above are
consider the following statements: incorrect?
1. He abolished the practice of forcibly (a) 1 and 2 only
converting the prisoners of war to
(b) 1 and 3 only
Islam.
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. Mansabs were given to the Hindus on
the basis of their competence. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct? 10. With reference to paintings during the
(a) 1 only Mughal period, consider the following
(b) 2 only statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. The Mughals introduced themes of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 battle and court scenes in the Indian
paintings.
8. With reference to the Deccan states, 2. The Indian School of Painting began to
consider the following statements: be free from the Persian influence.
1. Ali Adil Shah of Bijapur provided the 3. The faces, bodies and feet of the people
grants to Pandharpur, a centre of the in a single picture were painted by
worship of Vithoba. different artists.
2. Sultan Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah of Which of the statements given above are
Golconda was the first to introduce
correct?
secular note in poetry.
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. Murahari Rao rose to the position of
Peshwa in the kingdom of Ibrahim Qutb (b) 2 and 3 only
Shah. (c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above are (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only 11. With reference to the Treaty of Allahabad of
(b) 2 and 3 only 1765, consider the following statements:
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. It was concluded between Robert Clive,
(d) 1, 2 and 3 the Marathas and the Nawab of Awadh.
2. The Company acquired both the
9. With reference to the architecture of the Nizamat and the Diwani rights for
Mughal period, consider the following
Bengal.
statements:
3. The Company did not annex Awadh.
1. Use of the decoration method of Pietra
Which of the statements given above is/are
Dura started during the reign of Akbar.
correct?
2. Use of running water in palaces and
gardens was the special feature of the (a) 1 and 2 only
Mughal architecture. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Buland Darwaza in Fatehpur Sikri was (c) 2 only
built to commemorate Akbar’s victory in (d) 1, 2 and 3
Malwa.

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12. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Dayanand Saraswati believed in the correct?
principles of Niyati (destiny) and Karma (a) 1 only
(deeds).
(b) 2 only
2. Dayanand Saraswati’s slogan of ‘Back
(c) Both 1 and 2
to the Vedas’ was a call for the revival of
the Vedic times. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. The Arya Samaj fixed the minimum

marriageable age at 25 years for boys 15. With reference to the works of the
and 16 years for girls. Provincial Congress Ministries formed in
Which of the statements given above are 1937, consider the following statements:
incorrect? 1. The Congress Ministries could not
(a) 1 and 2 only undertake a complete overhaul of the
(b) 2 and 3 only agrarian structure.
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. The National Planning Committee was
(d) 1, 2 and 3 set up under Subhash Chandra Bose in
1938.
13. With reference to the C. Rajagopalachari 3. Attention was given to primary,
(CR) Formula, consider the following technical and higher education, and to
statements:
public health and sanitation.
1. It was an implicit acceptance of the
Which of the statements given above are
Muslim League’s demand for Pakistan.
correct?
2. It accepted the League’s demand of only
(a) 1 and 2 only
the Muslims to participate in plebiscite,
for separation of the Muslim majority (b) 1 and 3 only
area. (c) 2 and 3 only
3. It provided for common centre after (d) 1, 2 and 3
partition, for defence, commerce and
communication.
16. With reference to the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’,
Which of the statements given above are
consider the following statements:
correct?
1. Maharaja Ranjit Singh had annexed a
(a) 1 and 2 only
few of his feudatory principalities on
(b) 1 and 3 only
account of ‘Lapse’.
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. Lord Dalhousie annexed Awadh in 1856
(d) 1, 2 and 3
on grounds of ‘Lapse’.
3. Lord Dalhousie was the originator of the
14. With reference to the annual sessions of
the Indian National Congress, consider the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’.
following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. In the Haripura Session (1938), correct?
Subhash Chandra Bose talked of (a) 1 only
economic development of the country (b) 1 and 3 only
through planning.
(c) 2 only
2. In the Tripuri Session (1939), Gandhi
(d) 2 and 3 only
supported Bose’s view of launching
mass civil disobedience struggle.

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17. With reference to the Lahore Session of 20. Which of the following statements is/are
Congress (1929), consider the following correct regarding Bitcoins?
statements: 1. The blockchain technology allows the
1. Jawaharlal Nehru was nominated as people to send even those bitcoins
the President of the Session with which they do not own.
backing of the majority of the Provincial
2. The Central African Republic (CAR) has
Congress Committees.
approved Bitcoins as legal tender.
2. The decision of boycott of The Round
Table Conference was taken. Select the correct answer using the code
3. All members of the legislatures were given below:
asked to resign their seats. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above are (b) 2 only
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
21. Which of the following statements is/are
(d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
1. The Nirbhay cruise missile is a two-
18. Consider the following statements:
stage missile, with the first stage using
1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar set up the All India
solid fuel and the second stage using
Anti-Untouchability League.
liquid fuel.
2. Gandhiji felt that there was nothing
sinful in the Varnashram system. 2. It is a supersonic missile which flies at
3. Gandhiji's Harijan campaign led to the a speed of 1.5 – 2.5 Mach.
increasing participation of the Harijans Select the correct answer using the code
in the national movements. given below:
Which of the statements given above are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
22. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding the Refraction
19. With reference to the Swarajists (1920s),
phenomenon?
consider the following statements:
1. The Swarajists were allowed to contest 1. Refraction is the bending of a light wave
elections as a group within the when it enters a medium of different
Congress. density.
2. The Responsivists among the Swarajists 2. As the speed of light is reduced in the
wanted to protect the so-called Hindu slower medium, the wavelength is
interests. increased proportionately.
3. They failed to resist the perks and Select the correct answer using the code
privileges of power and office. given below:
Which of the statements given above are (a) 1 only
correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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23. Which of the following statements is/are produces three dimensional detailed
correct? anatomical images. It is often used for
1. The Gravitational Waves are the 'ripples' disease detection, diagnosis and treatment
in space-time caused by some of the monitoring. However, there are certain
most violent and energetic processes in risks involved due to its strong magnetic
the Universe. field.
Which of the following patients are advised
2. These Waves carry with them
to have certain precautions while going for
information about their origins. an MRI?
Select the correct answer using the code 1. Patients with claustrophobia.
given below:
2. Patients with pregnancy.
(a) 1 only
3. Patients with renal failure.
(b) 2 only 4. People with pacemakers.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the code
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
24. Which of the following statements correctly (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
defines the Polymerase Chain Reaction? (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) It is a technology for making polythene (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
bags which are bio-degradable in
nature. 27. With respect to the “Parthenocarpic Fruits”,
(b) It is a technology which is responsible consider the following statements:
for chain reactions during nuclear 1. These are the species in which the
fusion. fruits develop without fertilisation.
(c) It is a technology for building nylon 2. Banana is an example of the
materials which form the base materials “Parthenocarpic Fruits.
in technical textiles. 3. These fruits are seedless.
(d) It is a technology for exponential Which of the statements given above are
amplification of a fragment of the DNA. correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
25. Which of the following statements are (b) 2 and 3 only
correct? (c) 1 and 3 only
1. The Starlink Project aims to deliver high (d) 1, 2 and 3
speed broadband internet to
inaccessible locations. 28. Consider the following statements:
2. Neuralink aims to develop ultra-high 1. Trichoderma species are the free-living
bandwidth brain-machine interfaces. bacteria that are very common in the
3. Elon Musk is the co-founder and leads root ecosystems.
Starlink, as well as Neuralink. 2. Baculoviruses are the pathogens that
Select the correct answer using the code attack insects and other arthropods.
given below: 3. Trichoderma species are effective
(a) 1 and 2 only biocontrol agents of several plant
pathogens.
(b) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above are
(c) 2 and 3 only
correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
26. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is a
(c) 1 and 3 only
non-invasive imaging technology that
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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29. With respect to the “Restriction Enzyme”, 32. With respect to “Oogenesis”, consider the
consider the following statements: following statements:
1. It is a protein produced by bacteria that 1. It is the differentiation of the ovum into
cleaves the DNA at specific sites.
a cell, competent to further develop
2. It protects the live bacteria from
when fertilized.
bacteriophages.
2. It is initiated in the embryonic stage.
3. It is used in genetic engineering to form
‘recombinant’ molecules of the DNA, Which of the statements given above is/are
which are composed of the DNA from correct?
different sources/genomes. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above are (b) 2 only
correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 33. With respect to “Translation”, consider the
following statements:
30. With respect to “inbreeding”, consider the 1. It refers to the process of polymerisation
following statements: of amino acids to form a polypeptide.
1. It refers to the mating of more closely 2. The formation of a peptide bond does
related individuals within the same not require energy.
breed for 4-6 generations.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. It decreases homozygosity.
correct?
3. Close inbreeding usually reduces
(a) 1 only
fertility and even productivity.
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 only
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
34. With respect to “DNA fingerprinting”,
(d) 1, 2 and 3
consider the following statements:
1. It involves identifying differences in
31. With respect to the “Entamoeba
some specific regions in the DNA
Histolytica”, consider the following
sequence, called as the repetitive DNA.
statements:
1. It is a virus in the large intestine of the 2. It is the basis of paternity testing.
humans. 3. The polymorphism in DNA sequence is
2. It causes amoebiasis. the basis of DNA fingerprinting.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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35. Consider the following statements: 38. Which of the following pollutants are taken
1. River Volga drains into the Black Sea. into account while measuring the Air
2. River Dnepr drains into the Caspian Quality Index (AQI) of an area?

Sea. 1. Sulphur dioxide

3. River Danube is the largest river to 2. Carbon dioxide

discharge into the Black Sea. 3. Carbon monoxide

Which of the statements given above is/are 4. Ground level ozone

correct? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 and 2 only given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

36. With reference to the Peat Bogs, consider

39. Consider the following pairs:
the following statements:
1. Its spongy ground is composed largely S.N. Desert Location
of living and decaying Sphagnum moss. 1. Kalahari Tanzania
2. They are found throughout the world 2. Atacama Ecuador
where warm temperatures prevail. 3. Great Victoria Australia
3. Peat can be harvested to use for fuel or
4. Gobi Mongolia
as a soil additive.
Which of the statements given above are Which of the pairs given above are correctly
correct? matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

40. With reference to the Nilgiri Biosphere

37. With reference to the e-AMRIT portal,
Reserve, consider the following statements:
consider the following statements:
1. It was the first Biosphere Reserve to be
1. It is a portal for creating awareness
established in India, in 1986.
about the Ayurvedic medicines in India.
2. It possesses the largest known
2. It is the result of a joint initiative population of the Lion-tailed Macaque.
between NITI Aayog and the United
3. The Evergreen Shola Montane Forests
Kingdom government.
are found in this Reserve.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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41. With reference to the Exosphere, consider Which of the statements given above are
the following statements: correct?
1. It lies above the Mesosphere, at a height (a) 1 and 2 only
of about 80 km onwards. (b) 1 and 3 only
2. This layer is mainly composed of (c) 2 and 3 only
extremely low densities of hydrogen and (d) 1, 2 and 3
helium.
Which of the statements given above is/are 44. With respect to the “Western Cyclonic
correct? Disturbances”, consider the following
statements:
(a) 1 only
1. The western cyclonic disturbances,
(b) 2 only
which enter the Indian sub-continent
(c) Both 1 and 2 during the winter months, originate
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 over the Mediterranean Sea.
2. They are brought into India by the
42. With respect to “The Himachal and easterly jet stream.
Uttarakhand Himalayas”, consider the 3. A decrease in the prevailing night
following statements: temperature generally indicates an
advance in the arrival of the western
1. This part lies approximately between
cyclonic disturbances.
the Ravi in the west and the Kali in the
Which of the statements given above is/are
east.
correct?
2. Some important duns located in this (a) 1 only
region are the Nalagarh dun, the Harike
(b) 3 only
dun and the Kota dun.
(c) 1 and 2 only
3. It comprise a series of ranges, such as (d) 1 and 3 only
the Zaskar and the Pir Panjal.
Which of the statements given above are 45. With respect to the “Montane Forests”,
correct? consider the following statements:
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. In the higher hilly areas of West Bengal
(b) 2 and 3 only and Uttarakhand, evergreen broadleaf
(c) 1 and 3 only trees, such as oak and chestnut, are
predominant.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The north-facing slopes of the
Himalayas carry a thicker vegetation
43. With respect to “The Brahmaputra System”, cover, than the drier southern slopes.
consider the following statements: 3. Deodar, a highly valued endemic
1. It has its origin in the Chemayungdung species, grows mainly in the western
glacier of the Kailash range, near the part of the Himalayan range.
Mansarovar lake. Which of the statements given above are
2. Its major right bank tributaries are the correct?
Burhi Dihing and the Dhansari. (a) 1 and 2 only
3. It emerges as a dynamic river after (b) 2 and 3 only
carving out a deep gorge in the Central (c) 1 and 3 only
Himalayas, near Namcha Barwa. (d) 1, 2 and 3

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46. Consider the following statements: 49. Consider the following soils:
1. Rural forestry lays emphasis on the 1. Mollisols
promotion of agro forestry and 2. Vertisols
community forestry.
3. Inceptisols
2. Agro forestry is the raising of the trees
and the agriculture crops on the same 4. Entisols
land inclusive of the waste patches. Regarding the Indian soils mentioned
3. Urban forestry pertains to the raising above, in terms of area as classified by the
and management of the trees on public ICAR, which of the following is the correct
and privately owned lands in and ascending order?
around the urban centres.
(a) 1-3-4-2
4. Community forestry involves the raising
(b) 1-2-4-3
of the trees on public or community
land, such as the village pasture and (c) 2-3-4-1
temple land etc. (d) 2-1-4-3
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
50. With respect to the RBI’s guidelines on
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Digital Banking Units (DBUs), consider the
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only following statements:
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. The Digital Banking Units can be set by
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
all the banks, including the Foreign
Banks and the Payments Banks.
47. With respect to the “Tropic of Cancer”,
2. The DBUs can be set up in both rural
consider the following statements:
and urban areas.
1. It passes through 17 countries.
2. The Mahi river is the only river in India Which of the statements given above is/are
that cuts the Tropic of Cancer twice. correct?
3. It passes through Tripura and Manipur. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above are (b) 2 only
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
51. With respect to the Bad Bank set up in
(d) 1, 2 and 3
India, consider the following statements:
1. The National Asset Reconstruction
48. Consider the following pairs:
Company Limited (NARCL) has been
S.No. Tribes Places registered as an Asset Reconstruction
1. Koryak North Siberia Company (ARC) with the RBI.
2. Lapps East Sumatra 2. Both NARCL and the India Debt
3. Semangs East and Central Resolution Company Ltd. (IDRCL) are
Africa owned by the Government of India.
4. Maoris New Zealand Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
(a) 1 only
matched?
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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52. Which of the following categories of NBFCs
is/are covered under the RBI’s Scale Based
Regulation?
1. Deposit taking NBFCs
2. Non-Deposit taking NBFCs
3. NBFC- Infrastructure Debt Fund (IDF)
4. Housing Finance Companies (HFCs)
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
53. Which of the following categories of banks
is/are covered under the Priority Sector
55. Consider the following statements:
1. The Producers Price Index (PPI)
measures the changes in the prices
received by the manufacturers, without
including the indirect taxes.
2. Presently, the WPI in India does not
include the indirect taxes.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
56. Which of the following petroleum products
is/are outside the ambit of GST?
1. Petrol and Diesel

Lending requirements of the RBI? 2. Aviation Turbine Fuel

3. Natural Gas
1. Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)
4. Kerosene
2. Small Finance Banks (SFBs)
5. LPG Cylinders
3. Payments Banks
Select the correct answer using the code
4. Local Area Banks (LABs)
given below:
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 only
given below:
(b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only 57. Consider the following statements about
KAVACH:

54. Consider the following statements: 1. It is an indigenously developed anti-

collision device network for railways.
1. The Commercial Paper can be issued
2. It is designed with goal of 'zero
only by the NBFCs.
accidents' in Railways.
2. The Commercial Papers are issued at a
3. It is SIL (Safety Integrity Level)-4
discount and redeemed at face value.
certified.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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58. Consider the following statements about 61. Consider the following statements:
the Capacity Building Commission (CBC): 1. Gross Domestic Savings is contributed
1. It is a body created by an executive by Household sector, Private Corporate
order under the Department of and Public Sector.
Personnel and Training (DOPT). 2. Public Sector contributes for the largest
2. CBC will be headed by a chairperson share of Savings in India.
and two members.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

62. Consider the following pairs:

59. Consider the following statements:
1. Millets are group of small, grained S.N. Government’s Criteria
cereal food crops which are highly accounting (Receipts)
tolerant to drought. 1. Revenue Budget Receipts which
2. Millets are gluten-free, and low in create liability or
glycaemic index. reduce financial
3. India is the world's third largest assets.
producer of millets. 2. Capital Budget Non-redeemable
Which of the statements given above are receipts
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only Which of the pairs given above is/are
(b) 2 and 3 only correctly matched?

(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2
60. Consider the following statements about (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Green Bond Principles (GBP):
1. Green Bond Principles are voluntary 63. Consider the following statements about
process guidelines that recommend 15th Finance Commission:
transparency and disclosure and 1. The 15th Finance Commission
promote integrity in the development of recommendations would be valid for a
the Green Bond market. period of 6 years.
2. They have been released by the
2. The share of states in the central taxes
International Capital Market
for the 2021-26 period is recommended
Association (ICMA).
to be 41%.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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64. Consider the following statements about 67. Consider the following statements about
Merchandise trade balance (for the period the Planetary Boundaries:
of 2020-21 (April-November):
1. These are a group of 9 environmental
1. India’s merchandise trade balance for
boundaries within which humanity can
major countries shows that India had
the most favourable trade balance with continue to thrive on the planet Earth.
Saudi Arabia. 2. Growing authoritarianism and violence
2. The highest trade deficit is with China is one of the parameters in it.
followed by Iraq. 3. According to the research, the Earth is
Which of the statements given above is/are operating within the planetary
correct?
boundaries in all parameters.
(a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only
correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
65. Consider the following statements: (c) 1 and 3 only
1. Under the Open Market Operations (d) 1, 2 and 3
(OMOs), the RBI may either purchase or
sell G-Secs depending upon the market
conditions but under the G-SAP, the 68. Which of the following has/have been
RBI would only be purchasing G-Secs. labelled as the ‘Forever Chemicals’?
2. The RBI uses OMOs either to inject or (a) DDT
suck out excess liquidity depending (b) Carbon dioxide
upon the liquidity conditions but, the
G-SAP is mainly used for controlling the (c) Chlorofluorocarbons
yield rates on the long term G-Secs. (d) PFAS
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
69. ‘Verra’ and ‘Gold Standard’ are the
(a) 1 only
certification standards related to which of
(b) 2 only
the following?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Forest conservation
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Plastic waste recycling
66. Consider the following statements about (c) Nature-based solutions
Consumer Price Index (CPI): (d) Carbon credits
1. Consumer Price Index measures
inflation at Retail level.
70. Nurdles, recently in the news, refer to
2. It is calculated by National Statistical
which of the following?
Office.
3. Clothing and footwear has the highest (a) E-waste components found in the
weightage in Consumer Price Index. oceans.
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) Pre-production plastic pellets.
correct? (c) Plastic waste found in the protected
(a) 1 and 2 only areas.
(b) 2 only
(d) Components of e-waste that can be
(c) 2 and 3 only
profitably mined.
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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71. Consider the following statements about
the Alternate Wetting and Drying (AWD)
Technique:
1. In this technique, there is periodic
drying and re-flooding of the rice field.
2. There is no major impact on methane
emissions from rice cultivation using
this technique.
3. This technique results in less incidence
of weeds, as compared to the
continuous flooding rice cultivation.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
72. Consider the following statements about
the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972:
1. The status of protection offered to flora
and fauna is based on the IUCN status
of the animals.
2. Ecological and wildlife corridors have
been defined under the Act.
3. The Standing Committee of State Board
for Wildlife is headed by the Minister in
charge of Forests and Wildlife of the
respective state.
Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect?
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
73. Consider the following statements about
‘Ethanol Blending’ in fuel:
1. Ethanol blending increases the fuel
economy of the vehicles.
2. Ethanol blending improves the oxygen
content of the fuel, resulting in
complete combustion.
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3. Ethanol is corrosive in nature and
damages engines.
4. Ethanol has a higher octane number, as
compared to gasoline, which allows
internal combustion engines to have
higher compression ratios.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
74. Last year, large amounts of frothing were
seen in river Yamuna during the winter
season. Which of the following agents are
primarily responsible for the frothing of the
rivers?
(a) Nitrates in sewage discharged in the
rivers.
(b) Phenols in sewage discharged in the
rivers.
(c) Phosphates in sewage discharged in the
rivers.
(d) Sulphonates in sewage discharged in
the rivers.
75. Consider the following statements about
the C4 Pathway of Photosynthesis:
1. The biology and the organ structure of
the C3 and the C4 plants are the same.
2. The C4 plants are more water efficient
and heat tolerant, as compared to the
C3 plants.
3. Rice, sugarcane and maize are the
examples of the C4 plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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76. Consider the following statements about 79. Consider the following statement about
the Myristica swamps: Carbon Budget:
1. Nutmeg, a spice, grows in the Myristica 1. It is the total amount of carbon
swamps. emission a country can undertake for
2. They are found only in Tamil Nadu, successfully achieving its Nationally
Kerala and Karnataka. Determined Contribution.
2. Carbon Budget will change according to
3. They are found at higher elevations of
the long-term temperature target.
the Western Ghats.
Which of the statements given above is/are
4. They have aerial root systems like
correct?
mangroves.
(a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above are
(b) 2 only
correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
80. According to the recent India State of
(d) 2 and 4 only Forest Report 2021, consider the following
statements:
77. Consider the following statements about 1. Teak is the most common species of
the Bengal Florican: tree found in the forests of India.
1. It is found only in India, Bhutan and 2. Neem tree is the most common species
Nepal. of tree found outside the forests of
2. It is found in the riverine grassland India.
ecosystems. 3. There are more trees outside the
Which of the statements given above is/are forests, as compared to the trees inside
correct? the forests in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only
incorrect?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
78. Consider the following pairs about the
conservation breeding centres and the
81. Consider the following statements about
animals they breed:
the Ultrafine Particles:
1. Sam Conservation Breeding Centre: 1. These are the particles who diameters
Great Indian Bustard are less than 100 nanometres.
2. Jatayu Conservation Breeding Centre: 2. The Ultrafine Particles can penetrate
Vultures the alveolar-capillary barrier and can be
3. Sarahan Conservation Breeding Centre: distributed throughout the body.
Pygmy Hog 3. Laser printer is an important source of
4. Basistha Conservation Breeding Centre: indoor ultrafine particle emission.
Western Tragopan Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the pairs given above is/ are correct?
correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4 only

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82. With respect to the “Right to property”, Which of the pairs given above are correctly
consider the following statements: matched?
1. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 (a) 1 and 2 only
abolished the Right to property as a (b) 2 and 3 only
Fundamental Right. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. It can be curtailed, abridged or modified (d) 1, 2 and 3
without Constitutional Amendment by
an ordinary law of the Parliament. 84. With respect to the “Sixth Schedule”,
3. In case of violation, the aggrieved consider the following statements:
person cannot directly move the 1. The tribal areas in the 4 states of
Supreme Court, under Article 32 for its Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and
enforcement. Mizoram have been constituted as
Which of the statements given above are Autonomous Districts.
correct? 2. The President is empowered to organise
(a) 1 and 2 only and re-organise the Autonomous
Districts.
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. Each Autonomous District has a
(c) 1 and 3 only
District Council, consisting of 30
(d) 1, 2 and 3
members, of whom 4 are nominated by
the Governor.
83. Consider the following pairs: Which of the statements given above are
S.N. Article of the Subject correct?
Indian Matter (a) 1 and 2 only
Constitution (b) 2 and 3 only
1. 41 Right to work, (c) 1 and 3 only
to education (d) 1, 2 and 3
and to public
assistance in 85. Consider the following statements:
certain cases. 1. The control over the Subordinate
2. 39 State to secure Courts, including the posting and
a social order promotion, is vested in the High Court.
for the 2. The Subordinate Judge exercises
promotion of unlimited pecuniary jurisdiction over
welfare of the civil and criminal cases.
people. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. 43B Promotion of correct?

the co- (a) 1 only

operative (b) 2 only
societies. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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86. With respect to the “Governor”, consider 88. Consider the following statements about
the following statements: the Indian Constitution:
1. The Governor has the right of 1. India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular
addressing and sending messages, and Democratic Republic with a
summoning, deferring and dissolving Parliamentary system of government.
the State Legislature, just like the 2. The Republic is governed in terms of the
President. Constitution of India, which was
2. He can grant pardons, reprieves, adopted by the Constituent Assembly
respites and remissions of punishment on 26th November, 1950.
or suspend, remit and commute the 3. Article 74(1) of the Constitution
sentence of any person convicted of any provides that there shall be a Council of
offence against any law. Ministers, with the Prime Minister as its
3. He decides on the question of head to aid and advise the President,
disqualification of the members of the who shall exercise his/her functions in
State Legislature, in consultation with accordance to the advice.
the Election Commission. Which of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above are correct?
correct? (a) 1and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
89. With respect to the “President”, consider
87. With respect to the “Rajya Sabha”, consider the following statements:
the following statements: 1. The Electoral College is made up of all
1. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is a the members of the Upper and the
member of the House, but cannot vote Lower Houses of the Parliament.
in the first instance. 2. The election is held in accordance with
2. The Vice-President cannot preside over the system of proportional
a sitting of the Rajya Sabha as its representation by means of the single
Chairman, when a resolution for his transferable vote and the voting is by
removal is under consideration. secret ballot.
3. The Deputy Chairman can be removed 3. All doubts and disputes in connection
by a resolution passed by a majority of with the election of the President are
all the then members of the Rajya inquired into and decided by the
Sabha. Election Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

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90. With respect to “Whip”, consider the 93. Anticipatory Bail may be granted under
following statements: which of the following circumstances?
1. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs is 1. A special case is made out that would
the Chief Whip of the Government. suggest that there are ample grounds to
2. The office of ‘whip’ is mentioned in the assume that the applicant may be
Rules of the House and the detained for unreasonable grounds.
Parliamentary Statute.
2. The name of the accused is not
3. Whip is appointed by the Speaker to mentioned in the FIR.
serve as an assistant floor leader.
3. The arguments against the claimant are
Which of the statements given above is/are
ambiguous or generic.
correct?
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only
given below:
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
91. Which of the following statements is/are (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct about the Interstate River Water
Disputes Act, 1956? 94. Which of the following statements is/are
1. Any dispute relating to the sharing of correct?
the river water shall be adjudged by a
1. A co-parcener is a person who has a
Tribunal, constituted under the
birth-right to the parental property.
Interstate River Water Disputes Act,
1956. 2. The Hindu Succession (Amendment)
2. The decision of the Tribunal, after its Act, 2005, included daughters to be the
publication in the Official Gazette by co-parceners to the parental property in
the Central Government, shall have the a Joint Hindu Family.
same force as an order or decree of the Select the correct answer using the code
Supreme Court. given below:
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 only
given below: (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
95. Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
92. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the National Population 1. The Joint Parliamentary Committees
Register? (JPCs) are set up by a motion passed in
1. The National Population Register is the Lok Sabha only.
maintained by the Registrar General 2. The JPC has a wider ambit and need
and Census Commissioner of India, not only be limited to the scrutiny of the
under the Ministry of Home Affairs. government finances.
2. It is a Register of the “usual residents of Select the correct answer using the code
the country”. given below:
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 only
given below:
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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96. With respect to the “High Court”, consider 2. Lokpal can inquire against any society
the following statements: or trust or body that receives foreign
1. The Chief Justice of the High Court is contribution above Rs.10 lakh.
appointed by the President, after Which of the statements given above is/are
consultation with the Chief Justice of correct?
India and the Governor of the state (a) 1 only
concerned.
(b) 2 only
2. A person to be appointed as a Judge of
(c) Both 1 and 2
a High Court should have been an
advocate of a High Court (or High (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Courts in succession) for 5 years.
3. Every person appointed to be a Judge of 99. Consider the following statements about
a High Court shall, before he enters PM-CARES Fund:
upon his office, make and subscribe 1. It is created as a Public
before the Governor of the state. Charitable Trust where individuals and
Which of the statements given above corporates can donate.
is/correct? 2. Donations to this fund has
(a) 1 only 100% exemption from income tax.
(b) 2 only 3. Donations made to PM-CARES is
(c) 1 and 3 only counted as part of Corporate Social
(d) 2 and 3 only Responsibility.
Which of the statements given above is/are
97. Consider the following statements: correct?
1. The National Policy on Narcotic Drugs (a) 1 only
and Psychotropic Substances is based (b) 2 only
on the Directive Principles of State
(c) 1 and 2 only
Policy.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The Department of Revenue, the Ministry
of Finance has the nodal co-ordination
role as administrator of the Narcotic 100. Consider the following statements about
Drugs and Psychotropic Substances the Unique Identification Authority of India
Act, 1985. (UIDAI):
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. The Chairperson and the members of
correct? UIDAI shall hold office for a term of 3
(a) 1 only years from the date on which they
(b) 2 only assume office.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Members of UIDAI shall not be eligible
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 for reappointment.
Which of the statements given above is/are
98. Consider the following statements about correct?
the jurisdictions and powers of the Lokpal (a) 1 only
for the Union: (b) 2 only
1. Lokpal has jurisdiction to inquire (c) Both 1 and 2
allegations of corruption against Prime (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Minister.

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