JEE (Main) 2019: Computer Based Test (CBT)

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PAPER-1 (B.E./B.

TECH)

JEE (Main) 2019


COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Date : 10 January 2019 (SHIFT-2) | TIME : (02:30 p.m. to 5:30 p.m.)
Duration : 3 Hours | Max. Marks : 360

ETOOS Education Pvt. Ltd.


Plot No. 38, Near Union Bank Of India, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Kota, Rajasthan
Help Desk : 09214233303 | 09214233343 |

1
JEE MAIN www.etoosindia.com PHYSICS

1. Two forces P and Q of magnitude 2F and 3F, 5. The self induced emf of a coil is 25 volts. When
respectively, are at an angle q with each other. the current in it is changed at uniform rate from
If the force Q is doubled, then their resultant 10 A to 25 A in 1s, the change in the energy
also gets doubled. Then, the angle is :
of the inductance is :
(1) 30º (2) 60º (3) 90º (4) 120º
(1) 437.5 J (2) 637.5 J
(3) 740 J (4) 540 J
2. The actual value of resistance R, shown in the
figure is 30W. This is measured in an
experiment as shown using the standard 6. A current of 2 mA was passed through an
V unknown resistor which dissipated a power of
formula R = , where V and I are the readings
I 4.4 W. Dissipated power when an ideal power

IA
of the voltmeter and ammeter, respectively. If supply of 11V is connected across it is :
the measured value of R is 5% less, then the
internal resistance of the voltmeter is : (1) 11 × 10–5 W (2) 11 × 10–4 W
(3) 11 × 105 W (4) 11 × 10–3 W

D
V
A
R 7. The diameter and height of a cylinder are

N
measured by a meter scale to be 12.6 ± 0.1 cm
(1) 350W (2) 570W (3) 35 W (4) 600 W and 34.2 ± 0.1 cm, respectively. What will be
the value of its volume in appropriate significant
SI
figures ?
3. An unknown metal of mass 192 g heated to a
temperature of 100ºC was immersed into a brass (1) 4260 ± 80 cm3 (2) 4300 ± 80 cm3
calorimeter of mass 128 g containing 240 g of (3) 4264.4 ± 81.0 cm3 (4) 4264 ± 81 cm3
O
water a temperature of 8.4ºC Calculate the
specific heat of the unknown metal if water
temperature stabilizes at 21.5ºC (Specific heat 8. At some location on earth the horizontal
O

of brass is 394 J kg–1 K–1) component of earth's magnetic field is


(1) 1232 J kg–1 K–1 (2) 458 J kg–1 K–1 18 × 10–6 T. At this location, magnetic neeedle
(3) 654 J kg–1 K–1 (4) 916 J kg–1 K–1 of length 0.12 m and pole strength 1.8 Am is
ET

suspended from its mid-point using a thread,


4. A particle starts from the origin at time t = 0 and it makes 45º angle with horizontal in
moves along the positive x-axis. The graph of equilibrium. To keep this needle horizontal, the
velocity with respect to time is shown in figure. What vertical force that should be applied at one of
is the position of the particle at time t = 5s ? its ends is :
v (1) 3.6 × 10 –5 N (2) 6.5 × 10 –5 N
(m/s) (3) 1.3 × 10 –5 N (4) 1.8 × 10 –5 N
3
2 9. The modulation frequency of an AM radio station
is 250 kHz, which is 10% of the carrier wave. If
1
another AM station approaches you for license
what broadcast frequency will you allot ?
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 t (s)
(1) 2750 kHz (2) 2000 kHz
(1) 6 m (2) 9 m (3) 3 m (4) 10 m
(3) 2250 kHz (4) 2900 kHz
JEE MAIN www.etoosindia.com PHYSICS

10. A hoop and a solid cylinder of same mass and r r


13. Two vectors A and B have equal magnitudes.
radius are made of a permanent magnetic r r
material with their magnetic moment parallel (
The magnitude of A + B is 'n' times the )
to their respective axes. But the magnetic r r r
moment of hoop is twice of solid cylinder. ( )
magnitude of A – B . The angle between A
They are placed in a uniform magnetic field in r
and B is :
such a manner that their magnetic moments
make a small angle with the field. If the é n2 - 1ù é n -1ù
oscillation periods of hoop and cylinder are Th (1) sin–1 ê 2 ú (2) cos –1 ê ú
ë n + 1û ë n + 1û
and Tc respectively, then :
(1) Th = 0.5 Tc (2) Th = 2 Tc
é n2 - 1ù é n -1ù
(3) Th = 1.5 Tc (4) Th = Tc (3) cos –1 ê 2 ú (4) sin–1 ê ú
ë n + 1û ë n + 1û

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11. The electric field of a plane polarized
electromagnetic wave in free space at time 14. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with
t= 0 is given by an expression an amplitude of 5 cm. When the particle is at 4 cm
from the mean position, the magnitude of its
r

D
E ( x, y ) = 10 ˆj cos [(6x + 8z)] velocity in SI units is equal to that of its acceleration.
r Then, its periodic time in seconds is :
The magnetic field B (x, z, t) is given by : (c
N 7 3
is the velocity of light) (1) p (2) p
3 8
4p 8p
(
1 ˆ ˆ
)
SI
(1) 6k + 8i cos éë( 6x - 8z + 10ct )ùû (3)
3
(4)
3
c

15. Consider a Young's double slit experiment as


(
1 ˆ ˆ
)
6k - 8i cos éë( 6x + 8z - 10ct ) ùû
O

(2) shown in figure. What should be the slit


c
separation d in terms of wavelength l such that

(
1 ˆ ˆ
)
6k + 8i cos éë( 6x + 8z - 10ct )ùû
the first minima occurs directly in front of the
O

(3)
c slit (S1) ?

(
1 ˆ ˆ
)
ET

(4) 6k - 8i cos éë( 6x + 8z + 10ct )ùû S1 P


c 1st minima

Source d
12. Condiser the nuclear fission S2
Ne20 ® 2He4 + C12 Screen
2d
Given that the binding energy/nucleon of Ne20,
He4 and C12 are, respectively, 8.03 MeV, 7.07 l l
MeV and 7.86 MeV, identify the correct
statement :
(
(1) 2 5 - 2
) (2) 5 - 2
( )
(1) 8.3 MeV energy will be released
l l
(2) energy of 12.4 MeV will be supplied
(3) energy of 11.9 MeV has to be supplied
(3)
( 5 -2 ) (4) 2
( 5 -2 )
(4) energy of 3.6 MeV will be released
JEE MAIN www.etoosindia.com PHYSICS

16. The eye can be regarded as a single refracting


P
surface . The radius of curvature of this surface
is equal to that of cornea (7.8 mm). This surface
separates two media of refractive indices 1 and Q P'
1.34. Calculate the distance from the refracting
surface at which a parallel beam of light will O B
A
come to focus. –q +q
(1) 2 cm (2) 1 cm
(3) 3.1 cm (4) 4.0 cm F
(1) (2) 3F (3) 9F (4) 27F
3

17. Half mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is heated 20. Two stars of masses 3 × 1031 kg each, and at
at constant pressure of 1atm from 20 ºC to 90ºC. distance 2 × 1011m rotate in a plane about their
Work done by gas is close to : ( Gas constant common centre of mass O. A meteorite passes
R = 8.31 J /mol.K) through O moving perpendicular to the star's

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(1) 73 J (2) 291 J rotation plane. In order to escape from the
(3) 581 J gravitational field of this double star, the
(4) 146 J
minimum speed that meteorite should have at
O is : (Take Gravitational constant

D
18. A metal plate of area 1 × 10–4 m2 is illuminated G = 6.67 ×10–11 Nm2 kg–2)
by a radiation of intensity 16 mW/m2.The work (1) 1.4 ×105 m/s (2) 24 ×104 m/s
function of the metal is 5eV. The energy of the (3) 3.8 ×104 m/s (4) 2.8 ×105 m/s
N
incident photons is 10 eV and only 10% of it
produces photo electrons. The number of 21. A closed organ pipe has a fundamental
emitted photo electrons per second and their frequency of 1.5 kHz. The number of
SI
maximum energy, respectively, will be : overtones that can be distinctly heard by a
[1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19J] person with this organ pipe will be : (Assume
(1) 1010 and 5 eV (2) 1014 and 10 eV that the highest frequency a person can hear is
O

20,000 Hz)
(3) 1012 and 5 eV (4) 1011 and 5 eV (1) 7 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 4
O

19. Charges –q and +q located at A and B, 22. A rigid massless rod of length 3l has two
respectively, constitute an electric dipole. masses attached at each end as shown in the
Distance AB = 2a, O is the mid point of the figure. The rod is pivoted at point P on the
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dipole and OP is perpendicular to AB. A charge horizontal axis (see figure). When released from
Q is placed at P where OP = y and y >> 2a. The initial horizontal position, its instantaneous
charge Q experiences and electrostatic force angular acceleration will be :
F. If Q is now moved along the equatorial line
l 2l
æyö
to P' such that OP'= ç ÷ , the force on Q will be
è3ø 5 M0 P 2 M0
æy ö g 7g g g
close to : ç >> 2a ÷ (1) (2) (3) (4)
è3 ø 2l 3l 13l 3l
JEE MAIN www.etoosindia.com PHYSICS

23. For the circuit shown below, the current 28. A particle which is experiencing a force, given
through the Zener diode is : r r r
by F = 3i - 12 j , undergoes a displacement of
5 kW r r
d = 4 i . If the particle had a kinetic energy of
3 J at the beginning of the displacement, what
120 V 50 V 10 kW is its kinetic energy at the end of the
displacement ?
(1) 15 J (2) 10 J (3) 12 J (4) 9 J

(1) 5 mA (2) Zero (3) 14 mA (4) 9 mA 29. The Wheatstone bridge shown in Fig. here, gets
balanced when the carbon resistor used as R 1
24. Four equal point charges Q each are placed in has the colour code ( Orange, Red, Brown).
the xy plane at (0, 2), (4, 2), (4, –2) and (0, –2). The resistors R 2 and R 4 are 80W and 40W,
The work required to put a fifth charge Q at the
respectively.
origin of the coordinate system will be :
Assuming that the colour code for the carbon
Q2 Q2 æ 1 ö resistors gives their accurate values, the colour code
1+

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(1) (2) ç
4 pe 0 è ÷ for the carbon resistor, used as R3, would be :
2 2pe0 5ø
R1 R2
Q2 æ 1 ö Q2
1+
4 pe 0 çè ÷
(3) (4) G
3ø 4pe 0

25. A cylindrical plastic bottle of negligible mass

D R3 R4
is filled with 310 ml of water and left floating
N
in a pond with still water. If pressed downward + –
slightly and released, it starts performing simple (1) Red, Green, Brown
harmonic motion at angular frequency w. If the
SI
(2) Brown, Blue, Brown
radius of the bottle is 2.5 cm then w close to :
(3) Grey, Black, Brown
(density of water = 10 3 kg / m3)
(4) Brown, Blue, Black
(1) 5.00 rad s–1 (2) 1.25 rad s–1
O

(3) 3.75 rad s–1 (4) 2.50 rad s–1


30. Two identical spherical balls of mass M and
26. A parallel plate capacitor having capacitance radius R each are stuck on two ends of a rod
12 pF is charged by a battery to a potential of length 2R and mass M (see figure). The
O

difference of 10 V between its plates. The moment of inertia of the system about the axis
charging battery is now disconnected and a passing perpendicularly through the centre of
porcelain slab of dielectric constant 6.5 is the rod is :
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slipped between the plates the work done by 2R


the capacitor on the slab is :
(1) 692 pJ (2) 60 pJ R R
(3) 508 pJ (4) 560 pJ

27. Two kg of a monoatomic gas is at a pressure


of 4 × 104 N/m 2 . The density of the gas is 152 17
(1) MR 2 (2) MR 2
8 kg /m3. What is the order of energy of the gas 15 15
due to its thermal motion ?
(1) 103 J (2) 105 J 137 209
(3) MR 2 (4) MR 2
(3) 10 J
6 (4) 104 J 15 15
JEE MAIN www.etoosindia.com CHEMISTRY

1. An ideal gas undergoes isothermal 7. What will be the major product in the following
compression from 5 m 3 against a constant mononitation reaction ?
external pressure of 4 Nm–2. Heat released in
this process is used to increase the temperature O
of 1 mole of Al. If molar heat capacity of Al N HNO3
is 24 J mol –1 K –1 , the temperature of Al H Conc. H2SO4
increases by :

3 2
(1) K (2) K (3) 1 K (4) 2 K O NO2
2 3
N

IA
(1)
H
2. The 71 st electron of an element X with an
atomic number of 71 enters into the orbital :

D
(1) 4f (2) 6p (3) 6s (4) 5d O
(2) O 2N N

N
3. The number of 2-centre-2-electron and 3- H
centre-2-electron bonds in B2H6, respectively,
are :
SI
O 2N
(1) 2 and 4 (2) 2 and 1 O
(3) 2 and 2 (4) 4 and 2 N
(3)
H
O
4. The amount of sugar (C12H22O11) required to
prepare 2 L of its 0.1 M aqueous solution is :
O

(1) 68.4g (2) 17.1g (3) 34.2g (4) 136.8g O


N
(4) H
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5. Among the following reactions of


O2N
hydrogen with halogens, the one that
requires a catalyst is :

(1) H2 + I2 ® 2HI (2) H2 + F2 ® 2HF 8. In the cell Pt(s)|H2(g, 1bar|HCl(aq)|Ag(s)|Pt(s)


(3) H2 + Cl2 ® 2HCI (4) H2 + Br2 ® 2HBr the cell potential is 0.92 when a 10–6 molal HCl
solution is used. THe standard electrode
6. Sodium metal on dissolution in liquid ammonia
potential of (AgCl/Ag,Cl–) electrode is :
gives a deep blue solution due to the formation
of:
ì 2.303RT ü
(1) sodium ion-ammonia complex ígiven, = 0.06Vat298K ý
î F þ
(2) sodamide
(3) sodium-ammonia complex (1) 0.20 V (2) 0.76 V (3) 0.40 V (4) 0.94 V
(4) ammoniated electrons
JEE MAIN www.etoosindia.com CHEMISTRY

9. The major product of the following recation is: 12. The difference in the number of unpaired
O electrons of a metal ion in its high-spin and
CH3N low-spin octahedral complexes is two. The
NaBH 4
metal ion is :
OH (1) Fe2+ (2) Co2+ (3) Mn2+ (4) Ni2+
(1) CH3N
13. A compound of formula A 2 B 3 has the hcp
OH lattice. Which atom forms the hcp lattice and
(2) CH3N
what fraction of tetrahedral voids is occupied
by the other atoms :
OH
(3) CH3N 2
(1) hcp lattice-A, Tetrachedral voids-B
3
OH

IA
(4) CH3N 1
(2) hcp lattice-B, Tetrachedral voids-A
3

D
10. The pair that contains two P–H bonds in each 2
(3) hcp lattice-B, Tetrachedral voids-A
of the oxoacids is : 3
(1) H3PO2 nad H4P 2O5
(2) H4P 2O5 and H4P2O6
N 1
(4) hcp lattice-A Tetrachedral voids-B
(3) H3PO3 and H3PO2 3
SI
(4) H4P2O5 nad H3PO3
14. The reaction that is NOT involved in the ozone
11. The major product of the following reaction is: layer depletion mechanism is the stratosphere is:
O

CH3 · ·
OH hu
(1) HOCl(g) ¾¾ ® O H(g) + Cl(g)
(i) aq. NaOH
O

(ii) CH3I · ·
uv
(2) CF2Cl2(g) ¾¾ ® Cl(g) + C F2 Cl(g)
CH 3 CH3 (3) CH4 + 2O3 ® 3CH2 = O + 3H2OP
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OH OH
· ·
(1) (2) (4) ClO(g) + O(g) ® Cl(g) + O 2 (g)
CH3 CH 3

CH 3 15. The process with negative entropy change is :


OH CH3 (1) Dissolution of iodine in water
OCH3
(2) Synthesis of ammonia from N2 and H2
(3) (4)
(3) Dissolution of CaSO4(s) to CaO(s) and SO3(g)
CH 3
(4) Subimation of dry ice
JEE MAIN www.etoosindia.com CHEMISTRY

16. The major product of the following reaction is: 18. The major product obtained in the following
reaction is :
O CH3
CO2Et
(i) dil. HCl/D NaOEt/D
O (ii) (COOH)2/
CH3O OH O
Polymerisation O
O O
O O (1) CO2Et
(1) n
O
OCOCH 3 O
O
O O (2)
n CO2Et
(2) O
O

IA
OCH3
O
(3)
O O
n CO2Et
O

D
(3) O
OH (4) CO2Et
O
N
O O
(4) n 19. Which of the following tests cannot be used for
O
SI
OH identifying amino acids ?
(1) Biuret test (2) Xanthoproteic test
17. A reaction of cobalt(III) chloride and (3) Barfoed test (4) Ninhydrin test
O

ethylenediamine in a 1 : 2 mole ratio generates


20. What is the IUPAC name of the following
two isomeric products A (violet coloured) B compound ?
O

(green coloured). A can show optial actively,


CH3 CH3
B is optically inactive. What type of isomers H
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does A and B represent ? H


CH3 Br
(1) Geometrical isomers
(1) 3-Bromo-1, 2-dimethylbut-1-ene]
(2) Ionisation isomers]
(2) 4-Bromo-3-methylpent-2-ene
(3) Coordination isomers (3) 2-Bromo-3-methylpent-3-ene
(4) Linkage isomers (4) 3-Bromo-3-methyl-1, 2-dimethylprop-1-ene
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21. Which is the most suitable reagent for the 27. An aromatic compound 'A' having molecular
following transformation ? formula C 7H 6 O 2 on treating with aqueous
OH ammonia and heating forms compound 'B'. The
CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CH–CH3 ¾¾® compound 'B' on reaction with molecular
CH3–CH=CH–CH2CO2H bromine and potassium hydroxide provides
(1) alkaline KMnO4 (2) I2/NaOH compound 'C' having molecular formula
(3) Tollen's reagent (4) CrO2/CS2 C6H7N. The structure of 'A' is :

22. The correct match between item 'I' and item 'II' (1)
is : O CH=CH–CHO
Item 'I' Item 'II'
(compound) (reagent) CHO
(A) Lysine (P) 1-naphthol
(B) Furfural (Q) ninhydrin (2)
OH

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(C) Benzyl alcohol (R) KMnO4
(D) Styrene (S) Ceric ammonium
nitrate COOH
(1) (A)®(Q), (B)®(P), (C)®(S), (D)®(R) (3)
(2) (A)®(Q), (B)®(R), (C)®(S), (D)®(P)
(3) (A)®(Q), (B)®(P), (C)®(R), (D)®(S)
D
(4) (A)®(R), (B)®(P), (C)®(Q), (D)®(S)
N OHC

23. In the reaction of oxalate with permaganate in acidic (4)


SI
medium, the number of electrons involved in OH
producing one molecule of CO2 is :
(1) 10 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 5
28. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is
O

24. 5.1g NH4SH is introduced in 3.0 L evacuated –13.6 eV. The energy of second excited state
flask at 327°C. 30% of the solid NH 4 SH He+ ion in eV is :
O

decomposed to NH3 and H2S as gases. The Kp (1) –6.04 (2) –27.2 (3) –54.4 (4) –3.4
of the reaction at 327°C is (R = 0.082 L atm 29. For an elementary chemical reaction,
mol–1K–1, Molar mass of S = 32 g mol/01, molar
d[A]
ET

mass of N = 14g mol–1) ˆˆˆ


k1
A2 ‡ˆˆ †
ˆ 2A, the expression for is :
(1) 1 × 10–4 atm2 (2) 4.9 × 10–3 atm2
k –1
dt
(3) 0.242 atm 2 (4) 0.242 × 10–4 atm 2 (1) 2k1[A2]–k–1[A]2 (2) k1[A2]–k –1[A]2
(3) 2k1[A2]–2k–1[A]2 (4) k1[A2]+k –1[A]2
25. The electrolytes usually used in the electroplating
of gold and silver, respectively, are :
(1) [Au(OH)4]– and [Ag(OH)2]– 30. Haemoglobin and gold sol are examples of :
(2) [Au(CN)2]– and [Ag CI2]–
(3) [Au(NH3)2]+ and [Ag(CN)2]– (1) negatively charged sols
(4) [Au(CN)2]– and [Ag(CN)2]– (2) positively charged sols]

26. Elevation in the boiling point for 1 molal (3) negatively and positively charged sols,
solution of glucose is 2 K. The depression in respectively
the freezing point of 2 molal solutions of (4) positively and negatively charged sols,
glucose in the same solvent is 2 K. The relation
respectively
between Kb and Kf is:
(1) Kb = 0.5 Kf (2) Kb = 2 Kf
(3) Kb = 1.5 Kf (4) Kb = Kf
JEE MAIN www.etoosindia.com MATHEMATICS

5 5
æ 3 iö æ 3 iö p/2
dx
1. Let z = çç + ÷ +ç
÷ ç
- ÷ . If R(z) and I[z]
÷
è 2 2ø è 2 2ø
5. The value of ò
-p /2 [x] + [sin x] + 4
, where [t]

respectively denote the real and imaginary parts denotes the greatest integer less than or equal
of z, then : to t, is :
(1) R(z) > 0 and I(z) > 0
1 3
(2) R(z) < 0 and I(z) > 0 (1) ( 7p + 5) (2) ( 4p - 3)
12 10
(3) R(z) = –3
(4) I(z) = 0 1 3
(3) ( 7p - 5) (4) ( 4p - 3 )
12 20
2. Let a1,a2,a3, ...., a10 be in G.P. with ai > 0 for
i = 1,2,...., 10 and S be the set of pairs (r,k),
r kÎN (the set of natural numbers) for which 6. If the probability of hitting a target by a shooter,

IA
in any shot, is 1/3, then the minimum number
loge a1r a 2k log e a 2r a 3k log e a 3r a 4k of independent shots at the target required by
log e a 4r a 5k loge a r5a 6k loge a r6 a 7k = 0
him so that the probability of hitting the target
loge a 7r a 8k loge a 8r a 9k log e a 9r a10
k

Then the number of elements in S, is :


Dat least once is greater than
5
6
, is :
(1) Infinitely many (2) 4
N
(1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 10 (4) 2
SI
(3) 4 (4) 3

3. The positive value of l for which the


co-efficient of x 2 in the expression 7. If mean and standard deviation of
O

10 5 observations x1, x2, x3,x4,x 5 are 10 and 3,


æ l ö
x ç x+ 2÷
2
is 720, is : respectively, then the variance of 6
è x ø
O

observations x1,x2, ....,x5 and –50 is equal to :


(1) 5 (2) 4 (1) 582.5 (2) 507.5
(3) 2 2 (4) 3 (3) 586.5
ET

(4) 509.5

p p p p 8. The length of the chord of the parabola x2 = 4y


4. The value of cos 2
× cos 3 × ..... × cos 10 × sin 10
2 2 2 2
is : having equation x - 2y + 4 2 = 0 is :

1 1 (1) 2 11 (2) 3 2
(1) (2)
256 2
1 1 (3) 6 3 (4) 8 2
(3) (4)
512 1024
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é2 b 1ù
9. Let A = êb b 2 + 1 b ú where b > 0. Then the 13. Let f : (–1,1)®R be a function defined by
ê1 b 2 úû
ë
det(A)
{ }
f(x) = max - | x |, - 1 - x 2 . If K be the set of
minimum value of is :
b all points at which f is not differentiable, then
K has exactly :
(1) 3 (2) - 3
(1) Three elements (2) One element
(3) -2 3 (4) 2 3 (3) Five elements (4) Two elements

2
10. The tangent to the curve, y = xe x passing ì y2 x2 ü
14. Let S = í( x,y ) Î R 2 : - = 1ý , where
through the point (1,e) also passes through the î 1+ r 1- r þ
r ¹ ±1. Then S represents :

IA
point :
2
æ4 ö (1) A hyperbola whose eccentricity is ,
(1) ç ,2e ÷ (2) (2,3e) r +1
è 3 ø

D
where 0 < r < 1.
1
(2) An ellipse whose eccentricity is ,
æ5 ö r +1
(3) ç ,2e ÷ (4) (3,6e)
N
è3 ø where r > 1
2
(3) A hyperbola whose eccentricity is ,
SI
1- r
11. The number of values of qÎ(0,p) for which the when 0 < r < 1.
system of linear equations
2
(4) An ellipse whose eccentricity is , when
O

x + 3y + 7z = 0 r +1
–x + 4y + 7z = 0 r>1
O

(sin 3q)x + (cos 2q) y + 2z = 0


25
has a non-trivial solution, is : 15. If å{
r =0
50
}
C r × 50 - r C25- r = K ( 50
)
C 25 , then K is
(1) One (2) Three
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equal to :
(3) Four (4) Two (1) 225 – 1 (2) (25)2 (3) 225 (4) 224

16. Let N be the set of natural numbers and two


x 1 functions f and g be defined as f,g : N®N
ò f ( t ) dt = x + ò t f ( t ) dt , then f'(1/2) is :
2 2
12. If æ n +1
0 x ç if n isodd
such that : f ( n ) = ç 2
n
6 24 ç if n is even
(1) (2) è 2
25 25 and g(n) = n–(–1)n. The fog is :
(1) Both one-one and onto
18 4 (2) One-one but not onto
(3) (4)
25 5 (3) Neither one-one nor onto
(4) onto but not one-one
JEE MAIN www.etoosindia.com MATHEMATICS

17. The values of l such that sum of the squares


of the roots of the quadratic equation, 22. With the usual notation, in DABC, if
x2 + (3 – l) x + 2 = l has the least value is :
ÐA + ÐB = 120º, a = 3 + 1 and b = 3 - 1,
4 then the ratio ÐA : ÐB , is :
(1) 2 (2)
9
(1) 7 : 1 (2) 5 : 3
15 (3) 9 : 7 (4) 3 : 1
(3) (4) 1
8
23. The plane which bisects the line segment
joining the points (–3,–3,4) and (3,7,6) at right
18. Two vertices of a triangle are (0,2) and (4,3). angles, passes through which one of the
If its orthocentre is at the origin, then its third following points ?
vertex lies in which quadrant ? (1) (4, –1,7) (2) (4,1,–2)
(1) Fourth (3) (–2,3,5) (4) (2,1,3)

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(2) Second
(3) Third 24. Consider the following three statements :
(4) First P : 5 is a prime number.

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Q : 7 is a factor of 192.
R : L.C.M. of 5 and 7 is 35.
19. Two sides of a parallelogram are along the
Then the truth value of which one of the
lines, x + y = 3 and x – y + 3 = 0. If its diagonals
N following statements is true ?
intersect at (2,4), then one of its vertex is :
(1) (P ^ Q) Ú (~R)
(1) (2,6) (2) (2,1)
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(2) (~P) ^ (~Q ^ R)
(3) (3,5) (4) (3,6) (3) (~P) Ú (Q ^ R)
(4) P Ú (~Q ^ R)
r r r r
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r r
20. Let a = ( l - 2 ) a + b and b = ( 4l - 2 ) a + 3b be
25. On which of the following lines lies the point
r r
two given vectors where vectors a and b are x -4 y -5 z-3
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non-collinear. The value of l for which vectors of intersection of the line, = =


2 2 1
r r
a and b are collinear, is : and the plane, x + y + z = 2 ?
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(1) –3 (2) 4 x -2 y -3 z +3
(1) = =
(3) 3 (4) –4 2 2 3
x -4 y -5 z-5
(2) = =
1 1 -1
æ 19 æ n öö
21. The value of cot çç å cot -1 ç 1 + å 2p ÷ ÷÷ is : x -1 y - 3 z + 4
è n =1 è p= 1 ø ø (3) = =
1 2 -5
22 23 21 19 x + 3 4 - y z +1
(1) (2) (3) (4) (4) = =
23 22 19 21 3 3 -2
JEE MAIN www.etoosindia.com MATHEMATICS

1 -4x3
26. Let f be a differentiable function such that 28. If òx e
5 -4x3
dx = e f ( x ) + C, where C is a
48
3 f (x) constant of integration, then f(x) is equal to :
f '( x ) = 7 - , ( x > 0 ) and f(1) ¹ 4.
4 x (1) –4x3 – 1 (2) 4x3 + 1
æ1ö (3) –2x3 – 1 (4) –2x3 + 1
Then lim+ x f ç ÷ :
x ®0 èxø
(1) Exists and equals 4
29. The curve amongst the family of curves,
(2) Does not exist
represented by the differential equation,
(3) Exist and equals 0
(x2 – y2)dx + 2xy dy = 0 which passes through
4 (1,1) is :
(4) Exists and equals
7 (1) A circle with centre on the y-axis

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(2) A circle with centre on the x-axis
27. A helicopter is flying along the curve given by
y – x3/2 = 7, (x ³ 0). A soldier positioned at the (3) An ellipse with major axis along the y-axis
(4) A hyperbola with transverse axis along the

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æ1 ö
point ç ,7 ÷ wants to shoot down the helicopter x-axis
è2 ø
when it is nearest to him. Then this nearest
N
distance is : 30. If the area of an equilateral triangle inscribed
in the circle, x2 + y2 + 10x + 12y + c = 0 is
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1 1 7
(1) (2)
2 3 3 27 3 sq. units then c is equal to :

(1) 20 (2) 25
1 7 5
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(3) (4)
6 3 6 (3) 13 (4) –25
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