SEROLOGY AND IMMUNOLOGY  Which immunoglobulin cross links mast cells to

release histamine?
 From the following, identify a specific component
-IgE
of the adaptive immune system that is formed in
 Which of the following cell surface molecules is
response to antigenic stimulation:
classified as an MHC class II antigen?
-Immunoglobulin
-HLA-DR
 Which two organs are considered the primary
 Which MHC class of molecule is necessary for
lymphoid organs in which immunocompetent cells
antigen recognition by CD4-positive T cells?
originate and mature?
-Class II
-Thymus and bone marrow
 Which of the following are products of HLA
 What type of B cells are formed after antigen
class III genes?
stimulation?
-Complement proteins C2, C4, and Factor B
-Plasma cells and memory B cells
 Toll-like receptors are found on which cells?
 Which cluster of differentiation (CD) marker
-Dendritic cells
appears during the first stage of T-cell development
 Macrophages produce which of the following
and remains present as an identifying marker for T
proteins during antigen processing?
cells?
-IL-1 and IL-6
-CD2
 A lymphokine is
 Which markers are found on mature, peripheral
helper T cells? -A soluble mediator produced by lymphocytes
 Which of the following is characteristic of B cells?
-CD2, CD3, CD4
 Which T cell expresses the CD8 marker and acts -Contain surface immunoglobulins
specifically to kill tumors or virally infected cells?  A hapten is
-T cytotoxic -A determinant capable of stimulating an
 What is the name of the process by which immune response only when bound to a
phagocytic cells are attracted to a substance such carrier
as a bacterial peptide?  What immunoglobulin can be found on a mature B-
-Chemotaxis cell?
 . Which immunoglobulin(s) help(s) initiate the -IgM and IgD
classic complement pathway?  Which of the following immunoglobulins is part of
-IgG and IgM the immature B-cell?
 Which immunoglobulin class(es) has (have) a J -IgM
chain?  Which of the following is not a marker for Large
-. IgM and sIgA Granular Lymphocyte?
 How is complement activity destroyed in vitro? -CD19
-. Heating serum at 56°C for 30 min  What is the TLR associated to Gram negative
 What is the purpose of C3a, C4a, and C5a, the split bacterias?
products of the complement cascade? -TLR-4
-To cause increased vascular permeability,  What is the TLR associated to Mycobacteria?
contraction of smooth muscle, and release of -TLR-1
histamine from basophils  When was the TCR (T-cell Receptor) discovered?
 Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule can -. 1984
bind antigen?  . What is the principle of the serological tests for
-Fab Hepatitis B infection?
 Which region determines whether an -ELISA
immunoglobulin molecule can fix complement?  What is the drug of choice that is known to cure
-CH syphilis?
 . Which immunoglobulin appears first in the -Penicillin
primary immune response?  What is the first test that been utilized to examine
-IgM Syphilis?
 Which immunoglobulin appears in highest titer in -Wassermann
the secondary response?  What is the positive result of Complement
-. IgG Fixation?
 Which immunoglobulin can cross the placenta? -No hemolysis
-IgG  The most common antigen that is being detected
by widal test that indicates infection of Salmonella.
 -Somatic
 What bacteria is the source of OX-2 and OX-19?
-Proteus vulgaris
 What bacteria is the source of OX-K?
-Proteus mirabilis
 Serological test to detect rickettsial infection?
-Weil-Felix test
 Causative agent of Kissing Disease?
-EBV
 It is the only Hepatitis B marker that cannot be
detected in the serum of the patient?
-HBcAg
 Hepatitis B marker that indicates infectivity?
-HBeAg
 Who discovered complement?
-Jules Bordet
 Discovered antibody diversity
-Susumo Tonegawa
 Also known as sheep red cell receptor:
-CD2
 Marker associated to CALLA:
-CD10
 . Also known as CD55:
-DAF
 When Pasteur was examining vaccine for
tuberculosis, what was he first observed?
-Delayed hypersensitivity
 What kind of antibody is reagin?
-IgE
 Skin testing is a useful diagnostic tool for several
infectious diseases including tuberculosis. Which of
the following statements regarding skin testing is
TRUE?
-Ability to respond to skin testing with a particular
antigen can be transferred from one individual to
another by the transfer of lymphocytes
 A person has an inherited disorder that prevents
expression of the complement component C3.
What would be the expected effect of this defect?
- Inability to activate complement by either the
classical or the alternate pathway
 What disease was contracted and carried from the
New World to Old World by Columbus crew?
-Syphilis
 . Which disease might be indicated by antibodies to
smooth muscle?
-Autoimmune hepatitis
 Basophils and mast cells are under what type of
hypersensitivity?
-Type I
 When reading for slide agglutination for
Salmonella, macroscopic agglutination is graded as
25%. Interpret.
-1+
 What antigen of P. falciparum is being detected by
MalaQuick Standby Malaria Test?
-HRP-II
 Large granular lymphocytes are part of:
-Natural immunity
 Hybridomas are formed from:
-B lymphocytes
 It is a non-specific indicator of inflammation
believed to be an antibody to the C-polysaccharide
of pneumococci:
-C-reactive protein
 Marker of NK cells:
-CD56
 HLA-B27 is most commonly associated with:
-Ankylosing spondylitis
 What is the last step in the process of
phagocytosis?
-Digestion
 What is the most common complement fraction
deficiency?
-C2
 What is the most severe complement fraction
deficiency?
-C3
 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of B
cells?
-Exhibit the CD4 antigen
 For an antibody-coated particle to be
phagocytosed, what part of the antibody molecule
must fit a receptor on the phagocytic cell?
-Fc region
 Rheumatoid factor, the antibody commonly
detected in rheumatoid arthritis, belongs to what
immunoglobulin class?
-IgM
 The complement fixation (CF) test is especially
sensitive to antibody of the IgM class. Therefore, CF
testing for antibodies should
-Yield a positive result early in infectious diseases
 A three-year-old child has a history of recurrent
bacterial pneumonia. Lymphocyte counts are
normal and skin testing with dinitrochlorobenzene
gives a positive result. What does the underlying
immunological problem most likely involve?
-. Neutrophils with a defect in intracellular killing
 The interaction between an individual antigen and
antibody molecule depends upon several types of
bonds such as ionic bonds, hydrogen bonds,
hydrophobic bonds, and van der Waals forces. How
is the strength of this attraction characterized?
-Affinity
 Which part of the radial immunodiffusion (RID) test
system contains the antisera?
-. Gel
 . What is the interpretation when an Ouchterlony
plate shows crossed lines between wells 1 and 2
(antigen is placed in the center well and antisera in
wells 1 and 2)?
 -Nonidentity between wells 1 and 2
 What comprises the indicator system in an indirect
ELISA for detecting antibody?
-Enzyme-conjugated antibody + chromogenic
substrate
 Which outcome indicates a negative result in a
complement fixation test?
-Hemolysis
 What has happened in a titer, if tube Nos. 5–7
show a stronger reaction than tube Nos.1–4?
-Prozone reaction
 What is the titer in tube No. 8 if tube No. 1 is
undiluted and dilutions are doubled?
-. 128
 The directions for a slide agglutination test instruct
that after mixing the patient’s serum and latex
particles, the slide must be rotated for 2 minutes.
What would happen if the slide were rotated for 10
minutes?
-Possible false-positive result
 . What substance is detected by the rapid plasma
reagin (RPR) and Venereal Disease Research
Laboratory (VDRL) tests for syphilis?
-Anticardiolipin antibody
 . What type of antigen is used in the RPR card test?
-Cardiolipin
 Which of the following is the most sensitive test to
detect congenital syphilis?
-Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
 A biological false-positive reaction is least likely
with which test for syphilis?
-. Fluorescent T. pallidum antibody absorption
test (FTA-ABS)
 Which test is most likely to be positive in the
tertiary stage of syphilis?
-. FTA-ABS
 Which specimen is the sample of choice to evaluate
latent or tertiary syphilis?
-CSF
 Which tests are considered screening tests for HIV?
-ELISA, 4th generation, and rapid antibody test
 Which tests are considered confirmatory tests for
HIV?
-Western blot test, HIC-1,2 differentiation assays,
and polymerase chain reaction
 Which is most likely a positive Western blot result
for infection with HIV?
-Bands at p24 and gp120
 . Which CD4:CD8 ratio is most likely in a patient
with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
-. 1:2
 All of the following hepatitis viruses are spread
through blood or blood products except:
-Hepatitis A
 . Which hepatitis B marker is the best indicator of
early acute infection?
-. HBsAg
 Which is the first antibody detected in serum after
infection with hepatitis B virus (HBV)?
-Anti-HBc IgM
 Which antibody persists in low-level carriers of
hepatitis B virus?
-IgG anti-HBc
 Which hepatitis antibody confers immunity against
reinfection with hepatitis B virus?
-. Anti-HBs
 Which statement concerning non-Forssman
heterophile antibody is true?
-. It is not absorbed by guinea pig antigen
 Given a heterophile antibody titer of 224, which of
the following results indicate IM?
- Two-tube titer reduction (Absorption with
Guinea Pig Kidney)
- Five-tube titer reduction (Absorption with
Beef Cells)
 Given a heterophile antibody titer of 224, which of
the following results indicate serum sickness?
-Five-tube titer reduction (Absorption with
Guinea Pig Kidney)
- Five-tube titer reduction (Absorption with
Beef Cells)
 2. What is the endpoint for the antistreptolysin O
(ASO) latex agglutination assay
- . Highest serum dilution that shows
agglutination
 Tube Nos. 1–4 (Todd unit 125): no hemolysis; Tube
No. 5 (Todd unit 166): hemolysis
- . Positive Todd unit 125
 . Which control shows the correct result for a valid
ASO test?
- Red cell control, no hemolysis
 . Which increase in antibody titer (dilution)
best indicates an acute infection?
- From 1:16 to 1:256
 . Serological tests for which disease may give a
falsepositive result if the patient has Lyme disease?
- Syphilis
 Small clumps of microscopic flocculent in VDRL is
reported as
- Weakly reactive
 Most widely used screening test for SLE?
- FANA
 Organ specific autoimmune disease where the
salivary gland nucleolar Antigen and Lacrimal gland
are being targeted by the autoantibody
- Sjogren
 According to Paul Ehrlich on topic about
autoimmune disease, “horror autotoxicus” means
- Fear of self- poisoning
 Casoni skin test is used for
- Hydatid infection
 Complete the ELISA test: ELISA – Solid phase
Antigen+ Patient Ab (serum) – wash -- > +
____________– wash -- > + Substrate = Product
- Labelled AHG
 Complete the reaction of Agglutination inhibition:
Sample Antigen + Reagent Antibody = Ag-Ab
complex + ____________ = No agglutination
- Particulate Ag
 Antigen mixture is separated by Electrophoresis,
then separated antigen is then diffuse with
Antibody forming precipitin band/bow
- Immunoelectrophoresis
 In the precipitation technique that James Oudin
developed, which is/are mobile towards Ag-Ab
complex?
- Antigen
 Ag-Ab bond between oppositely charged amino
acid
- Electrostatic
 Soluble Ag + soluble Ab = Insoluble complex
- Precipitation
 The optimal time of collection for Antibody test
- . Acute phase illness
 Physical inactivation of complement
- Heat at 56oC for 30min
 In complement fixation test, a hemolysis result
means
- Negative for Ab
 CH50 measures the amount of ptx serum required
to lyse ______ of a standardized concentration of
Ab-sensitized Sheep RBC
- . 50%
 Deficiency of this complement leads to Neisseria-
like infection?
- C5-C8
 This prevents attachment of the C5b67 complex to
cell membranes?
- Vitronectin
 Deficiency of this complement pathway will lead to
neonatal pneumonia and sepsis?
- Lectin
 C5 convertase in classical pathway
- C4b2a3b
 Most complement are produced in the liver except
- C1
 What is/are the CD marker/s of Killer cell?
- CD56 , CD16
 What is the specific gravity of Ficoll Hypaque?
- 1.077 ,1.114
 The most common congenital immunodeficiency?
- Selective IgA
 Theory where cells have specific receptor for
antigen before exposure called “lock and key”
- Side chain
 This is the standby area of lymphocytes where
pathogens are being trapped
- Secondary lymphoid organs
 Prosthetic heart valve is an example of what type of
graft
- Heterograft
 Its presence renders increase resistance to HIV
- HLA B8
 In NBT test, yellow granulocytes indicates
- Positive CGD
 Granulocytes move randomly and don’t respond to
chemotactic factor leading to poor directional
motility
- Lazy leukocyte
 Its greek term means “to prepare for eating”
- Opsonin
 TLR 4 is stimulated in the presence of
- Lipolysaccharide
 Discovered that chromosomes contain no intact
gene for Ig, only bldg. blocks from w/c gene can be
assembled
- Tonegawa
 What disease is indicated by a high titer of anti-Sm
(anti-Smith) antibody?
- SLE
 What type of antibodies is represented by the solid
or homogeneous pattern in the
immunofluorescence test for antinuclear
antibodies?
- Antihistone antibodies
 Which of the following is used in rapid slide tests
for detection of rheumatoid factors?
- . Fc portion of the IgG molecule
 Which immunofluorescence pattern indicates the
need for ENA testing by Ouchterlony
immunodiffusion, Multiplex, or ELISA assays?
- Speckled
 Which disease might be indicated by antibodies to
smooth muscle?
- Autoimmune hepatitis
 Which in vitro test measures IgE levels against a
specific allergen?
- Fluorescent allergosorbent test (FAST)
 Which test would measure the coating of red cells
by antibody as occurs in hemolytic transfusion
reactions?
- . Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)
 Which disease may be expected to show an IgM
spike on an electrophoretic pattern?
- . Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia