Medical Entrance Exam - 2022: Test No. 5

27-03-2022
Medical Entrance Exam - 2022
TEST No. 5
(XII Passed Students)
1. Read each question carefully. 8. Each correct answer carries four marks. One mark will be
2. It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the deducted for each incorrect answer from the total score.
appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
9. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle. should check that Roll No. and Centre Code have been filled and
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet. marked correctly.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer
10. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the
sheet. No change in the answer once marked is allowed.
answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other material
in the examination hall. 11. There are two sections in each subject i.e., Section-A & Section-B.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only
the test paper contains all pages and no page is missing. 10 questions out of 15 from Section-B.
Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.
Test No. 5
Electric Charges & Field, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance, Current

Physics Electricity
Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
Reproduction in organisms, Sexual reproduction in flowering plants, Principles of

Botany Inheritance & Variation
Zoology Reproduction in Organisms, Human Reproduction, Reproductive Health.

Test-5 (Code-E) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022
MM : 720 TEST - 5 Time : 3 Hrs.
[PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A 6. Three charges Q, –q and –2q are held at the

vertices of an equilateral triangle of side l as shown
1. The equivalent resistance between point P and Q is
in figure. If the net electrostatic potential energy of
the system is zero, then Q is equal to
q
(1) q (2)
3
R
(1) 4R (2)
4 2q 4q
(3) (4)
4R 3R 3 3
(3) (4)
3 4 a
7. A charge of magnitude q is placed at height
from
2. A steady current flows in a metallic conductor of 2
non-uniform cross section. The quantity(s) constant plane of a square surface PQRS as shown in the
along the length of conductor are figure. Then the electric flux passing through the
(i) Electric current (ii) Drift speed square surface is
(iii) Electric field
(1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (ii) and (iii) only
(3) (i) only (4) (ii) only
3. Two point charges repel each other with a force of
100 N. One of the charge is increased by 20% and
other is reduced by 20%. The new force of repulsion
at same separation would be q 3q
(1) (2)
(1) 100 N (2) 120 N 60 80
(3) 108 N (4) 96 N 5q 2q

(3) (4)
4. On moving a charge of 4 coulomb by 10 cm, 20 J 240 90
work is done, then the potential difference between
8. Two conducting wires are made up of two different
the points is
materials whose specific resistance are in the ratio
(1) 2 V (2) 4 V
3 : 2, length in ratio 1 : 3 and cross-section area in
(3) 5 V (4) 3.5 V
ratio 3 : 4. Then ratio of their resistances is
5. Electric potential in a particular region of space is
(1) 3 : 4
given by V = 6xy – 4xy2 + 3yz. The x-component of
electric field at point A(1, 1, 0) is (2) 2 : 3
(1) 2iˆ (2) 3iˆ (3) 3 : 8
(3) iˆ (4) 2iˆ (4) 4 : 9
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456
1/20
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-5 (Code-E)
9. All bulbs in the circuit shown in the figure are

identical. Which bulb will glow most brightly?
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 6 : 5
(3) 7 : 4 (4) 9 : 5
(1) A (2) B
14. Figure shows the electric field lines emerging from
(3) C (4) D
a charged body. If the electric field at P and Q are
10. A 10 volt battery of internal resistance of 2  is EP and EQ respectively and the distance between P
connected to a variable resistance. The rate of heat and Q is r, then
production in the resistor is maximum when the
current in the circuit is
(1) 1 A (2) 1.5 A
(3) 2 A (4) 2.5 A
11. In the circuit shown in following figure, the electric
charge stored on the plates of the capacitor C in
steady state is
(1) EP > EQ
(2) EP < EQ
(3) EP = EQ
EQ
(4) EP 
CV r
(1) (2) CV
2 15. If electric flux passing through a closed Gaussian
2CV surface is zero, then
(3) 2CV (4)
3 (1) Net charge inside the surface must be zero
12. The capacitance of parallel plate capacitor of plate (2) E on every point on surface must be zero
area A1 and A2 (A1 > A2) separated at distance d is
(3) E on every point on surface must be normal to
area vector
(4) Both (1) & (2)
16. If an electron is projected such that it moves in the
A10 A direction of electric field, then
(1) (2) 2 0
d d
(1) Kinetic energy will increase and potential
( A1  A2 )0 ( A1  A2 )0 energy will decrease
(3) (4)
2d 4d
(2) Kinetic energy will decrease and potential
13. Six capacitors each of capacitance C are connected energy will increase
as shown in figure. The ratio of capacitance
(3) Both kinetic and potential energy will decrease
between A and B and the capacitance between A
and C is (4) Both kinetic and potential energy will increase
2/20
17. Three uncharged capacitors of capacitance C1, C2 20. If 1 and 2 are the conductivities of two conducting
and C3 are connected as shown in figure. The wires of same length and cross-sectional area, then
potential at points A, B and C is VA, VB and VC their equivalent conductivity when they are joined in
respectively. Then the potential at point D will be series will be
1 1
(1) 1 + 2 (2) 
1 2
 1 1  21 2
(3) 2    (4)
 1 2  1   2
21. Two metallic spheres of radii R1 and R2 are

connected by a thin wire. If +q1 and + q2 are the final
C1VA  C2VB  C3VC C1VA  C2VB  C3VC charges on the two spheres then
(1) (2)
C1C2  C2C3  C1C3 C1  C2  C3 q1 R1 q1 R2
(1)  (2) 
q2 R2 q2 R1
VA  VB  VC VA  VB  VC
(3) (4)
C1  C2  C3 C1C2  C2C3  C3C1 q  R  R2 
2
q  R – R2 
2
(3) 1   1  (4) 1   1 
18. In the given circuit, calculate the current through q2  R1 – R2  q2  R1  R2 
6  resistor in the steady state condition, if internal 22. If the reading of ammeter A1 is 4 A, what will be the
resistance of battery is 1 . reading of ammeters A2 and A3? (Consider all
ammeters are ideal)
10 2
(1) 3 A; 1 A (2) A; A
3 3
(1) 1 A (2) 0.5 A
8 4 7 5
(3) 3 A (4) 6 A (3) A; A (4) A; A
3 3 3 3
19. Calculate the minimum velocity v with which charge
23. A 10 m long potentiometer wire is connected to a
q should be projected so that it just reaches at the battery, having a constant voltage, in the primary
centre of the uniformly charged ring as shown in the circuit. A cell of unknown emf is balanced at 6 m
figure. length of the wire. If the length of potentiometer wire
is reduced to 8 m, then the new balancing length will
be
(1) 4.2 m (2) 4.8 m
(3) 5.2 m (4) 5.4 m
24. Two parallel metal plates having a potential
difference of 400 V are 2 cm apart. It is found that a
kQq 2kQq particle of mass 2 × 10–15 kg remain suspended in
(1) (2) the region between the plates. The charge on the
mR mR
particle must be (g = 10 m/s2)
kQq  1  2kQq  1  (1) 10–15 C (2) 10–18 C
(3) 1   (4) 1  
mR  2 mR  2 (3) 10–19 C (4) 4 × 10–16 C
3/20
25. Which graph best represents the relation between 28. A solid sphere of radius R is charged uniformly
conductivity and resistivity for a typical conductor? throughout the volume. At what distance from its
surface is the electrostatic potential half of the
potential at the centre?
(1) 2R (2) R
(1)
R 4R
(3) (4)
3 3
29. Mass of charge Q is m and mass of charge 2Q is
2m. If both are released from rest, then what will be
kinetic energy of 2Q at infinite separation?
(2)
3kQ 2 2kQ 2
(1) (2)
5r 3r
5kQ 2 kQ 2
(3) (4)
(3) 3r 2r
30. If linear charge density of a straight wire of length l
0 x 2
depends on distance x from one end as   .
l3
Find total charge of wire.
0 l 0
(4) (1) (2)
2 2
0 0 l
(3) (4)
3 3
26. The effective resistance of two resistors in parallel
is 4 . When they are connected in series, 31. The equivalent capacitance of network shown
equivalent resistance is 18 . Then the ratio of below, between points A and B is
resistance of resistors is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
27. Three infinitely large charged sheets are kept
parallel to XY-plane having charge densities as
shown in figure. Then the value of electric field at P
is 2C
(1) (2) 6C
3
(3) 5C (4) 4C
32. A uniformly charged ring of radius R has charge Q.
Electric field at the axis of ring at a distance R from
its centre is
 2 (1)
kQ
(2)
2kQ
(1) (2)
0 0 2R 2
R2
 (3)
kQ
(4)
kQ
(3) (4) Zero
20 2 2R 2
R2
4/20
33. Three equal charges, each of charge Q, are placed 37. The electric field due to a short dipole of dipole
at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side L. moment P at point Q shown below is (symbols
Work done to move a charge Q from any corner to have usual meaning)
infinity is
kQ 2 kQ 2
(1) (2) 
L L
2kQ 2 3kQ 2
(3)  (4) 
L L
34. The value of X for which the Galvanometer in the 3kP 5kP
(1) (2)
circuit shown below shows no deflection is r 3
2r 3
7kP 5kP
(3) (4)
2r 3
r3
38. Two coaxial dipole of dipole moment P1 and P2 are
separated by a distance r. The magnitude of electric
force on P2 due to P1 is
kP1P2 2kP1P2
(1) 5 (2) 2 (1) 3
(2)
r r3
(3) 10 (4) 4
35. In given figure, charge given to outer sphere is Q. 2kP1P2 6kP1P2
(3) 4
(4)
What will be charge on inner sphere after earthing r r4
as shown in the figure? 39. A particle having charge Q and mass m is released
at a point having perpendicular distance r from a
uniformly charged long wire of linear charge density
. The initial acceleration of charge will be
2k Q k Q
(1) (2)
mr mr
Q Q 3 k Q k Q
(1) (2) – (3) (4)
2 2 2 mr 2mr
(3) Q (4) –Q 40. Two point charges are placed at corners of cube as
SECTION-B shown in the figure. Flux through shaded face will
be
36. The ratio of electric field due to a short electric
dipole of dipole moment P at point A and B i.e.,
| EA |
is
| EB |
3q q
(1) (2)
0 240
(1) 2:1 (2) 1:2 q q

(3) (4)
0 8 0
(3) 1:1 (4) 2:3
5/20
41. A 50 F capacitor is charged by a 100 V battery. 46. Two resistors of resistance R1 and R2 (R1 > R2) are
The capacitor is then disconnected from battery and connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of
connected to another uncharged 100 F capacitor. combination is R, then the correct statement is
The final electrostatic energy stored by the two (1) R > (R1 + R2) (2) R > R2
capacitor system is (3) R2 < R < R1 (4) R < R1
(1) 250 mJ (2) 125 mJ 47. The resistance of conducting wire is 20  at 0°C. If
250 150 its temperature coefficient of resistance is
(3) mJ (4) mJ 4 × 10–3/°C, then its resistance at 100° will be
3 7
(1) 20  (2) 16 
42. Mobility of free electron is
(3) 24  (4) 28 
(1) Directly proportional to relaxation time
48. In the network shown below, the equivalent
(2) Inversely proportional to relaxation time
resistance between points A and B is
(3) Directly proportional to square of electric field
(4) Inversely proportional to square of electric field
43. Masses of two wires of aluminium are in the ratio
1 : 2 and their length 3 : 5. The ratio of their
resistances is
(1) 13:19 (2) 18:25 R
(1) R (2)
(3) 17:24 (4) 13:23 2
44. Cell having an emf  and internal resistance r is 3R

(3) (4) 2R
connected across a variable external resistance R. 2
As the resistance R is increased, the plot of 49. The capacitance of a capacitor with dielectric slab
potential difference V across R is best represented of dielectric constant 3 is 6 F. If the dielectric slab
by is removed, the new capacitance is
(1) 6 F (2) 18 F
(3) 12 F (4) 2 F
(1) (2) 50. The ratio of currents as measured by ammeter in
two cases when the key (k) is open and when the
key is closed will be
(3) (4)
45. A block of mass M having charge Q is kept at rest

4
on a smooth inclined plane of inclination 30°. The (1)
7
minimum electric field (E ) required to maintain the
8
block in equilibrium is (2)
9
Mg 3Mg 3
(1) (2) (3)
2Q 2Q 4
Mg 2Mg 7
(3) (4) (4)
Q Q 11
6/20
[CHEMISTRY]
SECTION-A (1) (a), (b), (c) only
(2) (a), (c) only
51. Molecule which gives fastest SN1 reaction is
(3) (b), (c) only
(4) (a), (b), (d) only
(1) (2)
56. Match the reactions given in column I with their
major products given in column II
Column I Column II
(3) (4)
a. CH CH OH 
H2SO4
 (i) CH3OH
3 2 443 K
52. Select the major product in the following reaction

b. CH CH OH 
H2SO4
 (ii) CH3CH2OH
3 2 413 K
ZnOCr2O3
c. CO  2H  (iii) CH2 = CH2
2 200 300 atm
573 673 K
(1) (2)
d. CH CHO  H 
Pd
 (iv) C2H5OC2H5
3 2
(3) (4) (1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
53. Which of the following alcohols gives red colour in
57. The alkane that gives only two monochloro products
Victor Meyer test?
on chlorination with Cl2 in the presence of diffused
sunlight is
(1)
(1) CH3CH3 (2)
(2) (3) CH3CH2CH3 (4) (CH3)4C

(3) CH3CH2OH 58. Select the incorrect statement(s) about SN1 reaction
mechanism.
(4) (a) Occurs in two steps
54. Identify chiral molecule among the following. (b) Carbocation intermediate is formed
(c) Rearranged product(s) may be obtained
(1) (2)
(d) The rate of reaction depends upon the
concentration of alkyl halide and nucleophile
(1) (a) and (b) only
(3) (4) CH3CH2 – Br (2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only
55. Elimination reaction of 2-bromopentane to form
(4) Only (d)
pent-2-ene is
59. Ethylene oxide when treated with Grignard reagent
(a) -elimination reaction
followed by hydrolysis produces
(b) Follows Hofmann's rule
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction (1) Primary alcohol (2) Secondary alcohol
(d) Dehydration reaction (3) Tertiary alcohol (4) An aldehyde
7/20
68. Fastest SN2 reaction is observed in
60. (1) C6H5CH2Br

(2) C6H5CH(C6H5)Br
Presence of which of the following groups on (3) C6H5CH(CH3)Br

haloarene at ortho- or para-positions enhances the (4) C6H5C(CH3)(C6H5)Br
reaction rate?
69. Select an incorrect statement about SN2 reaction
(1) –CH3 (2) –OCH3
mechanism.
(3) –NO2 (4) –OH
(1) In case of optically active alkyl halides, SN2
61. Correct order of dipole moment of the given
reactions are accompanied by racemization
molecules is
(1) CH3 – F > CH3 – Cl > CH3 – Br > CH3 – I (2) SN2 reactions of optically active halides are
(2) CH3 – Cl > CH3 – Br > CH3 – I > CH3 – F accompanied by inversion of configuration
(3) CH3 – I > CH3 – Br > CH3 – Cl > CH3 – F (3) No intermediate species is formed
(4) CH3 – Cl > CH3 – F > CH3 – Br > CH3 – I (4) In transition state, reacting carbon centre is
62. Freon 12 is manufactured from tetrachloromethane simultaneously bonded to five atoms
by
70. Acetylation of salicylic acid produces
(1) Wurtz reaction
(1) Aspirin (2) DDT
(2) Swarts reaction
(3) Corey-House reaction (3) Picric acid (4) Anisole
(4) Sandmeyer’s reaction 71. Which of the following biphenyls is optically active?
63. Which one of the following compounds will be most
readily dehydrated in acidic medium?
(1) CH3CH2OH (2) (CH3)3C – OH (1)
(3) CH3OH (4)
64. Which of the following is an ambident nucleophile?

(1) H2O (2) OH–
(2)
(3) NO2 (4) CH3O–
65. R – X + KCN  (P) + KX
Major product
In the above reaction, (P) is
(3)
(1) RCH2NH2 (2) RN2 X
(3) R – CN (4) R – NC
66. Which of the following class of alkyl halides are
often prepared by Finkelstein reaction? (4)
(1) Alkyl chlorides (2) Alkyl bromides
72. Ether, that cannot be prepared by Williamson’s
(3) Alkyl fluorides (4) Alkyl iodides
synthesis, is
67. Select the most acidic compound among the
following.
(1) CH3OH (2) (1) CH3OCH3 (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4) CH3 – O – C6H5
8/20
73. Strongest nucleophile in polar protic solvent is (1)

(1) F–
(2) Cl– (2)
(3) PhO–
(4) I–
(3)
74. Which of the following in not chiral?
(1) 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid
(2) 2-Butanol (4)
(3) 2,3-Dibromopentane
(4) 3-Bromopentane 78. The reaction(s) that does not give an acid as the
75. Which of the following substituted phenols is the major product is/are
strongest acid?
(I)
(1) (2) (II)
K Cr O
(III) CH3CH2OH 
2 2 7

H
(1) I only (2) II Only

(3) (4) (3) I and II only (4) I, II and III
79. Major product in the following reaction is
76.
(1) An ether (2) An alkene

Which of the following product will be formed in the (3) An alcohol (4) An alkane
above reaction?
80.
(1) (2) X is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
81. Which of the following reagents would distinguish

77. (Major), cis-cyclohexane-1, 2-diol from its trans-isomer?
(1) MnO2 (2) Acetaldehyde
what is X? (3) Conc. H2SO4 (4) Br2 water
9/20
82. In Reimer-Tiemann reaction, which one of the 87. Statement I : When phenol is treated with bromine
following functional groups is finally introduced in water, 2,4,6-tribromophenol is formed.
phenol ring? Statement II : 2,4,6-tribromophenol is a white
(1) –CH2OH coloured compound.
(2) –OCH3 In the light of above statements choose the correct
option among the following
(3) –CHO
(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(4) –OH
(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
83. Which one of the following is not a product of
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
dehydration of the compound in
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct
acidic medium?
88.
(1) (2)
Product (Z) is
(3) (4) (1) (2)
84. CH3MgBr + CH3NH2 

Major product formed in the above reaction is (3) (4)
(1) C2H5NH2
(2) CH4
(3) CH3 – NHBr 89. P(Major)
(4) C2H5MgBr
85. Chloroform is slowly oxidized by air in the presence Major product ‘P’ in the reaction is
of light to give a poisonous gas known as
(1) Syn gas (1)
(2) Marsh gas
(3) Carbonyl chloride
(4) Carbon tetrachloride
(2)
SECTION-B
86. Among the following, molecule with the highest

boiling point is (3)
(1) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br (2)
(4)
(3) (4) CH3CH2CH2Br
10/20
LiAlH PBr
Ethanal   X   Y 
4 3 alc. KOH
95. 
Z
90.
The product Z is
Major product in the above reaction is (1) Acetic acid (2) Ethanol
(3) Ethene (4) Dimethyl ether
(1)
96. Which of the following alcohol produces immediate
turbidity when treated with Lucas reagent?
(2) (1) CH3OH (2) (CH3)2CH – OH
(3) (CH3)3C – OH (4) C2H5OH
(3) 97. The commercial alcohol is made unfit for drinking by
mixing it with
(1) Copper sulphate (2) Potassium sulphate
(4) (3) Zinc sulphate (4) Sodium sulphate
98. Which among the following is most suitable solvent
91. C2H5Br + Mg  C2H5MgBr
for SN1 reaction?
Grignard reagent
(1) Water (2) DMSO
For the above reaction most suitable solvent is
(3) Benzene (4) Acetone
(1) H2O (2) CH3OH
(3) CH3COOH (4) Dry ether
92. Which of the following alcohols is produced by 99.
destructive distillation of wood?
(1) Ethanol (2) Methanol In the above reaction, molecule (X) is
(3) Propanol (4) Butanol
93. How many stereoisomers does the following (1) (2)
compound have?
CH3 – CH = CH – CH2CHBrCH3
(1) 2
(2) 3 (3) (4)
(3) 4
(4) 6
100.
94. C12H22O11 + H2O  C6H12O6 + C6H12O6
Sucrose Glucose Fructose
Product (C) is
Above reaction is catalyzed by the presence of
which enzyme? (1) (2)
(1) Zymase
(2) Invertase
(3) Maltase (3) (4)
(4) Urease
11/20
[BOTANY]
SECTION-A 107. When two fusing gametes belong to different
parents then such species are called
101. In F1 generation, a typical monohybrid test cross
(1) Homothallic (2) Heterothallic
shows phenotypic ratio as
(3) Heterogametic (4) Homogametic
(1) 1 : 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
108. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. life span of
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
organisms.
102. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. sickle cell
(1) It is a specific trait of each organism
anaemia.
(2) It varies from few days to several thousand
(1) Individual showing HbAHbS genotype are
years
normal but they are carrier of the disease
(2) It is an autosomal dominant disorder (3) It depends on size or complexity of organism
(3) The mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes (4) It is the period from birth to the natural death of
polymerisation under low O 2 tension. an organism
(4) It is caused due to replacement of glutamic acid 109. In a typical anther, two anther lobes are separated
at 6th position of -chain of haemoglobin by by a deep grove in front and are attached to each
valine other by a band of vasculated sterile tissue called
103. ABO blood grouping in human being shows (1) Thalamus (2) Filament
(1) Only dominance - recessive alleles interaction (3) Line of dehiscence (4) Connective
(2) Multiple allelism and incomplete dominance 110. The sex organs in Chara are
(3) Pleiotropy (1) Unicelled and covered by jacket
(4) Multiple allelism and co-dominance (2) Multicelled and unjacketed

104. Term ‘linkage’ was coined by (3) Multicelled and covered by jacket
(1) Alfred Sturtevant (4) Unicelled and unjacketed
(2) Mendel 111. Embryo formation is present in all the following plant
(3) T.H. Morgan groups, except
(4) Sutton and Boveri (1) Bryophytes (2) Pteridophytes
105. Chromosomal disorders (3) Gymnosperms (4) Algae
(1) Are caused due to imbalance in chromosome 112. Which among the following is not the part of anther
number and chromosomal rearrangement wall layers in a typical anther?
(2) Can be exemplified by colour blindness (1) Endothecium
(3) Are due to the formation of mutant allele and (2) Sporogenous tissue
their defective products (3) Middle layers
(4) Are always passed from one generation to (4) Tapetum
another
113. Among the following plants, insect pollination
106. Select the incorrect match. occurs in
(1) Zoospore – Chlamydomonas (1) Zostera
(2) Conidia – Penicillium (2) Water lily
(3) Budding – Amoeba (3) Vallisneria
(4) Binary fission – Paramoecium (4) Hydrilla
12/20
114. All of the following features are of insect pollinated 121. In which of the following sets, pollen grains for
flowers, except pollination comes from the same plant?
(1) These are generally large-sized (1) Geitonogamy and Xenogamy
(2) These are colourful and have fragrance (2) Xenogamy and Autogamy
(3) They have light and non-sticky pollen grains (3) Geitonogamy and Autogamy
(4) They have nectaries (4) Xenogamy and Cleistogamy
115. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. post-fertilization 122. During megasporogenesis in angiosperms,
events. megaspore mother cell
(1) Ovule – Seed (1) Undergoes mitosis to form four megaspores
(2) Ovary – Fruit (2) Forms a linear tetrad of four haploid
(3) Integument – Endosperm megaspores
(4) Zygote – Embryo (3) Forms a dyad of diploid megaspores
116. Parthenocarpic fruits (4) Undergoes meiosis to form four egg cells
(1) Always develop after fertilization process 123. Select the incorrect match
(2) Bear seeds (1) Point mutation – Sickle cell anaemia
(3) Can be produced through application of auxin
(2) Chromosomal – Cancer cell
(4) Can be exemplified with the help of apple and aberration
strawberry
(3) Frame-shift – Substitution of thymine
117. Remnant of nucellus is seen in seeds of
mutation with cytosine
(1) Black pepper (2) Wheat
(4) UV radiation – Mutagen
(3) Bean (4) Coconut
118. Triploid primary endosperm nucleus is produced by 124. Individual inflicted with Down’s syndrome have all of
fusion of the following characters, except
(1) Two male gametes (1) Flat back of head
(2) Male gamete and egg (2) Big and wrinkled tongue
(3) Two polar nuclei (3) Trisomy of chromosome number 22
(4) Two polar nuclei and a male gamete (4) Congenital heart disease
119. Select the correct match w.r.t. pollen viability 125. In phenylketonuria,
period. (1) Polyploidy is seen
(1) Rice – 30 days (2) Conversion of tyrosine into phenylalanine
(2) Potato – Several years occurs
(3) Pea – 10 minutes (3) Phenylalanine accumulates in the body
(4) Wheat – 30 minutes (4) Phenylalanine is not converted into
120. The outer layer of wall of pollen grain phenylpyruvic acid
(1) Is made up of sporopollenin which is not 126. Which among the following disorders is autosomal
resistant to enzymes action. dominant?
(2) Exhibits a fascinating array of patterns and (1) Sickle-cell anaemia
design which is of taxonomic significance (2) Haemophilia
(3) Has germ pore, where sporopollenin is present (3) Myotonic dystrophy
(4) Is made up of pectin and hemicellulose (4) Klinefelter’s syndrome
13/20
127. Phenomenon that leads to variation in DNA is/are 133. Read the following statements and select the
(1) Recombination (2) Translation correct option
(3) Mutation (4) Both (1) and (3) Statement A : Unmodified allele, which represent
the original phenotype is the dominant allele.
128. Select the recessive traits for pea plant varieties,
taken by Mendel in his experiment. Statement B : Modified allele is generally the
recessive allele or mutant type.
Yellow seed colour, White flower colour, Yellow
(1) Only statement A is correct
pod colour, Terminal flower position, Tall stem,
Inflated pod shape (2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both the statements are incorrect
(1) 4 (2) 3
(4) Both the statements are correct
(3) 2 (4) 5
134. Mendel conducted his hybridization experiment for
129. According to ABO blood grouping, what would be
a period of
the phenotype of the individual whose parents have
O blood group? (1) 7 years (2) 5 years
(1) AB (2) A (3) 17 years (4) 2 years
(3) O (4) B 135. Inheritance of only one of the parental trait in a

monohybrid cross in the F1 generation is explained
130. T.H. Morgan used Drosophila melanogaster as a
by
suitable material for his experimental genetics
because of the following reasons, except (1) Law of segregation
(1) It grows on simple synthetic medium in the (2) Law of dominance

laboratory (3) Law of independent assortment
(2) Single mating produces hundreds of offsprings (4) Test cross
(3) They have very few hereditary variation SECTION-B
(4) They have a short life cycle of about 2 weeks
136. Breaking of vegetative propagule in Eichhornia
131. Sex in humans is determined due to reason that helps in its propagation. This structure is called
(1) Female produce two types of ova during (1) Rhizome (2) Runner
gametogenesis
(3) Offset (4) Bulbil
(2) Male individual produce similar types of sperms
137. Flowering plants such as Mango, Apple and
during gametogenesis
Jackfruit are
(3) Both male and female produce heterogametes
(1) Monocarpic plants
(4) 50% of total sperm produced possess the X-
(2) Biennial plants
chromosome and the rest 50% has Y-
chromosomes (3) Annual plants
132. When abnormal egg (22 + 0) fuses with a normal (4) Polycarpic plants
sperm in humans, such individual have 138. Select the correct statement regarding asexual
reproduction
(1) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(1) Mostly biparental and uniparental in some
(2) Chromosomal disorder caused due to
monosomy cases
(3) Short stature with overall masculine (2) Slow and elaborated process
development (3) It can occur with and without gamete formation
(4) Mendelian disorder (4) Gametic fusion is present
14/20
139. Sexual reproduction leads to 144. Which amongst the following is the oldest and viable
(1) Variation by generating new genetic seed recorded?
combinations (1) Cocos nucifera (2) Phoenix dactylifera
(2) Formation of morphologically and genetically (3) Orobanche (4) Oxalis
similar individuals 145. Which of the following cells inside the embryo sac
(3) Formation of vegetative propagules guides the entry of pollen tube?
(4) Formation of clones (1) Central cell (2) Egg
140. How many of organisms in the box given below (3) Antipodal (4) Synergid
have morphologically distinct type of fusing 146. The genes which are linked together
gametes?
(1) Show independent segregation
Cladophora, Chara, Volvox, Synchytrium, (2) Follow 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 phenotypic ratio for F2
Rhizopus, Ulothrix generation.
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) Show significant deviation in phenotypic ratio in

F2 generation
(3) 5 (4) 2
(4) Shows linkage in monohybrid cross only
141. Match the following columns and select the correct
147. Total number of possible genotypes for ABO blood
option w.r.t. an anther of typical stamen
type in humans is
Column I Column II (1) 6 (2) 4
a. Epidermis (i) Degenerates at (3) 10 (4) 3

maturity 148. In sickle cell anaemia, the mRNA that synthesizes
 chain of haemoglobin in the individual has _____
b. Middle layer (ii) Innermost anther in place of GAG
wall layer
(1) CUC (2) GUG
c. Endothecium (iii) Single layered and (3) AGA (4) GUA
protective 149. Consanguineous mating is shown by which of the
d. Tapetum (iv) Help in dehiscence following symbol in human pedigree analysis?
of anther (1) (2)
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (3) (4)
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
150.
142. Scutellum, a structure found in embryo of certain
plants is a
(1) Single cotyledon in dicots
(2) Single cotyledon in monocots
(3) Remains of second cotyledon in monocots
(4) Root primordia in dicots
According to the given pedigree chart, the
143. Pollen-grains are shed at which stage in 60% of individuals can be affected by which of the following
angiosperms? disorders?
(1) 3-celled stage (1) Sickle-cell anaemia
(2) 2-celled stage (2) Myotonic dystrophy
(3) Single-celled stage (3) Haemophilia
(4) 4-celled stage (4) Colour blindness
15/20
[ZOOLOGY]
SECTION-A 157. Select the correct option to complete the analogy.
Bulbourethral glands : Lubricate the penis :: _____:
151. Secretion of which of the following hormone
Lubricate the vagina
decreases during the time of pregnancy?
(1) FSH (2) Oestrogen (1) Cowper’s glands (2) Seminal vesicles
(3) Progesterone (4) Cortisol (3) Prostate gland (4) Bartholin’s glands
152. The signals for parturition originate 158. Select the correct sequence of the milk flow in
(1) Only from fully developed foetus mammary glands.
(2) Only from fully developed placenta (1) Mammary duct  Mammary alveoli 
(3) From fully developed foetus and placenta Mammary tubules  Mammary ampulla
(4) From oxytocin released by maternal pituitary (2) Mammary alveoli  Mammary tubules 
153. The structural and functional unit between foetus Mammary duct  Mammary ampulla
and maternal body is called
(3) Mammary alveoli  Mammary duct 
(1) Amnion (2) Yolk sac
Mammary tubules  Mammary ampulla
(3) Placenta (4) Umbilical cord
(4) Mammary ampulla  Mammary tubules 
154. How many hormones given below in the box are
produced by placenta? Mammary alveoli  Mammary duct
159. For parturition, birth canal is formed by
hPL, hCG, Oestrogen, Progestogen
(1) Only cervical canal
Choose the correct option.
(2) Only vagina
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Fallopian tubes and womb
(3) One (4) Four
155. In external genitalia of human female, fleshy folds (4) Cervical canal and vagina
of tissue which extend down from the mons pubis 160. How many among the following given statements
are called are correct w.r.t. ovary?
(1) Labia minora (2) Labia majora (a) Ovaries are primary sex organs in females.
(3) Hymen (4) Clitoris
(b) Stroma of ovary is divided into peripheral cortex
156. Match column I with column II and choose the and inner medulla.
correct option.
(c) Each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium
Column I Column II which encloses the ovarian stroma.
a. After 1st month of (i) Appearance of hair
pregnancy on the head of
foetus (1) Zero (2) One
b. By the end of 2nd (ii) Embryo’s heart is (3) Two (4) Three
month of formed
161. Fusion of sperm with ovum occurs in _____ region
pregnancy
of oviduct.
c. During the 5th (iii) Limbs and digits
month of develop in foetus Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
pregnancy (1) Ampulla (2) Isthmus
a b c (3) Infundibulum (4) Fimbriae
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) 162. How many ova would be formed from three primary
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) oocytes?
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (1) Three (2) Six
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (3) Four (4) Two
16/20
163. Read the following given statements and choose (1) A – Filled with enzymes that help in
the correct option. fertilization of the ovum
Statement A : A large number of couples all over
(2) B – Contains an elongated haploid nucleus
the world including India are infertile.
Statement B : Infertility could be only due to (3) C – Contains proximal centriole which plays
immunological or psychological disturbances. a crucial role during the first cleavage of
(1) Only statement A is correct fertilised ovum, and distal centriole
(2) Only statement B is correct which forms the axial filament
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) D – Aids in sperm motility
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
169. Select the incorrect statement regarding life span.
164. Oral contraceptive pills help in birth control by
(1) Enhancing sperm motility (1) Life spans of organisms are not necessarily
(2) Killing ovum correlated with their sizes.
(3) Preventing ovulation and implantation (2) No individual is immortal except protozoans.
(4) No effect on the quality of cervical mucus
(3) It is the period from birth to the natural death of
165. Select an option which contains the correct
an organism.
properties, explaining condoms being one of the
most popular contraceptives. (4) Cow has shorter life span as compared to
a. Help in reducing the risk of STIs crocodile.
b. Do not interfere with coital act 170. Which of the following is an incorrect pair w.r.t.
c. Inexpensive
chromosome number in gamete?
d. User–friendly
(1) Human beings – 23
(1) Only a and b (2) Only b and c
(3) Only a, b and c (4) a, b, c and d (2) Rat – 21
166. In which of the following methods, the egg is (3) Dog – 28
fertilized outside the body and is then inserted into
the oviduct? (4) Fruit fly –4
(1) AI (2) IUI 171. High concentration of LH leads to release of
(3) GIFT (4) ZIFT (1) Ootid from the primary follicle
167. Select the odd one w.r.t. female mammals
(2) Ovum from the secondary follicle
exhibiting oestrus cycle.
(1) Sheep (2) Cows (3) Ovum from the tertiary follicle
(3) Apes (4) Dogs (4) Ovum from the Graafian follicle
168. Observe the following given structure of human 172. The fusion of female gamete with male gamete is
spermatozoa with the labellings A, B, C and D.
Choose the option containing the correct function called
of the labelled part concerned with it. (1) Embryogenesis
(2) Gametogenesis
(3) Fertilization
(4) Spermatogenesis
173. Human egg releases second polar body
(1) Before the entry of sperm within ovum
(2) After the entry of sperm within ovum
(3) Spontaneously with no relation to sperm entry
(4) After fusion of haploid nuclei of sperm and ovum
17/20
174. Match column I with column II w.r.t. uterus and

choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
a. Middle thick muscle (i) Endometrium
layer of womb
b. Uterine mucosa (ii) Perimetrium
c. Thin membranous (iii) Myometrium
layer
A B C
a b c
(1) GnRH LH hCG
(1) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) Gonado- Progesterone FSH
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) trophins
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (3) GnRH FSH/LH Oestrogen/
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) Progesterone
175. Select the incorrect match. (4) Gonado- LH/FSH Oestrogen/
trophins Progesterone
(1) Caput epididymis – Head part of
epididymis 179. Read the following w.r.t. normal menstrual cycle in
human females.
(2) Cowper’s glands – Male accessory
glands (a) Longest phase, of about 14 days
(b) Ruptured follicle under the influence of LH,
(3) Sustentacular cells – Provide nourishment
develops into corpus luteum
to the male germ
cells (c) High levels of oestrogen and progesterone
during this period inhibits FSH
(4) Ectopic pregnancy – Pregnancy with
genetic abnormality Choose the phase of menstrual cycle from the given
options which correctly matches with the above
176. How many statements among the following are true given descriptions.
w.r.t. inhibin? (1) Menstrual phase (2) Follicular phase
(a) In males, it is secreted by Leydig cells. (3) Ovulatory phase (4) Luteal phase
(b) In males, it inhibits LH synthesis. 180. Identify the human developmental stage shown in
(c) In females, it is produced by granulosa cells in the diagram below and its site of occurrence in a
ovary. normal human female.
Choose the suitable option.
(1) Zero (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
177. Which of the following enzyme is involved in the
digestion of zona pellucida?
(1) Acrosin only
Select the correct option.
(2) Hyaluronidase only
Developmental Site of
(3) Corona penetrating enzyme only stage occurrence
(4) Acrosin and corona penetrating enzyme (1) Blastocyst Uterus
178. Observe the following given incomplete flow chart (2) Early morula Fallopian tube
of hormonal control of female reproductive system.
(3) Blastula Ovary
Choose the correct labelling combination among
the given options in order to complete the flow chart. (4) Late morula Infundibulum
18/20
181. Assertion (A): The entry of sperm into ovum SECTION-B

induces completion of meiotic division of secondary
oocyte. 186. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. ploidy.
Reason (R): Entry of sperm causes breakdown of (1) Primary Diploid
MPF and turns on APC. spermatocyte
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (2) Secondary oocyte Diploid
correct explanation of (A).
(3) Oogonium Diploid
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A). (4) Spermatogonium Diploid
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect. 187. Select the correct statement w.r.t. secretions of
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct. male accessory sex glands.
182. Medical termination of pregnancy is considered (1) Secretions of epididymis, vas deferens, seminal
relatively safe upto how many weeks of pregnancy vesicles and prostate gland are essential for
on the opinion of one registered medical
maturation and motility of sperms.
practitioner?
(2) Seminal plasma is also termed semen.
(1) Twelve weeks (2) Eighteen weeks
(3) Sixteen weeks (4) Twenty six weeks (3) Seminal plasma is rich in glucose and
potassium while enzymes are absent.
183. Identify the correct set of STIs mentioned below,
which are only caused due to viral pathogens. (4) The secretion from Cowper’s glands provides
(1) Gonorrhea, Genital warts characteristic odour to the seminal fluid.
(2) Syphilis, Genital herpes 188. Fluid filled cavity, antrum is a characteristic feature
(3) Trichomoniasis, AIDS of
(4) Genital herpes, Genital warts (1) Primary follicle (2) Secondary follicle
184. Select an incorrect match w.r.t. methods of (3) Tertiary follicle (4) Primary oocyte
contraception. 189. Complete the analogy w.r.t. life span.
(1) IUD : CuT Tortoise : 100 to 150 years :: Crow : _____
(2) Barrier method : Condom (1) 10 years (2) 15 years
(3) Surgical method : Vasectomy (3) 20 years (4) 25 years
(4) Natural method : Vault 190. Which of the following layer exhibits strong
contractions of uterus during delivery of the baby?
185. Match the IUDs listed in column I with column II and
(1) Perimetrium (2) Perimysium
select the correct option.
(3) Endometrium (4) Myometrium
Column I Column II
a. Progestasert (i) Copper-ions 191. Emergency contraceptives containing estrogen-
releasing IUD progesterone combination may prevent pregnancy
if used within 72 hours of
b. Lippes loop (ii) Non-medicated IUD
c. Multiload 375 (iii) Hormone-releasing (1) Implantation (2) Placenta formation
IUD (3) Coitus (4) Menstruation
a b c 192. A national level approach to build up a
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) reproductively healthy society was taken up in India
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) under the title ‘family planning’ in the year
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (1) 1943 (2) 1951

(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (3) 1963 (4) 1974
19/20
193. Statutory ban on amniocentesis is for 197. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Detecting the presence of certain genetic (1) World population in 1900 – 2 billion
disorders in unborn foetus.
(2) World population in 2000 – 6 billion
(2) Determining the survivability of the foetus
(3) World population in 2011 – 11.8 billion
(3) Sex-determination
(4) Indian population in 2011 – 1.2 billion
(4) Detecting cleft-palate in developing foetus
198. Read the following statements w.r.t. infertility and
194. What are the causes of higher population growth choose the correct option.
among the following given options?
Statement A : Primary infertility is a condition in
a. Increase in the number of people in the which the conception has not occurred even once.
reproductive age group Statement B : Secondary infertility is a condition in
b. Rapid increase in MMR which the conception has not occurred after first
pregnancy.
c. Rapid decline in IMR
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(1) a and b (3) Only statement A is correct
(2) a and c (4) Only statement B is correct
(3) b and c 199. Match the terms listed in column I with column II and
select the correct option.
(4) a, b and c
Column I Column II
195. Read the given statements w.r.t an ideal
contraceptive and state them as true (T) or false (F). a. Oligospermia (i) Embryo formation
a. It should interfere with libido. b. Trophoblast (ii) Low sperm motility

c. Inner cell mass (iii) Low sperm count
b. It should be easily available.
d. Asthenozoospermia (iv) Chorionic villi
c. It should be effective and reversible with no or
least side effects. (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
a b c
200. Reproductively healthy society is the one with
(1) T T F people having
(2) F T F (1) Normal emotional interaction among them but
(3) F T T having non-functional reproductive organs
(2) Physically and functionally normal reproductive
(4) T F F
organs and normal emotional and behavioural
196. Oral contraceptive pills are made up of interactions among them in all sex-related
(1) Progestogen – testosterone combinations aspects.
(3) Only functionally normal reproductive organs
(2) Progestogen – oestrogen combinations
and no social interaction among them.
(3) Oestrogen only (4) Physically normal reproductive organs but not
(4) Oestrogen – testosterone combinations normal behavioural interaction among them.


20/20
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Medical Entrance Exam - 2022: Test No. 5

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Medical Entrance Exam - 2022: Test No. 5

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27-03-2022

Medical Entrance Exam - 2022

Electric Charges & Field, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance, Current

Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Reproduction in organisms, Sexual reproduction in flowering plants, Principles of

Zoology Reproduction in Organisms, Human Reproduction, Reproductive Health.

MM : 720 TEST - 5 Time : 3 Hrs.

SECTION-A 6. Three charges Q, –q and –2q are held at the

(3) 108 N (4) 96 N 5q 2q

(1) 2iˆ (2) 3iˆ (3) 3 : 8

(3) iˆ (4) 2iˆ (4) 4 : 9

9. All bulbs in the circuit shown in the figure are

21. Two metallic spheres of radii R1 and R2 are

(1) 2:1 (2) 1:2 q q

44. Cell having an emf  and internal resistance r is 3R

45. A block of mass M having charge Q is kept at rest

52. Select the major product in the following reaction

(2) (3) CH3CH2CH3 (4) (CH3)4C

68. Fastest SN2 reaction is observed in

60. (1) C6H5CH2Br

Presence of which of the following groups on (3) C6H5CH(CH3)Br

64. Which of the following is an ambident nucleophile?

(3) (4) (3) (4) CH3 – O – C6H5

73. Strongest nucleophile in polar protic solvent is (1)

(1) (2) (II)

(1) I only (2) II Only

(1) An ether (2) An alkene

81. Which of the following reagents would distinguish

(3) (4) (1) (2)

84. CH3MgBr + CH3NH2 

86. Among the following, molecule with the highest

(1) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br (2)

(3) Pleiotropy (1) Unicelled and covered by jacket

(4) Multiple allelism and co-dominance (2) Multicelled and unjacketed

(4) Sutton and Boveri (1) Bryophytes (2) Pteridophytes

105. Chromosomal disorders (3) Gymnosperms (4) Algae

(2) Can be exemplified by colour blindness (1) Endothecium

(1) AB (2) A (3) 17 years (4) 2 years

(3) O (4) B 135. Inheritance of only one of the parental trait in a

(1) It grows on simple synthetic medium in the (2) Law of dominance

(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) Show significant deviation in phenotypic ratio in

a. Epidermis (i) Degenerates at (3) 10 (4) 3

174. Match column I with column II w.r.t. uterus and

181. Assertion (A): The entry of sperm into ovum SECTION-B

(3) Surgical method : Vasectomy (3) 20 years (4) 25 years

(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (1) 1943 (2) 1951

a. It should interfere with libido. b. Trophoblast (ii) Low sperm motility

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