CPP-21 FOR

REGULAR
MEDICAL-2021-22

Physics
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Alternating Current

1. The impedence of a series LCR circuit varies with

1
frequency of applied voltage source as below (1) 2A (2) A
2
z
1
(3) 2 2 A (4) A
3z0 2 2
z0 4. The value of C if circuit becomes resonant after
closing the key is

 L
1 0 2 C
Identify the correct option C
R K

(1) At  = 1 current lags the source emf by
3
radians V = Vosin t


(2) At  = 2 current leads the source emf by 1
6 (1) C (2) (C+C)
L
radians
1 2
(3) o = 12 (3) C (4) C
2L 2L
(4) All of these
5. A series LCR circuit is in resonance at a frequency
Q o
2.  = o . At  = , the best phasor diagram
4 2
representing the relation between current and
t voltage phasor is
O 2
The graph between charge Q in coulomb and time
VR
t in second is parabolic. The average current in the VC VR VC io
interval 0 to 4 second is io
(1) 2 amp. (2) 1 amp. (1) (2)
(3) 16 amp. (4) 4 amp.
VL VL
3. The r.m.s. value of current for one teric period in the
above diagram which is plotted between i and t is

(A)
i
VR
4 VL io VL VR
io
2
10 (3) (4)
t
0 4 (s) VC
VC

–4

(1)
Alternating Current Aakash Institute
10. In an AC LCR series, R = 100 . W hen
R C L capacitance ‘C’ is removed the current lags behind
6. 
the voltage by . When inductance L is removed,
3


the current leads the voltage by . The impedance
If current consider the following ac circuit, from the 3
source is plotted against frequency of voltage of the series combination circuit is
source, the graph is best respected by (1) 50  (2) 100 

i (3) 200  (4) 400 

11. An inductor of inductance 10 mH and capacitor of
(1) capacitance 5F are in LC oscillation. If maximum

0
energy stored in capacitor is 2J, the maximum
current in the circuit is
i (1) 0.2A (2) 2A
(2) (3) 20A (4) 5A

12. The peak value of alternating e.m.f E is given by E
= Eocost, is 20 volt and frequency is 50 Hz. The
i average value of e.m.f is (The average is taken over
first half of time period)
(3)

20  2 10  2
(1) volt (2) volt
 
i
10
(3) volt (4) Zero
(4) 
0  13. In the circuit shown, rms current is 11 A. The
potential difference across the inductor is
7. A transformer has NP = 30 turns in primary and NS
= 2500 turns in the secondary. If the input voltage V = 200 volt
is V = 200Sin(t), then the r.m.s. voltage across V
the secondary coil is approximately L R = 20
(1) 1000 volt (2) 1100 volt C
(3) 1200 volt (4) 11786.9 volt

8. In an L-C circuit consisting of 20 mH inductor and ~

0.1 F capacitor, the maximum current in the 220V, 50Hz
circuit is 0.15A. The maximum voltage across the
capacitor is approximately
(1) 220 volt (2) 300 volt
(1) 60 volt (2) 75 volt (3) 200 volt (4) Zero
(3) 67 volt (4) 57 volt 14. In the circuit shown below what will be the reading
of voltmeter (V1) and ammeter ?
9. An ac is given by I = I0 Sin (t) + 2 . The ratio
of average to rms current in the circuit in one full 100
cycle is V1
V V
A
300V 300V
1 2
(1) 2I0 (2) 2
I 4
0 ~
220V, 50Hz

2 I20  4 (1) 200V, 1A (2) 800V, 2A

(3) (4)
I0  2 2 (3) 220V, 2A (4) 220V, 2.2A
(2)
Aakash Institute Alternating Current
15. In an oscillating LC circuit, maximum current in 20. In an LC circuit, the capacitor has maximum
inductor is Io . The current in inductor when the
energy is stored equally between the electric and  d 
charge q0. The value of  dt  is
magnetic field is  max

Io Io L
(1) (2) C
2 2

Io Io
(3) (4)
4 2 2
16. An Alternating Current circuit consists of a qo qo
resistance and an ideal choke coil in series. The (1) (2)
LC LC
resistance is of 220 and choke coil is of 0.7H.
The power absorbed from 220V and 50Hz source
qo qo
connected with the circuit is (3) 1 (4) 1
LC LC
(1) 55 W (2) 220 W
(3) 110 W (4) 440 W 21. A bulb and a capacitor are connected in series to an
a.c. mains. Some activity is done and the bulb glows
17. An R–L–C circuit containing a 52 resistor, a 230 brighter. The activity may be
mH inductor and a 8.8 F capacitor is driven by an
A.C voltage source that has an amplitude of 150V (1) That the frequency of source was increased
and frequency  = 80 Hz. How much average power (2) That the frequency of source was decreased
is dissipated by this circuit ?
(3) That the locations of bulb and capacitor were
(1) Zero (2) 78.6 W interchanged
(3) 39.3 W (4) 19.6 W (4) That the plates of capacitor were pulled apart using
18. The rms value of current given by the equation  = insulating handles
a+bcost is 22. In a circuit, current lags the emf by 53º. The power
factor of the circuit is
b 2a2  b2 (1) 0.8 (2) 0.6
(1) a (2)
2 2 (3) Zero (4) 1
23. An inductor and a resistor are joined in series in an
a2  b 2 ac circuit. If voltage across inductor is 80 V and
(3) (4) a b 2 2
2 across resistor is 60 V, then the applied voltage is

19. In the circuit shown, the readings of voltmeter V1 , (1) 140 V (2) 20 V
V2 and V3 at resonance are given by (3) 100 V (4) 4800 V
24. The readings of voltmeter and ammeter for LCR series
V1 V2 circuit are respectively

XL = 5  XC = 5  R = 10 
R L C
V3
V

A
=osint,  = 1
LC 40 V
(1) 20 V, 1 A (2) 20 V, 2 A
(1) V1 = V2 = V3 = o
(3) 40 V, 4 A (4) 40 V, 2 A
o
(2) V1 = V3 = , V2 = 0 25. In a transformer the input voltage and input current
2 are 11 kV and 10 A respectively. If the output voltage
is 450 V and the output current is 220 A, then
(3) V1 = V3 = o, V2 = 0 efficiency of the transformer is approximately

o (1) 9% (2) 900%

(4) V1 = , V2 = V3 = 0
2 (3) 90% (4) 80%
(3)
Alternating Current Aakash Institute
1 32. A current passing through a hot wire ammeter, is
26. In a dc LR circuit current grows to th of its steady made of two components, a dc component i1 = 3A
4
state value in 2 s. The time constant of LR circuit is and an ac component i2 = 4 2 sin t. Find the
2 2 reading of the ammeter
(1) (2) (1) 1A (2) 5A
4 3
ln ln
3 4 (3) 3A (4) 6A
2 2 33. In the given LCR series circuit find the source
(3) (4) frequency which drives the circuit at resonance
1 ln 4
ln
4 L=5H
27. In an LCR circuit, inductance is changed from L to
L C = 80F
to keep the same resonance frequency. C should R = 40
2
be changed to
C
(1) 2C (2) V = 200V
4
C 25
(3) (4) 4C (1) 25 Hz (2) Hz
2 
28. A resistor, an ideal capacitor and an ideal inductor 50
are connected in parallel to a source of alternating (3) 50 Hz (4) Hz

250
voltage of 800V at a frequency of Hz . A current 34. In the given LC circuit, charge (q) on capacitor is

of 3A flows through resistor, a current of 1A flows given by graph as shown in the figure
through the inductor and the total current through
the circuit is 5A. If IC>IL, then the capacity of the
capacitor is C L
(1) 12.5 F (2) 10 F
q
(3) 9.2 F (4) 8.2 F qo
29. A transformer is used to light 140W, 24V lamp from
240V a.c. mains. The current in the mains cable is time
0.7A. The efficiency of transformer is
(1) 63.8% (2) 48% W hich of the following graphs best represents
(3) 83.3% (4) 34% current in circuit ?
30. An L–R circuit is connected to an AC source of i
50V(rms) and frequency 50Hz. If the power
io
consumed in the resistor is 150W and the wattless
component of the current is 4A, then the (1) time
voltage(rms) across the inductor will be
(1) 10V (2) 20V
i
(3) 30V (4) 40V
io
31. A series R–C circuit is connected across a source
(2) time
of emf, V= 100 2 sin(1000t) where R=1000 and
C=1F. The equation of current in the circuit is
i

(1) i=0.1 sin(1000t – )
4
(3) time
 –io
(2) i=10 sin(1000t + )
4
i

(3) i=10 sin(1000t – )
4
(4) time

(4) i=0.1 sin(1000t + )
4
(4)
Aakash Institute Alternating Current
35. A series AC circuit has a resistance of 4 and a 40. In a step-up transformer, the Leclanche cell (Emf
reactance of 3. The impedance of the circuit is 1.5 Volt) is connected across primary. The voltage
(1) 5 (2) 7 developed in secondary would be:
(1) 3.0 Volt (2) 0.75 Volt
12 7
(3)  (4)  (3) Zero (4) 1.5 Volt
7 12 41. The electric current in a circuit is given by
36. Consider a circuit which contains only pure inductor
or a pure capacitor connected to an ac source and i  i0 t   for some time. Calculate the r.m.s
resistor is absent. Choose the correct statement current for the period t = 0 to t = 
(1) Power dissipated in the circuit is maximum
i0 i0
(2) Current leads to no power dissipation and is (1) irms  (2) irms 
called wattless current 3 2
(3) Power is dissipated due to wattless current i0
i0
(4) The phase difference between source emf and (3) irms  (4) irms 
2 3
curent is 0° 42. An inductance L having a resistance R is
37. A power transmission line feeds input power at connected to an alternating source of angular
2300V to a step-down transformer, with its primary frequency . The quality factor ‘Q’ of the inductance
windings having 4000 turns. What should be the is
number of turns in the secondary winding in order 2
to get output power at 230V ? L  L 
(1) (2)  R 
R  
(1) 300 (2) 250
2
(3) 400 (4) 450  R  R
(3)  L  (4)
38. The natural frequency of the circuit shown in the   L
figure is: 43. The reading of voltmeter and ammeter in the
following figure will respectively be
C C
A

xc = 4 V 90V

L L
xL = 4 R = 45
(1) 0V and 2A (2) 2A and 0V
(3) 2V and 2A (4) 0V and 0A
1 1 44. An alternating voltage is given by e = e1 sint +
(1) (2) e 2 cost. Then the root mean square value of
2 2LC 2 LC
voltage is given by
1 (1) e12  e22 (2) e1 e 2
2 LC
(3) (4) 2
2 3LC 2 e1e2 e12  e22
(3) (4)
2 2
39. For the circuit shown in the figure, the current
through the inductor is 0.9 A while the current 45. An alternating voltage at different frequencies is
through the condenser is 0.4 A. Hence current applied across a capacitance C. W hich of the
drawn from the generator is following graphs correctly depicts the variation of
current with frequency ?
ic
A
C
ii L
A.C. generator
 
(1) (2)
i  
 
(1) 1.3 A (2) 0.9 A
(3) (4)
(3) 0.6 A (4) 0.5 A  
(5)
Alternating Current Aakash Institute
46. In the series LCR circuit , find the reading of 52. Equation for instantaneous current in the circuit is
ammeter
XL = 60 
400V 400V 40  XC = 20 
V V V

R=50
A

100V, 50Hz
E = 80 2 sin(314t)volt
(1) 1A (2) 2A
 
(3) 0A (4) 5A (1) I  2 sin  314t  
 4
47. The potential difference across a 2H inductor as a
function of time is given in figure. At time t = 0,  
current is zero. Current at t = 2 is (2) I  2 sin  314t  
 4
v(volt)  
(3) I  2cos  314t  
10  4

 
2
t(s) (4) I  2cos  314t  
4  4
(1) 1A (2) 2A 53. In the circuit shown, the voltage leads the current by
(3) 4A (4) 5A 
. The resistance R of the circuit is
48. An electric bulb has a rated power of 50W at 100V. 4
If it is used on an AC source of 200V, 50Hz, a L=0.8 H R
choke has to be used in series with it. This choke
should have an inductance of
(1) 5H (2) 2H
(3) 1.1H (4) 1.35H
V = 100 sin 50t
49. In a series L-C-R circuit R = 200 and the voltage (V is in volt and t is in second)
and the frequency of the main supply is 220V and (1) 13.5  (2) 25.2 
50Hz respectively. On taking out the capacitance
(3) 21  (4) 40 
from the circuit, the current lags behind the voltage
by 30°. On taking out the inductor from the circuit 54. Impedance of LCR series circuit in alternating current
the current leads the voltage by 30°. The power of increasing frequency is best represented by
dissipated in the L-C-R circuit is Z Z
(1) 305W (2) 210W
(3) Zero (4) 121W
(1) (2)
60. The direct current of 5 A is superimposed on an
f f
alternating current I = (10 A) sin t flowing through a fr fr
wire. The effective value of the resulting current will Z Z
be

 15 
(1)  A (2) 5 3 A (3) (4)
 2  f f
fr fr
(3) 5 5 A (4) 15 A 55. Which of the following statement is incorrect about
series resonance circuit?
51. In an ac circuit V and I are given by
(1) We can have resonance in a RL and a RC circuit
  (2) Resonance in a circuit occurs when L and C both
V = 100 V sin 100 t and I = 100 mA sin  100  t   . are present in the circuit
 2
(3) At resonance, voltage across the L and C are
The power dissipated in the circuit is 180º out of phase
(1) 5000 W (2) 5 W (4) At resonance, the total source voltage appears
(3) 2.5 W (4) Zero across R
(6)
Aakash Institute
56. If the ratio of number of turns in the primary and
secondary coil of a transformer is 1 : 5 and an
alternating emf e = 100 V sin 100t is applied across
primary, then the rms value of secondary voltage is
(1) 100 V (2) 500 V
Alternating Current
58. A resistance R draws power P, when connected
to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed
in series with the resistance, such that the
impedance of the circuit becomes Z, the power
drawn will be

(3) 500 2 V (4) 250 2 V R R

(1) P (2) P 
57. The mean value of AC for full wave rectifier in half Z Z
T
cycle [from t1=0 to t 2  ] 2
2 R 
(3) P (4) P  
Z
i sinecurve
i0 59. An alternating current is given by i = I1sint +
I2cost. Then the rms current is given by
t
0 T T
2 I1  I2 I12  I22
(1) (2)
2 2
l0 2l0
(1) (2)
  I12  I22 I12  I22
(3) (4)
l0 2 2
(3) (4) None of these
2



(7)
Alternating Current Aakash Institute

CPP-21 FOR
REGULAR
MEDICAL-2021-22

ANSWERS

1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (4)

8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (4)

15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (1) 21. (1)

22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (1)

29. (3) 30. (4) 31. (4) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (1)

36. (2) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (3) 41. (1) 42. (1)

43. (1) 44. (4) 45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (4)

50. (2) 51. (4) 52. (1) 53. (4) 54. (3) 55. (1) 56. (4)

57. (2) 58. (4) 59. (2)



(8)
 CPP-21 FOR
REGULAR
MEDICAL-2021-22

Chemistry
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - p-Block Elements (Class XII)

1. Structure of perchloric acid is 8. Phosphorus on reaction with NaOH produces a

colourless gas with rotten fish smell. The gas gives
O H a vortex ring. The colourless gas is
O O Cl (1) PH3 (2) P2O3
(1) (2) O
H Cl (3) P2O5 (4) P2 S 5
O
9. Choose the incorrect statement among the following
H
O (1) ClO2 is paramagnetic
O Cl (2) Bond angle of ClO2 is more than that of Cl2 O
(3) (4)
H Cl O O (3) Lone pairs of electrons present in P 4 O6 and
O P4O10 are equal
2. The number of lone pairs in XeF2, XeO3 and XeOF4 (4) P4O6 has no P – O double bond
at the Xe atom, respectively are 10. Incorrect statement is
(1) 3, 1, 1 (2) 3, 2, 1 (1) N2O, NO are neutral in nature
(3) 1, 2, 3 (4) 3, 2, 2 (2) NO2 is reddish brown gas
3. Oxidation number of oxygen in sesquioxide of (3) In N2O4 and N2O5, N–N bond is present
nitrogen is (4) N2O3 is blue coloured acidic solid
3 11. W hich of the following pair of metals will not
(1) (2) 3
2 produce N2O, when react with HNO3 (dil) ?
(3) 2 (4) All of the above (1) Zn, Fe (2) Cu, Zn
4. When Zn reacts with conc. HNO3 , it gives (3) Mg, Fe (4) Cu, Pb
(1) NO2 (2) NO 12. Select the incorrect statement about PH3
(3) N2O3 (4) N2O5 (1) It is produced by hydrolysis of Ca3P 2
5. In this reaction (2) It gives black ppt. with CuSO4 solution
(3) Highly inflammable in nature
P 4 + 3NaOH + 3H 2 O  3NaH 2 PO 2 + X .
(4) It is used in smoke screens
Chemical formula of ‘X’ is 13. Total number of lone pair present in P4O6 and P4O10
(1) PH3 (2) H3PO3 respectively are
(3) H3PO4 (3) All of the above (1) 20, 20 (2) 16, 20
6. NCl3 on hydrolysis forms (3) 4, 0 (4) 20, 16
(1) HNO2 (2) HNO3 14. Select the correct statements options against the
(3) HCl (4) NH3 indicated property

7. N2 is prepared by I. H3PO4 > H3PO3 > H3 PO2 : Acidic strength

II. NCl3 > PCl3 > AsCl3 > SbCl3 : Bond angle
(i) Ba N3 2 

 (ii) 
NH4NO2   III. PF5 > AsF5 > SbF5 : Lewis acidic strength
(iii) NH4NO3  
(iv) NH3  CuO   IV. Bi > Sb > As > P > N : Melting point
(1) I, II (2) II, III
(1) (i) only (2) (i), (iii) only
(3) III, IV (4) II, IV
(3) (i), (ii) only (4) (i), (ii), (iv) only

(1)
(1)
(1)
p-Block Elements (Class XII) Aakash Institute
15. Which one has the highest bond energy ? (1) ClF3 (2) BrF5
(1) O – O (2) S – S (3) IF7 (4) ICl3
(3) Se – Se (4) Te – Te 23. The gas which is/are produced in Holme’s signal is
16. Which of the following show bleaching action due (1) NH3 (2) NH3 and C2H2
to reducing nature ?
(3) PH3 and C2H2 (4) PH3 and C2H4
(1) SO2 (2) Cl2
24. When Cu is treated with hot concentrated solution
(3) H2S (4) O3 of H2SO4 then the gas evolved is
17. W hich one is/are correct for oxoacids of Gr-17 (1) H2 (2) O2
elements ?
(3) SO2 (4) SO3
(1) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HClO : oxidising
25. Most oxidising among the oxyacid of ‘Cl’ is
power
(1) HOCl (2) HOClO
(2) HOI > HOBr > HOCl : Rate of
Disproportionation (3) HOClO2 (4) HOClO3

(3) HClO4 > HBrO4 > HIO4 : Oxidising power 26. Which of the following has maximum number of
lone pair associated with Xe ?
(4) HIO3 > HBrO3 > HClO3 : Acidic strength
(1) XeF6 (2) XeF2
18. Select correct statement
(3) XeF4 (4) XeO3
(1) Cl2O and ClO2 are used as bleaching agents
and as germicides 673 K
27. Pb(NO3)2 PbO + O2 + A
(2) I2O 5 is used in the quantitative estimation of

CO NH4NO3 B + H2O
(3) Bond angle XOX varies in the order FOF <
ClOCl < BrOBr B and A respectively are
(4) All are correct (1) NO2 and N2O (2) NO and NO2
19. Choose incorrect statement regarding interhalogen (3) N2O and NO2 (4) NO2 and NO
compounds
28. The number of S = O bonds and S–O–H bonds in
(1) Interhalogen compounds are more reactive H2S2O7 respectively are
than the parent halogens but less reactive than
F2 (1) Four, two (2) Four, four

(2) All interhalogens are covalent molecules (3) Two, two (4) Two, four

(3) The boiling points decreases with the increase 29. Which of the following hydrogen halides is least
in the electronegativity difference between A volatile?
and B (1) HF (2) HCl
(4) More polar is the A – B bond more is the (3) HBr (4) H 
thermal stability of interhalogen compound
30. Among the components of bleaching powder which
(AB) is responsible for bleaching action ?
20. Which one of the following noble gases is not found (1) CaCl2 (2) Ca(OCl)2
in atmosphere ?
(3) Ca(OH)2 (4) All of these
(1) Rn (2) Kr
31. The transition temperature of  and  sulphur is
(3) Ne (4) Ar
(1) 369 K (2) 169 K
21. Which of the following xenon compound has the
same number of lone pairs as in I3– ? (3) 469 K (4) 569 K
(1) XeO4 (2) XeF4 32. Which of the following can not be hydralysed ?
(3) XeF2 (4) XeO3 (1) NF3 (2) NCl3

22. Which of the following Interhalogen compound is (3) PCl5 (4) PCl3
isostructural with XeOF4 ?

(2)
Aakash Institute p-Block Elements (Class XII)
33. Which of the following gives oxygen on heating ? (2) W ith excess of Cl2 , NH 3 is converted to an
(1) KNO3 (2) Pb(NO3)2 explosive substance, nitrogen trichloride

(3) KClO3 (4) All of these
34. W hen H 2 S gas is passed in acidic K 2 Cr 2 O 7
solution, then orange colour of the solution
becomes green due to formation of
(3) W hen excess of NH 3 solution is passed to
ZnSO4 , colourless solution is obtained
(4) W hen excess NH 4 OH solution is added to
AgNO3 solution, a brown ppt is obtained

(1) Cr2+ (2) Cr3+ 42. When Cu reacts with dil HNO3, gas evolved is

(3) CrO2 (4) All of the above (1) NO (2) NO2

35. Which of the following is correctly matched ?
(1) H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H3PO4 : Acidic nature
(2) HCl < HBr < HI : Reducing nature
(3) HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4 : Oxidising
nature
(4) All of these
(3) N2 (4) O2
43. Incorrect statement regarding phosphine is
(1) A white precipitate of silver phosphide is
formed when phosphine is circulated through
silver nitrate solution
(2) Odour of phosphine is like rotten fish

36. Which of the following statements is correct ? (3) It is weakly basic in nature

(1) XeF4 molecule is tetrahedral (4) It is poisonous in nature

(2) XeF6 on complete hydrolysis yields XeO3 44. The number of P–O–P bonds in the structure of
P4O10 and P4O6 are respectively
(3) In XeF2, xenon is sp-hybridized
(1) 6, 6 (2) 5, 5
(4) XeF6 is pentagonal bipyramidal in shape
(3) 5, 6 (4) 6, 5
37. XeF2 on hydrolysis produces
45. Nitrogen (I) oxide is prepared by
(1) Xe and HF but not O2
(1) Thermal decomposition of sodium nitrite at low
(2) Xe and O2 but not HF temperature
(3) Xe, HF and O2 (2) Thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrate
(4) Xe but neither HF nor O2 (3) Reaction of NO with N2O4 at 250K
38. Which of the following has lowest boiling point? (4) HNO3 with P4O10
(1) HF (2) HCl 46. Choose incorrect option among the following
(3) HBr (4) H  (1) Selenium does not form dichlorides
39. Iron on reaction with moderately concentrated (2) Sulfur hexafluoride is exceptionally stable due
HNO3 produces to steric reasons
(1) Fe(NO3)2 and NO2 (2) Fe(NO3)3 and NO2 (3) Sulfur monochloride can undergo
(3) Fe(NO3)3and NH4NO3 (4) Fe(NO3)2and N2O disproportionation

40. The incorrect order against the indicated property is
(1) N > P > As (strength of -bond with oxygen
atom)
(2) NH 3 > PH 3 > AsH 3 > SbH 3 (Lewis basic
character)
(4) Reducing property of dioxide increases from
SO2 to TeO2
47. W hen H 2 S is passed through acidified KMnO 4
solution the product formed is
(1) H2SO4

(3) NH3 > BiH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 ( Boiling (2) Sulphur
point) (3) SO2
(4) NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 (Melting point) (4) Plastic sulfur
41. Incorrect statement among the following is
(1) When Cl2 is bubbled through excess ammonia,
nitrogen gas is formed

(3)
p-Block Elements (Class XII) Aakash Institute
48. Choose incorrect matching 54. Interhalogen compound having ‘T’ shape is/are
I II (1) ClF3 (2) BrF3
(Formula) (Name) (3) BrF5 (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) H2S2O3 Thiosulphuric acid 55. White phosphorus on reaction with NaOH gives PH3
as one of the products. This reaction falls under the
category of
(2) H2S2O5 Pyrosulphurous acid
(1) Condensation reaction
(3) H2S2O6 Hyposulphuric acid (2) Comproportionation reaction
(3) Disproportionation reaction
(4) H2S2O7 Pyrosulphuric acid
(4) Precipitation reaction
49. Which of the following is correct statement ?
56. Au and Pt does not dissolve in HNO3 but dissolve
(1) F2 has higher dissociation energy than Cl2 in 1 : 3 mixture of conc. HNO3 and conc. HCl due
to the formation of
(2) Br2 has higher dissociation enegy than F2
(1) Au(NO3)3, [Pt(NO3)4 ]
(3) Boiling point increases down the group in
hydracids of halogen (2) H2[AuCl6], H2 [PtCl6 ]
(4) HF is stronger acid than HCl (3) H[AuCl4], H2 [PtCl6 ]
50. Consider the oxoacid HClOn series here value of n (4) [Au(NO3)4]Cl, [Pt(NO3)6 ]Cl2
varies from 1 to 4. Then incorrect statement
57. Column-I Column-II
regarding these oxoacids is
a. HOCl i) Highest oxidation
(1) Acidic character of oxoacids increases with
increasing value of n state of ‘Cl’
(2) Oxidising power of oxoacids increases with b. HOClO ii) Most oxidising
decreasing value of n oxoacid of Cl
(3) Thermal stability of oxoacids decreases with c. HOClO2 iii) Highest acidic
increasing value of n strength among
Oxoacid of ‘Cl’
(4) ‘Cl–O’ bond order decreases with decreasing
value of n. d. HOClO3 iv) Acidic strength
lower than HCl
51. The correct order of pseudohalide, polyhalide and
interhalogen are Choose the correct matching
(1) BrI2–, OCN–, IF5 (2) IF5, BrI2–, OCN– (1) b  (iii) (2) a  (ii)
(3) OCN–, IF5, BrI2– (4) OCN–, BrI2–, IF5 (3) c  (i) (4) d  (iv)
52. Consider following properties of xenon and select 58. Which of the following molecule have only one lone
the correct option(s). pair on Xe ?
I. It readily from compounds which are colourless. (1) XeOF4 (2) XeF6
II. It generally do not form ionic compounds (3) XeO3 (4) All of these
III. It show have variable oxidation states in its 59. On heating ammonium dichromate and barium
componds azide separately we get
IV. It do not form covalent compounds (1) N2 in both cases
(1) I, II, III (2) II, III (2) N2 with ammonium dichromate and NO with
(3) I, III (4) I barium azide

53. XeF6 on complete hydrolysis gives (3) N2O with ammonium dichromate and N2 with
barium azide
(1) Xe (2) XeO2
(4) N2O with ammonium dichromate and NO2 with
(3) XeO3 (4) XeO4
barium azide

(4)
Aakash Institute p-Block Elements (Class XII)
60. The gases produced in the reaction Pb(NO 3 ) 2 68. Select the order that is true
 
 and NH4NO3  are respectively (1) Negative electron gain enthalpy : Cl > F > Br
> I
(1) N2O and NO (2) N2O and NO2 (2) Eo (x2/x– ) : I2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2
(3) NO and NO2 (4) NO2 and N2O (3) Bond angle : ClO2 < Cl2O < H2 O
61. Number of bridging oxygen atoms present in P4O10 (4) Intensity of colour : F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
are
69. When XeF4 reacts with SbF5 , then the states of
(1) 6 (2) 4 hybridisation of central atom in cationic and anionic
part of the product formed are
(3) 2 (4) 5
(1) sp3 d, sp3 d2 (2) sp3 d, sp3 d
62. When Fe reacts with dilute HNO3 following nitrogen
(3) sp3 d2, sp3 d (4) sp3 d2 , sp3 d2
oxide is formed
70. Phosphine is produced by adding water to
(1) N2O (2) NO
(1) CaCl2 (2) HPO3
(3) NO2 (4) N2O3
(3) Ca3P 2 (4) P 4 O10
63. Select from the following that has highest molar
enthalpy of vapourisation 71. There is no S – S bond in

(1) HCl (2) HF (1) S2 O4 2– (2) S4 O6 2–

(3) HI (4) HBr (3) S2 O3 2– (4) S2 O7 2–

64. Select the correct statement(s) 72. Which of the following is an odd-electron molecule
and does not dimerise?
Statement - I :At 400K, o–H2 : p–H2 is 3:1
(1) NO (2) NO2
Statement - II :PbO 2 on reaction with H 2 SO 4 (3) ClO2 (4) SO3
produces H2O2
73. Which of the following has been wrongly shown?
Statement - III :H2 O2 when treated with Ti(SO4 )
2 (1) NH4OH+HCl  NH4Cl (white fumes)
gives per-Titanic acid
(2) AgNO3+HF  AgF (white precipitate)
Statement - IV :(NaPO3 ) is commercially known
6 (3) Pb(NO3) +HCl  PbCl2 (white precipitate)
as Calgon 2

(1) I, II, III, IV (2) II, III, IV (4) KBr+H 2 SO 4 (conc.)   Br 2 (Orange
coloured fumes)
(3) I, II (4) I, III, IV
74. Which of the following reaction does not liberate
65. When N2 is passed through overheated CaC2 then oxygen?
select the correct statement for the product formed

(1) BaO2  
(1) State of hybridisation of C in the product is
sp. (2) XeF2 + H2O 

(2) Hydrolysis of product gives urea (3) XeF6+H2O 

(3) Anion present in the product is pseudohalide (4) PbS+O3 
ion
75. Which of the following is a solid substance at room
(4) The anion of the product is isostructural with temperature?
water (1) IF7 (2) OF2
66. Select the one that is not an acidic salt? (3) XeO3 (4) SF 4
(1) NaH2PO3 (2) NaH2PO2 76. W hich of the following allotropes of sulphur are
insoluble in CS2 ?
(3) NaH2PO4 (4) Na2HPO4
(1) Rhombic sulphur (2) Monoclinic sulphur
67. The final product obtained from electrolysis of 50%
H2SO4 with high current density has a (3) Plastic sulphur (4) Milk of sulphur

(1) S–O–O–S linkage (2) S=S linkage 77. Select from the following halide of nitrogen family
that cannot be hydrolysed
(3) S–S linkage (4) S–O–S linkage (1) NF3, NCl3 (2) PF3, PCl3
(3) NF3, PF3 (4) PCl3, AsCl3

(5)
p-Block Elements (Class XII) Aakash Institute
78. Select the one that does not give oxygen on heating 79. The product formed when SO2 is passed through
aciditied solution of H2S is
(1) HgO (2) NaNO3
(1) H2SO3 (2) H2SO4
(3) KMnO4 (4) NH4NO3
(3) H2 S2 O6 (4) Sulphur sol

  

(6)
Aakash Institute p-Block Elements (Class XII)

CPP-21 FOR
REGULAR
MEDICAL-2021-22

ANSWERS

1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (4)

8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (3) 11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (2)

15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (1) 21. (3)

22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (1) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (1)

29. (1) 30. (2) 31. (1) 32. (1) 33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (4)

36. (2) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (2) 40. (3) 41. (4) 42. (1)

43. (1) 44. (1) 45. (2) 46. (4) 47. (2) 48. (3) 49. (2)

50. (3) 51. (4) 52. (2) 53. (3) 54. (4) 55. (3) 56. (3)

57. (2) 58. (4) 59. (1) 60. (4) 61. (1) 62. (1) 63. (2)

64. (4) 65. (1) 66. (2) 67. (1) 68. (1) 69. (1) 70. (3)

71. (4) 72. (3) 73. (2) 74. (3) 75. (3) 76. (3) 77. (3)

78. (4) 79. (4)

  

(7)
 CPP-21 FOR
REGULAR
MEDICAL-2021-22

Botany
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Biodiversity & Conservation

1. The highly diversified plants are : (1) a - Angiosperms (2) a - Angiosperms

(1) Algae (2) Bryophytes b - Algae b - Fungi
(3) Gymnosperms (4) Angiosperms c - Fungi c - Algae
2. According to Ehrlich’s Rivet popper hypothesis, the d - Bryophytes d - Pteridophytes
rivets on the wings of plane are considered as : (3) a - Angiosperms (4) a - Fungi
(1) Any species in ecosystem b - Fungi b - Algae
(2) Species in ecotone c - Mosses c - Pteridophytes
(3) Key species in ecosystem d - Algae d - Angiosperms
(4) Species which is harmful to human population 8. As per latitudinal patterns the biodiversity is
3. Introduction of which exotic species in Lake minimum at/in
Victoria, eliminated 200 species of cichlid fish (1) 23.5°N to 23.5°S (2) 41°N
species ?
(3) 71°N (4) Arctic region
(1) Water hyacinth (2) Nile perch
9. What is the value of ‘Z’ in species-area curve for
(3) Clarias gariepinus (4) Carrot grass fruit eating birds and mammals of tropical rain
4. Choose the correct option after matching the forest ?
columns with respect to countries and extinct (1) 0.1 (2) 0.6
animals.
(3) 1.15 (4) 1.2
I II
10. According to David Tilman which one is correct
a) Africa i) Thylacine about species richness in a community ?
b) Australia ii) Dodo (1) Plots with more species showed less year to year
c) Russia iii) Steller’s sea cow variation in total biomas
d. Mauritius iv) Quagga (2) Increased diversity contributes to higher
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) productivity
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (3) Higher species diversity contributes to lower
resilience to environmental disturbances
5. Which of the following is a sacred lake ?
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Pushkar lake (2) Khecheopalri lake
11. How many statements are correct w.r.t the impacts
(3) Chilka lake (4) Both (1) and (2)
of biodiversity loss ?
6. Polyblend is associated with
(a) Decline in GPP
(1) Ramesh Chandra Dagar (b) Reduced resistance to natural calamities
(2) Ahmed Khan (c) Increased variability in water use
(3) Chandi Prasad Bhatt (d) Increased variability in pest and disease cycles
(4) Pandurang Hegde (1) 4 (2) 3
7. From the pie chart for proportionate number of (3) 2 (4) 1
species of plants and fungi, label a, b, c and d
12. Rivet popper hypothesis of Paul Ehrlich explains
ferns (1) Ecosystem stability
c (2) Ecosystem health
(3) Ecosystem service
b a
(4) Ecosystem productivity
d

(1)
(1)
Biodiversity and Conservation Aakash Institute
13. Which one is not related to evil quartet? 22. According to IUCN Red List, what is the status of
(1) Fragmentation of habitat Black Buck ?

(2) High trophic level in food chain (1) Endangered (2) Vulnerable
(3) Over exploitation (3) Critically endangered (4) Extinct
(4) Alien species invasion 23. Select the incorrect statement
14. Sanctuary differs from National park in having (a) Species diversity is uniformly distributed on earth
permission for
(b) Ecological diversity is low in small countries
(1) Hunting
(c) Tropics show greater productivity than temperate
(2) Extensive felling of trees regions
(3) Private ownership (d) Habitat loss is the main cause of extinction
(4) Poaching (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)
15. Find the odd one out with respect to in-situ (3) Only (a) (4) (a) and (d)
biodiversity conservation
24. A taxon facing extremely high risk of extinction in
(1) National park (2) Sacred grooves
immediate future is categorised under
(3) Sanctuary (4) Wild life safari
(1) Endangered
16. Which area is included in biodiversity hot spot and
sacred groves in India? (2) Critically endangered

(1) Himalayas (2) Silent valley (3) Vulnerable

(3) Western ghats (4) Aravalli hills (4) Extinct in wild
17. Which plant is critically endangered? 25. Match the following columns
(1) Berberis nilghiriensis Column I Column II
(2) Bentickia nicobarica (Protected Animals) (National Parks)
(3) Cycas beddomei (a) Lion – Simlipal Sanctuary
(4) Cupressus cashmeriana (b) Rhino – Kaziranga National
18. Protected areas are example of Park

(1) In-situ conservation (c) Snow leopard – Manas Sanctuary

(2) Ex-situ conservation (d) Tiger – Corbett National

Park
(3) Cryopreservation
Select the correct match.
(4) Green house gas production
(1) (b) and (c) (2) (b) and (d)
19. Biodiversity increases from
(3) (a) and (b) (4) (a) and (d)
(1) Equator to pole
26. Choose the mismatched pair w.r.t. in situ
(2) Pole to equator
conservation strategies in India
(3) Low latitude to high latitude
Protected areas Number of regions
(4) Low altitude to high altitude
(1) National parks 90
20. Hot spots of biodiversity are areas have
(2) Wildlife sanctuaries 448
(1) Little biodiversity
(3) Hotspots 25
(2) Maximum biodiversity
(4) Biosphere reserve 14
(3) Low degree of endemism
(4) Less threatened reservoirs of plants and animals 27. If we analyse species - area relationship for very
large areas like entire continents, the slope of line
21. W orld summit on sustainable development was becomes much steeper in the range of
held in
(1) 0.1 to 0.6 (2) 0.1 to 0.2
(1) South Africa (2) Brazil
(3) 0.6 to 1.2 (4) 0.2 to 0.6
(3) Sweden (4) Argentina

(2)
Aakash Institute Biodiversity and Conservation
28. Choose the correct one which get eliminated due 37. Concept of hot spots was developed by - - - - -.
to introduction of exotic species
(1) Norman Borlong
(1) Nile perch (2) Cichlid fish
(2) Norman Myers
(3) Water hyacinth (4) Clarias gariepinus
(3) M.S. Swaminathan
29. India has ________% of world’s land area, its
share of the global species diversity is _______% (4) Lindeman
(1) 8.1 and 2.4 (2) 2.4 and 8.1 38. Lungs of the planet contributes ---- of earth’s O2 .
(3) 22 and 12 (4) 12 and 22 (1) 20% (2) 10%
30. Which of the following is correct match w.r.t. (3) 40% (4) 50%
biodiversity rich region
39. The most important reason for species extinction is
(1) National Parks – 95
(1) Habitat destruction
(2) Biosphere reserves – 24
(3) Wildlife sanctuaries – 448 (2) Alien species invasion

(4) Zoological parks – 25 (3) Co-extinction

31. Which of the following has highest number of (4) Over-exploitation

species of plants in the world?
40. How many of following represent in-situ(I) and ex-
(1) Algae (2) Fungi situ(E) conservation strategies?
(3) Lichen (4) Mosses
Sacred groves, Wildlife sanctuary,
32. Which of the following have highest no. of species Biosphere reserve, Home gardens,
in nature ? Seed bank, Gene bank, National Park
(1) Angiosperms (2) Insects Sacred lakes, Bo tanical gardens,
(3) Birds (4) Fungi Zoological Park

33. W hich of the following is not an ex situ (1) I = 5, E = 5 (2) I = 6, E = 4

conservation strategy ?
(3) I = 3, E = 7 (4) I = 8, E = 2
(1) Seed bank (2) Botanical garden
41. Choose odd one w.r.t ex situ conservation
(3) Zoological park (4) Wildlife Sanctuaries strategies
34. The organization which publish red list of species (1) Zoological parks
is
(2) Botanical gardens
(1) ICFRE (2) IUCN
(3) Hot spots
(3) UNEP (4) WWF
(4) Seed bank
35. A population of Rauwolfia vomitoria is adapted in
different Himalayan ranges and results variation in 42. Which of the following organisms are badly affected
when larger habitats are broken into smaller
potency and concentration of active chemical. It
fragments due to human activities ?
exhibits
(1) Mammals requiring small territories
(1) Ecological diversity (2) Genetic diversity
(3) Species diversity (4) Community diversity (2) Animals with migratory habits

36. Identify the correct statement. (3) Planktons showing diapause

(1) Fungal species are more than sum total of all (4) Birds requiring small territories
plant species 43. How many biodiversity hotspots have been identified
(2) Fishes diversity is maximum in vertebrates in the world?

(3) India has 12 megadiversity centres of the world (1) 30 (2) 3

(4) India with temperate latitude has more than 1200 (3) 34 (4) 20
species of birds

(3)
Biodiversity and Conservation Aakash Institute
44. Which of the following ecological area (A/B/C/D) (1) Small population size and low reproduction rate
shows maximum biodiversity ?
(2) High trophic level in food chain
Neem = 100 Sal tree = 200 (3) Fixed habitat
Sal tree = 200 Crow = 46
Insects = 100 Snake = 8 (4) Smaller body size
Crow = 46 Peacock = 4
Tiger = 4 49. Find the mismatched pair amongst the following
Parrot = 30
(1) Critically endangered – Risk of extinction in
A B
species the wild in the
immediate future
Frog - 100 Sal = 200
Crow = 40 Neem = 100 (2) Endangered species – Risk of extinction in
Myana = 40 Insect = 200 the wild in the near
Neem = 20 Butterfly = 200 future
Sal = 60 Cockroach = 100
(3) Vulnerable species – No risk of extinction
C D
(4) Extinct species – Last individual has
(1) A (2) B
died
(3) C (4) D
50. Find out the number of narrowly (N) and broadly (B)
45. Reasons for enormous diversification of insects are utilitarian services of biodiversity respectively
A. A thick and strong chitinous cuticle covers the
whole body of insects Reserpine, Gaseous composition, Timber
Flood control, Quinine, Control of soil
B. It prevents loss of water from the body
erosion, Traditional medicines, Perfumes,
(1) Only B is correct
Pollinators, Food, Jute fibre, Taxol
(2) Both A and B are correct
(1) N = 8, B = 4 (2) N = 6, B = 6
(3) Only A is correct
(3) N = 4, B = 8 (4) N = 5, B = 7
(4) Both A and B are incorrect
51. In the following pie chart of global vertebrates
diversity, what does A, B and C represent
D
46. respectively ?
Species richness

B A
le
s ca B
g-
-lo
g
lo

Area
C
Identify the equations for D and B in the graph (1) Birds, Fishes, Amphibians
showing Species - Area relationship given by
Alexander Von Humboldt. (2) Mammals, Reptiles, Birds

(1) D  S = CAZ ; B  log S = log C + Z log A (3) Fishes, Birds, Amphibians

(2) D  S = C × A ; B  log S = log C + Z log A (4) Amphibians, Fishes, Reptiles

52. Match the columns
(3) D  S = C+AZ ; B  log S = log C + Z log A
Column I Column II
CZ log S
(4) D  S = ;B  = log C (A) Alpha diversity (I) Intra community diversity
A log Z
(B) Beta diversity (II) Inter community diversity
47. W hich of the following is not an invasive alien
species in the Indian context ? (C) Gamma diversity (III) Total landscape
(1) Lantana (2) Parthenium (1) A = (I), B = (II), C = (III)
(3) Cynodon (4) Eichhornia (2) A = (I), B = (III), C = (II)
48. Find the incorrect statement from the following with (3) A = (II), B = (I), C = (III)
respect to susceptibility to extinction
(4) A = (III), B = (I), C = (II)
(4)
Aakash Institute Biodiversity and Conservation
53. Read the given statements and choose correct 56. W hich of the following species is incorrectly
option matched with their native country ?
A. Ecosystem diversity is high in India (1) Dodo — Mauritius
B. Ecosystem diversity is low in Norway (2) Thylacine — Australia
(1) Only A is correct (3) Stellar’s sea cow — Russia
(2) Only B is correct (4) Quagga — America
(3) Both A and B are incorrect 57. ‘Evil Quartet’ w.r.t. causes of biodiversity loss
(4) Both A and B are correct consists of all except

54. Pitcher plant is found in (1) Over exploitation

(1) Sunderban (2) Habitat loss and fragmentation

(2) Thar Desert (3) Alien species invasion and coextinction

(3) Western ghats (4) Coevolution

(4) Rain forest of North -East India 58. The convention on Biodiversity (‘The Earth Summit’)
was held in the year
55. In the ‘Rivet-Popper’ hypothesis, Ehrlich compared
ecosystem with airplane. Accordingly identify(A) and (1) 1992 (2) 1982
(B) which were compared to rivets and rivets on (3) 2002 (4) 2012
wing respectively
59. Which of the following is not a cause for loss of
Airplane E cosystem biodiversity?
Rivets A
(1) Destruction of habitat
Rivets on wings B
(2) Invasion by alien species
(1) A = Keystone species ; B = Species
(3) Keeping animals in zoological parks
(2) A = Predators ; B = Prey
(4) Over exploitation of natural resources
(3) A = Species ; B = Keystone species
(4) A = Prey ; B = Predators



(5)
Biodiversity and Conservation Aakash Institute

CPP-21 FOR
REGULAR
MEDICAL-2021-22

ANSWERS

1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (3)

8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (3)

15. (4) 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (2) 21. (1)

22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (2) 26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (2)

29. (2) 30. (3) 31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (2)
36. (2) 37. (2) 38. (1) 39. (1) 40. (1) 41. (3) 42. (2)

43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (2) 46. (1) 47. (3) 48. (4) 49. (3)

50. (1) 51. (3) 52. (1) 53. (4) 54. (4) 55. (3) 56. (4)

57. (4) 58. (1) 59. (3)



(6)