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The law on private defence in India

B. section 90 of IPC INDIAN PENAL CODE
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34 Indian Penal Code
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115. In a case of free fight between two parties

(a) right of private defence is available to both the parties
(b) right of private defence is available to individuals against individual
(c) no right of private defence is available to either party
(d) right to private defence is available only to one party.
116. Under section 99, the right of private defence is
(a) not available at all against public servants engaged in the discharge of their lawful duties
(b) available under all circumstances against public servants engaged in the discharge of their lawful duties
(c) available against public servants only when their acts cause reasonable apprehension of death or grievous
hurt
(d) available against public servants only when their acts cause reasonable apprehension of damage to
property.
117. Right to private defence under section 99
(a) extends to causing more harm than is necessary for the purpose of defence
(b) does not extend to causing more harm than is necessary for the purpose of defence
(c) does not extend to causing the harm necessary for the purpose of defence
(d) restricts the harm caused to be less than the one necessary for the purpose of defence of
118. Right of private defence extends to causing death, under the circumstances laid down in
(a) sections 100 & 101 of IPC
(b) sections 101 & 102 of IPC
(c) sections 102 & 103 of IPC
(d) sections 100 & 103 of IPC
119. In cases of assault with intention of committing rape or of gratifying unnatural lust, the right of private
defence extends voluntarily
(a) causing any harm including death
(b) causing any harm other than death
(c) causing any harm other than grievous hurt
(d) both (b) & (c).
120. cases of kidnapping & abduction the right of private defence extends voluntarily causing
(a) any harm other than death
(b) any harm other than death & grievous hurt
(c) any harm including death
(d) both (a) & (b).
121. In cases of robbery or dacoity, the right of private defence extends voluntarily causing
(a) any harm including death
(b) any harm other than death
(c) any harm other than grievous hurt
(d) both (b) & (c).
122. Where a wrong doer commits house breaking by night, the right to private defence extends to
voluntarily causing
(a) any harm other than death
(b) any harm including death
(c) any harm other than death and grievous hurt
(d) either (a) or (c).
123. Where a wrong leads to mischief by fire on a building used as a human dwelling or a place for custody
of property the right of private defence extends voluntarily causing
(a) any harm including death
(b) any harm other than death
(c) any harm other than death & grievous hurt
(d) either (b) or (c).
124. Under section 102 of IPC the right to private defence of the body
(a) commences as soon as a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises and continues as long as
that apprehension continues
(b) commences as soon as a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises and continues even after
that apprehension ceases
(c) commences only when the assault is actually done & continues during the period of assault
(d) commences only when the assault is actually done & continues after the assailant has left.
124. Consider the following statement and select the correct answer:
A. All the recommendations of the Justice Verma Committee are incorporated in the Criminal Law
(Amendment) Act, 2013
B. Some of the recommendations of the Justice Verma Committee are incorporated in the Criminal Law
(Amendment) Act, 2013
C. Most of the recommendations of Justice Verma Committee are incorporated in the Criminal Law (Amendment)
Act, 2013
D. None of the above.
125. Which of the following sections have been inserted in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 by the Criminal Law
(Amendment) Act, 2013, namely:
A. Section 376A
B. Section 376B
C. Sections 166A, 166B, 354C
D. All of the above.

126. According to Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, the right of private defence of the body extends to the
voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the assistant if the offence which occasions the exercise of
the right is the act of:
A. Stalking
B. Voyeurism
C. Acid Attack
D. All of the above.
127. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable under Indian Penal Code, 1860,
under:
A. Section 326A
B. Section 326B
C. Section 228A
D. Section 228.
128. A demand or request for sexual favour from a woman is punishable offence under Indian Penal Code, 1860,
under:
A. Section 354A
B. Section 354B
C. Section 354C
D. Section 354D.
129. According to Criminal amendment act 2018, If any person rapes a girl, who is below 16 years of age, shall be
punished for a minimum period of:-

A. Simple imprisonment of 10 years

B. Life imprisonment
C. 20 years
D. 14 years
130. According to Criminal amendment act 2018, Anyone who commits the offence of rape shall be punished
for the minimum period years
A. 7 years
B. 10 years
C. Life imprisonment
D. 14 years

131. In case, if the offence of rape according to Criminal amendment act 2018 is committed with the girl age
below _____ years, the anticipatory bail will not be granted to the accused.

A. 18yr

B.16

C. Of any age

D. 20 yr

132. Disclosure of identity of rape victim is punishable under :-

A. Sec 225 IPC

B. Sec 228 IPC

C. Sec 228A IPC

4. Sec 229 IPC

133. Z’ is carried off by a tiger. ‘A’ fires at the tiger knowing it to be likely that the shot may kill Z but not
intending to kill Z; and in good faith intending Z’s benefit. A’s bullet gives Z a mortal wound. A shall be guilty
of:
(a) Murder
(b) Culpable homicides not amounting to murder
(c) Causing death by accident
(d) No offence.
134.  In which of the following cases, recently the Supreme Court has upheld the constitutional validity of a
criminal statute in “offences against the order of the nature”:
(a) National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India
(b) Charu Khurana v. Union of India
(c) Jaya Bhaduri v. Union of India
(d) Suresh Kumar Khushal v. Naz Foundation.
135. Robbery is dacoity when the minimum number of persons committing robbery is:
(a) 10 persons
(b) 5 persons
(c) 6 persons
(d) 4 persons.
136. Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India, (2014) 3 SCC 1 is the case related to:
(a) giving false evidence before the court
(b) waging war against the state
(c) commutation of death sentence to life imprisonment
(d) none of the above.
137. ‘A’ claiming to be a family planning expert gave ‘X’ some chemical. After consuming the chemical, the
child in the womb of ‘X’ dies in the womb. ‘A’ has committed:
(a) No offence
(b) Offence of murder
(c) Offence of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(d) Offence of causing miscarriage.
138. ‘A’ by falsely pretending to be in the civil service, intentionally deceives ‘Z’, and thus dishonestly induces
‘Z’ to let him have on credit goods for which he does not mean to pay. ‘A’ has committed:
(a) Cheating by personation
(b) Cheating
(c) Extortion
(d) None of the above.
139. Read the following:
(1) R. v. Mcnaughten is the case related with insanity as a defence.
(2) R. v. Govinda is the case related with common intention.
Of the above:
(a) (1) is true but (2) is false
(b) (1) is false but (2) is true
(c) Both (1) and (2) are true
(d) Both (1) and (2) are false.
140 - “A” under the influence of unsoundness attempt to kill “B”. “B” in attempting to defend himself caused
grievous hurt to “A”. Here:
(a) “A” is liable for attempt to murder and “B” is liable for causing hurt
(b) “A” commits no offence and “B” is liable for grievous hurt
(c) “B” commits no offence and “A” is liable for attempt to murder
(d) Both “A” and “B” are excused from liability.
141. In which of the following Sections of I.P.C. ‘preparation’ is punishable:
(a) Sections 121, 125, 398
(b) Sections 122, 125, 399
(c) Sections 122, 126, 399
(d) Sections 121, 126, 398.
142. Which of the following is not “sine qua non” for making a person criminally liable:
(a) Actus reus
(b) Mens rea
(c) Motive
(d) All the above.
143. which of the following offences the Apex Court judgment in Abhayanand Mishra v. State of Bihar is related
to:
(a) Sections 420 and 511 of I.P.C.
(b) Section 511 of I.P.C. only
(c) Section 420 of I.P.C. only
(d) None of the above.
144. ‘A’ having joint property with Z in a horse, intending thereby to cause wrongful loss to Z, shoots the horse.
Under what section of I.P.C. ‘A’ shall be charged with:
(a) Section 426
(b) Section 429
(c) Section 437

(d) Section 438.

145. ‘A’ has consensual sexual relations with ‘Z’s wife. She gives to ‘A’ a valuable property which ‘A’ knows to belong
to her husband ‘Z’ and she has no authority from ‘Z’ to give. ‘A’ takes the property dishonestly. Which one of the
following offences has been committed by ‘A’:

(a) Criminal breach of trust

(b) Theft and criminal breach of trust
(c) Theft
(d) Criminal misappropriation.
146. A, a zamindar, tortures a raiyat in order to compel him to pay his rent. A is guilty of an offence under
this section.
(a) Sec 329

(b) Sec 330

(c) Sec 331

(d) Sec 332

147. State of A.P. v. R. Punnayya case deals with distinction between which of following sections of Indian
Penal Code:
(a) Sections 501 and 502
(b) Sections 299 and 300
(c) Sections 304A and 304B
(d) Sections 305 and 306.
148. Which sections of Indian Penal Code provides for the offences relating to the Army, Navy and Air
Force:
(a) Sections 171A to 171-1
(b) Sections 124 to 129
(c) Sections 131 to 140
(d) Sections 165 to 171.
149. In which of the following cases, the offence of ‘house-breaking’ is committed:
(a) A commits house-trespass by entering Z’s house through the door, having lifted a latch by putting a wire
through a hole in the door
(b) A finds the key of Z’s house-door, which Z had lost, and commits house-trespass, by entering Z’s house
through that key
(c) Z, the doorkeeper of Y, is standing in Y’s doorway. A commits house-trespass by entering the house, having
deterred Z from opposing him by threatening to beat him
deterred Z from opposing him by threatening to beat him.
(d) All these.
150. In which of the following cases mens rea is not an essential ingredient for offences under-
A. Revenues Acts
B. Public nuisance
C. Criminal case which are in summary mode
D. All of these