Judiciary

Insight
judicary.gold@toprankers.com 76 76 56 44 00 toprankers.com
 Judge. The first thing that comes
to the mind is power and prestige. It comes
with such power comes great responsibilities, you don’t
only get the opportunity to work for one of the prestigious
pillar of Indian democracy but you also get the power to change the
society. There are many instances where various judges have given
judgement to reform the society in their capacity by imparting Justice and to
be part of such fraternity is something to be proud.

That said and done in order to be Judge, one has to clear the Judicial Services exams
conducted by states. Judicial exams need hard work, determination, dedication and
perseverance like any other exam but what another thing is needed is patience also
especially in times like when there is so much uncertainty as to when next notification will
come.

If an individual plan to target any of these examinations, he must be aware of the fact that its
preparations is not an easy task without rightful guidance and streamlined approach.

Thus, if one is planning to be a Judiciary Aspirants, these are the quick pointers that should be
kept in mind –
• Get familiar with the exam pattern i.e.- Pre, Mains and interview
• Targeting the State of your choice (Very important to get clarity)
• Make your bare act your best friend in your journey whom you know inside out.
• Prepare notes, one liners, one word for each and every subject according to need.
• Study for both preliminary and mains.

We suggest you follow these advisory points for ensuring your success
in the journey of becoming the Judge. Also, do keep check on
your preparation by constantly giving Mock Test, Subject
Specific Test and keep practicing answer writing.
This will definitely work out for you.

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1. Disqualification of MPs and MLAs
Lily Thomas v. Union of India (2013)
Judgement- Members of Parliament, Legislative
Councils and Legislative Assemblies convicted of crimes
where they had been awarded a minimum sentence
of 2 years imprisonment would cease to be members
of the house to which they were elected from the date
of sentencing. It further struck down the provision
Sub Section (4), which allowed convicted members a
3-month time period for appeal against the conviction
and sentencing and held that those convicted would
suffer immediate disqualification
4 judicary.gold@toprankers.com
AUGUST
CURRENT
LEGAL
KNOWLEDGE
2. Public Interest Litigation v. Union of India (2018)
Supreme Court- Candidates are not barred from
contesting elections against whom charges have been
framed in criminal offences, but for all matters before
election-
• Candidates must declare their criminal
antecedents
• Political parties to put criminal antecedents on
website and give declaration of the same in media
• Election commission form filled by candidates
should contain all the criminal antecedents in bold
letters
3. Political Parties to show the criminal records of its
member.
Rambabu Singh Thakur v. Sunil Arora and others (2020)
& Brajesh Singh v. Sunil Arora and others (10th August
2021)
Supreme Court held –
• Political parties to publish criminal antecedents in
national as well as local newspaper and on social
media handles
• Mandatory for political parties to upload on their
websites detailed information regarding individual
and pending criminal cases, nature of cases, reason
for selecting candidate
• Details shall be published within 48 hours of
the selection of the candidate or not less than
two weeks before the first date for filing of
nominations, whichever is earlier
Additional Guidelines By Supreme Court in 2021 case –
• Criminal antecedent to be published on homepage
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 of the party’s website with caption- “Candidates
with antecedents”
• ECI to make Mobile application containing
information of the candidates
• ECI to run awareness campaign to make every
voter aware of information and his rights
• ECI directed to create separate cell to monitor the
required compliance
4. Ashwini Kumar Upadhyay v. Union of India (2016
petition)
6. Santhosh V v. State of Kerala
• Plea demanding expeditious disposal of pending
criminal cases against MPs and MLAs and debar
persons charged with criminal offences from
contesting elections, forming a political party and
becoming office-bearers of any party
• SC- cases against MPs/MLAs cannot be withdrawn
without prior sanction from the HC
• The power under Section 321, Cr.P.C. is a
responsibility which is to be utilized in public
interest, and cannot be used for extraneous and
political considerations.
5.
Question on Religion
Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India 1995
• If a man marries another woman without divorcing
his wife as per grounds
laid down under Section 13 of Hindu Marriage Act,
1955, second marriage will be considered as illegal.
• Husband would be liable for bigamy under Section
494 IPC
• Court advocated the necessity of UCC
Jamiat Ulama-E-Hind Gujarat v. State of Gujarat
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• Division Bench- “Let us clarify, if there is an inter
religion marriage without any coercion or fraud
or allurement, that should not be treated as an
offence.” The Bench responded by saying that while
the Act does not make inter-religious marriage an
offence, conversion by virtue of marriage is made
an offence
• Gujarat HC- “It is up to married couple to decide
which religion to follow”
The Surat Parsi Panchayat Board v. Union Of India
• Plea to declare ovid-19 Guidelines on Dead Body
Management issued by the Union Ministry of
Health and Family Welfare are violative of Articles
14, 19, 21, 25, 26 and 29 of the Constitution for
not allowing traditional Parsee last rites, called
Dokhmenashini
• Court- guidelines were issued in the larger public
interest and take precedence over religious faith
and belief of a particular class of community
• Even the fundamental rights to profess, practice
or propagate religion, and the right to manage
religious affairs, as enshrined under Articles 25
and 26 of the Constitution of India, are subject to
public order, morality and health
• Whether penile penetration beyond vagina,
urethra, anus and mouth will amount to
‘penetration’
• When the body of the victim is manipulated
to hold the legs together for the purpose of
simulating a sensation akin to penetration of
an orifice; the offence of rape is attracted. When
penetration is thus made in between the thighs so
held together, it would certainly amount to “rape”
as defined under Section 375
• Appeal against conviction under POCSO Act and
IPC
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1. One Hundred and Fifth Constitutional Amendment
Act 2021
Indra Sawhney v. Union of India 1992
• Reservation cannot exceed 50% of the total
capacity
• 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018- State
legislature has the power to declare a particular
class to be socially and educationally backward.
• Article 342A inserted through 102nd Amendment
calls for the identification of communities in States
as socially and educationally backward classes by
the President, in consultation with the Governor of
the state.
Jaishri Laxmanrao Patil v. Chief Minister
• Maharashtra State Reservation for Socially and
Educationally Backward Classes (SEBC) Act, 2018
• Maratha community does not make out any
exceptional circumstance to exceed the ceiling
limit of 50 percent reservation
• SC Bench- 3:2 upheld the 102nd amendment-
Justice Bhashan and Nazeer- Article 342A does not
take away power of the state to identity SEBC
• Article 338B- Structure, duties and power of
National Commission for Backward classes
• Justice Rao, Gupta and Bhat- President alone is
empowered to identify SEBC and notify in the list.
States can only make suggestions for inclusion of
SEBC in that list
• 105th Amendment was introduced because of 3:2
with respect to Article 342A of the constitution
• Amendment- States and Union Territories to
identify Socially and Educationally Backward Class
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SEPTEMBER
CURRENT
LEGAL
KNOWLEDGE
(SEBC) and include them in a list to be published
under Article 342A (1), specifying SEBCs in relation
to each State and Union Territory.
• Every State or Union territory may, by law, prepare
and maintain, for its own purposes, a list of socially
and educationally backward classes, entries in
which may be different from the Central List.
2. Economic criteria cannot be the sole basis of
identifying “Creamy Layer”
Pichra Warg Kalyan Mahasabha Haryana v. State of
Haryana
• Section 5(2) of the Haryana Backward Classes
(Reservation in Services and Admission in
Educational Institutions) Act, 2016 Indira Swahney
Judgement- identification and exclusion of ‘creamy
layer’ to be on the basis of social, economic and
other relevant factors
• Haryana Govt. committed a grave error by
considering income upto 3 Lakh and 3 Lakh to 6
Lakh
3. Right to Shelter does not mean right to government
accommodation Union of India vs. Onkar Nath Dhar
Case before Supreme Court - Retired government
employees cannot claim government accommodation
as a matter of right
Court referred to Lal Prahari (II) v. State of Uttar Pradesh,
where Uttar Pradesh Government that regularized the
allotment of Government houses to ex-chief ministers
was set aside.
4. Women in NDA
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 The Secretary, Ministry of Defence v. Babita Punia and
others. 2020
• SC- upheld the demand for Permanent commission
for women in Indian army, should be given all
kind of perks including pension, promotion and
financial incentives
• Order applicable to all women officers under short
service schemes.
Kush Kalra v. Union of India 2021
• PIL heard by Justices Sanjay Kishan Kaul and
Hrishikesh Roy
• NDA recruits through entrance exam right after
school
• Women were allowed under Short service
commission and Combined defence service (after
graduation and post graduation)
• SC- considered it as violation of Articles 14, 15, 16
and 19 of the Constitution
• SC- ready to consider another petition seeking
entry of female students to Sainik Schools and
Rashitrya Indian Military College since the same
has direct bearing on admission to NDA
5. Surrendering children under JJ Act
• State failed to lay down guidelines, Karnataka HC-
i. Proper identification of parents
ii. Genuineness in surrendering the child
iii. Surrendering would have effects in the right of the
child
iv. Assistance from child psychologists
v. Two months’ time for parents to reconsider
surrender
vi. Certificate of registration for adopting agencies
6. Inter Country Adoption under Hindu Adoption and
Maintenance Act
RK & Anr v. Central Adoption Resource Authority
• Delhi HC directs centre (CARA) to lay down
permanent mechanism for inter country adoption
• Issue faced by parents while moving adopted child
to other country due to non issuance of NOC by
CARA
• Make guidelines including background and
antecedents of the biological parents
• Verify the consent of the biological parents
• Details of religious ceremony, adoption deed and
court order
• Home Study Report of the prospective adoptive
parents
• Permission letter from receiving country
• CARA to monitor the child’s progress for two years
following their arrival in the receiving country
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7. Kerala HC allows women to terminate pregnancy at
22 weeks
• Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971,
recently amended in 2021
• Allows abortions for unmarried women till 20
weeks of gestational period
• Increases the upper gestation limit from 20 to 24
weeks for special categories of women, including
survivors of rape, victims of incest and other
vulnerable women
• Name and other particulars of a woman whose
pregnancy has been terminated shall not be
revealed
• Abortion due to rape exceeding 24 weeks is
subjected to Writ petitions
• Opinion of one Registered Medical Practitioner
(RMP) for termination of pregnancy up to 20 weeks
of gestation.
• Opinion of two RMPs for termination of pregnancy
of 20-24 weeks of gestation
8. Petition to Ban Sex Selective Surgeries on Intersex
infants and children
Srishti Madurai Educational Research Foundation v.
Govt. of NCT of Delhi
• Violates fundamental rights of the intersex person
• 2019- Govt. of Tamil Nadu banned sex reassignment
surgeries on Intersex infants and children
9. Kerala HC- Create separate forms without father’s
details for birth/death certificates of persons born
to single/unwed mothers
• Children born out of Assisted Reproductive
Technology or IVF
• Leaving the fathers name blank would make it
obvious to anyone that such person was born out
of wedlock thereby violating their right to dignity
• law must evolve with the times so that the
petitioner’s and other similarly placed persons’
right to privacy, liberty and dignity can be
preserved
• Referred to Justice K S Puttuswamy case on right to
privacy as fundamental right
10. Right to live with dignity for mentally ill prisoners
• Kerala HC- directed state govt. to set up a mental
health establishment, as stipulated in Section
103(6) of the Mental Healthcare Act, in at least
one prison in the State for the well-being of such
prisoners.
• Section 103(6) provides state govt to establish
medical wing at least in one prison for the mentally
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 ill prisoners
• If families of acquitted mentally ill person refuses
to take care, then state govt shall take steps for
their rehabilitation
• HC also stated that the term “Lunatic” used in
Chapter XXV of CrPC (Provisions as to accused
person of unsound mind) and procedure
prescribed should be amended as per Mental
Healthcare Act 2017
11. Chhattisgarh HC on Marital Rape
Dilip Pandey and ors v. State of Chhattisgarh
• Section 375- Sexual intercourse or sexual acts by
a man with his own wife, the wife not being under
fifteen years of age, is not rape
• charge framed against the husband under Section
376, IPC was held to be erroneous and illegal.
12. National Medical Commission to review Queer
Phobic text from Medical Course book
Queerythm and Anr. v. National Medical Commission
and Ors
• Plea seeking removal of parts of commonly
used MBBS textbooks that stereotypes queer
community’s sexual and gender identities as an
offence, mental disorder or perversion
• Violative of Article 14, 17, 19 and 21
• SC opined that classifying sexual offenses as
‘natural’ and ‘unnatural’ is both absurd and legally
invalid
13. Uttar Pradesh Population (Control, Stabilisation and
Welfare) Bill, 2021
• Couple with more than two children will be debarred
from-
a. Benefit from government sponsored welfare
schemes
b. Limit on ration card units upto 4
c. Contesting local body elections
d. Applying for government jobs
e. Promotion in government services
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f. Receiving government subsidies
• Incentives to government employees who go through
voluntary sterilization
a. Two additional increments in entire service
b. Free health care facility and insurance upto twenty
years to single child
c. Preference to single child in admissions
d. Free education upto graduation level
e. Girl child to get scholarship in higher studies
f. Preference to single child in govt jobs
• Couple below poverty line having single child, goes for
voluntary sterilization will receive lump sum 80,000 in
case the child is boy and one lakh for girl child
• General exceptions under the bill-
a. Couple expecting child during the commencement
of the act
b. Multiple birth out of second pregnancy
c. Adoption
d. Disability of the first or the second child
e. Death of a child
14. Habeas Corpus cannot lie against mother who has
custody of child
Amit Gulrajani v. State of Haryana- Supreme Court
• Father in Singapore got custody of their daughter
through a court order in from Singapore court.
Child resides with mother in India
• Father filed a case of habeas corpus in HC, rejected
• Father moved to SC demanding custody of the
daughter under Habeas Corpus
• SC- three judge bench rejected the plea
• SC- mother is a natural guardian of the child,
cannot be considered as illegal detainer.
• Habeas corpus lies against illegal detention.
Approach family court under guardian and wards
act for the demand of custody
15. Life Imprisonment means rigorous imprisonment-
Supreme Court
Md Alfaz Ali vs State of Assam
• Division bench of SC reaffirmed 1983 judgement of
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 Naib Singh vs. State of Punjab
• Referred to Section 53- types of punishment under
IPC
• sentence of imprisonment for life has to be
equated to rigorous imprisonment for life
16. Complaints to remove spouse from job amounts to
cruelty - Supreme Court
Sivasankaran vs. Santhimeenal
• Husband seeking divorce for the last two decades
• Divorce granted by family court of irretrievable
breakdown of marriage, the same was challenged
by the wife
• Husband moved to SC under Article 142- power of
the SC to pass decree or order for doing complete
justice in any cause or matter pending before it
• Granted divorce under Article 142 as well Section
13(1) (i-a) (cruelty) of Hindu Marriage Act
17. Marriage can be registered under SMA through
video conferencing- Kerala HC
Dhanya Martin v State of Kerala
• With technological advancements, marriages
under Special Marriage Act (SMA), 1954 could be
registered though video conference
18. MTP act inadequate to protect women’s
fundamental rights – Kerala HC
Indulekha Sreejith v. Union of India
• Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971
with recent amendment in 2020
• Kerala HC rejected plea of a women to terminate
31 weeks pregnancy
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• Courts have allowed termination of pregnancy
beyond 24 weeks if there is danger to the life of
the mother or the fetus, depending upon the
recommendation of the medical board
19. Drinking water is a fundamental right- Bombay HC
Shobha Vikas Bhoi & Ors. v. State of Maharashtra &
Ors
• Petition by villagers in Thane district against supply
of water twice a month
• STEM Water Distribution and Infra Company Pvt
Ltd indulged in illegal water supply to politicians
and tanker lobbies
• Violation of fundamental right under Article 21
20. Equal pay for equal work, not a fundamental right
but a constitutional goal- Bombay HC
Gajanan Ghule & Anr. v. State of Maharashtra and
connected petitions
• Vocational course instructor claimed equal pay for
equal work just like full time teachers
• Bombay HC- The principle ‘Equal Pay For
Equal Work’ is not a fundamental right but a
constitutional goal
• Entitlement to parity in pay scale would depend on
several factors such as educational qualifications,
nature of the job, duties to be performed,
responsibilities to be discharged and experience
21. Public building accessible to
disabled- Madras HC
M Karpagam v. Commissionerate
for the welfare of differently abled
and ors
• Directed State government
to ensure that steps being taken to
make public buildings in Tamil Nadu
accessible for persons with disabilities
are in place by a year’s time
• All new buildings should be
well equipped to be accessible for
person with disabilities
22. Madras High Court calls for more
funding, psychiatry department in
every medical college
• Madras HC reiterated concerns
over there being inadequate facilities
for the treatment of mental illness and
insufficient funding for mental healthcare in India
• KR Raja v. State of Tamil Nadu and Others
• PIL sought the establishment of a mental
healthcare wing in central prison for the benefit of
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 prisoners with mental illnesses
• Despite Mental Healthcare Act, 2017, there exists
no centralized portal for treatment of mental
disorders
• Called for establishment of more institutes like
National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro
Sciences (NIMHANS)
23. Remove photos of political/communal leaders from
vehicles- Madras HC
V Ramesh v. The Vice Chancellor, Dr. Ambedkar Law
University and ors.
• Purpose of having such photographs is to keep
away the police from stopping the vehicle even in
case of violation of road rules.
• Failure to remove will call for action under Section
177 of the Motor Vehicles Act (dealing with wilful
disobedience of any direction lawfully given by any
person or authority)
• Other guidelines include removal of tainted glass
sheets, fancy number plates, high beam lights or
unauthorized LED lights
24. Temple property belongs to deity- Supreme Court
State of Madhya Pradesh and Others v. Pujari
Utthan Avam Kalyan Samiti and Another
• The name of the deity alone is required to be
mentioned, as the deity being a juristic person is
the owner of the land
• Madhya Pradesh High Court quashed the two
circulars issued by the State Government under the
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MP Law Revenue Code, 1959 (Code) which deleted
the names of the pujari from the revenue record
25. State under obligation to keep criminal record
database updated- Delhi HC
State vs. Vikram
• Records are available only for under trials and
convicts, not for accused
• Status of acquittal is usually not updated, causing
denial of right to reputation and liberty enshrined
under Article 21
26. Allahabad HC- proceedings
in HINDI on Hindi Divas
• The Chief Justice’s court
and other courts at High Court
at Allahabad, conducted their
proceedings i.e arguments, delivery
of orders/judgment in Hindi
language
• Hindi Divas is celebrated on
14th September
• Hindi written in Devanagari
Script was adopted on of the official
languages under Article 343 of the
Constitution on 14th September
1949 on the birthday of Beohar
Rajendra Simha.
• Total there are 22 languages
27. Hindi cannot be used for
official correspondence for all
communication with Centre and
State of Tamil Nadu- Madras HC
S Venkatesan v. Ministry of State for Home Affairs
and Others
• Use of language should be in consonance with
Official Languages Act 1963 and the Official
Language Rules 1976
• Many replies to the request made in English was
done in Hindi by the centre
28. Derogatory and abusive language by police is
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 against Constitutional Morality- Kerala HC
Anil JS v. State of Kerala & Ors
• Police to address citizens with respect and not
harass citizen for failure to follow protocol
• Harassment by police increased since the start of
pandemic
29. Compensation to passenger who missed flight due to
delayed train
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Northern Western Railway v. Sanjay Shukla
• Supreme Court held that passenger has right to get
compensated as the train got delayed because of
which he missed the flight.
• Case by National Consumer Dispute Redressal
Forum
30. Nine new SC Judges appointed
• Justices Abhay Shreeniwas Oka
• Justice Vikram Nath
• Justice Jitendra Kumar Maheshwari
• Justice CT Ravikumar
• Justice MM Sundresh
• Justice PS Narsimha (9th lawyer to be directly
elevated to SC)
• Justice Hima Kohli
• Justice BV Nagarathna (in the line to become first
women CJI)
• Justice MM Sundresh, Bela Trivedi
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 LEGAL
1. Delhi Police succeeds in finding 13
year old missing girl after Top Court
directed UP Police to handover investigation
files
Delhi Police informed Supreme Court that they have
found the 13-year-old girl missing for the last 2 months
in Kolkata and have also arrested the kidnapper after
the apex court directed the Uttar Pradesh Police to hand
over the case files.
A bench of Justice AM Khanwilkar, Justice Hrishikesh
Roy and Justice CT Ravikumar while falling heavy on
UP Police said that the “This is certainly a reflection of
the state of UP Police. It did not go for so long and they
wanted two months’ further time, without realising
seriousness of the matter and the urgency involved”.
The bench was hearing a plea filed by the mother of a
13-year-old who is missing since July 8, 2021, alleging
that despite filing an FIR with Gorakhpur Police and
making efforts to file a complaint with the Delhi Police,
no action has been taken till date to trace the minor
girl as the girl used to work as house help in Delhi. The
bench has asked the Delhi Police to file the medical
reports after due diligence along with the compliance
report.
2. Madras High Court rejects plea challenging Tamil
Nadu’s ‘Annai Thamizhil Archanai scheme’ allowing
chanting of Mantra’s in Tamil inside Temples
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Madras High Court today dismissed
a plea that challenged the validity of the Annai
Thamizhil Archanai scheme, recently introduced in
several Temples across the State of Tamil Nadu. Declining
to entertain the plea, Division Bench of Chief Justice
Sanjib Banerjee & Justice PD Audikesavalu said that the
issue has already been dealt with by the High Court in
the year 2008. Court said that another Division Bench of
Justices Elipe Dharma Rao and K. Chandru (both retired)
had, in March 2008 in VS Sivakumar v. M Pitchai Battar
(1988) held that there was nothing in the Agamas or
in other religious scripts that prohibits the chanting of
mantras in Tamil during pooja inside the temples.
3. Ministries to Submit List of Infra Projects Delayed
by Courts & NGT order, resultant losses to public
exchequer: PM in Review Meeting
The Prime Minister in a review meeting demanded a
list of infrastructure projects delayed due to orders of
various courts and the National Green Tribunal (NGT)
from the Cabinet Secretary Rajiv Gauba and further asked
him to lead this extensive exercise with the relevant
ministries. In the meeting, PM stated that, “Ministries
of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Railways
and Road Transport & Highways in consultation with
Ministry of Law and Justice should identify decisions
of Hon’ble Courts, NGT etc., related to land acquisition,
forest or other clearances etc. which are causing delay
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 in infrastructure projects. Cabinet Secretary should
monitor such exercise. A list of delayed projects due to
such court decisions and orders, including loss incurred
to the exchequer may also be prepared and complied by
the Cabinet Secretary.”
4. Allahabad High Court Observes “Declare Cow a
National Animal & Cow Protection a Fundamental
Right of Hindus”
The Allahabad High Court on 1st September 2021 said
that the cow should be declared the national animal and
that gau raksha (cow protection) should be included as
a fundamental right of the Hindus. The court observed
that, “The cow and its progeny hold a special place in
Indian ethos, with cows being considered akin to a
mother herself,” the Allahabad High Court has denied
bail to a man charged for the theft and illegal slaughter
of a cow. Amongst other significant observations, the
court also remarked that “cow should be declared the
national animal and cow protection should be declared
to be a fundamental right of Hindus”, in light of the
essentiality it holds in Hinduism. Considering that cow
protection has been embedded in Indian ethos and that
“even during the Constitutional Assembly Debates the
issue of making cow protection a fundamental right
had been raised, and that the fact that Hindus worship
cows has been respected by major Non-Hindu leaders as
well, since time immemorial,” the single judge bench of
Justice Shekhar Kumar Yadav hearing the matter further
said that it is for the government to bring a Bill in the
Parliament including protection of cow and its progeny
in the Fundamental Rights, and declaring cow as the
national animal.
5. Focus on “big fish” if really concerned about Non-
performing assets: Supreme Court tells Public Sector
Banks
Dismissing a Special Leave Petition filed by Canara Bank
against the order of the Madras High Court, Supreme
Court on said that instead of running after those who
have petty loans of a few thousand rupees, public
sector banks should focus their energy on recovering
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loans from “big fish” and “big corporate debtors.” The
Bench comprising Justices D. Y. Chandrachud, MR Shah
and Hima Kohli told the appellant, Canara bank, that
if the bank is really concerned about the rising Non-
Performing Assets (NPAs) of the public sector banks, it
should first concentrate on big corporate debtors. The
Supreme Court dismissed the Special Leave Petition by
the Canara Bank and upheld the order of the High Court
in which the High Court held that Canara Bank cannot
recover its outstanding loan from the fixed deposit of
the Tiruchirapalli Multipurpose Social Service Society
since there was no formal contract or express agreement
of recovery from the society in case of failure by the
borrowers to repay the loans.
6. Supreme Court directs States/UT’s to “Facilitate
Vaccinations of all persons lodged in Mental
Healthcare Institutions within 1 month”
On a plea filed by Advocate Gaurav Bansal seeking
rehabilitation of persons recovered from Mental illness,
yet allegedly languishing in hospitals or mental health
care institutions, the Supreme Court directed all states
and union territories to ensure that its earlier directions
of July 6 are complied with and to lay down time bound
schedule for facilitation vaccination of all persons lodged
in Mental Health Institutions within a period of 1 month.
A bench comprising of Justices DY Chandrachud,
MR Shah and Hima Kohli observed that many states
including Maharashtra were not complying with the
comprehensive social welfare scheme as stipulated by
the Union Ministry for rehabilitation of those lodged in
Mental Healthcare institutions.
7. 3 women Judges take oath, 9 Judges get appointed
in one go, 4 sitting Judges are now women
The Chief Justice of India NV Ramana administered
oath to nine new judges as “Justices of the Supreme
Court”. With the swearing-in of the nine new judges,
the strength of the Supreme Court has now risen to
33, including the Chief Justice NV Ramana out of the
sanctioned strength of 34.
The nine new judges which are appointed are - Gujarat
High Court Chief Justice Vikram Nath, Sikkim High Court
Chief Justice J K Maheshwari, Telangana High Court
Chief Justice Hima Kohli, Karnataka High Court judge
Justice B V Nagarathna, Justice C T Ravikumar of Kerala
High Court, Justice M M Sundaresh of Madras High
Court, Justice Bela Trivedi of Gujarat High Court, and
senior advocate P S Narasimha.
Among these nine judges, three are women constituting
33 percent of the newly elevated judges. Justice NV
Ranganathan, who is one of the three women judges,
could also be appointed as India’s first woman Chief
Justice in September 2027.
8. Madras High Court Directs for “Curtailing Menace of
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 Fake Journalists”, Directs for Appointment of Press
Council of Tamil Nadu
A divisional bench of Justice N Kirubakaran and Justice
P Velumurugan observed while hearing two petitions
that, “This is the position of media as on date. People
want the news as it is and not the views of the editors
or reporters. Many media houses very sadly report the
news according to their views and ideology. One can
have ideology/ views but that should not be mixed with
the contents of the news as it would amount to corrupt
practice, thrusting one’s views on others.” The bench
also observed that, “media is now a multi-fanged genie
that had got out of the bottle and has spread its vicious
tentacles everywhere. It is difficult to put it back into the
bottle, as everyone has tasted blood. The term ‘media’
broadly comprises the traditional print media (dailies,
weeklies, fortnightlies and monthlies), television and
online portals. But, nowadays YouTubers, who run their
own ‘channels’ and bloggers who are active on their own
blog page or do tweets or Instagram activists have also
started calling themselves as media persons or ‘media
influencers.”
The bench thus, directed the State Government to
appoint “Press Council of Tamil Nadu” headed by
a retired Judge of Hon’ble Supreme Court or High
Court, consisting of team of experienced and reputed
journalists, both working and retired, retired civil
servants and police officials in the rank of IAS and IPS,
within a period of three months.
9. Madras High Court Observes, “Elephant use in
temple rituals any different from their use for
begging on streets? Religious sentiments must give
way sometimes”
In a plea filed by activist Rangarajan Narasimhan over
the alleged inhumane treatment of elephants kept in
temples across the state of Tamil Nadu, Madras High
Court on Friday ordered the Principal Chief Conservator
of Forests to prepare a catalogue of all captive elephants
in the state along with their video recordings. The court
observed in this matter that, “It is also time to re-think
whether, in the light of the law in the country, elephants
can be subjected to the ignominy of participating in
temple celebrations or temple rituals and whether such
activities are any better than elephants being used for
begging on streets” and at times religious sentiments
must yield to reason and if at all the animal’s point
of view can be perceived, it may also be taken into
consideration upon obtaining scientific and expert
advice in such regard.
10. Supreme Court Collegium recommends 68 Names
for Elevation As Judges to 12 High Courts
The Supreme Court Collegium headed by Chief
Justice of India N. V. Ramana recommended 68 names,
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including 10 women, for elevation to 12 High Courts
of the country in one go. The Collegium picked the
68 names from a list of a total of 112 probable names.
The Collegium comprised of CJI Ramana, Justice U.
U. Lalit and Justice A. M. Khanwilkar. The Collegium
recommendations will become final if accepted by the
Central Government. Out of the final 68 names, 44 are
members of the Bar while 24 are judicial officers. Also,
out of the 68 names, 12 names are reiterations, which
include 9 advocates and 3 judicial officers for 5 High
Courts. The recommendations have been made for the
High Courts of Allahabad (16 names), Madhya Pradesh
(1 name), Rajasthan (7 names), Punjab & Haryana (4
names), Calcutta (10 names), Jharkhand (5 names),
Chhattisgarh (2 names), Gauhati (5 names), Karnataka (2
names), Madras (4 names), Kerala (8 names) and Jammu
& Kashmir (4 names). The maximum recommendations
have been made for the Allahabad High Court, Calcutta
High Court, and the Kerala High Court respectively
11. “Faith and trust is decreasing because of it, ergo he
must suffer consequences”: Allahabad High Court
Rejects Rape Accused Baba’s Bail
The Allahabad High Court rejected the bail plea of a
50-year-old rape accused Sage (Baba), who often used
to visit the victim’s house. The Court while rejecting the
bail observed that “on account of these kind of incidents,
faith and trust on the person is decreasing”. The bench of
Justice Sanjay Kumar Singh also observed that, “In this
case, a heinous crime of kidnapping and rape has been
committed with a child/girl by the accused, who is a sage
(Baba) aged about 50 years and was known to victim’s
father and used to visit her house, ergo he must suffer
for its consequences.” “The act of sexual assault induces
trauma and horror for any girl or regardless of her social
position in society...As a matter of fact, the crime is not
only against the victim, it is against the whole society as
well
12. Delhi High Court asks Women and Child Development
Ministry for report on Permanent Mechanism for
Inter-Country Adoptions
The single judge bench of Delhi High Court comprising
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 of Justice Pratibha M Singh while hearing a batch of
petitions raising issues relating to international adoption
of Indian children directed the Ministry of Women and
Child Development to file a report as to the manner and
mode of creating a permanent mechanism to deal with
direct and indirect inter-country adoptions under the
Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 (‘HAMA’)
and place the said report before the court within a
period of two months.
The court observed that as of now, there exists no
provision under the Act dealing with inter-country
adoptions. It was further observed that the procedure
under HAMA regulates both domestic and inter-
country adoptions, however there is a need to have a
re-look at the statute post the ratification of the Hague
Convention. In respect of, Central Adoption Resource
Authority (CARA), the court observed that, “However,
currently, CARA is the only agency dealing with inter-
country adoptions. Thus, apart from any amendments in
the law which may be required, there is also a need to
create a specialized agency for inter-country adoptions
under HAMA or to vest the said jurisdiction with CARA
itself”.
13. “Only Native Bull allowed in Jallikattu, Foreign/
Hybrid breeds Not Fit for Event”: Madras High Court
A bench of Madras High Court comprising of Justice N.
Kirubakaran (since retired) and Justice P. Velmurugan
held in a plea insisting to allow only native bulls alone to
participate in events such as Jallikattu, Manjuvirattu, etc
directed the Tamil Nadu State Government to allow only
native breeds of bulls to participate in Jallikattu events
and imported or hybrid bulls are ‘not fit’ for participating
in the event.
The court observed that the native breeds have got
huge hump which is necessary for the tamers to hold
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on during ‘Jallikattu’ whereas the hump is not grown and
available in the hybrids or imported bulls.
14. Supreme Court upholds NCDRC Order granting
compensation to passenger for delayed Train
The Supreme Court’s bench comprising of Justice
MR Shah and Justice Aniruddha Bose upheld the
order passed by the National Consumer Disputes
Redressal Commission, New Delhi and observed that
“Citizen/passenger cannot be at the mercy of the
authorities/administration. Somebody has to accept the
responsibility” and further observed that, “It cannot be
disputed that every passenger’s time is precious and
they might have booked the tickets for further journey,
like in the present case from Jammu to Srinagar and
thereafter further journey.”
The National Consumer Forum had confirmed the
original order passed by the District Consumer Disputes
Redressal Forum, Alwar in which it had allowed the
complaint filed by the respondent, directing the
Northern Western Railway to pay Rs. 15,000/- for taxi
expenses, Rs.10,000/- towards booking expenses along
with Rs. 5,000/-, towards mental agony and litigation
expenses.
Thus, the Supreme Court also held that if railways fail to
provide evidence and explain late arrival of a train and
that if it is unable to establish
that delay occurred because
of the reasons beyond its
control, they would be liable
to pay compensation to the
passenger and rejected the
SLP filed by the Northern
Railways.
15. “Deadline to File
Charge sheet Under UAPA,
Cannot be Extended by
A Magistrate”: Supreme
Court
In an appeal filed by
four accused persons who
were arrested under UAPA,
the Three-Judge Bench of
Supreme Court comprising
of Justice U.U. Lalit, Justice S. Ravindra Bhat and Justice
Bela M. Trivedi held that only a special court designated
under UAPA will be authorised to deal with the issue of
extending the time for filing of charge sheets in such
cases. Under the UAPA a “court” has to be construed
as a special court, or a sessions court in the absence
of a special court. It cannot include a “magistrate” as
mentioned under Section 167 of the Criminal Procedure
Code (CrPC).
The Supreme Court held that in so far as time to
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 complete an investigation is concerned, such a power of
a magistrate, so as to extend the time for filing of the
charge sheet under UAPA, is non-existent and while
doing so the magistrate will not be within his jurisdiction.
16. “Unable to agree with view that Live-in relationships
destroy social fabric”: Punjab & Haryana High Court
The Single Bench of Justice Anmol Rattan Singh of the
Punjab & Haryana High Court observed that, if two adult
people are in a live-in relationship with each other, even
though they are already married to someone else, it
would not amount to an offence. During the course of
hearing, the Court did not agree with Allahabad High
Court’s Social Fabric ruling as stated in Smt. Aneeta and
another v. State of U.P. & three others where the High
Court had observed that, live-in-relationship can’t be
at the cost of the social fabric of this Country and held
that, “With due respect, I find myself unable to agree
with that, especially in view of the fact that the Supreme
Court in Joseph Shine v.Union of India (Writ Petition
(Criminal) no.194 of 2017, decided on 27.09.2018), has
struck down Section 497 of the IPC as being has been
unconstitutional and violative of Articles 14, 15 and 21
of the Constitution of India, (the said provision being
one providing punishment for adultery).”
17. Considering Reformative theory of punishment &
larger mandate of the Article 21, Allahabad High
Court grants bail to accused
The Allahabad High Court bench of Justice Vivek Kumar
Singh granted bail to an accused who was languishing in
jail since 20.3.2017. The Court while doing so observed
that, it was a fit case to grant the bail, if reformative theory
of punishment and larger mandate of the Article 21 of
the Constitution of India were taken into consideration.
The Court further observed that the overcrowding of
jails during the current pandemic situation must also
be taken notice of. The Bench relied on judgment by
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Hon’ble Supreme Court in Dataram Singh v. State of U.P.
and another in which it was stated that, “Considering
nature of accusation, severity of punishment in case of
conviction, nature of supporting evidence, prima facie
satisfaction in support of the charge, reformative theory
of punishment, and larger mandate of the Article 21
of the Constitution
of India… without
expressing any view
on the merits of the
case, I find it to be a
case of bail.”
18. Madras HC
directs Centre to
Strictly follow the
provision of Section
3 of the Official
Languages Act,
1963
Hearing a plea
that sought directions
ensuring that any
communication
between the Union of India and the State of Tamil
Nadu shall be only in English, Madras High Court has
directed the Union Government to strictly follow the
provision of Section 3 of the Official Languages Act,
1963. The Division Bench of Justice N. Kirubakaran and
Justice M. Duraiswamy at Madurai Bench of the High
Court held, “One is entitled to submit a representation
to any Agency or Officer of the Union or the States
in any of the languages used in India or in the States.
Once a representation is given in English, it is the duty
of the Union Government to give a reply in English
only which will also be in consonance with the statute,
viz., the Official Languages Act.” Therefore, taking into
consideration the provisions of the Official Languages
Act, 1963 (the Act) and the Official Languages Rules
1976, the Court directed that the Union Government,
other officers, and instrumentalities shall follow the
concerned provisions of both the laws.
19. Delhi HC rejects bail plea of 2 accused in Delhi Riots
The single Judge bench of Justice Subramonium Prasad
of the Delhi High court dismissed the bail application
of Irshad Ali and Sadiq, accused for the murder of Head
Constable Ratan Lal and causing injuries to Police
Personnel during the North East Delhi Riots. The Court
observed that both had actively participated and pelted
stones at the Police Officials at the Scene of Crime which
justified the invocation of Section 149 IPC read with
Section 302 IPC in the instant case.
Rejecting the bail application of Irshad Ali the Court
observed that “a perusal of the video footage revealed
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 that the Petitioner was seen, wearing a sky-blue Nehru
jacket, grey salwar-kurta and a white skull cap, on
GNCTD Camera ID No.7033161 installed at E2 56 Chand
Bagh at 12:04:19 PM, instigating the crowd to follow
him.” The Court said that Irshad was also seen on various
cameras with a danda in his hand and his face partially
covered. Further perusal of the video taken by Vishal
Chaudhry from Gym Body Fit Garage revealed that
Irshad was present at the Scene of Crime participating
with the mob and actively attacking the hopelessly
outnumbered Police force. With regard to accused
Sadiq the Court observed that perusal of the material
on record revealed that the Petitioner has been seen
on multiple CCTV footage, carrying a danda with co-
accused Imran Ansari. “The clinching evidence that tilts
this Court to prolong the incarceration of the Petitioner
is his presence in the Vishal Chaudhry video wherein
he is clearly identified at the Scene of Crime, holding
a danda in one hand and pelting stones with his other
hand at uniformed officials who at present around him,
and are heavily and hopelessly outnumbered. This Court
is of the opinion that the Vishal Chaudhary video reveals
that the Petitioner is not merely a curious onlooker. The
fact that he actively participated and pelted stones at
the Police Officials at the Scene of Crime justifies the
invocation of Section 149 IPC read with Section 302 IPC
in the instant case.
20. Supreme Court directs Delhi Police to ensure secrecy
qua investigation in missing minor case of 13-year
old girl
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A Supreme Court bench of Justice AM Khanwilkar, Justice
Hrishikesh Roy, and Justice CT Ravikumar while hearing
a plea filed by mother of a 13-year-old who is missing
since July 8, 2021, observed that, “there are two contrary
documents, let us first determine her age as we cannot
force pregnancy test,” in light of an earlier submission by
UP Police that the child had refused medical tests and
had said she was above 18. The Supreme Court directed
the Delhi Police to maintain secrecy in the investigation
in the case. The plea alleged that despite filing an FIR with
Gorakhpur Police and making efforts to file a complaint
with the Delhi Police, no action has been taken to date
to trace the minor girl as the girl used to work as house
help in Delhi.
21. Supreme Court observed: Continued litigation and
allegations may amount to cruelty
The Supreme Court allowed divorce to a couple living
separately from the date of marriage for almost 20 years
and held that a decree of divorce dissolving marriage
may also be passed also on account of cruelty, whereas
continued litigation and allegations may amount to
cruelty.
A bench of Justice Sanjay Kishan Kaul and Justice
Hrishikesh Roy observed that, “this is one case where
both the ground of irretrievable breakdown of marriage
and the ground of cruelty on account of subsequent
facts would favour the grant of decree of divorce in
favour of the appellant.”
22. Haryana man granted divorce after losing 21kg due
to mental cruelty by wife
The Punjab and Haryana
High Court has upheld the
decision of a lower court to
grant the relief of divorce to
a differently-abled man who
contended that his weight
fell from 74kg to 53kg after
his marriage, as he suffered
mental torture at the hands of
his wife.
A bench of Justices
Ritu Bahri and Archana Puri
dismissed the appeal petition
filed by the man’s wife against
the family court’s divorce order
on the basis of the fact that she
had lodged false complaints
of dowry harassment against
her husband and his family.
In fact, her matrimonial family
bore the cost of her higher
education after the marriage,
the court noted.
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 The Court observed that, “Keeping in view that the
appellant was an educated woman, she was aware of
the effects of the criminal complaints, which she had
made against her husband and his family members in
2013 and 2019… Moreover, he was looking after his
three-year-old daughter alone after his wife had left the
matrimonial home in the year 2016. All this amounted
to mental cruelty”. Thus, the HC held that the man is
entitled to the dissolution of his matrimonial alliance
with the appellant.
23. Delhi govt. moves Supreme Court on ‘powers’ of L-G
The Delhi government has moved the Supreme Court
seeking the quashing of four amended sections of
the ‘Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi
(GNCTD) Act’ and 13 Rules of the ‘Transaction of Business
of the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi
Rules, 1993’.
The petition was filed on August 10. It was orally
mentioned for early hearing by the AAP government,
represented by senior advocate A.M. Singhvi, on
September 13 before a Bench led by Chief Justice of
India N.V. Ramana.
The Delhi government has contended that the amended
Act violates the “basic structure of the Constitution”
and that the Centre, through the amendments, has
given more power to the Lieutenant-Governor than the
elected government of Delhi.
24. “Age-old ploy of blaming the court”, taking note
of the delay in action, Madras HC asks State to file
status report within a week
In an encroachment matter of waterbodies in Tamil
Nadu, the Division Bench of Chief Justice Sanjib Banerjee
and Justice P.D.Audikesavalu of the Madras High Court
observed that the executive is trying to indulge in the
age-old ploy of blaming the court for effective action not
being taken and directed the State to file its status report
within a week about the actions being taken against the
encroachers. The Court demanded that he court needs
to be convinced that genuine steps are being taken to
protect waterbodies and forests and whatever is left of
the coastal regions and nature and ordered the State for
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required appropriate action to be taken in accordance
with law under the Tamil Nadu Protection of Tanks and
Eviction of Encroachment Act, 2007 upon due notice to
the perceived encroachers.
25. Punjab & Haryana High Court grants anticipatory
bail to Gurdas Maan in alleged case of hurting
religious sentiments
The Punjab & Haryana High Court granted anticipatory
bail to Gurdas Maan (playback singer and Punjabi
Lyricist) facing charges under Section 295A of Indian
Penal Code for his statement that Guru Amar Daas Ji,
the third Guru of Sikhs and Vijay Kumar Bhalla, who
became an ascetic named Laddi Shah, both could be
related - being from the same “Bhalla” gotra. Noting that
no recovery is to be made in the matter as the case is set
up on a viral video, the High Court Single Judge Bench
of Justice Avneesh Jhingan granted bail subject to Maan
joining the investigation within a week.
26. Madras HC declines to Stay Rule 7 of the IT Rules
2021, stays Rule 9
Madras High Court has denied staying Rule 7 of IT
Rules of 2021 while addressing the apprehension of
intermediaries of action being taken against them under
Rule 7 of the IT rules 2021 and that it will affect their
rights under Article 19 of the Constitution. However,
the Bench stayed sub-rules (1) and (3) of Rule 9 of
Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code
Rules 2021 (IT Rules 2021) as was earlier also stayed
by the Bombay High Court. The Bench of Chief Justice
Sanjib Banerjee and Justice P.D Audikesavalu said that
it is not staying the Rule 7 though if any action is taken
against the intermediaries, the same will abide by the
result of the petitions.
27. Accused’s failure to discharge burden under S.106
Evidence Act irrelevant if chain of circumstances not
established, observes Supreme Court
In a recent judgment the Supreme Court has observed
that the accused persons’ failure to discharge burden of
proof under Section 106 of the Evidence Act, 1872 is not
relevant in a case governed by circumstantial evidence,
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 if the prosecution is unable to establish a chain of
circumstance.
The division bench of Justice Ajay Rastogi and Justice
Abhay S Oka while acquitting the accused of charges u/s
302 and 201 of IPC and setting aside the High Court’s
order dated April 22, 2019 observed that, “When a case
is resting on circumstantial evidence, if the accused
fails to offer a reasonable explanation in discharge of
burden placed on him by virtue of Section 106 of the
Evidence Act, such a failure may provide an additional
link to the chain of circumstances.” On a case governed
by circumstantial evidence the bench further observed
that, “If the chain of circumstances which is required to
be established by the prosecution is not established, the
failure of the accused to discharge the burden under
Section 106 of the Evidence Act is not relevant
at all. When the chain is not complete,
falsity of the defence is no ground
to convict the accused.”
28. Inter-religious couple
seeks Courts protection
apprehending threat
to life, Allahabad
High Court says
“even parents
cannot object to
two people in
love”
The Allahabad
High Court,
while hearing a
joint plea filed
by a young live-
in couple, seeking
the protection of
the Court, opined that
when two people are
major and claim to be in
love, not even their parents
can object to their relationship.
Court went on to state that the State
Government must ensure that no harassment
is met out to the couple. A Division Bench of Justices
Deepak Verma and Manoj Kumar Gupta observed,“It
cannot be disputed that two adults have right of choice
of their matrimonial partner irrespective of religions
professed by them. As the present petition is a joint
petition by the two individuals who claims to be in
love with each other and are major, therefore, in our
considered opinion, nobody, not even their parents,
could object to their relationship.”
29. When insurer Company not able to prove
contributory negligence of claimant, it is bound to
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pay insurance: Karnataka High Court
The Karnataka High Court held that when the insurer
is not able to prove the contributory negligence of the
claimant, then the insurer is bound to pay insurance.
Justice Natraj Rangaswamy, in his order stated that, “In
absence of any material to establish that three persons
riding on a motorcycle itself constituted contributory
negligence, the insurer cannot contend that it was
exonerated from the liability to pay compensation.”
30. NCPCR moves Delhi High Court seeking removal of
tweet by Mohammed Zubair
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
(NCPCR) has filed an affidavit in the Delhi High Court
seeking action against Twitter’s refusal to remove a
tweet posted by Alt News co-founder Mohammed
Zubair in 2020 and to implead twitter as a necessary
party in the case (Mohammed Zubair v.
State of GNCT & Ors). The tweet posted
by Mohammed Zubair allegedly
“threatened and tortured a
minor girl” and contains a
photo of the girl, with her
face blurred. NCPCR has
informed the Delhi High
Court that Twitter is
not cooperating with
the law enforcement
agencies and is not
following the law
of the land by not
taking action against
the said post. Stating
that the post is violative
of Juvenile Justice Act,
POCSO Act, IPC as well as
the Information Technology
Act, NCPCR has sought for
impleadment of Twitter in the
matter with a view to protect dignity
of the minor girl and protection of her
identity.
31. Right of accused to impeach
witness testimony indefeasible even by Section
172(3) CrPC
Single Judge Bench of Justice K Haripal of the Kerala
High Court held that the embargo in Section 172(3) of
the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) does not take
away the right of the accused to use previous statements
of witnesses to impeach their testimonies. Referring to
the Supreme Court’s judgment in the case of Tahsildar
Singh and others v. State of UP, the Court held,” This
right has not been taken away by Section 172 of the
CrPC. In other words, such a right is an indefeasible one
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 available to the defence”. The court further observed
that in view of Section 161 of the CrPC and Section 145
of the Evidence Act, it is the right of every accused in
a criminal trial to make use of the previous statements
of a witness including the statements recorded by the
investigating agency during the course of investigation
for the purpose of establishing contradiction in evidence
or to discredit the witness.
32. Supreme Court reserves order in plea against
dropping of KCOCA charges in Gauri Lankesh murder
case.
The Supreme Court reserved orders in an appeal
challenging the Karnataka High Court order quashing
charges under the Karnataka Control of Organised
Crimes Act (KCOCA) against one of the accused in the
assassination case of journalist, Gauri Lankesh. The
plea stated that the High Court made a mistake by not
examining the scheme of Section 24 of the KCOCA,
which states that no Special Court shall take cognizance
of any offence under the Act without the previous
sanction of a police officer not below the rank of
Additional Director General of Police. The same was duly
complied with in this case, it was pointed out. The Bench
of Justices AM Khanwilkar, Dinesh Maheshwari and CT
Ravikumar observed that though benefit could be given
to accused Mohan Nayak prior to the approval stage,
the act of quashing the chargesheet against him was
“incorrect.” “You can argue lack of evidence. High Court
has quashed the chargesheet itself. This is incorrect and
this is in excess of the jurisdiction. It cannot be quashed
like this. High Court has not analysed the chargesheet,
then we have to say High Court has not dealt with
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the chargesheet correctly,” the Bench said. The Bench
further stated that, “Suppose there is a gang of 20
persons. 4 persons have planned and others attacked
on the forefront. Now just because the planners did not
come ahead, will they not be charged under the law as
conspirators, abettors? They are still members.”
33. Delhi High Court stated that family courts should
avoid a hyper-technical approach
A Division Bench of Justices Vipin Sanghi and Jasmeet
Singh of the Delhi High Court held in the case Ajay
Dubey vs. Annapurna that family courts should avoid a
hyper-technical approach and
should have a litigant-friendly
mindset while dealing with
cases. The Court observed
that many a time, parties
appear before family courts
in person without the help
of lawyers. Therefore, the
rigid rules of evidence and
procedure are more relaxed
in family courts, the Court
said. It was further observed
by the court that “The Family
Court is obliged to function
so as to relieve the parties
of the suffering that they are
going through on account
of matrimonial disputes. It
is expected to act with due
application of mind and
without being hypertechnical
about matters brought before it. The Family Court
should have a litigant friendly approach, and function
in the spirit of helping parties resolve their disputes –
either mutually, or through the Courts determination”.
34. Raj Kundra granted bail by Mumbai court in porn
film case
A Mumbai Court granted bail to businessman Raj Kundra,
accused in the porn film case of 2021. Kundra moved to
the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate at Esplanade, Mumbai
seeking bail on the ground that the investigation against
him was complete. After briefly hearing the matter, Chief
Metropolitan Magistrate SB Bhajipale allowed Kundra’s
bail application and stating he will be released on bail
upon furnishing bail bond of ₹50,000.
35. Supreme Court stays NCDRC order which held Yash
Raj Films liable for omitting promo song “jabra” from
SRK starrer ‘Fan’
The Supreme Court issued notice to the respondent on
an appeal filed by Yash Raj Films challenging a National
Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC)
order directing the production house to pay Rs 10,000 as
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 compensation to a consumer aggrieved by exclusion of
the song ‘Jabra Fan’, from Shah Rukh Khan-starrer movie,
‘Fan’. Apart from issuing the notice, the Bench of Justices
Hemant Gupta and Justice V Ramasubramanium also
stayed the NCDRC order passed against Yash Raj films.
36. Madras High Court observed that illegal
encroachment of temple property a crime against
society
The Madras High Court reiterated that fraudulent or
illegal encroachment of temple properties is a crime
against society. Justice SM Subramaniam made this
observations while upholding eviction proceedings
against a man who claimed to be the leaseholder of
certain property owned by the Arulmigu Agatheeswara
Swamy Thirukkoil. It was further observed by the
court that, “Fraudulent and illegal encroachments of
temple properties is a crime against the society at
large. Misappropriation of the funds of the temple is
undoubtedly an offence and all such offences are to be
registered and the offenders are liable to be prosecuted
by the State as the State is the controller of these temples
and the offences are also committed against the State.
Temple properties are allowed to be looted by few
greedy men and by few professional criminals and land
grabbers. Active or passive contribution and collusion
by the officials of the HR & CE Department cannot be
overruled. These lapses, negligence, dereliction of duty
on the part of such public officials are also to be viewed
seriously and all appropriate actions in this regard are
highly warranted”.
37. AAP MLA Akhilesh Pati Tripathi released on
probation after conviction for obstruction
A Special Court in Delhi dealing with cases of Members
of Parliament and Members of Legislative Assemblies
has released Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) MLA Akhilesh Pati
Tripathi on probation after convicting him in April this
year in a 2013 rioting case. The Court released him by
judicary.gold@toprankers.com 76 76 56 44 00
stating that “The convict Akhilesh Pati Tripathi is released
on probation of good conduct for a period of 3 months
on furnishing a bond of good conduct...” Tripathi was
facing a maximum punishment of a three-month jail
term.
Besides Tripathi, another person named Geeta, convicted
in the same case but facing a maximum of 10 years in
prison, was also released on probation for a period of two
years on furnishing a bond of good conduct. Releasing
both convicts, the Court held, “I deem it fit to give the
benefit of Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act,
1958 to the convicts and to release the convicts on
probation of good conduct.”
38. Bombay High Court dismisses RSS worker’s plea in
Rahul Gandhi defamation speech matter
The Bombay High Court dismissed a petition filed
against Congress leader Rahul Gandhi by a Rashtriya
Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) worker Rajesh Kunte
challenging an order of a Thane Court in pending
criminal defamation proceedings against. Justice
Revati Mohite Dere passed the order dismissing the
petition and upholding the order passed by a Bhiwani
Magistrate Court in Thane which rejected an application
filed by Kunte seeking admission or denial of the alleged
defamatory speech made by Gandhi.
39. Delhi High Court issued notice to the AAP govt.
seeking response on plea against home delivery of
liquor
The Delhi High Court sought the response of the Aam
Aadmi Party (AAP) government to a plea challenging
the amendment to the Delhi Excise Rules, 2010 by
which home delivery of alcohol has been permitted
through mobile applications and websites. The Delhi
government had, by way of Delhi Excise (Amendment)
Rules 2021 introduced changes to the Delhi Excise Rules,
2010. The plea before the High Court by one Parvesh
Sahib Singh Verma specifically raised challenge to the
amended Rule 66(6) of the 2010 Rules. A Bench of Chief
Justice DN Patel and Justice Amit Bansal issued notice to
the government and posted the case for further hearing
on September 24.
40. Delhi High Court issued notice to the AAP govt. in a
plea by ML Sharma derecognize AAP after Delhi govt
organises Ganesh Chaturthi
The Delhi High Court issued notice in a plea registering
protest against the conduct and broadcast of Ganesh
Chaturthi by the Arvind Kejriwal-led Delhi government
(GNCTD) and seeking the derecognition of the Aam
Aadmi Party (AAP). Notice has been issued by a Bench
of Chief Justice DN Patel and Justice Amit Bansal only
to three respondents, i.e. the Central government, the
GNCTD and the Election Commission of India (ECI),
which was the eleventh respondent in the matter.
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 41. Supreme Court issues notice to Centre on plea
against last minute change in syllabus of NEET PG
Super Speciality exam
The Supreme Court on Monday issued notice to the
National Board of Examination (NBE), National Medical
Commission (NMC) and Central government on a plea
challenging last minute changes to the syllabus for the
National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) PG Super
Speciality exam 2021 (NEET SS 2021). The plea by 41
PG Qualified Doctors challenged abrupt last-minute
changes contending that the same was done to favour
general medicine candidates. A Bench headed by
Justice DY Chandrachud stated in the order that, “It is
stated new pattern will 100% have questions from area
of general medicine which would be advantageous for
the students who are in general medicine. Issue notice.”
42. Supreme Court issue notice to centre to seek
response on the plea seeking Door to door COVID
vaccination for disabled persons
The Supreme Court issued notice to Central government
to seek response on a plea seeking door-to-door,
priority vaccination against COVID-19 for persons with
disabilities. A Bench headed by Justice DY Chandrachud
also sought the assistance of Solicitor General Tushar
Mehta in the matter. The Bench ordered that, “Since the
plea raises substantial questions dealing with rights of
the disabled. We issue notice to the Union of India. We
would request learned SG Tushar Mehta to assist us with
regarding steps taken and steps which will be taken to
assuage concerns of petitioners. List this after 2 weeks.”
43. Special CBI Court refuses bail to wife and daughters
of Rana Kapoor in Yes Bank scam case.
A special court in Mumbai rejected the bail application
of Yes Bank founder Rana Kapoor’s wife, Bindu Kapoor
and daughters Radha Kapoor and Roshini Kapoor in the
corruption cases related to Dewan Housing Financial
Limited (DHFL). Special Judge SU Wadgaonkar on
22 judicary.gold@toprankers.com
September 18, rejected the bail application and held
that, “Considering the gravity and nature of offence and
in the larger interest of society, as accused/ applicants
involved in causing wrongful loss to the
huge public money of ₹4000 crores, the
applications deserve to be rejected.”
For this reason the Court also refused
to consider the contention that the two
petitioners were women and one of them
was a mother to young children. The
court further observed in the matter that,
“The applicants involved in grave offence
affecting the economy of the country and
are continue to reap the benefits of the
crime committed by them, do not deserve
any indulgence and any sympathy to them
being the women or mother of small kids.”
44. Bombay High Court imposes cost
on 16 bail petitioners for seeking time
In the case of Sambhaji Shirsat v. State of Maharashtra
and connected matters, the Bombay High Court
imposed costs of ₹5,000 each on 16 bail petitioners
on the ground that their counsel sought time from the
Court in order to seekh instructions in a matter which
was substantially argued.
45. Senior Advocate Atul Nanda resigns from the post of
Punjab Advocate General
Senior Advocate Atul Nanda has resigned from the post
of Advocate General of Punjab. He stated in his letter
that, “You are all by now aware that the Chief Minister of
Punjab, Captain Amarinder Singh has resigned yesterday.
My appointment as Advocate General was co-terminus
with his appointment and also as per constitutional
convention I have tendered my resignation.”
46. High Court under Article 226 cannot substitute
findings of Income Tax Settlement Commission
76 76 56 44 00 toprankers.com
 The Calcutta High Court in the case of Principal
Commissioner of Income Tax, Central-2, Kolkata vs.
Settlement Commission (Income Tax & Wealth Tax) held
that it cannot exercise jurisdiction under Article 226 of
the Constitution to substitute the findings of the Income
Tax Settlement Commission with its own findings in
the absence of legal infirmity in the decision-making
process.
47. Supreme Court rules that Parties must avoid
mindless appeals in commercial matters.
The Supreme Court in the case of UFLEX Ltd v. Govt of
Tamil Nadu held that parties engaged in commercial
litigation, must avoid filing mindless appeals and should
weigh the commercial interests including consequences
if they lose, before filing appeals.
48. Supreme Court stays Madras High Court order
permitting use of ancient Sri Nareeswarar Temple’s
land to construct Collectorate
The Supreme Court stayed the operation of an order
passed by the Madras High Court permitting the State
government to take 35 acres of the Nareeswarar Temple
land at Veeracholapuram on lease for constructing a
collectorate for the newly carved out Kallakurichi district.
49. Both sentence and order of conviction necessary for
appeal: Bombay High Court
The Bombay High Court in a criminal writ petition has
held that accused has no fundamental/statutory right
to appeal against conviction eo instanti. The bench of
Justices SS Shinde & N.J. Jamadar, while dismissing the
petition further held that, “If we accept the submission
judicary.gold@toprankers.com 76 76 56 44 00
on behalf of the petitioner that in every matter, where
the accused is held guilty of a particular offence, he
has a right to prefer an appeal against the said finding
of holding him guilty, then there is a clear and present
risk of destroying the integrity of trial. It would entail a
two stage consideration by the appellate Court. First,
after the accused is held guilty of the offence. Second,
consequent to imposition of sentence on the accused.
Such proposition cannot be countenanced, especially in
the absence of a statutory prescription.”
50. Karnataka High Court imposes cost of Rs 10 lakh for
suppression of facts
The Karnataka High Court imposed Rs 10 lakhs as costs
to a petitioner who filed a PIL against his former business
associate. The court opined that, “In the considered
opinion of this Court, in the present case is a personal
interest litigation in the form the PIL….there is a clear
suppression of facts in the present petition......This Court
is of the considered opinion that the present PIL is not at
all maintainable. This is a personal interest litigation by a
person who is having business interest with Respondent
6. This is a sheer misuse of the process of law.”
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 WEEKELY
ASSIGNMENT – 01
LAW
1. Every person has a right of
private defense his property of
any other person against certain
offence affecting the property,
has been provided.
a. Under section 95 of IPC.
b. Under section 96 of IPC
c. Under section 97 of IPC
d. Under section 98 if IPC.
2. “B’ happened to be member of
unlawful assembly. A factional
fight ensued during which ‘B’ was
injured and retired to the side,
later on a man killed. Now.
a. ‘B’ is guilty of murder
being member of unlawful
assembly
b. ‘B’ is not guilty of murder as
the ceased to be a member
of unlawful assembly at the
time when the murder was
committed
c. B is not murder though he
happened to be a member
of unlawful assembly
d. None of the above.
3. X having delivered money to his
servant to carry to a distant place,
disguises himself and robs the
servant on the high road with an
intent to charge him. X commits
the offence of.
24 judicary.gold@toprankers.com
a. Theft
b. Extortion
c. Robbery
d. Criminal breach of trust.
4. X cuts down a tree on Y’s land
with the intention of dishonestly
taking the tree out of Y’s
possession without Y’s consent. X
commits.
a. No offence until the tree is
taken away
b. The offence of criminal
misappropriation of property
c. The offence of criminal
breach of trust
d. The offence of theft, as soon
as the severance of the tree
from the ground is complete.
5. Abetment may include: (i)
abetment by instigation, (ii)
abetment by conspiracy, (iii)
abetment by aid, (iv) abetment
by acquiescence and (v)
abetment by silence:
a. Only the first three constitute
abetment
b. All the five constitute
abetment
c. Only the first four amount to
abetment
d. Only (ii), (iv) and (v) amount
to abetment
76 76 56 44 00
6. As per section 195A of IPC which
was inserted by The Criminal
Law (Amendment) Act, 2005
the offence of threatening any
person to give false evidence, is
punishable with.
a. Imprisonment up to 7 years
or with fine or with both
b. Imprisonment up to 5 years
or with fine or with both
c. Imprisonment up to 3 years
of with fine or with both
d. Imprisonment up to 1 year or
with fine or with both.
7. In the light of the Criminal Law
following statement (s) Is/are
incorrect.
a. The word rape in section
375 of Indian Penal Code,
1860 has been replaced with
“sexual assault”
b. Rape is now a gender-neural
offence.
c. The Amendment has fixed
the age for consensual sex as
16 years
d. All the above.
8. Sexual harassment of the nature
of making sexually colored
remark attracts a punishment of.
a. Imprisonment extending
up to 1 years or with fine or
both
b. Imprisonment extending
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 up to 3 years or with fine or
both
c. Imprisonment of not less
than 1 year but which may
extend to 3 years and fine
d. None of the above.
9. A instigates B to murder C.B in
pursuance of the instigation
stabs D but the latter recovers
from the wound.
a. A is not guilty of abetment
b. A is not guilty of abetment
because he has simply
stabbed B and not done C to
death as per instigation
c. A is guilty of abetment for
grievous hurt
d. A is guilty of instigating B to
commit murder.
10. Indian Penal Code:- Even after
clear indication of disinterest
shown by a woman to man, if
such man follows her, then under
which circumstances it would not
constitute offence of stalking
(a) It was pursued under a law
(b) One-sided love affair
(c) Due to a commercial
transaction
(d) None of the above
11. The consent is not a valid consent
under section 90.
a. If given under fear of injury
or misconception of fact
b. If given by a person of
unsound mind
c. If given by a child below 12
years of age
d. All the above.
12. Dacoity is committed.
a. When two or more persons
commit or attempt to
commit robbery
b. When five or more person
conjointly commit or
attempt to commit robbery
c. When robbery is committed
with fire-arms or lethal
weapons
judicary.gold@toprankers.com
d. Which seven or more
persons are engaged in
extortion with arms
13. Removal of ornaments
dishonestly from the body of the
deceased person.
a. Robbery under section 392,
IPC
b. Theft under section 378, IPC
c. An offence under section
404, IPC
d. An offence under section
420, IPC.
14. Forced intercourse by a man with
his wife while a decree of judicial
separation is in effect.
a. Is punishable under the
Hindu Marriage Act
b. Is punishable under the
Indian Penal Code
c. Is not an offence in India
d. Both (a) & (b).
15. A instigates B to murder C.B in
pursuance of the instigation
stabs D but the latter recovers
from the wound.
a. A is not guilty of abetment
b. A is not guilty of abetment
because he has simply
stabbed B and not done C to
death as per instigation
c. A is guilty of abetment for
grievous hurt
d. A is guilty of instigating B to
commit murder.
16. Under section 65 of IPC sentence
of imprisonment for non-
payment of fine shall be limited
to.
a. One- third of the maximum
term of imprisonment fixed
for the offence
b. One-fourth of the maximum
term of imprisonment fixed
for the offence
c. One-half of the maximum
term of imprisonment fixed
for the offence
d. Equal to the maximum term
76 76 56 44 00 toprankers.com
of imprisonment fixed for
the offence.
17. If an offender is sentenced
to imprisonment for a term
exceeding one year, the term of
solitary confinement shall not
exceed.
a. One month
b. Two months
c. Three months
d. Six months.
18. A person is stated to be partially
incapax under section 83, IPC if
he is aged.
a. Above seven years and
under twelve years
b. Above seven years and
under ten years
c. Above seven years and
under sixteen years
d. Above seven years and
under eighteen years.
19. For a defense of intoxication,
to escape criminal liability, the
intoxication.
a. Can be self administered
b. Administered against his will
or knowledge
c. Should not be self
administered
d. All the above
20. Section 64 of IPC provides for.
a. Nature & maximum limit
of imprisonment for non-
payment of fine
b. Nature & minimum limit
of imprisonment for non-
payment of fine
c. Nature but does not
prescribe any limit of
imprisonment for non-
payment of fine
d. Limit of imprisonment for
non-payment of fine but
does not prescribe the
nature of imprisonment.
21. Nothing is said to be done or
believed to be done in good
25
 faith which is done or believed
without due care & intention –
is the definition of good faith
contained in.
a. Section 29 of IPC
b. Section 29A of IPC
c. Section 52 of IPC
d. Section 52A of IPC.
22. General exceptions are contained
in.
a. Chapter III of IPC
b. Chapter IV of IPC
c. Chapter V of IPC
d. Chapter VI of IPC.
26. Which is called the first wonder of
the world?
a. The Pyramids of Egypt
b. The Hanging Gardens of
Babylon
c. The Tomb of Mausolus
d. The Colossus of Rhodes Festival?
27. Who built the Pharos of
Alexandria?
a. Dinocrates (d) Raipur
b. Eudoxus of Cnidus
c. Mausolus
d. Sostratus of Cnidus
28. What is the theme for World
Wetlands Day 2021?
(a) Wetlands and Biodiversity
(b) Wetlands and Climate
Change
(c) Wetlands and Water
(d) Wetlands and sustainable
urban future
29. Which team won the Syed
Mushtaq Ali T20 Trophy held in
January 2021?
a. Baroda (b) Mali (a) Hanging garden of
b. Bengal
26 judicary.gold@toprankers.com
23. “In every statute, mens rea is to c. Wrongful restrain
be implied unless the contrary is d. Kidnapping
shown”.
This view was expressed in. 25. What is not correct about “Rape”?
a. Sherras v. De Rutzen a. Consent is immaterial if she
b. R.V. Dudley & Stephen is under 16 years
c. Harding v. Prince b. Penetration is sufficient
d. R.v. Prince c. Intercourse by a man with
his own wife, and the wife
24. A police officer detains a person is not being under 15 yrs., is
in the lock-up despite production not rape.
of a bail order from the Court. The d. Death penalty may be
police officer is guilty of: awarded
a. Abduction
b. Wrongful confinement
GENERAL
KNOWLEDGE
c. Himachal Pradesh (d) South Korea
d. Tamil Nadu
33. Ajay Singh has been re-elected as
30. Where did Vice President M President of which sports body?
Venkaiah Naidu inaugurate (a) Boxing Federation of India
Aadi Mahotsav, a National Tribal (b) Wrestling Federation of India
(c) All India Tennis Association
(a) Lucknow (d) Badminton Association of
(b) Delhi India
(c) Bhopal
34. Who is the author of the
book titled “The Little Book of
31. Who has authored the book titled Encouragement”?
‘Yes Man: The Untold Story of (a) Dalai Lama
Rana Kapoor’? (b) Ashwin Sanghi
(a) Ramapada Sengupta (c) Devdutt Pattanaik
(b) Mohit Bagchi (d) Matthieu Ricard
(c) Pavan C. Lall
(d) Joy Goswami 35. What is the theme of World
Cancer Day 2021?
32. Which country’s military seized (a) Debunk the Myths
power in a bloodless coup (b) I Am and I Will
detaining democratically elected (c) We can. I can.
leader Aung San Suu Kyi and (d) Not Beyond Us
imposing a one-year state of
emergency? 36. Which wonder was discovered by
(a) Indonesia a Swiss explorer in 1812?
(c) Myanmar Babylon
76 76 56 44 00 toprankers.com
 (b) Petra (b) 16 April
(c) The Colossus of Rohdes 38. Who was the first Field Marshal? (c) 17 April
(d) Machu Picchu (a) Field Marshal Kodandera (d) 18 April
Madappa
37. The Pharos (Lighthouse) at (b) General S. H. F. J. Manekshaw 40. On which date World Animal Day
Alexandria was built by which (c) Hiralal Jekisundas Kania is celebrated?
kingdom? (d) None of these (a) 2 October
(a) Ptolemaic Kingdom (b) 3 October
(b) Alexandria Kingdom 39. On which date World Heritage (c) 4 October
(c) Polomatic Kingdom Day is celebrated? (d) 5 October
(d) None of these (a) 15 April

ENGLISH
(Directions 41-45 ):Each question gives a word followed by five choices. From the choices, select the most suitable
synonym (word which means the same) for the main word and mark its number as your answer.
41. Egregious d. deliberate (b) overpower
(a) honourable (c) guide
(b) famous 43. Shimmer (d) denounce
(c) undesirable (a) vacillate
(d) appalling (b) gleam 45. Procreate
(c) diminish (a) beget
42. Obdurate (d) continue (b) advance
a. stubborn (c) publicise
b. rude 44. Usher (d) spread
c. perverse (a) announce

Directions (Q46 to Q47):Each question has a sentence with one word underlined. Identify the meaning of the
underlined word, as used in the sentence, from among the five alternatives and mark its number as your answer
46. The Vatican was our final stop in (d) beneficial (b) capability
Italy before we embarked on our (c) accountability
journey homeward. 48. Kamaal, a. graduate in (d) astuteness
(a) decided marketing, has been obsessed
(b) pursued with songs since the age of 10. 50. Sleep eluded the worried student
(c) proceeded (a) captivated and he went out for a breath of
(d) started (b) disturbed fresh air.
(c) continually preoccupied (a) shadowed
47. The cosmetic preparations that (d) shrouded (b) lacked
are used for beautifying oneself (c) evaded
have deleterious effects. 49. With his cunning business (d) seized
(a) harmful acumen he had amassed a large
(b) unpredictable fortune.
(c) tremendous (a) power

judicary.gold@toprankers.com 76 76 56 44 00 toprankers.com 27
 WEEKELY
ASSIGNMENT
1. The Constitution of India is
(a) Highly federal
(b) Highly unitary
(c) Neither federal nor unitary
(d) Partly federal and partly
unitary
2. The number of Articles and
Schedules in original Indian
Constitution was
(a) 395. Articles and 8 Schedules
(b) 394 Articles and 9 Schedules
(c) 396 Articles and 10
Schedules
(d) 395 Articles and 7 Schedules
3. Sovereignty under Constitution
belong to
(a) the president
(b) the parliament
(c) the people
(d) the executants, judiciary and
legislature
4. Consider the following
statements:
The salient features of the Indian
Constitution provide
1. single citizenship for whole
28 judicary.gold@toprankers.com
LAW
of India
2. strictly federal form of
Government
3. unique blend of rigidity and
flexibility
Which of the above statements
are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
5. According to Supreme Court
decision in S.R. Bommai v. Union
of India, the Constitution of India
is
(a) Federal
(b) Quasi federal
(c) Co-operative union
(d) None of the above
6. A law, which abridges
Fundamental Rights, is not a
nullity but remains inoperative
till the shadow of Fundamental
Rights falls over such rights. This
is known as doctrine of
(a) Pleasure
(b) Pith and substance
(c) Eclipse
76 76 56 44 00
02
(d) Severability.
7. Which of the following cases are
related to Doctrine of Eclipse?
(a) Deep Chand v. State of UP
(b) State of Gujarat v. Ambica
Mills
(c) Dulare Lodh v. 3rd
Additional. District Judge
(d) All the above
8. “Law” under Article 13(3)(a) of the
Constitution includes
1. ordinance, Order, notification
2. bye-law, rule, regulation
3. custom or usage having in
the territory of India the
force of law.
Select the correct answer using
the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
9. Which of the following
Amendments of the Constitution
is related with the reservation in
private educational institutions?
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 (a) Ninety-first Amendment
(b) Ninety-second Amendment
(c) Ninety-third Amendment
(d) None of the above
10. For which of the following can
special provisions be made under
Article 15 of the Constitution of
India?
1. Women and children
2. Scheduled Tribes
3. Economically backward
classes
4. Socially backward classes
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
11. Through which provisions, does
the Constitution of India explicitly
prohibit racial discrimination in
India?
(a) Articles 14 and 17
(b) Articles 17 and 23
(c) Articles 15 and 16
(d) Article 17 only
12. Being a juristic person, a
company is not a citizen. But in
which one of the following cases
the Supreme Court held that if
the state action impairs the rights
of the company thereby affecting
the rights of the shareholder, the
protection of Article 19 will be
available to him?
(a) State Trading Corporation
of India v. Commercial Tax
Officer
(b) Tata Engineering &
Locomotive Co. v. State of
Bihar
(c) R.C. Cooper v. Union of India
(d) Barium Chemicals Ltd. v.
Company Law Board
13. Right to Information is related
to which Article of Indian
Constitution?
(a) Article 19
judicary.gold@toprankers.com
(b) Article 20
(c) Article 16
(d) Article 16
14. Fundamental Freedoms
given under Article 19 of the
Constitution are available only
to:-
(a) Citizens of India
(b) Citizens of India and
Foreigners
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) Foreigners living in India
15. The policemen in a state formed
one association with members
representing all cadres. The
government amended the
rules allowing the formation
of associations with members
belonging to only one order for
each association. The members
challenged the validity of the
amended rules. With regard
to the above which one of the
following is correct?
(a) The amended rule is
invalid as it takes away
the fundamental right of
policemen under Article
19(1)(c).
(b) The amended rule is invalid
as the policemen were not
consulted before the rules
were amended.
(c) The amended rule is valid
as it imposes a reasonable
restriction on the right
conferred by Article 19(1)(c).
(d) The amended rule is valid as
the policemen have no right
to form associations.
16. The government imposes a
ban on television channels
broadcasting news scenes and
stories of communal riots. The
ban is challenged. Which one of
the following is correct?
(a) The ban is invalid as no
hearing was given to the
television channels before
imposing it.
76 76 56 44 00
(b) The ban is invalid as it
violates the freedom of trade
and business.
(c) The ban is valid as the
government has absolute
powers
(d) The ban is valid as the
restriction is saved by clause
(2) of Article 19.
17. Which Fundamental Rights
cannot be suspended even
during an emergency under
Article 352 of the Constitution?
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right to freedom of speech
and expression
(c) Right to life and personal
liberty
(d) Right to constitutional
remedies
18. The right to clean environment
has been elevated to the status
of a Fundamental Right through
the’ interpretation of which of the
following Articles of the Indian
Constitution?
(a) 48(A)
(b) 51(A)(g)
(c) 21
(d) 32
19. The following is not included in
the right to personal liberty:-
(a) Right not to be tortured
(b) Right to free legal aid
(c) Right to equality of wages
(d) Freedom from arrest
20. In case of John Vallamattom v.
Union of India, AIR 2003 SC
2902, the Supreme Court
held that Section 118 of
the Indian Succession Act is
violative of the Article
(a) 25 and 26 of the Constitution
(b) 21 and 32 of the Constitution
(c) 32 and 226 of the
Constitution
(d) 136 and 141 of the
Constitution
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 21. Right to freedom of religion the district courts were the rules of natural justice, it is
cannot be restricted on the empowered to enforce the called a writ of
ground of: fundamental rights of citizens in (a) Certiorari
(a) public order service matters. The legislation is: (b) Mandamus
(b) security of state (a) invalid (c) Quo Warranto
(c) health (b) invalid if the decisions of the (d) Habeas Corpus
(d) morality district courts are subject to
appeal before the Supreme 25. The protection and improvement
22. Which Article of the Constitution Court of environment including forests
provides benefit to minority (c) valid and wildlife of the country are in
institutions: (d) valid even if the powers of (a) Directive Principles
(a) 19 other courts are ousted (b) Fundamental Duties
(b) 16. (c) National Policy
(c) 15 24. When a writ is issued to an (d) both Directive Principles and
(d) 30 inferior court or tribunal on Fundamental Duties
ground of exceeding the
23. By a parliamentary legislation, jurisdiction or acting contrary to

GENERAL
KNOWLEDGE
1. With Indian Space Research Akademi Awards has been
Organisation (ISRO) deciding to 4. Across which region of Jammu authored by whom?
open up its ‘space’ to the private and Kashmir, the ancient (a) Santhy Balachandran
sector, in-a-first where did it Kanchoth festival, a symbol (b) Prashant Pillai
test two satellites developed by of ancient Nag culture, was (c) S. Hareesh
private companies? observed? (d) Girish Gangadharan
(a) Indian Institute of Space (a) Nubra Valley
Science and Technology (b) Chenab Valley 8. Who has been given the
(b) UR Rao Satellite Centre (c) Spiti Valley additional charge as the
(c) Indian Institute of Remote (d) Baspa Valley Lieutenant Governor of
Sensing Puducherry after removal of Kiran
(d) Space Applications Centre 5. When is National Inventors’ Day Bedi from the same position?
observed in India? (a) Bhagat Singh Koshyari
2. Where did Prime Minister Modi (a) February 10 (b) Banwarilal Purohit
inaugurate the country’s first (b) February 11 (c) Arif Mohammad Khan
full-fledged international cruise (c) February 15 (d) Tamilisai Soundararajan
terminal, Sagarika? (d) February 12
(a) Gujarat 9. Hima Das who has been
(b) Goa 6. As per the latest census, which appointed as a Deputy
(c) Kerala national park recorded a total of Superintendent of Police in the
(d) Tamil Nadu 93 thousand 491 birds? Assam state plays which sport for
(a) Jim Corbett National the country?
3. Where did Prime Minister Modi Park (a) Gymnastics
lay the foundation stone of (b) Ranthambore National Park (b) Sprinter
Maharaja Suheldev Memorial? (c) Pench National Park (c) Track and field athlete
(a) Uttar Pradesh (d) Kaziranga national park (d) Badminton
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Rajasthan 7. ‘Meesha’ which won the Best 10. Who has become the first player
(d) Bihar Novel award at Kerala Sahitya in the 143-year history of Test

30 judicary.gold@toprankers.com 76 76 56 44 00 toprankers.com
 cricket to take 200 wickets 12. How much amount has been 14. Who launched the e-Chhawani
against left-handed batsmen? planned to be spent on creating portal recently?
(a) Jasprit Bumrah oil and gas infrastructure over the (a) Smriti Irani
(b) Ravichandran Ashwin 5 years as said by PM Modi under (b) Rajnath Singh
(c) Ajinkya Rahane One nation one gas grid vision? (c) Narendra Modi
(d) Rishabh Pant (a) Rs 7.5 lakh cr (d) Prakash Javedkar
(b) Rs 8.0 lakh cr
11. Prime Minister Narendra Modi (c) Rs 8.5 lakh cr 15. Recently Faf Du Plessis retired
addressed on the occasion (d) Rs 9.0 lakh cr from test cricket. He played for
of ‘Samarpan Diwas’ to which country?
commemorate the contributions 13. What is the name of third (a) SriLanka
of whom on his death Scorpene submarine which was (b) Australia
anniversary? recently commissioned by Indian (c) South Africa
(a) Nanaji Deshmukh Navy? (d) Zimbabwe
(b) Syama Prasad Mukherjee (a) INS Karanj
(c) Ram Manohar Lohia (b) INS Vela
(d) Pandit Deendayal (c) INS Khanderi
Upadhyaya (d) INS Vagir

ENGLISH
(Directions 41-50 ): In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which expresses the meaning of the
idiom printed in bold.
16. At one’s beck and call (d) to be able to do a work easily (b) to keep company
(a) enjoying oneself without (c) to deceive or humiliate him
caring for others 19. To break the ice (d) to exploit a person
(b) to be always at one’s service (a) to start quarrelling
(c) to be under one’s (b) to end the hostility 23. To cool one’s heels
subjugation (c) to start a conversation (a) to rest for some time
(d) to be in an advantageous (d) to end up partnership (b) to give no importance to
position someone
20. To oil the knocker (c) to remain in a comfortable
17. Swan-song (a) to instigate a person to do a position
(a) music as sweet as a song of job (d) to be kept waiting for
birds (b) to do a work with increased sometime
(b) a melodious song in praise pace
of someone (c) to tip the office-boy 24. By the rule of thumb
(c) praise of a woman by her (d) to revive old enmity (a) by the use of force
lover (b) by the use of trickery
(d) last work of a poet or 21. To cut the crackle (c) by cheating and deception
musician before death (a) to humiliate (d) by practical experience
(b) to annoy someone which is rather rough
18. To play to the gallery (c) to act in a friendly way
(a) to work hard to achieve the (d) to stop talking and start 25. A fool’s errand
best working (a) a blunder
(b) trying to get appreciation (b) an impossible task
from least intelligent people 22. To take somebody for a ride (c) a useless undertaking
(c) use wrong means to achieve (a) to provide (d) none of these
success entertainment

judicary.gold@toprankers.com 76 76 56 44 00 toprankers.com 31
 English Practice -1
Directions(Q1 to Q10): In each of the following questions, choose the
alternative which expresses the meaning of the idiom printed in bold.
1. The pros and cons sadistic delight in harming
(a) for and against a thing 5. A baker’s dozen innocent people
(b) foul and fair (a) twelve (c) a person who becomes too
(c) good and evil (b) charity excited where no excitement
(d) former and latter (c) thirteen is warranted
(d) allowance (d) a person who is rough and
2. A sop to Cerberus clumsy where skill and care
(a) bribery 6. To have full hands are required
(b) hush money (a) to be fully occupied
(c) ransom to an enemy (b) to be rich 9. By fair means or foul
(d) money for compensation (c) to be in lot of troubles (a) without using common
(d) to lead an easy life sense
3. To give one a long rope (b) without difficulty
(a) to speak ill of 7. To run amuck (c) in any way, honest or
(b) to get into trouble (a) to run a race dishonest
(c) to dismiss (b) to run about in frenzy (d) having been instigated
(d) to allow a man to continue (c) to feel exhausted
his mistakes or crimes (d) to run to somebody’s help 10. To look down one’s nose at
(a) to backbite
4. To hit the nail on the head 8. A bull in a china shop (b) to show anger
(a) to hit the target (a) a person who is very ugly (c) to insult in the presence of
(b) to catch someone napping but loves the beautiful others
(c) to guess right things of life (d) to regard with half-hidden
(d) to settle the old score (b) a person who takes a displeasure or contempt

Directions (Q11 to Q20): Find oat the error part of the following sentences:
11. Rajan told me that you had left (a)/ the college a year before (b)/ and looking for a job. (c)/ No error (d)
12. He asked me (a)/ if I am ill and (b)/to that I answered that I was not. (c)/ No error (d)
13. India’s Independence (a)/ had been the result (b )/ of sacrifices of (c)/ many patriots. (d)/ No error (e)
14. Yesterday Ramesh got (a)/the information that his father (b)/died in an accident (c)/while travelling in a car. (d)/No error (e)
15. He will certainly help you (a)/if you will ask him (b)/ in a pleasant manner. (c)/No error (d)
16. I found this ring as I dig in the garden, (a)/ it looks very old, (b)/ I wonder whom it belongs to. (c)/ No error (d)
17. The girls were playing (a)/outside the house whereas (b)/ the boys were sitting (c)/inside and played cards. (d)/ No error (e)
18. Mohini washes all her (a)/ clothes and cooks food (b)/ for the family before (c)/ she is going to the office. (d)/No error (e)
19. I know nothing (a)/ about chess because (b)/ my games teacher also (c)/ was not knowing nothing about it. (d)/No error (e)
20. The discreet enquiry revealed (a)/ that his involvement in (b)/ the fraud cases have been more than (c)/what was first
guessed. (d)/ No error (e)
ANSWER KEY

1. a 2. a 3. d 4. c 5. c 6. a 7. b
8. d 9. c 10. d 11. c 12. b 13. b 14. c
15. b 16. a 17. d 18. d 19. d 20. c

32 judicary.gold@toprankers.com 76 76 56 44 00 toprankers.com
 Hindi Practice Test -1
 
1.      11.     
(a)  (b)  (a)  (b) 
(c)  (d)  (c)  (d) 

2.      12.     

(a)  (b)  (a)  (b) 
(c)  (d)  (c)  (d) 

3.      13.     

(a)  (b)  (a)  (b) 
(c)  (d)  (c)  (d) 

4.     14.      

(a)  (b)  (a)  (b) 
(c)  (d)  (c)  (d) 

5.      15.     

(a)  (b)  (a)  (b) 
(c)  (d)  (c)  (d) 

6.      16.     

(a)  (b)  (a)  (b) 
(c)  (d)  (c)  (d) 

7.      17.     

(a)  (b)  (a)  (b) 
(c)  (d)  (c)  (d) 

8.      18.      

(a)   (b)  (a)  (b) 
(c)  (d)  (c)  (d) 

9.      19.      

(a)  (b)  (a)  (b) 
(c)  (d)  (c)  (d) 

10.      20.     

(a)  (b)   (a)  (b) 
(c)  (d)  (c)  (d) 

judicary.gold@toprankers.com 76 76 56 44 00 toprankers.com 33
 Del. CJ – 2015
1. Which of the following term
means “under consideration of a
Court of Law”?
(a) Sine quo non
(b) Res judicata
(c) Double jeopardy
(d) Subjudice
2. Which of the following
statements is incorrect regarding
Union Budget 2015-16?
(a) 5 more AIIMSs in Jammu and
Kashmir, Punjab, Tamil Nadu,
Himachal Pradesh, Bihar and
Assam.
(b) University of Disability
Studies will be established in
Kerala.
(c) 150 crore allotted for Atal
Innovation Mission
(d) Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT)
will further be expanded to
2.3 crore from crore
3. Which recent judgment of the
Supreme Court deals with the
duty of the police to register a
First Information Report? Choose
the correct answer from the
following:
(a) Shreya Singhal
(b) Lalita Kumari
(c) Adalat Prasad
(d) Devendranath Padhi
4. Which tribe has the largest
population in India according to
34 judicary.gold@toprankers.com
the 2011 census: in subsequent suit
(a) Garos (c) After settlement of issues in
(b) Bhits subsequent suit
(c) Todas (d) All of these
(d) Santhals
9. A suit filed in representative
5. In which of the following cases, capacity can be withdrawn,
the Supreme Court held that compromised and abandoned
‘Right to Sleep’ is a fundamental etc. By the plaintiff
right? (a) Without notice to all the
(a) Naaz Foundation Case persons interested
(b) In Re Ramlila Maidan Case (b) After notice to all the
(c) Anna Hazare Case persons interested
(d) None of these (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Either (a) or (b)
6. Which provision of the Indian
Constitution entitles Right to 10. Res Judicata does not operate
Education as 8 Fundamental (a) Between co-defendants
Right? (b) Between co-plaintiffs
(a) Article 21 (c) Against a pro forma
(b) Article 41 defendant
(c) Article 21A (d) None of these
(d) Article 31
11. Attachment before judgment, in
7. The Relief by way of mandatory a suit dismissed in default
injunction is: (a) Revives automatically on the
(a) Prohibitory restoration of the suit
(b) Mandatory (b) Does not revive
(c) Discretionary automatically on the
(d) None of these restoration of the suit
(c) May or may not revive
8. Section 10 of Civil Procedure depending on the facts and
Code can come into operation circumstances of the case
(a) Before filing of written (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
statement in the subsequent
suit 12. The Code of Civil Procedure
(b) Before settlement of issues recognizes
76 76 56 44 00 toprankers.com
 (a) Preliminary decree
(b) Final decree
(c) Partly preliminary and partly
final
(d) All these
13. Which of the following suits is of
civil nature?
(a) Suits relating to right to
property
(b) Suits relating to right to
worship
(c) Suits for damages for civil
wrong
(d) All these.
14. Which Section of CPC declares
that the Court shall presume,
upon the production of any
document purporting to be
a certified copy of a foreign
judgment, that such judgment
was pronounced by a court of
competent jurisdiction, unless
the contrary appears on the
record, or is proved?
(a) Section 13
(b) Section 14
(c) Section 19
(d) Section 20
15. In a suit for recovery instituted by
A against B, despite the summa
of suit having been duly served
upon B, he did not appear on the
date fixed in the summons on
1.3.1993. The Court consequently
1-3-1993 passed an ex parte
order against B and fisted the
case for 3.4.1993 for ex-parte
evidence of A.
(a) B can participate in further
proceedings of the case
(b) B can seek setting aside of
the ex parte order if he is
able to show good cause for
his non-appearance
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect
16. Mark the Correct statement in
relation to Order XXIII of Code
Civil Procedure, 1908:
judicary.gold@toprankers.com
(a) At any time after the
institution of a suit, the
plaintiff may with his suit or
abandon part of his claim
(b) If a plaintiff withdraws from
a suit without the Court’s
permission he is precluded
from instituting a fresh suit
against the same defendant
in respect of the same
subject matter
(c) If the Court is satisfied that
a suit must fail by reason of
some formal defect or there
are other sufficient grounds,
it may allow the withdrawal
from suit
(d) Where there are several
plaintiffs, the court can allow
one of them to withdraw,
even if the other co-plaintiffs
do not consent to such
withdrawal.
17. Arrest of a person in execution of
a decree has been provided:
(a) Under Section 53 of the
Code of Civil Procedure
(b) Under Section 34 of the
Code of Civil Procedure
(c) Under Section 56 of the
Code of Civil Procedure
(d) Under Section 55 of the
Code of Civil Procedure
18. Preliminary Decree can be passed
in a suit
(a) For partition
(b) For partnership
(c) For possession and mesne
profit
(d) All these
19. Which Section of the Code of
Criminal Procedure provides
protection to the members of
Armed Forces from arrest?
(a) Section 41
(b) Section 45
(c) Section 46
(d) Section 50
20. In a suit for partition three
76 76 56 44 00 toprankers.com
defendants were set ex parte.
Preliminary decree was passed.
On the application of one of the
three defendants the Court set
aside the decree as against all
the defendants. The order of the
court is
(a) Legal
(b) Irregular
(c) Unjustified
(d) Illegal
21. After the trial of the suit the Court
found that the suit was barred
by the principle of res judicata
and did not discuss and answer
the other issues. The procedure
adopted by the court is
(a) Legal
(b) Justified
(c) Proper
(d) Illegal
22. When a court desires that its
decree shall be executed by
another court, it shall send to the
other court
(a) A decree and certificate of
non-satisfaction
(b) Judgment and decree
(c) Judgment and execution
petition
(d) Execution petition and
certificate of non-satisfaction
23. “A court to which decree has
been transferred for execution
cannot, while executing
(a) Order attachment
(b) Execute the decree against
the legal representatives
of the decreased judgment
debtor
(c) Send the decree for
execution to another court
(d) Order execution at the
instance of the transferee of
the decree
24. Under Civil Procedure Code, in
which of the following cases the
Court cannot reject the plaint?
(a) Where the relief claimed
35
 is undervalued, and the
plaintiff, on being required
by the court to correct the
valuation within a time to be
fixed by the Court, fails to do
so.
(b) Where the suit appears from
the statement in the plaint to
be barred by any law.
(c) When the plaint is
insufficiently stamped
and the plaintiff on being
required by the Court to
supply the requisite stamp-
paper within a time to be
fixed by the court fails to do
so.
(d) Where the plaint discloses a
cause of action.
25. Under Civil Procedure Code,
when application for review is
dismissed
(a) Appeal can be filed against
the Order
(b) No appeal lies
(c) With the permission of
Court, appeal can be filed
against the order
(d) None of these
26. The object of oral examination
under Order X Rule 2 of CPC is
(a) To elucidate the matters in
controversy in the suit
(b) To record evidence:
(c) To secure admissions
(d) None of these
27. When was the Constitution of
India adopted?
(a) 26th January 1950
(b) 15th August 1947
(c) 15th August 1950
(d) 26th November 1949
28. In which year was the first
amendment to the Constitution
effected
(a) 1950 34. Article 30 guarantees the right
(b) 1952
(c) 1951 (b) To minorities to establish
(d) 1953
36 judicary.gold@toprankers.com
29. Which part of the Constitution of their choice
India deals with the Fundamental (c) To be informed of the
Rights? grounds for one’s arrest
(a) Part I (d) Against trafficking and
(b) Part II forced labor
(c) Part III
(d) Part IV 35. Article 39(4) of the Constitution
of India obliges the State to
30. The Seven Judge Bench of secure
the Supreme Court of India in (a) An adequate means of
Pradeep Kumar Biswas v. Indian livelihood
Institute of Chemical Biology (b) Equal pay for equal work for
2002 (5) SC 111 overruled its both men and women
judgments in the case of (c) The material resources are
(a) Sabhajit Tewary so distributed to serve the
(b) R.D. Shetty common good
(c) Ajay Hasia (d) The health and strength of
(d) G Basi Reddy workers, men and women
and the tender age of
31. Which Article in the Constitution children are not abused and
of India outlaws untouchability the citizens are not forced by
and makes it a punishable economic necessity to enter
offence? avocations unsuited to their
(a) Article 12 age or strength
(b) Article 13
(c) Article 17 36. Which Article of the Constitution
(d) Article 18 of India obliges the State to
organize Village Panchayats?
32. Which Article of the Constitution (a) Article 40
of India guarantees citizens the (b) Article 41
right to settle in any part of the (c) Article 42
territory of India? (d) Article 43
(a) Article 19(1)(a)
(b) Article 19(1)(d) 37. Which Article in the Constitution
(c) Article 19(1)(e) of India relates to the power of
(d) Article 19(1)(g) the President to grant pardons
etc. And to suspend, remit or
33. Article 48-A of the Constitution of commute sentences in certain
India deals with: cases?
(a) Right to work, education and (a) Article 71
public assistance (b) Article 72
(b) Living wage, etc. For workers (c) Article 162
(c) Separation of Judiciary from (d) Article 77
executive
(d) Protection and improvement 38. The Right to move the
of environment and Supreme Court of India for the
safeguarding of forests and enforcement of the Fundamental
wildlife. Rights is guaranteed under
(a) Article 226
(b) Article 14
(a) To freedom of religion (c) Article 32
(d) Article 33
educational institutions of
76 76 56 44 00 toprankers.com
39. The Supreme Court of India has
been established under Article:
(a) 124 agreements?
(b) 125
(c) 126 (b) Article 246
(d) 127
40. Which Article in the Constitution
of India relates to the control of
the High Court over subordinate
Courts in matters of posting,
promotion, leave etc?
(a) Article 226 (b) Interim award
(b) Article 227
(c) Article 235 (d) None of these
(d) Article 225
41. Article 262 of the Constitution of
India relates to:
(a) Adjudication of disputes
relating to waters of inter-
State rivers or river valleys
(b) Provisions with respect to an
inter-State Council
(c) Consolidated Funds and
Public Accounts of India and
of the States
(d) Contingency Fund
42. Which Constitution Amendment
Act relating to appointments of
judges came for consideration
of the Supreme Court and was
struck down, being in violation
of the basic feature doctrine of
the Constitution of India?
(a) 99th Amendment
(b) 100th Amendment
(c) 101st Amendment
(d) 98th Amendment
43. In which case the Supreme Court
of India propound the basic
feature doctrine for the first
time?
(a) Golaknath’s case
(b) Minerva Mills case
(c) Keshavananda Bharti case
(d) Waman Rao case
44. Which Article in the Constitution
of India relates to the subject
“matter of laws made by
judicary.gold@toprankers.com
parliament to give effect to
treaties and international
(a) Article 247
(c) Article 254
(d) Article 253
45. The “Arbitral Award” as defined in
the Arbitration and Conciliation
Act, 1996 includes:
(a) Final award
(c) Both final and interim award
46. An Arbitration agreement is
deemed to be in writing if it is
contained in:
(A) A document signed by the
parties
(B) An exchange of letters, telex,
telegram or other means
of telecommunication,
including communication
through electronic means
providing a record of
agreement
(C) An exchange of submissions
in which the existence of the
agreement is alleged by one
party and not denied by the
other
(a) Only (A) and (B) and not (C)
(b) Only (A) and not (B) and (C)
(c) All the three above
(d) None of these
47. A party seeking appointment of
an Arbitrator through the High
Court or its designate shall make
a request under:
(a) Section 11(3) of the
Arbitration and Conciliation
Act, 1996
(b) Section 11(2) of the
Arbitration and Conciliation
Act, 1996
(c) Section 11(6) of the
Arbitration and Conciliation
Act, 1996
(d) Section 10 of the Arbitration
and Conciliation Act, 1996
76 76 56 44 00 toprankers.com
48. The Arbitration and Conciliation
Act, 1996 was enacted
taking into consideration:
(a) International Chamber of
Commerce Rules
(b) Model law and conciliation
rules adopted by the United
Nations Commission on
International Trade Law
(UNCITRAL)
(c) LCIA India Arbitration Rules
(d) Indian Arbitration Act, 1940
49. A party seeking interim
measures from a Court, would
file an application under:
(a) Section 8 of the Arbitration
and Conciliation Act
(b) Section 9 of the Arbitration
and Conciliation Act
(c) Section 11 of the Arbitration
and Conciliation Act
(d) Section 17 of the Arbitration
and Conciliation Act
50. “International Commercial
Arbitration” means an arbitration
relating to disputes, where at
least one of the parties is:
(A) An individual who is a
national of or habitually
resident in any country
other than India
(B) A body corporate which is
incorporated in any country
other than India
(C) An association or a body of
individuals whose central
management and control
is exercised in any country
other than India
(D) A Government of a foreign
country
(a) (A) and (B) and not (C) and
(D)
(b) (A), (B) and (C) and not (D)
(c) All the four above
(d) None of these
51. In the absence of an agreement
between the parties, the
arbitration proceedings are said
37
 to have commenced on:
(a) The date on which the first
party dispatches a notice of
request to the second party
for referring the dispute to
arbitration
(b) The date on which a request
to refer the dispute to
arbitration is received by the
second party
(c) When one of the parties
submit the claim petition
before the arbitrator
(d) None of these
52. An application for setting aside
the Arbitral Award is filed under:
(a) Section 32 of the Arbitration
and Conciliation Act, 1996
(b) Section 33 of the Arbitration
and Conciliation Act, 1996
(c) Section 34 of the Arbitration
and Conciliation Act, 1996
(d) Section 37 of the Arbitration
and Conciliation Act, 1996
53. An arbitral award can be
enforced under
(a) Section 35 of the Arbitration
and Conciliation Act, 1996
(b) Section 36 of the Arbitration
and Conciliation Act, 1996
(c) Section 37 of the Arbitration
and Conciliation Act, 1996
(d) Section 38 of the Arbitration
and Conciliation Act, 1996
54. An arbitral award given on 21st
August, 1996 can be challenged
under:
(a) Arbitration and Conciliation
Act, 1996
(b) Arbitration Act, 1940
(c) Code of Civil Procedure,
1908
(d) High Court Rules
55. Which of the statements is
not in accordance with the
provisions of the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996?
(a) An arbitral-award shall be
made in writing and shall be
38 judicary.gold@toprankers.com
signed by the members of
the arbitral tribunal
(b) In the absence of an
agreement between the
parties, the arbitral award
shall state the reasons upon
which it is based
(c) After the arbitral award is
made, a signed copy shall be
delivered to each party.
(d) The arbitral tribunal shall
not, during the arbitral
proceedings, make an
interim award
56. An appeal under Section 37 of
the Arbitration and Conciliation
Act, 1996 read with Ordinance of
2015 shall lie:
(a) Refusing to refer the parties
to arbitration under Section
8 (c) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Granting or refusing to grant
any measure under Section
9 63. Who is the author of the book
(c) Setting aside or refusing to
set aside an arbitral award
under Section 34
(d) All these
57. Part II of the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996 relates to:
(a) Enforcement of domestic
award
(b) Enforcement of certain
foreign awards
(c) Appeal against the order
setting aside or refusing to
set aside an arbitral award
under Section 34
(d) None of these
58. Which cricketer was given the
Arjuna Award in the year 2014?
(a) Virat Kohli
(b) Virendra Sehwag
(c) Sachin Tendulkar
(d) R. Ashwin
59. Who is the Cabinet Minister for
Road, Transport and Highways,
Shipping, Government of India?
(a) M. Yenkaiah Naidu
76 76 56 44 00
(b) Suresh Prabhu
(c) Manohar Partikar
(d) Nitin Jairam Gadkari
60. Who 4s the Secretary General of
the United Nations Organization?
(a) Jim Yong Kum
(b) Bankimoon
(c) Takehiko Nakao
(d) Roberta Azevedo
61. Who was the first and last Indian
Governor General of free India?
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) C. Rajagopalachari
(c) Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
62. Kuchipudi is the dance form of:
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka:
(d) Kerala
“Ghosts of Calcutta”?
(a) Sebastian Ortiz
(b) Amiya Chandra
(c) Amitav Ghosh
(d) Gina Rinehart
64. Which Indian American who
recently sworn in as the US
Surgeon General?
(a) Nikesh Arora
(b) Vivek Murty
(c) R.S. Sharma
(d) Sundar Pichai
65. Who was the founder of
Ramakrishna Mission?
(a) Shiv Narain Agnihotri
(b) Keshab Chandra Sen
(c) Swami Vivekanand
(d) Atmaram Pandurang
66. Who was the author of the book
“Anandamath”?
(a) B. Bhushan Banerjee
(b) Swami Dayanand
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterji
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai
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67. Dadasaheb Phalke Award, 2014
was given to:
(a) Amitabh Bachchan
(b) A.R. Rehman
(c) Shashi Kapoor
(d) Shahrukh Khan
68. Who won the Indira Gandhi
Award for National Integration?
(a) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
(b) Vishwanath Pillai
(c) Dr. AS, Pillai
(d) Dr. K.K. Goenka
69. Gandhi Peace Prize, 2014 was
awarded to:
(a) Dalai Lama.
(b) Barak Obama
(c) Indian Space Research
Organization
(d) United Nations Organization
70. Who were awarded Bharat Ratna
in the year 2015?
(a) Madan Mohan Malaviya and
Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(b) Sachin Tendulkar and Prof.
C.N.R. Rao
(c) Pandit Bhim Sen Joshi and
Ustad Bismillah Khan
(d) Jayaprakash Narayan and
Pandit Ravi Shankar
71. The study of bees is known as
(a) Anthropology
(b) Apology
(c) Etymology
(d) Horticulture
72. Where is Ushakothi National Park
situated?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Orissa
73. Who was the first man to reach
North Pole?
(a) Roald Amundsen
(b) Phu Dorji Sherpa
(c) Robert Peary
(d) Alexei Leone
judicary.gold@toprankers.com
74. The first man to compile (c) Hungary
encyclopedia (d) South Africa
(a) Ashpheosis 82. Monge Waterfalls are situated in:
(b) Nicolaus Copernicus (a) Egypt
(c) Caroline Mikkelsen (b) Greece
(d) Toni Morrison (c) Sweden
(d) Norway
75. On which river the Hirakund Dam
is built? 83. Part II of the Limitation Act, 1963
(a) Kosi deals with limitation of:
(b) Gandak (a) Suits
(c) Mahanadi (b) Appeals
(d) Krishna (c) Applications
(d) All these
76. What is the chemical formula of
methane? 84. For the purpose of Limitation Act,
(a) Cao a suit is instituted:
(b) Ca(OH) I. In an ordinary case, when
(c) CH4 the plaint is presented to the
(d) CH3OH proper officer
II. In the case of a pauper when
77. What Is the chemical name of his application for leave to
Gypsum? sue as a pauper is made
(a) Calcium Hydroxide III. In the case of a claim against
(b) Calcium Carbonate a company which is being
(c) Calcium Sulphate Dihydrate wound-up by the Court
(d) Sodium Sulphate when the claimant first
Decahydrate
sends in the claim to the
official liquidator. Which of
78. Who won the Nobel Prize for
the above are correct?
Literature in the 2014?
(a) Only (I)
(a) Jean Tirole
(b) Only (I) and (II)
(b) Eric Betzig
(c) None of these
(c) L. Moser
(d) Ali these
(d) Patrick Modiano
85. Where the prescribed period for
79. Which country won the FIFA
any suit, appeal or application
Women’s World Cup, 2015?
expires on a day when the Court
(a) Brazil
is closed, the suit, appeal or
(b) Argentina
application may be instituted,
(c) USA
preferred or made:
(d) Germany
(a) On the day when the Court
80. Which country is the leading reopens
producer of Coconut? (b) On the day before the Court
(a) India is closed
(b) Indonesia (c) Within 10 days after the
(c) Malaysia Court reopens
(d) Thailand (d) Within a reasonable time
81. Where is the Veld grassland 86. Section 5 of the Limitation Act
situated? does not apply to:
(a) Argentina (a) Suit
(b) USA (b) Appeal
76 76 56 44 00 toprankers.com 39
 (c) Application
(d) All these
87. Which Section of the Limitation
Act prescribes that in computing
the period of imitation for any
suit, appeal or application, for
leave to appeal or for revision
or for review of a judgment,
the day on which the judgment
complained of was pronounced
and the time requisite for
obtaining a copy of the decree,
sentence or order appealed
from or sought to be revised or
reviewed shall be excluded:
(a) Section 11
(b) Section 12
(c) Section 13
(d) Section 14
88. Exclusion of time of proceeding
bona fide in Court without
jurisdiction is stipulated in:
(a) Section 13
(b) Section 14
(c) Section 15
(d) Section 16
89. In computing the period of
limitation for an application to
set aside an award, the time
requisite for obtaining a copy
of the award shall be excluded
under:
(a) Section 12(1)
(b) Section 12(2)
(c) Section 12(3)
(d) Section 12(4)
90. Where once the time has begun
to run, no subsequent disability
or inability to institute a suit or
make an application stops it
under:
(a) Section 9
(b) Section 10
(c) Section 11
(d) Section 6
91. Section 18 of the Limitation Act
deals with:
(a) Effect of payment on
account of debt or of
40 judicary.gold@toprankers.com
interest on legacy (c) Provision
(b) Effect of acknowledgment in (d) Projection
writing Directions (Questions 97-101):
(c) Effect of acknowledgment In each of these questions, out
or payment by another of the four given alternatives
person choose the one which best
(d) Effect of fraud or mistake: expresses the meaning of the
given word.
Directions (Questions 92-96):
Pick out the most effective word 97. APLOMB
from the given word to fill in (a) Adventure
the blank to make the sentence (b) Assurance
meaningfully complete. (c) A powerful bomb
(d) Fear
92. As a general rule, politicians do
not.............centre stage. 98. RISQUE
(a) Foster (a) Slightly humorous
(b) Forsake (b) Slightly improper
(c) Forgive (c) Stightly risky
(d) Forward (d) Very risky
93. Indications are that the 99. ILLICIT
Government is..............to the (a) Not sociable
prospect of granting bonus to (b) Not legible
the striking employees. (c) Not legal
(a) Relieved (d) Not attractive
(b) Aligned
(c) Obliged 100. Complement
(d) Reconciled (a) To complete
(b) Words to praise
94. The…………………………… (c) A grammatical category
study on import of natural gas (d) A geographical category
from Iran through pipeline
would be completed shortly. 101. Oculist
(a) Natural (a) One who makes optical
(b) Economic instruments,
(c) Feasibility (b) One who possesses occult
(d) Calculated knowledge
(c) A specialist in the treatment
95. Man is................however, he of ENT diseases
is more in need of mental (d) A specialist in the treatment
companionship than of physical of the diseases of the eye
companionship.
(a) Biological 102. ……………is the law of place
(b) Egoistic (a) National law
(c) Gregarious (b) Lex loci.
(d) Democratic (c) Jus remedinn
(d) None of these
96. We still have not given
our................to conduct the survey 103. ‘ultra vires’ is a term used for
of natural resources in our state.. (a) A document corrupted by
(a) Consent virus
(b) Request (b) Beyond the scope of power
76 76 56 44 00 toprankers.com
 allowed or granted by a
charter or by law
(c) An act authorized by law
(d) An illegal act
104. Which one of the following
statements is correct?
The power of judicial review
means the power of the Supreme
Court to:
(a) Set aside any executive
decision if it is against
statutory law
(b) Set aside any provision of
law if it is contrary to the
fundamental rights
(c) Examine constitutional
validity of any administrative
action as well as legislative
provision and strike it down
if not found in accordance
with the constitutional
provisions
(d) Review its own decisions
or decisions of any court or
tribunal within the territory
of India
105. Give the meaning of “puerile”
(a) Withdraw
(b) Charge
(c) Childish
(d) Framework of ship
106. The group of words which is most
similar in meaning to the word
‘vanished’ is ‘
(a) Gone missing
(b) Was found:
(c) Was killed
(d) Was left behind
107. From the following words, the
mis-spelt word is
(a) Relinquish
(b) Illuminant
(c) Exudes
(d) Dependency
108. The word which is most opposite
in meaning to the word ‘random’ is
(a) Accidental
(b) Haphazard
judicary.gold@toprankers.com
(c) Incidental (c) The court may proceed
(d) Deliberate with the inquiry or trial after
obtaining necessary orders
109. One who walks in sleep is from the high court;
(a) Hypocrite (d) The court may proceed
(b) Imposter with inquiry or trial and in
(c) Somnambulist the case the same results
(d) Sarcastic in conviction, forward the
proceeding to the high court
110. Antonym for “marvellous” is along with a report on which
(a) Awful high court shall pass such
(b) Contentious orders as deemed fit.
(c) Fictitious
(d) Malacious 116. A contract, which is formed
without the free consent of the
111. Synonym of “blemish” is parties, is.
(a) Evil (a) Void ab initio
(b) Attraction (b) Void
(c) Blot (c) Illegal
(d) Virtue (d) Void at the instance of the
party whose consent was
112. Choose the word which best not free
expresses the meaning of
‘veracity’ 117. Goodwill of a partnership
(a) Truth business is the property of the
(b) Freedom partnership.
(c) Wisdom (a) Under section 14
(d) Loyalty (b) Under section 13
(c) Under section 12
113. Monkeys are able to (d) Under section 11
move quickly. They are
very………………… 118. Estoppels
(a) Hasty (a) Is a cause of action in itself
(b) Agile (b) Creates a cause of action
(c) Prompt (c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) Rapid (d) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct
114. ………………..most important 119. A notice under section 111 of the
event in India’s history was the transfer of property act, 1882 can
revolution of 1857. be waived:
(a) The (a) By express or implied
(b) It was the consent of the person to
(c) That the whom it is given.
(d) There was (b) By implied consent of the
person to whom it is given.
115. In the case of an accused facing (c) By express consent of the
inquiry or trial though not of person to whom it is given.
unsound mind but not capable of (d) By notice from either party.
understanding the proceedings:
(a) The court shall proceed with 120. On the death of a sole proprietor,
the inquiry or trial; his/her heirs automatically
(b) The court shall not proceed become the partners of old firm.
with the inquiry or trial; The statement is
76 76 56 44 00 toprankers.com 41
 (a) True
(b) Partly true
(c) False
(d) None of these
121. Which is correct?
(a) Proposal + acceptance =
promise
(b) Promise + consideration =
agreement
(c) Agreement + enforceability
= contract
(d) All these
122. A garnishee order is an order-
(a) Prohibiting the judgment
debtor’s debtor from
making any payment to the
judgment debtor
(b) Directing the decree holder
to take the payment from
the judgment debtor’s
debtor
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
123. Section 12(1) (a) of the Hindu
marriage act is related to
(a) Impotency
(b) Mental disorder
(c) Fraud
(d) None of these
124. In a usufructuary mortgage,
the mortgagee is placed in
possession of the property and
has right to receive rents and
profits from it till:
(a) Contract is rescinded
(b) Period of 99 years
(c) Mortgage money is repaid
(d) Period of 30 years
125. In terms of section 3 of the
limitation act, the court is
required to consider the question
of limitation:
(a) When an objection on
that point is made by the
defendant
(b) Only if it is not contested by
the defendant
42 judicary.gold@toprankers.com
(c) If an issue is framed in that
regard
(d) Suo motu on its own
126. Both husband and wife are
competent for and against each
other:
(a) In civil proceedings
(b) In criminal proceedings
(c) In both civil and criminal
proceedings
(d) Neither in civil nor in criminal
proceedings
127. Which of the following is the
correct meaning of “privities of
contract”:
(a) Parties must maintain
privacy of contract
(b) The main object of the
contract should be
maintained
(c) Only parties know under
what circumstances it was
made
(d) Only parties to a contract
can sue on it
128. The doctrine of subrogation
enables:
(a) A third person to stand in
the shoes of a creditor
(b) Creditor to sue the debtor
(c) The debtor to postpone the
payment
(d) Includes all these
129. Consider the following
statements with regard to
“uberrima fides”:
(A) It fails within the class of
cases which require utmost
good faith
(B) Every contract is a contract
“uberrima fides”
(C) Contract of insurance is an
instance of “uberrima fides”
of these statements:
(a) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(b) (a) and (c) are correct
(c) (b) and (c) are correct
(d) (a) and (b) are correct
76 76 56 44 00
130. Match List I with List II and select
the correct answer using the
code given below the list:
List I List II
A. Dowry death
1. Section 340 IPC
B. House-breaking
2. Section 351 IPC
C. Assault
3. Section 303B IPC
D. Wrongful confinement
4. Section 445 IPC
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 1 2 3 4
131. Some provisions of the IPC have
been amended by the:
(a) Administrative Tribunals Act,
1985
(b) Arbitration and Conciliation
Act, 1996
(c) Information Technology Act,
2000
(d) None of these-
132. Section 76 of IPC provides that
nothing is an offence, which is
done by a person who is or who
by reason of-
(a) Mistake of law in good faith
believes himself to be bound
by law to do it
(b) Mistake of fact in good faith
believes himself to be bound
by law to do it
(c) Mistake of fact believes
himself to be bound by
morals 10 do it
(d) All these
133. ‘X’ and “Y’ go to murder ‘Z’, ‘X’
stood on guard with a spear in
hand but did not hit ‘Z’ at all. ‘Y’
killed ‘Z’.
(a) Only ‘Y’ is liable for murder of
‘Z’
(b) ‘X’ and ‘Y’ both are liable for
murder of ‘Z’
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 (c) ‘X’ is not liable as he did not
perform overt act
(d) Both (a) and (c)
134. Under which provision of the
Indian Evidence Act is expert
opinion relevant?
(a) Section 41
(b) Section 43
(c) Section 44
(d) Section 45
135. Which of the following
statements is wrong:
(a) Oath may be administered
to an accused before her
examination under Section
313 CrPC
(b) Accused can refuse to
answer any question when
he is examined under
Section 313 CrPC
(c) Accused can be put any
question by the court at any
stage of the trial.
(d) Evidence which incriminates
the accused has to be put to
him or her by the court.
136. Which among the following
statements is incorrect?
(a) A death sentence imposed
by a Sessions Court is subject
to confirmation by the High
Court.
(b) A death sentence imposed
by a Sessions court can
be confirmed by the High
Court only when a Bench
consisting of two judges or
more hears the case.
(c) No confirmation of a death
sentence imposed by the
Sessions Court can be made
before the expiry of the
period for preferring the
appeal.
(d) The High Court cannot
acquit the convict while
considering the case for
confirmation unless he
prefers an appeal.
judicary.gold@toprankers.com
137. In a summons case, at the time of
appearance of the accused before
the Magistrate, it is unnecessary
to:
(a) State the particulars of
the offence of which he is
accused
(b) Frame a formal charge
(c) Ask him whether he pleads
guilty
(d) Ask him whether he has any
defense to make
138. When does a trial commence in
warrant cases instituted on police
report?
(a) With issuance of process
against accused.
(b) With submission of police
report
(c) On framing of formal charge
by court
(d) On the appearance of the
accused pursuant to process
issued by court
139. Which Supreme Court case
discusses the law relating to
parco-analysis, from amongst the
following decided cases?
(a) Ram Reddy v. State of
Maharashtra
(b) Selvi v. State of Karnataka
(c) State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu
Oghad
(d) Sharda v. Dharmpal
140. If the person who is competent
to compound offence is dead, the
compounding:
(a) Cannot be done
(b) Can be done by the legal
representative of the
deceased without the
permission of the court
(c) Can be done by the legal
representative of the
deceased only with the
permission of the court.
(d) Both (b)&(c)
141. Under Section 216 of CrPC the
Court bas the power to:
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(a) Add to the charge(s) already
framed
(b) Alter the charge(s) already
framed
(c) Neither to alter nor to add to
the charge already framed
(d) Add to and alter the charge
both
142. Under Section 315 of CrPC
(a) An accused cannot be a
witness
(b) An accused can be
compelled to give his own
evidence generally
(c) An accused can be called as
a witness only on his own
request in writing
(d) Either (a) or (b):
143. “A”, with the intention to kill,
shoots aiming at “B”, instead
“C” gets killed. The principle for
holding “A” liable is known as:
(a) The doctrine of intention:
(b) The doctrine of transferred
malice
(c) The doctrine that no one can
escape
(d) None of these
144. The difference between Section
34 and Section 149 of Indian
Penal Code is
(a) That whereas in Section
34 there must at least be
five persons, Section 149
requires only two persons
(b) That Section 149 is only a
rule of evidence whereas
Section 34 creates a specific
offence and provides for its
punishment
(c) That Section 34 requires
active participation in action
whereas Section 149 requires
mere passive membership of
the unlawful assembly
(d) That Section 34 need not
be joined with the principle
offence, whereas Section 149
must be combined with the
principle offence
43
 145. The Constitution of India vests
residuary legislative powers and
executive functions in:
(a) The States
(b) The states and Union
Government jointly, because
of the Concurrent List, in the
Seventh Schedule
(c) The Union
(d) None of these
146. Which of the following countries
has the highest population
density?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Bangladesh
(d) India
147. The only State to have a sex ratio
of above 1000 is:
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Kerala
148. Who decides disputes regarding
disqualification of Member of
Parliament?
(a) President of India
(b) Concerned House of
Parliament
(c) Election Commission
(d) President to consultation
with Election Commission
149. Who currently holds the office of
Chief Election Commissioner?
(a) H.S. Brahma
(b) PK. Sinha
(c) Nasim Zaidi
(d) K.V. Chowdary
150. Who won the Woman’s Single
title in Wimbledon Championship
2015?
(a) Locie Safarova
(b) Serena Williams
(c) Martina Hingis
(d) Elena Vesnina
151. Which country won the ICC
Cricket World Cup Championship
44 judicary.gold@toprankers.com
held in 2015?
(a) South Africa
(b) New Zealand
(c) Australia
(d) Sri Lanka
152. Which of the following decisions
of the Supreme Court did not
propound or apply the basic
structure doctrine, in respect of
amendment to the Constitution?
(a) L. Chandra Kumar
(b) Minerva Mills
(c) Keshavananda Bharti
(d) Sajjan Singh
153. The first Asian Games were held
at
(a) Manila
(b) Tokyo
(c) New Delhi
(d) Jakarta
154. Gol Gumbaz, the largest dome, is
located in the State of
(a) Bihar
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Karnataka
155. How many members of Rajya
Sabha can be nominated by the
President of India from amongst
persons who have distinguished
themselves in art, literature, social
service etc.
(a) 2
(b) 10
(c) 2
(d) 6
156. Which of the following
Fundamental Rights cannot be
suspended during the period of
proclamation of emergency?
(a) Freedoms under Article 19
(b) Protection of Life and
Personal Liberty under
Article 21
(c) Freedom of Conscience
under Article 25
(d) Freedom to move Courts for
enforcement of Fundamental
Rights
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157. A State in India has one of the
largest human development
indicators, has the lowest infant
mortality as well as the lowest
birth rate and also has the
highest rate of rural and urban
unemployment as per the 66th
Round of National Sample
Survey. Which is the State?
(a) Mizoram
(b) Kerala
(c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan
158. Which wildlife reserve is known
for the Great Indian One Horned
Rhino?
(a) Corbett
(b) Dudhwa
(c) Kaziranga
(d) Gir
159. Why did Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
shift his capital from Delhi to
Devagiri?
(a) Because he was fed up with
Delhi.
(b) He wanted to punish people
of Delhi.
(c) As he wanted to extend his
empire to the South.
(d) Because the new capital
occupied a central and
strategic location.
160. Which of the following
atmospheric gases constitute
“Green House Gases”?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Nitrous Oxide
(D) Water vapor
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below:
(a) (A) & (C)
(b) (A), (B) & (D)
(c) (A), (C) & (D)
(d) (A) & (C)
161. Which Convention adopted
the International Treaty for
Elimination or Restriction of
Production and Distribution of
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 Persistent Organic Pollutants
(pops) that pose a threat to
human health?
(a) Base Convention
(b) Aspoo Convention
(c) Stockholm Convention
(d) Vienna Convention
162. The smallest living cell is that of:
(a) Bacterium
(b) Bread mold
(c) Micro plasma
(d) Virus
163. Insider trading is an offence
under Indian laws. Who among
the following in the normal
circumstances, will not be
accused of insider trading?
(a) A financial journalist
covering a company
(b) A Director of the company
(c) An auditor of the company
(d) An employee of the
company
164. B.B. King, who passed away in
2015 was a famous:
(a) Singer
(b) Musician
(c) Writer
(d) Cartoonist
165. Who was the first Chief Justice of
India?
(a) Mehar Chand Mahajan
(b) M. Patanjali Sastri
(c) Harilal Jekisundas Kania
(d) Bijan Kumar Mukherjee
166. The Freedom of Speech under
the Indian Constitution is subject
to reasonable restrictions on the
ground of protection of:
(a) Sovereignty and integrity of
the country
(b) The dignity of the office of
the Prime Minister
(c) The dignity of the Council of
Ministers
(d) All these
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167. The Vice President of India is:
(a) Directly elected by the
people
(b) Elected by the same Electoral
College which elects the
President
(c) Elected by the members of
the Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha in a joint sitting
(d) Elected by the members of
Rajya Sabha only
168. Who is the supreme Commander
of armed forces in India?
(a) Defense Minister
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) None of these
169. A criminal court shall not take
cognizance of an offence after
the expiry of.
(a) Six months, if the
punishment does not exceed
one year imprisonment
(b) One year, if the punishment
does not exceed one year
imprisonment
(c) Three years, if the
punishment does not exceed
one year imprisonment
(d) Three months, if the
punishment does not exceed
one year imprisonment
170. The period of limitation for taking
cognizance of an offence starts
(a) From the date of the offence
(b) From the date of the arrest of
the suspect
(c) From the date of the lodging
of the case
(d) From the date of the
surrender of the accused
171. For constituting double jeopardy
(a) The person should have
been tried by court of
competent jurisdiction
(b) He should have been
convicted
(c) He should have been
acquitted
(d) None of these
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172. FIR is not substantive evidence, it
can be used during trial
(a) To corroborate the informant
(b) To contradict the informant
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
173. Under Section 311 of CrPC a
witness can be called
(a) On the motion of the
prosecution
(b) On the motion of the
defense
(c) On its own motion by the
court
(d) All these
174. Anticipatory bail under Section
438 CrPC can be granted by
(a) Metropolitan Magistrate
(b) Court of Sessions
(c) High Court
(d) Both (b) and (c)
175. A is working in a field with a
spade. The iron head of the spade
flies off and hits a person who
dies
(a) A cannot be prosecuted of
any offence
(b) A can be accused of murder
(c) A can be accused of attempt
to murder
(d) A’s act is not an offence if it
is found that he had taken
proper caution
176. Right of private defense extends
to
(a) Defense of body only
(b) Defense of property
(c) Defense of both body and
property
(d) Cannot say
177. The right of private defense of
the body can extend to causing
death
(a) In case of apprehension of
grievous hurt and death.
(b) In case of apprehension of
being raped
45
 (c) In case of assault with the
intention of kidnapping or
abducting
(d) All these
178. Culpable homicide is not murder,
if it is committed
(a) Under intoxication
(b) In anger
(c) Without planning
(d) On grave and sudden
provocation
179. A, on provocation by B, kills C, B’s
child
(a) A can be charged for murder
(b) A cannot be charged for
murder
(c) B is guilty of abetment
(d) None of these
180. If a child under 12 years of age is
abandoned by his parents and
the child dies, the parents can be
prosecuted for
(a) Murder
(b) Culpable homicide not
amounting to murder
(c) For offence under section
317 of the IPC
(d) For all these
181. A makes an attempt to steal
some jewels by breaking open a
box, but finds none. A is guilty of
(a) Theft
(b) Burglary
(c) Dacoity
(d) None of these
182. A finds Rs. 1000/- note on the
road. He has no idea as to whom
the Rs. 1000/- note belongs.
He picks up the note. A has
committed
(a) Theft
(b) Misappropriation of property
(c) Attempt to theft
(d) Has not committed any
offence
183. Which of the following is not
“Grievous Hurt”?
46 judicary.gold@toprankers.com
(a) Permanent privation of the
hearing of either ear
(b) Dislocation of a tooth
(c) Emasculation
(d) Any hurt which causes the
sufferer bodily pain for ten
days
184. A statement made by any person
to a police officer in the course of
investigation:
(a) If duly proved can be used as
substantive evidence by the
accused and the prosecution
(b) If duly proved can be used
by the accused and the
prosecution to contradict
such witness
(c) If duly proved can be used
by the accused and the
prosecution to corroborate
such witness
(d) None of these
185. In case the offence is punishable
with both imprisonment and fine,
maximum sentence that can be
awarded by the Court in default
of payment of fine is
(a) Equal to the term of
imprisonment which is
the maximum fixed for the
offence
(b) Half of the term of
imprisonment which is
the maximum fixed for the
offence
(c) One-third of the term of
imprisonment which is
the maximum fixed for the
offences
(d) One-fourth of the term
of imprisonment which is
the maximum fixed for the
offence
186. Provisions of Chapter-XXI-A CrPC
are not applicable to cases where
the final report discloses:
A. Offences punishable for
death:
B. Offences punishable for
imprisonment of life
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C. Offences punishable for a
term exceeding seven years
imprisonment
D. Offences punishable for a
term exceeding three years’
imprisonment
Which of the following is correct?
(a) (A), (C) & (D)
(b) (B), (C) & (D)
(c) (A), (B) & (C)
(d) (A), (B) & (D)
187. When six men and women
extort Rs. 1000/- from a teenager
putting him to fear of instant hurt
by showing a knife, the offence(s)
committed by them would be:
(a) Extortion
(b) Robbery
(c) Dacoity
(d) All these
188. Which of the following Acts does
not relate to offences affecting
the socio-economic condition
of the country as notified under
sub-section (2) of Section 265A
CrPC?
(a) The Explosives Act, 1884
(b) The Immoral Traffic
(Prevention) Act, 1956
(c) The Arms Act, 1959
(d) The Cinematograph Act,
1952
189. The offence of “stalking” is
punishable under
(a) Section 354A IPC
(b) Section 354B IPC
(c) Section 354C IPC
(d) Section 354D IPC
190. The report of which of the
following experts is not
admissible per se
(a) Director of the Finger Print
Bureau
(b) Post Mortem Report by a
Board of doctors
(c) Chief Controller of Explosives
(d) Serologist to the
Government
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191. A, with six others, commits the
offences of rioting, grievous hurt
and assaulting a public servant
endeavoring In the discharge of
his duty as such to suppress the
riot. A may be separately charged
with, and convicted of, offences
under Sections
(a) 107, 324 & 353
(b) 147, 325 & 152
(c) 353, 326A & 34
(d) 148, 152 & 323
192. Which of the following is a
primary evidence:
(a) Copies made from and
compared with the original
(b) Counterpart of document as
against the parties who did
not execute them
(c) Counterpart of a document
as against the parties who
executed it
(d) Certified copies of a
document
193. The period for limitation for
taking cognizance for an offence
punishable under Section 379 IPC
Is
(a) Six months
(b) One year
(c) Three years
(d) No limitation
194. Statement of a person who is
dead or cannot be found is not
relevant:
(a) When it is made in the
course of business
(b) When it is in-favor of the
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interest of the maker
(c) When it relates to the
circumstances of the
transaction resulting in his
death
(d) When it relates to existence
of relationships
195. Who amongst the following
unable to maintain herself due
to physical abnormality cannot
claim maintenance under Section
125 CrPC?
(a) Illegitimate minor unmarried
daughter
(b) Illegitimate major married
daughter
(c) Illegitimate minor married
daughter
(d) Illegitimate major unmarried
daughter
196. Test Identification Parades are
held at the instance of
(a) The Metropolitan Magistrate
(b) Station House Officer
(c) Inquiring Officer
(d) Complainant
197. Under Section 60A CrPC, a person
can be arrested
(a) In case of commission of
offence in the presence of a
police officer
(b) On credible information
about commission of an
offence punishable with
imprisonment for more than
seven years
(c) On a complaint by a victim,
when a police officer has
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reasons to believe that
the concerned person has
committed the offence
(d) Under all these
circumstances
198. A police officer may arrest
somebody accused of an offence
(a) To prevent such person from
committing any further
offence
(b) For proper investigation of
the case
(c) To prevent tampering of
evidence
(d) For all these
199. For recording a confession, the
Magistrate should
(a) Get that person arrested
(b) Summon the complainant
(c) Inform such person about
the accusation against him
(d) Inform such person that
he is not bound to make a
confession:
200. The ensure fairness and accuracy
in a Test Identification Parade, the
requirement Is
(a) Parading persons of same
social status
(b) Parading persons of same or
similar physical appearance
along with the suspect
(c) Parading be done in
presence of all the witnesses
simultaneously
(d) None of these
47
 GIVE-AWAY
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Relationship and Current scenario.
• Word Limit - 750-1000 words.
• These essays will be used for the
next JG insight.

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