Made By: Shahd A.

Gaber

(Test 1-2)
Question: 6
Correct Answer: J
Based on Table 1, the salt solution increased the amount of rust every day. On Day 8,
the sample had 1.84 g of rust, so on Day 9 the amount of rust would likely be higher
than 1.84 g, choice (J).

Question: 7
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The formula shows that when rust is produced, H2 is also produced, so choice (B) is the
only possible correct answer.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
Table 1 shows that the salt solution produced 0.56 g Fe2O3 on Day 2. Figure 1 shows
that the water buffered to pH = 10.0 had less than 0.50 g Fe 2O3 until Day 8, so the only
correct answer is choice (J).

Question: 9
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Table 1 shows that the sugar solution produced 0.11 g Fe2O3 by Day 6 and 0.19 g by
Day 8. The amount produced from Day 6 to Day 8, then, would have been 0.19 - 0.11 =
0.08 g.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
Table 1 shows that the sugar solution had 0.00 g Fe2O3 on Day 2 and shows a steady
increase. Choices (G) and (J) show the amount of Fe2O3 produced decreasing as time
passes, so they cannot be correct. Choice (H) shows a big increase in Fe 2O3 between
Day 2 and Day 6, then a small increase between Day 6 and Day 8. Table 1 shows that
the biggest increase in Fe2O3 was between Day 6 and Day 8, 0.08 g, so choice (H)
cannot be correct. Only choice (F) shows 0.00 g on Day 1 and steady increases in g
Fe2O3 produced, so this must be the correct answer.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 2-2)
Question: 7
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Based on Table 2, you know that the proofs for both de-icers decrease as temperature
decreases, so you know that the proof at -30°C for each de-icer must be less than the
proof at -25°C and greater than the proof at -50°C. Knowing this, you can eliminate
choice (A) right away because the proofs are the same as the proofs at -50°C. You can
eliminate choice (D) because the proofs are the same as the proofs at -25°C. Choice
(B) shows the proof for De-icer B greater than the proof for De-icer A, but Table 2
shows that De-icer A always has a greater proof than De-icer B, so choice (B) cannot
be correct. This leaves the correct answer, choice (C).

Question: 8
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
You can see from Table 1 that when 10 mL of distilled water is added to 40 mL of
sodium chloride, the de-icer proof is 80. The de-icer proof changes based on the
relative proportions of distilled water and sodium chloride. Choices (F) and (G) can be
eliminated because proofs that small must be from de-icers that have almost all water.
Because the proportion of water to sodium chloride is the same as in the problem,
choice (J) is the correct answer.

Question: 9
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The passage tells you that TR is the minimum proof for a de-icer to be effective at a
particular temperature. Table 2 shows that as temperature decreases, TR increases
only, so choice (A) is the correct answer.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
Based on Table 1, you can see that when the amount of sodium chloride is 0, the de-
icer proof is 0, so you can eliminate choice (J). You can also eliminate choices (F) and
(G), because Table 1 shows de-icer proof values when the volume of distilled water or
sodium chloride is 0, but those formulas involve division by 0, which isn't possible. This
leaves you with choice (H), which a quick check of de-icer proof of 0 and 100 will show
you is correct.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 11
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Table 1 shows you that a mixture of 10 mL of distilled water and 40 mL of sodium
chloride produces a de-icer proof of 80. Figure 1 shows you that adding magnesium
chloride increases the proof of a 100 proof de-icer, but that no matter how much
magnesium chloride is added the proof never goes above 112. Based on this, you can
eliminate choices (A) and (B) because they indicate that the proof would decrease and
choice (D) because it indicates that the proof would exceed 112. The correct answer is
choice (C).

Question: 12
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
The passage tells you that TR is the minimum proof for a de-icer to be effective, so the
better de-icer will be one that has a proof higher than the TR for each temperature, so
you should eliminate choices (F) and (H). Based on Table 2, you can see that only De-
icer A had a proof higher than the TR for each temperature, so choice (G) is the correct
answer.

(Test 3-2)
Question: 8
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
In Tables 1, 2, and 3, the amount of hydrogen peroxide decreases consistently from the
first day (Table 3) to the end of the elongation period (Table 1), choice (G).

Question: 9
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The dependent variable of the experiment is a variable that the experimenter is not
intentionally manipulating or changing (which is the independent variable) or controlling
(control groups or variables); it's the variable that the experimenter is trying to
understand or predict. In this experiment, the experimenter manipulated the type of
plant, the type of superoxide dismutase, and the point in time that measurements were
taken. The length of the cotton fiber was neither intentionally changed nor controlled
(represented as L1, L2, and L3). The introduction indicates that the scientists wanted to
study whether the level of hydrogen peroxide affected the length of the cotton fiber.
Choice (C) is the correct answer.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 10
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
Only plant cells have cell walls, so the correct answer is choice (H). Choice
(F), prokaryotic, refers to unicellular life forms without a membrane-bound nucleus;
cotton plants are not unicellular, so choice (F) cannot be correct. Animal cells, choice
(G), do not have cell walls, so this choice can be eliminated. Bacteria, choice (J), are
also unicellular and cotton plants are not bacteria, so choice (J) cannot be correct. In
addition, you could use "cotton" as the clue; because of the answer choices, plant is the
best approximation of what cotton is.

Question: 11
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Take the information given, length of cotton fiber and amount of hydrogen peroxide, and
find the most similar line and point in time. The correct answer is choice (C), L2 at the
beginning of its elongation period.

Question: 12
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
The only cotton plant line which did not have its genetic structure altered was L4, so this
was the control.

Question: 13
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The x-axis will move in a positive direction, so determine how the average lengths
change. For all the data, the lengths increase with increasing elongation periods. Thus,
you can conclude that the line will have a positive slope, choice (A).
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 4-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
Figure 2 shows that there is a linear relationship between cross-sectional area and △T.
You can also see that as cross-sectional area increases, △T increases. If System 1 has
a larger cross-sectional area than System 2, it must have a larger △T, so you can
eliminate choices (F) and (G). The question tells you that System 1 has twice the cross-
sectional area of System 2, so choice (H) is the correct answer. A quick check of Figure
2 confirms this: when cross-sectional area is 4 cm2, △T is 6°C and when cross-sectional
area is 8 cm2, △T is 12°C.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Based on the definition given in the passage, convection would not transfer heat from
the water to the metal containers. This eliminates all choices except for choice (B)

Question: 3
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
Figure 2 shows that △T increases with cross-sectional area. Figure 3 shows that
△T increases with height. In particular, Figures 2 and 3 show that height affects
△T more than cross-sectional area, although choice (H) has the greatest cross-
sectional area, choices (F) and (G) have much greater height. Since choice (G) has a
smaller height, the system with the greater △T is choice (F). Choice (F) is the best
answer because it has larger values for both than any other choice.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Table 1 shows that for water in the setup described, △T should be 10°C. Find the
differences in temperature in the answer choices given. Choice (A) has a difference of
20°C. Choice (B) has a difference of 30°C. Choice (C) has a difference of 0°C. Only
choice (D) has the appropriate △T of 10°C.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 5
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
The passage gives relationships between △T and only three variables: cross-sectional
area, length, and starting temperature. None of these are possible choices, but radius is
linked to cross-sectional area. As radius increases, area increases. Figure 2 shows that
as cross-sectional area increases, △T increases, so the correct answer is choice (H).
Insulation, amount of liquid, and air temperature are not discussed as being related to
△T in the passage.

(Test 4-2)
Question: 6
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Looking at Table 1 and examining the trials with coin samples II and IV shows that
electric current is held constant at 2,000 mA. The current does not change, eliminating
choices (A) and (B). The variable that does change is the identity of precious metal
solution. For coin sample II exposed to silver nitrate, 4.0 mg of precious metal plates.
For coin sample IV exposed to copper sulfate, only 2.4 mg of precious metal plates.
Therefore, choice (D) is eliminated, and choice (C) is correct.

Question: 7
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
The precious metal solutions react with zinc to form a coating of pure precious metal on
the coin samples. If the available surface area exposed to the solutions decreased, the
amount of precious metal coating is expected to decrease. There is no specific
evidence in the passage to support the plating amount remaining constant or
increasing.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Table 2 shows that increasing the exposure time of a zinc coin to silver nitrate results in higher
concentrations of zinc nitrate in the surrounding solution. Therefore, choices (C) and (D) are
eliminated. The passage states that silver nitrate, formed when silver dissolves in nitric acid,
reacts with zinc to form solid silver and zinc nitrate. Therefore, increasing the amount of silver
nitrate available to react with zinc is expected to result in higher concentrations of zinc nitrate.
This eliminates choice (B) and makes choice (A) the best answer.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 9
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
The question describes using the same sized sample of zinc and same exposure time
as Experiment 1. Table 1 shows that when electric current is increased from 1,000 to
2,000 mA for zinc coins exposed to copper sulfate for 30 minutes, the plated copper
increases from 1.2 to 2.4 mg. 1,580 mA is between 1,000 and 2,000 mA, so the amount
of plated copper should fall between 1.2 and 2.4 mg.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
In the description of Experiment 1, all coin samples were stated to have a radius of 1
cm. Table 1 shows that the change in mass from precious metal plating, electric current
applied, and identity of precious metal solution used were not constant for samples I-IV.

Question: 11
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
The passage states that silver nitrate, formed when silver dissolves in nitric acid, reacts
with zinc to form solid silver and zinc nitrate. Therefore, when zinc is plated with solid
silver, zinc nitrate is also formed as a product. Choices (F), (H), and (J) are not involved
in this reaction.

(Test 5-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Melting point is the temperature at which a substance changes from a solid to a liquid.
Any compound with a melting point above 215 K will still be a solid at that temperature.
For alkanes, according to Table 2, only octane will still be a solid at 215 K. Octane must
be in the answer, and on this basis alone, choices (A), (C), and (D) can all be
eliminated, leaving only choice (B). The remaining data in choice (B) are supported in
Table 2 as well.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 2
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
According to Table 3, the 8-carbon alcohol has the highest value for viscosity. Referring
to Table 1 for the prefix and suffix of the compound's name, the structure is called
octanol.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Reading across any single row of Table 3 demonstrates that for a fixed number of
carbons in the molecule, the alcohol has the highest viscosity. This eliminates choices
(A) and (B). Further, for any given row, the alkane has the lowest viscosity, eliminating
choice (C).

Question: 4
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
Reading down any single column in Table 2 demonstrates that as the number of
carbons in the molecule increases, the melting point increases. Therefore, choices (F)
and (J) are eliminated. Reading down any single column in Table 3 demonstrates that
as the number of carbons in the molecule increases, the viscosity increases as well,
eliminating choice (H) and making choice (G) the correct answer.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Compare the melting points of the alkanes and alcohols in Table 2. For any given
number of carbons in the molecule, the melting points between these two types of
compounds differ by varying but similar amounts between 41 and 57 K. Of the possible
answer choices, choice (C) is the best approximation of the average of these
differences.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 9-2)
Question: 7
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D For every trial involving oxygen in Table 1, the volume decreased by exactly 5.00 L.
All the other choices had volume changes that varied.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H In Table 1, each trial involving carbon dioxide showed a negative volume change, or
decrease in volume. Therefore, choices (F) and (G) are eliminated. The molecules will
occupy less volume only if they are pushed closer together, eliminating choice (J).

Question: 9
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C The passage states that increases in pressure lead to decreases in gas volume.
Therefore, decreases in pressure would be expected to result in increases in gas
volume, eliminating choices (A) and (B). In Table 2, the volume of carbon dioxide
decreased by 5.00 L when the pressure was increased from 2 atm to 4 atm. Therefore,
the volume would be expected to increase by 5.00 L upon returning to its initial
pressure.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
F In Table 3, the volume of neon decreases by an increasingly larger factor as the
pressure changes increase. The question proposes an even larger pressure increase
than those listed in Table 3, so the resulting volume change would also be expected to
be larger, eliminating all choices except (F).

Question: 11
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A No trials on any of the tables have positive changes in volume, so you can eliminate
choice (B). Choices (C) and (D) can be eliminated because while the pressure changes
at different temperatures produced differing results for volume, the volume was always
decreasing.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 10-2)
Question: 6
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D In the middle of the fifth paragraph is this sentence: If it [the U-235] is assembled over
too long a time (t), it will achieve slight supercriticality and then fizzle.

Question: 7
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
F The implosion-type weapon uses 15 kg of U-235. The gun-type weapon uses a 48-kg
cylinder and a 12-kg pellet for a total of 60 kg of U-235.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C In the fifth paragraph of the passage, notice that to achieve supercriticality, the
product (multiplication) of the mass and density of U-235 must be a large value.
Therefore, supercriticality could be achieved by increasing either the mass or the
density of the U-235. In the gun-type weapon, the explosives are used to propel one
piece of U-235 into another (increasing the total mass). In the implosion-type weapon,
the explosives are used to increase the density of the U-235. In both cases the goal is
to increase the product of mass and density in order to achieve supercriticality.

Question: 9
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H ρ stands for density. Read the implosion-type weapon paragraph and notice that the
density after compression is 70 g/cm3, which is closest to 100 g/cm3.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C In the section on implosion-type weapons, the passage says that explosives are used
to compress the U-235. To compress is to decrease the amount of space a substance
occupies while preserving its mass, which is to increase its density.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 11
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
F Again, the passage says that to achieve a supercritical state the product of mass and
density must be greater than some value. This is why the gun-type weapon combines
two pieces of U-235 to increase the mass, and it is why the implosion-type weapon
compresses the U-235.

Question: 12
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B Michelson’s Criterion says that t divided by ρ must be less than some number.
Therefore to meet this criterion, t could be decreased or ρ could be increased. Choice
(B) is the only answer choice that fits with this.

(Test 11-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
F Examine Figure 1; the least increase in the percent of hemoglobin saturated with
O2 occurs at the lowest temperatures where lines just begin to increase. Choice (F)
results in a change of approximately 5%. Choices (G) through (J) will all result in
changes greater than 10%, and since you are looking for the range of pressures that
gives the least increase, choice (F) is the best answer. If you picked choice (J), be
careful—this one has the greatest increase.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C First, examine Figure 1 closely. At higher temperatures, oxygen binding decreases,
so answer choices (A) and (B) may be eliminated since their binding will be greater at
37oC than at 42oC for the same oxygen pressures. Furthermore, at lower pressures of
oxygen, less hemoglobin binding occurs, so you can eliminate choice (D). Choice (C)
has the best match of a high temperature and a low pressure.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 3
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J Look at Figure 1. At 65% saturation of the hemoglobin, any pressure of oxygen
greater than 75 mmHg requires a temperature greater than 42oC. Subsequently, at a
pressure of 100 mmHg, the temperature must be considerably greater than 42 oC,
correlating to answer choice (J).

Question: 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B Examine Figure 2. The closest data point you have to those given in the problem is
75 mmHg pressure of O2 at approximately 80% hemoglobin saturation. Since the
problem asks for a 70% saturation, note the relationship between CO2 pressures and
percent of hemoglobin saturation—it is clear from the graph that as oxygen is kept at
constant pressure, hemoglobin saturation increases with decreasing CO 2 pressures.
You will need something slightly larger than 40 mmHg, so you can eliminate choice (A),
and you can eliminate choices (C) and (D) because they go too far in the other
direction. Only (B) is appropriately close to the given data.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
F Look at the curve for a carbon dioxide pressure of 90 mmHg in Figure 2; the
hemoglobin fails to saturate at oxygen pressures below 70 mmHg. This means that the
percent of hemoglobin saturated remains constant at any pressure below 70 mmHg.
This question asks for how the percentage changes as O2 pressure changes from 45
mmHg to 90 mmHg, and hemoglobin binding remains constant at first and then
increases.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 12-2)
Question: 7
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H Choice (H), 80 degrees Fahrenheit, is the only correct choice. To solve this question,
draw a line from 30 minutes on the x-axis to the S3 curve, then a line from that point on
the S3 curve to the y-axis. If you look where S3 is at 30 minutes and just estimate that
point on the y-axis, you can see it is between 70°F and 90°F. Now look at the answers:
10°F is practically at the bottom of the axis, so it is much too low; 100°F is the very top
of the y-axis, so much too high; 50°F is roughly in the middle, but not quite as high as it
should be 80 F is just about right.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B Figures 2 and 3 have an x-axis in common. Since this axis for both shows an
increase in time mixture is allowed to stand, the y-axes are easy to compare. In Figure
2, the temperature of the water in the outer jar increases as the time allowed to stand
increases. In Figure 3, the heat loss of S1 increases as the time allowed to stand
increases. Therefore, as the temperature of water in the outer jar increases, the heat
loss of S1 will also increase.

Question: 9
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J According to the arrow on the right side of the graph, the Orderliness increases as
the Heat loss increases. To compare the orderliness of the four mixtures, therefore, all
you need to do is compare the heat loss of the four mixtures at the given point. Choice
(J) correctly compares the temperatures of the four mixtures at 0 minutes. Because the
mark at 15°F is higher than that of S1 or S3, the solution must be more orderly than S1
and S3, but because the mark is lower than S2, it must be less orderly than S2.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A Since you have no data about the behavior of heat in the string, you can eliminate
choices (C) and (D). Look at the relationships given to you in choices (A) and (B), and
note how those relationships correspond to those in Figure 2. In this figure, the sugar
and water mixture decreases in temperature and the water outside the jar increases in
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

temperature until the temperatures of the two things are equal. It must be the case,
therefore, that the Mixture is losing heat and the Water Outside the Jar is gaining heat—
in other words, heat is being conducted by some material from the Mixture to the Water
Outside the Jar, choice (A).

Question: 11
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G Choice (G) is correct because S2 reaches 100°F lost from the beginning temperature
of 180°F at around 35 minutes standing, before S1 or S3. To solve this question, look at
which line gets to 80°F earliest, which would indicate that the mixture has cooled from
180°F to 100°F.

(Test 14-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H The results of Experiment 2 are shown in Figure 3. Looking at the middle row for
Solvent 2, the peak for Protein D is found at a distance of approximately 50 mm from
the starting position.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A The data in Table 1 combined with the results shown in Figure 2 demonstrate that as
the solvent pH decreases, the migration distance of Protein A decreases. For Solvent 1
(pH 8.9), Protein A migrated about 10 mm. A solvent with a pH of 8.4 is less than that of
Solvent 1. Therefore, Protein A would be expected to migrate less than it did with
Solvent 1.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H The isoelectric point of Protein L is closest to that of Protein C. Protein C appears
between Proteins B and D in Table 1, Figure 1, and Figure 2. Since 6.6 is between the
isoelectric points of Proteins B and D, the results would be most similar if Protein L
replaced Protein C in the mixture.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 4
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A The more crowded the peaks appear, the lower the resolution. Therefore, the trials
should display the most crowded plots. In each experiment, Solvent 2 produces
intermediate resolution plots, so choice (C) can be eliminated. Solvent 1 always results
in peaks that are close together, and Solvent 3 always results in peaks that are far apart
in both experiments. Since you’re looking for the set of solvents with the lowest
resolution, choice (A), which gives Solvent 1 in both experiments, is the best choice.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H The isoelectric point of Protein Y is between that of Proteins B and C. Given the data
in Table 1 and Figure 2, the peak for Protein Y is expected to fall between that of B and
C. This eliminates choices (G) and (J). Protein B always migrates less than Protein C in
Figure 2, eliminating choice (F).

Question: 6
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A In Figure 3, Protein B returns to 0% detection at approximately 35 mm for Solvent 2.
Looking down at Solvent 3, a distance of 35 mm corresponds to 0% detection for
Protein A.

(Test 15-2)
Question: 6
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G The results in Table 1 for Experiment 1 indicate that the temperature varied for that
experiment, eliminating choice (F). Table 1 also indicates that both MEA and DEA were
used in Experiment 1, eliminating choices (H) and (J). The description of Experiment 2
states that all trials were done at a constant temperature of 26°C.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 7
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D Concentration cannot increase from 1,000 ppm to 10 ppm or decrease from 10 ppm
to 1,000 ppm, eliminating choices (B) and (C). The description of Experiment 1 states
that CO2 concentration started at 1,000 ppm and decreased as it was absorbed,
eliminating choice (A).

Question: 8
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G In Table 1, as temperature is increased, scrub times for both MEA and DEA
decrease. Therefore, if an additional trial were done at 12°C, the scrub times would be
expected to fall between the values listed for 10°C and 15°C for MEA and DEA. Only
choice (G) has values that lie between these limits for both compounds.

Question: 9
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A The first paragraph of the passage states that ethanolamines are compounds with
both an alcohol and an amine subgroup. Choices (A) and (B) both have alcohol
subgroups, and choices (A), (C), and (D) each have at least one amine subgroup. Only
choice (A) has both.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J Experiment 1 compares MEA and DEA. The results in Table 1 indicate that the scrub
times for DEA are always less than MEA at each temperature tested, eliminating
choices (F) and (H). The passage states that longer scrub times indicate a slower rate
of absorption. Therefore, DEA must have a faster rate of absorption at all temperatures.

Question: 11
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B The passage states that longer scrub times indicate a slower rate of absorption. The
results of Experiment 2 are shown in Table 2. The acidic gas with the longest scrub time
is HCN, so it must have the slowest rate of absorption.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 17-2)
Question: 7
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A You can see in Figure 2 that increasing pressure increases the rate of reaction, and
you can see in Figure 3 that increasing temperature increases the rate of reaction. The
scientist’s claim is true based on these two things so the answer is choice (A). Be
careful of choices like choice (B), which are only half right. Choice (B) says that the
scientist is right, but gives an incorrect reason.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H To solve this problem, compare the reaction rates for each answer choice, which
shows that choice (H) is the only correct answer. Be sure to look at the y-axis in
problems like these to be sure both charts are measuring the same thing.

Question: 9
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B This is a deceptive question—you don’t need to convert mole/L back to number of
molecules, and you don’t need to use 6.02 × 1023 at all! Because the units for the
amount of Compound Y and Compound Z are the same, you can just divide the amount
of Compound Y by the amount of Compound Z, [1 mole/L]/[2 mole/L] to get the correct
answer, choice (B).

Question: 10
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H You can eliminate choices (F) and (G) right away because they talk about changing
temperature, and nothing in the passage or Figures 1-3 tells you that changing the
amount of reactants will change temperature. You know from the passage that the rate
of a gaseous reaction is changed by changing temperature, pressure, volume, or
amount of reactants. Figure 1 shows that increasing temperature and pressure
increases the likelihood of particles running into each other. Figure 2 shows that
increasing pressure increases the rate of reaction and Figure 3 shows that increasing
temperature increases the rate of reaction. Putting all of this together, you know that
increasing the likelihood of a collision increases the rate of reaction. This means that
increasing the concentration of reactants increases the rate of reaction, so choice (H) is
correct. For the same reason, choice (J) must be incorrect.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 11
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D The best way to solve this problem is to look at each answer choice and see how the
reaction rate changes. Looking at choice (A) and Figure 2, decreasing pressure would
cause a decrease in reaction rate so it cannot be the correct answer. Choice (C) and
Figure 3 show the same, so that cannot be correct either. Choice (B), increasing
pressure from 1 atm to 3 atm, would increase the reaction rate to between 125% and
150% of the reaction rate at 50°C and 1 atm. Looking at Choice (D) and Figure 3, you
can see that increasing temperature from 50°C to 100°C will increase the reaction rate
to 350% of the reaction rate at 50°C and 1 atm. Since choice (D) represents the biggest
increase in reaction rate, it is the correct answer.

(Test 19-2)
Question: 7
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D The solution with the least osmotic pressure will have the smallest value from Figure
1. The pressure for choice (A) is 85 atm; choice (B) is 70 atm; choice (C) is 90 atm;
choice (D) is 50 atm. Therefore, a 2.0 M sucrose solution has the least osmotic
pressure.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J The introduction states that higher van't Hoff factors correlate with greater dissociation
or ionization. According to Table 1, FeCl3 exhibits the greatest van't Hoff factor, which
means the highest degree of ionization.

Question: 9
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C Examine the equation given in the introduction: Π = iMRT. Since the values
of R and T remain constant among all the answer choices as seen in the question,
osmotic pressure is determined by the product of M and i. The product of concentration
of solute particles and van't Hoff factor for a 1.5 M NaCl solution is 1.5 × 1.9 = 2.85. The
product for the solution in choice (A) is 1.0 × 1.9 = 1.9; choice (B) is 2.0 × 1.9 = 3.8;
choice (C) is 2.9 × 1.0 = 2.9; choice (D) is 3.5 × 1.0 = 3.5. Choice (C) has the closest
product to 2.85.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 10
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G The pressure required to maintain solvent equilibrium across a membrane is the
solution's osmotic pressure, as discussed in the introduction. Figure 1 shows a linear
relationship between solute concentration and osmotic, eliminating choices (H) and (J).
As concentration of solute decreases, the osmotic pressure will also decrease,
eliminating choice (F).

Question: 11
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D Comparing different solutes in Figure 1 at a given concentration greater than M = 0,
you will determine that FeCl3 always has greater osmotic pressure than sucrose,
eliminating choices (B) and (C). The trend in Figure 1 predicts that a substance with i =
3.8 would have a greater osmotic pressure than FeCl3, which does not support the
scientist's findings.

(Test 21-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D Scientist 2 says "the ·OH generated by Reactions 1 and 4 will react rapidly with any
H2CO," indicating that she does agree those reactions occur; the dispute is what
formaldehyde decomposes to after Reaction 3. So according to both scientists, O 3 leads
to the formation of ·OH (Reaction 1), and OH leads to the formation of ·CH 3 (Reaction
2).
Question: 2
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
F As methane (CH4) levels increase, CH3 levels will increase (Reaction 2). As
·CH3 levels increase, H2CO levels will increase (Reaction 3). Therefore the correct
graph should show low levels of H2CO when methane levels are low, and high levels of
H2CO when methane levels are high. Choice (F) is the only graph that reflects this direct
relationship.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C Remember: reactants on the left; products on the right. From that you can eliminate
answer choices (B) and (D). For choice (A), it is true that H2CO is composed of atoms
(it is a molecule); however, composition is not mentioned in the question. Since there
are no other reactants, the mass of H2CO (the reactant) must be exactly the mass of the
products (H2 and CO). Therefore, the molecular mass of each of the products must be
less than that of H2CO.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H According to Scientist 1, the first step in the production of formaldehyde requires
ozone (O3). Follow the reactions: if O3 levels decrease, ·OH levels would decrease
(Reaction 1), leading to a decrease in ·CH3 levels (Reaction 2), which in turn would lead
to a decrease in H2CO levels (Reaction 3). Thus, both ·CH3 and H2CO levels would
decrease.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D Scientist 2 says Reactions 1-4 do occur, which support choices (A) and (C). Choice
(B) is Scientist 2's central argument: that the ·OH produced by Reactions 1 and 4 can
react with H2CO to form CO (Reaction 6). While Scientist 2 does say that some H2CO
may form from CH4 and O3, she says that "H2CO quickly decomposes" and that the
chain reaction of Reactions 2-4 is inhibited. Thus, she would not expect an increase in
CH4 levels to cause levels of H2CO to rise dramatically.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G If Reaction 4 were inhibited, the amount of H2CO generated would be reduced, and
therefore, according to Scientist 2, the amount of CO generated would be reduced, not
increased, so choice (F) is incorrect. ·OH can react with H2CO to form CO, but there is
no evidence of HO2 reacting with H2CO, as in choice (H). O2 is not involved in the
generation of CO, so choice (J) cannot be correct. Answer choice (G) is Scientist 2's
hypothesis: the H2CO generated in Reaction 3 will react in Reactions 5 and 6 to
produce CO.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 7
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B Reaction 6 shows ·OH reacting with H2CO in the atmosphere, which weakens
Scientist 1's hypothesis in 2 ways: it reduces the level of H2CO, which Scientist 1 says
is increasing in the atmosphere, and consumes ·OH, inhibiting the chain reaction
(Reactions 2-4), which is central to Scientist 1's hypothesis. Thus, choice (B) is the best
explanation. The ·OH produced in Reaction 4 reacts with CH4 (in Reaction 2) agrees
with Scientist 1's argument, so choice (A) is incorrect. The H2O produced in Reaction 6
may react with light and O3, as in Reaction 1, but again, does not weaken Scientist 1's
argument, so choice (C) is incorrect. For choice (D), ·OH is not produced in Reaction 6,
it is a reactant.

(Test 21-2)
Question: 8
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G To solve this problem, you must be sure to read the question carefully: you are
looking at the section of the graph where V is decreasing from its largest value. First,
find the largest value of V; this is the point on the curve that is furthest to the right,
since V increases left to right. Once you are looking in the right place, you just draw a
line up from 1.5 mL on the V-axis to where it meets the curve, then draw a line over to
the P-axis to get your answer: 30 Pa, choice (G).

Question: 9
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C From the passage and Figures 1 and 2, you know that both ends of the second half of
the curve must meet the ends of the first half to complete the cycle, so P must be higher
on the left side than on the right side. Choices (A) and (B) cannot be correct
because P is higher on the right side than on the left side. Choice (D) is simply the
wrong shape to complete the cycle, so it cannot be correct. Choice (C) has P higher on
the left side than on the right side, so it must be correct.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H Looking at Figure 1, all you need to do is find the lowest point on the curve, then draw
a line down to the V-axis. Choice (H), 3.5 mL is the closest answer.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 11
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B To solve this question, you must first locate the approximate lowest and highest
values of V on Figure 2. The lowest value is about 0.75 mL and the highest value is
about 2.25 mL, so the lowest value is about 1/3 times the highest value, choice (B).
Another way to solve this problem is to check the answer choices against the graph.
Choice (A) cannot be correct because there are no negative numbers on the graph.
Choice (C) doesn't really make sense because if the lowest value were 1 times the
highest value, it would have to be the same number as the highest value, and then
there wouldn't be a highest or lowest. Choice (D) doesn't make sense either because if
the lowest value were 2 times the highest value, the lowest value would have to be
higher than the highest value. Choice (B) is the only choice which could work because it
is the only choice which is not negative and would make the lowest value actually lower
than the highest value.

(Test 22-3)
Question: 12
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J Looking at Figure 2, the 0°C setting is the lowest curve, represented by triangles. At
200 min. the saltwater temperature is about 8°C, and at 250 min. the temperature is
about 5°C. Therefore, at 220 min., you should expect the temperature to be between
5°C and 8°C.

Question: 13
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B Since we are asked about a heater and a 37°C trial, Figure 1 will be the relevant
chart. At 8 min. the air temperature is about 27°C, and at 10 min. the temperature is
about 31°C. If the air changes 4°C in 2 minutes, divide 4 by 2 to get the answer:
2°C/min.

Question: 14
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
F For every temperature setting in each figure, the temperature changes fastest in the beginning
and slower as time progresses. The 0°C cooling trial is no different: from 0-100 min. the
saltwater temperature goes from 50°C to about 22°C, a change of 28°C, a much greater change
than those recorded in any of the other 100-minute intervals listed in the answer choices.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 15
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A Average kinetic energy is directly proportional to temperature. That is, when
temperature is high, average kinetic energy is high, and when temperature is low,
average kinetic energy is low. Choice (A) corresponds to the highest temperature.
However, you don't need to know what kinetic energy is to answer the question.
Choices (B), (C), and (D) all yield the same temperature (25°C), and since there is no
other variable in either figure to which average kinetic energy could be related, if one of
them were correct, they would all have to be correct. Therefore, by process of
elimination, choice (A) is the only possibility.

Question: 16
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
F The lower the cooling device's temperature setting, the longer it takes for the saltwater
to reach that temperature. It takes the cooling device about 300 min. to reach the 25°C
setting; about 350 min. to reach the 10°C setting, and about 400 min. to reach the 0°C.
Therefore, you should expect the cooler to take more than 400 min. to reach an even
lower setting, such as -10°C.

(Test 22-5)
Question: 23
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C Read the vertical axes in all 3 figures when T = 0°C. The only fluid whose viscosity is
less than 1.0 cP is diethyl ether, eliminating choices (B) and (D). Ethanol, water,
mercury, and nitrobenzene are all found in both Figures 1 and 2, so the correct answer
is choice (C).

Question: 24
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
F The nitrobenzene line in Figure 2 has a sharp initial decrease and then plateaus.
Thus, choice (F) has the greatest decrease in viscosity of approximately 1.1 cP. Choice
(G) has only a decrease of approximately 0.25 cP. Choices (H) and (J) both decreases
less than 0.1 cP.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 25
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C Figure 1 shows that the viscosity of water at 70°C is approximately 0.4 cP. Although
choices (A), (B), and (D) provide values that are represented in the figure, they are all
values for temperatures other than the specified 70°C.

Question: 26
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G Figure 2 demonstrates that viscosity decreased with an increase in temperature,
eliminating choices (F) and (H). The introduction states that the greater the viscosity,
the greater the resistance to flow, thus the greater time it would take for a fluid to move
out of its container. Given Figure 2 shows decreasing viscosity, the time for the fluids to
leave their containers would also decrease. Thus, choice (G) is the correct answer.

Question: 27
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D To assess the hypothesis, you would require values for viscosity at 60°C for
nitrobenzene with Additive A and untreated diethyl ether. Although Figure 2 provides the
viscosity for nitrobenzene treated with Additive B, no figure shows the viscosity value for
nitrobenzene blended with chemical additive A. Figure 1 shows that nitrobenzene has a
viscosity higher than that of diethyl ether, and Figures 2 and 3 show that Additive A
lowers the viscosity of both ethanol and diethyl ether; however, you cannot assume that
treatment of nitrobenzene with Additive A would lower its viscosity below 0.07cP. Thus,
choice (D) is the best option.

(Test 22-7)
Question: 34
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G The information in Table 1 indicates that Solution 4 contained three dissolved
particles, where Solution 2 contained only one dissolved particle. Solution 4 thus had
more dissolved particles, enabling you to eliminate choices (F) and (H). Now compare
the respective freezing point of each solution. The freezing point of Solution 2 was -
1.9°C while the freezing point of Solution 4 was lower at -5.7°C. Be careful here-a large
negative number is smaller than a small one!
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 35
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A Scientist 2 states that the change in freezing point is NOT related to the identity or
properties of the solute dissolved. The observation that a solute with no charge such as
naphthalene can still lower the freezing point of a solvent does not contradict Scientist
2's viewpoint, so choices (C) and (D) are incorrect. Scientist 1 specifically states that a
change in freezing point only occurs with solutes that form charged particles in solution.
Therefore, the fact that naphthalene causes a change in the freezing point of benzene
directly contradicts Scientist 1's viewpoint as stated in choice (A).

Question: 36
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
F Use process of elimination. Scientist 2 argues that any increase in the concentration
of a solution will lower its freezing point, so you can eliminate choices (G) and (J).
Scientist 1 argues that only charged solvents can have an influence on the freezing
point, so you can eliminate choice (H) as well. This leaves you only with choice (F),
which agrees with the hypotheses of both scientists.

Question: 37
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A Scientist 2 states that only the concentration of a solution can change its freezing
point, and since the concentration here is held constant, choices (B) and (C) are not the
best answers. Scientist 1 states that the decrease in freezing point is related only to the
charge of the solute particles, a hypothesis which is supported by the observations in
the question.

Question: 38
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G Scientist 1 states that solute molecules are attracted to the solvent molecules by
intermolecular forces and interfere with the orderly arrangement of solvent
molecules. Choices (F) and (J) are eliminated because they do not depict attraction
between solute and solvent molecules, and both show a very orderly arrangement of
solvent molecules. Choice (G) and choice (H) demonstrate attraction between solute
and solvent, but only choice (G) illustrates interference with non-orderly arrangement of
solvent molecules.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 39
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A Only Scientist 1 states that the physical properties (charge) of the solute have an
impact on changing the freezing point of a solvent. This eliminates choices (B) and (D).
Scientist 2 states that the physical properties of the solute do not have an effect on
freezing point depression. Therefore, choice (C) is eliminated and choice (A) is correct.

Question: 40
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J Scientist 2 states that the decrease in temperature is in direct proportion with the van
't Hoff factor. Choices (F) and (H) show the decrease in temperature and the van 't Hoff
factor in an inverse proportion, so they can be eliminated. Choice (G) can also be
eliminated because there is no indication that the van 't Hoff factor should be squared in
the proportion. Only choice (J) shows decrease in temperature ( T) and the van 't Hoff
factor (i) in direction proportion with one another.

(Test 23-5)
Question: 22
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H To get through this question quickly, you can try to estimate. Because temperature is
rising as you go down Table 1, and density is falling, the additional sample would be a
new line under Sample V. Solution mass is falling in the table, so eliminate choice (J).
To decide among the remaining choices, note that the falling solution mass, while not
linear, declines in relatively small increments and never more than .5 g. Thus, a
reasonable guess would be choice (H). To be certain of the answer, focus on the
density, which we know by looking at Experiments 1 and 2 together is the more
important factor (mass fell even when temperature was held constant). In Experiment 1,
150 mL of each solution is measured in the graduated cylinder. Multiplying this volume
by the density of the solution will give the mass.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Either solve by long multiplication, or eliminate choices (F) and (G) by

expanding the above expression:
mass = (1.018 g/mL)(150 mL)
mass = (100 g/mL)(1.5 mL) + (1.8 g/mL)(1.5 mL)
The last product above works out to 2.7 g, so only choice (H) is possible.

Question: 23
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A All samples in Table 2 are at 10°C according to the description of Experiment 2.
Salinity of 2.50% is not directly listed, but it does fall between those of samples VI and
VII. Given that all samples are at the same temperature, the density of the proposed
solution will fall between that of samples VI and VII.

Question: 24
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H According to Experiment 2, where all water samples have a temperature of 10°C, the
given salinity of 2.35% matches up most closely with the salinity in Sample VII. Looking
at the results of Experiment 3 for Sample VII, U3 sank and X2 remained afloat. This
eliminates choices (G) and (J). Since the claim in the question states that U3 will
function well at the surface of the water, the data do NOT support this. U3 will sink in
this environment and therefore cannot operate at the surface, eliminating choice (F).

Question: 25
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D According to Table 3, all prototypes show a pattern of floating in samples toward the
top of the table, and sinking in samples toward the bottom of the table. R5 has the same
results as choice (A), X1 and X2 each have the same results as choice (B), and U3 has
the same results as choice (C). However, a similar pattern to choice (D) cannot be
found. If the new prototype did not float in water samples IV and V, it cannot possibly
float in samples VI and VII because these water samples are less dense.

Question: 26
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H According to the description of Experiment 1, the graduated cylinder was used
to measure 150 mL of the solution. A mL is a unit of volume. Graduated cylinders are
primarily used for accurate and precise measurements of volume. Mass is best
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

assessed with a balance, eliminating choice (F). Salinity is typically measured indirectly
through electrical conductivity, eliminating choice (G). Thermometers are used to
measure temperature, eliminating choice (J).

Question: 27
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A In Table 3, prototype U3 floated in Sample V but sank in Sample VI. The density of an
object must be less than that of the liquid for the object to float. If the density of the
object exceeds that of the surrounding liquid, it will sink. Therefore, the density of U3
must be between the densities of Samples V and VI. The density of Sample V is 1.022
g/mL according to Table 1, and the density of Sample VI is 1.020 g/mL according to
Table 2. Only choice (A) lists a value between these limits.

(Test 34)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The passage defines the normal boiling point as the temperature at which vapor
pressure and standard atmospheric pressure are equal. The normal boiling point of a
substance does not change.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The boiling point of a compound is always the temperature at which the liquid's
vapor pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure. A change in atmospheric pressure
results in a similar change in the vapor pressure required to induce boiling.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) According to Figure 4.3, hexane will boil at 0°C when the vapor pressure is
decreased to approximately 50 mmHg. The vapor pressures required to boil heptane
and octane at 0°C are both less than 50 mmHg. The vapor pressure required to boil
pentane at 0°C is approximately 200 mmHg.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) In Figure 4.3, the normal boiling point for pentane is about 36°C. Increasing the
temperature to 40°C requires an increase in vapor pressure as well. Thus, 850 mmHg is
the best estimation for this vapor pressure.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The difference between normal boiling points for each consecutive pair of alkanes in
Figure 4.3 is about 30°C. Adding 30°C to the boiling point of heptane (98.4°C) provides
an approximate value of 128°C for octane's normal boiling point.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) In Figure 4.4, the alkanes are near the alkenes and alkynes. These three functional
groups exhibit similar boiling point trends in the graphs, which happen to be the lowest
of the functional groups included.

Question: 7
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) According to Figure 4.4, a 2-carbon alcohol has an approximate boiling point of
75°C. Figure 4.4 indicates that a 4-carbon ketone would have approximately the
same boiling point.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The passage indicates that stronger bonds require higher temperatures to break.
The alkanes, alkenes, and alkynes have the lowest boiling points in Figure 4.4. The
lowest boiling points mean that the bonds (Van der Waals) in these functional groups
are the easiest to break.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 9
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) According to its molecular formula, caproic acid contains six carbon atoms. Figure
4.4 illustrates that a 6-carbon carboxylic acid will have a boiling point of approximately
200°C.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) According to the passage, strong bonds require higher boiling points to break, while
weak bonds require lower boiling points. Carboxylic acids have the highest boiling
points (Figure 4.4) and therefore the strongest bonds (double hydrogen). Ordering the
functional groups in Figure 4.4 from highest to lowest boiling points allows for the
identification of bonds from strongest to weakest.

Question: 11
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) In Table 4.2, the molecular weights of each molecule are similar, but the boiling
points are not. This indicates that molecular weight does not directly affect boiling point.

Question: 12
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) In Table 4.2, n-Butanol contains four carbon atoms and has a boiling point of 117°C.
In Figure 4.4, a boiling point of 117°C most closely resembles the boiling point of a 4-
carbon member of the alcohol group.

Question: 13
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Based on the number of carbon atoms it contains (three) and its high boiling point
(140°C), Figure 4.4 can be used to identify propanoic acid as a 3-carbon carboxylic
acid. According to Table 4.1, carboxylic acids contain double hydrogen bonds.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 14
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Based on the data in Table 4.1 and Figure 4.4, double hydrogen bonds are the
strongest, followed by single hydrogen bonds, dipole-dipole bonds, and Van der
Waals bonds. At the same vapor pressure, stronger bonds require a higher
temperature to break than weaker bonds. Since single hydrogen bonds are stronger
than dipole-dipole bonds, single hydrogen bonds require a higher boiling point.

Question: 15
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) In both Figures 4.3 and 4.4, the boiling point increases as the number of carbon
atoms increases within a specific functional group. This means the number of carbon
atoms can be used to predict the relative boiling point for compounds containing a
known number of carbon atoms in a known functional group. A common number of
carbon atoms among compounds from different groups does not necessarily indicate
similarities in boiling point.

(Test 45)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Heptane is an alkane (circle marker) with a molar mass of 100 g/mol. In Figure 7.4,
the corresponding dot has a boiling point just less than 100°C.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) As the molar mass for both alkanes and alcohols increases, so does the boiling
point. This is shown by the two linear trends with positive slopes in Figure 7.4.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Propanol is an alcohol, so it follows the trend of the green squares at the top of
Figure 7.4. Extrapolating backward from a molar mass of about 74 g/mol to 60 g/mol
would correspond to a 12°C to 14°C decrease in boiling points.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Since 150°C is higher than the boiling point of pentanol, the substance would
already have boiled and become gaseous.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The addition of a hydroxyl group to any of the alcohols makes the boiling points
higher than those of the alkanes that have similar molar masses. Look at pentane and
butanol: these have similar molar masses, but butanol (which has a hydroxyl group) has
a much higher boiling point.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) This model has the six carbon groups and the hydroxyl group that makes it an
alcohol. In Table 7.2, all substances ending in -ol are alcohols. The chemical hexane
also has six carbon groups, so the base of the structure must have something to do with
the hexa- prefix.

Question: 7
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The model shows that each point on the skeletal structure indicates a carbon atom.
The carbon on each end is filled with three hydrogen atoms and the carbons in the
middle each have two hydrogen atoms attached. Eight lines mean 10 carbons: 8 inside
(8 × 2 = 16) and 3 on each end (2 × 3 = 6) equals 22 hydrogen atoms (16 + 6 = 22).

Question: 8
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) To figure this out, extend the lower line on Figure 7.4 out to 142 g/mol. The boiling
points of alkanes seem to increase about 60°C for an increase of 25 g/mol. A molar
mass increase from 100 g/mol to 142 g/mol equates to about a 90°C increase in the
boiling point, which is closest to 185°C.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 50)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The independent variable is the variable the experimenter purposely changes.
The types of metals were varied throughout this experiment, so this is the
independent variable.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The control variable must remain constant for all trials. The type of metal cannot be
controlled since it is varied for each experiment. Independent variables cannot be
control variables.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Silver acts as the cathode in this reaction. From the passage, we know that metal
ions (Ag+) join the Ag strip as solid metal atoms. This diminishes the amount of metal
ions in the jar. After repeated use, the silver ions will be attracted to the silver cathode,
and the concentration of Ag+ will decrease.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) To get a positive voltage, the sum of the cathode and anode must be 0.63. This is
only true if zinc is the anode with 0.76V and lead is the cathode at –0.13V.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The passage stated that metal from the anode strip dissolves into solution and metal
from the solution is added to the cathode strip. Zinc metal was the anode in Experiment
2, so its atoms dissolved into zinc ions, decreasing the strip's mass. Copper was the
cathode, so the dissolved zinc ions attached themselves to the strip, increasing the
strip's mass.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 6
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Figure 9.1 shows zinc as the anode and copper as the cathode. The anode table in
Table 9.2 shows that zinc has a more positive voltage than copper. It can thus be
inferred that aluminum would be the anode, because it also has a more positive voltage
than copper.

Question: 7
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The aluminum anode has a potential of 1.66V, and the copper cathode has a
potential of 0.34V. Added together, this yields a sum of 2.00V. Switching the anode and
cathode would give a sum of –2.00 V, which is not a choice.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Each copper/zinc cell can produce 1.10 V. Using the equation 12 ÷ 1.10 = 10.9 V, or
between 10 and 11. Ten cells clearly do not produce quite enough voltage, so 11 cells
are needed.

(Test 52)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Experiment 1 looked at cathode rays that were attracted to a positively charged
area. This suggests that the rays are negatively charged. Experiment 2 suggests that
something inside the atom is sturdy or dense enough to reflect alpha particles.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) If the mass-to-charge ratio of a particle is small, either the mass of the particle is
small or the charge of the particle is large. From the ratio alone, it is impossible to know
which factor creates the small ratio. Both (A) and (C) might be true, but (D) is the best
conclusion because it notes both possible factors.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The neutron has some mass but is neutral, so it has no charge. An object with zero
charge would have an undefined mass-to-charge ratio, no matter what the mass of the
particle is.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Both experiments agree that atoms have subatomic particles. This conflicts with
Democritus's view that atoms are indivisible.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) Only 1 out of every 20,000 particles was deflected to a large degree, meaning that
19,999 out of every 20,000 particles went straight through the foil. This suggests that
there is a tiny chunk of dense material in an atom, but the rest is empty space.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The gold foil was 8.6 × 10–8 m, or 0.000000086 m. One micrometer is 0.000001 m,
but the gold foil is not as thick as 1 μm. The only reasonable answer is 0.086 μm
because it shows that the gold foil is much thinner than 1 μm.

Question: 7
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) This statement is talking about cathode rays that have been proven to be negatively
charged and very small.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
This headline matches what the gold foil experiment concluded. An atom must have a
dense particle in it to make the alpha particles bounce off the foil. However, this particle
must be very small if only 1 out of 20,000 alpha particles bounced back.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 55)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The mass of sample can be found by taking the mass of the crucible + sample and
subtracting the mass of the empty crucible (32.569 – 26.449 = 6.120 g).

Question: 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Even though the sample was heated again, no additional water molecules were
driven off between the third and fourth heatings; instead, only anhydrous MgSO 4 was
left in the container.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Percent mass is the mass of the investigated quantity (mass of water) divided by the
total mass. The ratio of these numbers describes the percent of water in the original
solution.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The difference in the first two rows of Table 10.2 shows that approximately 6 g of
the hydrated sample were used. The difference between the mass of the sample at the
end and the mass of the sample before heating was approximately 3 g (of water driven
off). This indicates the sample was around 50% water and 50% magnesium sulfate.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The percent mass of water would increase if some solid splattered out of the jar.
When the mass of the sample was measured after the last heating, it would be less than
expected because some of the solid had sprayed out, but the student would (incorrectly)
assume the lost mass to be solely water that had evaporated.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 6
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The mass of the sample increased during the additional 40 minutes. The number of
MgSO4 crystals could not increase, and any "expansion" in size would not change the
mass. A change in temperature also does not change the mass. The only reasonable
choice is that water molecules from the atmosphere were able to rehydrate the crystals.

Question: 7
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The hydrate would still heat up and water would be driven off, but that water could
not leave the crucible. If the crucible were opened, drops of water would be found on
the sides, but the mass would not have changed because the water was not allowed to
go into the atmosphere.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Both beakers contain 50 g of measured solid, but much of that mass would be water
molecules in Beaker 2. The 50 g of solid in Beaker 1 contains all MgSO4 and no water
molecules. When dissolved, there would be a much higher concentration of Mg in
Beaker 1.

(Test 57)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The temperature changed 10°C during the first 6-minute interval. From 6 to 20
minutes, the temperature barely decreased. The temperature did decrease from 20 to
30 minutes, but only about half as rapidly.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) If the thermometer was touching the bottom of the test tube, it may have recorded
the temperature of the glass as well as the temperature of the sample. This would have
caused the temperature to be higher. A reasonable thermometer reading would be 80°C
if the tip of the thermometer was resting on hot glass and the rest of the thermometer
was in the 55°C solution.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) There are three separate parts to this cooling curve. The first and third parts are
downward-slanting lines that indicate the temperature decreased in both parts. The
middle part shows constant temperature, so the phase must have been changing.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The middle plateau shows the lauric acid cooled down but did not change
temperature. This must indicate a phase change. Liquid to solid is the freezing point.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Since 25°C is well below the freezing/melting point of lauric acid, all material would
be in the solid phase.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The temperature decreases about 1.5°C every 2 minutes after 20 minutes. At 30
minutes, the temperature is nearly 34°C. The temperature would still need to drop 14°C.
This would take almost 20 more minutes.

Question: 7
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The melting/freezing point does not depend on the amount of lauric acid. It may take
more time to reach the melting point, but it would still occur around 43°C.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Since 50°C is higher than the melting point of lauric acid, the sample would never
have crystallized into a solid. It would have remained a liquid throughout the
experiment.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 9
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Since 25°C is between the melting and boiling point, all of the substance would be a
liquid. This is equivalent to water at 25°C, which is between the melting point of ice and
the boiling point of water.

(Test 58)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Volume is a measurement of how much space something occupies. Sample 6 had a
volume of 44.8 L, which was the largest volume of any sample.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) Samples 1 and 3 have the same volume, which means they are the same size.
Sample 3, however, has a mass of 10 g, whereas Sample 1 has a mass of only about 1
g.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Both samples are 22.4 L. Avogadro's law states that any two gasses at the same
volume, temperature, and pressure will contain the same number of molecules.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) An 11.2-L sample of oxygen gas would have a mass of 16.0 g. To calculate the
mass for 22.4 L, one needs to double the volume, which would be twice the mass of
Sample 7.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The neon balloon has a mass of 10.1 g, and 11.2 L of hydrogen gas has a mass of
1 g. One would need 10 times that much mass of hydrogen gas, or 10 × 11.2 = 112.0 L.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 6
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) Avogadro's law states that equal volumes of gasses at the same pressure and
temperature would have an equal number of molecules. All three samples have a
volume of 11.2 L.

(Test 61)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) This high absorbance in Figure 11.4 means lots of light is being absorbed.
NiSO4 has an absorbance of around 0.075 at 380 nm. This light is purple in color. Most
of the purple light gets absorbed by the green nickel sulfate solution.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Low absorbance means little light is absorbed and lots of light passes through. The
green NiSO4(aq) solution allows most of the green light from the spectrometer to pass
through, but it absorbs most other colors.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) As the concentration increases, the absorbance increases proportionally. The
concentration of NiSO4(aq) is changed, and this changes the absorbance proportionally.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The absorbance of NiSO4(aq) increases about 0.90 for each increase of 0.08 mol/L.
This is a proportional increase that can be used to predict the concentration of unknown
solutions.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 5
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Figure 11.4 shows that NiSO4 does not absorb much light at 490 nm. Since the
absorbance is so low, the absorbance of each sample in Investigation 2 will be
considerably lower than the absorbance found at 740 nm.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) A solution of NaCl is a clear liquid, so it will not absorb any light. All colors of light
will pass straight through it. Absorbance depends on certain frequencies (colors) of light
being absorbed.

Question: 7
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) Following the trend, a 0.48mol/L solution should have an absorbance of 0.542.
However the fingerprint would cause more light to be absorbed, so the answer has to be
greater than 0.542.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The chemical NiSO4(aq) has a unique spectral fingerprint that is shown in Figure
11.4. A more concentrated solution would absorb more light because more of the
chemical would be present. The graph would be the same as the one in Figure 11.4, but
the line would be higher, showing that each wavelength would have slightly more
absorbance.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 63)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The first ionization energy (900 kJ/mol) is defined as the amount of energy required
to remove the outermost electron.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The ionization trends upward briefly but then drops severely between beryllium (Be)
and boron (B). After that, the trend is generally toward higher ionization levels.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The formula refers to the fourth ionization energy of nitrogen as nitrogen is going
from the +3 charge to the +4 charge.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The main difference between the outermost electron from helium and lithium is that
the outermost electron from lithium is on the second shell. The second shell is farther
away from the nucleus and therefore has less attraction to it.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The passage states that neutral atoms have the same number of protons and
electrons. Carbon is listed at six protons, so the sixth ionization energy removes all of its
electrons.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Oxygen is shown to have eight electrons. Oxygen is neutral when it has eight
electrons (because it has eight protons), so the image shows the first ionization.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 7
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) There is a large jump between the fifth and sixth ionization energies of nitrogen.
This means it is much harder to remove the sixth electron than it is the fifth. The sixth
electron must start in a closer shell to the nucleus, and the first five electrons must have
been in an outer shell.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The last two ionization energies are always significantly larger than any of the
others. This means the last two electrons are very hard to remove because they are
closest to the nucleus in the inside shell.
Question: 9
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) There is a large jump in relative ionization energies from the first to the second
ionization energy. This means it is relatively easy to remove the first electron but much
harder to remove the second electron because it occupies a closer shell.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Helium has fewer protons providing an attraction for the two negative electrons.
Lithium has three positive protons in the nucleus pulling those two electrons with more
force.

Question: 11
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Each piece of helium has two electrons. To remove all of the electrons from helium,
both electrons must be removed from 1 mol of particles. This requires the amount of
energy equal to the sum of the first and second ionization energies (2,372 + 5,250 =
7,622 kJ).
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 66-2)
Question: 7
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
(F) This is correct because of the data presented in Table 2. The third column has the
heading "River Water." The largest number in that column is the first one, 1.50. The first
row represents Trial 1.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) This is correct because of the data presented in Table 3. To find the correct answer,
the values for the columns with the headings PO4 must be compared—the one on the
left side of the table under "Added μg/ml" and the one on the right side of the table
under "Found μg/ml." For Trial 2 the amount under "Found μg/ml" is 1.56, whereas the
number under "Added μg/ml" is 2.00.

Question: 9
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
(H) This is correct because of the data presented in Table 1. Compare the values in the
three columns under the heading "Mg." For every trial the value under the concentration
2.5 ppm is the highest, whereas the value under the concentration 4.0 ppm is in the
middle, and the value under the concentration 4.5 ppm is the lowest.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) This is correct because of the data presented in Table 2. Find the smallest number
in the table. It is 0.50, found in the column for PO4 and the row for Trial 3, making this
the correct answer.

Question: 11
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
(J) This is correct because of the data presented in Table 1. For Trials 1–4, each
subsequent trial used a higher concentration of SO4. Compare this to the values in the
column with the heading "4.5 ppm" to see that as the SO4 concentration increased, the
amount of Mg absorbed also increased.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 69-2)

Question: 7
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
(G) This is one of those questions that requires you to look in two places. Table 2
indicates that naphtha is in Tray 2, and Table 1 indicates that the boiling point of
whatever is in Tray 2 is 40°C.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) In Figure 2, the bar representing diesel goes up to 11, indicating 11 gallons of diesel
per barrel of crude oil.

Question: 9
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
(F) This question involves looking in three places, but still is not really that hard
(technically, getting the right answer only requires looking in two places, but eliminating
some of the wrong answers requires looking in three). Figure 1 establishes that the
trays are arranged from 1 to 8 from the top to the bottom of the Distillation Column,
Table 2 indicates which substances are in which trays, and Table 1 indicates their
boiling points. All together, these data indicate that the substances with the lowest
boiling points are at the top of the column, and so the student's hypothesis is wrong (it is
not necessary to understand the explanation in choice F about the rising vapor and all
that, only to see that the substances with the lowest boiling points are on top).

Question: 10
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) A comparison of Table 3 with Tables 1 and 2 establishes that the greater the
number of carbons in a substance, the higher the boiling point, in decreasing order from
residual oil to gas.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 11
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
(H) Tables 1 and 2 establish that heavy gas oil has a boiling point of 500°C, higher than
that of any of the components except residual oil, which is not one of the choices.

Question: 12
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Components with medium boiling points on Table 1 in a range of 120 to 350
degrees correspond to the gasoline, kerosene, and diesel on Figure 2, which are
collected in greatest quantity.

(Test 70-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
(G) Table 1 indicates that the solubility of methane at 50°C increases and then
decreases as pressure is increased. All of the other choices involve substances that
steadily increased in solubility as pressure increased, but NOT this one.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) At 50°C, the solubility is 18.9.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
(H) The line in Figure 1 climbs until about the 200-second mark and then levels off. It is
not necessary to understand the paragraph above Figure 1 in order to answer the
question: all you need to know is that the graph is measuring an increase in the PA-11
mass over time.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) In Table 1, we see that the solubility of methane at 90°C and 53.1 atm is 2.38. At a
pressure of 106.5, the solubility is 5.14. Since 3.75 is halfway between 2.38 and 5.14
and 80 is roughly halfway between 53.1 and 106.5, the best answer is 3.75.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
(H) Table 2 establishes that the solubility of carbon dioxide increases as pressure
increases, at all three temperatures.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The first paragraph states that the solvent is the substance that another substance
is being dissolved in. The second paragraph states that methane and carbon dioxide
are being dissolved in polyamide. Therefore, polyamide is the solvent and carbon
dioxide and methane are the solutes.

(Test 72-2)
Question: 6
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
(H) The sample with the highest concentration of chlorine in Table 2 (the table in Study
1) is Sample 3, with a concentration of 0.15 mg/L.

Question: 7
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) In Table 3 (the table in Study 2), the highest grouping of numbers in the "Average
pH" column occurs during the spring months: April, May, and March or June.
(Remember that acidity is indicated by low pH, and so the least acidic deposition would
be represented by the highest numbers.) Spring is still the right answer even though
there are other individual high numbers in other months, and regardless of whether you
count March or June as the third spring month.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 8
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
(J) The order of the samples by acidity, from lowest pH to highest, is 4, 2, 1, 3, 5. The
order of the samples by sodium concentration, from lowest to highest, is 5, 1, 2, 4, 3.
The orders are neither the same as nor the reverse of each other, and therefore there is
no correlation, neither a positive nor an inverse. (Remember that when the last choice is
"no correlation" or "no relationship" or "date not included" or something weird like that,
that is probably the answer, so test that one first!)

Question: 9
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The pH is highest in the month of April. Table 1 shows that frogs die at around a pH
of 5. Clearly, the lower the pH, the greater the health risks for all animals. There is no
definitive level but the question specifies least concerned. April is the best answer given
the other three choices.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
(F) The introductory paragraph above Table 1 explains that wet deposition refers to rain,
snow, sleet, and hail. The paragraph in Study 1 explains that the samples in Study 2
were collected in the form of rain, and therefore they are examples of wet deposition.

Question: 11
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The introductory paragraph explains that sulfuric acid lowers the pH of rain. Since
the samples in Table 2 were collected from rain, the pH of Sample 2 would necessarily
be lower than its current pH of 5.28 had it been contaminated with sulfuric acid.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 73-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
(F) The paragraph above Study 1 explains that crystallization cannot begin until the
solution becomes saturated. Substance 1 in Figure 4 hits the top of the graph (i.e., is
completely dissolved) at around 35°C, and so it would be more than ready to begin
crystallization at 60°C.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The point in Figure 4 representing the intersection of 20% solubility (vertical axis)
and 30°C (horizontal axis) is below the lines representing Samples 1–3, but above the
line representing Sample 4.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
(J) This is a simple "Go Up, Hit Line, Go Over." A line drawn straight upward from the
hash mark representing 30°C on the horizontal axis of Figure 4 would hit the line
representing Sample 1 somewhere just below the top of the graph—that is, at around
95% solubility.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) As described in Figure 3, point 4 is described as the "main cooling cycle." The main
cooling cycle implies the addition of an ice bath because of the description of the
crystallization process in the opening paragraph. The opening paragraph indicates the
solution is placed in an ice bath after crystallization. An argument might be made that
the ice bath was introduced at point 3 but this is not a choice. Clearly, 4 would be the
best choice given the information.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
(F) The information in Figure 3 (as well as the explanation in the introductory paragraph)
clearly indicates that crystallization is the result of cooling: as temperature decreases,
crystallization increases.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 74-2)
Question: 7
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
(J) All this question wants you to do is find which line in Figure 2 is the highest at the
30-second mark. The lines stop before the 30-second mark, but it is still clear from
extrapolation that the line representing Solvent 4 would be highest (it is continuing to
rise when the other three have leveled off).

Question: 8
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Table 2 shows that Solutions 1–4 progressively increase in temperature. Figure 3
shows that osmotic pressure decreases as the number of the solution used rises.
Therefore, as temperature increases, osmotic pressure decreases.

Question: 9
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
(F) Table 1 indicates that Solvents 1–4 progressively increase in terms of molecular
weight percentage. Figure 2 shows that the solutions finish passing through the
semipermeable membrane (i.e., the lines representing them level off) in the same order.
Therefore, the lower the molecular weight percentage of a solvent, the more quickly the
solution passes through a membrane.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The line in Figure 2 that represents Solvent 4 never levels off, so we do not know
what its osmotic pressure is.

Question: 11
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
(H) Table 2 indicates that the 30°C solution is Solution 2. In Figure 3, the height of the
line above the Solution 2 hash mark is about 1.4 atm. Double this, and the answer
choice that is closest is 2.8 atm.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 12
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Experiment 1 indicates in the paragraph that the Figure 2 results are shown as
recorded at the 20° trial, which according to Table 2 is Trial 1.

(Test 76-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
(G) All this question wants you to do is look in Table 1 and put those substances in
highest to lowest order going by the numbers next to them.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The water was 67°F when they started and 92°F after 5 minutes, so it went up by
25°F, meaning that 25 Btus were used (the text above Table 2 establishes that one
pound of water was used).

Question: 3
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
(F) The first sentence of the paragraph in Experiment 2 clearly says that the students
are measuring the amount of energy natural gas creates.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Exact math is not necessary on this question, just guesstimating. Experiment 2 tells
us that natural gas will heat one pound of water to 117°F after 10 minutes, and
Experiment 1 tells us that the Btu/ton produced by gasoline is about 4/5 of the Btu/ton
produced by natural gas. So you know that the answer is going to be around 4/5 of
117°F (less, but not too much less). The only choice that works is 99°F (it's less, but
more than half).
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 5
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
(H) Table 3 says that a barrel of oil equals 5,600,000 Btus. That's way more than any of
the other choices.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The temperature in Table 2 is going up by 25°F every 5 minutes, and 142 + 25 =
167.

(Test 77-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) As Figure 1 and Table 1 indicate (and as you may already have known from school),
low pH means acid and high pH means base, so a solution with a pH of 12.5 would be
the strongest base.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
(H) We look at Table 2 to see which substances made the bulb glow brightest, and then
look at Table 1 to see the pH levels of those substances. You will notice that both strong
acids and strong bases make the bulb glow brightest (in other words, the farther the pH
is from 7 in either direction, the better a conductor the substance is).

Question: 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Table 3 says that KOH has a pH of 11.2, and Table 2 says that it made the bulb
glow brightly, meaning that it is a strong base.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 4
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
(J) Figure 1 says that stronger acids have more hydrogen, and Table 3 says that HCl
has a pH of 0.86, making it a stronger acid than the other choices, and meaning it
therefore has more hydrogen.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) A substance that makes the bulb glow brightly could be either a strong acid or a
strong base, so the answer can't be determined from the information in the passage. (If
you happen to know that NaCOl is the chemical formula for bleach, which is a strong
base, you should ignore that knowledge, since the question is asking about what you
can tell from the passage)

Question: 6
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
(G) All you have to do here is plot the pH values listed in Table 3 for these substances
as a bar graph. Table 3 says that the pH values for NaOH, KOH, and NH4OH are 13.1,
11.2, and 9.2, respectively, so the graph in choice G is correct.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 78-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) This is a simple "Go Up, Hit Line, Go Over" question. In Figure 1, go up from silicon,
hit the melting-point line (the broken one—and also the one on the bottom, since
obviously substances melt at a lower temperature than the one at which they boil), and
go over from there to the vertical axis, which reads about halfway between 1500 K and
2000 K below 1000 K. Of the choices, only 1700 K is a logical answer.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
(J) The proton numbers of the elements in Table 1 get progressively greater, whereas
the lines for melting point and boiling point in Table 2 go up and then back down.
Remember, the passage states that both melting point and boiling point trend higher as
intermolecular forces increase. Since there is no relationship with melting point and/or
boiling point, there can be no relationship with the intermolecular forces.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The two lines in Figure 1 basically each go up and down when the other does, but
not exactly—that is, the lines are not always parallel and therefore there is no constant
that can relate the two quantities.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
(F) "Transitions from a liquid phase to a gaseous phase" means boiling point. According
to the solid line in Figure 1, the element that boils at 500 K is phosphorus.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The lines in Figure 1 are closer together above the elements that Table 1 names as
nonmetals than they are above the elements identified as metals, so the conclusion is
correct.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 79-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) This question is a classic "Go Up, Hit Line, Go Over." Go to Figure 2 (being careful
to notice that the labels are below the figures, so you don't accidentally look at Figure
3), find 200 cm on the x-axis (the horizontal line), look up to the solid line representing
2004, and see how high up it is on the y-axis (the vertical line) at that point. It is a little
less than halfway between 0.50 and 1.00, making 0.70 the closest answer by far.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
(H) This is a simple "extrapolation" question, meaning that you have to guess about a
value not pictured on the graph based on the way that the data are trending. Though the
dotted line in Figure 3 representing 2002 stops at 350 cm, around 315 cm it appears to
level off at 2.00 dpm/g, meaning that if the line were to continue, the radium-226 activity
at 400 cm below the top of the sediment would almost certainly be 2.00 dpm/g.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The first sentence of the introductory paragraph states that "226Ra activity is often
elevated in bodies of water that have been augmented with groundwater." We know that
there was more 226Ra activity in 2004 than in 2002, so therefore, the wetlands were
probably augmented with groundwater in 2004.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
(H) A question that begins "If the data are typical…" is simply asking you to identify
which one of the choices is true of all the given figures. In this case, it is true that both
Figure 2 and Figure 3 show 226Ra activity peaking somewhere around 325 cm below the
top of the sediment in both 2002 and 2004. (Though 226Ra activity does not peak
at exactly 325 cm below the top of the sediment in all four lines, choice H is still clearly
much better than the other three.)
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The question is simply asking: in which of the four lines contained in Figures 2 and 3
were 226Ra levels higher at 250 cm below the top of the sediment than they were at 200
cm below the top of the sediment? This is only the case with the solid line (representing
2004) in Figure 3 (representing marshes), and so the answer is "Marsh wetlands in
2004."

(Test 79-2)
Question: 6
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
(H) The row in Table 1 that corresponds to a pH of 9.3 corresponds to 200 ml NaOH.

Question: 7
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) A 3.5 pH intersects the graph at about 50 ml. You could also use the table to see
that 3.5 falls between 2.2 and 4.7. Clearly, a 3.5 pH would result from somewhere
between 0 and 100 ml of NaOH added.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
(F) The reasoning is correct. The OH– ions from NaOH will combine with OH+ ions to
form water. The trend in the table is lower and lower concentrations
of OH+ and CH3COOH and higher concentrations of CH3COO–. The only way to
counteract the decrease in H+ ions and keep the Ka a constant is to reduce the
denominator or increase the numerator. Since the two quantities are interrelated,
[CH3COOH(aq)] decreases while [CH3COO– (aq)] increases. It only appears that
[CH3COO– (aq)] is unchanged because the orders of magnitudes of the two quantities
are drastically different after 200 ml NaOH have been added. The increase in
[CH3COO– (aq)] is not noticeable.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 9
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The figure and the table support this choice. A lower initial concentration of acetic
acid will lower the concentration of H+ ions, which lowers acidity. The lower [H+(aq)]
would correspond to higher pH based on all the data.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
(J) The presence of acetic acid and H+ is what made the pH 2.2 in the first place. As the
[H+(aq)] decreased, the pH increased.

Question: 11
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) As the [H+(aq)] decreases going down the table, the pH increases consistently.

(Test 82-2)
Question: 8
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The fourth column in Table 3 lists the amount of time the reactant was passed over
the catalyst. The fifth column lists the amount of propane collected for each trial. As the
numbers in the fourth column get smaller, the numbers in the fifth column get smaller
also.

Question: 9
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
(J) As stated in the first paragraph of text, a catalyst is a substance that speeds up a
reaction. Since no propane was collected in Trial 4, we can assume the hydrogen and
propene did not have enough time to interact with the catalyst and no reaction occurred.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 10
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Paragraph 1 of the text states that a heterogeneous catalyst is when the catalyst is
in a different phase from the reactants. In the description of Experiment 1, it is stated
that the catalyst is made up of alumina beads and that the propanol is in a vapor phase
when it reacts with the catalyst. Vapor and solid are two different phases, so it is a
heterogeneous catalyst.

Question: 11
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
(H) Table 1 clearly states that Stage 3 is when the reaction occurs. The description of
Experiment 2 states that the reaction occurs after the hydrogen-propene mixture passed
over the catalyst, and then the propane was collected. Table 1 describes the four stages
of catalysis.

Question: 12
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The volume of propanol was the same for each trial, whereas the volume of alumina
beads was different. Look at Table 2. We know from reading the description of
Experiment 1 that the catalyst is the alumina beads. The third column in Table 2 lists the
volume of the catalyst used for each trial. The amounts would have to be different, while
the volume of propanol used as reactant would have to be the same, to test the effect
that varying the amount of catalyst has on the outcome.

Question: 13
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
(J) There was no reason for the plunger to move until the propene entered the syringe.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 84-2)
Question: 8
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
(H) Look at Figure 2. The highest column represents the type of fuel found to have the
highest average concentration of benzene. The third column is the highest. Looking
down we see that it is labeled as a vapor, and the legend tells us that the white columns
represent leaded fuel, so we can determine the highest average concentration of
benzene was found in leaded vapor fuel.

Question: 9
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Look at Figure 2. The first set of columns is for liquid fuel, as the label shows. The
white column represents leaded fuel, as the legend states. Follow the top of the white
column over to the left, and you will see that it is at about the 200 mark on the y-axis.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
(J) Look at Figure 1. Follow the line on the graph. After 5 minutes, the line steadily
climbs up as time passes. It can be deduced that after 20 minutes the line would have
continued to climb, meaning that the temperature would have continued to increase.
Choice D is the only answer that reflects this outcome.

Question: 11
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Brand C is the only brand that had a higher concentration of benzene in the leaded
fuel. Look at the data in Table 1. The second column lists the concentration of benzene
found in the liquid form of the fuels. Compare the amounts found in each brand for
leaded versus unleaded. Brand C is the only brand that had a higher concentration of
benzene in the leaded fuel.

Question: 12
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
(G) Look at Figure 3. The first set of columns represents the gasohol fuels, according to
the x-axis labels. The legend tells us that the white column represents the liquid form of
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

the fuel, and the gray column represents the vapor form of the fuel. By looking at the
relative heights of the columns, it can be determined that the white column is about half
the size of the gray column.

(Test 86-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C Consider the slopes of the three curves on Figure 1. As MM increases, the slope
increases. KNO3 has the greatest MM (101) and has the steepest slope.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H Consider the slopes of the three curves on Figure 1. As MM increases, the slope
increases. Choice (F) is a trap answer and is wrong because the question asks about
the direction of ?S when the molecular mass (MM) decreases.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B Find KCl on Figure 1. At 100°, the ?S of KCl is approximately 30. Continue the trend
to make the prediction: at 102°, the ?S of KCl will be just slightly greater than 30.
Choices (C) and (D) are wrong because the slope of KCl is gradual. With only an
increase of 2°, the ?S will not increase by 5 or more.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J Look up the value on Figure 2. At 20°, the ?S of NH3 is ?30. Choices (F) and (H) are
wrong because each states that the ?S was positive. Choice (H) is wrong because if the
?S is negative, the solubility decreased.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D Use the trends in the figures. Both figures show that the greater the MM, the greater
the ?S, which eliminates (A) and (C). Choice (B) is wrong because salts are shown in
Figure 1, which reveals a direct relationship between temperature and ?S, not an
inverse relationship.

(Test 87-2)
Question: 6
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J Read if and only when you can't answer a question from the figures. The information
needed is found in the beginning of the introduction, with an explanation of what the
symbols represent. Choice (J) provides the correct representation of the values given in
the question. The rest of the choices mix up the symbols and the numbers provided.

Question: 7
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A The question directs you to Table 1, but some information from the introduction is
needed. The work done for question 18 can help. The total charge for a polyatomic ion

is represented by n in the symbols . Look up chlorite on Table 1 to find n is –1.

Choice (D) is a trap answer and is wrong because +3 is the oxidation state of the
chlorine atom.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G Look up the ionization energy when 4 electrons are removed from P, using the key to
correctly identify the P curve. Approximately 52 (eV) is required to remove 4 electrons
and thus twice an ionization energy of approximately 26. Use POE to look up each
answer choice. Choice (G) is correct because removing 2 electrons from Ar requires
approximately 26–28 eV. Choice (F) is too small at barely 10 eV; (H) is too big at over
30 eV; and choice (J) is wrong because it is almost equal to the amount of ionization
energy required to remove 4 electrons from P. The question, however, asks for a value
half of that ionization energy.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 9
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D Read if and only when you can't answer a question from the figures. The question
directs you to both Table 1 and Figure 1, but the introduction clarifies that the oxidation
state of the chlorine atom on Table 1 is the number of electrons removed on Figure 1.
The oxidation state for chlorite is +3 and for hypochlorite is +1. Look up both values on
Figure 1, using the key to correctly identify the curve for chlorine (Cl), to find ionization
energy (IE) of approximately 40 eV and 13 eV, respectively. Choice (C) is wrong
because the values of eV have been swapped for the polyatomic ions. Choices (A) and
(B) are wrong because the eV values are the ionization energy needed to remove 2 and
4 electrons.

Question: 10
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G Enough of the prior questions for this passage required reading the introduction, and
no information was provided about mass or net force. This is an outside knowledge
question, but common sense can often be used to find the correct answer. Reading the
introduction and working the prior questions have established that the subscript
numbers represent the number of atoms. Chloride has 1 atom: When a or b is equal to
1, the number is omitted. Perchlorate has 4 atoms and is thus more massive than
chloride. Choices (F) and (H) are wrong because they both state that chloride is more
massive. Choice (J) is wrong because less force is needed to move something with less
mass.

Question: 7
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) While 11.2 L of oxygen has a mass of 16 g, 22.4 L of helium has a mass of only 4 g.
Therefore, 11.2 L of helium would have a mass of 2 g. Thus, a sample of oxygen gas is
8 times heavier than an equal-sized sample of helium gas.

Question: 8
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) If 11.2 L of oxygen has? mol of molecules and a mass of 16.0 g, then 1 mol of
molecules would be twice the volume and twice the mass to equal 32.0 g.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 88)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C Find the common variable between the figures: time to reach equilibrium is on Figures
2 and 3. On Figure 3, Mixture #3 has peaks at 20 and 30 minutes, as do Solute #3 and
Solute #5 on Figure 2. Choice (A) is a trap answer and is wrong because the time to
reach equilibrium (10 min) matches Mixture #2, not Mixture #3.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
F Look up the value on Figure 2. Solute #1 has the smallest molecular mass, therefore
the shortest amount of travel to attain equilibrium, which is supported by the quickest
time in Figure 2.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C Use the values from Table 1 to identify the molecular masses of Solute #3 (2,000)
and Solute #4 (10,000). Eliminate (B) and (D). To identify the molecular mass of Mixture
#2, use the common variable between Experiments 1 and 2: time to reach equilibrium.
Since Mixture #2 takes 10 minutes, it must have a smaller molecular mass than both
Solute #3 and Solute #4. The trends in Table 1 and Figure 1 show that as molecular
mass increases, the time to reach equilibrium also increases.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G Read if and when you can't answer a question from the figures. However, even
without reading, you can use POE to eliminate (F) and (J) because Table 1 disproves
each choice's statement about the molecular mass. The introduction clarifies that
solutes migrate across a membrane in simple diffusion. Use common sense to
connect diffuse easily with the time to reach equilibrium. Figure 2 shows that Solute #3
reached equilibrium more quickly than did Solute #4.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A Use the molecular masses provided in Table 1: Solute #1 has a molecular mass of
160 amu. The common variable between the solutes and mixtures of time to reach
equilibrium shows that Mixture #1 takes less time to reach equilibrium (5 min) than
Solute #1 takes (10 min). Mixture #1 will likely have a smaller molecular mass than 160
amu. Mixtures #2 and #3 take the same time or more time than Solute #1 and will have
the same or greater molecular mass. Choice (D) is wrong because both the text in the
introduction and the data provided in the figures establishes the relationship between
molecular mass and time to reach equilibrium.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J Read the question carefully: Compare the number of molecules in two equal weights.
The molecular mass in amu and weight in grams for Solute #1 is less than the
molecular mass in amu and weight in grams for Solute #5. Therefore, when the weights
are equal, there must be far more molecules of Solute #1 than molecules of Solute #5.
Imagine if you compared a teaspoon of sugar with a teaspoon of Quaker's oatmeal.
There would be many more grains of sugar than grains of oatmeal. If time doesn't allow
the reasoned logic to arrive at the correct answer, at least use POE to eliminate (F) and
(H) because the reasons given are disproven by table 1.

(Test 91-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C Freezing point is the temperature at which a liquid turns to a solid. Melting point is the
temperature at which a solid turns to a liquid. Freezing point and melting point therefore
occur at the same temperature. According to Table 1, acetic acid has the highest
freezing point, so it must also have the highest melting point, as (C) indicates.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G According to Figure 2, the vapor pressure of formic acid in a 0.5 mole fraction of
water is approximately 11mm Hg. Draw a line straight across to see that formic acid has
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

a solid vapor pressure at a 0.8 mole fraction of water, thus making (G) the correct
answer.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A According to Figure 2, the vapor pressure of acetic acid starts around 12.5mm Hg,
decreases to approximately 5mm Hg, then increases again to approximately 15mm Hg.
It therefore decreases then increases, as (A) suggests.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G Note the long molecular formulas in Table 1. Follow the coefficients: Butyric acid has
subscripts 3, 2, and 2. Valeric acid has subscripts 3, 2, 3. As the final number increases,
the boiling point increases as well, each time by approximately 20° . Therefore, since
the new formula given in the problem has subscripts 3, 2, 4, it should have a boiling
point approximately 20° higher than that of valeric acid, or approximately 206° . This
number is contained in the range given in (G).

Question: 5
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C According to Figure 1, the vapor pressures for formic acid are uniformly higher than
those for acetic acid at various temperatures. It can therefore be inferred that acetic acid
is more resistant to these increases in vapor pressure, making (C) the correct answer.
On questions like this one, if you are unsure how to answer, always use POE
aggressively: It may reveal trends that you hadn't seen before. POE can also help to
narrow down the choices: (A) and (D) can be eliminated right away, for instance,
because they do not match the information in the graph.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 98)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The best answer is D. According to Table 1, the mass of the precipitate in Test Tube 1
was 4.3 mg. The difference between this test tube and the other test tubes is that it had
a shorter incubation time (0 min) than other test tubes at the same temperature water
bath.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
The best answer is F. In Experiment 1, "7 milliliters of a peptide (a neurotransmitter)
solution was added." In Experiment 2 "8 mL of peptide solution was added" to the test
tubes. One difference between the two experiments is the amount of peptide solution
used. A larger volume of the peptide solution was used in Experiment 2, answer choice
F.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The best answer is C. According to Table 2, as the pH level increases (going down the
table), the mass of the precipitate first increases from 2.5 mg to 6.2 mg and then starts
to decrease. This information best supports answer choice C.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
The best answer is F. According to Table 1, the masses of the precipitate for Test Tube
1 (incubation period 0 min) and Test Tube 2 (incubation period 5 min) were 4.3 mg and
3.9 mg, respectively. If Tube 5 is incubated for 5 min and has a mass precipitate of 3.6
mg, the mass is just below that of Tube 2 for the same incubation period. It could be
predicted that if Tube 5 were not incubated, the mass of its precipitate would equal 4.1
mg, just below that of Tube 1's mass.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The best answer is A. According to Table 1, 3.9 mg of precipitate was collected from
Test tube 2 at a temperature of 25°C after a 5-minute incubation period. This is the
greatest amount of precipitate yielded among the combinations shown in the answer
choices.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
The best answer is H. To answer this question, you must look at the results in Tables 1
and 2. According to Table 1, the mass of the precipitate is the least for test tubes with
an incubation period of 15 min for 30°C (1.4 mg). According to Table 2, the mass of the
precipitate is least for the test tube with a pH of 2. Therefore, if combined, these two
conditions would likely produce the lease amount of precipitate.

(Test 102)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
The best answer is G. According to Figure 1, 50% (half) of the Radon 222 sample is left
after 4 days.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The best answer is C. Passage III states: Radioactive decay is a natural process by
which an atom of a radioactive isotope spontaneously decays into another element.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
The best answer is H. According to Table 1, the energies associated with alpha particle
emission were 5.590 MeV and 3.792 MeV. The energies associated with beta particle
emission were 1.308 MeV and 1.533 MeV—lower than that of the alpha particle
emission.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. The decay energy of 1.796 MeV is closest to the decay energies
in Table 1 associated with beta particles (1.308 and 1.533 MeV). Therefore, the particle
most likely emitted is a beta particle.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
The best answer is G. The isotopes will have the same percent of atoms remaining at
the point at which the lines associated with each isotope cross. Based on Figure 1,
Radon 222 and Polonium 218 cross at about Day 4.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The best answer is D. The decay rate of these two elements is relatively constant over
time. For example, approximately 50% of each element remains after 4 days,
approximately 25% remains after 8 days, and so on.

(Test 103)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
The best answer is H. According to Table 1, the ideal lead level is below 0.015 mg/L.
Sample 1 has a lead level of 0.01 mg/L, which is within the ideal lead level range.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The best answer is D. The passage explains, "Water with a low pH (<6.5) could be
acidic, soft, and corrosive." If an ideal alkalinity level prevents pH levels from becoming
too low, it will also prevent water from becoming overly corrosive.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 3
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
The best answer is G. Table 1 shows that Sample 1's water had a pH of 6.0. Because
the ideal pH level is between 6.5 and 8.5, the water in Sample 1 is too acidic, and
therefore, too corrosive.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The best answer is A. According to Table 1, Sample 2 water has the ideal levels of all of
the tested factors except iron and hardness. The water tested above the ideal level for
both of these factors. This water would be acceptable as long as the developers are
willing to accept high iron levels and hard water.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
The best answer is F. Sample 2 has an ideal level of alkalinity and can effectively buffer
the water. Sample 1, however, has a level of alkalinity below the ideal and is susceptible
to changes in pH. If the chemical additive caused a drastic increase in pH levels in un-
buffered solutions, Sample 1's pH level would be unsafe, but Sample 2 would be
unaffected.

(Test 109)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. According to Figure 1, the dotted line represents a water
temperature of 40°. Even though 3.0 seconds is not listed on the graph, you can
determine that it is halfway between 2.0 and 4.0 seconds; at 3.0 seconds, the dotted
line is at approximately 36°.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
The correct answer is F. According to Figure 2, the dotted line represents an air
temperature of 30°. During the interval from 0–100 seconds, the dotted line moves
rapidly down and to the right, showing a significant drop in temperature. The dotted line
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

begins to level off shortly after 100 seconds, indicating a stable temperature from about
200 seconds forward.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. To answer this question, look at Figure 1. Between 0 and 2
seconds, the thermometer in the 40°C water registered a temperature increase from
20°C to 30°C. Therefore, during the 2-second interval the temperature increased 10°C,
and the increase in temperature per second was 5°C.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
The correct answer is J. You are given that a thermometer at an initial temperature of
60°C was placed in air samples at 30°C, 40°C, and 50°C. According to Figure 2, it took
approximately 200 seconds for the temperature to stabilize at 30°C. You can
hypothesize that, if the 60°C thermometer was placed in a colder air sample, it would
take more than 100 seconds for the temperature to stabilize.
Question: 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. To answer this question, look at Figure 1. The dashed line
represents 60°C and the solid line represents 50°C. The dashed line is always higher
than the solid line, so eliminate answer choices C and D. According to the figure, at 4.0
seconds the thermometer in the 60°C water registered a temperature of about 48°C,
which is higher than the temperature recorded after 2.0 seconds (about 38°C).
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 112)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Both Table 1 and Figure 1 indicate that, as the concentration
of sulfite is doubled, the corrected absorbance approximately doubles; 2 is 1 doubled,
and 0.302 is approximately 0.153 doubled.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
The correct answer is J. To answer this question, look at Table 2. You are given that
dried pineapple measures 0.603, which is higher than prunes; therefore, eliminate
answer choices F and H. The order of decreasing absorbance is: dried apricots at
0.774; dried pineapple at 0.603; and prunes at 0.562.’

Question: 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. According to Table 1, a sulfite concentration of 1.5, which is
halfway between 1.0 and 2.0, would have a corrected absorbance about halfway
between 0.153 and 0.302.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
The correct answer is J. According to the passage, a colorimeter is a device that
measures how much light of a selected wavelength is absorbed. Because different
colors have different wavelengths, the colorimeter needs to be adjusted to read at its
maximum capacity. The other answer choices are not supported by the passage.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. According to Table 1, all of the measured absorbances are
higher than the corrected absorbances for the fruits tested. Likewise, the sulfite
concentration has a direct relationship with the corrected absorbance in both Table 1
and Table 2. This information best supports answer choice A.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 6
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
The correct answer is F. You are given that additional contents in the fruits are
absorbing light, which means that the apparent absorbance reading will be higher.

(Test 113)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. The passage states that the molar heat of fusion (ΔH fus) of
water is 6.02. This value is less than the molar heat of fusion of calcium.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
The correct answer is H. According to the passage, molar heat of fusion (ΔHfus) is "the
amount of heat necessary to melt (or freeze) 1.00 mole of a substance at its melting
point at a constant pressure." The table indicates that the molar heat of fusion for iron is
13.8 kJ/mol.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. According to the passage, molar heat of fusion (ΔHfus) is "the
amount of heat necessary to melt (or freeze) 1.00 mole of a substance at its melting
point at a constant pressure." The table shows that molar heat of fusion and melting
point both increase for calcium, silver, and iron, but the melting point decreases as the
molar heat of fusion continues to increase for nickel. This best support answer choice C.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
The correct answer is F. The table shows that, in general, higher boiling points result in
a higher molar heat of fusion. Therefore, because the boiling point for potassium is
lower than the boiling point for calcium, it is likely that the molar heat of fusion for
potassium will be lower than the molar heat of fusion for calcium.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 5
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. You are given that the molar heat of fusion is directly related to
the strength of the forces that hold molecules together; therefore, higher molar heats of
fusion will indicate stronger bonds between molecules. Iron has a higher molar heat of
fusion than calcium, so the forces holding molecules together will be stronger in iron
than in calcium.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
The correct answer is H. To answer this question, compare the boiling points and molar
heats of fusion for each of the pairs of elements:
I. Nickel and iron—the boiling point of iron is higher than the boiling point of nickel, but
the molar heat of fusion is lower for iron than it is for nickel. Roman numeral I
does not support the hypothesis, so eliminate answer choices F and J.
II. Water and calcium—the boiling point of water is lower than the boiling point of
calcium, and the molar heat of fusion is lower for water than it is for calcium. Roman
numeral II supports the hypothesis, so eliminate answer choice G.
The process of elimination leaves you with answer choice H, but if you evaluate Roman
numeral III you will see that it also supports the hypothesis.

(Test 118)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. To answer this question, find the symbol for 403°K in the key,
then find 2 hours on the x-axis. Move your finger up from the 2-hour mark until it
intercepts the appropriate symbol. You will see that the symbol is at approximately 50%
on the y-axis.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
The correct answer is J. To answer this question, find the symbol for 423°K in the key,
and then follow its movement on the graph. You will see that conversion stops at 8
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hours, so eliminate answer choice F. The line is steepest from 0 to 2 hours, which
suggests that this is the period during which most of the conversion took place.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. In each experiment, 5% Ru/C catalyst was used. The
temperature was varied in each experiment, and the conversion rates were dependent
on the various temperatures. Two different types of acid were used.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
The correct answer is J. The data in Table 1 and Table 2 indicate a direct relationship
between time and percentage of conversion. As time increased, at each temperature
the percent of acid converted also increased up to a certain point, at which time
conversion stopped.

Question: 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. The conversion of propionic acid was studied in Experiment 2,
the results of which are shown in Table 2. According to Table 2, the conversion of
propionic acid at 403°K stops at 8 hours, which does not support the chemist's claim.

Question: 6
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
The correct answer is H. The results of Experiment 2 are shown in Table 2. To answer
this question, find the symbol for 423°K in the key, and then follow its movement on the
graph. Notice that at 12 hours, the PA is approximately 80% converted. It makes sense
that, if the conversion continued, 100% of the acid would be converted sometime
between 12 and 14 hours.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

(Test 119)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. The passage states that, "Levels near properly adjusted gas
stoves are often 5.0 to 15.0 ppm and those near poorly adjusted stoves may be 30.0
ppm or higher." Because Home 1 has CO levels greater than 25.0 ppm, it is the most
likely home to have a poorly adjusted gas stove.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
The correct answer is G. According to Table 1, Home 2 has CO levels between 15.0
and 25.0 ppm. The passage states that average CO levels in homes without gas stoves
are between 0.5 and 5.0 ppm, which means the CO levels in Home 2 are above
average.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. The passage states that, "Levels near properly adjusted gas
stoves are often 5.0 to 15.0 ppm and those near poorly adjusted stoves may be 30.0
ppm or higher. CO levels between 0.5 and 15.0 ppm are considered safe." This
information best supports answer choice A. The remaining answer choices indicate safe
levels.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
The correct answer is H. According to Table 1, Home 4 has CO levels between 1.0 and
5.0 ppm. The passage indicates that levels between 0.5 and 15.0 ppm are considered
safe. Therefore, the CO levels in Home 4 are not dangerous, so if it has a gas stove, the
stove is properly adjusted and does not have to be removed.
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber

Question: 5
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. According to the passage, "CO levels between 0.5 and 15.0
ppm are considered safe." Therefore, a CO level of 10.0, as found in Home 6, will not
pose any danger to the residents.

(Test 122)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
The best answer is G. The passage indicates that radon levels outdoors are rarely high
enough to pose a threat, but radon is a concern indoors "because it can seep into the
foundation of a home through the ground and accumulate in areas with little ventilation,
where levels can then become threatening." This best supports answer choice G.

Question: 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The best answer is D. The passage mentions the fact the radon is both colorless and
odorless and produces no short-term symptoms, and that radon levels can vary from
day to day, in order to emphasize the importance of regular monitoring. The fact that
radon is a naturally occurring gas does not significantly contribute to the importance of
continual in-home testing.

Question: 3
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
The best answer is J. The passage indicates that radon gas can enter a home through
many different pathways. This information is consistent with the findings. The other
answer choices are not supported by information in the passage.

Question: 4
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The best answer is A. Radon potential is defined as "an estimate of the radon level of a
structure." According to the passage, Zone 1 includes areas with a high radon potential.
Table 1 indicates that the pCi/L levels in Zone 1 are greater than 4. Therefore, a radon
level of 5.2 pCi/L would be considered the most harmful.