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Booklet Sr. No.

*0A* Question Booklet


Set
Candidate’s Name ________________________________________________________
Father’s Name ____________________________________________________________

Date of Birth :
D D M M Y Y Y Y
A
OMR Response Sheet No. ____________________________________ Roll No. ___________________________

Candidate’s Signature : Total Questions : 120]


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JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (A–1)


6. The centre of gravity of a T-section
1. The two sub-methods adopted for
projection technique, via., Visual Ray 150 mm  200 mm  50 mm from its
Method and Vanishing Point Method bottom is at
are for ________.
(a) Isometric Projections
(b) Perspective Projections
(c) Orthographic Projections
(d) Trigonometrical Projections
2. The length-to-height ratio of a closed
filled arrowhead is
(a) 100 mm
(a) 2:1
(b) 125 mm
(b) 1:1
(c) 150 mm
(c) 3:1 (d) 175 mm
(d) 1:3
7. A floating body is said to be in a state
3. The coefficient of friction depends on of stable equilibrium
(a) nature of surfaces only (a) when its metacentric height is
(b) area of contact only zero
(c) relative speed of the surfaces (b) when the metacentre is below the
(d) Both (a) and (b) centre of gravity
4. A block resting on a plane just begins (c) when the metacentre is above the
to slide when the plane is inclined at centre of gravity
30° to the horizontal. The coefficient of (d) only when its centre of gravity is
static friction is below its centre of buoyancy
(a) 1/2
8. The height of hydraulic jump is equal
(b) 1/ 3 to
(c) 3/2 (a) sequent depth
(d) 1 (b) initial depth
5. The beam shown in the figure below is (c) difference in conjugate depths
in equilibrium. The distance ‘a’ is (d) difference in alternating depths

9. Find the actual discharge from an


orifice, when the coefficient of
discharge is 0·6 and the theoretical
discharge is 0·018 cumec.
(a) 0·0108 cumec
(a) 1m (b) 0·00108 cumec
(b) 2m (c) 0·108 cumec
(c) 3m
(d) 1·08 cumec
(d) 4m

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (A–2)


10. When the water surface coincides with 15. The discharge through a 100 mm
the top edge of a rectangular vertical diameter external mouthpiece fitted to
gate of 30 m (wide)  6 m (depth), then the side of a large vessel is
the depth of the centre of pressure is 0·05948 m3/s. The head over the
(a) 1·8 m mouthpiece when coefficient of
discharge Cd = 0·855, is __________.
(b) 2m
(c) 3m (a) 2m
(d) 4m (b) 2·5 m
(c) 3·0 m
11. Venturimeter is used to measure the (d) 4·0 m
(a) velocity of flowing liquid
16. For two-dimensional flow, the stream
(b) discharge of flowing liquid function is given by ψ = 2xy. The
(c) pressure of flowing liquid velocity at a point (3, 4) is
(d) pressure difference between two (a) 6 m/sec
points in a pipeline (b) 8 m/sec
12. A flow is called supersonic if the (c) 10 m/sec
(d) 12 m/sec
(a) mach number is between 1 and 6
(b) mach number is between 7 and 9 17. Gauge pressure is
(c) velocity of flow is very high (a) absolute pressure – atmospheric
pressure
(d) discharge is difficult to measure
(b) absolute pressure + atmospheric
13. According to Darcy’s formula, the loss pressure
of head due to friction in the pipe is (c) atmospheric pressure – absolute
(where f = Darcy’s coefficient, pressure
l = Length of the pipe, v = Velocity (d) None of the above
of the liquid in the pipe, and
d = Diameter of the pipe) 18. If the Reduced Level of Bench Mark is
105 m, the back sight is 1·235 m and
(a) 3flv2/2gd the foresight is 1·920 m, then what is
(b) 4flv2/2gd the Reduced Level of forward station ?
(a) 101·845 m
(c) flv2/2gd
(b) 108·155 m
(d) flv2/gd (c) 104·315 m
14. If a jet of water is coming out from a (d) 105·685 m
nozzle with a velocity 9·81 m/s, the 19. For a distance of 1800 m, what will be
angle of elevation being 30, then the the corrections for curvature and
time to reach the highest point is refraction ?
(a) 0·25 s (a) 0·254 m; 0·218 m
(b) 0·50 s (b) 0·254 m; 0·036 m
(c) 1·0 s (c) 0·036 m; 0·254 m
(d) 1·5 s (d) 0·036 m; 0·218 m

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (A–3)


20. The correction for sag is 26. Distemper is used to coat
(a) always zero (a) interior surfaces not exposed to
(b) always additive weather
(c) always subtractive (b) external concrete surfaces
(d) sometimes additive and (c) compound walls
sometimes subtractive (d) woodwork

21. Closed contours with lower value 27. For a good building stone-crushing
inwards, represent a strength should be more than
(a) hill (a) 100 MPa
(b) depression (b) 150 MPa
(c) plain surface (c) 50 MPa
(d) None of the above (d) 200 MPa
22. The bearings of the lines AB and BC
28. Addition of pozzolana to ordinary
are 14630 and 6830. The included
Portland cement increases
angle ABC is
(a) permeability
(a) 102
(b) heat of hydration
(b) 78 (c) shrinkage
(c) 45 (d) bleeding
(d) 85
29. For the manufacture of Portland
23. Which of the following methods cement, the typical proportions of raw
estimates best the area of an irregular materials used, are
and curved boundary ?
(a) lime 63%; silica 22%; other
(a) Simpson’s method ingredients 15%
(b) Trapezoidal method (b) lime 22%; silica 63%; other
(c) Mid-ordinate method ingredients 15%
(d) Average ordinate method (c) silica 40%; lime 40%; other
ingredients 20%
24. The maximum permissible water
absorption (in % by weight) for (d) silica 70%; lime 20%; other
common burnt clay building bricks of ingredients 10%
class up to 12·5 is
30. Seasoning of timber is
(a) 10
(a) a process of removing sap
(b) 15
(b) creosoting
(c) 20
(c) painting with sodium silicate
(d) 25
(d) coating with tar
25. Which of the following does not have a
pozzolanic property ? 31. The standard size of masonry bricks is
(a) Fly Ash (a) 18 cm  8 cm  8 cm
(b) Standard Sand (b) 19 cm  9 cm  9 cm
(c) Ordinary Portland Cement (c) 20 cm  10 cm  10 cm
(d) Silica Fume (d) 21 cm  11 cm  11 cm

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (A–4)


32. The fineness of the cement and the 38. The deflection and slope of a uniformly
development of cement strength are loaded cantilever beam are given as
(a) not related 18 mm and 0·01 radian, respectively.
(b) randomly related The length of the beam is
(c) directly proportional (a) 2 m
(d) inversely proportional (b) 2·2 m
(c) 2·4 m
33. A covering of concrete placed on the
(d) 2·6 m
exposed top of an external wall, is
known as 39. The materials which have the same
(a) Coping elastic properties in all directions are
(b) Lintel called
(c) Cornice (a) Isotropic
(d) Frieze (b) Homogeneous
(c) Linear elastic material
34. The maximum bending stress in
T-section will occur at (d) None of the above
(a) neutral axis 40. The maximum bending moment of a
(b) extreme fibre in the web simply supported beam of uniform
(c) junction of web and flange rectangular cross-section
(d) extreme fibre in the flange (20 cm wide  30 cm deep) is calculated
as 4·5 t-m. The maximum bending
35. Find the bending moment at the fixed stress included in the beam will be
end for a cantilever beam of span 4 m
(a) 100 kg/cm2
subjected to a concentrated load of
10 KN at centre and a moment of (b) 125 kg/cm2
20 KN-m. (c) 150 kg/cm2
(a) 40 KN-m (d) 200 kg/cm2
(b) 60 KN-m
(c) 30 KN-m 41. As per IS : 456 : 2000, the minimum
percentage of reinforcement required
(d) 10 KN-m
for slabs, when mild steel bars are
36. A system of pre-stressing in which the used is
wires are anchored in layers by (a) 0·12
wedging sandwich plates is the (b) 0·15
(a) Gifford Udall system (c) 0·30
(b) Hoyer system (d) 0·45
(c) Freyssinet system
(d) Magnel Blaton system 42. The capacity of a material to absorb
energy when it is deformed elastically
37. The shape factor for an I section is and then, upon unloading to have this
approximately energy recovered is called
(a) 3·15 (a) Elasticity
(b) 2·75 (b) Resilience
(c) 1·75 (c) Tensile strength
(d) 1·15 (d) Ductility

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (A–5)


43. In an isolated reinforced concrete 47. A truss containing j joints and m
footing of effective depth “d”, the stress members, will be a simple truss if
in punching shear is checked
(a) m = 2j – 3
(a) at the face of the column
(b) j = 2m – 3
(b) at a distance d/2 away from the
(c) m = 3j – 2
face of the column
(d) j = 3m – 2
(c) at a distance d/2 away from the
centre of the column
48. A rectangular beam 20 cm wide is
(d) at the centre of the column
subjected to a maximum shearing force
44. The bulk modulus of elasticity of a of 10,000 kg, the corresponding
material is twice its modulus of maximum shearing stress being
rigidity. The Poisson’s ratio of the 30 kg/cm2. The depth of the beam is
material is
(a) 15 cm
(a) 3/7
(b) 20 cm
(b) 4/7
(c) 25 cm
(c) 2/7
(d) 1/7 (d) 30 cm

45. At a certain point in a structural 49. The minimum percentage of steel in an


member, there are perpendicular RCC long column is
stresses 100 N/mm2 and 60 N/mm2,
(a) 0·8%
both tensile. What is the equivalent
(b) 0·6%
stress in simple tension, according to
the maximum principal strain theory ? (c) 1·0%
(Poisson’s ratio = 0·33) (d) 1·2%
(a) 75 N/mm2
(b) 60 N/mm2 50. The maximum bending moment for a
(c) 80 N/mm2 purlin of length L when subjected to a

(d) 120 N/mm2 distributed load W, may be taken as

WL
46. A steel rod of 20 mm diameter and (a)
8
3·14 m length is subjected to an axial
pull of 100 kN. If E = 200 kN/mm2, the WL
(b)
elongation of the rod will be 10

(a) 10 mm WL
(c)
(b) 2 mm 12
(c) 5 mm WL
(d)
(d) 4 mm 16

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (A–6)


51. The number of independent elastic 56. A rectangular bar of width b and
constants for homogeneous, isotropic height h is being used as a cantilever.
and elastic material that follows The loading is in a plane parallel to
Hooke’s law is the side b. The section modulus is
(a) 1
bh 3
(b) 2 (a)
12
(c) 3
(d) 9 bh 2
(b)
6
52. The angle between the plane of
maximum shear stress and the b2h
(c)
principal plane in a two-dimensional 6
stress block is (d) None of the above
(a) 30
(b) 45
57. The maximum twisting moment a
(c) 60 shaft can resist, is the product of the
(d) 90 permissible shear stress and
(a) moment of inertia
53. What is the ratio of flexural strength
(fcr) to the characteristic compressive (b) polar moment of inertia
strength of concrete (fck) of M 25 grade (c) polar modulus
concrete ?
(d) modulus of rigidity
(a) 0·12
(b) 0·17
(c) 0·14 58. Which of the following properties of
(d) 0·014 the building is not desirable in
earthquake-resistant design ?
54. A column splice is used to increase the (a) Strength
(a) connection with the slab
(b) Stiffness
(b) cross-sectional area of the column
(c) length of the column (c) Irregularity
(d) strength of the column (d) Ductility

55. A simply supported beam is subjected 59. The damping value to be taken into
to a concentrated load at the centre. account for the seismic analysis of
The deflection of the beam will become reinforced concrete buildings according
eight times when the length of the to IS : 1893 (2016) is
beam is increased by
(a) 5% of the critical damping
(a) two times
(b) 2% of the critical damping
(b) four times
(c) 10% of the critical damping
(c) six times
(d) 7% of the critical damping
(d) eight times
JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (A–7)
60. If ‘tf’ is flowing-through period and 63. Which of the following does not cause
‘td’ is detention period for a permanent hardness in water ?
sedimentation tank, then its (a) Sulphate
displacement efficiency is given (b) Chloride
by ________ . (c) Nitrate
td (d) Bicarbonate
(a)
tf
64. The ratio of 5-day BOD to ultimate
(t d – t f ) BOD is about
(b)
td
(a) 1/3
tf (b) 3/4
(c)
td
(c) 2/3
(t f – t d ) (d) 5/4
(d)
tf
65. The pathogens can be killed by
61. The type of valve which is provided to (a) Nitrification
control the flow of water in the (b) Chlorination
distribution system at street corners
and where the pipelines intersect is (c) Oxidation
__________ . (d) None of the above
(a) Reflux Valve
66. The chemical compound which is
(b) Sluice Valve insoluble in water, formed when alum
(c) Air Valve is added to water is
(d) Scour Valve (a) Al(OH)3
(b) CaSO4
62. Match the contents in Column I and (c) CO2
Column II and select the correct option (d) Ca(OH)3
from the following :
Column I Column II 67. As per IS : 1498 – 1970, what is
P. Grit chamber 1. Zone settling the basis for sub-classification of
fine-grained soils ?
Q. Secondary 2. Stoke’s law
(a) Mohr’s Circle
settling tank
R. Activated 3. Aerobic (b) Newmark’s Chart
sludge process (c) Plasticity Chart
S. Trickling filter 4. Contact (d) Webster Chart
stabilisation
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 68. The seepage pressure always acts in
(a) horizontal direction
(b) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(b) vertically downward direction
(c) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(c) vertically upward direction
(d) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (d) the direction of seepage flow

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (A–8)


69. The void ratio of a sand sample in its 74. Cant deficiency occurs when a vehicle
loosest state is 0·6 and the difference travels around a curve at
between maximum and minimum void
ratio is 0·3. What will be the void ratio (a) booked speed
of the sand for a relative density of (b) speed lower than the equilibrium
66·6% ?
speed
(a) 0·3
(b) 0·4 (c) speed higher than the
(c) 0·5 equilibrium speed
(d) 0·6 (d) equilibrium speed
70. The following data were noted from an
irrigation field : Field capacity = 20%, 75. An Enoscope is used to determine the
Permanent wilting point = 10%,
Permissible depletion of available soil (a) space-mean speed
moisture = 50%, Dry unit weight of soil
(b) time-mean speed
= 15 kN/m3, Effective rainfall = 50 mm.
The net irrigation requirement per (c) spot speed
metre depth of soil will be
(a) 75 mm (d) traffic density
(b) 125 mm
(c) 50 mm 76. Composite sleeper index is the index of
(d) 25 mm (a) hardness and strength
71. The maximum particle size for which (b) strength and toughness
Darcy’s law is applicable is
(a) 0·1 mm (c) toughness and wear resistance
(b) 0·3 mm (d) wear resistance and hardness
(c) 0·5 mm
(d) 0·8 mm
77. A channel with a silt factor of 1·1 has a
72. A coarse-grained soil has a void ratio mean velocity of 0·88 m/s. What will
0·75, and specific gravity as 2·75. The be its hydraulic mean radius as per
critical gradient at which quick sand Lacey’s theory ?
condition occurs, is
(a) 1·95 m
(a) 0·25
(b) 0·5 (b) 1·76 m
(c) 0·75 (c) 1·63 m
(d) 1·00 (d) 1·50 m
73. The transition curve used in the
horizontal alignment of highways as 78. Duty on capacity is also known as
per IRC is
(a) Capacity Factor
(a) lemniscate
(b) Time Factor
(b) spiral
(c) cubic parabola (c) Root Zone Depth
(d) All of the above (d) Full Supply Coefficient

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (A–9)


79. A silt control device consisting of a 84. In an earthwork construction, a mass
number of rectangular tunnels haul diagram is a diagram showing the
provided parallel to the axis of head (a) cross-section of the site
regulator and terminating near the
(b) longitudinal section of the site
under-sluiced weir to allow the clear
water to flow through the head (c) cumulative volume of earthwork
regulator is called and the haulage
(a) Silt ejector (d) amount of cutting and filling
along the length
(b) Silt tunnel
(c) Silt excluder 85. Which of the following expressions is
(d) Under sluice used to calculate ‘Annual Depreciation’
by straight line method ? Where ‘Ci’ is
80. Which of the following the original value, ‘Cs’ is the scrap
pollution-control devices is the most
value and ‘N’ is the life of structure in
effective ?
years.
(a) Dynamic precipitator
(a) (Cs – Ci)/N
(b) Spray tower
(b) (Ci – Cs)/N
(c) Electrostatic precipitator
(d) Wet cyclonic scrubber (c) Cs/(N  Ci)
(d) (Ci + Cs)/N
81. The maximum permissible noise level
to which a man working in a chemical 86. The most accurate cost for a building
plant can be exposed for eight hours project is arrived at through
per day is about __________ decibels. (a) Typical bay method
(a) 60 (b) Cubical rate method
(b) 90 (c) Unit rate method
(c) 105 (d) Plinth area method
(d) 120
87. The unit of measurement for
82. Biodiesel is produced from oils or fats ‘backfilling’ in construction is
using (a) Running meter
(a) fermentation (b) Square meter
(b) transesterification (c) Cubic meter
(c) distillation (d) Quintal
(d) pasteurization
88. In the ‘Center Line Method’ of
83. No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for T junction, how much
estimation for plastering work in length has to be deducted from the
cement mortar for openings having total centreline length for a particular
size up to item ?
(a) 0·75 m2 (a) Half-width
(b) 0·5 m2 (b) Full-width
(c) 3 m2 (c) Quarter-width
(d) 1 m2 (d) Three-quarter-width

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( A – 10 )


89. Shear cracks between the main wall 94. The time by which an activity
and cross-wall can be corrected using completion time can be delayed
(a) grouting without affecting the early start of the
succeeding activities is known as
(b) rebuilding
(c) guining (a) Independent float
(d) toothing
(b) Interfering float
90. If the soil is dry, DPC for ground floor
consists of the layer of (c) Free float
(a) metal
(b) coarse sand (d) Total float
(c) fine sand
(d) concrete 95. Which of the following statements are
incorrect for Network Critical path ?
91. The main aim of maintaining any
structure is to (a) The path of critical activities,
(a) improve its appearance which links the start and end
events is critical path
(b) utilise the funds provided
(c) stabilise the structure to enable it (b) It is the path of activities having
to carry the functions for which it zero float
is constructed
(d) utilise services of incharge (c) The sum of the duration of the
maintenance critical activities along a critical
path gives the duration of the
92. If to is the optimistic time, tp is the project
pessimistic time, and tm is the most
likely time, then the expected time is (d) It is the path of events having
calculated as non-zero slack
(a) (to + tm + tp)/3
(b) (to + 2tm + tp)/4 96. If the employee is terminated or
(c) (to+ 4tm +tp)/5 removed from employment by the
(d) (to + 4tm + tp)/6 employer, the wage of that employee
should be paid within ____________
93. In CPM, the cost slope is determined days from the day on which he was
by removed or terminated.
(a) Normal cost/Crash cost
(a) 7
(b) (Normal cost – Crash cost)/
(Normal time – Crash time) (b) 15
(c) (Crash cost – Normal cost)/
(Normal time – Crash time) (c) 30

(d) Crash cost/Normal cost (d) 2

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( A – 11 )


97. Which of the following is not included 101. Match the following :
under the definition of wages given Dam
under the Payment of Wages Act, River
1936 ? A. Nagarjuna Sagar 1. Kaveri

(a) Basic Wage B. Mettur 2. Narmada


C. Hirakud 3. Krishna
(b) Dearness Allowance
D. Indira Sagar 4. Mahanadi
(c) Incentive
A B C D
(d) Gratuity (a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 3 2 4 1
98. Which one of the following does not
contribute to waterlogging and is not a (c) 3 1 4 2
remedial measure for waterlogging ? (d) 1 3 2 4
102. For which term has India been elected
(a) Excessive tapping of groundwater
to the UN Economic and Social Council
and contour bunding (ECOSOC) ?
(b) Frequent flooding and good (a) 2021 – 23
drainage for irrigated land (b) 2022 – 24
(c) 2022 – 26
(c) Seepage from unlined canals and (d) 2021 – 25
water courses
103. When does a defeated candidate lose
(d) Inadequate drainage and contour security deposit in elections ?
bunding (a) When a defeated candidate
secures less than the number of
99. Efflorescence is the ill effect of votes received by the NOTA
(a) dampness (b) When a defeated candidate
receives lowest number of votes
(b) growth of vegetation (c) When a defeated candidate who
fails to secure more than
(c) action of weathering agents one-sixth of the valid votes polled
in the constituency
(d) chemical action of mortar on
masonry (d) When a defeated candidate who
fails to secure more than the
100. The minimum water content at which number of invalid votes
the soil just begins to crumble when 104. Lonar Lake, also known as Lonar
rolled into thread 3 mm in diameter is crater, is a notified National
called Geo-heritage Monument, saline, soda
lake, is located in which of the
(a) Shrinkage limit following States ?
(b) Liquid limit (a) Maharashtra
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Plastic limit (c) Chattisgarh
(d) Shrinkage ratio (d) Odisha

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( A – 12 )


105. Choose the correct option : 109. The name Lovlina Borgohain is
When light travels from one medium associated with which sport in India ?
to another medium (a) Archery
(a) velocity, wavelength and (b) Boxing
frequency do not change (c) Cycling
(b) velocity, wavelength and
frequency remains same (d) Fencing
(c) velocity and wavelength change 110. Which State is the first in India to
and frequency remains same implement the National Education
(d) velocity and frequency change Policy, 2020 ?
and wavelength remains same (a) Gujarat
106. Consider the following statements : (b) Madhya Pradesh
Statement I : Rafale fighter jets have (c) Karnataka
the ability to engage any jets from a (d) Assam
long distance without the risk of being Directions (Question Nos. 111 and 112) :
tracked. In addition, the air-to-ground
Read the following information carefully to
SCALP missile can precisely track
answer the questions :
down any target with ease.
I. There are five students Suresh,
Statement II : Rafale features beyond Mukesh, Vineet, Rahul and Soham,
visual range air-to-air missile that is each with different heights.
the best today. The aircraft can take
out the enemy aircraft from a range of II. Exactly one person has height in
more than 100 kms. between Soham and Suresh.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are III. Mukesh is taller than Suresh.
correct ? IV. When arranged in order of heights,
(a) Only II Vineet takes the middlemost position.
(b) Only I 111. Which of the following statements is
(c) Both I and II definitely correct, when the students
(d) Neither I nor II are arranged in descending order of
their heights according to the
107. An infected person is less likely to information given above ?
encounter a susceptible person when a (a) There are exactly two persons in
large proportion of the members of the between Mukesh and Rahul
group are immune, is called (b) Rahul is taller than Vineet
(a) Active immunity
(c) Mukesh is taller than Soham
(b) Passive immunity
(c) Herd immunity (d) Rahul is the tallest
(d) Specific immunity 112. Which of the following statements is
definitely correct, when the students
108. For 2021, The Dadasaheb Phalke are arranged in descending order of
award was given to their heights according to the
information given above ? (Tallest to
(a) Puneet Rajkumar shortest)
(a) Suresh, Vineet, Soham
(b) Rajinikanth
(b) Soham, Vineet, Suresh
(c) Mohanlal (c) Vineet, Suresh, Rahul
(d) Mukesh, Suresh, Rahul
(d) Shah Rukh Khan

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( A – 13 )


113. Pointing to a girl, a lady said, “She is 117. The price of 2 Jeans and 4 T-shirts is
the only grandchild to the parents of < 1,600. With the same money, one
the person I am married to.” How is can buy 1 Jeans and 6 T-shirts. If one
the lady related to the girl ? wants to buy 3 Jeans and 5 T-shirts,
(a) Aunt how much shall he have to pay ?

(b) Daughter (a) < 2,200


(c) Mother (b) < 2,600
(d) Sister (c) < 2,500
(d) < 2,400
114. In a certain code “LONDON” is
written as “OLMWLM”. Then how will 118. If South-West becomes North,
“BANGALORE” be written ? North-West becomes West and so on,
(a) YZMOLZTIV what will East become ?
(b) VITZLOMYZ (a) North-East
(c) YZMTZOLIV (b) South-West
(d) VILOZTMZY (c) North-West
(d) South-East
115. If ‘M’ means ‘division’, ‘S’ means
‘addition’, ‘A’ means ‘subtraction’, and 119. The height of Rakesh and Rahul is
‘D’ means ‘multiplication’, then what 40% and 80% respectively more than
will be the value of the following that of Ramesh. What is the ratio of
expression ? height of Rakesh and Rahul ?
12 M 6 S 5 D 8 A 9 = ? (a) 6:7
(a) 28 (b) 5:6
(b) 33 (c) 7:9
(c) 36 (d) 1:2
(d) 54
120. A boatman goes 4 km against the
116. In the following number series, find current of the stream in 2 hours and
the missing number ? goes 3 km along the current in
30 minutes. How long will it take to go
7, 5, 9, 8, 13, 17, 21 _____, 37.
9 km in stationary water ?
(a) 44
(a) 2 hours 15 minutes
(b) 25
(b) 1 hour 45 minutes
(c) 29
(c) 1 hour 30 minutes
(d) 31
(d) 2 hours

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( A – 14 )


SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( A – 15 )


SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( A – 16 )


Booklet Sr. No.
*0B* Question Booklet
Set
Candidate’s Name ________________________________________________________
Father’s Name ____________________________________________________________

Date of Birth :
D D M M Y Y Y Y
B
OMR Response Sheet No. ____________________________________ Roll No. ___________________________

Candidate’s Signature : Total Questions : 120]


(Please sign in the box) Time Allowed : 2 Hours]

1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time he/she is told to do so by the Invigilation
Staff. However, in the meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and
subsequently fill the appropriate columns given above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may
also fill the relevant boxes out of 1 to 9 of the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) response sheet,
supplied separately.
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in the
OMR sheet. Use of ink pen or any other pen is not allowed.
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or
illegible or incomplete.
4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 120 minutes, except for
orthopedically/visually impaired candidates, who would be given 40 extra minutes, by marking
correct responses on the OMR sheet.
5. The question paper booklet has 16 pages.
6. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire
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and there are no blank pages. In case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then
the candidate should IMMEDIATELY bring this fact to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and
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7. The serial number of the new Question booklet if issued for some reason should be entered in
the relevant column of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their
record regarding the change in the serial no. of Question booklet.
8. The paper consists of total 300 Marks. Each question shall carry 2.5 marks. There are four
options for each question and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on
the OMR response sheet.
9. There is negative marking (0.5 marks for each question) for questions wrongly answered by the
candidate.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before answering
the questions and check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact.

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (B–1)


1. The fineness of the cement and the 7. The deflection and slope of a uniformly
development of cement strength are loaded cantilever beam are given as
(a) not related 18 mm and 0·01 radian, respectively.
(b) randomly related The length of the beam is
(c) directly proportional (a) 2 m
(d) inversely proportional (b) 2·2 m
(c) 2·4 m
2. A covering of concrete placed on the
(d) 2·6 m
exposed top of an external wall, is
known as 8. The materials which have the same
(a) Coping elastic properties in all directions are
(b) Lintel called
(c) Cornice (a) Isotropic
(d) Frieze (b) Homogeneous
(c) Linear elastic material
3. The maximum bending stress in
T-section will occur at (d) None of the above
(a) neutral axis 9. The maximum bending moment of a
(b) extreme fibre in the web simply supported beam of uniform
(c) junction of web and flange rectangular cross-section
(d) extreme fibre in the flange (20 cm wide  30 cm deep) is calculated
as 4·5 t-m. The maximum bending
4. Find the bending moment at the fixed stress included in the beam will be
end for a cantilever beam of span 4 m
(a) 100 kg/cm2
subjected to a concentrated load of
10 KN at centre and a moment of (b) 125 kg/cm2
20 KN-m. (c) 150 kg/cm2
(a) 40 KN-m (d) 200 kg/cm2
(b) 60 KN-m
(c) 30 KN-m 10. As per IS : 456 : 2000, the minimum
percentage of reinforcement required
(d) 10 KN-m
for slabs, when mild steel bars are
5. A system of pre-stressing in which the used is
wires are anchored in layers by (a) 0·12
wedging sandwich plates is the (b) 0·15
(a) Gifford Udall system (c) 0·30
(b) Hoyer system (d) 0·45
(c) Freyssinet system
(d) Magnel Blaton system 11. The capacity of a material to absorb
energy when it is deformed elastically
6. The shape factor for an I section is and then, upon unloading to have this
approximately energy recovered is called
(a) 3·15 (a) Elasticity
(b) 2·75 (b) Resilience
(c) 1·75 (c) Tensile strength
(d) 1·15 (d) Ductility

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (B–2)


12. In an isolated reinforced concrete 16. A truss containing j joints and m
footing of effective depth “d”, the stress members, will be a simple truss if
in punching shear is checked
(a) m = 2j – 3
(a) at the face of the column
(b) j = 2m – 3
(b) at a distance d/2 away from the
(c) m = 3j – 2
face of the column
(d) j = 3m – 2
(c) at a distance d/2 away from the
centre of the column
17. A rectangular beam 20 cm wide is
(d) at the centre of the column
subjected to a maximum shearing force
13. The bulk modulus of elasticity of a of 10,000 kg, the corresponding
material is twice its modulus of maximum shearing stress being
rigidity. The Poisson’s ratio of the 30 kg/cm2. The depth of the beam is
material is
(a) 15 cm
(a) 3/7
(b) 20 cm
(b) 4/7
(c) 25 cm
(c) 2/7
(d) 1/7 (d) 30 cm

14. At a certain point in a structural 18. The minimum percentage of steel in an


member, there are perpendicular RCC long column is
stresses 100 N/mm2 and 60 N/mm2,
(a) 0·8%
both tensile. What is the equivalent
(b) 0·6%
stress in simple tension, according to
the maximum principal strain theory ? (c) 1·0%
(Poisson’s ratio = 0·33) (d) 1·2%
(a) 75 N/mm2
(b) 60 N/mm2 19. The maximum bending moment for a
(c) 80 N/mm2 purlin of length L when subjected to a

(d) 120 N/mm2 distributed load W, may be taken as

WL
15. A steel rod of 20 mm diameter and (a)
8
3·14 m length is subjected to an axial
pull of 100 kN. If E = 200 kN/mm2, the WL
(b)
elongation of the rod will be 10

(a) 10 mm WL
(c)
(b) 2 mm 12
(c) 5 mm WL
(d)
(d) 4 mm 16

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (B–3)


20. The number of independent elastic 25. A rectangular bar of width b and
constants for homogeneous, isotropic height h is being used as a cantilever.
and elastic material that follows The loading is in a plane parallel to
Hooke’s law is the side b. The section modulus is
(a) 1
bh 3
(b) 2 (a)
12
(c) 3
(d) 9 bh 2
(b)
6
21. The angle between the plane of
maximum shear stress and the b2h
(c)
principal plane in a two-dimensional 6
stress block is (d) None of the above
(a) 30
(b) 45
26. The maximum twisting moment a
(c) 60 shaft can resist, is the product of the
(d) 90 permissible shear stress and
(a) moment of inertia
22. What is the ratio of flexural strength
(fcr) to the characteristic compressive (b) polar moment of inertia
strength of concrete (fck) of M 25 grade (c) polar modulus
concrete ?
(d) modulus of rigidity
(a) 0·12
(b) 0·17
(c) 0·14 27. Which of the following properties of
(d) 0·014 the building is not desirable in
earthquake-resistant design ?
23. A column splice is used to increase the (a) Strength
(a) connection with the slab
(b) Stiffness
(b) cross-sectional area of the column
(c) length of the column (c) Irregularity
(d) strength of the column (d) Ductility

24. A simply supported beam is subjected 28. The damping value to be taken into
to a concentrated load at the centre. account for the seismic analysis of
The deflection of the beam will become reinforced concrete buildings according
eight times when the length of the to IS : 1893 (2016) is
beam is increased by
(a) 5% of the critical damping
(a) two times
(b) 2% of the critical damping
(b) four times
(c) 10% of the critical damping
(c) six times
(d) 7% of the critical damping
(d) eight times
JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (B–4)
29. If ‘tf’ is flowing-through period and 32. Which of the following does not cause
‘td’ is detention period for a permanent hardness in water ?
sedimentation tank, then its (a) Sulphate
displacement efficiency is given (b) Chloride
by ________ . (c) Nitrate
td (d) Bicarbonate
(a)
tf
33. The ratio of 5-day BOD to ultimate
(t d – t f ) BOD is about
(b)
td
(a) 1/3
tf (b) 3/4
(c)
td
(c) 2/3
(t f – t d ) (d) 5/4
(d)
tf
34. The pathogens can be killed by
30. The type of valve which is provided to (a) Nitrification
control the flow of water in the (b) Chlorination
distribution system at street corners
and where the pipelines intersect is (c) Oxidation
__________ . (d) None of the above
(a) Reflux Valve
35. The chemical compound which is
(b) Sluice Valve insoluble in water, formed when alum
(c) Air Valve is added to water is
(d) Scour Valve (a) Al(OH)3
(b) CaSO4
31. Match the contents in Column I and (c) CO2
Column II and select the correct option (d) Ca(OH)3
from the following :
Column I Column II 36. As per IS : 1498 – 1970, what is
P. Grit chamber 1. Zone settling the basis for sub-classification of
fine-grained soils ?
Q. Secondary 2. Stoke’s law
(a) Mohr’s Circle
settling tank
R. Activated 3. Aerobic (b) Newmark’s Chart
sludge process (c) Plasticity Chart
S. Trickling filter 4. Contact (d) Webster Chart
stabilisation
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 37. The seepage pressure always acts in
(a) horizontal direction
(b) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(b) vertically downward direction
(c) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(c) vertically upward direction
(d) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (d) the direction of seepage flow

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (B–5)


38. The void ratio of a sand sample in its 43. Cant deficiency occurs when a vehicle
loosest state is 0·6 and the difference travels around a curve at
between maximum and minimum void
ratio is 0·3. What will be the void ratio (a) booked speed
of the sand for a relative density of (b) speed lower than the equilibrium
66·6% ?
speed
(a) 0·3
(b) 0·4 (c) speed higher than the
(c) 0·5 equilibrium speed
(d) 0·6 (d) equilibrium speed
39. The following data were noted from an
irrigation field : Field capacity = 20%, 44. An Enoscope is used to determine the
Permanent wilting point = 10%,
Permissible depletion of available soil (a) space-mean speed
moisture = 50%, Dry unit weight of soil
(b) time-mean speed
= 15 kN/m3, Effective rainfall = 50 mm.
The net irrigation requirement per (c) spot speed
metre depth of soil will be
(a) 75 mm (d) traffic density
(b) 125 mm
(c) 50 mm 45. Composite sleeper index is the index of
(d) 25 mm (a) hardness and strength
40. The maximum particle size for which (b) strength and toughness
Darcy’s law is applicable is
(a) 0·1 mm (c) toughness and wear resistance
(b) 0·3 mm (d) wear resistance and hardness
(c) 0·5 mm
(d) 0·8 mm
46. A channel with a silt factor of 1·1 has a
41. A coarse-grained soil has a void ratio mean velocity of 0·88 m/s. What will
0·75, and specific gravity as 2·75. The be its hydraulic mean radius as per
critical gradient at which quick sand Lacey’s theory ?
condition occurs, is
(a) 1·95 m
(a) 0·25
(b) 0·5 (b) 1·76 m
(c) 0·75 (c) 1·63 m
(d) 1·00 (d) 1·50 m
42. The transition curve used in the
horizontal alignment of highways as 47. Duty on capacity is also known as
per IRC is
(a) Capacity Factor
(a) lemniscate
(b) Time Factor
(b) spiral
(c) cubic parabola (c) Root Zone Depth
(d) All of the above (d) Full Supply Coefficient

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (B–6)


48. A silt control device consisting of a 53. In an earthwork construction, a mass
number of rectangular tunnels haul diagram is a diagram showing the
provided parallel to the axis of head (a) cross-section of the site
regulator and terminating near the
(b) longitudinal section of the site
under-sluiced weir to allow the clear
water to flow through the head (c) cumulative volume of earthwork
regulator is called and the haulage
(a) Silt ejector (d) amount of cutting and filling
along the length
(b) Silt tunnel
(c) Silt excluder 54. Which of the following expressions is
(d) Under sluice used to calculate ‘Annual Depreciation’
by straight line method ? Where ‘Ci’ is
49. Which of the following the original value, ‘Cs’ is the scrap
pollution-control devices is the most
value and ‘N’ is the life of structure in
effective ?
years.
(a) Dynamic precipitator
(a) (Cs – Ci)/N
(b) Spray tower
(b) (Ci – Cs)/N
(c) Electrostatic precipitator
(d) Wet cyclonic scrubber (c) Cs/(N  Ci)
(d) (Ci + Cs)/N
50. The maximum permissible noise level
to which a man working in a chemical 55. The most accurate cost for a building
plant can be exposed for eight hours project is arrived at through
per day is about __________ decibels. (a) Typical bay method
(a) 60 (b) Cubical rate method
(b) 90 (c) Unit rate method
(c) 105 (d) Plinth area method
(d) 120
56. The unit of measurement for
51. Biodiesel is produced from oils or fats ‘backfilling’ in construction is
using (a) Running meter
(a) fermentation (b) Square meter
(b) transesterification (c) Cubic meter
(c) distillation (d) Quintal
(d) pasteurization
57. In the ‘Center Line Method’ of
52. No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for T junction, how much
estimation for plastering work in length has to be deducted from the
cement mortar for openings having total centreline length for a particular
size up to item ?
(a) 0·75 m2 (a) Half-width
(b) 0·5 m2 (b) Full-width
(c) 3 m2 (c) Quarter-width
(d) 1 m2 (d) Three-quarter-width

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (B–7)


58. Shear cracks between the main wall 63. The time by which an activity
and cross-wall can be corrected using completion time can be delayed
(a) grouting without affecting the early start of the
succeeding activities is known as
(b) rebuilding
(c) guining (a) Independent float
(d) toothing
(b) Interfering float
59. If the soil is dry, DPC for ground floor
consists of the layer of (c) Free float
(a) metal
(b) coarse sand (d) Total float
(c) fine sand
(d) concrete 64. Which of the following statements are
incorrect for Network Critical path ?
60. The main aim of maintaining any
structure is to (a) The path of critical activities,
(a) improve its appearance which links the start and end
events is critical path
(b) utilise the funds provided
(c) stabilise the structure to enable it (b) It is the path of activities having
to carry the functions for which it zero float
is constructed
(d) utilise services of incharge (c) The sum of the duration of the
maintenance critical activities along a critical
path gives the duration of the
61. If to is the optimistic time, tp is the project
pessimistic time, and tm is the most
likely time, then the expected time is (d) It is the path of events having
calculated as non-zero slack
(a) (to + tm + tp)/3
(b) (to + 2tm + tp)/4 65. If the employee is terminated or
(c) (to+ 4tm +tp)/5 removed from employment by the
(d) (to + 4tm + tp)/6 employer, the wage of that employee
should be paid within ____________
62. In CPM, the cost slope is determined days from the day on which he was
by removed or terminated.
(a) Normal cost/Crash cost
(a) 7
(b) (Normal cost – Crash cost)/
(Normal time – Crash time) (b) 15
(c) (Crash cost – Normal cost)/
(Normal time – Crash time) (c) 30

(d) Crash cost/Normal cost (d) 2

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (B–8)


66. Which of the following is not included 70. The two sub-methods adopted for
under the definition of wages given projection technique, via., Visual Ray
under the Payment of Wages Act, Method and Vanishing Point Method
1936 ? are for ________.
(a) Basic Wage (a) Isometric Projections
(b) Perspective Projections
(b) Dearness Allowance
(c) Orthographic Projections
(c) Incentive (d) Trigonometrical Projections
(d) Gratuity 71. The length-to-height ratio of a closed
filled arrowhead is
67. Which one of the following does not
contribute to waterlogging and is not a (a) 2:1
remedial measure for waterlogging ? (b) 1:1
(c) 3:1
(a) Excessive tapping of groundwater
and contour bunding (d) 1:3
72. The coefficient of friction depends on
(b) Frequent flooding and good
drainage for irrigated land (a) nature of surfaces only
(b) area of contact only
(c) Seepage from unlined canals and
(c) relative speed of the surfaces
water courses
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Inadequate drainage and contour
73. A block resting on a plane just begins
bunding
to slide when the plane is inclined at
68. Efflorescence is the ill effect of 30° to the horizontal. The coefficient of
static friction is
(a) dampness (a) 1/2
(b) growth of vegetation (b) 1/ 3
(c) action of weathering agents (c) 3/2

(d) chemical action of mortar on (d) 1


masonry 74. The beam shown in the figure below is
in equilibrium. The distance ‘a’ is
69. The minimum water content at which
the soil just begins to crumble when
rolled into thread 3 mm in diameter is
called

(a) Shrinkage limit

(b) Liquid limit (a) 1m


(b) 2m
(c) Plastic limit
(c) 3m
(d) Shrinkage ratio (d) 4m

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (B–9)


75. The centre of gravity of a T-section 79. When the water surface coincides with
150 mm  200 mm  50 mm from its the top edge of a rectangular vertical
bottom is at gate of 30 m (wide)  6 m (depth), then
the depth of the centre of pressure is
(a) 1·8 m
(b) 2m
(c) 3m
(d) 4m

80. Venturimeter is used to measure the


(a) velocity of flowing liquid
(a) 100 mm
(b) discharge of flowing liquid
(b) 125 mm
(c) pressure of flowing liquid
(c) 150 mm
(d) 175 mm (d) pressure difference between two
points in a pipeline
76. A floating body is said to be in a state
of stable equilibrium 81. A flow is called supersonic if the
(a) when its metacentric height is (a) mach number is between 1 and 6
zero (b) mach number is between 7 and 9
(b) when the metacentre is below the (c) velocity of flow is very high
centre of gravity (d) discharge is difficult to measure
(c) when the metacentre is above the
82. According to Darcy’s formula, the loss
centre of gravity
of head due to friction in the pipe is
(d) only when its centre of gravity is (where f = Darcy’s coefficient,
below its centre of buoyancy l = Length of the pipe, v = Velocity
of the liquid in the pipe, and
77. The height of hydraulic jump is equal
d = Diameter of the pipe)
to
(a) sequent depth (a) 3flv2/2gd

(b) initial depth (b) 4flv2/2gd


(c) difference in conjugate depths (c) flv2/2gd
(d) difference in alternating depths (d) flv2/gd
78. Find the actual discharge from an 83. If a jet of water is coming out from a
orifice, when the coefficient of nozzle with a velocity 9·81 m/s, the
discharge is 0·6 and the theoretical angle of elevation being 30, then the
discharge is 0·018 cumec.
time to reach the highest point is
(a) 0·0108 cumec (a) 0·25 s
(b) 0·00108 cumec (b) 0·50 s
(c) 0·108 cumec (c) 1·0 s
(d) 1·08 cumec (d) 1·5 s

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( B – 10 )


84. The discharge through a 100 mm 89. The correction for sag is
diameter external mouthpiece fitted to (a) always zero
the side of a large vessel is (b) always additive
0·05948 m3/s. The head over the (c) always subtractive
mouthpiece when coefficient of
(d) sometimes additive and
discharge Cd = 0·855, is __________.
sometimes subtractive
(a) 2m
90. Closed contours with lower value
(b) 2·5 m
inwards, represent a
(c) 3·0 m (a) hill
(d) 4·0 m (b) depression
85. For two-dimensional flow, the stream (c) plain surface
function is given by ψ = 2xy. The (d) None of the above
velocity at a point (3, 4) is
91. The bearings of the lines AB and BC
(a) 6 m/sec
are 14630 and 6830. The included
(b) 8 m/sec
angle ABC is
(c) 10 m/sec (a) 102
(d) 12 m/sec (b) 78
86. Gauge pressure is (c) 45
(a) absolute pressure – atmospheric (d) 85
pressure
(b) absolute pressure + atmospheric 92. Which of the following methods
pressure estimates best the area of an irregular
and curved boundary ?
(c) atmospheric pressure – absolute
(a) Simpson’s method
pressure
(b) Trapezoidal method
(d) None of the above
(c) Mid-ordinate method
87. If the Reduced Level of Bench Mark is (d) Average ordinate method
105 m, the back sight is 1·235 m and
the foresight is 1·920 m, then what is 93. The maximum permissible water
the Reduced Level of forward station ? absorption (in % by weight) for
(a) 101·845 m common burnt clay building bricks of
class up to 12·5 is
(b) 108·155 m
(a) 10
(c) 104·315 m
(b) 15
(d) 105·685 m (c) 20
88. For a distance of 1800 m, what will be (d) 25
the corrections for curvature and
refraction ? 94. Which of the following does not have a
pozzolanic property ?
(a) 0·254 m; 0·218 m
(a) Fly Ash
(b) 0·254 m; 0·036 m
(b) Standard Sand
(c) 0·036 m; 0·254 m
(c) Ordinary Portland Cement
(d) 0·036 m; 0·218 m (d) Silica Fume

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( B – 11 )


95. Distemper is used to coat 101. Choose the correct option :
(a) interior surfaces not exposed to When light travels from one medium
weather to another medium
(b) external concrete surfaces (a) velocity, wavelength and
(c) compound walls frequency do not change
(b) velocity, wavelength and
(d) woodwork
frequency remains same
(c) velocity and wavelength change
96. For a good building stone-crushing
and frequency remains same
strength should be more than
(d) velocity and frequency change
(a) 100 MPa and wavelength remains same
(b) 150 MPa
102. Consider the following statements :
(c) 50 MPa
(d) 200 MPa Statement I : Rafale fighter jets have
the ability to engage any jets from a
97. Addition of pozzolana to ordinary long distance without the risk of being
Portland cement increases tracked. In addition, the air-to-ground
SCALP missile can precisely track
(a) permeability
down any target with ease.
(b) heat of hydration
Statement II : Rafale features beyond
(c) shrinkage
visual range air-to-air missile that is
(d) bleeding the best today. The aircraft can take
out the enemy aircraft from a range of
98. For the manufacture of Portland more than 100 kms.
cement, the typical proportions of raw
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
materials used, are correct ?
(a) lime 63%; silica 22%; other (a) Only II
ingredients 15% (b) Only I
(b) lime 22%; silica 63%; other (c) Both I and II
ingredients 15% (d) Neither I nor II
(c) silica 40%; lime 40%; other
ingredients 20% 103. An infected person is less likely to
(d) silica 70%; lime 20%; other encounter a susceptible person when a
ingredients 10% large proportion of the members of the
group are immune, is called
99. Seasoning of timber is (a) Active immunity
(a) a process of removing sap (b) Passive immunity
(b) creosoting (c) Herd immunity
(c) painting with sodium silicate (d) Specific immunity
(d) coating with tar
104. For 2021, The Dadasaheb Phalke
award was given to
100. The standard size of masonry bricks is
(a) 18 cm  8 cm  8 cm (a) Puneet Rajkumar
(b) 19 cm  9 cm  9 cm (b) Rajinikanth
(c) 20 cm  10 cm  10 cm (c) Mohanlal
(d) 21 cm  11 cm  11 cm (d) Shah Rukh Khan

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( B – 12 )


105. The name Lovlina Borgohain is 109. Pointing to a girl, a lady said, “She is
associated with which sport in India ? the only grandchild to the parents of
(a) Archery the person I am married to.” How is
(b) Boxing the lady related to the girl ?
(c) Cycling
(a) Aunt
(d) Fencing
106. Which State is the first in India to (b) Daughter
implement the National Education (c) Mother
Policy, 2020 ?
(d) Sister
(a) Gujarat
(b) Madhya Pradesh
110. In a certain code “LONDON” is
(c) Karnataka
written as “OLMWLM”. Then how will
(d) Assam
“BANGALORE” be written ?
Directions (Question Nos. 107 and 108) :
Read the following information carefully to (a) YZMOLZTIV
answer the questions : (b) VITZLOMYZ
I. There are five students Suresh,
(c) YZMTZOLIV
Mukesh, Vineet, Rahul and Soham,
each with different heights. (d) VILOZTMZY
II. Exactly one person has height in
between Soham and Suresh. 111. If ‘M’ means ‘division’, ‘S’ means
III. Mukesh is taller than Suresh. ‘addition’, ‘A’ means ‘subtraction’, and
IV. When arranged in order of heights, ‘D’ means ‘multiplication’, then what
Vineet takes the middlemost position.
will be the value of the following
107. Which of the following statements is
expression ?
definitely correct, when the students
are arranged in descending order of 12 M 6 S 5 D 8 A 9 = ?
their heights according to the
(a) 28
information given above ?
(a) There are exactly two persons in (b) 33
between Mukesh and Rahul (c) 36
(b) Rahul is taller than Vineet (d) 54
(c) Mukesh is taller than Soham
(d) Rahul is the tallest
112. In the following number series, find
108. Which of the following statements is
definitely correct, when the students the missing number ?
are arranged in descending order of 7, 5, 9, 8, 13, 17, 21 _____, 37.
their heights according to the
information given above ? (Tallest to (a) 44
shortest)
(b) 25
(a) Suresh, Vineet, Soham
(b) Soham, Vineet, Suresh (c) 29
(c) Vineet, Suresh, Rahul
(d) Mukesh, Suresh, Rahul (d) 31

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( B – 13 )


113. The price of 2 Jeans and 4 T-shirts is 117. Match the following :
< 1,600. With the same money, one Dam River
can buy 1 Jeans and 6 T-shirts. If one A. Nagarjuna Sagar 1. Kaveri
wants to buy 3 Jeans and 5 T-shirts,
B. Mettur 2. Narmada
how much shall he have to pay ?
C. Hirakud 3. Krishna
(a) < 2,200
D. Indira Sagar 4. Mahanadi
(b) < 2,600
A B C D
(c) < 2,500
(a) 1 4 2 3
(d) < 2,400 (b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 3 1 4 2
114. If South-West becomes North, (d) 1 3 2 4
North-West becomes West and so on, 118. For which term has India been elected
what will East become ? to the UN Economic and Social Council
(ECOSOC) ?
(a) North-East
(a) 2021 – 23
(b) South-West (b) 2022 – 24
(c) North-West (c) 2022 – 26
(d) 2021 – 25
(d) South-East
119. When does a defeated candidate lose
security deposit in elections ?
115. The height of Rakesh and Rahul is
(a) When a defeated candidate
40% and 80% respectively more than secures less than the number of
that of Ramesh. What is the ratio of votes received by the NOTA
height of Rakesh and Rahul ? (b) When a defeated candidate
receives lowest number of votes
(a) 6:7
(c) When a defeated candidate who
(b) 5:6 fails to secure more than
(c) 7:9 one-sixth of the valid votes polled
in the constituency
(d) 1:2
(d) When a defeated candidate who
fails to secure more than the
116. A boatman goes 4 km against the number of invalid votes
current of the stream in 2 hours and 120. Lonar Lake, also known as Lonar
goes 3 km along the current in crater, is a notified National
30 minutes. How long will it take to go Geo-heritage Monument, saline, soda
lake, is located in which of the
9 km in stationary water ? following States ?
(a) 2 hours 15 minutes (a) Maharashtra
(b) 1 hour 45 minutes (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) 1 hour 30 minutes (c) Chattisgarh
(d) 2 hours (d) Odisha

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( B – 14 )


SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( B – 15 )


SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( B – 16 )


Booklet Sr. No.
*0C* Question Booklet
Set
Candidate’s Name ________________________________________________________
Father’s Name ____________________________________________________________

Date of Birth :
D D M M Y Y Y Y
C
OMR Response Sheet No. ____________________________________ Roll No. ___________________________

Candidate’s Signature : Total Questions : 120]


(Please sign in the box) Time Allowed : 2 Hours]

1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time he/she is told to do so by the Invigilation
Staff. However, in the meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and
subsequently fill the appropriate columns given above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may
also fill the relevant boxes out of 1 to 9 of the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) response sheet,
supplied separately.
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in the
OMR sheet. Use of ink pen or any other pen is not allowed.
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or
illegible or incomplete.
4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 120 minutes, except for
orthopedically/visually impaired candidates, who would be given 40 extra minutes, by marking
correct responses on the OMR sheet.
5. The question paper booklet has 16 pages.
6. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire
booklet to confirm that the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages printed correctly
and there are no blank pages. In case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then
the candidate should IMMEDIATELY bring this fact to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and
obtain a new booklet of the same series as given earlier.
7. The serial number of the new Question booklet if issued for some reason should be entered in
the relevant column of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their
record regarding the change in the serial no. of Question booklet.
8. The paper consists of total 300 Marks. Each question shall carry 2.5 marks. There are four
options for each question and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on
the OMR response sheet.
9. There is negative marking (0.5 marks for each question) for questions wrongly answered by the
candidate.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before answering
the questions and check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact.

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (C–1)


1. In an isolated reinforced concrete 5. A truss containing j joints and m
footing of effective depth “d”, the stress members, will be a simple truss if
in punching shear is checked
(a) m = 2j – 3
(a) at the face of the column
(b) j = 2m – 3
(b) at a distance d/2 away from the
(c) m = 3j – 2
face of the column
(d) j = 3m – 2
(c) at a distance d/2 away from the
centre of the column
6. A rectangular beam 20 cm wide is
(d) at the centre of the column
subjected to a maximum shearing force
2. The bulk modulus of elasticity of a of 10,000 kg, the corresponding
material is twice its modulus of maximum shearing stress being
rigidity. The Poisson’s ratio of the 30 kg/cm2. The depth of the beam is
material is
(a) 15 cm
(a) 3/7
(b) 20 cm
(b) 4/7
(c) 25 cm
(c) 2/7
(d) 1/7 (d) 30 cm

3. At a certain point in a structural 7. The minimum percentage of steel in an


member, there are perpendicular RCC long column is
stresses 100 N/mm2 and 60 N/mm2,
(a) 0·8%
both tensile. What is the equivalent
(b) 0·6%
stress in simple tension, according to
the maximum principal strain theory ? (c) 1·0%
(Poisson’s ratio = 0·33) (d) 1·2%
(a) 75 N/mm2
(b) 60 N/mm2 8. The maximum bending moment for a
(c) 80 N/mm2 purlin of length L when subjected to a

(d) 120 N/mm2 distributed load W, may be taken as

WL
4. A steel rod of 20 mm diameter and (a)
8
3·14 m length is subjected to an axial
pull of 100 kN. If E = 200 kN/mm2, the WL
(b)
elongation of the rod will be 10

(a) 10 mm WL
(c)
(b) 2 mm 12
(c) 5 mm WL
(d)
(d) 4 mm 16

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (C–2)


9. The number of independent elastic 14. A rectangular bar of width b and
constants for homogeneous, isotropic height h is being used as a cantilever.
and elastic material that follows The loading is in a plane parallel to
Hooke’s law is the side b. The section modulus is
(a) 1
bh 3
(b) 2 (a)
12
(c) 3
(d) 9 bh 2
(b)
6
10. The angle between the plane of
maximum shear stress and the b2h
(c)
principal plane in a two-dimensional 6
stress block is (d) None of the above
(a) 30
(b) 45
15. The maximum twisting moment a
(c) 60 shaft can resist, is the product of the
(d) 90 permissible shear stress and
(a) moment of inertia
11. What is the ratio of flexural strength
(fcr) to the characteristic compressive (b) polar moment of inertia
strength of concrete (fck) of M 25 grade (c) polar modulus
concrete ?
(d) modulus of rigidity
(a) 0·12
(b) 0·17
(c) 0·14 16. Which of the following properties of
(d) 0·014 the building is not desirable in
earthquake-resistant design ?
12. A column splice is used to increase the (a) Strength
(a) connection with the slab
(b) Stiffness
(b) cross-sectional area of the column
(c) length of the column (c) Irregularity
(d) strength of the column (d) Ductility

13. A simply supported beam is subjected 17. The damping value to be taken into
to a concentrated load at the centre. account for the seismic analysis of
The deflection of the beam will become reinforced concrete buildings according
eight times when the length of the to IS : 1893 (2016) is
beam is increased by
(a) 5% of the critical damping
(a) two times
(b) 2% of the critical damping
(b) four times
(c) 10% of the critical damping
(c) six times
(d) 7% of the critical damping
(d) eight times
JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (C–3)
18. If ‘tf’ is flowing-through period and 21. Which of the following does not cause
‘td’ is detention period for a permanent hardness in water ?
sedimentation tank, then its (a) Sulphate
displacement efficiency is given (b) Chloride
by ________ . (c) Nitrate
td (d) Bicarbonate
(a)
tf
22. The ratio of 5-day BOD to ultimate
(t d – t f ) BOD is about
(b)
td
(a) 1/3
tf (b) 3/4
(c)
td
(c) 2/3
(t f – t d ) (d) 5/4
(d)
tf
23. The pathogens can be killed by
19. The type of valve which is provided to (a) Nitrification
control the flow of water in the (b) Chlorination
distribution system at street corners
and where the pipelines intersect is (c) Oxidation
__________ . (d) None of the above
(a) Reflux Valve
24. The chemical compound which is
(b) Sluice Valve insoluble in water, formed when alum
(c) Air Valve is added to water is
(d) Scour Valve (a) Al(OH)3
(b) CaSO4
20. Match the contents in Column I and (c) CO2
Column II and select the correct option (d) Ca(OH)3
from the following :
Column I Column II 25. As per IS : 1498 – 1970, what is
P. Grit chamber 1. Zone settling the basis for sub-classification of
fine-grained soils ?
Q. Secondary 2. Stoke’s law
(a) Mohr’s Circle
settling tank
R. Activated 3. Aerobic (b) Newmark’s Chart
sludge process (c) Plasticity Chart
S. Trickling filter 4. Contact (d) Webster Chart
stabilisation
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 26. The seepage pressure always acts in
(a) horizontal direction
(b) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(b) vertically downward direction
(c) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(c) vertically upward direction
(d) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (d) the direction of seepage flow

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (C–4)


27. The void ratio of a sand sample in its 32. Cant deficiency occurs when a vehicle
loosest state is 0·6 and the difference travels around a curve at
between maximum and minimum void
ratio is 0·3. What will be the void ratio (a) booked speed
of the sand for a relative density of (b) speed lower than the equilibrium
66·6% ?
speed
(a) 0·3
(b) 0·4 (c) speed higher than the
(c) 0·5 equilibrium speed
(d) 0·6 (d) equilibrium speed
28. The following data were noted from an
irrigation field : Field capacity = 20%, 33. An Enoscope is used to determine the
Permanent wilting point = 10%,
Permissible depletion of available soil (a) space-mean speed
moisture = 50%, Dry unit weight of soil
(b) time-mean speed
= 15 kN/m3, Effective rainfall = 50 mm.
The net irrigation requirement per (c) spot speed
metre depth of soil will be
(a) 75 mm (d) traffic density
(b) 125 mm
(c) 50 mm 34. Composite sleeper index is the index of
(d) 25 mm (a) hardness and strength
29. The maximum particle size for which (b) strength and toughness
Darcy’s law is applicable is
(a) 0·1 mm (c) toughness and wear resistance
(b) 0·3 mm (d) wear resistance and hardness
(c) 0·5 mm
(d) 0·8 mm
35. A channel with a silt factor of 1·1 has a
30. A coarse-grained soil has a void ratio mean velocity of 0·88 m/s. What will
0·75, and specific gravity as 2·75. The be its hydraulic mean radius as per
critical gradient at which quick sand Lacey’s theory ?
condition occurs, is
(a) 1·95 m
(a) 0·25
(b) 0·5 (b) 1·76 m
(c) 0·75 (c) 1·63 m
(d) 1·00 (d) 1·50 m
31. The transition curve used in the
horizontal alignment of highways as 36. Duty on capacity is also known as
per IRC is
(a) Capacity Factor
(a) lemniscate
(b) Time Factor
(b) spiral
(c) cubic parabola (c) Root Zone Depth
(d) All of the above (d) Full Supply Coefficient

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (C–5)


37. A silt control device consisting of a 42. In an earthwork construction, a mass
number of rectangular tunnels haul diagram is a diagram showing the
provided parallel to the axis of head (a) cross-section of the site
regulator and terminating near the
(b) longitudinal section of the site
under-sluiced weir to allow the clear
water to flow through the head (c) cumulative volume of earthwork
regulator is called and the haulage
(a) Silt ejector (d) amount of cutting and filling
along the length
(b) Silt tunnel
(c) Silt excluder 43. Which of the following expressions is
(d) Under sluice used to calculate ‘Annual Depreciation’
by straight line method ? Where ‘Ci’ is
38. Which of the following the original value, ‘Cs’ is the scrap
pollution-control devices is the most
value and ‘N’ is the life of structure in
effective ?
years.
(a) Dynamic precipitator
(a) (Cs – Ci)/N
(b) Spray tower
(b) (Ci – Cs)/N
(c) Electrostatic precipitator
(d) Wet cyclonic scrubber (c) Cs/(N  Ci)
(d) (Ci + Cs)/N
39. The maximum permissible noise level
to which a man working in a chemical 44. The most accurate cost for a building
plant can be exposed for eight hours project is arrived at through
per day is about __________ decibels. (a) Typical bay method
(a) 60 (b) Cubical rate method
(b) 90 (c) Unit rate method
(c) 105 (d) Plinth area method
(d) 120
45. The unit of measurement for
40. Biodiesel is produced from oils or fats ‘backfilling’ in construction is
using (a) Running meter
(a) fermentation (b) Square meter
(b) transesterification (c) Cubic meter
(c) distillation (d) Quintal
(d) pasteurization
46. In the ‘Center Line Method’ of
41. No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for T junction, how much
estimation for plastering work in length has to be deducted from the
cement mortar for openings having total centreline length for a particular
size up to item ?
(a) 0·75 m2 (a) Half-width
(b) 0·5 m2 (b) Full-width
(c) 3 m2 (c) Quarter-width
(d) 1 m2 (d) Three-quarter-width

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (C–6)


47. Shear cracks between the main wall 52. The time by which an activity
and cross-wall can be corrected using completion time can be delayed
(a) grouting without affecting the early start of the
succeeding activities is known as
(b) rebuilding
(c) guining (a) Independent float
(d) toothing
(b) Interfering float
48. If the soil is dry, DPC for ground floor
consists of the layer of (c) Free float
(a) metal
(b) coarse sand (d) Total float
(c) fine sand
(d) concrete 53. Which of the following statements are
incorrect for Network Critical path ?
49. The main aim of maintaining any
structure is to (a) The path of critical activities,
(a) improve its appearance which links the start and end
events is critical path
(b) utilise the funds provided
(c) stabilise the structure to enable it (b) It is the path of activities having
to carry the functions for which it zero float
is constructed
(d) utilise services of incharge (c) The sum of the duration of the
maintenance critical activities along a critical
path gives the duration of the
50. If to is the optimistic time, tp is the project
pessimistic time, and tm is the most
likely time, then the expected time is (d) It is the path of events having
calculated as non-zero slack
(a) (to + tm + tp)/3
(b) (to + 2tm + tp)/4 54. If the employee is terminated or
(c) (to+ 4tm +tp)/5 removed from employment by the
(d) (to + 4tm + tp)/6 employer, the wage of that employee
should be paid within ____________
51. In CPM, the cost slope is determined days from the day on which he was
by removed or terminated.
(a) Normal cost/Crash cost
(a) 7
(b) (Normal cost – Crash cost)/
(Normal time – Crash time) (b) 15
(c) (Crash cost – Normal cost)/
(Normal time – Crash time) (c) 30

(d) Crash cost/Normal cost (d) 2

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (C–7)


55. Which of the following is not included 59. The two sub-methods adopted for
under the definition of wages given projection technique, via., Visual Ray
under the Payment of Wages Act, Method and Vanishing Point Method
1936 ? are for ________.
(a) Basic Wage (a) Isometric Projections
(b) Perspective Projections
(b) Dearness Allowance
(c) Orthographic Projections
(c) Incentive (d) Trigonometrical Projections
(d) Gratuity 60. The length-to-height ratio of a closed
filled arrowhead is
56. Which one of the following does not
contribute to waterlogging and is not a (a) 2:1
remedial measure for waterlogging ? (b) 1:1
(c) 3:1
(a) Excessive tapping of groundwater
and contour bunding (d) 1:3
61. The coefficient of friction depends on
(b) Frequent flooding and good
drainage for irrigated land (a) nature of surfaces only
(b) area of contact only
(c) Seepage from unlined canals and
(c) relative speed of the surfaces
water courses
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Inadequate drainage and contour
62. A block resting on a plane just begins
bunding
to slide when the plane is inclined at
57. Efflorescence is the ill effect of 30° to the horizontal. The coefficient of
static friction is
(a) dampness (a) 1/2
(b) growth of vegetation (b) 1/ 3
(c) action of weathering agents (c) 3/2

(d) chemical action of mortar on (d) 1


masonry 63. The beam shown in the figure below is
in equilibrium. The distance ‘a’ is
58. The minimum water content at which
the soil just begins to crumble when
rolled into thread 3 mm in diameter is
called

(a) Shrinkage limit

(b) Liquid limit (a) 1m


(b) 2m
(c) Plastic limit
(c) 3m
(d) Shrinkage ratio (d) 4m

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (C–8)


64. The centre of gravity of a T-section 68. When the water surface coincides with
150 mm  200 mm  50 mm from its the top edge of a rectangular vertical
bottom is at gate of 30 m (wide)  6 m (depth), then
the depth of the centre of pressure is
(a) 1·8 m
(b) 2m
(c) 3m
(d) 4m

69. Venturimeter is used to measure the


(a) velocity of flowing liquid
(a) 100 mm
(b) discharge of flowing liquid
(b) 125 mm
(c) pressure of flowing liquid
(c) 150 mm
(d) 175 mm (d) pressure difference between two
points in a pipeline
65. A floating body is said to be in a state
of stable equilibrium 70. A flow is called supersonic if the
(a) when its metacentric height is (a) mach number is between 1 and 6
zero (b) mach number is between 7 and 9
(b) when the metacentre is below the (c) velocity of flow is very high
centre of gravity (d) discharge is difficult to measure
(c) when the metacentre is above the
71. According to Darcy’s formula, the loss
centre of gravity
of head due to friction in the pipe is
(d) only when its centre of gravity is (where f = Darcy’s coefficient,
below its centre of buoyancy l = Length of the pipe, v = Velocity
of the liquid in the pipe, and
66. The height of hydraulic jump is equal
d = Diameter of the pipe)
to
(a) sequent depth (a) 3flv2/2gd

(b) initial depth (b) 4flv2/2gd


(c) difference in conjugate depths (c) flv2/2gd
(d) difference in alternating depths (d) flv2/gd
67. Find the actual discharge from an 72. If a jet of water is coming out from a
orifice, when the coefficient of nozzle with a velocity 9·81 m/s, the
discharge is 0·6 and the theoretical angle of elevation being 30, then the
discharge is 0·018 cumec.
time to reach the highest point is
(a) 0·0108 cumec (a) 0·25 s
(b) 0·00108 cumec (b) 0·50 s
(c) 0·108 cumec (c) 1·0 s
(d) 1·08 cumec (d) 1·5 s

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (C–9)


73. The discharge through a 100 mm 78. The correction for sag is
diameter external mouthpiece fitted to (a) always zero
the side of a large vessel is (b) always additive
0·05948 m3/s. The head over the (c) always subtractive
mouthpiece when coefficient of
(d) sometimes additive and
discharge Cd = 0·855, is __________.
sometimes subtractive
(a) 2m
79. Closed contours with lower value
(b) 2·5 m
inwards, represent a
(c) 3·0 m (a) hill
(d) 4·0 m (b) depression
74. For two-dimensional flow, the stream (c) plain surface
function is given by ψ = 2xy. The (d) None of the above
velocity at a point (3, 4) is
80. The bearings of the lines AB and BC
(a) 6 m/sec
are 14630 and 6830. The included
(b) 8 m/sec
angle ABC is
(c) 10 m/sec (a) 102
(d) 12 m/sec (b) 78
75. Gauge pressure is (c) 45
(a) absolute pressure – atmospheric (d) 85
pressure
(b) absolute pressure + atmospheric 81. Which of the following methods
pressure estimates best the area of an irregular
and curved boundary ?
(c) atmospheric pressure – absolute
(a) Simpson’s method
pressure
(b) Trapezoidal method
(d) None of the above
(c) Mid-ordinate method
76. If the Reduced Level of Bench Mark is (d) Average ordinate method
105 m, the back sight is 1·235 m and
the foresight is 1·920 m, then what is 82. The maximum permissible water
the Reduced Level of forward station ? absorption (in % by weight) for
(a) 101·845 m common burnt clay building bricks of
class up to 12·5 is
(b) 108·155 m
(a) 10
(c) 104·315 m
(b) 15
(d) 105·685 m (c) 20
77. For a distance of 1800 m, what will be (d) 25
the corrections for curvature and
refraction ? 83. Which of the following does not have a
pozzolanic property ?
(a) 0·254 m; 0·218 m
(a) Fly Ash
(b) 0·254 m; 0·036 m
(b) Standard Sand
(c) 0·036 m; 0·254 m
(c) Ordinary Portland Cement
(d) 0·036 m; 0·218 m (d) Silica Fume

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( C – 10 )


84. Distemper is used to coat 90. The fineness of the cement and the
(a) interior surfaces not exposed to development of cement strength are
weather (a) not related
(b) external concrete surfaces (b) randomly related
(c) compound walls (c) directly proportional
(d) woodwork (d) inversely proportional

85. For a good building stone-crushing 91. A covering of concrete placed on the
strength should be more than exposed top of an external wall, is
known as
(a) 100 MPa
(a) Coping
(b) 150 MPa
(b) Lintel
(c) 50 MPa
(c) Cornice
(d) 200 MPa
(d) Frieze
86. Addition of pozzolana to ordinary 92. The maximum bending stress in
Portland cement increases T-section will occur at
(a) permeability (a) neutral axis
(b) heat of hydration (b) extreme fibre in the web
(c) shrinkage (c) junction of web and flange
(d) bleeding (d) extreme fibre in the flange

87. For the manufacture of Portland 93. Find the bending moment at the fixed
cement, the typical proportions of raw end for a cantilever beam of span 4 m
materials used, are subjected to a concentrated load of
(a) lime 63%; silica 22%; other 10 KN at centre and a moment of
ingredients 15% 20 KN-m.
(b) lime 22%; silica 63%; other (a) 40 KN-m
ingredients 15% (b) 60 KN-m
(c) silica 40%; lime 40%; other (c) 30 KN-m
ingredients 20% (d) 10 KN-m
(d) silica 70%; lime 20%; other
94. A system of pre-stressing in which the
ingredients 10%
wires are anchored in layers by
wedging sandwich plates is the
88. Seasoning of timber is
(a) Gifford Udall system
(a) a process of removing sap
(b) Hoyer system
(b) creosoting
(c) Freyssinet system
(c) painting with sodium silicate
(d) Magnel Blaton system
(d) coating with tar
95. The shape factor for an I section is
89. The standard size of masonry bricks is approximately
(a) 18 cm  8 cm  8 cm (a) 3·15
(b) 19 cm  9 cm  9 cm (b) 2·75
(c) 20 cm  10 cm  10 cm (c) 1·75
(d) 21 cm  11 cm  11 cm (d) 1·15

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( C – 11 )


96. The deflection and slope of a uniformly 101. The name Lovlina Borgohain is
loaded cantilever beam are given as associated with which sport in India ?
18 mm and 0·01 radian, respectively. (a) Archery
The length of the beam is (b) Boxing
(a) 2 m (c) Cycling
(b) 2·2 m
(d) Fencing
(c) 2·4 m 102. Which State is the first in India to
(d) 2·6 m implement the National Education
Policy, 2020 ?
97. The materials which have the same
elastic properties in all directions are (a) Gujarat
called (b) Madhya Pradesh
(a) Isotropic (c) Karnataka
(b) Homogeneous (d) Assam
(c) Linear elastic material Directions (Question Nos. 103 and 104) :
(d) None of the above Read the following information carefully to
answer the questions :
98. The maximum bending moment of a
simply supported beam of uniform I. There are five students Suresh,
rectangular cross-section Mukesh, Vineet, Rahul and Soham,
(20 cm wide  30 cm deep) is calculated each with different heights.
as 4·5 t-m. The maximum bending II. Exactly one person has height in
stress included in the beam will be between Soham and Suresh.
(a) 100 kg/cm2 III. Mukesh is taller than Suresh.
(b) 125 kg/cm2 IV. When arranged in order of heights,
Vineet takes the middlemost position.
(c) 150 kg/cm2
103. Which of the following statements is
(d) 200 kg/cm2 definitely correct, when the students
are arranged in descending order of
99. As per IS : 456 : 2000, the minimum
their heights according to the
percentage of reinforcement required
information given above ?
for slabs, when mild steel bars are
used is (a) There are exactly two persons in
(a) 0·12 between Mukesh and Rahul
(b) 0·15 (b) Rahul is taller than Vineet
(c) 0·30 (c) Mukesh is taller than Soham
(d) 0·45 (d) Rahul is the tallest
104. Which of the following statements is
100. The capacity of a material to absorb definitely correct, when the students
energy when it is deformed elastically are arranged in descending order of
and then, upon unloading to have this their heights according to the
energy recovered is called information given above ? (Tallest to
shortest)
(a) Elasticity (a) Suresh, Vineet, Soham
(b) Resilience (b) Soham, Vineet, Suresh
(c) Tensile strength (c) Vineet, Suresh, Rahul
(d) Ductility (d) Mukesh, Suresh, Rahul

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( C – 12 )


105. Pointing to a girl, a lady said, “She is 109. The price of 2 Jeans and 4 T-shirts is
the only grandchild to the parents of < 1,600. With the same money, one
the person I am married to.” How is can buy 1 Jeans and 6 T-shirts. If one
the lady related to the girl ? wants to buy 3 Jeans and 5 T-shirts,
(a) Aunt how much shall he have to pay ?

(b) Daughter (a) < 2,200


(c) Mother (b) < 2,600
(d) Sister (c) < 2,500
(d) < 2,400
106. In a certain code “LONDON” is
written as “OLMWLM”. Then how will 110. If South-West becomes North,
“BANGALORE” be written ? North-West becomes West and so on,
(a) YZMOLZTIV what will East become ?
(b) VITZLOMYZ (a) North-East
(c) YZMTZOLIV (b) South-West
(d) VILOZTMZY (c) North-West
(d) South-East
107. If ‘M’ means ‘division’, ‘S’ means
‘addition’, ‘A’ means ‘subtraction’, and 111. The height of Rakesh and Rahul is
‘D’ means ‘multiplication’, then what 40% and 80% respectively more than
will be the value of the following that of Ramesh. What is the ratio of
expression ? height of Rakesh and Rahul ?
12 M 6 S 5 D 8 A 9 = ? (a) 6:7
(a) 28 (b) 5:6
(b) 33 (c) 7:9
(c) 36 (d) 1:2
(d) 54
112. A boatman goes 4 km against the
108. In the following number series, find current of the stream in 2 hours and
the missing number ? goes 3 km along the current in
30 minutes. How long will it take to go
7, 5, 9, 8, 13, 17, 21 _____, 37.
9 km in stationary water ?
(a) 44
(a) 2 hours 15 minutes
(b) 25
(b) 1 hour 45 minutes
(c) 29
(c) 1 hour 30 minutes
(d) 31
(d) 2 hours

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( C – 13 )


113. Match the following : 117. Choose the correct option :
Dam River When light travels from one medium
to another medium
A. Nagarjuna Sagar 1. Kaveri (a) velocity, wavelength and
B. Mettur 2. Narmada frequency do not change
(b) velocity, wavelength and
C. Hirakud 3. Krishna frequency remains same
D. Indira Sagar 4. Mahanadi (c) velocity and wavelength change
and frequency remains same
A B C D (d) velocity and frequency change
(a) 1 4 2 3 and wavelength remains same
(b) 3 2 4 1
118. Consider the following statements :
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 1 3 2 4 Statement I : Rafale fighter jets have
the ability to engage any jets from a
114. For which term has India been elected long distance without the risk of being
to the UN Economic and Social Council tracked. In addition, the air-to-ground
(ECOSOC) ? SCALP missile can precisely track
(a) 2021 – 23 down any target with ease.
(b) 2022 – 24 Statement II : Rafale features beyond
(c) 2022 – 26 visual range air-to-air missile that is
(d) 2021 – 25 the best today. The aircraft can take
out the enemy aircraft from a range of
115. When does a defeated candidate lose
more than 100 kms.
security deposit in elections ?
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
(a) When a defeated candidate correct ?
secures less than the number of
(a) Only II
votes received by the NOTA
(b) Only I
(b) When a defeated candidate
(c) Both I and II
receives lowest number of votes
(d) Neither I nor II
(c) When a defeated candidate who
fails to secure more than
119. An infected person is less likely to
one-sixth of the valid votes polled
encounter a susceptible person when a
in the constituency
large proportion of the members of the
(d) When a defeated candidate who group are immune, is called
fails to secure more than the
(a) Active immunity
number of invalid votes
(b) Passive immunity
116. Lonar Lake, also known as Lonar (c) Herd immunity
crater, is a notified National (d) Specific immunity
Geo-heritage Monument, saline, soda
lake, is located in which of the 120. For 2021, The Dadasaheb Phalke
following States ? award was given to
(a) Maharashtra (a) Puneet Rajkumar
(b) Madhya Pradesh (b) Rajinikanth
(c) Chattisgarh
(c) Mohanlal
(d) Odisha
(d) Shah Rukh Khan

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( C – 14 )


SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( C – 15 )


SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( C – 16 )


Booklet Sr. No.
*0D* Question Booklet
Set
Candidate’s Name ________________________________________________________
Father’s Name ____________________________________________________________

Date of Birth :
D D M M Y Y Y Y
D
OMR Response Sheet No. ____________________________________ Roll No. ___________________________

Candidate’s Signature : Total Questions : 120]


(Please sign in the box) Time Allowed : 2 Hours]

1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time he/she is told to do so by the Invigilation
Staff. However, in the meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and
subsequently fill the appropriate columns given above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may
also fill the relevant boxes out of 1 to 9 of the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) response sheet,
supplied separately.
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in the
OMR sheet. Use of ink pen or any other pen is not allowed.
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or
illegible or incomplete.
4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 120 minutes, except for
orthopedically/visually impaired candidates, who would be given 40 extra minutes, by marking
correct responses on the OMR sheet.
5. The question paper booklet has 16 pages.
6. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire
booklet to confirm that the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages printed correctly
and there are no blank pages. In case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then
the candidate should IMMEDIATELY bring this fact to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and
obtain a new booklet of the same series as given earlier.
7. The serial number of the new Question booklet if issued for some reason should be entered in
the relevant column of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their
record regarding the change in the serial no. of Question booklet.
8. The paper consists of total 300 Marks. Each question shall carry 2.5 marks. There are four
options for each question and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on
the OMR response sheet.
9. There is negative marking (0.5 marks for each question) for questions wrongly answered by the
candidate.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before answering
the questions and check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact.

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (D–1)


1. A silt control device consisting of a 6. In an earthwork construction, a mass
number of rectangular tunnels haul diagram is a diagram showing the
provided parallel to the axis of head (a) cross-section of the site
regulator and terminating near the
(b) longitudinal section of the site
under-sluiced weir to allow the clear
water to flow through the head (c) cumulative volume of earthwork
regulator is called and the haulage
(a) Silt ejector (d) amount of cutting and filling
along the length
(b) Silt tunnel
(c) Silt excluder 7. Which of the following expressions is
(d) Under sluice used to calculate ‘Annual Depreciation’
by straight line method ? Where ‘Ci’ is
2. Which of the following the original value, ‘Cs’ is the scrap
pollution-control devices is the most
value and ‘N’ is the life of structure in
effective ?
years.
(a) Dynamic precipitator
(a) (Cs – Ci)/N
(b) Spray tower
(b) (Ci – Cs)/N
(c) Electrostatic precipitator
(d) Wet cyclonic scrubber (c) Cs/(N  Ci)
(d) (Ci + Cs)/N
3. The maximum permissible noise level
to which a man working in a chemical 8. The most accurate cost for a building
plant can be exposed for eight hours project is arrived at through
per day is about __________ decibels. (a) Typical bay method
(a) 60 (b) Cubical rate method
(b) 90 (c) Unit rate method
(c) 105 (d) Plinth area method
(d) 120
9. The unit of measurement for
4. Biodiesel is produced from oils or fats ‘backfilling’ in construction is
using (a) Running meter
(a) fermentation (b) Square meter
(b) transesterification (c) Cubic meter
(c) distillation (d) Quintal
(d) pasteurization
10. In the ‘Center Line Method’ of
5. No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for T junction, how much
estimation for plastering work in length has to be deducted from the
cement mortar for openings having total centreline length for a particular
size up to item ?
(a) 0·75 m2 (a) Half-width
(b) 0·5 m2 (b) Full-width
(c) 3 m2 (c) Quarter-width
(d) 1 m2 (d) Three-quarter-width

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (D–2)


11. Shear cracks between the main wall 16. The time by which an activity
and cross-wall can be corrected using completion time can be delayed
(a) grouting without affecting the early start of the
succeeding activities is known as
(b) rebuilding
(c) guining (a) Independent float
(d) toothing
(b) Interfering float
12. If the soil is dry, DPC for ground floor
consists of the layer of (c) Free float
(a) metal
(b) coarse sand (d) Total float
(c) fine sand
(d) concrete 17. Which of the following statements are
incorrect for Network Critical path ?
13. The main aim of maintaining any
structure is to (a) The path of critical activities,
(a) improve its appearance which links the start and end
events is critical path
(b) utilise the funds provided
(c) stabilise the structure to enable it (b) It is the path of activities having
to carry the functions for which it zero float
is constructed
(d) utilise services of incharge (c) The sum of the duration of the
maintenance critical activities along a critical
path gives the duration of the
14. If to is the optimistic time, tp is the project
pessimistic time, and tm is the most
likely time, then the expected time is (d) It is the path of events having
calculated as non-zero slack
(a) (to + tm + tp)/3
(b) (to + 2tm + tp)/4 18. If the employee is terminated or
(c) (to+ 4tm +tp)/5 removed from employment by the
(d) (to + 4tm + tp)/6 employer, the wage of that employee
should be paid within ____________
15. In CPM, the cost slope is determined days from the day on which he was
by removed or terminated.
(a) Normal cost/Crash cost
(a) 7
(b) (Normal cost – Crash cost)/
(Normal time – Crash time) (b) 15
(c) (Crash cost – Normal cost)/
(Normal time – Crash time) (c) 30

(d) Crash cost/Normal cost (d) 2

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (D–3)


19. Which of the following is not included 23. The two sub-methods adopted for
under the definition of wages given projection technique, via., Visual Ray
under the Payment of Wages Act, Method and Vanishing Point Method
1936 ? are for ________.
(a) Basic Wage (a) Isometric Projections
(b) Perspective Projections
(b) Dearness Allowance
(c) Orthographic Projections
(c) Incentive (d) Trigonometrical Projections
(d) Gratuity 24. The length-to-height ratio of a closed
filled arrowhead is
20. Which one of the following does not
contribute to waterlogging and is not a (a) 2:1
remedial measure for waterlogging ? (b) 1:1
(c) 3:1
(a) Excessive tapping of groundwater
and contour bunding (d) 1:3
25. The coefficient of friction depends on
(b) Frequent flooding and good
drainage for irrigated land (a) nature of surfaces only
(b) area of contact only
(c) Seepage from unlined canals and
(c) relative speed of the surfaces
water courses
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Inadequate drainage and contour
26. A block resting on a plane just begins
bunding
to slide when the plane is inclined at
21. Efflorescence is the ill effect of 30° to the horizontal. The coefficient of
static friction is
(a) dampness (a) 1/2
(b) growth of vegetation (b) 1/ 3
(c) action of weathering agents (c) 3/2

(d) chemical action of mortar on (d) 1


masonry 27. The beam shown in the figure below is
in equilibrium. The distance ‘a’ is
22. The minimum water content at which
the soil just begins to crumble when
rolled into thread 3 mm in diameter is
called

(a) Shrinkage limit

(b) Liquid limit (a) 1m


(b) 2m
(c) Plastic limit
(c) 3m
(d) Shrinkage ratio (d) 4m

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (D–4)


28. The centre of gravity of a T-section 32. When the water surface coincides with
150 mm  200 mm  50 mm from its the top edge of a rectangular vertical
bottom is at gate of 30 m (wide)  6 m (depth), then
the depth of the centre of pressure is
(a) 1·8 m
(b) 2m
(c) 3m
(d) 4m

33. Venturimeter is used to measure the


(a) velocity of flowing liquid
(a) 100 mm
(b) discharge of flowing liquid
(b) 125 mm
(c) pressure of flowing liquid
(c) 150 mm
(d) 175 mm (d) pressure difference between two
points in a pipeline
29. A floating body is said to be in a state
of stable equilibrium 34. A flow is called supersonic if the
(a) when its metacentric height is (a) mach number is between 1 and 6
zero (b) mach number is between 7 and 9
(b) when the metacentre is below the (c) velocity of flow is very high
centre of gravity (d) discharge is difficult to measure
(c) when the metacentre is above the
35. According to Darcy’s formula, the loss
centre of gravity
of head due to friction in the pipe is
(d) only when its centre of gravity is (where f = Darcy’s coefficient,
below its centre of buoyancy l = Length of the pipe, v = Velocity
of the liquid in the pipe, and
30. The height of hydraulic jump is equal
d = Diameter of the pipe)
to
(a) sequent depth (a) 3flv2/2gd

(b) initial depth (b) 4flv2/2gd


(c) difference in conjugate depths (c) flv2/2gd
(d) difference in alternating depths (d) flv2/gd
31. Find the actual discharge from an 36. If a jet of water is coming out from a
orifice, when the coefficient of nozzle with a velocity 9·81 m/s, the
discharge is 0·6 and the theoretical angle of elevation being 30, then the
discharge is 0·018 cumec.
time to reach the highest point is
(a) 0·0108 cumec (a) 0·25 s
(b) 0·00108 cumec (b) 0·50 s
(c) 0·108 cumec (c) 1·0 s
(d) 1·08 cumec (d) 1·5 s

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (D–5)


37. The discharge through a 100 mm 42. The correction for sag is
diameter external mouthpiece fitted to (a) always zero
the side of a large vessel is (b) always additive
0·05948 m3/s. The head over the (c) always subtractive
mouthpiece when coefficient of
(d) sometimes additive and
discharge Cd = 0·855, is __________.
sometimes subtractive
(a) 2m
43. Closed contours with lower value
(b) 2·5 m
inwards, represent a
(c) 3·0 m (a) hill
(d) 4·0 m (b) depression
38. For two-dimensional flow, the stream (c) plain surface
function is given by ψ = 2xy. The (d) None of the above
velocity at a point (3, 4) is
44. The bearings of the lines AB and BC
(a) 6 m/sec
are 14630 and 6830. The included
(b) 8 m/sec
angle ABC is
(c) 10 m/sec (a) 102
(d) 12 m/sec (b) 78
39. Gauge pressure is (c) 45
(a) absolute pressure – atmospheric (d) 85
pressure
(b) absolute pressure + atmospheric 45. Which of the following methods
pressure estimates best the area of an irregular
and curved boundary ?
(c) atmospheric pressure – absolute
(a) Simpson’s method
pressure
(b) Trapezoidal method
(d) None of the above
(c) Mid-ordinate method
40. If the Reduced Level of Bench Mark is (d) Average ordinate method
105 m, the back sight is 1·235 m and
the foresight is 1·920 m, then what is 46. The maximum permissible water
the Reduced Level of forward station ? absorption (in % by weight) for
(a) 101·845 m common burnt clay building bricks of
class up to 12·5 is
(b) 108·155 m
(a) 10
(c) 104·315 m
(b) 15
(d) 105·685 m (c) 20
41. For a distance of 1800 m, what will be (d) 25
the corrections for curvature and
refraction ? 47. Which of the following does not have a
pozzolanic property ?
(a) 0·254 m; 0·218 m
(a) Fly Ash
(b) 0·254 m; 0·036 m
(b) Standard Sand
(c) 0·036 m; 0·254 m
(c) Ordinary Portland Cement
(d) 0·036 m; 0·218 m (d) Silica Fume

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (D–6)


48. Distemper is used to coat 54. The fineness of the cement and the
(a) interior surfaces not exposed to development of cement strength are
weather (a) not related
(b) external concrete surfaces (b) randomly related
(c) compound walls (c) directly proportional
(d) woodwork (d) inversely proportional

49. For a good building stone-crushing 55. A covering of concrete placed on the
strength should be more than exposed top of an external wall, is
known as
(a) 100 MPa
(a) Coping
(b) 150 MPa
(b) Lintel
(c) 50 MPa
(c) Cornice
(d) 200 MPa
(d) Frieze
50. Addition of pozzolana to ordinary 56. The maximum bending stress in
Portland cement increases T-section will occur at
(a) permeability (a) neutral axis
(b) heat of hydration (b) extreme fibre in the web
(c) shrinkage (c) junction of web and flange
(d) bleeding (d) extreme fibre in the flange

51. For the manufacture of Portland 57. Find the bending moment at the fixed
cement, the typical proportions of raw end for a cantilever beam of span 4 m
materials used, are subjected to a concentrated load of
(a) lime 63%; silica 22%; other 10 KN at centre and a moment of
ingredients 15% 20 KN-m.
(b) lime 22%; silica 63%; other (a) 40 KN-m
ingredients 15% (b) 60 KN-m
(c) silica 40%; lime 40%; other (c) 30 KN-m
ingredients 20% (d) 10 KN-m
(d) silica 70%; lime 20%; other
58. A system of pre-stressing in which the
ingredients 10%
wires are anchored in layers by
wedging sandwich plates is the
52. Seasoning of timber is
(a) Gifford Udall system
(a) a process of removing sap
(b) Hoyer system
(b) creosoting
(c) Freyssinet system
(c) painting with sodium silicate
(d) Magnel Blaton system
(d) coating with tar
59. The shape factor for an I section is
53. The standard size of masonry bricks is approximately
(a) 18 cm  8 cm  8 cm (a) 3·15
(b) 19 cm  9 cm  9 cm (b) 2·75
(c) 20 cm  10 cm  10 cm (c) 1·75
(d) 21 cm  11 cm  11 cm (d) 1·15

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (D–7)


60. The deflection and slope of a uniformly 65. In an isolated reinforced concrete
loaded cantilever beam are given as footing of effective depth “d”, the stress
18 mm and 0·01 radian, respectively. in punching shear is checked
The length of the beam is (a) at the face of the column
(a) 2 m
(b) at a distance d/2 away from the
(b) 2·2 m
face of the column
(c) 2·4 m
(d) 2·6 m (c) at a distance d/2 away from the
centre of the column
61. The materials which have the same
(d) at the centre of the column
elastic properties in all directions are
called
66. The bulk modulus of elasticity of a
(a) Isotropic
material is twice its modulus of
(b) Homogeneous
rigidity. The Poisson’s ratio of the
(c) Linear elastic material
material is
(d) None of the above
(a) 3/7
62. The maximum bending moment of a
(b) 4/7
simply supported beam of uniform
rectangular cross-section (c) 2/7
(20 cm wide  30 cm deep) is calculated (d) 1/7
as 4·5 t-m. The maximum bending
stress included in the beam will be 67. At a certain point in a structural
(a) 100 kg/cm2 member, there are perpendicular
(b) 125 kg/cm2 stresses 100 N/mm2 and 60 N/mm2,
(c) 150 kg/cm2 both tensile. What is the equivalent
(d) 200 kg/cm2 stress in simple tension, according to
the maximum principal strain theory ?
63. As per IS : 456 : 2000, the minimum
(Poisson’s ratio = 0·33)
percentage of reinforcement required
for slabs, when mild steel bars are (a) 75 N/mm2
used is (b) 60 N/mm2
(a) 0·12 (c) 80 N/mm2
(b) 0·15
(d) 120 N/mm2
(c) 0·30
(d) 0·45 68. A steel rod of 20 mm diameter and
64. The capacity of a material to absorb 3·14 m length is subjected to an axial
energy when it is deformed elastically pull of 100 kN. If E = 200 kN/mm2, the
and then, upon unloading to have this elongation of the rod will be
energy recovered is called
(a) 10 mm
(a) Elasticity
(b) 2 mm
(b) Resilience
(c) Tensile strength (c) 5 mm
(d) Ductility (d) 4 mm

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (D–8)


69. A truss containing j joints and m 73. The number of independent elastic
members, will be a simple truss if constants for homogeneous, isotropic
and elastic material that follows
(a) m = 2j – 3
Hooke’s law is
(b) j = 2m – 3 (a) 1
(c) m = 3j – 2 (b) 2
(d) j = 3m – 2 (c) 3
(d) 9
70. A rectangular beam 20 cm wide is
74. The angle between the plane of
subjected to a maximum shearing force maximum shear stress and the
of 10,000 kg, the corresponding principal plane in a two-dimensional
maximum shearing stress being stress block is
30 kg/cm2. The depth of the beam is (a) 30
(b) 45
(a) 15 cm
(c) 60
(b) 20 cm (d) 90
(c) 25 cm
75. What is the ratio of flexural strength
(d) 30 cm (fcr) to the characteristic compressive
strength of concrete (fck) of M 25 grade
71. The minimum percentage of steel in an concrete ?
RCC long column is (a) 0·12
(a) 0·8% (b) 0·17
(c) 0·14
(b) 0·6%
(d) 0·014
(c) 1·0%
(d) 1·2% 76. A column splice is used to increase the
(a) connection with the slab
72. The maximum bending moment for a (b) cross-sectional area of the column
(c) length of the column
purlin of length L when subjected to a
(d) strength of the column
distributed load W, may be taken as

WL 77. A simply supported beam is subjected


(a)
8 to a concentrated load at the centre.
The deflection of the beam will become
WL eight times when the length of the
(b)
10 beam is increased by
WL (a) two times
(c)
12 (b) four times
WL (c) six times
(d)
16 (d) eight times
JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) (D–9)
78. A rectangular bar of width b and 82. If ‘tf’ is flowing-through period and
height h is being used as a cantilever. ‘td’ is detention period for a
The loading is in a plane parallel to
sedimentation tank, then its
the side b. The section modulus is
displacement efficiency is given
bh 3 by ________ .
(a)
12 td
(a)
bh 2 tf
(b)
6 (t d – t f )
(b)
td
b2h
(c) tf
6 (c)
td
(d) None of the above
(t f – t d )
(d)
tf
79. The maximum twisting moment a
shaft can resist, is the product of the
permissible shear stress and 83. The type of valve which is provided to
control the flow of water in the
(a) moment of inertia distribution system at street corners
and where the pipelines intersect is
(b) polar moment of inertia __________ .
(c) polar modulus (a) Reflux Valve
(d) modulus of rigidity (b) Sluice Valve
(c) Air Valve
80. Which of the following properties of
(d) Scour Valve
the building is not desirable in
earthquake-resistant design ?
84. Match the contents in Column I and
(a) Strength Column II and select the correct option
(b) Stiffness from the following :
Column I Column II
(c) Irregularity
P. Grit chamber 1. Zone settling
(d) Ductility
Q. Secondary 2. Stoke’s law
settling tank
81. The damping value to be taken into R. Activated 3. Aerobic
account for the seismic analysis of sludge process
reinforced concrete buildings according S. Trickling filter 4. Contact
to IS : 1893 (2016) is stabilisation

(a) 5% of the critical damping (a) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4


(b) 2% of the critical damping (b) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(c) 10% of the critical damping (c) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(d) 7% of the critical damping (d) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( D – 10 )


85. Which of the following does not cause 91. The void ratio of a sand sample in its
permanent hardness in water ? loosest state is 0·6 and the difference
between maximum and minimum void
(a) Sulphate ratio is 0·3. What will be the void ratio
(b) Chloride of the sand for a relative density of
(c) Nitrate 66·6% ?
(a) 0·3
(d) Bicarbonate
(b) 0·4
86. The ratio of 5-day BOD to ultimate (c) 0·5
BOD is about (d) 0·6
(a) 1/3 92. The following data were noted from an
(b) 3/4 irrigation field : Field capacity = 20%,
Permanent wilting point = 10%,
(c) 2/3 Permissible depletion of available soil
(d) 5/4 moisture = 50%, Dry unit weight of soil
= 15 kN/m3, Effective rainfall = 50 mm.
87. The pathogens can be killed by The net irrigation requirement per
metre depth of soil will be
(a) Nitrification
(a) 75 mm
(b) Chlorination (b) 125 mm
(c) Oxidation (c) 50 mm
(d) None of the above (d) 25 mm

88. The chemical compound which is 93. The maximum particle size for which
insoluble in water, formed when alum Darcy’s law is applicable is
is added to water is (a) 0·1 mm
(a) Al(OH)3 (b) 0·3 mm
(c) 0·5 mm
(b) CaSO4
(d) 0·8 mm
(c) CO2
(d) Ca(OH)3 94. A coarse-grained soil has a void ratio
0·75, and specific gravity as 2·75. The
89. As per IS : 1498 – 1970, what is critical gradient at which quick sand
the basis for sub-classification of condition occurs, is
fine-grained soils ? (a) 0·25
(a) Mohr’s Circle (b) 0·5
(b) Newmark’s Chart (c) 0·75
(c) Plasticity Chart (d) 1·00
(d) Webster Chart 95. The transition curve used in the
horizontal alignment of highways as
90. The seepage pressure always acts in per IRC is
(a) horizontal direction (a) lemniscate
(b) vertically downward direction (b) spiral
(c) vertically upward direction (c) cubic parabola
(d) the direction of seepage flow (d) All of the above

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( D – 11 )


96. Cant deficiency occurs when a vehicle 101. Pointing to a girl, a lady said, “She is
travels around a curve at
the only grandchild to the parents of
(a) booked speed the person I am married to.” How is
(b) speed lower than the equilibrium the lady related to the girl ?
speed (a) Aunt
(c) speed higher than the (b) Daughter
equilibrium speed
(c) Mother
(d) equilibrium speed
(d) Sister

97. An Enoscope is used to determine the


102. In a certain code “LONDON” is
(a) space-mean speed written as “OLMWLM”. Then how will
(b) time-mean speed “BANGALORE” be written ?
(c) spot speed (a) YZMOLZTIV
(d) traffic density (b) VITZLOMYZ
(c) YZMTZOLIV
98. Composite sleeper index is the index of (d) VILOZTMZY
(a) hardness and strength
(b) strength and toughness 103. If ‘M’ means ‘division’, ‘S’ means
‘addition’, ‘A’ means ‘subtraction’, and
(c) toughness and wear resistance
‘D’ means ‘multiplication’, then what
(d) wear resistance and hardness will be the value of the following
expression ?
99. A channel with a silt factor of 1·1 has a 12 M 6 S 5 D 8 A 9 = ?
mean velocity of 0·88 m/s. What will
(a) 28
be its hydraulic mean radius as per
Lacey’s theory ? (b) 33

(a) 1·95 m (c) 36

(b) 1·76 m (d) 54

(c) 1·63 m
104. In the following number series, find
(d) 1·50 m
the missing number ?
7, 5, 9, 8, 13, 17, 21 _____, 37.
100. Duty on capacity is also known as
(a) 44
(a) Capacity Factor
(b) 25
(b) Time Factor
(c) 29
(c) Root Zone Depth
(d) Full Supply Coefficient (d) 31

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( D – 12 )


105. The price of 2 Jeans and 4 T-shirts is 109. Match the following :
< 1,600. With the same money, one Dam River
can buy 1 Jeans and 6 T-shirts. If one A. Nagarjuna Sagar 1. Kaveri
wants to buy 3 Jeans and 5 T-shirts,
B. Mettur 2. Narmada
how much shall he have to pay ?
C. Hirakud 3. Krishna
(a) < 2,200
D. Indira Sagar 4. Mahanadi
(b) < 2,600
A B C D
(c) < 2,500
(a) 1 4 2 3
(d) < 2,400 (b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 3 1 4 2
106. If South-West becomes North, (d) 1 3 2 4
North-West becomes West and so on, 110. For which term has India been elected
what will East become ? to the UN Economic and Social Council
(ECOSOC) ?
(a) North-East
(a) 2021 – 23
(b) South-West (b) 2022 – 24
(c) North-West (c) 2022 – 26
(d) 2021 – 25
(d) South-East
111. When does a defeated candidate lose
security deposit in elections ?
107. The height of Rakesh and Rahul is
(a) When a defeated candidate
40% and 80% respectively more than secures less than the number of
that of Ramesh. What is the ratio of votes received by the NOTA
height of Rakesh and Rahul ? (b) When a defeated candidate
receives lowest number of votes
(a) 6:7
(c) When a defeated candidate who
(b) 5:6 fails to secure more than
(c) 7:9 one-sixth of the valid votes polled
in the constituency
(d) 1:2
(d) When a defeated candidate who
fails to secure more than the
108. A boatman goes 4 km against the number of invalid votes
current of the stream in 2 hours and 112. Lonar Lake, also known as Lonar
goes 3 km along the current in crater, is a notified National
30 minutes. How long will it take to go Geo-heritage Monument, saline, soda
lake, is located in which of the
9 km in stationary water ? following States ?
(a) 2 hours 15 minutes (a) Maharashtra
(b) 1 hour 45 minutes (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Chattisgarh
(c) 1 hour 30 minutes
(d) Odisha
(d) 2 hours

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( D – 13 )


113. Choose the correct option : 117. The name Lovlina Borgohain is
When light travels from one medium associated with which sport in India ?
to another medium (a) Archery
(a) velocity, wavelength and (b) Boxing
frequency do not change (c) Cycling
(b) velocity, wavelength and
frequency remains same (d) Fencing
(c) velocity and wavelength change 118. Which State is the first in India to
and frequency remains same implement the National Education
(d) velocity and frequency change Policy, 2020 ?
and wavelength remains same (a) Gujarat
114. Consider the following statements : (b) Madhya Pradesh
Statement I : Rafale fighter jets have (c) Karnataka
the ability to engage any jets from a (d) Assam
long distance without the risk of being Directions (Question Nos. 119 and 120) :
tracked. In addition, the air-to-ground
Read the following information carefully to
SCALP missile can precisely track
answer the questions :
down any target with ease.
I. There are five students Suresh,
Statement II : Rafale features beyond Mukesh, Vineet, Rahul and Soham,
visual range air-to-air missile that is each with different heights.
the best today. The aircraft can take
out the enemy aircraft from a range of II. Exactly one person has height in
more than 100 kms. between Soham and Suresh.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are III. Mukesh is taller than Suresh.
correct ? IV. When arranged in order of heights,
(a) Only II Vineet takes the middlemost position.
(b) Only I 119. Which of the following statements is
(c) Both I and II definitely correct, when the students
(d) Neither I nor II are arranged in descending order of
their heights according to the
115. An infected person is less likely to information given above ?
encounter a susceptible person when a (a) There are exactly two persons in
large proportion of the members of the between Mukesh and Rahul
group are immune, is called (b) Rahul is taller than Vineet
(a) Active immunity
(c) Mukesh is taller than Soham
(b) Passive immunity
(c) Herd immunity (d) Rahul is the tallest
(d) Specific immunity 120. Which of the following statements is
definitely correct, when the students
116. For 2021, The Dadasaheb Phalke are arranged in descending order of
award was given to their heights according to the
information given above ? (Tallest to
(a) Puneet Rajkumar shortest)
(a) Suresh, Vineet, Soham
(b) Rajinikanth
(b) Soham, Vineet, Suresh
(c) Mohanlal (c) Vineet, Suresh, Rahul
(d) Mukesh, Suresh, Rahul
(d) Shah Rukh Khan

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( D – 14 )


SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( D – 15 )


SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

JE (Civil)/SO (Civil)/JE (Public Health) ( D – 16 )

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