IAS Prelims - 2023

PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02

ANSWER BOOKLET

ALL INDIA OPEN MOCK TEST

GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - I (CURRENT AFFAIRS - 1)

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Answer Key

Q. 1 (c) Q. 26 (a) Q. 51 (d) Q. 76 (b)

Q. 2 (b) Q. 27 (c) Q. 52 (c) Q. 77 (c)
Q. 3 (d) Q. 28 (d) O Q. 53 (d) Q. 78 (a)
Q. 4 (c) Q. 29 (b) Q. 54 (a) Q. 79 (d)
Q. 5 (b) Q. 30 (c) Q. 55 (b) Q. 80 (a)
Q. 6 (c) Q. 31 (a) Q. 56 (a) Q. 81 (d)
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Q. 7 (d) Q. 32 (b) Q. 57 (c) Q. 82 (b)
Q. 8 (b) Q. 33 (d) Q. 58 (a) Q. 83 (c)
Q. 9 (a) Q. 34 (b) Q. 59 (b) Q. 84 (a)
Q. 10 (c) Q. 35 (d) Q. 60 (c) Q. 85 (b)
Q. 11 (b) Q. 36 (d) Q. 61 (b) Q. 86 (b)
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Q. 12 (b) Q. 37 (d) Q. 62 (b) Q. 87 (a)

Q. 13 (d) Q. 38 (d) Q. 63 (a) Q. 88 (d)
Q. 14 (b) Q. 39 (b) Q. 64 (b) Q. 89 (b)
Q. 15 (a) Q. 40 (a) Q. 65 (b) Q. 90 (b)
Q. 16 (a) Q. 41 (b) Q. 66 (b) Q. 91 (d)
Q. 17 (d) Q. 42 (b) Q. 67 (c) Q. 92 (c)
Q. 18 (b) Q. 43 (b) Q. 68 (b) Q. 93 (c)
Q. 19 (d) Q. 44 (c) Q. 69 (b) Q. 94 (d)
Q. 20 (b) Q. 45 (c) Q. 70 (b) Q. 95 (a)
Q. 21 (d) Q. 46 (a) Q. 71 (c) Q. 96 (c)
Q. 22 (c) Q. 47 (a) Q. 72 (d) Q. 97 (b)
Q. 23 (a) Q. 48 (c) Q. 73 (b) Q. 98 (b)
Q. 24 (a) Q. 49 (d) Q. 74 (c) Q. 99 (d)
Q. 25 (b) Q. 50 (a) Q. 75 (d) Q. 100 (c)

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1. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct:
 The Lithium Triangle is a region of the
Andes rich in lithium reserves around
the borders of Argentina, Bolivia and
Chile.
 The lithium in the triangle is concentrated
in various salt pans that exist along the
Atacama Desert and neighboring arid
areas, the largest ones including Salar
de Uyuni in Bolivia, Salar de Atacama
in Chile and Salar del Hombre Muerto in
Argentina.
 The area is thought to hold around 54% of
the world’s lithium reserves.
 Lithium has become the new ‘white
gold’ as the demand for high performing
rechargeable batteries is rising.
 The global demand for lithium mining is
driven by the metal’s high performance,
thermal resistance, and lightweight
properties, making it the ideal for
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spacecraft, submarines, or safety
equipment.
 Lithium finds widespread application
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in dehumidification, cooling, and air
regeneration, which is largely required in
hospitals and commercial complexes.
2. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
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 Statement 1 is correct: Articles 239
to 241 in Part VIII of the Constitution
relates to Union Territories.
 The administration of Union Territories
vests in the President acting to the extent
he deems fit through an Administrator.
The President acts on the advice of
his Ministers who are responsible to
Parliament.
 The Administrator is the agent of the
President. This agency system is
fully justifiable on constitutional-cum-
democratic grounds.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The
legislative power of Parliament for
the union territories on subjects of the
State List remains unaffected even after
establishing a local legislature for them.
 For example: the legislative assembly
of Puducherry can also make laws on
any subject of the State List and the
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Concurrent List. Similarly, the legislative
assembly of Delhi can make laws on any
subject of the State List (except public
order, police and land) and the Concurrent
List.
3. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Petroleum
Refinery has the highest weightage in the
index of eight core industries followed by
Electricity generation, Steel, Coal, Crude
Oil Production, Natural Gas, Cement
Production and Fertilizers respectively.
 These core industries consist of 40.27 per
cent of the total weight of items included
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in the Index of Industrial Production
(IIP).
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It is released
by the Office of Economic Adviser,
Department for Promotion of
Industry and Internal Trade.
Office of the Economic Adviser,
Department for Promotion of Industry
and Internal Trade is responsible for
the release of the Index of Eight Core
Industries.
 Statement 3 is correct: It maps
the volume of production in the eight
most fundamental industries of our
economy.
 At present, the base year for the Index of
Eight Core Industries (ICI) index is 2011-
12.
4. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct:
 The S-400 Triumf, (NATO calls it SA-21
Growler), is a mobile, surface-to-air missile
system (SAM) designed by Russia.
 It is the most dangerous operationally
deployed modern long-range SAM (MLR
SAM) in the world, considered much
ahead of the US-developed Terminal High
Altitude Area Defense system (THAAD).
 The system can engage all types of aerial
targets including aircraft, unmanned
aerial vehicles (UAV and ballistic and
cruise missiles within the range of 400km,
at an altitude of up to 30km. The system
can track 100 airborne targets and engage
six of them simultaneously.
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  The S-400 Triumf air defence system
integrates multifunction radar,
autonomous detection and targeting
systems, anti-aircraft missile systems,
launchers, and command and control
center.
5. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Chakmas are
Buddhists while Hajongs are Hindus by
faith.
 Buddhists by faith, the Chakmas faced
religious persecution in the erstwhile
East Pakistan along with the Hajongs,
who are Hindus.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: They did
not directly come into the ambit of the
Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019
because Arunachal Pradesh is among
the states exempted from the CAA since
it has an Inner Line Permit to regulate
entry of outsiders.
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 They were granted citizenship by birth
under Section 3 of the Citizenship Act,
1955.
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 Statement 3 is correct: The Chakmas
and Hajongs, originally residents of the
Chittagong Hill Tracts of the former East
Pakistan, had to flee when their land was
submerged by the Kaptai dam project in
the 1960s.
 The Chakmas and Hajongs living in the
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Chittagong Hill Tracts fled erstwhile East
Pakistan in 1964-65, since they lost their
land to the development of the Kaptai
Dam on the Karnaphuli River.
 In addition, they also faced religious
persecution as they were non-Muslims
and did not speak Bengali. They
eventually sought asylum in India. The
Indian government set up relief camps
in Arunachal Pradesh and a majority of
them continue to live there even after five
decades.
6. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: JJM aims
to ensure piped water supply to all rural
households (HH’s) by 2024.
 Ministry of Jal Shakti envisages supply
of 55 liters of water per person per day to
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every rural household through Functional
Household Tap Connections (FHTC) by
2024 under the mission.
 Statement 2 is correct: Under the
mission, special focus is on women
and children. Ensuring safe water to
children is a priority, as they are the most
vulnerable to water-borne diseases like
diarrhea, dysentery, cholera, typhoid, etc.
Repeated infections due to consumption
of unsafe water in their formative years
may have adverse effects, resulting in
stunting.
 The mission ensures functionality of
existing water supply systems and water
connections, water quality monitoring
and testing as well as sustainable
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agriculture.
 Statement 3 is correct: Compensatory
Afforestation Fund Management and
Planning Authority (CAMPA) fund can
be used for this purpose.
It also ensures conjunctive use of
conserved water; drinking water source
augmentation, drinking water supplies
system, grey water treatment and its
reuse.
 It will converge with other Central and
State Government Schemes to achieve
its objectives of sustainable water supply
management across the country.
7. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Ministry
of Education announced National
Educational Alliance for Technology
(NEAT) to use technology for better
learning outcomes in Higher
Education.
 Ministry of Education aims to recognize
the development of technologies in
Adaptive Learning and bring them under
a common platform so that learners can
access it easily.
 It proposes to create a National Alliance
with such technology developing Ed-
Tech Companies through a Public-
Private Partnership (PPP) model.
 The scheme aims to use Artificial
Intelligence to make learning more
personalized and customized as per the
requirements of the learner.
  The ministry would act as a facilitator
to ensure that the Adaptive Learning
Solutions are freely available to a large
number of economically backward
students.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: All India
Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
would be the implementing agency for the
NEAT programme.
 It will be implemented in both Public
and private institutions under the
AICTE.
8. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: PMNRF has
not been constituted by the Parliament.
The fund is recognized as a Trust under
the Income Tax Act and the same is
managed by Prime Minister or multiple
delegates for national causes.
 Statement 2 is correct: The fund
consists entirely of public contributions
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and does not get any budgetary support.
 PMNRF accepts only voluntary donations
by individuals and institutions.
Contributions flowing out of budgetary
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sources or from the balance sheets of
the Public Sector Undertakings are not
accepted.
 The corpus of the fund is invested in various
forms with scheduled commercial banks
and other agencies. Disbursements are
made with the approval of the Prime
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Minister.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Like PM
CARES, PMNRF is also not audited
by the office of the Comptroller and
Auditor General. The PMNRF is audited
by an independent auditor outside the
Government.
 At present, Sarc & Associates, Chartered
Accountants are the auditors.
 The Prime Minister’s National Relief
Fund (PMNRF) was established with
public contributions to assist displaced
persons from Pakistan.
9. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct:
 The National Biofuel Policy expands
the scope of raw material for ethanol
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production by allowing use of Sugarcane
Juice, Sugar containing materials like
Sugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum, Starch
containing materials like Corn, Cassava,
Damaged food grains like wheat, broken
rice, Rotten Potatoes, unfit for human
consumption for ethanol production.
 Biofuels are energy sources derived from
biomass (plant or animal matter) grown
recently and are a renewable resource as
they are replenished continually.
 Based on the sources of biomass,
biofuels can be classified into:
 1st generation biofuels, also known as
conventional biofuels, are made from
sugar, starch or vegetable oil. Produced
through processes like fermentation,
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distillation and trans-esterification,
they come from biomass that is also
a food source which is there major
drawback.
 The biomass sources for 2nd generation
biofuels include wood, organic waste,
food waste and specific biomass crops.
They come from distinct biomass and
generate higher energy yields per acre.
2nd generation biofuels come from non-
food biomass, but still compete with
food production for land use.
 3rd generation biofuels use specially
engineered crops such as algae as the
energy source. They are more energy
dense and are cultured as low-cost,
high-energy, and completely renewable
sources of energy.
 The National Policy on Biofuels, 2018
categorizes biofuels as “Basic Biofuels”
viz. First Generation (1G) bioethanol
& biodiesel and “Advanced Biofuels”
- Second Generation (2G) ethanol,
Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) to drop-in
fuels, Third Generation (3G) biofuels, bio-
CNG etc.
 It allows use of surplus food grains for
production of ethanol for blending with
petrol with the approval of National
Biofuel Coordination Committee.
 With a thrust on Advanced Biofuels, the
Policy indicates a viability gap funding
scheme for 2G ethanol Bio refineries of
Rs.5000 crore in 6 years in addition to
additional tax incentives, higher purchase
price as compared to 1G biofuels.
 The Policy expands the scope of raw
material for ethanol production by
allowing use of Sugarcane Juice, Sugar
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 containing materials like Sugar Beet,
Sweet Sorghum, Starch containing
materials like Corn, Cassava, Damaged
food grains like wheat, broken rice, Rotten
Potatoes, unfit for human consumption
for ethanol production.
10. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct: Some banks, due
to their size, cross-jurisdictional activities,
complexity, lack of substitutability and
interconnectedness, become systemically
important.
 SIBs are perceived as banks that are ‘Too
Big to Fail (TBTF)’.
 This perception of TBTF creates an
expectation of government support for
these banks at the time of distress.
 The Financial Stability Board (FSB),
in consultation with the Basel Committee
on Banking Supervision (BCBS) and O 12. Correct Option: (b)
national authorities, has identified Global
Systemically Important Banks (G-SIBs)
since 2011.
 The RBI had issued the framework for
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dealing with D-SIB in 2014.
 The D-SIB framework requires the
Reserve Bank to disclose the names of
banks designated as D-SIBs starting from
2015 and place these banks in appropriate
buckets depending upon their Systemic
Importance Scores (SISs).
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 The indicators which are used for
assessment are: size, interconnectedness,
substitutability and complexity.
11. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
 Clouded leopard (Neofelis nebulosa) is a
medium-sized felid (wild cat) and is the
smallest of the large wild cats and is
categorised as ‘Vulnerable’ under the
IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
 They are largely known to inhabit low
elevation evergreen rainforests.
 The clouded leopard is named after the
distinctive ‘clouds’ on its coat - ellipses
partially edged in black, with the insides
a darker color than the background color
of the pelt.
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 The clouded leopard is found across
Southeast Asia and the Himalayas in the
following countries: southern China,
Bhutan, Nepal, northeast India,
Burma, Thailand, Vietnam, Malaysia,
Cambodia, Laos, and Bangladesh.
 It is believed to be extinct in Taiwan,
China.
 Throughout its range, the clouded leopard
spends most of the time in the tropical
evergreen rainforests but can also be
found in dry tropical forests and mangrove
swamps. It has been found at relatively
high altitudes in the Himalayas.
 The clouded leopard is more at home in
the trees than on the ground and can
move nimbly through the dense forests
of Southeast Asia and the eastern
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Himalayas. The exact numbers of this
secretive cat are not known but they are
believed to be in decline due to habitat
loss and poaching.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: In 1992,
six post-Soviet states belonging to
the Commonwealth of Independent
States—Russia, Armenia, Kazakhstan,
Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan—
signed the Collective Security Treaty.
 Three other post-Soviet states—
Azerbaijan, Belarus, and Georgia—signed
the next year and the treaty took effect in
1994.
 Five years later, six of the nine—all but
Azerbaijan, Georgia, and Uzbekistan—
agreed to renew the treaty for five more
years, and in 2002 those six agreed to
create the Collective Security Treaty
Organization as a military alliance.
 Statement 2 is correct: CSTO has an
observer status at UNGA.
 CSTO is an intergovernmental military
alliance that was signed on 15 May 1992.
 Its 6 members are: Armenia, Belarus,
Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia and
Tajikistan.
 Headquarters: Moscow, Russia.
13. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Pilgrimage
Rejuvenation and Spiritual, Heritage
 Augmentation Drive (PRASAD) is a
Central sector scheme that focuses on
identifying and developing the pilgrim
sites across the country to enrich the
religious tourism experience.
 Statement 2 is correct: It aims at
integrated development of pilgrimage
destinations in planned, prioritized and
sustainable manner to provide complete
religious tourism experience.
 12 cities namely Amaravati (Andhra
Pradesh), Gaya (Bihar), Dwarka
(Gujarat), Amritsar (Punjab), Ajmer
(Rajasthan), Kanchipuram (Tamil Nadu),
Velankanni (Tamil Nadu), Puri (Odisha),
Varanasi(Uttar Pradesh), Mathura(Uttar
Pradesh), Kedarnath (Uttarakhand) and
Kamakhya (Assam) have been identified
for development under the scheme.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: It was
launched by Ministry of Tourism.
 The scheme shall be 100% centrally
funded for the project components
undertaken for public funding.
O the Business correspondent of any bank
14. Correct Option: (b)
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Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Bureau of
Indian Standards (BIS) is a statutory body
under Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food
and Public Distribution, Government of
India.
BIS, earlier known as the Indian
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Standards Institution (ISI), was
founded in 1947.
 Bureau of Indian standards (BIS)
came into existence, through an act of
parliament dated 26 November 1986, on
1 April 1987, with a broadened scope and
more powers taking over the staff, assets,
liabilities and functions of erstwhile
ISI. Through this change over, the
government envisaged building a climate
for quality culture and consciousness
and greater participation of consumers
in formulation and implementation of
national standards.
 Statement 2 is correct: It is a statutory
body established under the Bureau of
Indian Standards (BIS) Act 2016 as the
National Standards Body of India.
 It is the only national body that
frames standards.
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 It works under the aegis of the Ministry
of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public
Distribution, Government of India.
 It aims for the harmonious development
of the activities of standardization and
marking and quality certification of
goods.
15. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Aadhaar
Enabled Payment System is a payment
service empowering a bank customer to
use Aadhaar as his/her identity to access
his/ her respective Aadhaar enabled
bank account and perform basic banking
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transactions like balance enquiry, cash
deposit, cash withdrawal, remittances
through a Business Correspondent.
 AePS is a bank led model which allows
online interoperable financial inclusion
transaction at PoS (MicroATM) through
using the Aadhaar authentication.
Under AePS currently following 6

services are present: Balance Enquiry,
Aadhaar to Aadhaar Fund Transfer,
Cash Withdrawal, Best Finger Detection
and Cash Deposit. These services are
available in both inter-bank and intra-
bank modes.
 Statement 2 is correct: It is easy to use,
safe and secure payment platform to avail
benefits by using Aadhaar number &
biometrics.
 It is based on the demographic and
biometric/iris information of an individual,
it eliminates the threat of any fraud and
non-genuine activity.
 It facilitates inter-operability across
banks in a safe and secured manner
 It enable banks to extend financial
services to the unreached clients beyond
their branch network as beneficiaries of
the BCs are mostly located at unbanked
and underbanked areas.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: AePS
facilitate disbursements of
Government entitlements like
NREGA, Social Security pension,
Handicapped Old Age Pension etc.
of any Central or State Government
bodies using Aadhaar authentication.
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  Aadhaar Enabled Payment System is
a payment service empowering a bank
customer to use Aadhaar as his/her
identity to access his/ her respective
Aadhaar enabled bank account and
perform basic banking transactions
like balance enquiry, cash deposit, cash
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SC
 The Orang National Park also known
as Rajiv Gandhi Orang National Park
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is located on the north bank of the
Brahmaputra River in the Darrang and
Sonitpur districts of Assam and covers an
area of 78.81 square kilometers.
 It was established as a wildlife sanctuary
in 1985 but was declared as a National
Park in 1999. It is also the 49th Tiger
Reserve of the country, being notified in
2016.
 It is also known as the mini Kaziranga
National Park since the two parks have
a similar landscape made up of marshes,
streams, and grasslands.
 It is the only stronghold of rhinoceros on
the north bank of the Brahmaputra River.
17. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The ECI can
issue a notice to a politician or a party
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withdrawal, remittances through a
Business Correspondent.
16. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct:
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for alleged breach of the MCC either on
its own or on the basis of a complaint by
another party or individual.
 Once a notice is issued, the person or party
must reply in writing — either accepting
fault and tendering an unconditional
apology or rebutting the allegation. In
the latter case, if the person or party
is found guilty subsequently, he/it can
attract a written censure from the ECI —
something that many see as a mere slap
on the wrist.
 Statement 2 is correct: As soon as
the code kicks in, the party in power —
whether at the Centre or in the States
— should ensure that it does not use its
official position for campaigning.
 The party must also avoid advertising
at the cost of the public exchequer or
using official mass media for publicity
on achievements to improve chances of
victory in the elections.
  The ruling party also cannot use
government transport or machinery for
campaigning.
 The issue of advertisement at the cost of
public exchequer in the newspapers and
other media is also considered an offence.
 Statement 3 is correct: Model code
of conduct does not have any statutory
backing. Its breach cannot be preceded
under any clause of the Code.
 The Model Code of Conduct was agreed to
by all the political parties in 1968.
 The Election Commission first effectively
put to use the Model Code of Conduct in
the year 1991 to ensure fair elections and
a level playing field.
 The MCC contains eight provisions
dealing with general conduct, meetings,
processions, polling day, polling booths,
observers, the party in power, and election
manifestos.
 Holding public meetings during the 48-
hour period before the hour fixed for the
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closing of the poll is also prohibited. The
48-hour period is known as “Election
silence”.
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18. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct:
 Adi Granth was composed by Guru Arjan
Dev Ji, the 5th Sikh Guru.
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 Japji Sahib was composed by Guru Nanak
Dev Ji, the 1st Sikh Guru.
 Guru Gobind Singh Ji, the tenth and the
last Guru of the Sikhs, was born to Guru
Tegh Bahadur Ji and Mata Gujari, on 22
December 1666 at Patna, in Bihar.
 Guru ji was nine years old when he
became Guru after the martyrdom of his
father Guru Tegh Bahadur ji. It was now
the responsibility of the Guru to fulfill
the mission of Guru Nanak Dev Ji and
to destroy the evildoers. This needed a
careful planning and to do it beyond the
knowledge or perception of the Mughal
Emperor. Thus, he shifted from Anandpur
to Nahan Hills where he founded (Paonta
Sahib, on the banks of River Jamuna
amidst the Siwaliks.
 Here he was taught Sanskrit and Persian
(in addition to the Hindi and Punjabi
which he had been learning in Patna.
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He began to compose verses in the four
languages he had learned. He learnt by
heart the whole of Adi Granth.
 Guru ji wrote his first composition ‘Var
Sri Bhagauti Ji Ki’ in 1684. His verse is
incomparable for its sublime and heroic
style. The Autobiography, ‘Bachitra
Natak’, ‘Akal Ustat’, ‘Chandi di Var’ are
some of his compositions.
 In 1698, Guru ji abolished the system
of ‘Masands and established direct
relationship with his Sikhs and addressed
them as his ‘Khalsa’.
 He was the reputed author of the Sikh
work called the Dasam Granth (“Tenth
Volume”).
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 He declared Guru Granth Sahib as
Sikhism’s Holy Scripture in 1708, before
his death.
19. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is incorrect: Recently, Red
Sanders (Red Sandalwood) has fallen
back into the ‘endangered’ category in
the International Union for Conservation
of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List. It was
classified as ‘near threatened’ in 2018.
 Red Sanders or Pterocarpus santalinus is
a non-fragrant variety of sandalwood.
 They are usually grown in the rocky,
degraded and fallow lands with Red Soil
and a hot and dry climate.
 It is an Indian endemic tree species, with
a restricted geographical range in the
Eastern Ghats.
 The species is endemic to a distinct tract
of forests in Andhra Pradesh.
 Red Sanders, known for their rich hue
and therapeutic properties, are high
in demand across Asia, particularly in
China and Japan, for use in cosmetics
and medicinal products as well as for
making furniture, woodcraft and musical
instruments.
 It is listed in Appendix II of the
Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
Flora (CITES).
 Threats include illicit felling for
smuggling, forest fires, cattle grazing and
other anthropogenic threats.
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20. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct: Located in the
Karakum desert, 260 kilometers away
from Turkmenistan’s capital, Ashgabat,
the crater has been burning for the last
50 years.
 The crater has become a significant
tourist attraction in the country. In 2018,
the country’s president officially renamed
it as the “Shining of Karakum”.
 The details of the origin are not actually
known but it has been said that the crater
was created in 1971 during a Soviet
drilling operation.
 Soviet geologists were drilling for oil in
the Karakum desert when they hit a
pocket of natural gas by mistake, which
caused the earth to collapse and ended up
forming three huge sinkholes.
 A sinkhole is a depression in the ground
that has no natural external surface
drainage. O philosophy. Some of these books are
 These are regions formed when
underlying limestone bedrock is dissolved
by groundwater.
 Locals have also said that the crater was
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formed in the 1960s but wasn’t lit on fire
until the 1980s.
21. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
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Takht Shri Damdama Sahib
 The Five Gurudwaras known as the Five
Takhts (Royal Thrones) have a very special
significance of the Sikh community. They
are considered the seats of Sikh religious
authority.
 Damdama Sahib is situated in the village
of Talwandi Sabo near Bathinda. This
is where Guru Gobind Singh stayed for
nearly a year and compiled the final
edition of the Guru Granth known as the
Damdama Sahib Bir in 1705. He added
to the original version prepared by Guru
Dev Ji the verses of Guru Tegh Bahadur
Ji. A large number of new converts joined
the fold of the Khalsa here.
22. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: In the late 15th
century, Shankaradeva emerged as one of
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the leading proponents of Vaishnavism in
Assam.
 Adi Shankaracharya was born in 788 AD.
Adi Shankara is said to have been born in
Kaladi village on the bank of the Periyar,
the largest river in Kerala.
 He left home very early in search of
learning and to become a sanyasi.
 In a lifespan of just 32 years, he is said
to have visited all the important spiritual
centres of the time — from Kanchi
(Kancheepuram) to Kamrup (Assam),
and Kashmir and the Kedar and Badri
dhams, as well as Sringeri, Ujjain, Kashi,
Puri, and Joshimath.
 He wrote 18 commentaries on the
scriptures including the Brahma Sutras,
RE
the Bhagavad Gita and 12 major
Upanishads.
 Statement 2 is correct: He wrote
about two dozen books elucidating the
fundamentals of the Advaita Vedanta
Viveka Chudamani, Atma Bodha, Vaakya
Vritti and Upadesa Sahasri.
 Statement 3 is correct: Adi
Shankaracharya is credited to have
composed 72 devotional and meditative
hymns such as Soundarya Lahari,
Sivananda Lahari, Nirvana Shalkam,
Maneesha Panchakam.
 Adi Shankara composed texts like
Shankara Smrithi, which seeks to
establish the social supremacy of
Nambuthiri Brahmins.
 According to Advaita Vedantins, the
Upanishads reveal a fundamental
principle of non-duality termed ‘brahman’,
which is the reality of all things.
 He was opposed to Buddhist philosophers
and was responsible for reviving Hinduism
in India to a great extent when Buddhism
was gaining popularity.
23. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Global economic
growth will dip sharply from 5.5% in 2021
to 4.1% in 2022 and 3.2% in 2023, even
as India’s annual growth is projected to
be 8.3% in the current fiscal year, 8.7% in
2022-23, and 6.8% in 2023-24.
 After having recovered in 2021, the
global economy is headed towards a
 “pronounced slowdown”, due to the new
variants of Covid-19; a rise in inflation,
debt and income inequality; the winding
down of fiscal and monetary support;
and the fading of pent-up demand – all
of which have eroded recovery prospects
in emerging and developing economies in
particular.
 The rapid spread of the Omicron variant
indicates that the pandemic will likely
continue to disrupt economic activity in
the near term.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: World Bank
recently released the Global Economic
Prospects Report, 2022.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: In addition, a
notable deceleration in major economies
— including the United States and
China — will weigh on external demand
in emerging and developing economies.
 At a time when governments in many
developing economies lack the policy space
to support activity if needed, new Covid-
O
19 outbreaks, persistent supply-chain
bottlenecks and inflationary pressures,
and elevated financial vulnerabilities in
large swaths of the world could increase
SC
the risk of a hard landing.
 In its outlook for South Asia, however,
India stands as a relatively bright spot.
 The Bank’s 8.3% growth projection for
India in 2021-22 is unchanged from its
June 2021 outlook. But the forecast for
2022-23 and 2023-24 has been upgraded
GS
to 8.7% and 6.8%, respectively, “reflecting
higher investment from the private sector
and in infrastructure, and dividends from
ongoing reforms”.
 The report flags risks specific to South
Asia – the emergence of Omicron could
hinder economic activity with mobility
restrictions and lower external demand;
upward price pressures could lead
to inflation expectations becoming
unanchored, “worsening domestic
financing conditions, eroding real incomes
and weakening the financial sector”; and,
with an increase in climate risks, the
region remains vulnerable to climate-
induced increases in poverty, disease,
child mortality and food prices.
 Inequality, between and within countries,
and inflation, both in the advanced and
emerging economies, will complicate
recovery.
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02
24. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
 North Atlantic Treaty Organization
(NATO) is an intergovernmental political
and military alliance of 30 different
countries.
 It was established by the North Atlantic
Treaty (also called the Washington
Treaty) of April 4, 1949, which sought to
create a counterweight to Soviet armies
stationed in Central and Eastern Europe
after World War II.
 Its current member countries include
Albania, Belgium, Bulgaria, Canada,
Croatia, Czech Republic, Denmark,
RE
Estonia, France, Germany, Greece,
Hungary, Iceland, Italy, Latvia,
Lithuania, Luxembourg, Montenegro,
Netherlands, North Macedonia,
Norway, Poland, Portugal, Romania,
Slovakia, Slovenia, Spain, Turkey,
UK and USA.
 North Macedonia is the latest entry in the
organization.
 Austria, Cyprus, Finland, Ireland,
Malta, and Sweden are non-NATO EU
members.
25. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: In the swap
arrangement, a country provides dollars
to a foreign central bank, which, at the
same time, provides the equivalent funds
in its currency to the former, based on the
market exchange rate at the time of the
transaction.
 The parties agree to swap back these
quantities of their two currencies at a
specified date in the future, which could
be the next day or even two years later,
using the same exchange rate as in the
first transaction.
 These swap operations carry no exchange
rate or other market risks, as transaction
terms are set in advance. The absence of
an exchange rate risk is the major benefit
of such a facility. This facility provides the
country, which is getting the dollars, with
the flexibility to use these reserves at any
time in order to maintain an appropriate
level of balance of payments or short-term
liquidity.
10
  Statement 2 is correct: In the swap
arrangement, a country provides dollars
to a foreign central bank, which, at the
same time, provides the equivalent funds
in its currency to the former, based on the
market exchange rate at the time of the
transaction.
 The parties agree to swap back these
quantities of their two currencies at a
specified date in the future, which could
be the next day or even two years later,
using the same exchange rate as in the
first transaction.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: These swap
operations carry no exchange rate or other
market risks, as transaction terms are set
in advance. The absence of an exchange
rate risk is the major benefit of such a
facility.
 A currency swap typically involves the
exchange of interest and sometimes of
principal in one currency for the same in
another currency.
 Interest payments are exchanged at fixed
O in support of more productive and
dates through the life of the contract. It
is considered to be a foreign exchange
transaction and is not required by law to
be shown on a company’s balance sheet.
SC
26. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
 An innovation of the International Finance
Corporation (IFC), a member of the World
GS
Bank Group, EDGE (“Excellence in Design
for Greater Efficiencies”) provides market
leaders with the opportunity to gain a
competitive advantage by differentiating
their products and adding value to the
lives of their customers.
 EDGE brings speed, market intelligence
and an investment focus to the next
generation of green building certification
in more than 170 countries.
 IFC created EDGE to respond to the need
for a measurable and credible solution to
prove the business case for building green
and unlock financial investment.
 EDGE includes a cloud-based platform to
calculate the cost of going green and utility
savings. The state-of-the-art engine has
a sophisticated set of city-based climate
and cost data, consumption patterns
and algorithms for predicting the most
accurate performance results.
11
 It is currently funded by the UK
government.
27. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
Reports published by International
Labor Organization
 World Employment and Social Outlook
 World Social Protection Report
 Social Dialogue Report
 Global Wage Report
28. Correct Option: (d)
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Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The Challenge
Fund, a child project of the CFI Program
led by the World Bank, aims to engage
businesses and the financing community
sustainable coastal fisheries.
 The Challenge Fund helps to make the
connection between fishing communities,
businesses, and investors, as well as
government.
 The Challenge Fund focuses on concrete
business ideas and supports coalitions in
finding innovative, long-term solutions
to reach their common goals in designing
responsible investment packages
and identifying obstacles to their
implementation.
 Statement 2 is correct: The
Coastal Fisheries Initiative (CFI) is a
collaborative, global effort funded by the
Global Environment Facility (GEF)
to preserve marine resources and ensure
that coastal fisheries can continue to play
their crucial role in society, contributing
to food security, as well as economic and
social development.
29. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct: Major factors
causing AMR in India are overuse and
misuse of antimicrobial agents, their
indiscriminate use as growth promoters
in animals or used to prevent diseases in
healthy animals, poor infection control
practices in hospitals, in the hospitality
sector, and at home.
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02
  Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) occurs
when bacteria, viruses, fungi and
parasites change over time and no longer
respond to medicines making infections
harder to treat and increasing the risk of
disease spread, severe illness and death.
 Antimicrobial-resistant organisms are
found in people, animals, food, plants and
the environment (in water, soil and air).
 They can spread from person to person or
between people and animals, including
from food of animal origin.
 Multiple drug resistance (MDR) is
antimicrobial resistance (AMR) shown
by a species of microorganism to at least
one antimicrobial drug in three or more
antimicrobial categories.
 The main drivers of antimicrobial
resistance include the misuse and
overuse of antimicrobials; lack of access
to clean water, sanitation and hygiene
(WASH) for both humans and animals;
poor infection and disease prevention
and control in health-care facilities and
O
farms; poor access to quality, affordable
medicines, vaccines and diagnostics; lack
of awareness and knowledge; and lack of
enforcement of legislation.
SC
 Major factors causing AMR in India
are:
 Inappropriate consumption of broad-
spectrum (last resort) antibiotics is
high because of changing prescription
practice in the healthcare system due
to the non-availability of a narrow
GS
spectrum of antibiotics.
 Inappropriate antibiotic use among
the general public like Self-medication
to avoid the financial burden.
 Large proportion of sewage is disposed
of untreated into receiving water
bodies, leading to gross contamination
of rivers with antibiotic residues,
antibiotic-resistant organisms.
30. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: An Account
Aggregator is a non-banking financial
company engaged in the business of
providing, under a contract, the service
of retrieving or collecting financial
information pertaining to its customer. It is
also engaged in consolidating, organizing
and presenting such information to
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02
the customer or any other financial
information user as may be specified by
the bank.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The license
for AAs is issued by the RBI.
 Statement 3 is correct: The AA
framework allows customers to avail
various financial services from a host
of providers on a single portal based
on a consent method, under which the
consumers can choose what financial
data to share and with which entity. It
reduces the need for individuals to wait in
long bank queues, use Internet banking
portals, share their passwords, or seek
out physical notarization to access and
share their financial documents. Thus it
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is a financial utility for secure flow of data
controlled by the individual.
Account Aggregator framework
 The AA framework was created through
an inter-regulatory decision by RBI and
other regulators including Securities
and Exchange Board of India, Insurance
Regulatory and Development.
 Authority, and Pension Fund Regulatory
and Development Authority (PFRDA)
through an initiative of the Financial
Stability and Development Council
(FSDC).
 The license for AAs is issued by the RBI
and no entity other than a company can
undertake the business of an Account
Aggregator.
 It has a three-tier structure: Account
Aggregator, FIP (Financial Information
Provider) and FIU (Financial Information
User).
 An FIP is the data fiduciary, which
holds customers’ data. It can be a bank,
NBFC, mutual fund, insurance repository
or pension fund repository. An FIU
consumes the data from an FIP to provide
various services to the consumer. An FIU
is a lending bank that wants access to
the borrower’s data to determine if the
borrower qualifies for a loan. Banks play
a dual role – as an FIP and as an FIU.
 It will help banks reduce transaction
costs, which will enable banks to offer
lower ticket size loans and more tailored
products and services to customers. It will
also help banks reduce frauds and comply
with upcoming privacy laws.
12
31. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The
Padma Awards are conferred on the
recommendations made by the Padma
Awards Committee which is headed by
the Cabinet Secretary.
 Statement 2 is correct: There is
no provision for seeking a written or
formal consent of the recipient before
announcement of the award. However,
before the announcement, every recipient
receives a call from the Ministry of Home
Affairs informing him or her about the
selection. In case the recipient expresses
a desire to be excluded from the award
list, the name is removed.
RE
 Statement 3 is incorrect: These are
announced every year on the occasion
of Republic Day but are presented by
the President of India usually in the
month of March/April every year where
the awardees are presented a Sanad
(certificate) signed by the President and
a medallion.
32. Correct Option: (b)
O 33. Correct Option: (d)
SC
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct: It is prepared
by Transparency International, an
international non -governmental
organization founded in 1993 based in
Berlin, Germany.
The Index ranks 180 countries and
GS

territories by their perceived levels of
public sector corruption according to
experts and businesspeople.
 It relies on 13 independent data sources
and uses a scale of zero to 100, where zero
is highly corrupt and 100 is very clean.
 Key findings of the 2021 index are:
 More than two-thirds of countries
(68%) score below 50 and the average
global score remains static at 43.
 This year, the top countries are
Denmark, Finland and New Zealand,
each with a score of 88. Norway
(85), Singapore (85), Sweden (85),
Switzerland (84), the Netherlands
(82), Luxembourg (81) and Germany
(80) complete the top 10.
 South Sudan (11), Syria (13) and
Somalia (13) remain at the bottom of
the index.
13
 Countries experiencing armed conflict
or authoritarianism tend to earn the
lowest scores, including Venezuela
(14), Afghanistan (16), North Korea
(16), Yemen (16), Equatorial Guinea
(17), Libya (17) and Turkmenistan
(19).
 India ranked 85 among 180 countries
in the current index (86 in 2020 and 80
in 2019). Transparency International
gave India a CPI score of 40. The
country’s score has remained stagnant
over the past decade, some of the
mechanisms that could help reign in
corruption are weakening. There are
concerns over the country’s democratic
status, as fundamental freedoms and
institutional checks and balances
decay.
 Except Bhutan, all of India’s neighbors
are ranked below it. Pakistan dropped
16 spots in the index and was ranked
at 140.
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct: A bond is an
instrument to borrow money. A bond
could be floated/issued by a country’s
government or by a company to raise funds.
Since government bonds (referred to as
G-sec in India, Treasury in the US, and
Gilts in the UK) come with the sovereign’s
guarantee, they are considered one of the
safest investments. As a result, they also
give the lowest returns on investment (or
yield).
 Simply put, the yield of a bond is the
effective rate of return that it earns.
But the rate of return is not fixed — it
changes with the price of the bond. Bond
Yield has an inverse relationship with the
bond price.
 If the interest rate in the broader economy
is different from the initial coupon
payment promised by a bond, market
forces quickly ensure that the yield aligns
itself with the economy’s interest rate. In
that sense, G-sec yields are in close sync
with the prevailing interest rate in an
economy.
 A yield curve is a graphical representation
of yields for bonds (with an equal credit
rating) over different time horizons.
 The steepness of this yield curve is
determined by how fast an economy is
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02
 expected to grow. The faster it is expected
to grow the more the yield for longer
tenures. When the economy is expected
to grow only marginally, the yield curve
is “flat”.
 Yield inversion happens when the yield
on a longer tenure bond becomes less
than the yield for a shorter tenure bond.
A yield inversion typically portends a
recession. An inverted yield curve shows
that investors expect the future growth to
fall sharply; in other words, the demand
for money would be much lower than
what it is today and hence the yields are
also lower.
 A bond’s yield to maturity (YTM) is
equal to the interest rate that makes the
present value of all a bond’s future cash
flows equal to its current price. These cash
flows include all the coupon payments and
its maturity value.
34. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
O financial institutions as shareholders.
 Statement 1 is incorrect: NARCL, also
known as a bad bank, has eight public
sector banks as its shareholders. These
SC
Public sector banks will have a 51%
ownership in the NARCL with private
lenders bringing in the rest of the equity
capital.
 Statement 2 is correct: NARCL will be
incorporated under the Companies Act
and has applied for a license as an Asset
Reconstruction Company (ARC) to the
GS
Reserve Bank of India.
 An ARC may be setup as an independent
entity or may be promoted by banks and
financial institutions.
 Generally, it is a company incorporated
under the Companies Act and registered
under section 3 of The Securitization and
Reconstruction of Financial Assets and
Enforcement of Security Interest Act,
2002 with Reserve Bank of India.
 A total of Rs 90,000 crore of stressed
assets, against which banks have made
100 per cent provisions in their books of
accounts, will be transferred to NARCL in
the first phase.
 NARCL, which is 51 per cent owned
by public sector banks, will have an
operational entity, India Debt Resolution
Company Ltd, to manage these assets
and find potential buyers for them.
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02 14
 Banks that transfer their stressed assets
will get 15 per cent of the value in cash
and 85 per cent as tradable security
receipts.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Securitization
and Reconstruction of Financial Assets
and Enforcement of Security Interest
(SARFAESI) Act, 2002 provides the legal
basis for the setting up ARCs in India.
 It is a newly proposed ‘bad bank’ to be set
up by banks to aggregate and consolidate
stressed assets for their subsequent
resolution.
 The government guarantee will cover the
gap between the face value of the security
receipts and realized value of the assets
when eventually sold to the prospective
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buyers. A guarantee helps in improving
the value of security receipts, their
liquidity and tradability.
 Banks are putting in equity of around Rs
6,000 crore in the NARCL, which will also
have private sector banks, NBFCs and
 Public sector banks will own 49 per cent
equity in India Debt Resolution Company
Ltd, the operating entity comprising
professionals that will manage and
eventually sell the underlying assets.
35. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 3 is incorrect: Unlike

traditional cigarettes, e-cigarettes do
not contain tobacco and therefore are
not regulated under the Cigarettes and
Other Tobacco Products Act (COTPA),
2003. The COTPA Act, regulates the sale,
production, and distribution of cigarettes
and other tobacco products in India, and
prohibits advertisement of cigarettes.
Tobacco
 Tobacco is the world’s leading cause of
preventable death and kills nearly 8
million persons every year. It claims 1.6
million lives in the WHO South-East Asia
Region, which is amongst the largest
producers and consumers of tobacco
products.
 Tobacco use is a major risk factor for non-
communicable diseases (NCD), including
cancers, cardiovascular diseases, chronic
lung diseases and diabetes.
  As per the WHO Global Report on Trends
in Prevalence of Tobacco Use 2000-2025
(4th edition, 2021) WHO South-East Asia
Region recorded the fastest decline in
tobacco use but continued to have the
highest 432 million tobacco users, or
29% of its population. The region has 266
million smokeless tobacco users of the 355
million globally. The growing use of new
and emerging products such as Electronic
Nicotine Delivery Systems/ e-cigarettes,
sheesha/hukkah are additional challenges
to tobacco control.
 India adopted and implemented the
tobacco control provisions of the WHO
Framework Convention on Tobacco
Control (WHO FCTC).
 It is the first international treaty
negotiated under the auspices of the
WHO.
 It was developed in response to the
globalization of the tobacco epidemic and
is an evidence-based treaty that reaffirms
the right of all people to the highest
standard of health.

use include:
O
The FCTC’s measures to combat tobacco
38. Correct Option: (d)
 Price and tax measures
SC
 Large, graphic warnings on tobacco
packages
 100% smoke-free public spaces
 A ban on tobacco marketing
 Support for smokers who want to quit
GS
 Prevention of tobacco industry
interference
36. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Change in the definition of MSMEs
 The central government in 2020 changed
the definition of MSMEs (Micro, Small
and Medium Enterprises). Following
changes were made:
 Difference between definition of
manufacturing and service-based
MSMEs removed;
 Threshold limit to define an enterprise
as an MSME increased;
 Turnover added as another criteria
to define MSMEs, besides investment
scale.
15
37. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct: Bleaching or the
paling of coral color occurs when:
 The densities of zooxanthellae decline
 The concentration of photosynthetic
pigments within the zooxanthellae
fall
 When corals bleach they commonly lose
60-90% of their zooxanthellae and each
zooxanthella may lose 50-80% of its
photosynthetic pigments.
 If the stress-causing bleaching is not
too severe and if it decreases in time,
the affected corals usually regain their
symbiotic algae within several weeks or
RE
a few months.
 If zooxanthellae loss is prolonged, i.e.
if the stress continues and depleted
zooxanthellae populations do not recover,
the coral host eventually dies.
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct: The current
account measures the flow of goods,
services, and investments into and out
of the country. It represents a country’s
foreign transactions and, like the capital
account, is a component of a country’s
Balance of Payments (BOP).
 There is a deficit in Current Account if the
value of the goods and services imported
exceeds the value of those exported.
 A nation’s current account maintains a
record of the country’s transactions with
other nations that includes net income,
including interest and dividends, and
transfers, like foreign aid.
 A country with rising CAD shows that it
has become uncompetitive, and investors
may not be willing to invest there.
 In India, the Current Account Deficit
could be reduced by boosting exports and
curbing non-essential imports such as
gold, mobiles, and electronics.
 Current Account Deficit and Fiscal
Deficit (also known as “budget deficit” is
a situation when a nation’s expenditure
exceeds its revenues) are together known
as twin deficits and both often reinforce
each other, i.e., a high fiscal deficit leads
to higher CAD and vice versa.
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02
39. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct: The Stockholm
Convention on Persistent Organic
Pollutants is a global treaty to protect
human health and the environment
from chemicals that remain intact in the
environment for long periods, become
widely distributed geographically,
accumulate in the fatty tissue of humans
and wildlife, and have harmful impacts
on human health or on the environment.
 It sets up a system for tackling additional
chemicals identified as unacceptably
hazardous.
 The Stockholm Convention is perhaps
best understood as having five essential
aims:
 Eliminate dangerous POPs, starting
with the 12 worst
 Support the transition to safer
alternatives
 Target additional POPs for action
O applicants for shares or debentures,
 Cleanup old stockpiles and equipment
containing POPs
SC
 Work together for a POPs-free future
 The Global Environmental Facility
(GEF) is the designated interim
financial mechanism for the Stockholm
Convention.
 The Basel Convention on Control of
Trans-boundary Movements of Hazardous
GS
Wastes and their Disposal was adopted in
1989 and entered into force in 1992.
 The Rotterdam Convention on the Prior
Informed Consent Procedure (PIC)
for Certain Hazardous Chemicals and
Pesticides in International Trade was
adopted in 1998 and entered into force in
2004.
40. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: IEPFA works
under the administrative control of
Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
 Investor Education and Protection Fund
Authority (IEPFA) has been established
under Section 125 of the Companies Act
2013 for administration of the IEPF fund
as per section 125 (3) of Companies Act
2013.
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02
 IEPFA works under the administrative
control of Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(MCA).
 The Authority is entrusted with the
responsibility of administration of the
Investor Education Protection Fund
(IEPF) make refunds of shares, unclaimed
dividends, matured deposits/debentures
etc. to investors and to promote awareness
among investors.
 Statement 2 is correct: Investor
Education and Protection Fund (IEPF) is
for promotion of investors’ awareness and
protection of the interests of investors.
 The IEPF is to be utilized for:
 The refund in respect of unclaimed
dividends, matured deposits, matured
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debentures, the application money due
for refund and interest thereon
 Promotion of investors’ education,
awareness and protection
 Distribution of any disgorged amount
among eligible and identifiable
shareholders, debenture-holders or
depositors who have suffered losses
due to wrong actions by any person,
in accordance with the orders made
by the Court which had ordered
disgorgement
 Reimbursement of legal expenses
incurred in pursuing class action suits
under sections 37 and 245 by members,
debenture-holders or depositors as may
be sanctioned by the Tribunal and
 Any other purpose incidental thereto,
in accordance with such rules as may
be prescribed
41. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: It is a nodal
establishment for sharing intelligence
inputs among various agencies.
 It is located in Delhi while state capitals
have subsidiary MACs (SMACs) where
daily meetings are held to analyse inputs
received in the previous 24 hours.
 There is also a focused group meeting of
the MAC where specific information on a
specific theatre is discussed where only
concerned agencies participate.
 Statement 2 is correct: All organisations
that are in any way involved in the
16
 counter-terrorism effort are a member of
this centre.
 All the States have a subsidiary multi-
agency centre (SMAC) located in all State
capitals.
 As many as 28 organisations, including
the Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW),
armed forces and State police are part of
the platform and various security agencies
share real-time intelligence inputs on the
MAC.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: It operates
under the aegis of the Intelligence Bureau
(IB).
 It is a common counter-terrorism grid
under the Intelligence Bureau (IB) that
was made operational in 2001 post-Kargil
war.
42. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct: Under the scheme,
O state transmission component.
existing individual micro food processing
units desirous of upgrading their units
can avail credit-linked capital subsidy
at 35% of the eligible project cost with a
maximum ceiling of Rs.10 lakh per unit.
SC
 Support would be provided through credit
linked grants at 35% for development of
common infrastructure including common
processing facility, lab, warehouse, etc.
through FPOs/SHGs/cooperatives or state
owned agencies or private enterprise.
GS
 Salient features of the scheme are:
 The Scheme adopts One District One
Product (ODODP) approach to reap
benefit of scale in terms of procurement
of inputs, availing common services
and marketing of products.
 The Scheme also place focus on waste
to wealth products, minor forest
products and Aspirational Districts.
 Special focus on capacity building
and research: Academic and research
institutions under MoFPI along with
State Level Technical Institutions
would be provided support for training
of units, product development,
appropriate packaging and machinery
for micro units
 Existing individual micro food
processing units desirous of upgrading
their units can avail credit-linked
capital subsidy at 35% of the eligible
17
project cost with a maximum ceiling of
Rs.10 lakh per unit.
43. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: A Green
Energy Corridor project for evacuation
of renewable energy from generation
points to the load centres by creating
intra-state and inter-state transmission
infrastructure is under implementation
in renewable resource rich states.
 Statement 2 is correct: PAs for Green
Corridors-II for solar parks, work is
underway for six solar parks in Andhra
Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka,
Rajasthan and Gujarat.
RE
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The intra-state
transmission component of the project
is being implemented by the respective
states and the Power Grid Corporation of
India (PGCIL) is implementing the inter-
44. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct: Extended Producer
Responsibility (EPR) is a policy approach
under which producers are given a
significant responsibility – financial and/
or physical – for the treatment or disposal
of post-consumer products.
 Assigning such responsibility could in
principle provide incentives to prevent
wastes at the source, promote product
design for the environment and support
the achievement of public recycling and
materials management goals.
 EPR is carried out bearing in mind that
brand owners have the greatest control
over product design and hence are in a
better position to design their products in
such a manner that it will reduce harmful
effects on the environment as a whole.
 Extended Producers Responsibility is done
through, reuse, buyback, or recycling.
The producer has also the option of
delegating this responsibility to a third-
party which can be paid by the producer
for used-product management. This shifts
the responsibility for waste management
from the government to private industries,
making it easy for producers or sellers to
internalize waste management and ensure
the safe handling of their products.
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02
  The E-Waste (Management and
Handling) Rules, 2011 introduced the
concept of EPR for the first time in India,
while the E-Waste (Management) Rules,
2016 brought more stringent targets
for collection of end-of-life products and
simplified the process of applying for EPR
authorisation.
 The E-waste Rules place main
responsibility of e-waste management
on the producers of the electrical and
electronic equipment by introducing
the concept of “extended producer
responsibility” (EPR).
 The e-waste (Management & Handling)
Rules, 2011 were notified in May 2011
and became effective from 01-05-2012.
45. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct: As per the India
State of Forest Report, 2021, the top
five States in terms of forest cover as
Mizoram (84.53%), Arunachal Pradesh
O
percentage of total geographical area are:
(79.33%), Meghalaya (76.00%), Manipur
(74.34%) and Nagaland (73.90%).
SC
 It is published every two years by the
Forest Survey of India under the Ministry
of Environment, Forests and Climate
Change.
 Key findings are:
 The total forest and tree cover of the
country is 80.9 million hectare which
GS
is 24.62 percent of the geographical
area of the country. As compared to
the assessment of 2019, there is an
increase of 2,261 sq km in the total
forest and tree cover of the country.
Out of this, the increase in the forest
cover has been observed as 1,540 sq km
and that in tree cover is 721 sq km.
 Increase in forest cover has been
observed in open forest followed by
very dense forest. Top three states
showing increase in forest cover are
Andhra Pradesh (647 sq km) followed
by Telangana (632 sq km) and Odisha
(537 sq km).
 Area-wise Madhya Pradesh has
the largest forest cover in the
country followed by Arunachal
Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and
Maharashtra. In terms of forest cover
as percentage of total geographical
area, the top five States are Mizoram
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02 18
(84.53%), Arunachal Pradesh (79.33%),
Meghalaya (76.00%), Manipur (74.34%)
and Nagaland (73.90%).
 17 states/UT have above 33 percent
of the geographical area under forest
cover. Out of these states and UT’s,
five states/UTs namely Lakshadweep,
Mizoram, Andaman & Nicobar Islands,
Arunachal Pradesh and Meghalaya
have more than 75 percent forest cover
while 12 states/UTs namely Manipur,
Nagaland, Tripura, Goa, Kerala,
Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Chhattisgarh,
Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman &
Diu, Assam, Odisha, have forest cover
between 33 percent to 75 percent.
 Total mangrove cover in the country is
4,992 sq km. An increase of 17 sq Km in
RE
mangrove cover has been observed as
compared to the previous assessment
of 2019. Top three states showing
mangrove cover increase are Odisha (8
sq km) followed by Maharashtra (4 sq
km) and Karnataka (3 sq km).
 Total carbon stock in country’s forest
is estimated to be 7,204 million tonnes
and there an increase of 79.4 million
tonnes in the carbon stock of country
as compared to the last assessment
of 2019. The annual increase in the
carbon stock is 39.7 million tonnes.
 In the present ISFR 2021, FSI has
included a new chapter related to
the assessment of forest cover in the
Tiger Reserves, Corridors and Lion
conservation area of India. In this
context, the decadal assessment
of change in forest cover within
Tiger Reserves, Corridors and Lion
conservation area helps in assessing
the impact of conservation measures
and management interventions that
have been implemented over the
years.
46. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct: A harvest festival
is a celebration of the food grown on the
land. Given the difference in climate and
crops around the world, harvest festivals
can be found at various times at different
places.
 The festival is celebrated to mark the
beginning of the harvesting season in the
country: and is probably the only one that
is celebrated in every region of India, on
 the same day, but in different manners
and names.
 Different festivals in India are:
 Lohri: Observed by both Hindus and
Sikhs in the states of Punjab, Haryana,
Himachal Pradesh, and the union
territory of Jammu and Kashmir. It
marks the onset of harvest season.
 Makar Sankranti: Referring to the
Sanskrit term sankramana, which
means “to begin to move,” Makar
Sankranti is a solar holiday denoting
the northward transition of the sun
into Makar (Capricorn) on its celestial
path. It is the oldest and the most
colorful harvest festival in India. It
is also the most celebrated harvest
festival of North India.
 Pongal: In Tamil, Pongal translates
to “spilling over”, and so the festival
derives its name from the tradition of
boiling rice in a pot until it starts to
overflow. Pongal is a four-day festival
with the first day being devoted to Lord
Indra for an abundance of rain.
O
 Bhogali Bihu: The celebration starts
one night before with Uruka-the
community feast. Also known as Magh
SC
Bihu, this is a vibrant festival marked
in the east.
 Wangala: Wangala is the merriment
of 100 drums played by Garo tribes of
northeast India. During this festival,
Sun God is worshiped with immense
devotion and zeal.
GS
 Nabanna: Nabana is amongst one
of the crop festivals of India which
is famous for the paddy plantation
harvest. This is one of the most
celebrated traditions of Bengal, where
new rice is harvested with sheer joy
and stocked in homes.
47. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: As per National
Education Policy 2020, the Academic
Bank of Credits (ABC) has been envisaged
to facilitate the academic mobility of
students with the freedom to study across
the Higher Education Institutions in
the country with an appropriate “credit
transfer” mechanism from one program
to another, leading to attain a Degree/
Diploma/PG-diploma, etc.
19
 ABC shall deposit credits awarded by
registered institutions into students’
accounts. The Academic bank credit(s)
can only be shared from institutions, not
directly from the student. Only credits
submitted by an authorized institution
will be accepted for storage and validation
by the ABC.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Under the
recently released University Grants
Commission (Establishment and
Operation of Academic Bank of Credits
in Higher Education) (First Amendment)
Regulations, 2021, any university or
college can register to come under the
ABC framework irrespective of ranking
or accreditation. This includes all
central and state universities, deemed-
RE
to-be universities and autonomous
institutions.
 Following are the benefits of the
platform:
 Allows multiple entry, multiple exit
for students
 Stores student credit for a minimum
shelf life of 7 years
 Transfer credit through a single
window after approval of source and
destination academic institution
 Only verified academic institutions
can upload credits
 Improves transparency and helps
to build a more flexible approach to
curriculum design and development
48. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct: A mass extinction
event is when species vanish much faster
than they are replaced.
 This is usually defined as about 75% of
the world’s species being lost in a ‘short’
amount of geological time - less than 2.8
million years.
 There have been five events of mass
extinctions so far:
 First Mass Extinction: The Ordovician
mass extinction that occurred about
445 million years ago killed about 85%
of all species.
 Second Mass Extinction: The Devonian
mass extinction (about 375 million
years ago) wiped out about 75% of the
world’s species.
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02
  Third Mass Extinction: The Permian
mass extinction (about 250 million
years ago) also known as the Great
Dying caused the extinction of over
95% of all species.
 Fourth Mass Extinction: The Triassic
mass extinction (about 200 million
years ago) eliminated about 80%
of Earth’s species, including some
dinosaurs.
 Fifth Mass Extinction: This Cretaceous
mass extinction (about 65 million years
ago) is known for wiping out non-avian
dinosaurs.
 Ongoing Sixth Mass Extinction:
Some researchers have pointed out that
we are currently experiencing a sixth
mass extinction as the result of human-
induced climate change (referred to as
the Anthropocene extinction). Currently,
only an estimated 2% of all of the species
that ever lived are alive but the absolute
number of species is greater than ever
before. It is described as the most serious
O
environmental problem since the loss of
species will be permanent.
49. Correct Option: (d)
SC
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Web 3.0 is a
decentralized internet to be run on
blockchain technology, which would
be different from the versions in use,
Web 1.0 and Web 2.0.
GS
 World Wide Web, which is also known as
a Web, is a collection of websites or web
pages stored in web servers and connected
to local computers through the internet.
 Statement 2 is correct: Web 3.0
enables peer to peer (seller to buyer)
transactions by eliminating the role of the
intermediary.
 These websites contain text pages, digital
images, audios, videos, etc. Users can
access the content of these sites from any
part of the world over the internet using
their devices such as computers, laptops,
cell phones, etc
 Statement 3 is correct: In Web3, users
will have ownership stakes in platforms
and applications unlike now where tech
giants control the platforms.
 Gavin Wood, founder of Ethereum, a
block chain technology company, used the
term Web3 first in 2014 and in the past
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02 20
few years many others have added to the
idea of Web3.
 The internet in the Web 1.0 days was
mostly static web pages where users
would go to a website and then read and
interact with the static information. Even
though there were e-commerce websites
in the initial days it was still a closed
environment and the users themselves
could not create any content or post
reviews on the internet.
 Web 2.0 started in some form in the late
1990s itself though 2004 was when most of
its features were fully available. It is still
the age of Web 2.0 now. The differentiating
characteristic of Web 2.0 compared to Web
1.0 is that users can create content. They
can interact and contribute in the form
RE
of comments, registering likes, sharing
and uploading their photos or videos and
perform other such activities.
50. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Its principal
function is to mark record and maintain
the graves and places of commemoration
of Commonwealth of Nations military
service members who died in the two
World Wars.
 The commission is also responsible for
commemorating Commonwealth civilians
who died as a result of enemy action
during the Second World War.
 The commission, as part of its mandate,
is responsible for commemorating all
Commonwealth war dead individually
and equally. To this end, the war dead are
commemorated by a name on a headstone,
at an identified site of a burial, or on a
memorial. War dead are commemorated
uniformly and equally, irrespective of
military or civil rank, race or creed.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: CWGC is an
intergovernmental organization of six
member-states (Australia, Canada, India,
New Zealand, South Africa and United
Kingdom).
 CWGC is an intergovernmental
organisation of six member-states
(Australia, Canada, India, New Zealand,
South Africa and United Kingdom).
 It was formed in 1917 as the Imperial
War Graves Commission. However the
present name was given in 1960.
  Its headquarters is situated in
Maidenhead, UK.
51. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: It essentially
amounts to a rapidly developing storm
system, distinct from a tropical hurricane
because it occurs over mid-latitudes.
 Statement 2 is correct: Bomb cyclones
have cold air and fronts.
 Statement 3 is correct: Bomb cyclones
form during winter.
Bomb Cyclone
 A bomb cyclone is a large, intense mid-
latitude storm that has low pressure at
its center, weather fronts and an array
of associated weather, from blizzards
to severe thunderstorms to heavy
precipitation.
 It becomes a bomb when its central
pressure decreases very quickly—by at
O 
least 24 millibars in 24 hours.
 “Bombogenesis is the technical term.
‘Bomb cyclone’ is a shortened version of
it. The term bombogenesis comes from
SC
the merging of two words: bomb and
cyclogenesis. Bombogenesis is a popular
term that describes a mid-latitude cyclone
that rapidly intensifies.
 When a cyclone “bombs,” or undergoes
bombogenesis, this tells us that it has
access to the optimal ingredients for
strengthening, such as high amounts of
GS
heat, moisture and rising air.
 Bomb cyclones are different form
hurricanes in the following ways:
 It essentially amounts to a rapidly
developing storm system, distinct
from a tropical hurricane because it
occurs over mid-latitudes where fronts
of warm and cold air meet and collide,
rather than relying on the balmy ocean
waters of late summer as a catalyst.
 Bomb cyclones have cold air and fronts:
Cold air rapidly weakens hurricanes,
while it is an essential ingredient for
bomb cyclones.
 Bomb cyclones form during winter:
Hurricanes form from late spring to
early fall, while bomb cyclones form
from late fall to early spring.
 Bomb cyclones form at higher
latitudes: Hurricanes form in tropical
21
waters, while bomb cyclones form
over the northwestern Atlantic,
northwestern Pacific and sometimes
the Mediterranean Sea.
52. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
SeHAT Initiative
 Services e-Health Assistance and
Teleconsultation (SeHAT) is the tri-
services’ teleconsultation service of the
Ministry of Defense designed for all
entitled personnel and their families.
 SeHAT stay home OPD is a patient-to-
doctor system where the patient can
RE
consult a doctor remotely through the
internet using his Smartphone, laptop,
Desktop or Tablet. The consultation
occurs through video, audio and chat at
the same time.
It aims to provide quality healthcare
services to patients from the comfort of
their homes. Safe and structured video-
based clinical consultations between a
doctor in a hospital, and a patient within
the confines of his or her home anywhere
in the country, have been enabled.
 SeHAT Stay Home OPD is based on the
lines of eSanjeevani a similar free OPD
service run by the MoHFW (Ministry
of Health and Family Welfare) for all
citizens.
SeHAT OPD has been designed and

deployed by Health Informatics Group
at C-DAC Mohali, group is one of the
pioneers in eHealth/telemedicine in Asia.
53. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Technology Development Board
 Statement 1 is correct: The
Government of India constituted the
Technology Development Board (TDB) in
September 1996, under the Technology
Development Board Act, 1995, as a
statutory body, to promote development
and commercialization of indigenous
technology and adaptation of imported
technology for wider application. The
board consists of 11 Board members.
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02
  The TDB is the first organization of its
kind within the government framework
with the sole objective of commercializing
the fruit of indigenous research. The Board
plays a pro-active role by encouraging
enterprises to take up technology oriented
products.
 Statement 2 is correct: It provides
equity capital or loans to industrial
concerns and financial assistance to
research and development institutions.
The loan carries a simple interest rate of
5% per annum.
 Its other functions are:
 Facilitates interaction between
industry, scientists, technocrats and
specialists
 Fosters and innovation culture through
the contract and cooperative research
between industry and institutions
 Provides an interface with financial
institutions and commercial banks for
leveraging funds.
O designation under U.S. law that provides
54. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
SC
United Nations Commission on
International Trade Law (UNCITRAL)
 Statement 1 is correct: The United
Nations Commission on International
Trade Law (UNCITRAL) (established in
1966) is a subsidiary body of the General
Assembly of the United Nations with the
GS
general mandate to further the progressive
harmonization and unification of the
law of international trade. UNCITRAL
has since prepared a wide range of
conventions, model laws and other
instruments dealing with the substantive
law that governs trade transactions
or other aspects of business law which
have an impact on international trade.
UNCITRAL meets once a year, typically
in summer, alternatively in New York
and in Vienna.
 As is the case with most subsidiary
bodies of the General Assembly, which
is composed of all States members of
the United Nations, membership in
UNCITRAL is limited to a smaller
number of States, so as to facilitate the
deliberations. UNCITRAL was originally
composed of 29 States; its membership was
expanded in 1973 to 36 States and again
in 2004 to 60 States. The membership is
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02 22
representative of the various geographic
regions and the principal economic and
legal systems of the world. Members of
the Commission are elected for terms of
six years, the terms of half the members
expiring every three years.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: UNCITRAL is
a subsidiary body of the General Assembly
of the United Nations. The Secretariat of
UNCITRAL is the International Trade
Law Division of the Office of Legal Affairs
of the United Nations Secretariat. In
contrast, the World Trade Organization
(WTO) is an intergovernmental
organization independent from the United
Nations.
RE
55. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Major Non-NATO Ally (MNNA)
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Major
Non-NATO Ally (MNNA) status is a
foreign partners with certain benefits in
the areas of defense trade and security
cooperation.
 The Major Non-NATO Ally designation is
a powerful symbol of the close relationship
the United States shares with those
countries and demonstrates our deep
respect for the friendship for the countries
to which it is extended. While MNNA
status provides military and economic
privileges, it does not entail any security
commitments to the designated country.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
 Currently 19 countries are designated as
MNNAs under:
 Afghanistan, Argentina, Australia,
Bahrain, Brazil, Colombia, Egypt,
Israel, Japan, Jordan, Kuwait,
Morocco, New Zealand, Pakistan,
the Philippines, Qatar, South Korea,
Thailand, and Tunisia.
 In addition, Taiwan is treated as an
MNNA, without formal designation as
such.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: India is not
a MNNA of USA. In 2018, India was
elevated to Strategic Trade Authorization
tier-1 status, which allows India to
receive license-free access to wide range
of military and dual-use technologies.
56. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: NATO is a
political and military alliance of countries
from Europe and North America.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: So far, Article
5 has been invoked once - in response to
the 9/11 terrorist attacks in the United
States in 2001.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 10
of NATO’s founding document, the 1949
North Atlantic Treaty, details an “open
door policy” that welcomes any European
state that is “in a position to further the
principles” of the treaty will be welcome
to contribute to the security of the North
RE
Atlantic region.
NATO
 NATO is apolitical and military alliance
of countries from Europe and North
America.
 Political - NATO promotes democratic
O
values and enables members to consult and
cooperate on defence and security-related
issues to solve problems, build trust and,
in the long run, prevent conflict.
SC
 Military - NATO is committed to
the peaceful resolution of disputes. If
diplomatic efforts fail, it has the military
power to undertake crisis-management
operations. These are carried out
under the collective defence clause of
NATO’s founding treaty - Article 5 of the
GS
Washington Treaty or under a United
Nations mandate, alone or in cooperation
with other countries and international
organisations.
 So far, Article 5 has been invoked once -
in response to the 9/11 terrorist attacks in
the United States in 2001.
 NATO follows an open door policy with
regard to enlargement. NATO membership
is open to any other European state in a
position to further the principles of this
Treaty and to contribute to the security of
the North Atlantic area. Presently it has
30 member countries.
58. Correct Option: (a)
57. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The
Information Technology (Intermediary
Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics
23
Code) Rules, 2021, extended its regulatory
powers over internet content too,
especially on digital news platforms and
OTT platforms such as Netflix, Amazon
Prime or Hotstar.
 Statement 2 is correct: There are
no specific laws on content allowed or
prohibited in print and electronic media,
radio, films or OTT platforms.
 Statement 3 is correct: The powers
to regulate content rest only with I & B
Ministry. However, the ministry relies on
inputs from other ministries, as well as
intelligence agencies.
I&B Ministry’s Power to Regulate
Content
Earlier I&B Ministry had the powers to

regulate content across all sectors — TV
channels, newspapers and magazines,
movies in theatres and on TV, and the
radio — barring the internet. However,
the Information Technology (Intermediary
Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics
Code) Rules, 2021, extended its regulatory
powers over internet content too,
especially on digital news platforms and
OTT platforms such as Netflix, Amazon
Prime or Hotstar.
 The ministry also has the Electronic Media
Monitoring Cell, which tracks channels
for any violations of the programming and
advertising codes mentioned in the Cable
TV Network Rules, 1994. Violation can
lead to revocation of a channel’s uplinking
licence (for sending content to a satellite)
or downlinking licence (for broadcasting
to viewers through an intermediary).
 There are no specific laws on content
allowed or prohibited in print and electronic
media, radio, films or OTT platforms.
The content on any of these platforms
has to follow the free speech rules of the
country. Article 19(1) of the Constitution,
while protecting the freedom of speech,
also lists certain “reasonable restrictions”
including content related to the security
of the state, friendly relationship with
foreign states, public order, decency and
morality etc.
Explanation:
Solar Energy
 Option (a) is correct: There are two
ways we can produce electricity from the
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02
 sun light: Photovoltaic Electricity – uses
photovoltaic cells that absorb the direct
sunlight to generate electricity while
Solar-Thermal Electricity – uses a solar
collector that has a mirrored surface
which reflects the sunlight onto a receiver
that heats up a liquid. This heated up
liquid is used to make steam that produces
electricity.
 National Solar Mission (JNNSM) was
launched in 2009 with a target for Grid
Connected Solar Projects of 20,000 MW by
2022. This target was further enhanced to
100 GW (or 100,000 MW) in early 2015.
The target will principally comprise of 40
GW Rooftop and 60 GW through Large
and Medium Scale Grid Connected Solar
Power Projects.
RE
 Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI)
is a CPSU under the administrative
control of the Ministry of New and
Renewable Energy (MNRE), set up in
2011 to facilitate the implementation of
JNNSM and achievement of targets set
O
therein. It is the only CPSU dedicated to
the solar energy sector.
 Polysilicon is the building block for solar
PV manufacturing from which ingots are
60. Correct Option: (c)
SC
cast. Wafers cut from ingots are then
used to make solar cells, after which
modules are assembled. Globally, the
manufacturing of polysilicon, ingot and
wafer is dominated by China.
 A number of flagship programmes of
MNRE such as KUSUM, have provisions
GS
for mandatory use of domestically
manufactured solar PV cells. However it
was seen that some manufacturers have
been importing semi –processed solar PV
cells (generally called blue wafer) and
making final Solar PV cells with little
value addition in India.
59. Correct Option: (b)
61. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Rathotsava (Annual Car Festival)
 Of all the festivals that are held in
this temple, Kodial Theru is the most
spectacular and most eagerly awaited.
 It falls in late January or early February
in the Hindu month of Magha. It begins on
Tritiya or the third day of the bright moon
and ends on the seventh to be followed by
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02 24
Holi (Okuli) after the festival. For these
six days, the Car Festival rules in the
Car Street in front of the Venkatramana
Temple, which comes alive with colourful
decorations, illuminations and temporary
stalls.
 There is no proper date in the history of
Sri Venkataramana Temple as to when
exactly the celebration of Rathotsava
came into picture. But it strikes to us
that, somewhere around 1827 A.D., the
Brahmaratha was structured.
 A temple should have a Dhwajasthamba
in order to host Dhwajarohana, at the start
of Rathotsava. It comes to our knowledge
that only after 1785 A.D., the Rathotsava
had started.
 This is the festival where people gather
and whole-heartedly serve the lord
almighty in various forms to get blessed
by the lord. It’s a 6-day festival and each
day has its own importance.
 The sixth day, “Avabratha Snana”
(okulli) is celebrated as the end of a grand
success.
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
Coastal Vulnerability Index
 Indian National Centre for Ocean
Information Services (INCOIS) has
recently carried out coastal vulnerability
assessment for entire Indian coast at states
level to bring out an Atlas comprising 156
maps on 1:1, 00,000 scales to prepare a
Coastal Vulnerability Index (CVI).
 INCOIS is an autonomous body under
Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).
Explanation:
 Option (a) is incorrect: As per the
Drone Rules, 2021, there would also be no
restriction on drone operations by foreign-
owned companies registered in India.
 Option (b) is correct: As per the
Drone rules, 2021, no pilot licence would
be needed for micro drones for non-
commercial use, nano drones and for R&D
organisations.
 Option (c) is incorrect: The government
recently banned the import of drones with
immediate effect, except for research
and development, defence and security
purposes.
 Option (d) is incorrect: The Drone
Rules, 2021 delegates the issuance of
Certificate of Airworthiness to Quality
Council of India and certification entities
authorized by it.
Drone rules, 2021
 The Ministry of Civil Aviation notified
liberalized Drone Rules, 2021 based on
“trust, self-certification and non-intrusive
monitoring, thus replacing the existing
Unmanned Aircraft System (UAS) Rules.
 With the aim of making India a drone-
friendly nation, the rules abolish the need
of various approvals, including certificate
of conformance, certificate of maintenance,
import clearance, acceptance of existing
drones, operator permit, authorisation
of R&D organisation and student remote
O standards.
pilot licence.
 Also, the government will be developing
a digital sky platform that will have an
interactive airspace map dividing the
SC
country into four zones — green, yellow,
and red zones. There will be minimal
human interface on the digital sky
platform and most permissions will be
self-generated.
 The rules plan to reduce drone charges to
nominal levels irrespective of the size of
GS
it.
 There would also be no restriction on drone
operations by foreign-owned companies
registered in India.
 These rules abolish the need for various
approvals, including certificate of
conformance, certificate of maintenance,
import clearance, acceptance of existing
drones, operator permit, authorisation
of R&D organisation and student remote
pilot licence.
 No pilot licence would be needed for micro
drones for non-commercial use, nano
drones and for R&D organisations.
 The coverage has been increased from
300 kg to 500 kg and will cover drone
taxis, while the Issuance of Certificate
of Airworthiness has been delegated to
Quality Council of India and certification
entities authorized by it.
25
62. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: VOCs are
carbon-containing chemicals released by
petrol and diesel vehicles. They impact air
quality and human health. VOCs can have
a natural origin, too. Plants emit these
chemicals to attract pollinators, defend
themselves from pests and predators and
adapt to environmental stress.
 Statement 2 is correct: VOCs can
drive the formation of other dangerous
pollutants. For instance, they react with
sunlight and nitrogen dioxide to form
ground-level ozone. VOCs also trigger
the formation of PM2.5, a pollutant that
reaches deep into the lungs, affecting
RE
their normal functioning. It is also linked
to medical conditions such as asthma and
heart disease.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Benzene, a
chemical that induces cancer, is the only
VOC included in the ambient air-quality
Supplementary notes:
Volatile Organic Compounds (VOC)
 VOCs can irritate the eyes, nose and
throat, damage body organs and cause
cancer. Long-term exposure to VOCs is
not good because the majority of the VOCs
are carcinogenic (cancer-causing).
 India does not have a national-level
monitoring programme for VOCs.
Benzene, a chemical that induces cancer, is
the only VOC included in the ambient air-
quality standards. The other pollutants
considered are Particulate Matter10
(PM10), Particulate Matter2.5 (PM2.5),
nitrogen dioxide, Sulphur dioxide, carbon
monoxide, ozone, ammonia, lead, nickel
and benzopyrene.
 Non-methane volatile organic compounds
(NMVOC) are VOCs minus methane, a
greenhouse gas.
 Emissions of other pollutants — carbon
monoxide, PM2.5, toxic volatile organic
compounds, BTEX (Benzene, toluene,
ethylbenzene and xylene) — might drop
by 80 per cent, 44 per cent, 76 per cent
and 93 per cent, respectively.
63. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Seabed 2030
Project is a collaboration of the Nippon
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02
 Foundation of Japan and the General
Bathymetric Chart of the Oceans
(GEBCO).
 Statement 2 is correct: It aims to bring
together all available bathymetric data to
produce the definitive map of the world
ocean floor by 2030 and make it available
to all.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: GEBCO
operates under the joint auspices of
the Intergovernmental Oceanographic
Commission (IOC) (of UNESCO) and the
International Hydrographic Organization
(IHO).
Seabed 2030 Project
 It was launched at United Nations Ocean
Conference in 2017.
 It is aligned with the UN’s Sustainable
Development Goal (SDG) 14 to conserve
and sustainably use the oceans, seas and
marine resources.
 Seabed 2030 project comprises four
O
Regional Centers and a Global Center (in
UK).
 GEBCO is an international group
of geoscientists and hydrographers,
SC
working on the development of a range of
bathymetric data sets and data products.
GEBCO is the only intergovernmental
organization with a mandate to map the
entire ocean floor.
64. Correct Option: (b)
GS
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Statistics
concerning industrial accidents are
produced by the Labour Bureau. It
compiles and publishes data on industrial
injuries relating only to a few sectors, viz.
factories, mines, railways, docks and ports.
It does not provide statistics on injuries
by adding sectors such as plantations,
construction, the service sector, etc.
 Statement 2 is correct: The Code on
Occupational Safety, Health and Working
Conditions, 2020 fixes the maximum daily
work hour limit at eight hours per day.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: India has
ratified International Labour Organization
(ILO) conventions, the Labour Inspection
Convention, 1947 (C081) and Labour
Statistics Convention, 1985 (C160).
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02
Code on Occupational Safety, Health
and Working Conditions, 2020
 It empowers the state government
to exempt any new factory from the
provisions of the Code in order to create
more economic activity and employment.
 It defines a factory as any premises where
manufacturing process is carried out and
it employs more than: (i) 20 workers
for premises where the manufacturing
process is carried out using power, and
(ii) 40 workers for premises where it is
carried out without using power.
 It includes all establishments where
any hazardous activity is carried out
regardless of the number of workers.
The Code will apply to establishments or
RE

contractors employing 50 or more workers
(on any day in the last one year).
 It prohibits contract labour in core
activities, except where: (i) the normal
functioning of the establishment is such
that the activity is ordinarily done through
contractor, (ii) the activities are such that
they do not require full time workers for
the major portion of the day, or (iii) there
is a sudden increase in the volume work
in the core activity which needs to be
completed in a specified time.
 The appropriate government will decide
whether an activity of the establishment
is a core activity or not. However, the Bill
defines a list of non-core activities where
the prohibition would not apply. This
includes a list of 11 works including: (i)
sanitation workers, (ii) security services,
and (iii) any activity of intermittent
nature even if that constitutes a core
activity of an establishment.
 It fixes the maximum daily work hour
limit at eight hours per day.
 It provides that women will be entitled
to be employed in all establishments for
all types of work under the Bill. It also
provides that in case they are required
to work in hazardous or dangerous
operations, the government may require
the employer to provide adequate
safeguards prior to their employment.
65. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct: The United
Nations Rules for the Treatment of Women
Prisoners and Non-custodial Measures for
26
 Women Offenders (the Bangkok Rules)
were adopted by the General Assembly
in 2010. These state that “non-custodial
means should be preferred for pregnant
women during the pre-trial phase”.
The 2020 Prison Statistics report
 The 2020 Prison Statistics report
reveals that as compared to 2019, “the
release of convicts has declined by 41.2
per cent and the release of undertrials
has declined by 19.6 per cent” in 2020.
Second, as compared to 2019, the number
of undertrial prisoners increased by 11.7
per cent and the number of detenues
increased by 11.4 per cent in 2020.
 The pandemic saw the creation of new
dockets which were mainly related to
violations of “lockdown law” under section
188 of the IPC (disobedience to order duly
promulgated by public servant). In 2019,
there were 29,469 cases registered under
this section. In 2020, this increased to a
staggering 6,12,179 cases. Other laws
O
were also used, including local laws,
leading to 16,43,690 more cases being
registered in 2020 as compared to 2019.
No amnesty has been announced for
these offences nor has the misuse of the
SC
“epidemic laws” seen judicial review.
 As prisons instituted a lockdown on public
accountability, the rates of custodial
deaths have increased by 7.0 per cent in
2020. So-called unnatural deaths, which
include suicides, accidents, and murders
GS
in prisons, increased by 18.1 per cent.
66. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Central
Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA)
is a statutory body established under the
Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
 Statement 2 is correct: The CCPA has
the powers to inquire or investigate into
matters relating to violations of consumer
rights or unfair trade practices suo
motu, or on a complaint received, or on a
direction from the central government.
Central Consumer Protection Authority
(CCPA)
 The authority has been constituted under
Section 10(1) of The Consumer Protection
Act, 2019.
27
 The CCPA aims to protect the rights of
the consumer by cracking down on unfair
trade practices, and false and misleading
advertisements that are detrimental to the
interests of the public and consumers.
67. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: It is the third
generation launch vehicle of India. It
is the first Indian launch vehicle to be
equipped with liquid stages.
 Statement 2 is correct: Due to their sun-
synchronism nature, these orbits are also
referred to as “Low Earth Orbit (LEO)”
which enables the on-board camera to
take images of the earth under the same
RE
sun-illumination conditions during each
of the repeated visits, the satellite makes
over the same area on ground thus making
the satellite useful for earth resources
monitoring.
68. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
FIU-IND
 Directorate of Enforcement is a specialized
financial investigation agency under
the Department of Revenue, Ministry of
Finance, Government of India, enforces
the Prevention of Money Laundering Act,
2002 (PMLA).
 Financial Intelligence Unit - India (FIU-
IND) under the Department of Revenue,
Ministry of Finance is the central national
agency responsible for receiving,
processing, analyzing and disseminating
information relating to suspect financial
transactions to enforcement agencies and
foreign FIUs.
69. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a central
sector scheme of Ministry of Panchayati
Raj.
 Statement 2 is correct: Scheme is a
reformative step towards establishment
of clear ownership of property in rural
inhabited (Abadi) areas, by mapping of
land parcels using drone technology and
providing ‘Record of Rights’ to village
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02
 household owners with issuance of legal
ownership cards (Property cards/Title
deeds) to the property owners.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The scheme
was launched nation-wide after the
successful completion of pilot phase of
scheme (2020-2021) in 9 states.
SVAMITVA Scheme
 SVAMITVA (Survey of Villages and
Mapping with Improvised Technology in
Village Areas) is a Central Sector Scheme
of Ministry of Panchayati Raj and was
launched nation-wide after successful
completion of pilot phase of scheme (2020-
2021) in 9 states.
 The Scheme is implemented with the
collaborative efforts of the Ministry
of Panchayati Raj, State Revenue
Department, State Panchayati Raj
Department and Survey of India.
 The scheme covers multifarious aspects
viz. facilitating monetisation of properties
and enabling bank loan; reducing property
related disputes; comprehensive village
O
level planning, would be the stepping-
stone towards achieving Gram Swaraj
in true sense and making rural India
Atmanirbhar.
SC
 The scheme seeks to achieve the following
objectives:
 Creation of accurate land records for
rural planning and reduce property
related disputes.
 To bring financial stability to the
GS
citizens in rural India by enabling
them to use their property as a
financial asset for taking loans and
other financial benefits.
 Determination of property tax, which
would accrue to the GPs directly in
States where it is devolved or else, add
to the State exchequer.
 Creation of survey infrastructure and
GIS maps that can be leveraged by any
department for their use.
 To support in preparation of better-
quality Gram Panchayat Development
Plan (GPDP) by making use of GIS
maps
70. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: In India, an
IFSC has to be approved by the Central
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02
Government under the Special Economic
Zones (SEZ) Act, 2005.
 Statement 2 is correct: A unit set up
in IFSC is treated as a “person resident
outside India” (i.e. non-resident) for
exchange control purposes whereas a
domestic unit is treated as a “person
resident in India”.
 Statement 3 is correct: An Alternative
Investment Fund (AIF) is an investment
vehicle, set up in India, which privately
pools funds from domestic as well foreign
investors and invests such funds / monies
in securities as per a defined investment
policy.
International Financial Service Centre
(IFSC)
RE
 An IFSC is a special jurisdiction from
where global financial service providers
offer financial services/products to global
customers in foreign currencies.
 In India, the role of an IFSC is to
undertake financial services transactions
that are currently carried on outside
India by overseas financial institutions
and overseas branches / subsidiaries of
Indian financial institutions.
 Gujarat International Finance Tec-City
(GIFT City) is India’s only approved
IFSC located in the city of Gandhinagar,
Gujarat.
 In India, an IFSC has to be approved
by the Central Government under the
Special Economic Zones (SEZ) Act, 2005
and is also governed by several Financial
Services regulators such as Reserve Bank
of India (RBI), Securities and Exchange
Board of India (SEBI) and Insurance
Regulatory and Development Authority
(IRDAI).
 A unit set up in IFSC is treated as a “person
resident outside India” (i.e. non-resident)
for exchange control purposes whereas
a domestic unit is treated as a “person
resident in India”. Hence, an IFSC unit
enjoys the privileges of a non-resident
under exchange control provisions.
 An Alternative Investment Fund (AIF)
is an investment vehicle, set up in India,
which privately pools funds from domestic
as well foreign investors and invests such
funds / monies in securities as per a defined
investment policy. In India, an AIF, along
with its constituents, is regulated by the
SEBI under the SEBI (AIF) Regulations,
2012.
28
  An AIF can be set up in the form of a trust,
company, LLP or body corporate in the
IFSC. An AIF in IFSC can raise money in
any foreign currency.
 An AIF in IFSC can invest in listed
securities in India under the Foreign
Portfolio Investor (FPI) route. For this
purpose, the AIF should also obtain a FPI
license from SEBI under the SEBI (FPI)
regulations, 2014.
 The key benefits for an AIF in IFSC are
as follows:
 Various tax and regulatory incentives
and exemptions granted
 Lower operating costs due to subsidies
granted by the Gujarat Government
 Availability of skilled labour
 Proximity to the onshore market
 World class infrastructure,
unparalleled connectivity and
transportation access O 73. Correct Option: (b)
71. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
SC
 Option (c) is correct: It is a State
Festival of Govt. of Telangana and is
a festival with no Vedic or brahmanic
influence.
Medaram Jathara
 The Medaram Jathara is the second-
GS
largest fair of India, after the Kumbh
Mela, celebrated by the second-largest
Tribal Community of Telangana – the
Koya tribe for four days.
 It is a tribal festival of honoring the
goddesses celebrated in the state of
Telangana, India.
 The Jathara begins at Medaram in Tadvai
Mandal in Mulugu district.
 It commemorates the fight of a mother and
daughter, Sammakka and Saralamma,
with the reigning rulers against an unjust
law. It is believed that after Kumbha Mela,
the Medaram Jathara attracts the largest
number of devotees in the country.
 Medaram is a remote place in the
Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary, a part
of Dandakaranya, the largest surviving
forest belt in the Mulugu.
29
72. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 The Crimson Rose Butterfly are largely
found in Sri Lanka and India and possibly
the coastline of western Myanmar.
Crimson Rose Butterflies
 Crimson Rose Butterfly is a big size
swallowtail butterfly that comes from
the genus Pachliopta of the Papilionidae
family.
 In India, they are found in South India,
particularly in Kerala, the Western Ghats
and the eastern parts of India, particularly
in Odisha and West Bengal.
 The Crimson Rose Butterfly is extremely
fond of flowers, particularly Lantana.
RE
The nectar of these flowers appears to be
necessary for the Crimson Rose Butterfly
and higher nectar ingestion is considered
to increase the production of egg in female
butterflies.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: NMSC will act
as an interface between the civilian and
military maritime domain to enhance
security architecture and energy security
in India.
 Statement 2 is correct: NMSC will also
be tasked with improving the country’s
blue economy needs.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The Maritime
Security Coordinator will work under
Indian National Security Advisor and be
the principal advisor to the government
on the maritime security domain.
National Maritime Security Coordinator
(NMSC)
 After the 26/11 terror attacks in 2008,
the Defence Ministry had proposed the
creation of a Maritime Security Advisory
Board, and appointment of a Maritime
Security Advisor, but that was kept
pending.
 Former Vice Chief of Navy Vice Admiral
G Ashok Kumar has recently been
appointed as the country’s first National
Maritime Security Coordinator (NMSC).
 NMSC will act as an interface between the
civilian and military maritime domain to
enhance security architecture and energy
security in India.
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02
  The portfolio of NMSC will include the
coordination among the Indian Navy,
the Indian Coast Guard (ICG), security
agencies involved in coastal and maritime
security, and 13 coastal states and Union
Territories.
 The Maritime Security Coordinator will
work under Indian National Security
Advisor and be the principal advisor to
the government on the maritime security
domain.
 NMSC will also be tasked with improving
the country’s blue economy needs. He will
look at all aspects of maritime security,
and will be the nodal point for all issues
related to it.
 The appointment of NMSC fills the need
of the hour as the Navy, Coast Guard and
state maritime boards all tend to work in
silos with overlapping jurisdictions and
are constantly at odds with each other.
 The need for such a coordinating agency
O
was first expressed by the Group of
Ministers formed after the Kargil War.
The GoM had recommended in its report
that an “apex body for management of
SC
maritime affairs should be formed for
institutionalized linkages between the
Navy, Coast Guard and the concerned
Ministries of the Central and the State
Governments”, and had asked the Defence
Ministry to “take necessary action to
constitute the apex body”.
GS
74. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
Battle of Saraighat
 The battle of Saraighat was a naval
engagement fought on the Brahmaputra
River near Saraighat between the Mughal
Empire and the Ahom Kingdom in 1671.
 Lachit Borphukan represented a time
when the “Assamese race was united and
able to fight an alien, formidable force
such as the Mughals.
 Today, Lachit Borphukan’s victory is
honored with a gold medal given every
year to the best cadet graduating from the
National Defence Academy (NDA). A bust
of Lachit stands at the NDA’s entrance.
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02 30
75. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Weed to Wealth
 The lantana camara is a dangerous weed
that has taken over 40 per cent of India’s
forests, displacing the native flora and
increasing human-wildlife conflict.
 Tea factories, coffee curing units, hotels
and resorts all currently use LPG and
wood for heating and drying purposes.
This can potentially be replaced by
producer gas that results from gasifying
lantana.
 The soil in such a hilly region is acidic
which, when compounded by nutrient
RE
run-off caused by heavy rain, affects
agriculture here. Biochar could be a silver
bullet in terms of significantly improving
the quality of the soil as the porous
substance preserves water and essential
plant nutrients, and reduces the use
of harmful chemical fertilisers. In fact,
some organic tea gardens in Assam have
adopted the practice of applying biochar.
 On a large scale, biochar can trap tonnes
of carbon in the soil, preventing it from
being released into the atmosphere to
contribute to global warming. The IPCC’s
2018 report says, ‘converting waste plant
material into a charcoal-like substance
called biochar and burying it in soil can
also be used to store carbon away from
the atmosphere for decades to centuries’.
 Burning biomass in low-oxygen conditions
creates biochar, a carbon-rich substance
that some experts tout as the key to soil
rejuvenation. Relatively light-weight and
porous, biochar can act like a sponge and
serve as a habitat for many beneficial
soil microorganisms that are known to
promote soil and plant health.
76. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct: The Nathdwara
School is a subset of the Mewar School of
painting.
Nathdwara Paintings
 One of the most exquisite styles in the
Indian painting tradition, the pichvai
paintings of Nathdwara, originated in
the 17th century and flourished under the
patronage of the Nathdwara temple.
  The word Pichwai derives from the
Sanskrit words pich meaning back and
wais meaning hanging.
 The central figure was often that of
Shrinathji — Lord Krishna as a seven-
year-old boy — with crescent-shaped eyes,
a garland of lotus buds around his neck
and his left arm raised up, a reference
to when the young god lifted up mount
Govardhan to protect the inhabitants of
Vraj from Indra’s flood.
 This, and other episodes from Krishna’s
life, were common subjects for artists, who
dreamed up detailed compositions, often
featuring delicate pink lotuses, white
cows with red handprints on them and
the gopis who flocked around Krishna.
 The paintings were mostly on large cloth
pieces called pichvais, traditionally used
as backdrops for the idol in Shrinathji’s
haveli in Nathdwara.
 Originally, these were works of sacred art,
created by the artists as an expression
of their devotion and depicted the many

moods of the lord.
O
The Nathdwara School is a subset of the
Mewar School of painting and is seen as
an important school in the 17th and 18th
SC
century miniature paintings. The sub-
styles of Mewar painting include Udaigarh,
Devgarh and Nathdwara as important
centers of miniature production.
77. Correct Option: (c)
GS
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
New Notification to Reduce Air
Pollution from Brick Kilns
 Brick kilns have been identified as
a major source of pollution in many
non-attainment cities, that do not
fulfil MoEF&CC stipulated air quality
requirements.
 The notification has paved the way to
reduce air pollution from brick kilns.
 Salient features of this notification are:
 Standard for PM emissions — 250
milligram per normal cubic metre (mg
/ Nm3)
 Existing brick kilns shall be converted
to either zig-zag technology or vertical
shaft or use of PNG as fuel in brick
making within a period of one year in
31
case of kilns located within a 10 km
radius of non-attainment cities and
two years for other areas.
 All brick kilns shall use approved
fuel such as PNG, coal, fire wood and
/ or agricultural residues. Use of pet
coke, tyres, plastic, and hazardous
waste shall not be allowed in brick
kilns.
 Brick kilns shall construct permanent
facility for port hole and platform
according to the norms laid down by
the Central Pollution Control Board
(CPCB).
 Brick kilns shall follow fugitive
dust emission control guidelines as
prescribed by concerned SPCBs.
RE
 The brick kiln owners shall
ensure that the roads utilized
for transporting raw material or
bricks are paved.
78. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Zombie fires
happen as a result of wildfires. They’re
called zombie fires as they seem to come
back from the dead.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Zombie fires -
also known as overwintering fires - are a
rare phenomenon that occur in countries
like Canada, Alaska, and Russia.
Zombie Fires
 After a wildfire has been extinguished
on the surface, some of it can still burn
belowground in secret, fueled by peat and
methane.
 These fires can continue to burn all
through winter, hidden under a layer of
snow, and in spring as the temperature
rises, the snow melts and the soil dries
out, the wildfires can re-ignite and spread
once again.
 With low oxygen levels under the
snowpack, overwintering fires smoulder
slowly, only to flare up again when the
snow melts and dry conditions arrive in
the spring.
 The fires in the Arctic spreading to areas
which were formerly fire-resistant is a
more worrying feature.
 The tundra is drying up and vegetation
there like moss, grass, dwarf shrubs etc.
are starting to catch fire.
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02
  The fires and record temperatures had
the potential of turning the carbon sink
into a carbon source and increasing global
warming.
 The Arctic region has a cold body of water
and permafrost, it naturally acts as a
carbon sink. Soils in areas of permafrost
contain twice as much carbon as there is
currently in the atmosphere.
 As the climate and permafrost soils have
warmed, microbes have started to break
down this organic carbon, which has
been frozen and fixed in the permafrost.
That has led to a rise in land emissions of
CO2 and methane. Also there will be less
absorption of carbon by water with rising
temperature.
RE
79. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
ISSG
O receive the remaining 90%.
 The Invasive Species Specialist Group
(ISSG), established in 1994, is a global
network of scientific and policy experts
SC
on invasive species, organized under
the auspices of the Species Survival
Commission (SSC) of the International
Union for Conservation of Nature
(IUCN).
 The Global Invasive Species Database
(GISD) is managed by the Invasive
GS
Species Specialist Group (ISSG) of the
IUCN Species Survival Commission. It
was developed between 1998 and 2000 as
part of the global initiative on invasive
species led by the erstwhile Global
Invasive Species Programme (GISP).
81. Correct Option: (d)
80. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: For afforestation,
the company should pay to plant new
trees in the alternative land provided to
the state.
 Statement 2 is correct: To compensate
the loss of forest area and to maintain the
sustainability, the Government of India
came up with a well-defined Act, known
as Compensatory Afforestation Fund
Management and Planning Authority
(CAMPA) Act.
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02 32
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The National
Fund will receive 10% of these funds, and
the State Funds will receive the remaining
90%.
Compensatory Afforestation
 Compensatory afforestation means that
every time forest land is diverted for non-
forest purposes such as mining or industry,
the user agency pays for planting forests
over an equal area of non-forest land, or
when such land is not available, twice the
area of degraded forest land.
 The law establishes the National
Compensatory Afforestation Fund under
the Public Account of India, and a State
Compensatory Afforestation Fund under
the Public Account of each state.
 These Funds will receive payments for:
(i) compensatory afforestation, (ii) net
present value of forest (NPV), and (iii)
other project specific payments.
 The National Fund will receive 10% of
these funds, and the State Funds will
 The funds can be used for treatment
of catchment areas, assisted natural
generation, forest management, wildlife
protection and management, relocation of
villages from protected areas, managing
human-wildlife conflicts, training and
awareness generation, supply of wood
saving devices and allied activities.
 According to the Act’s provision, a company
diverting forest land must provide
alternative land to take up compensatory
afforestation.
 For afforestation, the company should
pay to plant new trees in the alternative
land provided to the state.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Compulsory
Licensing is not same as tearing up the
patent. The patent owner still has rights
over the patent, including a right to be paid
compensation for copies of the products
made under the compulsory license.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Under
Article 31of TRIPS, a CL is available
to all members for the purpose of local
manufacturing or import. The TRIPS
Agreement was amended following a
decision at the 2001 Doha Ministerial
 Conference when Ministers recognized
that countries unable to manufacture
pharmaceuticals should be able to obtain
cheaper copies produced under compulsory
licenses elsewhere if necessary. It’s
therefore a compulsory license especially
for production in one country, for export,
to meet the public health needs of one or
more other countries.
Compulsory Licensing
 Compulsory licensing is when a
government allows someone else to
produce a patented product or process
without the consent of the patent owner
or plans to use the patent-protected
invention itself.
 It is one of the flexibilities in the field of
patent protection included in the WTO’s
agreement on intellectual property —
the TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of
Intellectual Property Rights) Agreement.
 The TRIPS Agreement does not specifically
list the reasons that might be used toO
justify compulsory licensing. However,
the Doha Declaration on TRIPS and
Public Health confirms that countries are
free to determine the grounds for granting
compulsory licenses, and to determine
SC
what constitutes a national emergency.
 This concept is also recognized at national
level with express mention in both (Indian)
Patent Act, 1970.
 During the entire pandemic, India rarely
made use of the existing flexibilities under
GS
the Indian Patent Act, such as compulsory
licences (CL), which are consistent with
the TRIPS agreement, to increase the
supply of Covid-19 medical products
despite being nudged by the judiciary to
do so.
82. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Dark matter
is not antimatter, because we do not
see the unique gamma rays that are
produced when antimatter annihilates
with matter.
Dark Matter
 Unlike normal matter, dark matter does
not interact with the electromagnetic
force. This means it does not absorb,
reflect or emit light, making it extremely
hard to spot. In fact, researchers have
33
been able to infer the existence of dark
matter only from the gravitational effect
it seems to have on visible matter. Dark
matter seems to outweigh visible matter
roughly six to one, making up about 27%
of the universe.
 We are much more certain what dark
matter is not than we are what it is.
First, it is dark, meaning that it is not
in the form of stars and planets that we
see. Observations show that there is far
too little visible matter in the universe
to make up the 27% required by the
observations. Second, it is not in the form
of dark clouds of normal matter, matter
made up of particles called baryons. We
know this because we would be able to
detect baryonic clouds by their absorption
RE
of radiation passing through them. Third,
dark matter is not antimatter, because we
do not see the unique gamma rays that are
produced when antimatter annihilates
with matter.
Dark Energy
 Dark energy makes up approximately
68% of the universe and appears to be
associated with the vacuum in space.
It is distributed evenly throughout the
universe, not only in space but also in
time – in other words, its effect is not
diluted as the universe expands. The even
distribution means that dark energy does
not have any local gravitational effects,
but rather a global effect on the universe
as a whole. This leads to a repulsive force,
which tends to accelerate the expansion
of the universe.
83. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
Minsk agreements
 There are two Minsk agreements, Minsk
1 and Minsk 2. Minsk 1 was written in
September 2014 by the Trilateral Contact
Group on Ukraine, i.e. Ukraine, Russia,
and the OSCE with mediation by France
and Germany. Under Minsk 1, Ukraine
and the Russia-backed rebels agreed on
a 12-point ceasefire deal, which due to
violations by both sides, did not last long.
 In February 2015, representatives of
Russia, Ukraine, the OSCE and the leaders
of Donetsk and Luhansk signed a 13-point
agreement, now known as the Minsk 2
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02
 accord. However, the provisions under the
agreement have not been implemented
because of the ‘Minsk Conundrum’.
Russia believes that the agreement asks
Ukraine to grant the Russia-backed rebels
in Donbas comprehensive autonomy and
representation in the central Government.
Only when this is done will Russia hand
over control of the Russia-Ukraine border
to Ukraine. Ukraine, on the other hand,
feels that Minsk 2 allows it to first re-
establish control over Donbas, then give
it control of the Russia-Ukraine border,
then have elections in the Donbas, and a
limited devolution of power to the rebels.
Ukraine believes the accord supports its
sovereignty fully while Russia believes it
only gives Ukraine limited sovereignty.
Thus, the Minsk 2 agreement has been
rightly criticised for being too hastily
drafted, ambiguous and contradictory,
making it difficult to implement.
84. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
O fisheries sector.
 Statement 1 is correct: Pradhan Mantri
Matsya Sampada Yojana is a scheme to
bring about Blue Revolution through
SC
sustainable and responsible development
of fisheries sector in India
 Statement 2 is correct: PMMSY is
being implemented in all the States and
Union Territories for a period of 5 years
from FY 2020-21 to FY 2024-25.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Increasing
GS
fish production to 22 million metric tons
by 2024-25 from 13.75 million metric tons
in 2018-19.
Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada
Yojana (PMMSY)
 The Department of Fisheries, Ministry
of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry
and Dairying, Government of India
is implementing Pradhan Mantri
Matsya Sampada Yojana – A scheme to
bring about Blue Revolution through
sustainable and responsible development
of fisheries sector in India at an estimated
investment of Rs. 20050 crores for holistic
development of fisheries sector including
welfare of fishers.
 PMMSY is designed to address critical
gaps in the fisheries value chain from fish
production, productivity and quality to
technology, post-harvest infrastructure
and marketing. It aims to modernize
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02 34
and strengthen the value chain, enhance
traceability and establish a robust
fisheries management framework while
simultaneously ensuring the socio-
economic welfare of fishers and fish
farmers.
 Targets of PMMSY are:
 Increasing fish production to 22 million
metric tons by 2024-25 from 13.75
million metric tons in 2018-19.
 Enhancing aquaculture productivity
to 5 tons per hectare from the current
national average of 3 tons.
 Augmenting domestic fish consumption
from 5 kg to 12 kg per capita.
 Increasing contribution of fisheries
RE
sector to the Agriculture GVA to about
9% by 2024-25 from 7.28% in 2018-19.
 Doubling export earnings to
Rs.1,00,000 crores by 2024-25 from
Rs.46,589 crores in 2018-19.
 Facilitating private investment and
growth of entrepreneurship in the
 Reduction of post-harvest losses from
the reported 20-25% to about 10%.
 Generating 55 lakh direct and indirect
employment opportunities along the
value chain.
 Doubling the incomes of fishers and
fish farmers.
85. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Linguistic and Cultural Diversity
 The Yuelu Proclamation, made by the
UNESCO at Changsha, The People’s
Republic of China, in 2018, says: “The
protection and promotion of linguistic
diversity helps to improve social inclusion
and partnerships, helps to reduce the
gender and social inequality between
different native speakers, guarantee the
rights for native speakers of endangered,
minority, indigenous languages, as well
as non-official languages and dialects
to receive education, enhance the social
inclusion level and social decision-
making ability by encouraging them
to participate in a series of actions to
promote cultural diversity, endangered
language protection, and the protection of
intangible cultural heritage...”
  From the very first day of school, many
schoolchildren have the ambivalent
experience of discovering one language -
and the world of ideas which comes with it
- and forgetting another one: the language
they have known since infancy”.
 This distancing from the mother tongue
affects us all, for linguistic diversity is
a common good. And the protection of
linguistic diversity is a duty.”
 Learning or forgetting a language is thus
not merely about acquiring or losing a
means of communication. It is about
seeing an entire world either appear or
fade away.
 United Nations recognizes that languages
play a vital role in development,
in ensuring cultural diversity and
intercultural dialogue.
 Technology has the power to address some
of the biggest challenges in education
today.
 This includes mother tongue-based
multilingual learning, a key element
O
for inclusion in education, which also
fosters respect for diversity and a sense
of interconnectedness between countries
and peoples.
SC
 Technology therefore makes it possible
to be in a real situation, which we do
not necessarily have with a book or a
textbook.
86. Correct Option: (b)
GS
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: In a Customs
union, partner countries may decide to
trade at zero duty among themselves,
however they maintain common tariffs
against rest of the world.
 Statement 2 is correct: CECA/CEPA
looks deeper at the regulatory aspects of
trade than an FTA. It is on account of this
that it encompasses mutual recognition
agreements (MRAs) that covers the
regulatory regimes of the partners.
Comprehensive Economic Partnership
Agreement (CEPA)
 Comprehensive Economic Cooperation
Agreement (CECA) and Comprehensive
Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA)
describe agreements which consist of an
integrated package on goods, services
and investment along with other areas
including IPR, competition etc. The India
35
Korea CEPA is one such example and it
covers a broad range of other areas like
trade facilitation and customs cooperation,
investment, competition, IPR etc.
 In a Customs union, partner countries
may decide to trade at zero duty among
themselves, however they maintain
common tariffs against rest of the
world. An example is Southern African
Customs Union (SACU) amongst South
Africa, Lesotho, Namibia, Botswana and
Swaziland. European Union is also an
outstanding example.
 Integration provided by a Common
market is one step deeper than that by
a Customs Union. A common market
is a Customs Union with provisions to
facilitate free movements of labour and
RE
capital, harmonize technical standards
across members etc. European Common
Market is an example.
 Economic Union is a Common Market
extended through further harmonization
of fiscal/monetary policies and shared
executive, judicial & legislative

institutions. European Union (EU) is an
example.
A Comprehensive Economic Cooperation
Agreement (CECA) or a Comprehensive
Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA)
is different from a traditional Free Trade
Agreement (FTA) on two counts:
 Firstly, CECA/CEPA are more
comprehensive and ambitious that
an FTA in terms of coverage of areas
and the type of commitments. While
a traditional FTA focuses mainly
on goods; a CECA/CEPA is more
ambitious in terms of a holistic
coverage of many areas like services,
investment, competition, government
procurement, disputes etc.
 Secondly, CECA/CEPA looks deeper
at the regulatory aspects of trade
than an FTA. It is on account of
this that it encompasses mutual
recognition agreements (MRAs) that
covers the regulatory regimes of the
partners. An MRA recognises different
regulatory regimes of partners on the
presumption that they achieve the
same end objectives.
87. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: It showcases all
types of ships and capabilities the Navy
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02
 has. The review also includes merchant
ships.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It takes place
once under every President. There is no
provision for a maximum gap between
two Presidential Fleet Reviews. The
longest gap between reviews was of 12
years — between 1989 (President R
Venkatraman) and when 2001 (President
K R Narayanan).
President’s Fleet Review
 In simplest terms, it is the country’s
President taking stock of the Navy’s
capability. It showcases all types of ships
and capabilities the Navy has. The review
also includes merchant ships.
All naval ships do not participate. The

idea is to showcase not all the Navy’s
ships, but every type of ship — and the
kind of capabilities it has at that time.
 The President is taken on one of the Naval
ships, which is called the President’s
Yacht, to look at all the ships docked on
one of the Naval ports.
O these systems.
 The President’s Yacht this year “is an
indigenously built Naval Offshore Patrol
Vessel, INS Sumitra, which will lead the
SC
Presidential Column. The yacht will be
distinguished by the Ashoka Emblem
on her side and will fly the President’s
Standard on the Mast”.
 It takes place once under every President,
who is the supreme commander of
the armed forces. There have been
11 President’s Fleet Reviews since
GS
Independence.
 The first was conducted in 1953, under
Dr. Rajendra Prasad. The next one was
done not by the President but by the then
Defence Minister, Y B Chavan, in 1964.
Since then, it has been the President
reviewing the fleet.
 The longest gap between reviews was of
12 years — between 1989 (President R
Venkatraman) and when 2001 (President
K R Narayanan). The last one was
done in 2016, under President Pranab
Mukherjee.
 The reviews in 2001 and 2016 were
International Fleet Reviews, in which
some vessels from other countries also
participated. The Indian Navy too has
participated in international fleet reviews
in other countries, including Australia,
America, Malaysia, Indonesia, South
Korea, and the UK.
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02 36
88. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Inter-Operable Criminal Justice System
(ICJS)
 Inter-Operable Criminal Justice System
(ICJS) project is implemented as a central
sector scheme by Ministry of Home
Affairs.
 ICJS is a national platform for enabling
integration of the main IT system used for
delivery of Criminal Justice in the country.
It seeks to integrate the five pillars of
the system viz Police (through Crime
and Criminal Tracking and Network
Systems), e-Forensics for Forensic Labs,
RE
e-Courts for Courts, e-Prosecution for
Public Prosecutors and e-Prisons for
Prisons.
 According to MHA, in Phase-I of the
project, individual IT systems have been
implemented and stabilized even as
search of records have been enabled on
 Under Phase-II, the system is being built
on the principle of ‘one data one entry’
whereby data is entered only once in one
pillar and the same is then available in
all other pillars without the need to re-
enter the data in each pillar.
 ICJS system would be made available
through a dedicated and secure cloud-
based infrastructure with high speed
connectivity .
 National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB)
will be responsible for the implementation
of the project in association with National
Informatics Centre (NIC). The project will
be implemented in collaboration with the
States and Union Territories.
89. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: India is
not a signatory to the United Nations
Refugee Convention of 1951 and its 1967
Protocol.
 Statement 2 is correct: Article 33(1)
of the 1951 Convention provides: “No
Contracting State shall expel or return
(“refouler”) a refugee in any manner
whatsoever to the frontiers of territories
where his [or her] life or freedom would
be threatened on account of his [or her]
 race, religion, nationality, membership
of a particular social group or political
opinion.
 Statement 3 is correct: As per Ministry
of Home Affairs, State governments have
no powers to grant “refugee status to any
foreigner
United Nations Refugee Convention
90. Correct Option: (b)
1951
 It is a United Nations multilateral treaty
that defines who is a refugee, and sets out
the rights of individuals who are granted
asylum and the responsibilities of nations
that grant asylum.
 It also set out which people do not qualify
as refugees, such as war criminals.
RE
 It grants certain rights to people fleeing
persecution because of race, religion,
nationality, affiliation to a particular
social group, or political opinion.
 The 1967 Protocol included refugees
from all countries as opposed to the 1951
Convention that only included refugees
O nitrogen to make ammonia, avoiding
from Europe.
 The principle of non-refoulement
constitutes the cornerstone of international
refugee protection. It is enshrined in
SC
Article 33 of the 1951 Convention, which
is also binding on States Party to the
1967 Protocol. Article 33(1) of the 1951
Convention provides: “No Contracting
State shall expel or return (“refouler”)
a refugee in any manner whatsoever to
the frontiers of territories where his [or
GS
her] life or freedom would be threatened
on account of his [or her] race, religion,
nationality, membership of a particular
social group or political opinion.”
 India is not a signatory to the United
Nations Refugee Convention of 1951
and its 1967 Protocol. As per Ministry of
Home Affairs, State governments have
no powers to grant “refugee status to any
foreigner”.
 In the absence of a uniform and
comprehensive law to deal with asylum
seekers, we lack a clear vision or policy on
refugee management. We have a cocktail of
laws such as the Foreigners Act, 1946, the
Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939, the
Passports Act (1967), the Extradition Act,
1962, the Citizenship Act, 1955 (including
its controversial 2019 amendment) and
the Foreigners Order, 1948 — all of which
club all foreign individuals together as
“aliens”.
37
 Because India has neither subscribed to
international conventions on the topic nor
set up a domestic legislative framework
to deal with refugees, their problems are
dealt with in an ad hoc manner, and like
other foreigners they always face the
possibility of being deported.
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Manufacturers
of Green Hydrogen / Green Ammonia shall
be allowed to set up bunkers near Ports
for storage of Green Ammonia for export /
use by shipping. The land for the storage
for this purpose shall be provided by the
respective Port Authorities at applicable
charges.
Green Hydrogen Policy
 Green hydrogen is generated by breaking
down water in an electrolyzer. The
hydrogen produced can be combined with
hydrocarbons in the production process.
Green ammonia is used to store energy
and in fertilizer manufacturing. India has
set a target to produce 5 million tonnes
(mt) of green hydrogen by 2030.
 Green hydrogen/green ammonia shall be
defined as hydrogen /ammonia produced
by way of electrolysis of water using
renewable energy; including renewable
energy which has been banked and
the hydrogen/ammonia produced from
biomass.
 Salient features of this policy are:
 Green Hydrogen/Ammonia
manufacturers may purchase
renewable power from the power
exchange or set up renewable energy
capacity themselves or through any
other, developer, anywhere.
 Open access will be granted within 15
days of receipt of application.
 The Green Hydrogen/Ammonia
manufacturer can bank his
unconsumed renewable power, up to
30 days, with Distribution Company
and take it back when required.
 Distribution licensees can also procure
and supply Renewable Energy to the
manufacturers of Green Hydrogen
/ Green Ammonia in their States at
concessional prices which will only
include the cost of procurement,
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02
 wheeling charges and a small margin as
determined by the State Commission.
 Waiver of inter-state transmission
charges for a period of 25 years will be
allowed to the manufacturers of Green
Hydrogen and Green Ammonia for
the projects commissioned before 30th
June 2025.
 The manufacturers of Green Hydrogen
/ Ammonia and the renewable energy
plant shall be given connectivity to
the grid on priority basis to avoid any
procedural delays.
 The benefit of Renewable Purchase
Obligation (RPO) will be granted
incentive to the hydrogen/Ammonia
manufacturer and the Distribution
licensee for consumption of renewable
power.
 To ensure ease of doing business
a single portal for carrying out all
the activities including statutory
clearances in a time bound manner
will be set up by MNRE.
O
 Connectivity, at the generation end and
the Green Hydrogen / Green Ammonia
manufacturing end, to the ISTS for
Renewable Energy capacity set up for
SC
the purpose of manufacturing Green
Hydrogen / Green Ammonia shall be
granted on priority.
 Manufacturers of Green Hydrogen /
Green Ammonia shall be allowed to
set up bunkers near Ports for storage
of Green Ammonia for export / use
GS
by shipping. The land for the storage
for this purpose shall be provided by
the respective Port Authorities at
applicable charges.
91. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Biological Diversity Act, 2002
 The Act excludes Indian biological
resources that are normally traded as
commodities. Such exemption holds only
so far the biological resources are used as
commodities and for no other purpose.
 The Act also excludes traditional uses of
Indian biological resources and associated
knowledge and when they are used in
collaborative research projects between
Indian and foreign institutions with the
approval of the central government.
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02 38
 The recent amendments seek to
decriminalize certain provisions and bring
more foreign investments in the chain of
biological resources, including research,
patent and commercial utilisation, without
compromising the national interest.
92. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: National
Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with
Understanding and Numeracy (NIPUN
Bharat) aims to achieve the goal of
universal proficiency in foundational
literacy and numeracy for every child
by the end of Grade 3, by 2026-27, as
envisaged by National Education Policy
RE
2020. The New India Literacy Programme
aims to impart not only foundational
literacy and numeracy but also to cover
other components which are necessary
for a citizen of 21st century such as critical
life skills including financial literacy,
digital literacy, commercial skills, health
care and awareness, child care and
education, and family welfare); vocational
skills development with a view towards
obtaining local employment); basic
education including preparatory, middle,
and secondary stage equivalency.
 Statement 2 is correct: The scheme
will cover non-literates of the age of 15
years and above in all state and union
territories.
Statement 3 is correct: The training,

orientation, workshops of volunteers,
may be organized through face-to-face
mode. All material and resources shall be
provided digitally.
New India Literacy Programme
 The objectives of the scheme is to
impart not only foundational literacy
and numeracy but also to cover other
components which are necessary for a
citizen of 21st century such as critical life
skills including financial literacy, digital
literacy, commercial skills, health care
and awareness, child care and education,
and family welfare); vocational skills
development with a view towards
obtaining local employment); basic
education including preparatory, middle,
and secondary stage equivalency.
 The scheme will be implemented through
volunteerism through online mode.
  School will be Unit for implementation
of the scheme. Schools to be used for
conducting surveys of beneficiaries and
Voluntary Teachers.
 The scheme will cover non-literates of
the age of 15 years and above in all state
and union territories. The target for
Foundational Literacy and Numeracy
for financial years 2022-27 is 5 crore
learners using Online Teaching, Learning
and Assessment System (OTLAS) in
collaboration with National Informatics
Centre, NCERT and NIOS in which a
learner may register him/herself with
essential information like name, date
of birth, gender, Aadhaar number and
mobile number.
The estimated total outlay of “New India

Literacy Programme” is Rs 1037.90 crore
which includes Central share of Rs 700
crore and state share of Rs 337.90 crore
respectively for 2022-27.
93. Correct Option: (c) O Ownership Scheme
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
World Sustainable Development
SC
Summit
 The World Sustainable Development
Summit (WSDS) is the annual flagship
Track II initiative of The Energy and
Resources Institute (TERI). Instituted in
2001, the Summit series has marked 20
years in its journey of making ‘sustainable
GS
development’ a globally shared goal.
Over the years, the Summit platform
has brought together thought leaders,
heads of state and government, scholars,
corporates, youth groups, and civil society
representatives from across the world.
The Summit series has established itself
as a responsible and an effective platform
for mobilizing opinion-makers to identify
and advance pioneering actions to
address some of the most relevant issues
concerning sustainable development.
 Perhaps the only Summit on global
issues, taking place in the developing
world, WSDS now strives to provide long-
term solutions for the benefit of global
communities by assembling the world’s
most enlightened leaders and thinkers on
a single platform.
 TERI is an independent, multi-
dimensional organization, with expertise
in research, policy, consultancy and
39
implementation. TERI is proud to have
innovators and agents of change in the
energy, environment, climate change and
sustainability spheres, having pioneered
conversations and action in these areas
for over four decades.
 The institution believes that resource
efficiency and waste management are the
keys to smart, sustainable, and inclusive
development. TERI’s work across sectors
is focused on:
 Promoting efficient use of resources
 Increasing access and uptake of
sustainable inputs and practices
 Reducing negative impact on
environment and climate
RE
94. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
 Ownership Scheme or ‘SVAMITVA
Yojana’ is meant to create a record of land
ownership in rural areas using modern
technology.
 The need for this Yojana was felt since
several villagers in the rural areas
don’t have papers proving ownership of
their land. In most states, survey and
measurement of the populated areas in
the villages has not been done for the
purpose of attestation/verification of
properties.
 SVAMITVA Yojana is aimed to fill the
above gap to provide ownership rights to
people in the villages. It is expected to go
a long way in settling property rights in
rural hinterlands and likely to become a
tool for empowerment and entitlement,
reducing social strife on account of discord
over properties.
 The residential land in villages will
be measured using drones to create a
non-disputable record. It is the latest
technology for surveying and measuring
of land.
 The scheme will be carried out in close
coordination with the Central Panchayati
Raj ministry, Survey of India, Panchayati
Raj departments and Revenue
departments of various states.
 Drones will draw a digital map of every
property falling within the geographical
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02
 limits of a village and demarcate the
boundaries of every revenue area.
 Property card for every property in the
village will be prepared by states using
accurate measurements delivered by
drone-mapping. These cards will be given
to property owners and will be recognised
by the land revenue records department.
 The delivery of property rights through an
official document will enable villagers to
access bank finance using their property
as collateral.
 The property records for a village will also
be maintained at the Panchayat level,
allowing for the collection of associated
taxes from the owners. The money
generated from these local taxes will be
used to build rural infrastructure and
facilities.
 Freeing the residential properties
including land of title disputes and the
creation of an official record is likely to
result in appreciation in the market value
of the properties.
 The accurate property records can be
O water or safe ways to dispose of human
used for facilitating tax collection, new
building and structure plan, issuing of
permits and for thwarting attempts at
SC
property grabbing
95. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 and 2 are correct:
Neglected tropical diseases (NTDs)
GS
include several parasitic, viral, and
bacterial diseases that cause substantial
illness for more than one billion people
globally.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: NTDs include
dengue, rabies, blinding trachoma,
Buruli ulcer, endemic treponematoses
(yaws), leprosy (Hansen disease) etc., not
malaria.
Neglected Tropical Diseases
 A new World Health Organization (WHO)
road map for neglected tropical diseases
(NTDs) proposes ambitious targets
and innovative approaches to tackle 20
diseases which affect more than a billion
mainly poor people and which thrive
in areas where access to quality health
services, clean water and sanitation is
scarce.
 Ending the neglect to attain the
Sustainable Development Goals: a road
PTS2023/AIOMT/072022/02
map for neglected tropical diseases 2021–
2030´ aims to accelerate programmatic
action and renew momentum by proposing
concrete actions focused on integrated
platforms for delivery of interventions,
and thereby improve programme cost–
effectiveness and coverage.
 The road map is designed to address
critical gaps across multiple diseases
by integrating and mainstreaming
approaches and actions within national
health systems, and across sectors.
 Affecting the world’s poorest people,
NTDs impair physical and cognitive
development, contribute to mother and
child illness and death, make it difficult
to farm or earn a living, and limit
productivity in the workplace. As a result,
RE
NTDs trap the poor in a cycle of poverty
and disease.
 NTDs are found in several countries in
Africa, Asia, and Latin America. NTDs
are especially common in tropical areas
where people do not have access to clean
waste.
 They include dengue, rabies, blinding
trachoma, Buruli ulcer, endemic
treponematoses (yaws), leprosy (Hansen
disease) etc.
 India is home to the world’s largest
absolute burden of at least 11 of these
major neglected tropical diseases.
96. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV)
 SSLV has been designed to meet “Launch
on Demand” requirements in a cost-
effective manner.
 It is a 3 stage all solid vehicle and it is
the smallest vehicle at 110-ton mass at
ISRO.
 It can carry satellites weighing up to 500
kg to a low earth orbit while the tried
and tested PSLV can launch satellites
weighing in the range of 1000 kg.
 It will take only 72 hours to integrate,
unlike the 70 days taken now for a launch
vehicle.
 Only six people will be required to do the
job, instead of 60 people. The entire job
40
 will be done in a very short time and the
cost will be only around Rs 30 crore.
 It will be an on-demand vehicle.
 SSLV is perfectly suited for launching
multiple microsatellites at a time and
supports multiple orbital drop-offs.
 New Space India Limited (NSIL) under
Department of Space will be the sole
nodal agency responsible for providing
end to end SSLV launch services for the
customer satellite.
97. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Cotton-4
 Cotton-4, or C-4 is a group of four African
countries viz. — Benin, Burkina Faso,
Chad and Mali.
 Given the crucial role of cotton in
livelihood security, export earnings,
poverty reduction and farm income,
C-4 have been demanding substantial
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reductions in cotton subsidies since 2003.
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98. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is incorrect: An applicant
cannot apply for more than one category
out of all six categories (Innovation,
Scholastic achievements, Sports, Arts &
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Culture, Social Service and Bravery).
Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal
Puraskar
 It is given as recognition to children
residing in India, above the age of 5
years and not exceeding 18 years (as
on 31st August of respective year) with
exceptional abilities and outstanding
achievement in 6 fields of Innovation,
Scholastic achievements, Sports, Arts
& Culture, Social Service and Bravery,
which deserve recognition.
 Each awardee is given a medal, a cash
prize of Rs. 1,00,000/- and a certificate.
 These awards are conferred by Hon’ble
President in a ceremony at Rashtrapati
Bhawan in the week preceding the
Republic Day Week.
 The Prime Minister also interacts with
these awardees every year.
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 The awardees of PMRBP also take part in
the Republic Day parade every year.
 No minimum qualification is required for
applying/recommending.
99. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Negative Ion Technology
 Negative ion technology embeds negative
ions in personal products and is currently
being advertised as a means to maintain
health, balance energy, and improve well-
being.
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 This technology is used in certain silicone
wristbands, quantum or scalar-energy
pendants, and kinesiology tape.
 Negative ions are also made when
sunlight, radiation, air, or water break
down oxygen.
 The minerals that produce these negative
ions often include naturally occurring
radioactive substances such as uranium
and thorium.
 It is believed that negative ions create
positive vibes and uplift the mood. They
show the various mental and physical
health benefits, such as stress reduction,
better sleeping, respiration etc. whereas
these ions may also act on pollutants,
make them negatively charged and get
them collected on surfaces.
 Negative ions in air could help people
in relieving symptoms of allergies to
dust, mold spores, and other allergens.
Particulate matter (PM) is a major air
pollutant that affects human health.
Experimental data showed that NAIs
(Negative Air Ions) could be used to high-
efficiently remove PM.
100. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Consent for Contempt
 The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, lays
down the law on contempt of court.
Section 15 of the legislation describes the
procedure on how a case for contempt of
court can be initiated.
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  In the case of the Supreme Court, the
Attorney General or the Solicitor General,
and in the case of High Courts, the
Advocate General, may bring in a motion
before the court for initiating a case of
criminal contempt.
 However, if the motion is brought by any
other person, the consent in writing of the
Attorney General or the Advocate General
is required. If the AG denies consent, the
matter all but ends.
 The objective behind requiring the consent
of the Attorney General before taking
cognizance of a complaint is to save the
time of the court.
 The AG’s consent is mandatory when a
private citizen wants to initiate a case
of contempt of court against a person.
However, when the court itself initiates
a contempt of court case, as it did in the
case of Prashant Bhushan recently, the
AG’s consent is not required.
 This is because the court is exercising
its inherent powers under the
Constitution to punish for contempt and
such Constitutional powers cannot be
restricted because the AG declined to
grant consent.

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