EVOLUTION

Q 1 . Stellar distances are measured in

(a) km
(b) One year
(c) Light year
(d) Leap year

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Q 2 . How old is the universe?
(a) 10 billion years
(b) 20 billion years
(c) 5 billion years
(d) 15 billion years

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Q 3 . Earth was formed billion years back.
(a) 4.5
(b) 5.5
(c) 3.5
(d) 1.5

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Q 4 . Life appeared years after the formation of earth.
(a) 1000 million
(b) 100 million
(c) 10 million
(d) 500 million

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Q 5 . Who proposed the theory of chemical evolution for the first time?
(a) Oparin and Haldane
(b) Miller
(c) Louis Pasteur
(d) Darwin

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Q 6 .The first non-cellular form of life could have originated billion years back.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

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Q 7 . Which of the given statement is wrong as per the ‘Theory of Special Creation’?
(a) All living organism created as such
(b) Diversity change as time changes
(c) Earth is about 4000 years old
(d) All are correct

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Q 8 . The fitness referred to in Darwin’s theory is
(a) Physical fitness
(b) Mental fitness
(c) Reproductive fitness
(d) All of these

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Q 9 . Evidence of evolution from fossils is known as
(a) Paleontological evidence
(b) Embryological evidence
(c) Physiological evidence
(d) Biochemical evidence

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Q 10 . Homologous organ represents
(a) Convergent evolution
(b) Divergent evolution
(c) Anthropogenic evolution
(d) Genetic drift

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Q 11 . Analogous organs represent
(a) Convergent evolution
(b) Divergent evolution
(c) Anthropogenic evolution
(d) Genetic drift

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Q 12 . Which of the following shows analogy?
(a) Eye of octopus and mammals
(b) Vertebrate hearts
(c) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita
(d) Vertebrate brains

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Q 13 . Which of the following shows convergent evolution?
(a) Mouse and Marsupial mouse
(b) Bobcat and Spotted cuscus
(c) Anteater and Marsupial mole
(d) Lemur and Tasmanian wolf

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Q 14 . Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus existed mya.
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 25

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Q 15 . Homo habilis had a cranial capacity of nearly
(a) 650–800 cc
(b) 900 cc
(c) 1400 cc
(d) 1500 cc

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Q 16 . All these facts are true about the Neanderthal man except
(a) Brain size is 1400 cc.
(b) Used hides to protect their bodies.
(c) Lived in east and central Asia between 1,00,000–40,000 years back.
(d) Their fossils were discovered in Java in 1891.

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Q 17 . All these facts are true about Homo sapiens except
(a) Arose 75,000–10,000 years ago
(b) Arose in Africa
(c) Brain capacity is 1400 cc
(d) They developed into distinct races

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Q 18 . Arrange the following in the order of their evolution.
(a) Homo habilis → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus → Dryopithecus → Homo sapiens →
Australopithecines → Neanderthal man
(b)Dryopithecus → Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus →
Neanderthal man → Homo sapiens
(c) Australopithecines →Homo sapiens → Ramapithecus → Dryopithecus → Homo habilis
→ Homo erectus → Neanderthal man
(d)Neanderthal man → Australopithecines → Homo sapiens → Homo erectus →Homo
habilis → Ramapithecus → Dryopithecus

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Q 19 . Match the columns.

Column I Column II
(A) Homo habilis (1) 650 – 800 cc
(B) Homo erectus (2) 900 cc
(C) Neanderthal Man (3) 1400 cc

(a) A:1, B:2, C:3 (b) A:2, B:1, C:3

(c) A:2, B:3, C:1 (d) A:3, B:2, C:1

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Q 20 . Who buried their dead?
(a) Java men
(b) Homo habilis
(c) Homo erectus
(d) Neanderthal man

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Q 21 . The first cellular form of life appeared mya.
(a) 1000
(b) 2000
(c) 3000
(d) 4000

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Q 22 . Match the columns.
Column I Column II
(A) Invertebrates (1) 500 mya
(B) Jawless Fish (2) 320 mya
(C) Seaweeds (3) 350 mya
(D) Dryopithecus and (4) 15 mya
Ramapithecus

(a) A:2, B:1, C:4, D:3 (b) A:1, B:3, C:2, D:4
(c) A:1, B:4, C:2, D:3 (d) A:4, B:3, C:1, D:2

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Q 23 . The first organisms that invaded land were
(a) Animals
(b) Plants
(c) Amphibians
(d) Reptiles

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Q 24 . Which of the following is a lobe finned fish?
(a) Coelacanth
(b) Hippocampus
(c) Catla
(d) Pteropus

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Q 25 . Amphibians evolved from
(a) Synapsids
(b) Sauropside
(c) Lobed fin fishes
(d) Cycads

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Q 26 . Which of these is a direct ancestor of turtles?
(a) Sauropsids
(b) Synapsids
(c) Pelycosaurs
(d) Thecodonts

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Q27 . Which of these is/are aquatic mammals?
(a) Whale
(b) Dolphin
(c) Seals and Sea cows
(d) All of these

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Q28 . Seed fern evolved into
(a) Cycads
(b) Dicot
(c) Monocot
(d) All of these

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Q 29 . Which of the following were extinct in the Permian period?
(a) Ferns
(b) Cycads
(c) Arborescent lycopodus
(d) Bryophytes

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Q 30 . Bryophytes evolved in which of these periods?
(a) Carboniferous
(b) Permian
(c) Triassic
(d) Cretaceous

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Q 31 . What does this diagram show?

(a) Brachiosaurus (b) Stegosaurus

(c) Triceratops (d) Tyrannosaurus

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Q 32 . Synapsids existed
(a) 300 mya
(b) 150 mya
(c) 350 mya
(d) 50 mya

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Q 33 . Zosterophyllum belonged to which period?
(a) Silurian
(b) Devonian
(c) Carboniferous
(d) Permian

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Q 34 . Which of the following was/were the most abundant in cenozoic era?
(a) Angiosperm
(b) Cycads
(c) Conifers
(d) Ginkgos

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Q 35 . Which of these features belong/s to mammals?
(a) Viviparous, avoid danger
(b) More intelligent in sensing
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

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Q 36 . Conifers were most abundant in
(a) Paleozoic era
(b) Mesozoic era
(c) Cenozoic era
(d) All eras

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Q 37 . Seed ferns evolved from
(a) Cycads
(b) Gnetales
(c) Conifers
(d) Progymnosperm

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Q 38 . This diagram shows

(a) Adaptive radiation (b) Genetic drift

(c) Founder effect (d) Mutation

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Q 39 . Arrange the ascending order of extinction (reptiles)
(a) Pelycosaurs, Thecodonts, Therapsids, Dinosaurs
(b) Thecodonts, Dinosaurs, Pelycosaurs, Therapsids
(c) Dinosaurs, Therapsids, Thecodonts, Pelycosaurs
(d) Therapsids, Thecodonts, Pelycosaurs, Dinosaurs

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Q 40 . How many factors affect the Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium?
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

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Q 41 . The factors affecting genetic equilibrium are the following except
(a) Gene flow
(b) Mutation
(c) Somatic variation
(d) Genetic recombination

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Q 42 . Hugo de Vries, based on his work on , brought forth the idea of mutations.
(a) Pisum sativum
(b) Lathyrus odoratus
(c) Evening primrose
(d) Lathyrus sativus

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Q 43 . Mutations are
(a) Directionless and random
(b) Random and directional
(c) Small variations and directional
(d) Not responsible for evolution

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Q 44 . Abiogenesis means
(a) Spontaneous generation
(b) Origin of viruses and microbes
(c) Origin of life from living organisms
(d) Origin of life from nonliving organisms

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Q 45 . Pasteur’s experiments and similar ones that followed convinced most of the people
that spontaneous generation of life did not happen because
(a) Pasteur was extremely meticulous.
(b) Pasteur did not boil his flask for a long time.
(c) Pasteur used very fine mesh screens to cover his flask.
(d)Pasteur’s swan-necked flasks ruled out the objection that spoiled air could have
contaminated his experiments.

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Q 46 . The early belief of the spontaneous origin of life was disproved by
(a) Lederberg
(b) Robert Koch
(c) Louis Pasteur
(d) Charles Darwin

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Q 47 . Who said that organisms develop from pre-existing organisms?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Alexander Oparin
(d) Thomas Hunt Morgan

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Q 48 . The idea that life originates from pre-existing life is referred to as
(a) Biogenesis theory
(b) Abiogenesis theory
(c) Extraterrestrial theory
(d) Special creation theory

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Q 49 . Life was created by some supernatural power. This theory is
(a) Abiogenesis
(b) Spore theory
(c) Special creation theory
(d) Spontaneous generation

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Q 50 . Life came from outer space, this theory is called
(a) Spore theory
(b) Naturalistic theory
(c) Special creation theory
(d) Spontaneous generation

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Q 51 . About how long ago was the Earth formed?
(a) 3.0 billion years ago
(b) 10 billion years ago
(c) 4.6 billion years ago
(d) 20 billion years ago

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Q 52 . Oparin’s theory of ‘Origin of life’ is based on
(a) Chemical evolution
(b) Cosmic evolution
(c) Artificial synthesis
(d) Organic evolution

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Q 53 . According to Oparin, which one of the following was not present in the primitive
atmosphere of the Earth?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Methane
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Water vapour

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Q 54 . Stanley Miller proposed the origin of life by
(a) Biogenesis
(b) Abiogenesis
(c) Chemical synthesis
(d) None of these

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Q 55 . The first experiment on chemical evolution and origin of life was carried out by
(a) Watson and Crick
(b) Miller and Urey
(c) Beadle and Tatum
(d) Darwin and Wallace

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Q 56 . The spark-discharge apparatus to test chemical evolution of life was designed by
(a) Urey and Miller
(b) Dixon and Jolly
(c) Jacob and Monod
(d) Oparin and Haldane

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Q 57 . The category of molecules produced by the Miller–Urey experiment was
(a) Organic polymers
(b) Inorganic polymers
(c) Organic monomers
(d) Inorganic monomers

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Q 58 . Earliest life forms on the earth were
(a) Chemoautotrophs
(b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Photoautotrophs
(d) Anaerobic Heterotrophs

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Q 59 . Which of the following are not homologous?
(a) Insect mouthparts
(b) Insect legs
(c) Vertebrate forelimbs
(d) Bird and insect wings

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Q 60 . Which group includes homologous organs?
(a) Wings of butterfly, flying fish and bird
(b) Tentacles of hydra and arms of starfish
(c) Fins of seal, wings of birds and forelimbs of man
(d) Horns of cattle, tail of horse and teeth of mammals

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Q 61 . Although all mammals whale, dolphin, bat, monkey and horse have some
important common characters, but they also show conspicuous differences. This is due
to the phenomenon of
(a) Divergence
(b) Genetic drift
(c) Convergence
(d) Normalization

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Q 62 . Which pair of organs are analogous in nature?
(a) Gills of fish and gills of prawn
(b) Ear of frog and ear of rabbit
(c) Arm of man and limbs of horse
(d) Wings of bat and flippers of seal

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Q 63 . The most direct evidence of organic evolution is
(a) Fossils
(b) Embryos
(c) Morphology
(d) Vestigial organs

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Q 64 . The study of fossils as evidence of evolution is called
(a) Anatomy
(b) Embryology
(c) Palaeontology
(d) Biogeography

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Q 65 . Correct order of evolution of plants forms through geological periods.
(a) Paleozoic → Mesozoic → Cenozoic
(b) Mesozoic → Archaeozoic → Proterozoic
(c) Paleozoic → Archaeozoic → Cenozoic
(d) Archaeozoic → Paleozoic → Proterozoic

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Q 66. Dinosaurs were the
(a) First mammals
(b) Extinct reptiles
(c) Giant mammals
(d) First amphibians

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 Q 67 . Evolution of unique groups of mammals in South America, Africa and
Australia is an evidence supporting
(a) Continental drift
(b) Glaciation
(c) Crustal movement
(d) Geographical juxtaposition

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Q 68 . The theory of use and disuse of organs was given by
(a) Lamarck
(b) Darwin
(c) Weissmann
(d) Hugo de Vries

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Q 69 . The concepts of natural selection in evolution were proposed by
(a) Hugo de Vries
(b) Charles Darwin
(c) August Weismann
(d) Jean Baptiste de Lamarck

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Q 70 . Which of the following is not under Darwin’s theory of natural selection?
(a) Over production
(b) Survival of the fittest
(c) Causes of variation
(d) Struggle for existence

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Q 71 . Mutation theory explaining organic evolution was proposed by
(a) E. Darwin
(b) W. Harvey
(c) Hugo de Vries
(d) Louis Pasteur

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Q 72 . Sum of all the genes in a population is called
(a) Genome
(b) Gene pool
(c) Germplasm
(d) Gene bank

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Q 73 . At a particular locus, frequency of ‘A’ allele is 0.6 and that of ‘a’ is 0.4. What would
be the frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium?
(a) 0.36
(b) 0.48
(c) 0.16
(d) 0.24

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Q 74 . Match the following concepts of evolution in List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List – I List – II
(A) Mutation (1) Change in population allele
frequencies due to chance alone
(B) Gene Flow (2) Difference in survival and
reproduction among variant
individuals
(C) Natural Selection (3) Immigration , Emigration change
allele frequencies
(D) Genetic Drift (4) Source of new allele

(a) A:1, B:2, C:3, D:4 (b) A:4, B:2, C:3, D:1
(c) A:3, B:1, C:4, D:2 (d) A:4, B:3, C:2, D:1
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Q 75 . The spread of genes from one breeding population to another by migration
which may result in change in gene frequency is
(a) Gene flow
(b) Genetic drift
(c) Gene frequency
(d) None of these

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Q 76 . Darwin’s finches are found in
(a) Tahiti
(b) Tundra
(c) Galapagos Island
(d) None of these

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Q 77 . The principle that gives the geneticists a tool to determine when evolution is
occurring is
(a) Hardy–Weinberg principle
(b) Chemiosmotic theory
(c) Malthusian principle
(d) Cloning theory

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Q 78 . Which of the following defines Hardy–Weinberg’s law?
(a) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 0
(b) q2 + p2 + 2pq = 0
(c) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
(d) p2 + 3pq + q2 = 1
Q 79 . The most apparent change during the evolutionary history of Homo sapiens
is raced in
(a) Loss of body hair
(b) Walking upright
(c) Shortening of the jaws
(d) Remarkable increase in the brain size

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Q 80 . The theory of spontaneous generation stated that
(a) Life arose from living forms only.
(b) Life can arise from both living and non-living.
(c) Life can arise from non-living things only.
(d) Life arises spontaneously, neither from living nor from the non-living.

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Q 81 . Paleontological evidences for evolution refers to the
(a) Development of embryo
(b) Homologous organs
(c) Fossils
(d) Analogous organs

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Q 82 . The bones of forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah and man are similar in structure, because
(a) One organism has given rise to another
(b) They share a common ancestor
(c) They perform the same function
(d) They have biochemical similarities

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Q 83 . Evolution of life shows that life forms had a trend of moving from
(a) Land to water
(b) Dry land to wet land
(c) Fresh water to sea water
(d) Water to land

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Q 84 . The most accepted line of descent in human evolution is
(a) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo sapiens → Homo habilis
(b) Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens
(c) Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens
(d) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens

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Q 85 . Match the scientists listed under column ‘A’ with ‘ideas listed in column ‘B’.

Column A Column B
(i) Darwin M Abiogenesis
(ii) Oparin N Use and disuse of organs
(iii) Lamarck O Continental drift theory
(iv) Wagner P Evolution of natural selection

(a) i - M; ii - P; iii - N; iv - O
(b) i - P ; ii - M; iii - N; iv - O
(c) i - N; ii - P; iii - O; iv - M
(d) i - P; ii - O; iii - N; iv - M

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