IQ Verbal

LỜI NÓI ĐẦU
Làm việc tại BIG4 và các doanh nghiệp lớn tại Việt Nam luôn là mơ ước của nhiều
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Tài liệu “IQ Verbal – Nguyên tắc vàng đạt điểm tối đa” sẽ giúp bạn làm quen với
127 câu hỏi dạng bài IQ, Verbal hoàn toàn bằng tiếng Anh trong đề test tuyển dụng.
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phục các nhà tuyển dụng mơ ước.
SAPP Academy chúc các bạn thành công!
I. DATA INTEPRETATION
A. TABLE CHART
Study the following table and answer the questions.
Number of Candidates Appeared and Qualified in a Competitive Examination from
Different States over the Years.
2. What is the average candidates who appeared from State Q during the given years?
A.8700 B.8760 C.8990 D.8920
3. In which of the given years the number of candidates appeared from State P has
maximum percentage of qualified candidates?
A.1997 B.1998 C.1999 D.2001
4. What is the percentage of candidates qualified from State N for all the years together,
over the candidates appeared from State N during all the years together?
A.12.36% B.12.16% C.11.47% D.11.15%
5. Combining the states P and Q together in 1998, what is the percentage of the
candidates qualified to that of the candidate appeared?
A.10.87% B.11.49% C.12.35% D.12.54%
B. LINE CHART
Study the following line graph and answer the questions.
Exports from Three Companies Over the Years (in Rs. crore)
6. For which of the following pairs of years the total exports from the three Companies
together are equal?
A.1995,1998 B.1996,1998 C.1997,1998 D.1995,1996
7. Average annual exports during the given period for Company Y is approximately what
percent of the average annual exports for Company Z?
A.87.12% B.89.64% C.91.21% D.93.33%
8. In which year was the difference between the exports from Companies X and Y the
minimum?
A.1994 B.1995 C.1996 D.1997
9. What was the difference between the average exports of the three Companies in 1993
and the average exports in 1998?
A. Rs. 15.33 crores B. Rs. 18.67 crores C. Rs. 20 crores D. Rs. 22.17 crores
10. In how many of the given years, were the exports from Company Z more than the
average annual exports over the given years?
B.3 C.4 D.5
A.2
C. BAR CHART
The bar graph given below shows the sales of books (in thousand number) from six branches
of a publishing company during two consecutive years 2000 and 2001.
Sales of Books (in thousand numbers) from Six Branches - B1, B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6 of a
publishing Company in 2000 and 2001.
11. What is the ratio of the total sales of branch B2 for both year s to the total sales of
branch B4 for both years?
A.2:3 B.3:5 C.4:5 D.7:9
12. Total sales of branch B6 for both the years is what percent of the total sales of branches
B3 for both the years?
A.68.54% B. 71.11% C. 73.17% D. 75.55%
13. What percent of the average sales of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001 is the average sales
of branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000?
A.75% B.77.5% C.82.5% D.87.5%
14. What is the average sales of all the branches (in thousand numbers) for the year 2000?
A.73 B.80 C.83 D.88
15. Total sales of branches B1, B3 and B5 together for both the years (in thousand numbers)
is?
A.250 B.210 C.435 D.560
D. PIE CHART
The circle-graph given here shows the spendings of a country on various sports during a
particular year. Study the graph carefully and answer the questions given below it.
16. What percent of total spending is spent on Tennis?
A.12.5% B.22.5% C.25% D.45%
17. How much percent more is spent on Hockey than that on Golf?
A.27% B.35% C.37.5% D.75%
18. If the total amount spent on sports during the year be Rs. 1,80,00,000 , the amount
spent on Basketball exceeds on Tennis by:
A.Rs. 2,50,000 B.Rs. 2,50,000 C.Rs. 3,75,000 D.Rs. 4,10,000
19. How much percent less is spent on Football than that on Cricket?
A.22 2/9 % B.17% C.33 1/3% D.37 1/7%
20. If the total amount spent on sports during the year was Rs. 2 crores, the amount spent
on Cricket and Hockey together was:
A.Rs 8,000,000 B.Rs 80,000,000 C.Rs 1,200,000,000 D.Rs 1,600,000
E. CURRENCY
24. Which currency depreciated the most against the CHF between Q 1 and Q4?
A.USD B.GBP C.EUR D.JPY

F. MIX
DATA INTERPRETATION
Contribution of four companies is to various industrial goods (million USD)
Good V 240
25. Sachin ‘s contribution to the total in the first goods exceeds Azhar’s contribution by what
percentage of the goods total?
A. 11.1% B.12.1% C.13.1% D.14.1%
26. Kambli aggregate in the five goods forms what percentage of Azhar’s aggregate?
A.72% B.76% C.80% D.78%
27. The contribution of Sachin to Goods I,III and V exceeds the contribution of Jadeja to
Goods I, Goods II and Goods V by how many million USD?
B.60 C.50 D.40
28. The contribution of Azhar and Sachin put together for all five goods exceed that of
Kambli and Jadeja put together for all five goods by what percent?
A.27.5% B.29.4% C.27.6% D.28.26%
29. Which goods has the largest percentage of contribution of Azhar and which goods has
the smallest percentage of contribution of Jadeja?
A.Goods I &II B. Goods IV&II C. Goods IV&I D.Goods V&II
A.70
I. PUZZLES
31. 32.
33.
34. 35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
II. NON VERBAL REASONING TEST

44. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4) E.(5)
45. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as
established by the five Problem Figures.
Problem Figures: Answer Figures:
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4) E.(5)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4) E.(5)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4) E.(5)
48. Find out which of the figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) can be formed from the pieces given in
figure (X).
A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4)
49. Group the given figures into three classes using each figure only once.
A. 1,3,5 ; 2,6,9 ; 4,7,8

B. 2,3,4 ; 5,6,8 ; 9,1,7
C. 1,3,5 ; 2,6,8 ; 4,7,9
3,2,4 ; 6,5,8 ; 7,9,1

D.
Direction (for 50):

In each of the following questions, select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, which
when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would complete the pattern.
50. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4)
51. Three different positions X, Y and Z of a dice are shown in the figures given below. Which
number lies at the bottom face in position Y?
A.1 B.2 C.5 D. Can not determined

52. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4)
53. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.
A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4)
54. Select a figure from the given four alternatives which fits exactly into Figure -X to form a
complete square.
A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4)
55. Select a figure from the given four alternatives which fits exactly into Figure-X to form a
complete square.
A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4)

56. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.
A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4)
57. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark
(?).
(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4) E.(5)
58. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark
(?).
(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4) E.(5)
59. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.
A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4)
60. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives.
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4)
61. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).
(X)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4)
62. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).
A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4)
III. LETTER SEQUENCES
In these series, you will be looking at both the number pattern. Fill the blank in the middle
of the series or end of the series.
1/ SCD, TEF, UGH, …, WKL
A.CMN B.UJI C.VIJ D.IJT
2/ FAG, GAF, HAI, IAH,..
A.JMN B.HAL C.JAK D.JAI
3/ EFLA, GHLA, ILJA,…, MNLA.
A.OLPA B.KLMA C.LLMA D.KLLA
4/ QPO, NML, KJI,…, EDC.
A.HGF B.CAB C.JKL D.GHI
5/ BCB, DED, FGF, HIH,…
B.HJH C.IJI D.JHJ
6/ QAR, RAS, SAT, TAU,…
A.UAV B.UAT C.TAS D.TAT
A.JKJ7/ P5QR, P4QS, P3QT,…, P1QV

A.PQW B.PQV2 C.P2QU D.PQ3U
8/ SCD, TEF, UGH ... WKL.
A.CMN A.CMN A.CMN A.CMN

IV. VERBAL TEST
1/ Instituted in 1979 as a temporary measure to limit population growth, China’s one child
policy remains in force today and is likely to continue for another decade. China’s population
control policy has attracted criticism because of the manner in which it is enforced, and also
because of its social repercussions [hậu quả]. Supporters of the Chinese government’s policy
consider it a necessary measure to curb extreme overpopulation, which has resulted in a
reduction of an estimated 300 million people in its first twenty years. Not only is a reduced
population environmentally beneficial, it also increases China’s per capita gross domestic
product. The one-child policy has led to a disparate [khác nhau] ratio of males to females –
with abortion, abandonment and infanticide [giết trẻ sơ sinh] of female infants resulting from
a cultural preference for sons. Furthermore, Draconian measures such as forced sterilization
are strongly opposed by critics as a violation of human reproduction rights. The one-child
policy is enforced strictly in urban areas, whereas in provincial regions fines are imposed on
families with more than one child. There are also exceptions to the rules – for example, ethnic
minorities. A rule also allows couples without siblings to have two children – a provision which
applies to millions of sibling-free adults now of child-bearing age.
63. China’s one-child policy increases the country’s wealth.
A.True B.False C.Not given
64. The passage suggests that two-child families will dramatically increase, as sibling-free
adults reach child-bearing age.
65. The main criticism of China’s one-child policy is that it violates human rights.
66. Families with more than one child are more common in China’s rural areas.
67. The general preference among Chinese parents is for male babies.
2/ Whilst it might be impossible to make assumptions about what each parent’s preference
is, the key word in the statement in “general” which means we can look at the overall trend,
in this case towards sons. There are 562 federally recognized American Indian tribes, with a
total of 1.7 million members. Additionally, there are hundreds of groups seeking federal [liên
bang] recognition – or sovereignty – though less than ten percent will successfully achieve this
status. Federally recognised tribes [bộ lạc] have the right to self-government, and are also
eligible for federal assistance programmes. Exempt from state and local jurisdiction [thẩm
quyền], tribes may enforce their own laws, request tax breaks and control regulatory activities.
There are however limitations to their sovereignty including, amongst others, the ability to
make war and create currency. Historically, tribes were granted federal recognition through
treaties or by executive order. Since 1978 however, this has been replaced by a lengthy and
stringent regulatory process which requires tribes applying for federal recognition to fulfil
seven criteria, such as anthropological [nhân học] and historical evidence. One of the
complications regarding federal recognition is the legal definition of “Indian”. Previously,
racial criteria, tribal records and personal affidavits were used to classify American Indians.
Since the 1970s, however, there has been a shift to the use of a political definition – requiring
membership in a federally recognized tribe in order to qualify for benefits, such as loans and
educational grants. This definition, however, excludes many individuals of Native American
heritage who are not tribal members.
68. There are only two exemptions to a federally recognized tribe’s powers of self
government.
69. Demand for federal recognition is high because it is a prerequisite for benefit
programmes.
70. Since 1978 it has become harder for a tribe to achieve federally recognized status.
71. Federally recognized tribes are not subject to state laws and do not pay taxes.
72. A large number of people who identify themselves as American Indians do not fulfill the
legal definition.
3/ Sodium chloride, or salt, is essential for human life. Typically derived from the evaporation
of sea water or the mining of rock salt deposits, salt has been used by humans for thousands
of years as a food seasoning and preservative. The mineral sodium is an electrolyte – an
electrically-charged ion – that enables cells to carry electrical impulses to other cells, for
example muscle contractions. Electrolytes also regulate the body’s fluid levels. A diet deficient
in salt can cause muscle cramps, neurological problems and even death. Conversely, a diet
high in salt leads to an increased risk of conditions such as hypertension, heart disease and
stroke. In spite of high-profile campaigns to raise awareness, salt consumption has increased
by 50% in the past four decades, with the average adult ingesting more than double the
amount of salt their body requires. Much of this increase can be attributed to the advent of
frozen and processed foods in the midtwentieth century. In the United States it is estimated
that excessive salt consumption claims 150,000 lives and results in $24 billion of health care
costs annually. For individuals wishing to reduce their sodium intake, the answer is not simply
rejecting the salt shaker; 75% of the average person’s salt consumption comes from food, such
as bread, cereals, and cheese.
73. Humans primarily use salt for food flavouring and preservation.
74. Most adults consume 50% more salt than their body requires.
75. Frozen and processed foods contain no more salt than contained in a typical diet.
76. Over three quarters of the average person’s salt consumption comes from frozen foods.
77. The human body needs salt to maintain constant levels of body fluids.
4/ The United Nations’ Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES)

recently reaffirmed a 1989 ban on trading ivory, despite calls from Tanzania and Zambia to
lift it. Only 470,000 elephants remain in Africa today – compared to 1.3 million in 1979. While
natural habitat loss was a significant factor in dwindling elephant populations, poaching for
ivory was the main cause. Since the ban’s implementation, elephant populations have
recovered in many African countries, but an estimated 38,000 elephants are still killed
annually. CITES permitted one-off sales in 1999 and in 2008, allowing approved countries to
dispose of their government stockpiles of ivory. Ivory from these sales was exported to Japan
and China, where demand for carved ivory is high. Conservation groups vehemently oppose
further one-off sales, because much of the ivory sold is of unknown origin. Furthermore, the
sales have fuelled far- Eastern demand for ivory. In central and western African countries,
where organized crime rings operate lucrative ivory smuggling operations, poaching remains
rife. Those in favour of allowing one-off sales argue that elephants are no longer endangered,
and that maintaining the ban will simply inflate the price of illegal ivory, making poaching
more tempting. Though the CITES decision is viewed as a victory by conservationists, the
African elephant’s future relies on governments’ commitment to enforcing the ban.
78. No legal sales of Ivory have occurred since 1989.

79. Whether or not African elephants should be classified as endangered is debatable.
80. Conservationists question the provenance of the ivory sold at one-off sales.
81. Because their elephant populations are thriving, Tanzania and Zambia want to lift the ban
on ivory trading.
82. Increased demand from Japan and China is driving up the price of ivory.
5/ Cardiovascular disease is so prevalent that all businesses are likely to have employees who
suffer from, or may develop, this condition. Research shows that between 50-80% of all people
who suffer a heart attack are able to return to work. However, this may not be possible to
move the employee to lighter duties, with appropriate retraining where necessary. Similarly,
high – pressure, stressful work, even where it does not involve physical activity, should also be
avoided. Human Resources managers should be aware of implications of job roles for
employees with a cardiac condition.
83. Physical or stressful work may bring on a heart attack.
84. The majority of people who have suffered a heart attack can later return to work.
85. Heart disease may affect employees in any type of business.
6/ The clinical guidelines in asthma therapy have now moved towards anti – inflammatory
therapy – and away from regular bronchiodilator therapy– for all but the mildest asthmatics.
This is now being reflected in prescribing patterns. In the U.S, combined prescription volumes
of the major bronchiodilators peaked in 1991 (having risen slowly in the preceding years),
though they still account for around half of the 65 million asthma prescriptions there. During
the same period, prescription for inhaled steroids have doubled, but still account for less than
10% of asthma prescriptions in the U.S 86. Only mild cases of asthma can be helped by anti –
inflammatory therapy.
87. Use of bronchiodilators has been increasing since 1991.
88. Doctors are recluctant to treat asthma with inhaled steroids for fear of potential side –
effects.
89. Bronchiodilators are the single most prescribed treatment for asthma.
7/ In Japan, companies generally expect their employees to put in long hours of overtime. But
it is difficult for women, who also have household chores to do and children to take care of, to
work at the same pace as men, who are not burdened with such responsibilities. Many women
inevitably opt for part – time jobs, which enable them to combine work and domestic duties.
At present, 23% of all female salaried workers are part – timers and the ratio has been on the
rise in recent years. Part – time work places women at a disadvantage. The wages of part –
time workers are considerably lower than those of full – time employees, and part – time work
tends to involve menial labour. Moreover, because salary and promotion in Japanese
companies are often based on seniority, it is extremely difficult for women either re – entering
the labour force or switching from part - time to full – time work to climb the ladder.
90. Japanese man do not share household chores and childcare with their wives.
91. A quarter of all part – time workers in Japan are female.
92. Part – time workers should hold a low status in Japanese companies.
93. Women in Japanese are unwilling to work overtime.
8/ Millions of lives around the world could be saved, and the quality of life of hundreds of
millions markedly improved - very inexpensively – by eradicating three vitamin and mineral
deficiencies in people's diets. The three vitamins and minerals are vitamin A, iodine and iron -
so-called micronutrients. More than 2 billion people are at risk from micronutrient deficiencies
and more than 1 billion people are actually ill or disabled by them, causing mental retardation,
learning disabilities, low work capacity and blindness. It costs little to correct these deficiencies
through fortification of food and water supplies. In a country of 50 million people, this would
cost about $25 million a year. That $25 million would yield a fortyfold return on investment."
94. Most illnesses in developing countries are caused by vitamin and mineral deficiencies.
95. Micronutrients provide inadequate nourishment to maintain a healthy life.
96. Vitamin A, iodine and iron are the only micronutrients that people need in their diet
97. Correcting micronutrient deficiencies would cost about $2 per person per year
V. LOGICAL
98. Which of the cubes is the same as the unfolded cube below?
A B C D
99. Which one of the Rubik's cube below can be part of the sequence?
A B C D
Which of the following figures is the odd one out?
100.
101. Which number should come next in this series? 25,24,22,19,15
A. 4
B. 5
C. 10
D. 14
102. Which number should come next in this series?

3,5,8,13,21,
A. 4
B. 21
C. 31
D. 34
103. Which number should replace the question mark?
17 8 5 5
13 7 5 4
6 12 6 3
10 6 4 ?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
104. Which number should replace the question mark?
8 5 21
35 32 12
32 28 31
4 ? 28
A. 3
B. -2
C. -6
D. 48
105. Find the picture that follows logically from the diagrams to the right.
Find the picture that follows logically from the diagrams to the right.
Please enter the missing figure:

4, 5, 8, 17, 44,
106.
107.
A. 80
B. 125
C. 112
D. 60
E. 84
108. Please enter the missing figure:

13, 57, 911, 1315,1719
A. 2123
B. 1879
C. 3002
D. 5004
E. 1784
109. Which of the diagrams follows?
110. At the end of a banquet 10 people shake hands with each other. How many
handshakes will there be in total?
A. 100
B. 20
C. 45
D. 50
E. 90
111. The day before the day before yesterday is three days after Saturday. What day
is it today?
A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Wednesday
D. Thursday
E. Friday
112. Select the number that best completes the analogy

10 : 6 :: 3 : ?
A. 2
B. 1
C. -1
D. 12
E. 4
113. Which number should come next in the series

1, 3, 6, 10, 15,
A. 8
B. 11
C. 24
D. 21
E. 27
114. 165135 is to peace as 1215225 is to
A. lead
115. Library is to book as book is to Binding Copy Page Cover

A. page
B. copy
C. binding
D. cover
B. love
C. loop
D. castle
VI. WHAT COMES NEXT? 117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
ANSWER
1. Answer: Option C Explanation:
(720 + 840 + 780 + 950 + 870)
Required percentage = x 100 %
(980 + 1050 + 1020 + 1240 + 940)
416 0
= x 100 %
5230
= 79.54% 80%.
2. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Required average
8100 + 9500 + 8700 + 9700 + 8950
=
5
= 8990
3. Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The percentages of candidates qualified to candidates appeared from State P during
different years are:
780
For 1997 x 100 % = 12.19%.
6400
1020
For 1998 x 100 % = 11.59%.
8800
For 1999 890 x 100 % = 11.41%.

7800
1010
For 2000 x 100 % = 11.54%.
8750
1250
For 2001 x 100 % = 12.82%.
9750
Maximum percentage is for the year 2001.
4. Answer: Option D
Explanation:
(840 + 1050 + 920 + 980 + 1050)

Required x
= (7400 + 8450 + 7800 + 8700 + %
percentage 100
9800)
4810
= x 100 %
43150
= 11.147%.
5. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
(1020 + 1240)
(8800 + 9500)
= 2260 x 100%
18300
= 12.35%
6. Answer: Option D Explanation:

Total exports of the three Companies X, Y and Z together, during various years are:
In 1993 = Rs. (30 + 80 + 60) crores = Rs. 170 crores.
In 1995 = Rs. (40 + 60 + 120) crores = Rs. 220 crores. In
1996 = Rs. (70 + 60 + 90) crores = Rs. 220 crores.
Clearly, the total exports of the three Companies X, Y and Z together are same during the
years 1995 and 1996.
7. Answer: Option D Explanation:
Analysis of the graph: From the graph it is clear that
1. The amount of exports of Company X (in crore Rs.) in the years 1993, 1994, 1995, 1996,
1997, 1998 and 1999 are 30, 60, 40, 70, 100, 50 and 120 respectively.
2. The amount of exports of Company Y (in crore Rs.) in the years 1993, 1994, 1995, 1996,
1997, 1998 and 1999 are 80, 40, 60, 60, 80, 100 and 140 respectively.
3. The amount of exports of Company Z (in crore Rs.) in the years 1993, 1994, 1995, 1996,
1997, 1998 and 1999 are 60, 90,, 120, 90, 60, 80 and 100 respectively.
Average annual exports (in Rs. crore) of Company Y during the given period
1 560
= x (80 + 40 + 60 + 60 + 80 + 100 + 140) = = 80.
7 7
Average annual exports (in Rs. crore) of Company Z during the given period
1 600
= x (60 + 90 + 120 + 90 + 60 + 80 + 100) = . 7
7
80
Required percentage = 600 x 100 % 93.33%.

7
8. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The difference between the exports from the Companies X and Y during the various years
are:
In 1993 = Rs. (80 - 30) crores = Rs. 50 crores.
Clearly, the difference is minimum in the year 1996.
9. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Average exports of the three Companies X, Y and Z in 1993
1 170
= Rs. x (30 + 80 + 60) crores = Rs.
3 3
Average exports of the three Companies X, Y and Z in 1998
1 230
= Rs. x (50 + 100 + 80) crores = Rs. crores.
3 3
crores.
Difference = 230 170

- crores
Rs. 3 3
60
= Rs. crores
3
= Rs. 20 crores.
10. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Average annual exports of Company Z during the given period
1
x (60 + 90 + 120 + 90 + 60 + 80 + 100)
7
60 0
= Rs. crores
7
= Rs. 85.71 crores.
From the analysis of graph the exports of Company Z are more than the average annual
exports of Company Z (i.e., Rs. 85.71 crores) during the years 1994, 1995, 1996 and 1999,
i.e., during 4 of the given years.
11. Answer: Option D
Explanation:
(75 + 65) 140 7
Required ratio = = = .
(85 + 95) 180 9
Explanation:
=
(70 + 80)
(95 + 110)
150
= x 100 %
205
= 73.17%.

Explanation:
Average sales (in thousand number) of branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000
1 245
= x (80 + 95 + 70) = .
3 3
Average sales (in thousand number) of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001
1 280
= x (105 + 65 + 110) = .
3 3
245/3 245
Required percentage = x 100 %= x 100 % = 87.5%.
280/3 280
14. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Average sales of all the six branches (in thousand numbers) for the year 2000
1
= x [80 + 75 + 95 + 85 + 75 + 70]
6
= 80.
Explanation:
Total sales of branches B1, B3 and B5 for both the years (in thousand numbers)
= (80 + 105) + (95 + 110) + (75 + 95) = 560.
16. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
1
Percentage of money spend on Tennis = x 100 % = 12 %.
360 2

Explanation:
Let the total spendings on sports be Rs. x. Then,
36 x
Amount spent on Golf = Rs. xx = Rs. .
360 10
63 7x
Amount spent on Hockey = Rs xx = Rs. .
360 40
7x x 3x
Difference = Rs. - = Rs .
40 10 40
3x/40
Required percentage = Rs. x 100 % = 75%.
x/10

Explanation:
Amount spent on Basketball exceeds that on Tennis by:
(50 - 45)
Rs. x 1,80,00,000 = Rs. 2,50,000.
360

Explanation:
Let the total spendings on sports be Rs. x. Then,
81 9x
Amount spent on Cricket = x =
364 .
Rs. x Rs.
00
3x
54
Amount spent on Football = Rs xx= Rs. .
360
20
Difference = 9x 3x 3x
- = Rs .
Rs. 40 20 40
3x/40 1
Required percentage = Rs. x 100 % = 33 %.
9x/40 3
Explanation:
(81 +
Amount spent on Cricket and Hockey x
= Rs. 63) crores
together 2
360
= Rs. 0.8 crores
= Rs. 80,00,000.
21. C.2,117.65
22. D.11.76% decrease
24. C.EUR
25. A. 11.1%
26. B.76%
23. B.1,532
27. D.40
28. D.28.26%
29. C - E - D 30. C. Goods IV&I
31.
Answer : 6
Explanation : Looking at the diagram in rows, the central circle
Answer : 9
Explanation : The number at the centre of each triangle equals the

sum of the lower two numbers minus the top
number.
Answer : M
Explanation : Working in rows, add together the numerical values of the

left and right hand letters to give the numerical value of the
central letter.
Answer : O
equals half the sum of the numbers in the other circles
to the left and right of the centre.
32.
33.
34.
Explanation : In each segment of the diagram are a pair of letters, one of

which is the same distance from the start of the alphabet as
the other is from the end.
35.
Answer :K
Explanation : The numerical values of the letters in opposite
segments of the circle always add up to 17.
Answer : D
Explanation : The number of black dots in each grid increases

by 1 each time, starting with the top left grid and
working to the right, top row then bottom row.
Answer : Q
Explanation : Adding the three numbers in each square

together gives the numerical value of the letter
at the centre of each square.
36.
37.
38.
Answer : Hammer
Explanation : The Hammer = 1, the File = 3 and the Axe = 5
39.
Answer : Q
Explanation : Adding the three numbers in each square together gives the numerical
value of the letter at the centre of each square.
40.
Answer : King of Clubs
Explanation : Start at the top left of the diagram and move to the right, then down one
row and to the left etc. in a snakes and ladders pattern. The value of each
card increases by 5 each time, with their suit following the sequence of
hearts, clubs, diamonds and spades.
Answer : 5:19
Explanation : Starting with the watch on the left, add 42 minutes to the time
shown to give the time on the next watch to the right.

Explanation:In all other figures, there are two small line segments towards the pin and
three small line segments towards the arrow.
Explanation: In each step, the elements move in the order 41.

Explanation:All the elements move half-a-side of the square boundary in ACW direction in
each step. Also, first, third and fifth elements are replaced by new elements in one step and
second, fourth and sixth elements are replaced by new elements in the next step. The two
steps are repeated alternately.
47. Answer: Option B Explanation:
The elements move in the sequence's and alternately.
Explanation:
1, 3, 5 are figures having partially or completely curved boundaries.
2, 6, 8 are all triangles.
4, 7, 9 are all quadrilaterals.

Explanation:

Explanation:
From positions X and Y we conclude that 1, 5, 6 and 3 lie adjacent to 4. Therefore, 2 must lie
opposite 4. From positions Y and Z we conclude that 4, 3, 2 and 5 lie adjacent to 6. Therefore,
1 must lie opposite 6. Thus, 2 lies opposite 4, 1 lies opposite 6 and consequently 5 lies
opposite 3. As analysed above, the number on the face opposite 4 is 2. In position Y, since 4
lies on the top, therefore 2 must lie at the bottom face.
52.Answer: Option D Explanation:
53.Answer: Option D
54.Answer: Option B Explanation:
55.Answer: Option A Explanation:
56.Answer: Option D
Explanation:In each row, there are 3 types of shadings of circles - a circle is unshaded, another
circle has its right half shaded with vertical lines and yet another circle has its upper half
shaded with horizontal lines. There are three specified positions of the two triangles each of
which is used only once in a row. Also, two of the figures in each row have one triangle
shaded.
57.Answer: Option D
Explanation:The set of three pins gets vertically inverted and moves to the lower-right
position; the triangle rotates 90oACW; the third element rotates 45oACW and moves to
the upper-left position. The dot in this element moves to the adjacent portion in a CW
direction.
58.Answer: Option E
Explanation:The figure gets laterally inverted.
59.Answer: Option D
60.Answer: Option D
61.Answer: Option C
62.Answer: Option B
III. LETTER SEQUENCES

1. C
2. C
3. D
4. A 5. A
6. A
7. C
8. C
I. VERBAL TEST
63. Cannot Say - The fourth sentence states that the policy increases China’s per capita
gross domestic product, however this is just one economic indicator and is based on
output per person. The passage does not tell us if overall, the country as a whole has
increased wealth due to the one child policy. Since the passage does not tell us either
way, we must respond Cannot Say.
64. False - The last sentence merely presents the fact that millions or sibling-free couples
are able to have two children, and does not speculate as to the implications.
65. Cannot Say - The second sentence states that both the policy’s manner of
enforcement and its social repercussions are criticised – but does not state which is
the main criticism. So based on the information we are given, we cannot say.
66. Cannot Say - While the 7th sentence states that the policy is enforced less strictly in
provincial regions, comparative figures are not provided. One might deduce this
statement is likely given what we are told, but we are not told explicitly if this is true
or false, therefore we cannot say.
67. True - The fifth sentence tells us that “a disparate ratio of males to females” is the
result of “a cultural preference for sons”.
68. False - The fifth sentence states that there are “limitations” and cites two “amongst
others”. So we are told there are more than two limitations.
69. Cannot Say - The passage does not specify why hundreds of groups are seeking federal
recognition. Even though one might postulate demand is due to receiving benefits,
the
70. Cannot say – The 7th sentence refers to the introduction of a “lengthy and stringent
regulatory process” in 1978 however the passage does not tell us how difficult it was
before the introduction of this process. In order to respond either True or False we
would need to know about before and after 1978 to draw a comparison, but we do
not so we must respond Cannot say.
71. False – While the fourth sentence states that tribes are “exempt from state and local
jurisdiction” but goes on to say that the tribes may “request tax breaks”. So as we are
told tribes may request state tax breaks, this tells us they must normally pay taxes.
72. True – The second sentence states that there are hundreds of groups attempting to
attain federal recognition. The final two sentences states that the legal definition of
Indian is membership in a federally recognised tribe. Thus, it follows that many
American Indians do not fulfil the legal definition. Passage does not tell us this is or is
not the case, so we cannot say.
73. Cannot Say – Though these are, indeed, two uses of salt as stated in the second
sentence, we are not told whether these uses are the primary use of salt. As an aside,
food use actually accounts for less than 20% of salt production.
74. Cannot Say – The passage tells us that “the average adult” ingests “more than double
the amount of salt their body requires”. However we are not told how this average is
distributed in order to say whether this statement is true or not. For example it could
be possible that the average salt intake is skewed by a small proportion of adults. We
cannot tell from the information given alone.
75. False – The 7th sentence states that salt consumption has increased 50%, and the 8th
sentence states “much of this increase can be attributed to the advent of frozen and
processed foods”. So in order for salt consumption to increase, the salt levels in the
new food (frozen and processed food) must be above the average level, or
disproportionately high.
76. False – The last sentence of the passage states that 75% of the average person’s salt
intake comes from “food, such as bread, cereals and cheese”. Even if all of this food
were classed as frozen (highly implausible) this would still only get us to 75% of the
average person’s salt intake; it would not get us to ‘over three quarters’ as the
statement says. So it cannot be true.
77. Cannot say – The third and fourth sentences tell us that salt contains electrolytes, and
that electrolytes "regulate the body's fluid levels". However we are not told if these
electrolytes can be found in other foods or drinks, thus we cannot say.
Also, don't be misled by the first sentence "salt, is essential for human life"; since this
sentence alone does not tell us that salt is essential to maintain levels of body fluids.
78. False – The passage states that two permitted one-off Ivory sales occurred in 1999
and 2008.
79. True – The passage presents facts about the on-going problem of poaching, but also
states that populations have recovered in many countries and that proponents of one-
off sales “argue that elephants are no longer endangered”. Based on the discussion,
and the fact that we are told those in favor “argue” that elephants are no longer
endangered, we can say the matter is debatable.
80. True – The seventh sentence states that conservation groups oppose further sales
because “much of the ivory sold is of unknown origin”.
81. Cannot Say – Though Tanzania and Zambia want to lift the ban, it is not specified in
the passage that they are two countries in which elephant populations have recovered
– or indeed whether this is the reason for their calls to lift the ban.
82. Cannot Say – The sixth and eight sentences state that there is demand for ivory from
China and Japan, the tenth sentence suggests it is the ban – rather than the demand–
that is inflating prices. Either way, the passage does not unequivocally state this is or
is not the case, therefore we cannot say.
83. C
84. A
85. A
86. B
87. B
88. C
89. A
90. A
91. C
92. A
93. C
94. C
95. B
96. C
97. B
V. LOGICAL
98. A
99. C
100. D
101. D
102. Correct answer: C
Explanation: The pattern decreases progressively: -1, -2, -3, -4, -5
103. Correct answer: D
Explanation: 3+5=8, 5+8=13 and so on.
104. Correct answer: A
(For each row the sum of the first two columns is equal to the multiple of the last two
columns)
(For each row subtract the second column from the first column. The result is equal to the
sum of the digits in the last column).
108. Correct answer: B
Explanation: The difference between the numbers follows the series 1,3,9,27,81
Explanation: All odd numbers beginning from one, in a series.
Also: Starting with 13, add 4 to each digit separately, and continue adding 4 to the result.
112. Correct answer: E
113. C
114. D
115. B
116. A
VI. WHAT COMES NEXT?

117. C
118. B
119. A
120. E
121. D
122. E
123. A
124. B
125. C
126. E
127. C

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LỜI NÓI ĐẦU

SAPP Academy chúc các bạn thành công!

A.8700 B.8760 C.8990 D.8920

A.USD B.GBP C.EUR D.JPY

A. 11.1% B.12.1% C.13.1% D.14.1%

B.60 C.50 D.40

A.27.5% B.29.4% C.27.6% D.28.26%

A.Goods I &II B. Goods IV&II C. Goods IV&I D.Goods V&II

II. NON VERBAL REASONING TEST

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4) E.(5)

A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4)

A. 1,3,5 ; 2,6,9 ; 4,7,8

C. 1,3,5 ; 2,6,8 ; 4,7,9

3,2,4 ; 6,5,8 ; 7,9,1

Direction (for 50):

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A.1 B.2 C.5 D. Can not determined

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4)

A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4)

A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4)

A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4)

A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4)

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A.(1) B.(2) C.(3) D.(4)

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

1/ SCD, TEF, UGH, …, WKL

A.CMN B.UJI C.VIJ D.IJT

2/ FAG, GAF, HAI, IAH,..

A.JMN B.HAL C.JAK D.JAI

3/ EFLA, GHLA, ILJA,…, MNLA.

A.OLPA B.KLMA C.LLMA D.KLLA

4/ QPO, NML, KJI,…, EDC.

A.HGF B.CAB C.JKL D.GHI

5/ BCB, DED, FGF, HIH,…

B.HJH C.IJI D.JHJ

6/ QAR, RAS, SAT, TAU,…

A.UAV B.UAT C.TAS D.TAT

A.JKJ7/ P5QR, P4QS, P3QT,…, P1QV

8/ SCD, TEF, UGH ... WKL.

A.CMN A.CMN A.CMN A.CMN

4/ The United Nations’ Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES)

78. No legal sales of Ivory have occurred since 1989.

Which of the following figures is the odd one out?

102. Which number should come next in this series?

103. Which number should replace the question mark?

104. Which number should replace the question mark?

Please enter the missing figure:

108. Please enter the missing figure:

112. Select the number that best completes the analogy

113. Which number should come next in the series

115. Library is to book as book is to Binding Copy Page Cover

For 1999 890 x 100 % = 11.41%.

(840 + 1050 + 920 + 980 + 1050)

6. Answer: Option D Explanation:

Required percentage = 600 x 100 % 93.33%.

Difference = 230 170

10. Answer: Option C

13. Answer: Option D

14. Answer: Option B

17. Answer: Option D