SELF-ASSESSMENT EXERCISES 8. Which of the following statements is true?

Chapter 1 a. Koch developed a rabies vaccine.

b. Microbes are ubiquitous.
1. Which of the following individuals is considered to c. Most microbes are harmful to humans.
be the “Father of Microbiology?” d. Pasteur conducted experiments that proved the
a. Anton von Leeuwenhoek theory of abiogenesis.
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Robert Koch 9. Which of the following are even smaller than
d. Rudolf Virchow viruses?
a. chlamydias
2. The microbes that usually live on or in a person are b. prions and viroids
collectively referred to as: c. rickettsias
a. germs. d. cyanobacteria
b. indigenous microflora.
c. nonpathogens. 10. Which of the following individuals introduced the
d. opportunistic pathogens. terms “aerobes” and “anaerobes”?
a. Anton von Leeuwenhoek
3. Microbes that live on dead and decaying organic b. Louis Pasteur
material are known as: c. Robert Koch
a. indigenous microflora. d. Rudolf Virchow
b. parasites.
c. pathogens.
d. saprophytes.

4. The study of algae is called:

a. archaeology.
b. botany.
c. mycology.
d. phycology.

5. The field of parasitology involves the study of

which
of the following types of organisms?
a. arthropods, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and viruses
b. arthropods, helminths, and certain protozoa
c. bacteria, fungi, and protozoa
d. bacteria, fungi, and viruses

6. Rudolf Virchow is given credit for proposing which

of the following theories?
a. abiogenesis
b. biogenesis
c. germ theory of disease
d. spontaneous generation

7. Which of the following microbes are considered

obligate intracellular pathogens?
a. chlamydias, rickettsias, M. leprae, and T. pallidum
b. M. leprae and T. pallidum
c. M. tuberculosis and viruses
d. rickettsias, chlamydias, and viruses
 transmission electron microscope than the resolution
SELF-ASSESSMENT EXERCISES of the scanning electron microscope?
Chapter 2 a. 100
b. 1,000
1. A millimeter is equivalent to how many c. 10,000
nanometers? d. 100,000
a. 1,000
b. 10,000 8. The limiting factor of any compound light
c. 100,000 microscope (i.e., the thing that limits its resolution to
d. 1,000,000 0.2 m) is the:
a. number of condenser lenses it has.
2. Assume that a pinhead is 1 mm in diameter. How b. number of magnifying lenses it has.
many spherical bacteria (cocci), lined up side by side, c. number of ocular lenses it has.
would fit across the pinhead? (Hint: Use information d. wavelength of visible light.
from Table 2-1.)
a. 100 9. Which of the following individuals is given credit
b. 1,000 for developing the first compound microscope?
c. 10,000 a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
d. 100,000 b. Hans Jansen
c. Louis Pasteur
3. What is the length of an average rod-shaped d. Robert Hooke
bacterium (bacillus)?
a. 3 m 10. A compound light microscope differs from a
b. 3 nm simple
c. 0.3 mm microscope in that the compound light microscope
d. 0.03 mm contains more than one:
a. condenser lens.
4. What is the total magnification when using the b. magnifying lens.
high-power (high-dry) objective of a compound c. objective lens.
light microscope equipped with a 10 ocular lens? d. ocular lens
a. 40
b. 50
c. 100
d. 400

5. How many times better is the resolution of the

transmission electron microscope than the resolution
of the unaided human eye?
a. 1,000
b. 10,000
c. 100,000
d. 1,000,000
6. How many times better is the resolution of the
transmission electron microscope than the resolution
of the compound light microscope?
a. 100
b. 1,000
c. 10,000
d. 100,000

7. How many times better is the resolution of the

SELF-ASSESSMENT EXERCISES c. Kingdom, Division, Order, Class, Family, Genus
Chapter 3 d. Kingdom, Order, Division, Class, Family, Genus

1. Molecules of extrachromosomal DNA are also 8. Which one of the following is never found in
known as: procaryotic cells?
a. Golgi bodies. a. flagella
b. lysosomes. b. capsule
c. plasmids. c. cilia
d. plastids. d. ribosomes

2. A bacterium possessing a tuft of flagella at one 9. The semipermeable structure controlling the
end of its cell would be called what kind of transport of materials between the cell and its
bacterium? external
a. amphitrichous environment is the:
b. lophotrichous a. cell membrane.
c. monotrichous b. cell wall.
d. peritrichous c. cytoplasm.
d. nuclear membrane.
3. One way in which an archaean would differ from a
bacterium is that the archaean would possess no: 10. In eucaryotic cells, what are the sites of
a. DNA in its chromosome. photosynthesis?
b. peptidoglycan in its cell walls. a. mitochondria
c. ribosomes in its cytoplasm. b. plasmids
d. RNA in its ribosomes. c. plastids
d. ribosomes
4. Some bacteria stain Gram-positive and others stain
Gram-negative as a result of differences in the
structure of their:
a. capsule.
b. cell membrane.
c. cell wall.
d. ribosomes.

5. Of the following, which one is not found in

prokaryotic cells?
a. cell membrane
b. chromosome
c. mitochondria
d. plasmids

6. The Three-Domain System of Classification is

based on differences in which of the following
molecules?
a. mRNA
b. peptidoglycan
c. rRNA
d. tRNA

7. Which of the following is in the correct sequence?

a. Kingdom, Class, Division, Order, Family, Genus
b. Kingdom, Division, Class, Order, Family, Genus
SELF-ASSESSMENT EXERCISES
Chapter 4 8. Which one of the following statements about
cyanobacteria is false?
1. Which one of the following steps occurs during the a. Although cyanobacteria are photosynthetic, they
multiplication of animal viruses, but not during the do not produce oxygen as a result of photosynthesis.
multiplication of bacteriophages? b. At one time, cyanobacteria were called blue-green
a. assembly algae.
b. biosynthesis c. Some cyanobacteria are capable of nitrogen
c. penetration fixation.
d. uncoating d. Some cyanobacteria are important medically
because they produce toxins.
2. Which one of the following diseases or groups of
diseases is not caused by prions? 9. Which one of the following statements about
a. certain plant diseases archaea is false?
b. chronic wasting disease of deer and elk a. Archaea are more closely related to eucaryotes
c. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease of humans than they are to bacteria.
d. “mad cow disease” b. Both archaea and bacteria are prokaryotic
organisms.
3. Most procaryotic cells reproduce by: c. Some archaea live in extremely hot environments.
a. binary fission. d. The cell walls of archaea contain a thicker layer of
b. budding. peptidoglycan than the cell walls of bacteria
c. gamete production.
d. spore formation. 10. An organism that does not require oxygen, grows
better in the absence of oxygen, but can survive in
4. The group of bacteria that lack rigid cell walls and atmospheres containing some molecular oxygen is
take on irregular shapes is: known as a(n):
a. chlamydias. a. aerotolerant anaerobe.
b. mycobacteria. b. capnophile.
c. mycoplasmas. c. facultative anaerobe.
d. rickettsias. d. microaerophile

5. At the end of the Gram staining procedure, Gram-

positive bacteria will be:
a. blue to purple.
b. green.
c. orange.
d. pink to red.

6. Which one of the following statements about

rickettsias is false?
a. Diseases caused by rickettsias are arthropod borne.
b. Rickets is caused by a Rickettsia species.
c. Rickettsia species cause typhus and typhus like
diseases.
d. Rickettsias have leaky membranes.

7. Which one of the following statements about

Chlamydia and Chlamydophila spp. is false?
a. They are obligate intracellular pathogens.
b. They are considered to be “energy parasites.”
c. The diseases they cause are all arthropod-borne.
d. They are considered to be Gram-negative bacteria.
SELF-ASSESSMENT EXERCISES a. light-sensing organelle.
Chapter 5 b. primitive mouth.
c. thickened membrane.
1. Which of the following statements about algae and d. type of plastid.
fungi is (are) true?
a. Algae are photosynthetic, whereas fungi are not. 9. If a dimorphic fungus is causing a respiratory
b. Algal cell walls contain cellulose, whereas fungal infection, which of the following might be seen in a
cell walls do not. sputum specimen from that patient?
c. Fungal cell walls contain chitin, whereas algal cell a. amebae
walls do not. b. conidia
d. all of the above c. hyphae
d. yeasts
2. All of the following are algae except:
a. desmids. 10. Which one of the following is not a fungus?
b. diatoms. a. Aspergillus
c. dinoflagellates. b. Candida
d. sporozoan. c. Penicillium
d. Prototheca
3. All of the following are fungi except:
a. molds.
b. Paramecium.
c. Penicillium.
d. yeasts.

4. A protozoan may possess any of the following

except:
a. cilia.
b. flagella.
c. hyphae.
d. pseudopodia.

5. Which one of the following terms is not associated

with fungi?
a. conidia
b. hyphae
c. mycelium
d. pellicle

6. All of the following terms can be used to describe

hyphae except:
a. aerial and reproductive.
b. septate and aseptate.
c. sexual and asexual.
d. vegetative.

7. A lichen usually represents a symbiotic relationship

between which of the following pairs?
a. a fungus and an ameba
b. a yeast and an ameba
c. an alga and a cyanobacterium
d. an alga and a fungus
8. A stigma is a:
SELF-ASSESSMENT EXERCISES 8. Which of the following statements about
Chapter 6 nucleotides is (are) true?
a. A nucleotide contains a nitrogenous base.
1. Which of the following are the building blocks of b. A nucleotide contains a pentose.
proteins? c. A nucleotide contains a phosphate group.
a. amino acids d. All of the above statements are true.
b. monosaccharides
c. nucleotides 9. A heptose contains how many carbon atoms?
d. peptides a. 4
b. 5
2. Glucose, sucrose, and cellulose are examples of: c. 6
a. carbohydrates. d. 7
b. disaccharides.
c. monosaccharides. 10. Virtually all enzymes are:
d. polysaccharides. a. carbohydrates.
b. nucleic acids.
3. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is not c. proteins.
found in an RNA molecule? d. substrates.
a. adenine
b. guanine
c. thymine
d. uracil

4. Which of the following are purines?

a. adenine and guanine
b. adenine and thymine
c. guanine and uracil
d. guanine and cytosine

5. Which one of the following is not found at the site

of
protein synthesis?
a. DNA
b. mRNA
c. rRNA
d. tRNA

6. Which of the following statements about DNA is

(are) true?
a. DNA contains thymine but not uracil.
b. DNA molecules contain deoxyribose.
c. In a double-stranded DNA molecule, adenine on
one strand will be connected to thymine on the
complementary strand by two hydrogen bonds.
d. All of the above statements are true.

7. The amino acids in a polypeptide chain are

connected by:
a. covalent bonds.
b. glycosidic bonds.
c. peptide bonds.
d. both a and c.
SELF-ASSESSMENT EXERCISES d. exoenzymes.
Chapter 7
8. The process by which a nontoxigenic
1. Which of the following characteristics do animals, Corynebacterium diphtheriae cell is changed into a
fungi, and protozoa have in common? toxigenic cell is
a. They obtain their carbon from carbon dioxide. called:
b. They obtain their carbon from inorganic a. conjugation.
compounds. b. lysogenic conversion.
c. They obtain their energy and carbon atoms from c. transduction.
chemicals. d. transformation
d. They obtain their energy from light.
9. Which of the following does (do) not occur in
2. Most ATP molecules are produced during which anaerobes?
phase of aerobic respiration? a. anabolic reactions
a. electron transport chain b. catabolic reactions
b. fermentation c. electron transport chain
c. glycolysis d. fermentation reactions
d. Krebs cycle
10. Proteins that must link up with a cofactor to
3. Which of the following processes does not involve function as an enzyme are called:
bacteriophages? a. apoenzymes.
a. lysogenic conversion b. coenzymes.
b. lytic cycle c. endoenzymes.
c. transduction d. holoenzymes.
d. transformation

4. In transduction, bacteria acquire new genetic

information in the form of:
a. bacterial genes.
b. naked DNA.
c. R-factors.
d. viral genes.

5. The process whereby naked DNA is absorbed into a

bacterial cell is known as:
a. transcription.
b. transduction.
c. transformation.
d. translation.

6. In lysogenic conversion, bacteria acquire new

genetic information in the form of:
a. bacterial genes.
b. naked DNA.
c. R-factors.
d. viral genes.

7. Saprophytic fungi are able to digest organic

molecules outside of the organism by means of:
a. apoenzymes.
b. coenzymes.
c. endoenzymes.
SELF-ASSESSMENT EXERCISES 8. The goal of medical asepsis is to kill __________,
Chapter 8 whereas the goal of surgical asepsis is to kill
__________.
1. It would be necessary to use a tuberculocidal agent a. all microorganisms . . . . . pathogens
to kill a particular species of: b. bacteria . . . . . bacteria and viruses
a. Clostridium. c. nonpathogens . . . . . pathogens
b. Mycobacterium. d. pathogens . . . . . all microorganisms
c. Staphylococcus.
d. Streptococcus. 9. Which of the following types of culture media is
selective and differential?
2. Pasteurization is an example of what kind of a. blood agar
technique? b. MacConkey agar
a. antiseptic c. phenylethyl alcohol agar
b. disinfection d. Thayer-Martin agar
c. sterilization
d. surgical aseptic 10. All the following types of culture media are
enriched and selective except:
3. The combination of freezing and drying is known a. blood agar.
as: b. colistin–nalidixic acid agar.
a. desiccation. c. phenylethyl alcohol agar.
b. lyophilization. d. Thayer-Martin agar.
c. pasteurization.
d. tyndallization.

4. Organisms that live in and around hydrothermal

vents at the bottom of the ocean are:
a. acidophilic, psychrophilic, and halophilic.
b. halophilic, alkaliphilic, and psychrophilic.
c. halophilic, psychrophilic, and piezophilic.
d. halophilic, thermophilic, and piezophilic.

5. When placed into a hypertonic solution, a bacterial

cell will:
a. take in more water than it releases.
b. lyse.
c. shrink.
d. swell.

6. To prevent Clostridium infections in a hospital

setting, what kind of disinfectant should be used?
a. fungicidal
b. pseudomonicidal
c. sporicidal
d. tuberculocidal

7. Sterilization can be accomplished by use of:

a. an autoclave.
b. antiseptics.
c. medical aseptic techniques.
d. pasteurization.
SELF-ASSESSMENT EXERCISES 7. Which of the following scientists discovered
Chapter 9 penicillin?
a. Alexander Fleming
1. Which of the following is least likely to be taken b. Paul Ehrlich
into consideration when deciding which antibiotic to c. Selman Waksman
prescribe for a patient? d. Sir Howard Walter Florey
a. patient’s age
b. patient’s underlying medical conditions 8. Which of the following scientists is considered to
c. patient’s weight be the “Father of Chemotherapy?”
d. other medications that the patient is taking a. Alexander Fleming
b. Paul Ehrlich
2. Which of the following is least likely to lead to drug c. Selman Waksman
resistance in bacteria? d. Sir Howard Walter Florey
a. a chromosomal mutation that alters cell membrane
permeability 9. All the following antimicrobial agents work by
b. a chromosomal mutation that alters the shape of inhibiting cell wall synthesis except:
a particular drug-binding site a. cephalosporins.
c. receiving a gene that codes for an enzyme that b. chloramphenicol.
destroys a particular antibiotic c. penicillin.
d. receiving a gene that codes for the production of d. vancomycin.
a capsule
10. All the following antimicrobial agents work by
3. Which of the following is not a common inhibiting protein synthesis except:
mechanism by which antimicrobial agents kill or a. chloramphenicol.
inhibit the growth of bacteria? b. erythromycin.
a. damage to cell membranes c. imipenem.
b. destruction of capsules d. tetracycline.
c. inhibition of cell wall synthesis
d. inhibition of protein synthesis

4. Multidrug therapy is always used when a patient is

diagnosed as having:
a. an infection caused by MRSA.
b. diphtheria.
c. strep throat.
d. tuberculosis.

5. Which of the following terms or names has nothing

to do with the use of two drugs simultaneously?
a. antagonism
b. Salvarsan
c. Septra
d. synergism

6. Which of the following is not a common

mechanism by which antifungal agents work?
a. by binding with cell membrane sterols
b. by blocking nucleic acid synthesis
c. by dissolving hyphae
d. by interfering with sterol synthesis
SELF-ASSESSMENT EXERCISES
1. A symbiont could be a(n):
a. commensal. 8. Which of the following are least likely to play a role
b. opportunist. in the nitrogen cycle?
c. parasite. a. indigenous microflora
d. all of the above b. nitrifying and denitrifying bacteria
c. nitrogen-fixing bacteria
2. The greatest number and variety of indigenous d. bacteria living in the root nodules of legumes
microflora of the human body live in or on the:
a. colon. 9. Microorganisms are used in which of the following
b. genitourinary tract. industries?
c. mouth. a. antibiotic
d. skin b. chemical
c. food, beer, and wine
3. Escherichia coli living in the human colon can be d. all of the above
considered to be a(n):
a. endosymbiont. 10. The term that best describes a symbiotic
b. opportunist. relationship in which two different microorganisms
c. symbiont in a mutualistic relationship. occupy the same ecologic niche, but have absolutely
d. all of the above no effect on each other is:
a. commensalism.
4. Which of the following sites of the human body b. mutualism.
does not have indigenous microflora? c. neutralism.
a. bloodstream d. parasitism
b. colon
c. distal urethra
d. vagina

5. Which of the following would be present in the

highest
numbers in the indigenous microflora of the human
mouth?
a. -hemolytic streptococci
-hemolytic streptococci
b. -hemolytic streptococci
c. Candida albicans
d. Staphylococcus aureus

6. Which of the following would be present in the

highest
numbers in the indigenous microflora of the skin?
a. C. albicans
b. coagulase-negative staphylococci
c. Enterococcus spp.
d. E. coli

7. The indigenous microflora of the external ear canal

is most like the indigenous microflora of the:
a. colon.
b. mouth.
c. skin.
d. distal urethra.
SELF-ASSESSMENT EXERCISES d. sedimentation
Chapter 11
8. The largest waterborne epidemic ever to occur in
1. Which of the following terms best describes the United States occurred in which of the following
chlamydial genital infection in the United States? cities?
a. arthropod-borne disease a. Chicago
b. epidemic disease b. Los Angeles
c. pandemic disease c. Milwaukee
d. sporadic disease d. New York City

2. Which of the following are considered reservoirs of 9. Typhoid fever is caused by a species of:
infection? a. Campylobacter.
a. carriers b. Escherichia.
b. contaminated food and drinking water c. Salmonella.
c. rabid animals d. Shigella.
d. all of the above
10. Which of the following associations is incorrect?
3. The most common nationally notifiable infectious a. ehrlichiosis . . . tick
disease in the United States is: b. malaria . . . mosquito
a. chlamydial genital infections. c. plague . . . flea
b. gonorrhea. d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever . . . mite
c. the common cold.
d. TB.

4. Which of the following arthropods is the vector of

Lyme disease?
a. flea
b. mite
c. mosquito
d. tick

5. The most common zoonotic disease in the United

States is:
a. Lyme disease.
b. plague.
c. rabies.
d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

6. Which one of the following organisms is not one of

the four most likely potential BW or bioterrorism
agents?
a. B. anthracis
b. Ebola virus
c. V. major
d. Y. pestis

7. All of the following are major steps in the

treatment
of a community’s drinking water except:
a. boiling.
b. filtration.
c. flocculation.
SELF-ASSESSMENT EXERCISES
Chapter 12
1. An HAI is one that:
a. develops during hospitalization or erupts within
14 days of hospital discharge.
b. develops while the patient is hospitalized.
c. is acquired in the community.
d. the patient has at the time of hospital admission.
2. An example of a fomite would be:
a. a drinking glass used by a patient.
b. bandages from an infected wound.
c. soiled bed linens.
d. all of the above.
3. Which of the following Gram-positive bacteria is
most likely to be the cause of an HAI?
a. C. difficile
b. S. aureus
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. S. pyogenes
a. Droplet Precautions
b. an AIIR
c. Standard Precautions
d. use of a type N95 respirator by healthcare
professional who are caring for the patient
8. Which of the following statements about medical
asepsis is false?
a. Disinfection is a medical aseptic technique.
b. Handwashing is a medical aseptic technique.
c. Medical asepsis is considered a clean technique.
d. The goal of medical asepsis is to exclude all
microorganisms from an area.
9. Which of the following statements about an AIIR is
false?
a. Air entering the room is passed through HEPA
filters.
b. The room is under negative air pressure.
c. An AIIR is appropriate for patients with
meningococcal meningitis, whooping cough, or
influenza.
d. Transmission-Based Precautions will be necessary.

4. Which of the following Gram-negative bacteria is 10. Contact Precautions are required for patients
least likely to be the cause of an HAI? with:
a. a Klebsiella species a. C. difficile-associated diseases.
b. a Salmonella species b. infections caused by multidrug-resistant bacteria.
c. E. coli c. viral hemorrhagic fevers.
d. P. aeruginosa d. all of the above

5. A Protective Environment would be appropriate for

a patient:
a. infected with MRSA.
b. with leukopenia.
c. with pneumonic plague.
d. with tuberculosis.

6. Which of the following is not part of Standard

Precautions?
a. handwashing between patient contacts
b. placing a patient in a private room having negative
air pressure
c. properly disposing of needles, scalpels, and other
sharps
d. wearing gloves, masks, eye protection, and gowns
when appropriate

7. A patient suspected of having tuberculosis has

been
admitted to the hospital. Which one of the following
is not appropriate?
SELF-ASSESSMENT EXERCISES
Chapter 13
1. Assuming that a clean-catch, midstream urine was
processed in the CML, which of the following colony
counts is (are) indicative of a urinary tract infection?
a. 10,000 CFU/mL
b. 100,000 CFU/mL
c. 100,000 CFU/mL
d. both b and c
2. Which of the following statements about blood
is false?
a. As it circulates throughout the human body,
blood is usually sterile.
b. Following centrifugation, the layer of leukocytes
and platelets is referred to as the buffy coat.
c. Bacteremia and septicemia are synonyms.
d. Plasma constitutes about 55% of whole blood.
3. Which of the following statements about
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) specimens is false?
a. They are collected only by clinicians.
b. They are treated as STAT (emergency) specimens in
the laboratory.
c. They should always be refrigerated.
d. They should be rushed to the laboratory after
collection.
7. Who is primarily responsible for the quality of
specimens submitted to the CML?
a. microbiologist who is in charge of the CML
b. pathologist who is in charge of “the lab”
c. person who collects the specimen
d. person who transports the specimen to the CML
8. Which of the following is not one of the four major
day-to-day responsibilities of the CML?
a. identify (speciate) pathogens
b. isolate pathogens from clinical specimens
c. perform antimicrobial susceptibility testing when
appropriate
d. process environmental samples
9. Which of the following sections is least likely to be
found in the CML of a small hospital?
a. Bacteriology Section
b. Mycology Section
c. Parasitology Section
d. Virology Section
10. In the Mycology Section of the CML, moulds are
identified by __________.
a. biochemical test results
b. macroscopic observations
c. microscopic observations
d. a combination of b and c

4. All clinical specimens submitted to the CML must

be:
a. properly and carefully collected.
b. properly labeled.
c. properly transported to the laboratory.
d. all of the above

5. Which of the following is not one of the three parts

of a urine culture?
a. isolation and identification of the pathogen
b. performing a colony count
c. performing a microscopic observation of the
urine specimen
d. performing antimicrobial susceptibility testing

6. Which of the following matches is false?

a. CPE . . . Virology Section
b. KOH preparation . . . Mycology Section
c. Tease mount . . . Bacteriology Section
d. Type of hemolysis . . . Bacteriology Section