Ibps Po Mains Model Question Paper PDF

IBPS PO Mains 2019 – Model Question Paper PDF
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Reasoning Ability
(Directions 1–4): Study the following c) Nephew
information carefully and answer the questions d) Sister
given below it. e) None of these
In a family of ten members each person speaks
different language viz. Hindi, English, Punjabi, 2) Which of the following statement is true?
Tamil, Gujarati, Telugu, Kannada, Urdu and a) The one who speaks Urdu is uncle of the one
Marathi. Not necessarily in same order. who speaks Marathi.
 The one who speaks Hindi is daughter of H. W b) The one who speaks English is son-in-law of
speaks Bengali and is only female child of K. the one who speaks Punjabi.
F is married to the one who speaks Urdu and is c) The one who speaks Tamil is father-in-law of F.
the mother of the one who speaks Marathi. D d) The one who speaks Gujarati is daughter of K.
speaks Gujarati and is son of F’s sister-in-law. e) All the above given statements are false.
H neither married to U nor speaks Telugu.
 M is married to the one who speaks Telugu. 3) Who among the following person speaks
The one who speaks Kannada is brother of the
Punjabi?
one who speaks Tamil. The one who speaks
a) R b) M c) E d) H e) None of these
Hindi is sister-in-law of F. M is son of the one
who speaks English.
 P who speaks Kannada is brother-in-law of R 4) How is P related to the one who speaks
and is unmarried. U is only female child of the Hindi?
one who speaks Tamil and is the sister of the a) Grandmother b) Uncle c) Father-in-law
father of the one who speaks Bengali. d) Brother-in-law e) None of these
 The one who speaks Punjabi is a female
member of the family. E is married to the one (Directions 5–8): Study the following
who speaks Marathi. Only three married information carefully and answer the questions
couples are there in the family. given below it.
A student from a central university develops a
1) How is the one who speaks Telugu related to scientific calculator for specific encrypted
K? calculation. Digits from 0 to 9 are coded as
a) Daughter-in-law different letters, and perform a 3x3 multiplication
b) Brother-in-law as shown below in the figure.
Page: 1
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a) PARTY b) HEART c) CLEAR d) TRAIN
e) GRACE
10) If ‘S’ is added before each 5-letter words

then, how many newly meaningful word can be
formed?
a) Three b) Two c) Four d) One e) None
Note: No two digit are coded as with same letter. 11) If all the letters within 5-letter words are
Carefully observe above calculation and answer rearranged in reverse alphabetical order, and
the following question based on same thus the newly formed words are arranged as
multiplication. they appear in dictionary, then how many
letters are there between 3rd letter of second
5) What is the possible value of “P2 + 2M”? word from left and 3rd letter of second word
a) 55 b) 76 c) 65 d) 52 e) None of these from right after rearrangement?
a) Eight b) Seven c) Five d) Ten e) None of
6) What is the possible value of “D3 + 4Q – these
2Z”?
a) 226 b) 312 c) 117 d) 200 e) None of these 12) If each consonant is replaced by previous
letter and each vowel is replaced by next letter
7) If “GKB” is multiplied by “DEM” then what of English alphabetical series within 5-letter
is the possible resultant of the multiplication? words, then how many newly formed words
a) EGBPBM b) MZKQEM c) GMPKQZ have two or more same letter after
d) GEPMBM e) Can’t be determined rearrangement?
a) Two b) Four c) One d) Three e) None
8) What is the possible value of “4P + 3G –
3B”? (Directions 13–16): Study the following
a) 27 b) 28 c) 21 d) 34 e) None of these information carefully and answer the questions
given below it.
(Directions 9–12): The given questions are Ten friends namely – N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V
based on five, 5-letter words. Study the and W are sitting in an examination hall in such a
following information carefully and answer the way that all of them sit facing north but not
questions given below it. necessarily in same row.
HEART, PARTY, GRACE, CLEAR, TRAIN  W sits east of O. R and O sits in same line. W
sits at any place south of T. V sits 12m north
9) If all the letters within 5-letter words are of the one who is 9m east of Q.
rearranged in English alphabetical order and  P is to the north of Q. S is 13m south-west of
thus newly formed words are arranged in T. N sits north of W and is east of Q.
dictionary, thus which of the following word  V and T sit at a gap of 5m. R sits somewhere
appear third in the list? in-front of V but not necessarily north of V.
Page: 2
 P is 10m west of the one who is 5m north-west assumptions and then decide which of the
of T. U sits 20m south of V. W and N sits at a assumptions is implicit.
gap of 6m. O sits at a gap of 4m west of the a) If only assumption I is implicit.
one who is south of T. b) If only assumption II is implicit.
c) If either assumption I or assumption II is
13) What is position of U with respect to O? implicit.
a) West b) North-East c) South-West d) If neither assumption I nor assumption II is
d) North-West e) None of these implicit.
e) If both assumption I and assumption II are
14) Which of the following statement is true? implicit.
a) P is south-west of R.
b) Q is 12m west of S. 17) Statement:
c) R is 5m north-west of the one who is 6m west “A newspaper is not merely a product. It
of V. represents the reader’s desire to be a part of public
d) Q is 16m south of the one who is 10m west of sphere. It blends the cardinal aspect of good
R. journalism with best business practices. It tries to
e) All the above statement are false. be a broad base as possible without losing its
path”.
15) What is the shortest distance between O Assumptions:
and T? I) Newspaper is one of the biggest print media
a) 15m b) 2√85m c) 16m d) 10√3m which reaches to the masses and makes people
e) None of these aware of facts and figure of society.
II) Print media has experienced tremendous
16) Which of the following statement is/are change during the last decade and given a good
true? career opportunity.
I) QS + OW> TV + PR.
II) PQ >(US + RT) ≥ (WN + QS). 18) Statement:
III)NS + OW + TR < NW + VT. “The country’s biggest passenger carrier airline
IV)VS + SQ >PQ + TR marked by share has recently announced huge
a) Only III discount of 50% for a family of three or more
b) Only II and IV travelling on its network on a single PNR or
c) Only I and III booking number”.
d) Only II and III Assumptions:
e) None I) The airline has earned enough profit this quarter
and is now in a position to offer discounts.
Directions (17 – 19): In each question given II) There is much more competition among airline
below a statement is followed by two companies these days to attract passengers at
assumptions numbered I and II. You have to minimum possible profit margin as well.
consider the statement and the following
Page: 3
19) Statement: 21) Statement:
“For the year 2018 kharif harvest may be lower Should Government of India have to impose anti-
than 2017 because of flood and other natural dumping duty on protecting mobile screen guards
catastrophe in several regions, but the country has from China for three years to protect the domestic
enough stocks to meet food requirement and keep industries?
price under control – says food and consumer Argument:
minister”. I) Yes, it will boost the domestic industry
Assumptions: producing tempered glass and screen protecting
I) The government keeps buffer stock of food films.
grains to control the rising price in country during II) No, Chinese tempered glasses are quite cheap
floods. and Indian customers are more sensitive towards
II) Floods cause severe damage to kharif crops and price.
increase the risk of price rise of food grains in the
country. 22) Statement:
With new government initiative now senior
Directions (20 – 22): In each questions given citizens have the option to avail either full
below a statement is followed by two argument concession on rail tickets or half of it. The new
numbered I and II. You have to consider the system will be effective shortly after upgrading
statement and the following argument and IRCTC software.
decide which of the following is a strong Argument:
argument: I) Senior citizen will not give up the subsidy as
a) If only argument I is strong. railways are one the most convenient mode of
b) If only argument II is strong. transportation.
c) If either argument I or argument II is strong. II) Railway will lose out the percentage of senior
d) If neither argument I nor argument II is strong. citizen travelling.
e) If both argument I and argument II are strong.
(Directions 23–25): In each question there are
20) Statement: five statements numbered I to V followed by
Xiaomi India’s top selling mobile brand is under four conclusions numbered I to IV. You have to
scanner one more time after Redmi note 4 take the given statement to be true even if they
allegedly burst into flames when kept into pocket seem to be variance with commonly known
of a consumer in Hyderabad? facts. Read all the statements and conclusions
Argument: carefully and then decide which for which set of
I) The Government of India should completely ban statements all the conclusion logically follows.
the selling of Redmi note 4 in the country.
II) The Government should impose heavy penalty 23) Statements:
on Xiaomi and warns to keep all the defective I. Some TOO are ZOO.
phones from market. II. No KOO is POO.
III. No HOO is TOO.
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IV. P. c) P: All Planet are Sun; Q: No planet is Earth; X:
V. Q. Some Sun are not Mars; Y: All Moon can be
Conclusions: Earth; Z: All Mars can never be Planet.
I. Some DOO are ZOO. d) P: No Planet is Earth; Q: All Earth are Sun; X:
II. X. All Mars can never be Planet; Y: Some Sun are
III. Y. not Moon; Z: All Star can be Sun.
IV. Z. e) None of these.
a) P: Some POO are ZOO; Q: All TOO are DOO;
X: All DOO can never be POO; Y: Some ZOO 25) Statements:
can never be HOO; Z: Some POO are not KOO. I. No Gold is Metal.
b) P: All TOO are KOO; Q: Some ZOO are DOO; II. All Metal are Silver.
X: All KOO can never be HOO; Y: Some TOO III. Some Gold are Glass.
are not POO; Z: All DOO can be HOO. IV. P.
c) P: All TOO are DOO; Q: All HOO are KOO; V. Q.
X: All DOO can never be KOO; Y: All KOO can Conclusions:
never be HOO; Z: No HOO is POO. I. Some Steel are Silver.
d) P: All DOO are ZOO; Q: Some POO are DOO; II. X.
X: All POO can be TOO; Y: All DOO can be III. Y.
HOO; Z: Some DOO are not KOO. IV. Z.
e) More than one option is true. a) P: Some Metal are Wood; Q: All Wood are
Steel; X: All Glass can never be Metal; Y: Some
24) Statements: Wood are not Gold; Z: All Silver can be Glass.
I. All Star are Moon. b) P: Some Metal are Steel; Q: No Wood is Steel;
II. No Moon is Mars. X: Some Metal are not Glass; Y: All Steel can
III. Some Mars are Earth. never be Wood; Z: Some Silver are not Steel.
IV. P. c) P: All Steel are Metal; Q: No Wood is Steel; X:
V. Q. Some Metal are not Steel; Y: Some Glass are not
Conclusions: Steel; Z: Some Wood are not Gold.
I. Some Earth are not Star. c) P: All Glass are Wood; Q: Some Metal are
II. X. Steel; X: Some Wood are not Metal; Y: All Glass
III. Y. can never be Silver; Z: Some Steel are not Gold
IV. Z. e) More than one option is correct.
a) P: No Star is Sun; Q: Some Sun are Planet; X:
All Planet can be Earth; Y: All Moon can never be Directions (26-29): Study the following
Sun; Z: Some Star can be Mars. information carefully and answer the below
b) P: Some Sun are Star; Q: All Earth are Planet; questions.
X: All Sun can never be Mars; Y: All Planet can Nine boxes of three different type viz. Wooden
be Star; Z: Some Mars are Planet. (B01, B08 & B04), Metal (B03, B06 & B09) and
Plastic (B02, B05 & B07) are kept one above
Page: 5
other in the form of stack. Each box is marked which contains Melody, whose weight is perfect
with different paint viz. Green, White, Red, Blue, square. Number of boxes above Blue box is same
Brown, Yellow, Pink, Orange and Black. Each as number of boxes below the box whose weight is
box contains different type of chocolates viz. 5- thrice the weight of Green box. The box B02 is
Star, Silk, Twix, Melody, Kit-Kat, Munch, Perk, kept adjacent to the Silk, whose weight is an even
Eclairs and Aero. Weights of each box are number.
different and are multiples of 3 in Kg. Combined
weight of each boxes are not more than 204kg. No 26) Which of the following box is kept just
two boxes of same type are kept together. below the box whose weight is 24kg?
One box is kept between Black box and the a) The box which contains Eclairs.
box which contains Perk, whose weight is a cube b) Green box
number. Three boxes are kept between the box c) B01
B09 and the box which contains Twix, which is d) Either A or B
neither kept at bottom nor marked White. Black e) Weight of none of the boxes is 24kg.
box is kept adjacent to Brown box, which contains
5-Star but not kept at bottom. The box which 27) Which of the following combination is true?
contains Munch is kept just below the box whose a) B03 – Kit-Kat – 12 – Green
weight is 15kg, which neither contains Twix nor b) Blue – B01 – 21 – Eclairs
Aero. The box which contains Perk is kept fourth c) B05 – Brown – 5-Star - 18
from bottom. One of the wooden box marked Red d) White – Aero – 48 – B09
is kept at a gap of three boxes from White box, e) All the above given combination are not true.
whose weight is 21kg. The box B03 contains Kit-
Kat and is kept adjacent to the Red box. 28) What is difference in weight of the box
Difference of weight between Green box and the which contains Twix and Orange box?
box B09 is 15kg. Three boxes are kept between a) 15 b) 30 c) 27 d) 18 e) None of these
the box which contains 5-Star and the box B01,
whose weight is 15kg. White box is kept just 29) if all the boxes are rearranged in ascending
below the box whose weight is 48kg, which is order of their weight from bottom to top, then
neither kept at top nor marked Black. The box B06 how many boxes are kept below the box which
is neither kept at bottom nor contains 5-Star. The contains Aero?
box B09 is kept just above the Yellow box, which a) One b) Four c) Seven d) Three
is kept at a gap of one box from the box whose e) None of these
weight is 3/4th the weight of the box which
contains Munch. Blue box is neither kept at top Directions (30-33): Study the following
nor at Bottom. The box B08 is kept just above one information carefully and answer the below
of the plastic box. The box B05 doesn’t contain questions.
Melody but kept at a gap of four boxes from Twelve family members viz. seven male member
Green box. At least two boxes are kept below Pink (M1, M2, M3, M4, M5, M6 and M7) and five
box. The box B06 is kept adjacent to the box female member (F1, F2, F3, F4 and F5) sits in a
Page: 6
row from left to right in such a way that each chair Condition 2: If the card drawn is a number card of
is marked with different letter from A to L. Each ‘Diamond’ then, the person who draws card
person works in different public sector unit viz. interchange his/her position with the one who sits
SAIL, BHEL, ONGC, DRDO & AAI. Not less at position ‘B’, else interchange his/her position
than two and not more than three person works in with the one who sits at position ‘D’.
same company. No two female and no two people Condition 3: If the card drawn is a face card of
who works in same company sits together. ‘Heart’ then, the person who draws card
interchange his/her position with the one who sits
at position ‘E’, else interchange his/her position
with the one who sits at position ‘G’.
Two people sit between M1 and M3, who works Condition 4: If the card drawn is a number card of
in DRDO. M2 who works in BHEL sits at extreme ‘Spade’ then, the person who draws card
end at a gap of three people of the one who works interchange his/her position with the one who sits
in ONGC. One of the male members who work in at position ‘C’, else interchange his/her position
SAIL sits fourth to left of M4. M6 sits immediate with the one who sits at position ‘I’.
right of the one who works in ONGC. Five people Note: The entire person draws cards in same
sit between F3 and M1, who doesn’t work in sequence as given below:
DRDO. M5 sits second to right of the one who I) F2 draws ace of diamond.
works in ONGC. Three people sit between M1 and II) M4 draws ‘6’ of Club.
one of the female members, who work in AAI. M2 III) M3 draws 9 of Heart.
sits immediate left of F3, who doesn’t work in IV) F4 draws King of Spade.
SAIL. M4 works in AAI. M3 sits fourth to left of V) F5 draws ‘9’ of Club.
one of the female member, who works in SAIL. VI) M1 draws Queen of spade.
One of the people who work in BHEL sits fifth to VII) M6 draws ‘3’ of Heart.
left of M6, who neither works in SAIL nor BHEL. VIII) F3 Queen of diamond.
Two people sit between M4 and the one who IX) M2 draws 10 of spade.
works in DRDO. The one who works in AAI sits X) M5 draws King of club.
second to left of F1. Two people sit between F4 XI) F1 draws ace of Spade.
and F2, who sits adjacent to the one who works in XII) M7 draws 5 of Club.
SAIL. One person sits between the one who works
in DRDO and M7.
30) Who sits second to left of M6 after
Now they start playing card game. The shuffled a rearrangement?
pack of card, each person draws one card and a) M5 b) F2 c) M4 d) F2 e) None of these
change their position according to given
conditions:
31) What is the position of F3 with respect to
Condition 1: If the card drawn is a face card of the one who works in BHEL after final
‘Club’ then, the person who draws card rearrangement?
interchange his/her position with the one who sits a) Third to left b) Eight to right
at position ‘K’, else interchange his/her position c) Second to right d) Fifth to left
with the one who sits at position ‘H’.
Page: 7
e) None of these 34) What is the 8th digit of the Ajay Account
number?
32) Which of the following combination of a) 3 b) 4 c) 8 d) 6 e) 2
person works in AAI?
a) F2 & F5 b) M4 & F2 35) What is the sum of 4th 8th and 9th digit?
c) M5, F2 & M4 d) F2, F3 & M4 a) 13 b) 14 c) 18 d) 16 e) 12
e) None of these
36) How many even digits are there in Ajay’s
33) If M7 is related to M2 and F1 is related to Account number?
M5, then in same way who among the following a) 6 b) 8 c) 7 d) 5 e) 9
person is related to M2 in final arrangement?
a) M7 b) M3 c) F4 d) M3 e) None of these 37) What is the sum of 5th, 10th and 3rd digit?
a) 20 b) 21 c) 23 d) 19 e) 18
Directions (34-37): Refer to the data below and
answer the questions that follow. Directions (38-41): Study the following
Ajay went to a bank to deposit a sum of money in information carefully and answer the below
his account. The banker asked for the account questions.
number from Ajay and following points are known Eight meeting were scheduled in different time
about his account number. slots. Each slot was exactly at an interval of
Note: The account number is of 10 digits and does 15minutes. For example: if first slot ended at
not start with zero. Zero is not considered as even 10AM then, the next slot starts at 10.15AM. Each
number. meeting was between exactly two different
1. The last digit of the account number is divided persons namely – Mike, Dev, Hema, Monty, Ritu,
by 3 but the digit is not 3. Tom, Smith, Hari, Joy, Jiya, Payal, Deval, Shweta,
2. The difference of first and last digit is greater Rob, Shiv and Riya. The Duration of each meeting
than 6. was either 45minutes or 60minutes. Each meeting
3. The second digit of the account number is an was scheduled at different bank’s head office viz.
even prime number. SBI, ICICI, UBI, HDFC, DENA, UCO, PNB and
4. The 2nd, 3rd and 4th numbers are consecutive BOB.
numbers starting from 2nd digit. Dev’s meeting was scheduled at HDFC but
5. The 5th and 6th digits are even number and both neither with Payal nor with Shweta. No meeting
numbers are same. was scheduled between Mike and Smith, whose
6. The sum of 6th and 1st digit is greater than 9. meeting was neither scheduled with Riya nor at
7. The 8th digit is same as the 1st digit and 7th digit SBI. Last meeting was ended at 6:00PM in DENA
is sum of 1st and 2nd digit. bank. No two consecutive meeting was scheduled
8. The 9th and 5th digits are same and are more for 60minutes. Hari’s meeting was neither
than 7. scheduled at ICICI nor scheduled just before the
one whose meeting was scheduled at UCO bank.
One meeting was scheduled between Smith’s
Page: 8
meeting and Jiya’s meeting. At least two meeting d) Payal & Hema e) None of these
was scheduled between Tom’s meeting and
meeting scheduled at SBI. Smith’s meeting was 39) Whose meeting was scheduled at 10:30AM?
ended at 12:30PM just after Shweta’s meeting. a) Hari b) Rob c) Ritu d) Riya e) None of
Meeting at ICICI bank was scheduled for these
60minutes. Mike’s meeting was neither scheduled
with Shweta nor with Deval. Three meeting was 40) How many meetings are scheduled after the
scheduled between Joy’s meeting and the meeting meeting scheduled at BOB?
scheduled at PNB. Mike’s meeting was scheduled a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five e) None
at SBI. Riya’s meeting scheduled just before of these
Hari’s meeting, whose meeting was scheduled for
45 minutes. Deval’s meeting was scheduled at 41) What is the gap between the meeting
UCO bank at a gap of two meeting from the one scheduled at PNB and Joy’s scheduled meeting
whose meeting was scheduled at ICICI bank. in minutes?
Payal’s meeting was scheduled just before Tom’s a) 210minutes b) 255minutes c) 195minutes
meeting, whose meeting was scheduled with d) 225minutes e) None of these
Monty. Jiya’s meeting was not scheduled before
Shweta’s meeting. At least two meeting was
scheduled between Jiya’s meeting and the one
whose meeting was scheduled at HDFC. Deval’s
meeting was scheduled at any time after meeting
scheduled at SBI but not with Jiya. Ritu’s meeting
was scheduled to complete at a gap of 195minutes
from Rob’s scheduled meeting. Hema’s meeting
was scheduled for 45minutes just after meeting
scheduled at ICICI bank. Joy’s meeting was
neither scheduled at HDFC nor with Payal’s
meeting. Meeting at BOB was scheduled for
60minutes. At least three meeting was scheduled
between the one whose meeting was scheduled at
UBI and Hari’s meeting. One meeting was
scheduled between the meeting scheduled at BOB
and Ritu’s meeting, whose meeting was not
scheduled with Smith. Shiv’s meeting was
scheduled at a gap of 120 minutes from Riya’s
scheduled meeting. (Directions 42–45): A series of four digit
number is given as input. The further steps
38) Whose meeting was scheduled at UBI? given are obtained by applying certain logic.
a) Payal & Joy b) Ritu & Deval c) Shiv & Rob Each step is a resultant of previous step only.
Page: 9
Study the following information carefully and d) 16
answer the questions given below it. e) None of these
Quantitative Aptitude:
D) (1 - 3) – Number series
Directions (46 - 48): There are two wrong
number series given in each question and three
relationships has been derived from that you
have to answer the correct relationship between
the two wrong numbers.
46) Series I: 5, 8, 38, 230, 1673, 15156

Series II: 1024, 799, 999, 826, 970, 849
i) Sum of two wrong numbers is 2499.
As per above applied logic in above steps, find ii) The difference between the square of smaller
appropriate step for given input: wrong number and the larger wrong number is
445.
iii) 5% of the larger wrong number is 10 more
than the smaller wrong number.
42) Which is the sum of digits of highest a) Only iii)
b) Both i) and ii)
number in step III?
c) Both i) and iii)
a) 5 b) 9 c) 12 d) 14 e) None of these
d) Only ii)
e) Both ii) and iii)
43) What is the difference of square of digits
from step IV? 47) Series I: 32, 32, 64, 48, 12, 60
a) 17 b) 16 c) 7 d) 9 e) None of these Series II: 11, 12, 4, 15, 0.75, 3.75
i) Product of two wrong numbers is 48.
44) Which of the following number represents ii) Both the wrong numbers are square
second lowest number from step II? numbers.
a) 27 b) 31 c) 36 d) 29 e) None of these iii) LCM of the two wrong numbers is 192.
a) Only iii)
45) What is the difference of product of digits b) Both i) and ii)
of lowest and highest number from step I? c) Both i) and iii)
d) Only ii)
a) 14
e) Both ii) and iii)
b) 28
c) 12 48) Series I: 420, 614, 812, 1056, 1332, 1640
Page: 10
Series II: 498, 521, 565, 659, 843, 1211 Statement I: A train travelling from station A to
i) The difference between the two wrong station B crosses a pole in 12.5seconds and crosses
numbers is a square number. a platform of length of 150m in 20 seconds. What
ii) The difference between the reversal of the is the distance between the two stations if train
two wrong numbers (i.e digits are reversed in arrived in 125 minutes?
both wrong numbers) is 100 greater than the Statement II: Car A left a station 30 minutes
original difference. before car B. Two cars meet after one hour travel
iii)The product of the sum of the digits of the of car B. If car A covers 2km in 3 minutes, what
two wrong numbers is 176. will be the distance travelled by car B in 9
a) Only iii) seconds?
b) Both i) and ii) Statement III: A train of length 210m crosses a
c) Both i) and iii) pole in 21 seconds. What will be the length of the
d) Only ii) platform if the same train with 50% more speed
e) All the above crosses the platform in 24 seconds?
a) Both statements I and II
D) (49 - 52) – Data sufficiency b) Both statements II and III
Directions (4 - 7): Each question contains an c) Only statement I
absolute value followed by Statement I, d) Both statements I and III
Statement II and Statement III. Which of the e) None of these
following statement should be same as the
absolute value given and choose the correct 51) 15%
answer accordingly? Statement I: In a class of 100 students, three
quarters are boys and one third of the boys failed
49) Rs.609 in the exam. Total number of failed students is 40.
Statement I: Compound interest for 6 months for What is the percentage of number of girls passed
Rs.10,000 at 12% per annum when calculated in the examination with respect to the total number
quarterly. of students?
Statement II: A and B started a business with Statement II: Find the rate of interest in which an
investment of Rs.10000 and Rs.15000. After 6 amount doubles in 8 years in simple interest.
months B invested Rs.5000 more. What is the Statement III: A shop owner bought 6 candies for
profit for B if the annual profit is Rs.957? Rs.5. What will be the profit percent if he sells 24
Statement III: What is the selling price of the candies for Rs.23?
article if the cost price of the article is Rs.540 and a) Both statements I and II
to be sold at 13% profit? b) Both statements II and III
a) Both statement I and II c) Only statement I
b) Both statement I and III d) Both statements I and III
c) Only statement I e) Only statement III
d) All the three statements
e) None of these 52) 6 months
Statement I: Find in how many months the
50) 0.150km compound interest for Rs.10000 at 21% p.a will
yield Rs.1000
Page: 11
Statement II: A and B started a business with C) Rs.1000
Rs.1200 and Rs.1500 respectively. After few D) Rs.1600
months C joined with an investment of Rs.2400. a) Only A and B
After one more month A doubled the investment b) Only B and C
and after two more months B left the business. c) Only C and D
Find how many months after C joined the business d) Only A and D
if the annual profit ratio is 9: 5: 7. e) All the options
Statement III: 60 men and 80 children can
complete a work in 120 days. 100 men and 40 55) On Monday, Ramesh started from home at
children can complete the same work in 100 days. 7.50 am and reached his office 5 minutes late
How long will 50 men take to complete the same using his bike. While on Tuesday, he left the
work? home 10 minutes earlier and the speed
a) Both statements I and II decreased by 25%. But in the midway the bike
b) Both statements II and III gets repaired. So he travelled by bus at 72
c) Only statement III km/hr and reached the office same time as
d) All the statements yesterday. Had he travelled full distance by bus
e) Both statements I and III on Tuesday, he would have reached the office
on time.
D) (53 - 59) – Application sums From the statement given in the above question
53) 50 men and 100 women can complete a which of the following can be determined.
work in 24 days. Man is more efficient than a A) What is the correct entry time of office?
woman. 60 men and 70 women can complete B) Distance between the home and office
the same work in x days. What is the value of C) At what time he should depart to reach on
x? time if the bike’s speed is 50% of Monday’s
A) 24 days speed?
B) 30 days D) What is the bike speed on Tuesday?
C) 26.25 days a) Only A and B
D) 32.50 days b) Only C
a) Only A and B c) Only A and C
b) Only A and C d) Only B and D
c) Only B and D e) All of these
d) Only A and D
e) Only B and C 56) Two trains A and B crossed a pole in same
time. But train B took 7.5 seconds more than
54) A shop owner bought two articles A and B train A to cross the platform of length 260m.
at a particular. He sold both the articles at the What are the speeds of train B and train A in
same price with one article at 20% profit and kmph?
other at 20% loss such that the net business is A) 48 72
Rs.100 loss. What is the cost price of the first B) 13.33 21.67
article? C) 48 78
A) Rs.1200 D) 40 80
B) Rs.1500 a) Only A and B
Page: 12
b) Only B and C covered by boat A downstream in (T-2) hours.
c) Only C and D Boat B whose speed is 80% of the speed of boat
d) Only B and D A covers 2D distance in (T+2) hours.
e) None of these From the statement given in the above
question, which of the following can be
57) Jar A contains 120 litres mixture of milk determined?
and water. Mixture from jar B is poured into A) What is the value of T?
the jar A so that the concentration of milk is B) What is the speed of Boat A?
66.67% in the resultant mixture. What is the C) What is the value of D?
ratio of milk and water in jar B and quantity in D) What is the ratio of speed of boat A and boat
resultant mixture if the milk in jar A is 30 more B in downstream?
than the water in jar A? a) Only B and D
A) 5:1, 180 b) Only A and C
B) 7:3, 270 c) Only A and D
C) 7:2, 165 d) Only B and C
a) Only A and B e) Only C and D
b) Only B and C
c) Only C and A
d) All of these
e) None of these
58) A and B started a business with investment

of Rs.(X – 250) and Rs.(X – 100) respectively.
After 6 months B again invested Rs.600 and C
invested Rs.(3X – 300). After two more months
A withdrew Rs.750. In the annual profit, B
earns Rs.7350 more than A. What is the total
annual profit and the profit earned by C?
A) Rs.103750 Rs.50000
B) Rs.91300 Rs.49600
C) Rs.87150 Rs.37800
D) Rs.84000 Rs.38000
a) Only A and B
b) Only B
c) Only D
d) Only C
e) Only C and D
59) Boat A takes (T-1) hours to cover a distance

D km upstream while the same distance is
Directions (60 – 62): Data Interpretation
Directions (60 – 62): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions?
Page: 13
The following bar graph shows the cost price of 4 different items and the table shows the profit amount
received by shopkeeper and discount amount provided to customer (In Rs.). Some values are missing here.
Cost price
1000
900
800
700
600
500
Cost price
400
300
200
100
0
A B C D
Items Profit (In Rs.) Discount (In Rs.)

A 150 75
B 135 -
C - 75
D 60 90
60) Find the ratio between the mark-up % of price of item A and selling price of item C is 6 :
item A to that of item C, if the profit % of item 5?
C is 25 %? a) Rs. 3505
a) 2: 3 b) Rs. 3280
b) 5: 6 c) Rs. 3365
c) 4: 5 d) Rs. 3420
d) 3: 4 e) None of these
e) None of these
62) Find the product of discount % provided to
61) Find the sum of the total marked price of customer for item D and the profit % received
all the given items together, if the mark-up % by shopkeeper for item C, if the mark-up % of
of item B is 20 % and the ratio between the cost item C is 40 %?
Page: 14
c) 225 %
a) 300 % d) 250 %
b) 175 % e) None of these
Directions (63 – 65): Data Interpretation

Directions (63 – 65): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions?
The following table shows the amount invested (In Rs.) by 3 different persons in 4 different years.
Manvi Moni Mahila

2013 20000 15000 + X 30000 + X
2014 Y Y – 5000 Y - 15000
2015 35000 25000 + Z 15000 + 2Z
2016 30000 40000 20000
63) Manvi and Moni started a business in the a) Rs. 15000 b) Rs. 10000 c) Rs. 5000
year 2013 and after 4 months, Mahila joined d) Rs. 20000 e) None of these
with them and at the same time Manvi invested
Rs. 5000 more. Find the value of X, if the share 65) Moni and Mahila started a business in the
of Manvi and Mahila at the end of the year is in year 2015 and after 5 months, Manvi joined
the ratio of 7: 8? with them. Find the ratio between the value of
a) 15000 b) 20000 c) 5000 d) 10000 Z and the amount invested by Manvi and
e) None of these Mahila in the year 2016, if at the end of the
year, the share of Manvi and Mahila is in the
64) Manvi and Mahila started a business in the ratio of 49 : 108?
year 2014 and after 6 months, Moni joined with a) 5: 13
them and at the same time Manvi withdraw Rs. b) 8: 15
10000. Then find the difference between the c) 6: 11
value of Y and the initial investment of Moni in d) 3: 10
the year 2016, if at the end of the year, the e) None of these
share of Manvi and Mahila is in the ratio of 5 :
3?
D) (66 - 68) - Caselet A construction company has ‘m’ men, ‘w’

Directions (66 - 68): Study the paragraph women and ‘c’ children. The construction owner
carefully and answer the following questions. has agreed to complete a factory in 40 days at an
Page: 15
estimated cost of Rs.2187500 with 20% profit to Directions (69 - 71): Inequality
him. The work started and went smoothly for the Directions (69 - 71): Each question contains a
first 4 days. On the fifth day, due to the raid for statement followed by Quantity I, II and III.
child labour all the children are removed from the Read the information clearly and answer your
work and their mothers also didn’t come to work. questions accordingly.
The present labours continued their work for some The options represent the relations between these
days. In order to complete the work on time, the three quantities
construction owner employed 40 more men and 10 A) >
more women for the last 6 days. Due to these B) <
changes, the owner had no loss. The ratio of wages C) =
of man, woman and children for one day is 4:2:1. D) ≤
E) ≥
66) How many women left the work after 4 For example:
days? Quantity I = 200
a) 20 b) 15 c) 10 d) 18 e) 12 Quantity II = 300
Quantity III = 100
67) If the same construction is finished by 2w Hence, Quantity I < Quantity II > Quantity III
women in 70 days, which of the following a) A, B
options can be the value of m and w? b) B, C
A) 15 10 c) B, A
B) 60 50 d) E, B
C) 50 40 e) B, D
D) 35 30 Answer is option: C
a) Only A and B
b) Only A and C 69) Quantity I: P, Q and R started a business by
c) Only C and D investing Rs. 15000, Rs. 25000 and Rs. 30000
d) Only B and D respectively. After 4 months, P invested Rs. 5000
e) Only B and C more and after another 2 months, R withdraws Rs.
10000. Find the share of P, if the total profit at the
68) What is the daily wage of one man? end of the year is Rs. 61500?
Statement I: Total number of workers in the Quantity II: Nandy invested a certain sum of
construction company initially is 120 money in Scheme A at 8 % per annum for 5 years.
Statement II: Ratio of number of men and The simple interest received after 5 years is Rs.
women is 6:5 7200.
Statement III: The daily wage of one woman is Quantity III: Out of the total monthly salary of
Rs.125 more than the daily wage of one children. Prathi, he spends 20 % of his monthly salary on
a) Only statement I and statement II Rent and 15 % on travelling expenses. 60 % of the
b) Only statement II and statement III remaining monthly salary for food and other
c) Only statement I expenses while the remaining salary is saved by
d) Only statement III him, which is equal to Rs. 6500, then find his
e) Either a (or) d monthly salary?
a) A), C)
Page: 16
b) B), B) helpless people. Ruban decided to give those
c) C), D) amount to 4 people. Ruban could find only one
d) D), E) helpless person and gave him 1/4th of the money.
e) None of these After a while, he found another one helpless
person and gave him 1/4th of the remaining
70) Quantity I: A man covers a certain distance in amount to each of first and second person. After
7 hours 4 min. He covers one-third of a distance at some time, he found another one helpless person
40 km/hr and two-fifth of a distance at 24 km/hr and gave him 1/5th of the remaining amount to
and the remaining distance at 60 km/hr, then find each of those 3 persons. Finally, he found another
the distance covered by him? one helpless person and equally distributed the
Quantity II: Naveen can swim at 16 km/hr in still remaining amount of money to all those persons.
water. The river flows at 4 km/hr and it takes 8
hours more upstream than downstream for the 72) Find the ratio between the first helpless
same distance. How far is the place? person got the amount to that of fourth helpless
Quantity III: 200 km person got the amount?
a) C), A) a) 56: 9 b) 63: 5 c) 37: 8 d) 44: 3 e) None of
b) D), B) these
c) C), D)
d) D), E) 73) If the difference between the 2nd and 3rd
e) None of these helpless person got the amount is Rs. 450, then
find the first helpless person got the amount?
71) Quantity I: 24 years a) Rs. 1320 b) Rs. 1240 c) Rs. 1460
Quantity II: 4 years ago, the age of Q is twice the d) Rs. 1180 e) None of these
age of P and 5 years after, the age of P and the age
of Q, 6 years ago is in the ratio of 5 : 6. R is 8 74) If the sum of 80 % of first helpless person
years younger than Q. Find the age of P after 4 got the amount and 20 % of 4th helpless person
years, if the age of R after 4 years is 32 years. got the amount is equal to Rs. 1074, then find
Quantity III: The product of present age of A and the half of the amount got by 2nd helpless
B is 288 years and B is 2 years elder than A. Then person?
find the age of B, after 12 years? a) Rs. 300 b) Rs. 420 c) Rs. 360 d) Rs. 480
a) A), C) e) None of these
b) C), B)
c) C), D) 75) The amount got by fourth helpless person is
d) D), E) what percentage of the amount got by second
e) None of these helpless person?
a) 24.25 % b) 12.5 % c) 18 % d) 31.75 %
Directions (72 – 76): Caselet e) None of these
Directions (27 – 31): Study the following
information carefully and answer the given 76) Find the difference between the amount got
questions. by the first helpless person that of third
Ruban’s mother gives some money to helpless person, if fourth helpless person got
Ruban and told him to give those amount to some Rs. 90?
Page: 17
a) Rs. 1160 b) Rs. 940 c) Rs. 900 d) Rs. 1050
e) None of these 77) What is the compound interest for amount
B at 10% per annum for two years?
D) (77 - 80) - Caselet a) Rs.28500 b) Rs.30000 0c) Rs.32500
Directions (77 - 80): Read the following d) Rs.31500 e) Rs.16500
paragraph carefully and answer the following
questions. 78) The length of bus and goods train are 30%
Hari has Rs.___________ (A) with him. of n and 30% of m respectively. Both crossed
He split the money in the ratio of 1:15. He each other completely in 3 seconds in opposite
invested the first part in a business along with directions. What will be the speed of the bus if
Ramesh and Nishanth. Ramesh and Nishanth the difference between the speed of train and
invested 33.33% more and 100% more than Hari bus is 33m/sec?
respectively. Hari lent the remaining amount to a) 94 m/sec b) 127 m/sec c) 47 m/sec
another person at 40% p.a simple interest and the d) 61 m/sec e) 14 m/sec
interest is calculated quarterly. The interest is also
invested in the business at the time of every 79) What will be the selling price of one ball if
collection. The annual profit of the business is the profit percent is 20%?
Rs.470000. a) Rs. 132 b) Rs. 180 c) Rs. 145.152
Hari’s profit is Rs.________ (B). Using d) Rs. 156 e) Rs. 144
this amount, Hari started a new business of
creating hemispherical balls from cylindrical rods. 80) What is the value of A if the difference
For this, he bought ‘n’ rods of length 7m and between the investments of Nishanth and
radius 21m at 50 paise per cubic metre. The Ramesh is Rs.8000?
processing fee for this is Rs.52980. The rods are a) Rs. 176000 b) Rs. 192000 c) Rs. 160000 d)
melted and ‘m’ hemispherical balls of radius 4.2m Rs. 144000 e) Rs. 128000
are formed. The balls are sold at 12% profit.
English Language:
Reading Comprehension outstanding issues with Pakistan only bilaterally,

Directions (81-90): Read the given passage and assured the House that Mr. Modi did not raise
carefully and answer the questions that follow. this with Mr. Trump at their recent meeting in
Facing a furore in Parliament over the issue, Osaka during the G-20 summit. In making the
the government has clarified in no uncertain terms claim that has been roundly denied by New Delhi,
that Prime Minister Narendra Modi did not request Mr. Trump breached several well-laid diplomatic
U.S. President Donald Trump to “mediate or protocols, including one against discussing
arbitrate” on the Kashmir issue, as Mr. Trump privileged conversations with a leader, during a
claimed on Monday. Addressing Parliament, public conversation with another. Mr. Trump also
External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar said India said a “lot” of his talks with the Pakistan Prime
remains committed to its policy of discussing all Minister would focus on India and Afghanistan, an
Page: 18
odd departure from the precept of putting bilateral for a pullout from Afghanistan with Pakistan’s
issues to the fore, and being more discreet when help on security and talks with the Taliban. While
discussing sensitive relations involving other the damage from Mr. Trump’s words may not
countries. For New Delhi, it may be time to have a very lasting impact on India-U.S. ties, that
recognise that Mr. Trump’s comments are a sign from any rushed measures to force a resolution in
of new realities in international diplomacy, where Afghanistan will have far-reaching and lasting
leaders care less about niceties and more about impact, including on India.
open communication. Mr. Modi will have to
prepare accordingly for some plain-speaking when Directions (81-83): Choose the option which is
he visits the U.S. and meets with Mr. Trump, as he most similar to the word in the question, as
is expected to, in September this year. mentioned in the passage.
In the short term, the government’s decision to
address the claim by Mr. Trump will have nipped 81. Furore
any repercussions in the bud. The government A)Commotion
should pursue the issue through diplomatic B)Docility
channels with the U.S. government, and determine C)Frigidity
whether Mr. Trump made the comments out of D)Wintriness
confusion or deliberately. India has always E) None of these
opposed any suggestion of third-party mediation
on Jammu and Kashmir; both the 1972 Shimla 82.Protocols
Agreement and the 1999 Lahore A)Propriety
declaration included India’s and Pakistan’s B)Crudeness
commitment to resolving issues between them. It C)Disagreement
is unlikely that Mr. Modi would have spoken out D)Diatribe
of line with this policy, and the most charitable E) None of these
explanation for Mr. Trump’s new contention is
that he mistook India’s appeal to the international 83. Repercussions
community to hold Pakistan accountable for terror A)Implication
groups on its soil that carry out attacks in B)Panegyric
Kashmir, for a general desire for mediation. Mr. C)Encomium
Trump’s comment in March that the U.S. D)Determinant
successfully mediated for the release of captured E) None of these
fighter pilot Abhinandan by Pakistan may have
even given him some hope that the U.S. could play Directions (84-86): Choose the option which is
a larger role on the Kashmir issue, and New Delhi most opposite to the word in the question, as
would need to address that. A more worrying mentioned in the passage.
proposition is that Mr. Trump took the line
favoured by his Pakistani interlocutors on 84. Precept
Kashmir as a way of enhancement his own plans A) Ordinance
B) Principle
Page: 19
C)Dictum 88. Which of the following is/are incorrect
D) Anarchy according to the passage?
E) None of these I. External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar told
that India remains committed to its policy of
85. Discreet discussing all outstanding issues with Pakistan
A) Circumspect only bilaterally.
B) Prudent II. Mr. Trump’s comment in March that the U.S.
C) Judicious successfully mediated for the release of captured
D) Reckless fighter pilot Abhinandan by Pakistan may have
E) None of these even given him some hope that the U.S. could play
a larger role on the Kashmir issue, and New Delhi
86. Lasting would need to address that.
A)Perpetual III. Any rushed measures by Trump to force a
B) Persistent resolution in Kashmir will have far-reaching and
C) Durable lasting impact, including on India.
D) Ephemeral A) Only III
E) None of these B) II and III
C) I and II
87. Which of the following is/are correct D) I only
according to the passage? E) None of these
I.The government has clarified that Prime
Minister Narendra Modi did not request U.S. 89. In the passage given, a sentence is given in
President Donald Trump to “mediate or arbitrate” italics. There may or may not be an error in
on the Kashmir issue, as Mr. Trump claimed. one part of the sentence. Choose the part which
II.The recent meeting of Narendra Modi and has an error in it as your answer. If there is no
Donald Trump was in Quebec during the G-20 error then choose option (E) as your answer.
summit. A) A more worrying proposition is that Mr. Trump
III. India has always opposed any suggestion of took the line
third-party mediation on Jammu and Kashmir; B)Favouredby his Pakistani interlocutors on
both the 1972 Shimla Agreement and the 1999 Kashmir as a way
Lahore declaration included India’s and Pakistan’s C)Of enhancement his own plans for a pullout
commitment to resolving issues between them. from Afghanistan
A) Only II D)With Pakistan’s help on security and talks with
B) II and III the Taliban
C) I and III E) No error
D) I, II, III
E) None of these 90. Which of the following phrases should fill
the blank in the passage to make it contextually
correct and meaningful?
Page: 20
A) Kashmir mediation: Trump has violated F) However, the use of DNA technology also
diplomatic protocols raises major concerns relating to consent (i.e. the
B) Violation of diplomatic protocols by Pakistan right to refuse to provide a bodily substance),
C)Trump’s pullout from Afghanistan- a major privacy and data security.
threat to India A) FEDCB
D)Trade war takes a new turn for USA B) DEBCF
E) None of these C) CFEBD
D) EFDBC
Jumbled Sentences E) BDCFE
Directions (91-95): A set of six statements is
given out of which the statement in bold is fixed 92. If sentence (A), “In a nation of billion-plus
and the remaining are jumbled in random people with woefully inadequate access to
order. Rearrange the statements in right order healthcare and an acute shortage of qualified
to answer the questions. doctors, getting a seat at a medical college is
often seen as a sure-fire way to prosperity.” is
91. If sentence (A), “Parliament is set to pass a the first sentence of the paragraph, then what is
law to regulate the use of DNA technology. the sequence of other sentences after the
Since the DNA of a person is unique, it can be rearrangement?
used to accurately identify a person’s identity.” A) In a nation of billion-plus people with woefully
is the first sentence of the paragraph, then what inadequate access to healthcare and an acute
is the sequence of other sentences after the shortage of qualified doctors, getting a seat at a
rearrangement? medical college is often seen as a sure-fire way to
A) Parliament is set to pass a law to regulate the prosperity.
use of DNA technology. Since the DNA of a B) All this would change, or so the government
person is unique, it can be used to accurately hopes, once the National Medical Commission
identify a person’s identity. (NMC) Bill, introduced on Monday in the Lok
B) Globally, DNA technology is used to help Sabha, replaces the 63-year-old MCI with a new
enforcement agencies identify both perpetrators oversight body.
and victims in criminal cases. C) The bill seeks to establish uniform standards
C) In civilian life, DNA can be used to establish for medical education by proposing that the final
parentage of children or sibling relationships. year of MBBS exam be treated as an entrance test
D) In medicine, DNA is used to identify the for post-graduate courses and a screening test for
susceptibility of a person to diseases such as those who obtained a degree in medicine from
cancer and Alzheimer’s. abroad.
E) Hence, countries the world over have felt the D) Owners of private medical colleges have for
need to strictly regulate the use of DNA. One years sought to exploit this heavy demand by
hopes that the new law would fill a major gap, as charging exorbitant fees, often with the blessings
the use of DNA technology in India has been left of the Medical Council of India (MCI).
unregulated.
Page: 21
E) The Council, the country’s regulator for A) FEDCB
medical education and practice, has been accused B) DEBCF
of corruption in granting recognition to medical C) CFEBD
colleges. D) EFDBC
F) This exam will be called the National Exit Test E) BDCFE
(NEXT). While some medical professionals have
raised concerns over a possible dilution of 94. If sentence (A), “2015 was a landmark year
standards this way, students at large appear to for climate action.” is the first sentence of the
have welcomed the shift. paragraph, then what is the sequence of other
A) FEDCB sentences after the rearrangement?
B) DEBCF A) 2015 was a landmark year for climate action.
C) CFEBD B) In May 2014, when Prime Minister Modi took
D) EFDBC office, he stated unambiguously that India’s
E) BDCFE development trajectory will be green.
C) In fact, India’s global leadership on climate
93. If sentence (A), “Perhaps the stand-out action predates the adoption of the 2030
provision of the bill is its intent to cap fees on development agenda.
50% of seats in MBBS and PG courses at D) Even as the fault-lines of international politics
private medical colleges.” is the first sentence of played out during the negotiations of these two
the paragraph, then what is the sequence of historic summits, one thing remained clear—the
other sentences after the rearrangement? government of India led by Prime Minister Modi
A) Perhaps the stand-out provision of the bill is its is a global leader in the fight against climate
intent to cap fees on 50% of seats in MBBS and change.
PG courses at private medical colleges. E) In December, 197 countries signed the Paris
B) Simultaneously, it must allow private players, Agreement on climate change.
as many as possible, to set up colleges with F) In September of that year, the international
permits granted in an open and transparent community adopted the comprehensive
manner. Sustainable Development Goals at UNGA.
C) An increase in the number of seats, along with A) FEDCB
scrupulous regulation, would do a better job of B) DEBCF
solving the sector’s problems than price caps, C) CFEBD
which are inherently arbitrary and could distort the D) EFDBC
dynamics of medical education in the long term. E) BDCFE
D) What the government needs to do is set up a
large number of new medical colleges. 95. If sentence (A), “Prime Minister Imran
E) This seems to be a good interim measure, given Khan was accompanied by Pakistan’s Army
the state-created squeeze on seat supply. Chief, General Qamar JavedBajwa, when he
F) However, price caps should not get went to the United States on July 20 to meet
institutionalized as a matter of policy. President Donald Trump at his invitation.” is
Page: 22
the first sentence of the paragraph, then what is Directions (96-100): In each of the following
the sequence of other sentences after the questions, a paragraph with a blank is given.
rearrangement? From the five choices given below, select the
A) Prime Minister Imran Khan was accompanied sentence which can go into the blank to make
by Pakistan’s Army Chief, General Qamar the paragraph logically coherent.
JavedBajwa, when he went to the United States on
July 20 to meet President Donald Trump at his 96. The Russian defence ministry says four
invitation. bombers, supported by fighter jets, patrolled a
B) It was clear that Washington believed that pre-planned route over the Sea of Japan and
Pakistan could get the Afghan Taliban to settle the East China Sea. South Korea says its jets
with the Ashraf Ghani government in Kabul while fired flares and machine-gun warning shots
controlling half of Afghanistan. Its unblocking of when Russian planes intruded. Japan has
$1.2 billion aid to Pakistan clearly signalled this protested both to Russia and South Korea over
optimism. the incident. ____________________________ ,
C) The Pakistan-US thaw was coming, mainly which are occupied by South Korea but also
because Pakistan, driven into a corner, was willing claimed by Japan. South Korea says Russian
to change its policy. and Chinese planes entered the Korea Air
D) The general had to accompany him and take Defence Identification Zone (KADIZ) on
part in the discussions to “legitimise” them. (The Tuesday morning - and that a separate A-50
widely held view is that the army really rules Russian warplane twice violated its airspace
Pakistan.) near the islands. Russia denies the accusation.
E) The meeting went unexpectedly well as both Russian and Chinese bombers and
leaders abandoned their well-known loose- reconnaissance planes have occasionally
tongued aggression and agreed on getting together entered the zone in recent years, but this is the
on Afghanistan to help the United States get out of first incident of its kind between Russia and
that country. South Korea.
F) Clearly, Trump softened after Pakistan A) The defence ministry said two of its Tu-95MS
submitted to the fiat of the Forward Action Task strategic missile-carriers had joined two Chinese
Force (FATF) to clean up its act of proxy war and Hong-6K strategic bombers
arrested its non-state actors bothering India across B) The alleged incursion happened over the
the Line of Control in Kashmir. disputed Dokdo/Takeshima islands
A) FEDCB C) They were supported by fighters and A-50 and
B) DEBCF Kongjing-2000 airborne early
C) CFEBD D) He accused South Korean pilots of performing
D) EFDBC "dangerous manoeuvres" in the vicinity of
E) BDCFE disputed islands
E) None of these
Sentence Fillers
Page: 23
97. Mr Johnson has the immediate task of including Belgium, Germany and the
guiding the UK out of the EU ahead of a 31 Netherlands. A World Meteorological
October deadline. He says he wants to Organization spokeswoman said the heatwaves
renegotiate an agreement with the EU, ditching bore "the hallmark of climate change".
large parts of the deal outgoing PM Theresa "____________________________, they're
May struck last year. But EU leaders have said starting earlier and they're becoming more
the withdrawal agreement is not up for intense," Claire Nullis added. "It's not a
renegotiation. _______________________, if problem that's going to go away."
London comes up with good reasons. A) As we saw in June they are becoming more
Congratulating Mr Johnson, Mrs von der frequent
Leyen said: "There are many different and B) Much of France has been issued with an orange
difficult topics to tackle together. There are alert
challenging times ahead of us. I think it is very C) Ice foot baths and extra water points are being
important to build up a strong and a good made available to cyclists competing in the Tour
working relation because we have the duty to de France
deliver something that is good for people in D) Comparisons have been drawn to a heatwave
Europe and in the United Kingdom." The EU's France experienced in August 2003
Brexit negotiator, Michel Barnier, is due to E) None of these
meet MEPs on the European Parliament's
Brexit Steering Group in an extraordinary 99. He said last week's court injunction could
meeting on Wednesday to respond to Mr damage ties with the US. This comes after US
Johnson's election. President Donald Trump threatened to impose
A) Amendments will only be forthcoming if EU tariffs on Guatemalan goods. The deal with the
leaders deem them workable US would define Guatemala as a "safe third
B) Whatever happens with Brexit, France, country", and migrants en route to the US
Germany, Poland et al still very much hope to would have to apply for asylum in Guatemala.
work closely with the UK on international issues Guatemala, as well as its southern neighbours,
C) US President Donald Trump meanwhile El Salvador and Honduras,
congratulated Mr Johnson on his victory ____________________________ . The case of a
D) The European Commission's newly elected Salvadorean migrant who drowned alongside
President, Ursula von der Leyen, has however said his daughter trying to cross the Rio Grande on
she is willing to grant the UK another extension to the US-Mexican border prompted El
Brexit talks Salvador's president to say his country had to
E) None of these do more to fix the problems forcing people to
leave.
98. On Tuesday, Meteo France registered 41.2C A) Mr Morales argued that the injunction by
(106.1F) in the south-western city, breaking a Guatemala's Constitutional Court was unlawful
2003 record of 40.7C. Forecasters predict a
record-breaking run across Europe this week,
Page: 24
B) to curb migration from Central America by
introducing new rules over who can claim asylum
in the US
C) have all been struggling to curb the flow of
people leaving for the United States
D) they are allowed to request asylum regardless
of which country they passed through to get there
E) None of these
100. The DoJ did not name any firms, but
companies such as Facebook, Google, Amazon
and Apple are likely to be scrutinized in the
wide-ranging probe. It was sparked by
"widespread concerns" about "search, social
media, and some retail services online," the
DoJ said. ___________________________. The
US Federal Trade Commission is already
looking into similar concerns, while there are
also investigations taking place in the European
Union. Last month, the Justice Department was
reported to be preparing an investigation of
Google to determine whether the search engine
giant had broken anti-trust law. The US
Department of Justice said its anti-trust review
would consider "whether and how market-
leading online platforms have achieved market
power and are engaging in practices that have
reduced competition, stifled innovation or
otherwise harmed consumers".
A) It is likely to examine issues including how the
largest tech firms have grown in size and power
B) Without the discipline of meaningful market-
based competition, digital platforms may act in
ways that are not responsive to consumer demands
C) The Department of Justice hasn't said
specifically which companies are under
investigation
D) It marks the latest scrutiny of tech firms' power
over the US economy
E) None of these
Page: 25
Quantity Based Questions for Bank PO Mains
Match the Column

Direction (101-105): In the following questions two columns are given containing three Sentences/phrases each.
In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the second column the sentences/phrases are D, E and
F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/phrase from the
second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Each question has five options,
four of which display the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically
and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination,
mark (e), i.e. “None of these” as your answer.
101.
A) On Friday, the government rejected the plea D) that were seen as affecting SEBI’s
from SEBI’s officials asking the government to financial autonomy.
reconsider its decision,
B) As part of the Finance Bill introduced in E) there seems to be very little rationale in
Parliament, the Centre had proposed amendments the government’s decision to confiscate
to the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, funds from the chief markets regulator.
1992
C) To be specific, the amendments required that F) SEBI will have to transfer the remaining
after 25% of its surplus cash in any year is 75% to the government.
transferred to its reserve fund,
A) A-D, B-E
B) B-F, C-D
C) B-D, C-F
D) A-F, B-E
E) None of these
102.
A) Ever since President Omar al-Bashir’s fall in D) the military leaders who seized power and
April amid anti-regime protests, the protesters have been on a confrontational
path.
B) This, along with pressure from the African E) a paramilitary unit attacked protesters in
Union and foreign countries, appears to have Khartoum on June 3, killing at least 128
convinced the generals they could not anymore people.
amass absolute power,
C) Sudan’s ruling military council and F) as they did under Mr. Bashir’s three-
representatives of the pro-democracy movement decade-long rule.
have signed a power-sharing agreement,
A) A-D, B-F
B) B-E, C-D
C) A-E, C-F
D) A-F, B-D
Page 26 of 83
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E) None of these
103.
A) But it was a popular opinion strongly held by D) they seek to amend Sections 13, 16, and
most RTI activists that a demand for progressive 27 of the RTI Act which carefully links, and
amendments could be used as a smokescreen thereby equates, the status of the Central
Information Commissioners (CICs) with the
Election Commissioners and the State
Information Commissioners with the Chief
Secretary in the States, so that they can
function in an independent and effective
manner.
B) The proposed amendments tabled in Parliament E) just six months after the law was
on July 19, 2019 have been in the offing for some implemented and many times thereafter.
time now. In the form of the Right to Information
(Amendment) Bill, 2019,
C) The deliberate dismantling of this architecture F) by the establishment to usher in regressive
empowers the Central government to unilaterally changes.
decide the tenure,
A) A-D, B-E
B) B-F, C-D
C) B-E, C-F
D) A-F, B-D
E) None of these
104.
A) Section 376E is among a slew of recent laws D) the proportionality test has to be more
that have expanded the scope of death penalty to detailed, and has four prongs: first, there
beyond cases of homicide, must be a legitimate state aim being pursued
by the provision; second, there needs to be a
rational nexus between the impugned
provision and the aim.
B) The Bombay High Court last month handed E) primarily due to disproportionality of the
down a judgment upholding the validity of Section punishment.
376E of the Indian Penal Code,
C) Subsequent judgments of larger benches — F) which authorises the award of either a life
such as in the Modern Dental College case and the sentence or the death penalty to perpetrators
Aadhaar case — have made it clear that where the upon a second rape conviction.
question of rights violations is concerned,
A) A-D, B-E
B) B-F, C-D
C) B-E, C-F
Page 27 of 83
D) A-F, B-D
E) None of these
105.
A) Hong Kong has been shaken by massive, D) “firmly” supports the use of “all necessary
sometimes violent, protests initially organized to measures to safeguard Central government
oppose a now-suspended bill agencies in Hong Kong”.
B) China reacted furiously on Monday to anti- E) and defacing the national emblem,
government protesters vandalizing the walls of its branding their actions “absolutely
representative’s office in Hong Kong intolerable”.
C) Thousands of masked pro-democracy F) and targeted the building with eggs,
demonstrators briefly occupied the road outside projectiles, laser lights and graffiti in a stark
the office in the semi-autonomous city on Sunday rebuke to Beijing’s rule.
A) A-D, B-F
B) B-F, C-D
C) B-E, C-F
D) A-F, B-D
E) None of these
Error Spotting
Directions (106-110): In each question below, four 107. "Special moments that will be etched in the
words printed in bold type are given. These are annals of our glorious history! (A)/The launch of
numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One these words #Chandrayaan2 illustrates (B)/the prowes of our
printed in bold might either be wrongly spelt or scientists and the determination of 130 crore
inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out Indians(C)/ to scale new frontiers of science. Every
the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if Indian is immensely proud today!" he tweeted(D)/
any. The number of the word is your answer. If the A) Etched
words printed in bold are correctly spelt and B) Illustrates
appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark C) Prowes
(E), i.e. 'All Correct', as your answer. D) Immensely
E) All correct
106. Such educationists also seem to be (A)/loosing
sight of the fundamental nature of public 108. President Donald Trump voised optimism on
policymaking(B)/—always an exercise in negotiation Monday that (A)/Pakistani Prime Minister Imran
and balance (C)/between contending perspectives(D)/ Khan could help broker a political settlement (B)/to
A) Seem end the nearly 18-year-old U.S. war in Afghanistan
B) Loosing (C)/and held out the possibility of restoring aid to
C) Negotiation Islamabad(D)/
D) Contending A) Voised
E) All correct B) Broker
Page 28 of 83
C) To B. You shouldn’t, say experts, as the current fuel price

D) Restoring rise won’t lead to a huge increase in inflation.
E) All correct C. Higher the inflation, lower will be your real or
inflation-adjusted returns.
109. Palestinian leaders slammed the demolitions in D. Typically, when fuel prices rise, so does inflation,
(A)/the Sur Baher area which stradles the occupied which not only makes goods and services expensive but
West Bank and Jerusalem, (B)/but Israel defended also eats into investment returns.
them as essential to its security (C)/and stressed they E. Fuel prices have gone up across the country after
had been approved by its Supreme Court(D)/ Budget 2019 levied a cess of ₹1 per litre and an equal
A) Demolitions amount of excise duty on petrol and diesel.
B) Stradles F. So should you be worried that it will increase further
C) Defended once the impact of fuel price rise plays out?
D) Stressed
E) All correct 111. Which of the following will be FIRST sentence
after rearrangement?
110. India’s luxury car market will grow fourfold a. D b. E c. F d. B e. A
(A)/if the government is willing to rework the existing
tax regime (B)/to make it feasible and reasonable, 112. Which of the following will be SECOND sentence
said Jaguar Land Rover India Ltd. (JLRIL),(C)/ the after rearrangement?
Indian subcidiary of British auto major, Jaguar Land a. D b. E c. F d. B e. A
Rover(D)/
A) Fourfold 113. Which of the following will be FOURTHsentence
B) Regime after rearrangement?
C) Feasible a. D b. E c. F d. B e. A
D) Subcidiary
E) All correct 114. Which of the following will be FIFTH sentence
after rearrangement?
Jumbled Sentences a. D b. E c. F d. B e. A
Directions (111-115): A set of six statements is given
out of which the statement in bold is fixed and the 115. Which of the following will be LAST(SIXTH)
remaining are jumbled in random order. Rearrange sentence after rearrangement?
the statements in right order to answer the questions. a. D b. E c. F d. B e. A
A. India’s retail inflation marginally accelerated to
3.18% in June from 3.05% a month ago.
Page 29 of 83
General Awareness
116. As per Union budget 2019-20, Foreign Direct d) NSE web-app

Investment (FDI) permitted for insurance e) NSE gov-Bid
intermediaries will be at what percentage?
a) 25% b) 49% c) 74% d) 100% e) None of these 122. Who was recently named as the ICC ODI Player
of the Year for 2018?
117. The Central Board of Direct Taxes has increased a) Harmanpreet Kaur
the monetary limit for an appeal before the Income b) Suzie Bates
Tax Appellate Tribunal to Rs. ______ from Rs 20 c) Smriti Mandhana
lakh. d) Stafanie Taylor
a) 50 lakh b) 60 lakh c) 70 lakh d) 75 lakh e) Ellyse Perry
e) 1 crore
123. Ambati Rayudu retired recently. He belonged to
118. Which Indian state has become the first state to which sports?
list Masala Bond in overseas market? a) Cricket b) Badminton c) Tennis d) Hockey
a) Maharashtra b) Kerala c) Rajasthan e) Chess
d) Gujarat e) Manipur
124. Which among the following was adjudged as the
119. Which Indian You-Tuber has been named top country for Ease of Doing Business Rankings
among the Top 10 ‘Next Generation Leaders 2019’ by 2018 by World Bank?
Time Magazine? a) Malaysia
a) Bhuvan Bam b) New Zealand
b) Amit Bhadana c) Germany
c) Ajey Nagar d) France
d) Ranveer Allahbadia e) Singapore
e) Zakir Khan
125. Recently, Wirecard has announced the
120. Which of the two countries participated in partnership with which bank to promote financial
recently organized joint military training exercise inclusion?
named ‘Druzhba-III’? a) Kotak Mahindra Bank
a) Russia & Pakistan b) YES Bank
b) China & Pakistan c) HDFC Bank
c) Russia & India d) ICICI Bank
d) Kazakhstan & India e) RBL Bank
e) Pakistan & Saudi Arabia
126. Which of the following bank has recently
121. NSE launched a mobile application acquired a 9.47% stake in dry cell battery maker,
__________and web-based platform for retail Eveready Industries India?
investors to buy government securities. a) HDFC Bank
a) NSE mob-app b) Axis Bank
b) NSE g-sec c) Yes Bank
c) NSE goBID d) Kotak Mahindra Bank
Page 30 of 83
e) ICICI Bank 132. The timeline for conversion of minimum detail

Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs) to KYC
127. Which among the following company has compliant PPIs has been extended from 18 months to
recently launched its first interactive Game Show ____ months.
named “Confetti” in India? a) 20 b) 24 c) 30 d) 32 e) 36
a) Twitter
b) Apple 133. Who among the following received the ‘Global
c) Microsoft Asian of the Year 2018-19’ Award for her services
d) Facebook and contribution towards Women’s Healthcare
e) Adobe Ecosystem?
a) V.R. Rajendran
128. The book titled “Big Billion Startup: The Untold b) Hema Divakar
Flipkart Story” is written by who among the c) Shaji Thomas
following? d) Krati Pathak
a) Nripendra Misra e) None of these
b) Sachin Bansal
c) Krish Iyer 134. ‘KBL Mobile Plus’ application associated with
d) Sushil Kumar which bank?
e) Mihir Dalal a) Kashi Gomti Samyut Gramin Bank
b) Karur Vysya Bank
129. Which is the first state to implement biofuel c) Kotak Mahindra Bank
policy? d) Karnataka Bank
a) Uttar Pradesh e) Krung Thai Bank
b) Rajasthan
c) Punjab 135. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has launched
d) Madhya Pradesh National Animal Disease Control Programme at
e) Bihar which place?
a) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
130. Aqua Aquaria India 2019 was recently held at b) Hisar, Haryana
which place? c) Mathura, Uttar Pradesh
a) New Delhi d) Nagpur, Maharashtra
b) Hyderabad e) Jaipur, Rajasthan
c) Guwahati
d) Mumbai 136. Who is the head of committee for ‘draft national
e) Nagpur education policy 2019’?
a) Smriti Irani
131. 22nd National Conference on e-Governance was b) Dr. Kasturirangan
held at which place? c) Nandan Nilekani
a) Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh d) Amitabh Kant
b) Dispur, Assam e) M K Sharma
c) Shillong, Meghalaya
d) Imphal, Manipur 137. Who is the present chief of Indian Air Force
e) Aizawl, Mizoram (IAF)?
Page 31 of 83
a) Rajnath Singh e) Kabaddi

b) Birender Singh Dhanoa
c) Karambir Singh 144. Who authored the book 'Indian Sports:
d) Sunil Lanba Conversations and Reflections?
e) Bipin Rawat a) Ashok Gulati
b) Shane Warne
138. As per the report published in the Lancet c) Preeti Shenoy
journal, what is the rank of India in Global Malaria d) Ramachandra Guha
Cases in 2017? e) Vijayan Bala
a) 4 b) 9 c) 15 d) 21 e) 28
145. Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary has recently
139. Name the Sub-Sonic Cruise Missile was reopened for tourists. It is situated in which state?
successfully test fired by DRDO recently. a) Mizoram
a) Nag b) Astra c) Prithvi d) Nirbhay b) Uttarakhand
e) None of these c) Assam
d) Meghalaya
140. Name the Indian football player who has been e) Nagaland
selected for the Lifetime Achievement award by
Mohan Bagan club. 146. Which of the following banking instrument
a) Ashok Chatterjee enables liquidity management on a day to day basis?
b) Bhaichung Bhutia a) CRR b) SDR c) MSF d) LAF e) CRAR
c) Sunil Chhetri
d) Prasun Banerjee 147. The authorized capital of the DICGC is ______
e) None of these crores, which is fully issued and subscribed by
__________.
141. What is the currency of Aruba? a) 100, NABARD
a) Riel b) Peso c) Nakfa d) Florin e) Lari b) 50, NABARD
c) 50, RBI
142. Which of the following country is NOT a d) 200, SEBI
member of BIMSTEC organisation? e) 100, RBI
a) Cambodia
b) Myanmar 148. On which date ‘International Day for Universal
c) Thailand Access to Information’ is observed worldwide?
d) Bhutan a) 6 April
e) Nepal b) 16 November
c) 17 January
143. National Sports Day is celebrated on August 29 d) 28 September
which marks the birthday of Dhyan Chand. He was e) 10 December
associated with which game?
a) Tennis 149. 'Chamesahn' bridge is located in which State?
b) Cricket a) Arunachal Pradesh
c) Hockey b) Assam
d) Chess c) Jammu & Kashmir
Page 32 of 83
d) Sikkim e) Wular
e) None of the above
153. “Brazzaville” is the capital of which country?
150. ‘Buxa Tiger Reserve’ is located in which state of a) Zimbabwe
India? b) Brazil
a) Chhattisgarh c) Argentina
b) Kerala d) Congo
c) Jharkhand e) Uruguay
d) West Bengal
e) Karnataka 154. Famous ‘Indra Jatra’ festival was celebrated
recently in which country?
151. Grida dance is prominent folk dance of a) Sri Lanka
______________. b) India
a) Uttarakhand c) Bhutan
b) Uttar Pradesh d) Nepal
c) Himachal Pradesh e) Myanmar
d) Madhya Pradesh
e) Maharashtra 155. Who is the Director General of World
Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) at
152. Which among the following lake located in present?
Begusarai district of Bihar? a) Francis Gurry
a) Kolleru b) Gillian Bouras
b) Kanwar c) Christine Lagarde
c) Prashar d) Jin Liqun
d) Kankaria e) Takehiko Nakao
Answer Key with Detailed Solution

Reasoning Ability:
Answers:
(Directions 1–4):
We have:
 W speaks Bengali and is only female child of K.
Page 33 of 83
 The one who speaks Kannada is brother of the one who speaks Tamil.
 P who speaks Kannada is brother-in-law of R and is unmarried member of the family, which means the one
who speaks Tamil is married to R.
 U is only female child of the one who speaks Tamil and is sister of father of the one who speaks Bengali,
which means K is mother of U.
Based on above given information we have:
Again, we have:
 F is married to the one who speaks Urdu and is mother of the one who speaks Marathi that means the one who
speaks Urdu is father of the one who speaks Marathi.
 The one who speaks Hindi is sister-in-law of F.
 The one who speaks Hindi is daughter of H, which means H must be either mother or father of the one who
speaks Urdu.
 E is married to the one who speaks Marathi.
Again, we have:
 D speaks Gujarati and is son of F’s sister-in-law, which means D must be son of the one who speaks Hindi.
 H neither married to U nor speaks Telugu.
 Only three married couples are there in the family, which means R is married to H and H speaks Tamil.
 M is married to the one who speaks Telugu.
 M is son of the one who speaks English, as only ten members are there in the family having three couples
only, which means M must be son of F.
 The one who speaks Punjabi is a female member of the family, as R is only remaining member, which means
R speaks Punjabi.
Based on above given information we have final arrangement as follow:
Page 34 of 83
1) Answer: A
Explanation:
Clearly, the one who speaks Telugu is daughter-in-law of K.
Hence, option A is correct choice.
2) Answer: C
Explanation:
Clearly, the one who speaks Tamil is father-in-law of F.
Hence, option C is correct choice.
3) Answer: A
Explanation:
Clearly, R speaks Punjabi.
4) Answer: B
Explanation:
Clear, P is uncle of the one who speaks Hindi.
Hence, option B is correct choice.
(Directions 5–8):
We have:
Page 35 of 83
From the above multiplication process; we can conclude the following:
 G x D = G, G + Q = D and M + M = G;
Since M + M = G; also there is no carry in addition (mentioned in green), we can conclude that G must be an even
number.
So, the possibilities were,
If, (G=2/4/6/8)
M should be (1+1/2+2/3+3/4+4)
Since, G x D = G; the even digit (G) multiplied by a digit (D) should give the same digit (G).
So the possibilities were,
2 x 6 = 12  Case (1)
4 x 6 = 24  Case (2)
8 x 6 = 48  Case (3)
From all the cases we can conclude that D=6.
Page 36 of 83
 Since there is no carry in the last digit (marked in red); we can conclude that G+Q=D (marked in green).
So,
In Case (1): 2 + (4/3) = 6 (there can be carry digit added); 1 is omitted as the value of M =1.
In Case (2): 4 + (1/0) = 6(there can be carry digit added); 2 is omitted as the value of M =2.
In Case (3): There is no such possibility so it can be eliminated.
Page 37 of 83
In Case (1): Since the value of (2 x E = 1) is not possible it gets eliminated (marked in green).
In Case (2): The value of (4 x E = 2); we get two possibilities.
(4 x 3 = 12) Case (2a)
(4 x 8 = 32) Case (2b)
In Case (2a): 3 x 4 = 12; then (K x 3)+1 = 6. There is no possibility other than substituting 5 as the value of K. So,
we can conclude the value of K as 5.
Page 38 of 83
In Case (2b): 8 x 4 = 32; then (K x 8)+3 = 6. There is no possibility of getting odd digit in multiple of 8. So, it
gets eliminated.
In Case (2a), we get (B54 x 3 = 462). So we can conclude the value of B as 1.

So, the process becomes,
So, by multiplying 154 x 236; we can find the value of P, Q and Z.

The final solution is,
Page 39 of 83
5) Answer: E
Explanation:
We have:
Clearly, P = 8 & M = 2.
Thus, value of “P2 + 2M” = (9x9 + 2x2) = 85.
Hence, option E is correct choice.
6) Answer: D
Explanation:
Clearly, D = 6, Q = 0 and Z = 8.
Thus, value of “D3 + 4Q – 2Z” =(63 + 4x0 – 2x8) = 200.
Hence, option D is correct choice.
7) Answer: B
Explanation:
We have:
B = 1, K = 5, G = 4, D =6, E = 3, M = 2, P = 9, Z = 8, Q = 0.
Thus, “GKB” = 451 & “DEM” = 632
Thus, after multiplication of “451” with “632” we get:
(451 x 632) = 285032
Thus, “285032” is coded as “MZKQEM”.
8) Answer: C
Explanation:
We have:
P = 9, G = 4 & B = 1.
Thus, value of “4P + 3G – 3B” = (9x4 – 3x4 -3x1) = 21.
(Directions 9–12):
9) Answer: B
Explanation:
We have:
HEART, PARTY, GRACE, CLEAR, TRAIN
After rearranging letters of the word in alphabetical order we have:
AEHRT, APRTY, ACEGR, ACELR, AINRT
Thus, “AEHRT” appears third in the dictionary.
10) Answer: D
Explanation:
We have:
After adding ‘S’ before each word we have:
Page 40 of 83
SHEART, SPARTY, SGRACE, SCLEAR, STRAIN

Thus, only one meaningful word can be formed  STRAIN
Hence, option D is correct choice.
11) Answer: A
Explanation:
We have:
After rearranging letters of the word in reverse alphabetical order we have:
TRHEA, YTRPA, RGECA, RLECA, TRNIA
After rearranging newly formed as they appear in dictionary we have:
RGECA, RLECA, TRHEA, TRNIA, YTRPA
3rd letter of the newly formed word “RLECA”  E
3rd letter of the newly formed word “TRNIA”  N
Thus, number of letters between ‘E’ and ‘N’  8
12) Answer: A
Explanation:
We have:
After replacing each consonant and vowels within 5-letter words we have:
GFBQS, OBQSX, FQBBF, BKFBQ, SQBJM
Thus, only two such words can be formed  FQBBF & BKFBQ
We have:
 V sits 12m north of the one who is 9m east of Q; let’s say that ‘@’ sits 9m east of Q.
Page 41 of 83
 P is to the north of Q, that means we have three possible place for P, in case (1) P sits somewhere south-west
of V, in case (2) P sits west of point V, in case (3) P sits somewhere north-east of V.
 P is 10m west of the one who is 5m north-west of T, which means we can say that P sits 10m west of ‘%’.
Again, we have:
 N sits north of W and is east of Q, that means N is east of Q.
 W and N sit at a gap of 6m.
 W sits at any place south of T.
Again, we have:
 W sits east of O and R and O sits in same line.
 O sits at a gap of 4m west of the one who is south of T, that means O sits 4m west of W.
 R sits somewhere in-front of V but not necessarily north of V, as R and O sits in same line, that means R is
coded as ‘%’ and case (1) & case (2) is not valid.
Case (1) & case (2) is not valid as R sits somewhere in-front of V.
Page 42 of 83
Again, we have:
 U sits 20m south of V.
As, UV = 20m & @V = 12m.
Thus, @U = (20 – 12) = 8m.
 S is 13m south-west of T, as S is only remaining person.
We have, @V = 12m & VT = 5.
Thus, @T = √ (@V2 + VT2)
@T = √ (122 + 52) = 13m., Here @=S
VS=SN
Thus, S must be coded as ‘@’ and T must be east of V.
 Again, RT = 5m OW = 4m.
Thus, PQ = (12m + 3m) = 15m.
Based on above given information we have final arrangement:
13) Answer: C TW = (6 + 12) = 18m

Explanation: OW = 4m
Clearly, U sits south-west of O. Thus, OT = √(OW2 + TW2)
Hence, option C is correct choice. OT = √(182 + 42) = 2√85m.
14) Answer: E
Explanation: 16) Answer: E
Clearly, all the above statements are false. Explanation:
Hence, option E is correct choice. From (I): QS + OW > TV + PR.
We have:
15) Answer: B QS = 9m, OW = 4m, TV = 5 & PR = 10m.
Explanation: Thus, (9 + 4) > (10 + 5), is not true.
Clearly, TW = (NW + NT) From II: PQ > (US + RT) ≥ (WN + QS)
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We have: Hence, option B is correct choice.

PQ = 15m, US = 8m, RT = 5m, WN = 6m & QS = 9m.
Thus, 15 > (8 + 5) ≥ (6 + 9), is not true. 21) Answer: A
From III: NS + OW + TR < NW + VT Explanation:
NS = 5m, OW = 4m, TR = 5m, NW = 6m & VT = 5m. Clearly, Imposing heavy anti-dumping duty on chines
Thus, (5 + 4 + 5) > (6 + 5), is not true. tempered glass will boost local industries and ultimately
From IV: VS + SQ > PQ + TR price automatically decreased. Thus, argument I is
VS = 12m, SQ = 9m, PQ = 15m & TR = 5m strong.
Thus, (12 + 9) > (15 + 5), is true. Hence, option A is correct choice.
Clearly, none of the statements are true.
Hence, option E is correct choice. 22) Answer: D
Explanation:
Directions (17 – 19): Clearly, as it is option to give up or take subsidy that
17) Answer: A means argument II is not valid. Similarly, we can’t say
Explanation: that senior citizen will not give up the subsidy as large
Clearly, assumption I is strong as newspaper has biggest numbers of pensioners are well capable to afford the fare
mass reach and considered as mirror of the society. without subsidy, which means argument I is not strong.
Hence, option A is correct choice. Hence, option D is correct choice.
18) Answer: B (Directions 23–25):

Clearly, assumption II is strong as competition among Explanation:
fellow airline companies force then to reduce price. From A we have:
19) Answer: E
Explanation:
Clearly, both assumption I and II are strong as
government always maintain buffer stock of food grain
and excess of water damage crops that risks the price
Given conclusion: Some DOO are ZOO. All DOO can
risk.
never be POO. Some ZOO can never be HOO. Some
POO are not KOO.
Clearly, there is no direct connection between DOO and
Directions (20 – 22):
POO, thus “All DOO can never be POO” is not true.
20) Answer: B
Hence, option A is not correct.
Explanation:
From B we have:
Clearly, Imposing ban is not the appropriate way to deal
with such technical issues. Thus, argument II is only
strong as penalty will assure that such incident do not
repeat in near future.
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24) Answer: D
Explanation:
From A we have:
Given conclusion: Some DOO are ZOO. All KOO can

never be HOO. Some TOO are not POO. All DOO can
be HOO.
Clearly, given statements follows all the above Given conclusion: Some Earth are not Star. All Planet
conclusion. can be Earth. All Moon can never be Sun.Some Star can
Hence, option B is true. be Mars.
From C we have: Clearly, no Mars is Moon & all Star are Moon, thus
“Some Star can be Mars” is not true.
Hence, option A is not correct choice.
From B we have:
Given conclusion: Some DOO are ZOO. All DOO can

never be KOO. All KOO can never be HOO. No HOO is
POO.
Clearly, all KOO can be HOO, thus “All KOO can never Given conclusion: Some Earth are not Star. All Sun can
be HOO” is not true. never be Mars. All Planet can be Star. Some Mars are
Hence, option C is not true. Planet.
From D we have: Clearly, nor Mars is Moon & some Mars are Planet, thus
“All Planet can be Star” is not true.
Hence, option B is not correct.
From C we have:
Given conclusion: Some DOO are ZOO. All POO can be

TOO. All DOO can be HOO. Some DOO are not KOO
Clearly, above given diagram follows all the conclusion.
Hence, option D is correct.
Since, both B and D follows, thus option E is correct
Given conclusion: Some Earth are not Star. Some Sun
choice.
are not Mars. All Moon can be Earth. All Mars can never
be Planet.
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Clearly, there is no direct connection between Sun and Given conclusion: Some Steel are Silver. Some Metal are
Mars, thus “Some Sun are not Mars” is not true. not Glass. All Steel can never be Wood. Some Silver are
Hence, option C is not correct choice. not Steel.
From D we have: Clearly, some Silver are Steel but we can’t definitely say
“Some Silver are not Steel” is true.
Hence, option B is not correct.
From C we have:
Given conclusion: Some Earth are not star. All Mars can
never be Planet. Some Sun are not Moon. AllStar can be
Sun. Given Conclusion: Some Steel are Silver. Some Metal
Clearly, above diagram follows all the conclusion. are not Steel. Some Glass are not Steel. Some Wood are
Hence, option D is correct choice. not Gold.
Clearly, all Steel are Metal but we can’t say “Some
25) Answer: A Metal are not Steel” is true.
Explanation: Hence, option C is not true.
From A we have: From D we have:
Given conclusion: Some Steel are Silver. Some Wood

Given conclusion: Some Steel are Silver. All Glass can are not Metal. All Glass can never be Silver. Some Steel
never be Metal. Some Wood are not Gold.All Silver can are not Gold.
be Glass. Clearly, there is no direct connection between Glass and
Clearly, given diagram follows all the conclusion. Silver, thus “All Glass can never
Hence, option A is correct. be Silver” is not true.
From B we have: Hence, option D is not true.
Clearly, only option A is correct.
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Directions (26-29):
We have:
 The box which contains Perk is kept fourth from bottom.
 One box is kept between Black box and the box which contains Perk, whose weight is a cube number, that
means we have two possible place for Black box, in case (1) Black box is kept second from bottom, in case
(2) Black box is kept sixth from bottom.
 As, only possible cube number less than 192 which is a multiple of 3 is 27, thus weight of the box which
contains Perk is 27kg.
 Black box is kept adjacent to Brown box, which contains 5-Star but not kept at bottom, that means in case (1)
& case (2a) Brown box is kept just above the Black box, in case (2b) Brown box is kept just below Black box.
 Three boxes are kept between the box which contains 5-Star and the box B01, whose weight is 15kg.
 The box which contains Munch is kept just below the box whose weight is 15kg, which neither contains Twix
nor Aero, that means in case (1) the box B01 is kept third from top, in case (2a) the box B01 is kept third from
bottom, in case (2b) the box B01 is kept at top.
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Again, we have:
 One of the wooden boxes marked Red is kept at a gap of three boxes from White box, whose weight is 21kg.
 White box is kept just below the box whose weight is 48kg, which is neither kept at top nor marked Black,
that means in case (1a) Red box is kept at top, in case (1b) Red box is kept at bottom, in case (2a) Red box is
kept just below the Black box, in case (2b) Red box is kept third from bottom.
 The box B03 contains Kit-Kat and is kept adjacent to the Red box, which means in case (1a) the box B03 is
kept just below Red box, in case (1b) the box B03 is kept just above Red box, in case (2a) Black box contains
Kit-Kat, in case (2b) the box B03 is kept just below Red box.
Again, we have:
 Three boxes are kept between the box B09 and the box which contains Twix, which is neither kept at bottom
nor marked White.
 The box B09 is kept just above the Yellow box, which is kept at a gap of one box from the box whose weight
is 3/4th the weight of the box which contains Munch, that means in case (1a) & case (1b) the box contains
Twix is kept at top, in case (2a) the box which contains Twix is kept second from top, in case (2c) the box
which contains Twix is kept fifth from bottom and case (2b) are not valid.
 As, weight of the box which contains Munch is 48kg, thus weight of the box which is at a gap of one box
from Yellow box is 36kg.
 The box B06 is neither kept at bottom nor contains 5-Star.
 The box B06 is kept adjacent to the box which contains Melody, whose weight is perfect square.
 Since, combined weight of all the boxes are 204kg, thus only possible weight of the box whose weight is
perfect square is 9kg, that means in case (1a) the box B06 is kept second from bottom, in case (1b) the box
B06 is kept at top, in case (2a) the box B06 is kept second from top and case (2c) is not valid.
 The box B08 is kept just above one of the plastic box, since no two boxes of same type are kept together, that
means in case (1a) & case (1b) the box B08 is kept fourth from bottom and case (2a) is not valid.
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Case (2a) is not valid as the box B08 is kept just above one of the plastic box, case (2b) is not valid as the box
B09 is kept just above the Yellow box and case (2c) is not valid as the box B06 is kept adjacent to the box
which contains Melody.
Again, we have:
 The box B05 doesn’t contain Melody but kept at a gap of four boxes from Green box.
 Difference of weight between Green box and the box B09 is 15kg, which means case (1b) is not valid, in case
(1a) the box B05 is kept third from bottom and the weight of the Green box is 6kg.
 Number of boxes above Blue box is same as number of boxes below the box whose weight is thrice the
weight of Green box.
 Blue box is neither kept at top nor at Bottom, that means Blue box is kept third from top.
 Since, combined weight of all the boxes are 204kg, thus weight of remaining box at top must be 24kg.
 The box B02 is kept adjacent to the Silk, whose weight is an even number, which means the box B02 is kept
at bottom.
 Since, the box whose weight is 15kg doesn’t contain Aero, thus the box B09 contains Aero.
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 At least two boxes are kept below Pink box, which means the box B07 is marked Pink and the box B02 is
marked Orange.
Case (1b) is not valid as difference of weight between Green box and the box B09 is 15kg.
26) Answer: B
Explanation:
Clearly, Green box is kept just below the box whose weight is 24kg.
27) Answer: C
Explanation:
Clearly, combination C is true.
28) Answer: A
Explanation:
Clearly, difference in weight of the box which contains Twix and Orange box = (24 – 9) = 15kg.
29) Answer: B
Explanation:
Clearly, after rearrangement of boxes we have:
Weight from bottom to top  6kg, 9kg, 15kg, 18kg, 21kg, 24kg, 27kg, 36kg and 48kg.
Thus, only four boxes are kept below the box which contains Aero (21).
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Directions (30-33):
We have:
 M2 who works in BHEL sits at extreme end at a gap of three person of the one who works in ONGC, that
means we have two possible position of M2, in case (1) M2 sits at left end, in case (2) M2 sits at right end.
 M2 sits immediate left of F3, who doesn’t work in SAIL.
 Five person sits between F3 and M1, who doesn’t work in DRDO.
 Three person sits between M1 and one of the female member, who works in AAI, that means we have four
possibility, in case (1a) & case (2a) the one who works in AAI sits fourth to left of M1, in case (1b) & case
(2b) the one who works in AAI sits fourth to right of M1.
Again, we have:
 Two person sits between M1 and M3, who works in DRDO.
 M3 sits fourth to left of one of the female member, who works in SAIL, that means in case (2a) & case (2b)
female who works in SAIL sits immediate left of M1 and case (1a) & case (1b) are not valid.
 One of the male member who works in SAIL sits fourth to left of M4.
 M4 works in AAI, that means in case (2a) & case (2b) M4 sits sixth from right end.
 Two person sits between M4 and the one who works in DRDO, that means in case (2a) & case (2b) the one
who works in DRDO sits third to left of M4, in case (2c) & case (2d) the one who works in DRDO sits third
to right of M4.
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Case (1a) & case (1b) are not valid as M3 sits fourth to left of one of the female member.
Again, we have:
 M6 sits immediate right of the one who works in ONGC.
 One of the person who works in BHEL sits fifth to left of M6, who neither works in SAIL nor BHEL.
 Since, no two female sits together, thus M6 sits third from right end.
 M5 sits second to right of the one who works in ONGC, that means in case (2a) & case (2c) M5 sits third
from left end, in case (2b) & case (2d) M5 sits fourth from right end.
 One person sits between the one who works in DRDO and M7, that means in case (2a) & case (2c) M7 sits
fifth from right end and case (2b) & case (2d) are not valid.
 Two person sits between F4 and F2, who sits adjacent to the one who works in SAIL, that means F4 sits at left
end of the row.
Case (2b) & case (2d) are not valid as one person sits between the one who works in DRDO and M7.
Again, we have:
 The one who works in AAI sits second to left of F1, that means in case (2c) F1 sits immediate left of M4 and
case (2a) is not valid.
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Case (2a) is not valid as the one who works in AAI sits second to left of F1.
Again, after rearranging all the person we get following result:
30) Answer: A
Explanation:
Clearly, M5 sits second to left of the one M6 after rearrangement.
31) Answer: E
Explanation:
Clearly, F3 sits fourth to left of the one who works in BHEL.
32) Answer: E
Explanation:
Clearly, only F2, F5 & M4 works in AAI.
33) Answer: A
Explanation:
Clearly, M7 is third to left of M2. Similarly, F1 is third to left of M5.
Thus, M2 must sits third left of M7.
Directions (34-37):
34) Answer: E
35) Answer: B
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36) Answer: B
37) Answer: A
Explanation:
1) The last digit of the account number is divided by 3 but the digit is not 3.
That means the digit will be 6 or 9.
2) The difference of first and last digit is greater than 6.

That means the last digit is 9 and 1st digit is 1 or 2.
3) The second digit of the account number is an even prime number.
4) The 2nd, 3rd and 4th numbers are consecutive numbers starting from 2nd digit.
5) The 5th and 6th digit even numbers and both numbers are same.
6) The sum of 6th and 1st digit is greater than 9.
That means the 1st digit is 2.
7) The 8th digit is same as the 1st digit and 7th digit is sum of 1st and 2nd digit.
Hence 8th digit is 2 and 7th digit is 4.
8) The 9th and 5th digits are same and are more than 7.
It means 9th and 5th digits are 8 (ref point (5))
Hence Ajay account number is ‘2234884289’
Page 54 of 83
Directions (38-41):
We have:
 No meeting was scheduled between Mike’s and Smith’s, whose meeting was neither scheduled with Riya nor
at SBI.
 Smith’s meeting was ended at 12:30PM just after Shweta’s meeting, that means Smith’s meeting was
scheduled just after Shweta.
 Mike’s meeting was scheduled at SBI.
 Mike’s meeting was neither scheduled with Shweta nor with Deval, that means Mike’s meeting was
scheduled just after Smith’s meeting.
 Since, each meeting was scheduled for either 45minutes or 60meetings, thus we have two possible time for
Smith’s meeting, in case (1) Smith’s meeting was scheduled for 45minutes, in case (2) Smith’s meeting was
scheduled for 60minutes.
 Last meeting was ended at 6:00PM in DENA bank.
 Each meeting was scheduled at an interval of 15minutes.
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Note:- number of meetings between Mike and the one whose meeting was scheduled at DENA bank may not be
same as shown above.
Again, we have:
 At least two meeting was scheduled between Tom’s meeting and meeting scheduled at SBI.
 Payal’s meeting was scheduled just before Tom’s meeting, whose meeting was scheduled with Monty, that
means we have four possible place for Tom’s meeting, in case (1a) & case (2a) Tom’s meeting was scheduled
just before the one whose meeting was scheduled at DENA bank, in case (1b) & case (2b) Tom’s meeting was
scheduled at DENA bank.
 One meeting was scheduled between Smith’s meeting and Jiya’s meeting.
 Jiya’s meeting was not scheduled before Shweta’s meeting, thus, Jiya’s meeting was scheduled after Smith’s
meeting.
 Dev’s meeting was scheduled at HDFC but neither with Payal nor with Shweta.
 At least two meeting was scheduled between Jiya’s meeting and the one whose meeting was scheduled at
HDFC, that means Dev’s meeting was scheduled just before Shweta’s meeting.
Again, we have:
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 Deval’s meeting was scheduled at UCO bank at a gap of two meeting from the one whose meeting was
scheduled at ICICI bank.
 Deval’s meeting was scheduled at any time after meeting scheduled at SBI but not with Jiya.
 Meeting at ICICI bank was scheduled for 60minutes, that means in case (2a) & case (2b) Smith’s meeting was
scheduled at ICICI bank and case (1a) & case (1b) are not valid.
 Hema’s meeting was scheduled for 45minutes just after meeting scheduled at ICICI bank, that means Hema’s
meeting was scheduled with Mike’s meeting.
 Three meeting was scheduled between Joy’s meeting and the meeting scheduled at PNB.
 Joy’s meeting was neither scheduled at HDFC nor with Payal’s meeting, that means in case (2a) & case (2b)
Joy’s meeting was scheduled with Smith, in case (2c) Joy’s meeting was scheduled with Deval.
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Case (1a) & case (1b) are not valid as Meeting at ICICI bank was scheduled for 60minutes.
Again, we have:
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 Hari’s meeting was neither scheduled at ICICI nor scheduled just before the one whose meeting was
scheduled at UCO bank.
 At least three meeting was scheduled between the one whose meeting was scheduled at UBI and Hari’s
meeting.
 Riya’s meeting scheduled just before Hari’s meeting, whose meeting was scheduled for 45minutes, that
means in case (2b) meeting at UBI was scheduled just after meeting scheduled at HDFC and Hari’s meeting
was scheduled with Deval, in case (2c) meeting at UBI was scheduled for Payal and Hari’s meeting was
scheduled with Shweta, in case (2d) meeting at UBI was scheduled just after meeting scheduled at HDFC and
Hari’s meeting was scheduled with Payal and case (2a) is not valid.
 Meeting at BOB was scheduled for 60minutes.
 One meeting was scheduled between the meeting scheduled at BOB and Ritu’s meeting, whose meeting was
not scheduled with Smith, that means in case (2b) & case (2c) Ritu’s meeting was scheduled with Payal and
case (2d) is not valid.
 Ritu’s meeting was scheduled to complete at a gap of 195minutes from Rob’s scheduled meeting, thus, in
case (2c) only possible time at which Ritu’s meeting completed was 5:00PM and Rob’s meeting was
scheduled with Jiya and case (2b) is not valid.
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Case (2a) is not valid as at least three meeting was scheduled between the one whose meeting was scheduled at
UBI and Hari’s meeting, case (2d) is not valid as one meeting was scheduled between the meeting scheduled at
BOB and Ritu’s meeting and case (2b) is not valid as Ritu’s meeting was scheduled to complete at a gap of
195minutes from Rob’s scheduled meeting.
Again, we have:
 Shiv’s meeting was scheduled at a gap of 120 minutes from Riya’s scheduled meeting, that means Riya’s
meeting must be scheduled at 9:00AM.
 No two consecutive meeting was scheduled for 60minutes, thus meeting at UCO bank was scheduled for
45minutes.
38) Answer: E
Explanation:
Clearly, meeting of Payal and Ritu are scheduled at UBI.
39) Answer: A
Explanation:
Clearly, Hari’s and Shweta’s meeting was scheduled at 10:30AM.
40) Answer: B
Explanation:
Clearly, only three meetings are scheduled after meeting scheduled at BOB.
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41) Answer: E
Explanation:
Clearly, gap between the meeting scheduled at PNB and Joy’s scheduled meeting is 270 minutes.
We have:
Step I: In this step following logic is applied:
Clearly, result in step I can be obtained by difference of product of digits.

Result = (54 – 28) = 26.
Step II: In this step following logic is applied:
Clearly, result in step II can be determined by difference of results in above diagram.

Result = (40 – 12) = 28
Step III: In this step following logic is applied:
Clearly, result in step III can be determined by difference of results.

Result = (68 – 5) = 63
Step IV: In this step following logic is applied:
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Clearly, result in step IV can be determined by difference of results.

Result = (52 – 34) = 18
Thus, from above given steps we final following result for given input:
42) Answer: B
Clearly, sum of digits of highest number in step III = (2 Explanation:
+ 7) = 9. Clearly, second lowest number from step II = 28.
Hence, option B is correct choice. Hence, option E is correct choice.
43) Answer: D 45) Answer: A

Explanation: Explanation:
Clearly, required difference = (52 – 42) = 9 Required difference = (4 x 8) – (3 x 6) = 14
Hence, option D is correct choice. Hence, option A is correct choice.
Quantitative Aptitude
Answers: 1630*9 + (9*11) = 15156
Directions (46 - 48): Series II:
46) Answer: d) 1024 – 225 = 799
Series I: 799 + 196 = 995
5*1 + (1*3) = 8 995 – 169 = 826
8*3 + (3*5) = 39 826 + 144 = 970
39*5 + (5*7) = 230 970 – 121 = 849
230*7 + (7*9) = 1673 The two wrong numbers are 38 and 999
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Sum of the two wrong numbers = 38 + 999 = 1037 The two wrong numbers are 614 and 565.
Difference between square of smaller number and the Difference between the two numbers = 614 – 565 = 49 is
larger number = (38)2 – 999 = 1444 – 999 = 445 a square number.
5% of the larger number = (5/100)*999 = 49.95 – 38 = If the digits are reversed, the numbers are 416 and 565.
11.95 Difference = 565 – 416 = 149 = 49 + 100.
Hence the statement (ii) alone satisfies the wrong Sum of the digits are (6+1+4=) 11 and (5+6+5=) 16.
numbers. Product = 11*16 = 176.
Hence all the statements satisfy for the wrong
47) Answer: c) numbers.
Series I:
32*1 = 32 Directions (49 - 52):
32/2 = 16 49) Answer: a)
16*3 = 48 Statement I:
48/4 = 12 Compound interest = P*[1 + (r/100)]n – P.
12*5 = 60 Rate of interest for quarterly = 12/4 = 3%
Series II: Number of quarters = 2
11*1 + 1 =12 Compound interest = 10000*[1 + (3/100)]2 – 10000 =
12/2 – 2 = 4 10609 – 10000 = 609
4*3 + 3 = 15 Statement II:
15/4 – 4 = -0.25 Share of A = 10000 * 12 = 120000
-0.25*5 + 5 = 3.75 Share of B = (15000 * 6) + (20000 * 6) = 210000
The two wrong numbers are 64 and 0.75 Ratio of profit = 120000 : 210000 = 4:7
Product of two wrong numbers = 64*0.75 = 48 B’s profit = (7/11)*957 = 609
64 is a square number but 0.75 is not a square number Statement III:
LCM of 64, ¾ = (LCM of 64 and 3)/(HCF of 1 and 4) = Selling price = (113/100)*540 = 610.2
192/1 = 192 Hence the statement I and statement II satisfies the
Hence the statements (i) and (iii) satisfy for the wrong value given.
numbers.
50) Answer: b)
48) Answer: e) Statement I:
Series I: Let speed and length of train be S and L.
21*20 = 420 S = L/12.5; L = 12.5S
25*24 = 600 S = (L + 150)/20; L + 150 = 20S
29*28 = 814 12.5S + 150 = 20S
33*32 = 1056 7.5S = 150
37*36 = 1332 S = 20m/sec = 20*18/5 = 72 km/hr
41*40 = 1640 Distance in 125 minutes = 72*125/60 = 150 km
Series II: Statement II:
498 + 23 = 521 Speed of car = 2/3 km/min = 2*60/3 km/hr = 40 km/hr
521 + 46 = 567 Distance in 90 minutes = 40*90/60 = 60 km [90 min =
567 + 92 = 659 30 min + 60 min]
659 + 184 = 843 Speed of car B = 60/1 = 60 km/hr = 60*5/18 m/sec
843 + 368 = 1211
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Distance by car B in 9 seconds = 60*(5/18)*9 = 150m = Let x be the number of months C invested in the
0.150km business.
Statement III: Share of A = 1200*12 + 1200*(x-1) = 14400 + 1200x –
Speed of the train = 210/21 = 10m/sec 1200 = 13200 + 1200x = 1200(x + 11)
New speed of train = 1.5*10 = 15 m/sec Share of B = 1500*(x – 3)
Speed = (210 + Length of platform)/24 Share of C = 2400*x
15*24 = 210 + Length of platform Ratio of share = 1200*(x+11): 1500*(x-3): 2400x =
360 – 210 = Length of platform 4(x+11): 5(x-3): 8x
Length of platform = 150m = 0.150km Profit ratio = 9:5:7
Hence the statement II and statement III satisfies the Take any two,
given value. 4(x+11)/8x = 9/7
7x + 77 = 18x
51) Answer: e) 11x = 77
Statement I: x=7
Total number of students = 100 Therefore C invested after 5 months from start of the
No of boys = (3/4)*100 = 75 business.
No of girls = 25 Statement III:
No of boys failed = (1/3)*75 = 25 Let x and y be the one day work of one man and one
No of girls failed = 40 – 25 = 15 child respectively.
No of girls passed = 25 – 15 = 10 First case, Total work = 120*(60x + 80y)
Percentage = (10/100)*100 = 10% Second case, Total work = 100*(100x + 40y)
Statement II: Equating the total work, 120*(60x + 80y) = 100*(100x +
Simple interest I = P*n*r/100 40y)
A = P + I; 2P = P + I; I = P 360x + 480y = 500x + 200y
P = P*8*r/100 140x = 280y
r = 100/8 = 12.5% x = 2y
Statement III: Total work = 120*(60x + 80*(x/2)) = 120*100x =
Cost price of 1 candy = 5/6 12000x
Selling price of 1 candy = 23/24 No of days for 50 men to complete = 12000x/50x = 240
Profit percent = (SP – CP)/CP *100 = [(23/24) – days = 8 months
(5/6)]/(5/6) * 100 = (3/24)/(5/6) * 100 = (3/20) * 100 Hence, both statements I and II satisfy the value
= 15% given.
Hence the statement III only satisfies the given value.
53) Answer: b)
52) Answer: a) Let m and w be the one day work of one man and one
Statement I: woman respectively.
Compound interest = P*[1 + (r/100)]n – P Total work = 24*(50m + 100w) = 1200*(m + 2w)
1000 = 10000*[1 + (21/100)]n – 10000 m>w
11000 = 10000*[121/100]n Second case, Total work = x*(60m + 70w)
(11/10) = (121/100)n Equating the total work,
n = 0.5 years = 6 months 1200*(m + 2w) = x*(60m + 70w)
Statement II: (6m + 7w)*x = 120*(m + 2w)
Option A: 24 days
Page 64 of 83
24*(6m + 7w) = 120*(m + 2w) Let us first assume that first article at 20% profit.
6m + 7w = 5m + 10w Selling price of first article = 1.2*1500 = 1800
m = 3w. m > w Selling price of second article = 1800
Option B: 30 days 0.8*CP = 1800
30*(6m + 7w) = 120*(m + 2w) Cost price of second article = 1800*5/4 = 2250
6m + 7w = 4m + 8w Total cost price = 3750
2m = w Total selling price = 3600
m < w Hence not possible. Loss = 150
Option C: 26.25 days Now consider first article at 20% loss.
26.25*(6m + 7w) = 120*(m + 2w) Selling price of first article = 0.8*1500 = 1200
105*(6m + 7w)/4 = 120*(m + 2w) 1.2*CP = 1200
21*(6m + 7w) = 96m + 192w Cost price of second article = 1200*5/6 = 1000
126m + 147w = 96m + 192w Total cost price = 2500
30m = 45w Total selling price = 2400
m = 1.5w Loss = 100
m > w. Condition satisfies.
Option D: 32.5 days Option C: Rs.1000
32.5*(6m + 7w) = 120*(m + 2w) This is the same as we solved earlier.
65*(6m + 7w)/2 = 120*(m + 2w) Hence this also satisfies the condition.
78m + 91w = 48m + 96w Option D: Rs.1600
30m = 5w Let us first assume that first article at 20% profit.
w = 6m Selling price of first article = 1.2*1600 = 1920
w > m Hence not possible. Selling price of second article = 1920
Hence only A and C 0.8*CP = 1920
Cost price of second article = 1920*5/4 = 2400
54) Answer: b) Total cost price = 4000
Option A: Rs.1200 Total selling price = 3840
Let us first assume that first article at 20% profit. Loss = 160
Selling price of first article= 1.2*1200 = 1440 Now consider first article at 20% loss.
Selling price of second article = 1440 Selling price of first article = 0.8*1600 = 1280
0.8*CP = 1440 1.2*CP = 1280
Cost price of second article = 1440*5/4 = 1800 Cost price of second article = 1280*5/6 = 1066.67
Total cost price = 3000 Total cost price = 2666.67
Total selling price = 2880 Total selling price = 2560
Loss = 120 Loss = 106.67
Now consider first article at 20% loss. Hence only B and C satisfies the condition.
Selling price of first article = 0.8*1200 = 960
1.2*CP = 960 55) Answer: e)
Cost price of second article = 960*5/6 = 800 Let D be the distance, S be the speed on Monday and T
Total cost price = 2000 be the actual time.
Total selling price = 1920 By data,
Loss = 80 D = S*T---------(1)
Option B: Rs.1500
Page 65 of 83
Let t be the time travelled in bike. Total time = T + Sa = 21.67km/hr = 65/3 km/hr = 65*5/(3*18) = 325/54
(10/60). Time travelled by bus = T + (1/6) - t m/sec
Since midway, Tuesday, D/2 = 0.75S*t Apply in the above equation, LHS = 260*[(54/200) –
S*T/2 = 0.75S*t (54/325)]
T = 1.5t --------(2) LHS = 260*54[125/(200*325)] = 27 not equal to RHS
Distance travelled by bus = D/2 Option C: 48 km/hr 78 km/hr
72*[T + (1/6) – t] = D/2 Sb = 48km/hr = 48*5/18 = 40/3 m/sec
72*[1.5t – t + (1/6)] = D/2 Sa = 78km/hr = 78*5/18 = 65/3 m/sec
144*[0.5t + (1/6)] = D Apply in the above equation, LHS = 260*[(3/40) –
D = 72t + 24 ------(3) (3/65)]
Third case, Full distance by bus, D = 72*(T + 5/60) LHS = 260*3*[25/(40*65)] = 7.5 = RHS
D = 72T + 6 = 72*1.5t + 6 = 108t + 6 ------(4) Option D: 40 km/hr 80 km/hr
(3) and (4) 72t + 24 = 108t + 6 Sb = 40km/hr = 40*5/18 = 200/18 m/sec
36t = 18 Sa = 80km/hr = 80*5/18 = 400/18 m/sec
t = 0.5 = 30 minutes Apply in the above equation, LHS = 260*[(18/200) –
D = 72*0.5 + 24 = 60km (18/400)]
T = 1.5*0.5 = 0.75 = 45 minutes LHS = 260*18*[1/400] = 11.7 not equal to RHS
S = 60/0.75 = 80 km/hr Hence only option C satisfies the given situation.
Hence all the asked data can be found using these
quantities. 57) Answer: b)
Jar A
56) Answer: e) Milk + Water = 120
Let Sa and Sb be the speed of trains A and B in m/sec Milk – Water = 30
respectively. Let A and B be the length of two trains Milk = (120 + 30)/2 = 150/2 = 75
respectively. Water = 75 – 30 = 45
Sa = A/t; t = A/Sa Resultant mixture % milk = (66.67/100)*Total =
Sb = B/t; t = B/Sb (2/3)*Total
Sa = (A + 260)/t1; t1 = (A/Sa) + (260/Sa) Option A: 5:1 180
Sb = (B + 260)/t2 = (B + 260)/(t1 + 7.5); t1 = (B/Sb) + Quantity in jar B = 180 – 120 = 60
(260/Sb) – 7.5 Milk = (5/6)*60 = 50; Water = 10
From first two equations, A/Sa = B/Sb-----(1) Resultant mixture milk = 75 + 50 = 125
From the last two equations, (A/Sa) + (260/Sa) = (B/Sb) Percentage = (125/180)*100 = 69.44%
+ (260/Sb) – 7.5 ----(2) Option B: 7:3 270
260*[(1/Sb) – (1/Sa)] = 7.5 ------(3) Quantity in jar B = 270 – 120 = 150
Option A: 48km/hr, 72km/hr Milk = (7/10)*150 = 105; Water = 45
Sb = 48km/hr = 48*5/18 = 40/3 m/sec Resultant mixture milk = 75 + 105 = 180
Sa = 72km/hr = 72*5/18 = 20 m/sec Percentage = (180/270)*100 = 66.67%
Apply in the above equation, LHS = 260*[(3/40) – Option C: 7:2 165
(1/20)] Quantity in jar B = 165 – 120 = 45
LHS = 260*[1/40] = 6.5 not equal to RHS Milk = (7/9)*45 = 35; Water = 10
Option B: 13.33 km/hr 21.67 km/hr Resultant mixture milk = 75 + 35 = 110
Sb = 13.33km/hr = 40/3 km/hr = 40*5/(3*18) = 200/54 Percentage = (110/165)*100 = 66.67%
m/sec
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Hence both options B and C satisfy the given 8*84000 = 7*(42X – 5400)
problem. 42X = 101400
X = 2414.2 = 2410
58) Answer: d) Total profit = 42*2410 – 5400 = 95820
Share of A = 8*(X – 250) + 4*(X – 250 – 750) = 8X – C’s share = 18*(2410 – 100) = 41580
2000 + 4X – 4000 = 12x – 6000 C’s profit = (41580/95820)*84000 = 36450
Share of B = 6*(X – 100) + 6*(X – 100 + 600) = 6X – Hence only option C satisfies the given question.
600 + 6X + 3000 = 12X + 2400
Share of C = 6*(3X – 300) = 18X – 1800 59) Answer: c)
Total share = 12X + 12X + 18X – 6000 + 2400 – 1800 = Let A and B be the speed of Boat A and Boat B in still
42X - 5400 water respectively. Let S be the speed of the stream.
Let Y be the annual profit. By data,
B’s profit – A’s profit = 7350 A + S = D/(T – 2)
[(12X + 2400) – (12X – 6000)]*Y/(42X – 5400) = 7350 A – S = D/(T – 1)
Y*(12X + 2400 – 12X + 6000) = 7350*(42X – 5400) Adding both equations, 2A = D[1/(T – 2) + 1/(T – 1)]
8400Y = 7350*(42X – 5400) 2A = D(2T – 3)/[(T-2)*(T-1)]
8Y = 7*(42X – 5400) 2A = D(2T – 3)/(T2 – 3T + 2)
Option A: Rs.103750 Rs.50000 Also, B = (80/100)*A = (4/5)*A
Y = 103750 (4/5)*A = 2D/(T + 2)
8*103750 = 7*(42X – 5400) 2A = 5D/(T + 2)
830000 + 37800 = 294X So, (2T – 3)/(T2 – 3T + 2) = 5/(T + 2)
X = 2951.70 = 2950 2T2 + T – 6 = 5T2 – 15T + 10
Total share = 42*2950 – 5400 = 118500 3T2 – 16T + 16 = 0
C’s share = 18*(2950 – 100) = 51300 3T2 – 12T – 4T + 16 = 0
C’s profit = (51300/118500)*103750 = 44914.5 3T(T – 4) – 4(T – 4) = 0
Option B: Rs.91300 Rs.49600 T = 4, 4/3
Y = 91300 T = 4/3 not possible
8*91300 = 7*(42X – 5400) T = 4.
730400 + 37800 = 294X A + S = D/2; D = 2A + 2S
X = 2612.9 = 2610 A – S = D/3; D = 3A – 3S
Total share = 42*2610 – 5400 = 104220 2A + 2S = 3A – 3S
C’s share = 18*(2610 – 100) = 45180 A = 5S
C’s profit = (45180/104220)*91300 = 39580 B = (4/5)*5S = 4S
Option C: Rs.87150 Rs.37800 Downstream speed of boats = (5S + S) :(5S – S) = 3:2
Y = 87150 Hence, only A and D can be calculated from the given
8*87150 = 7*(42X – 5400) data.
697200 + 37800 = 294X
X = 2500 Directions (60 – 62):
Total share = 42*2500 – 5400 = 99600 60) Answer: d)
C’s share = 18*(2500 – 100) = 43200 Item A:
C’s profit = (43200/99600)*87150 = 37800 CP = Rs. 750, Profit = Rs. 150
Option D: Rs.84000 Rs.38000 SP = 750 + 150 = Rs. 900
Y = 84000 Discount = Rs. 75
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Marked price = 900 + 75 = Rs. 975 = > 320000 = 240000 + 8X

Mark-up % of item A = > 80000 = 8X
= > [(975 – 750) / 750] * 100 = > X = 10000
= > 30 %
The mark-up % of item A = 30 % 64) Answer: b)
Item C: The share of Manvi, Moni and Mahila in 2014,
CP = Rs. 500, Profit % = 25 % = > [Y * 6 + (Y – 10000) * 6] : [(Y – 5000) * 6] : [(Y –
SP = 500 * (125/100) = Rs. 625 15000) * 12]
Discount = Rs. 75 = > [6Y + 6Y – 60000] : [6Y – 30000] : [12Y – 180000]
Marked price = 625 + 75 = Rs. 700 = > [12Y – 60000] : [6Y – 30000] : [12Y – 180000]
Mark-up % of item C Given,
= > [(700 – 500) / 500] * 100 = > (12Y – 60000) / (12Y – 180000) = (5/3)
= > 40 % = > (Y – 5000) / (Y – 15000) = (5/3)
The mark-up % of item C = 40 % = > 3Y – 15000 = 5Y – 75000
Required ratio = 30 : 40 = 3 : 4 = > 2Y = 60000
= > Y = 30000
61) Answer: a) Required difference = 40000 – 30000 = Rs. 10000
The total marked price of all the given items together
= > [(750 + 150 + 75) + (900 * (120/100)) + (((750/6) * 65) Answer: d)
5) + 75) + (600 + 60 + 90)] The share of Manvi, Moni and Mahila in the year 2014,
= > [975 + 1080 + 700 + 750] = > [35000 * 7]: [(25000 + Z) * 12]: [(15000 + 2Z) * 12]
= > Rs. 3505 = > [245000]: [300000 + 12Z]: [180000 + 24Z]
Given,
62) Answer: a) = > (245000) / (180000 + 24Z) = (49/108)
The marked price of item D = 600 + 60 + 90 = Rs. 750 = > 180000 + 24Z = 540000
The discount % provided to customer for item D = > 24Z = 360000
= > (90 / 750) * 100 = 12 % = > Z = 15000
The marked price of item C = 500 * (140/100) = Rs. 700 Required ratio = 15000: 50000 = 3: 10
The selling price of item C = 700 – 75 = Rs. 625
The profit % received by shopkeeper for item C Directions (66 - 68):
= > (125 / 500) * 100 66) Answer: c)
= > 25 % Total wages as planned = 40*(m*4x + w*2x + c*x) =
Required product = 12 * 25 = 300 % 40x*(4m + 2w +c)
First four days: m men, w women and c children. Wages
Directions (63 – 65): = 4*(m*4x + w*2x + c*x)
63) Answer: d) Next 30 days: m men, w-c women. Wages = 30*(m*4x +
The share of Manvi, Moni and Mahila in 2013, (w-c)*2x)
= > [20000 * 4 + 25000 * 8] : [(15000 + X) * 12] : Last 6 days: (m+40) men, (w-c+10) women. Wages =
[(30000 + X) * 8] 6*((m+40)*4x + (w-c+10)*2x)
= > [80000 + 200000] : [180000 + 12X] : [240000 + 8X] By data, wages remain same
= > [280000] : [180000 + 12X] : [240000 + 8X] 160mx + 80wx + 40cx = 160mx + 960x + 80wx – 60cx +
Given, 4cx -12cx + 120x
= > (280000) / (240000 + 8X) = (7/8) 108cx = 1080x
Page 68 of 83
c = 10 Man’s wage = 4x = 4*125 = 500

So, their parents 10 women left the work after 4 days. Hence either Statement I and II or statement III
alone is sufficient to answer the
67) Answer: d) question.
From the paragraph, total work = 40*(m*4x + w*2x +
10*x) = 40x*(4m + 2w +10) Directions (69 - 71):
The total work is finished by 2w women in 70 days, 69) Answer: B
40x*(4m + 2w + 10) = 70*2w*2x Quantity I:
4m + 2w + 10 = 7w The share of P, Q and R,
4m + 10 = 5w = > [15000 * 4 + 20000 * 8]: [25000 * 12]: [30000 * 6 +
Option A: 15 and 10 20000 * 6]
4m + 10 = 4*15 + 10 = 70 is not equal to 5w = > [60000 + 160000]: [300000]: [180000 + 120000]
Option B: 60 and 50 = > 220000: 300000: 300000
4m + 10 = 4*60 + 10 = 250 is equal to 5w = > 11: 15: 15
Option C: 50 and 40 Total profit = 41’s = Rs. 61500
4m + 10 = 4*50 + 10 = 210 is not equal to 5w 1’s = 1500
Option D: 35 and 30 The share of P = 11’s = Rs. 16500
4m + 10 = 4*35 + 10 = 150 is equal to 5w Quantity II:
Hence option B and D satisfies the given problem. SI = PNR/100
7200 = (P * 8 * 5)/100
68) Answer: e) P = (7200 * 100)/40 = Rs. 18000
Statement I: Quantity III:
Total number of workers = 120 Let the monthly salary of Prathi be x,
m + w + c = 120 x * (65/100) * (40/100) = 6500
c = 10 x = 6500 * (100/65) * (100/40)
m + w = 110 x = 25000
Statement II: The monthly salary of Prathi = Rs. 25000
m : w = 6:5 Hence, Quantity I < Quantity II < Quantity III
Combining both statements, m = 60 w = 50 Answer is (B), (B)
Total estimated cost = 2187500
Profit to owner = (20/100)*2187500 = 437500 70) Answer: a)
Total wages = 1750000 Quantity I:
One day wage = 1750000/40 = 43750 Let the total distance be x,
60*4x + 50*2x + 10*x = 43750 According to the question,
350x = 43750 T = D/S
x = 125 (x/3)/40 + (2x/5)/24 + (4x/15)/60 = 7 (4/60)
One man wage = 4*125 = 500 (x/120) + (x/60) + (x/225) = 106/15
Hence, only statement I and II are necessary to answer (15x + 30x + 8x) / 1800 = (106 / 15)
the question. (53x / 1800) = (106 / 15)
Statement III: x = 240 km
Women’s wage = child’s wage + 125 Quantity II:
2x = x + 125 Let the distance be x km,
x = 125 x / (16 - 4) – x / (16 + 4) = 8
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x / 12 – x / 20 = 8 First person = x * (1/4) = x/4

8x / (12 * 20) = 8 Remaining amount = x – (x/4) = 3x/4
x = 240 km Now, Ruban found 2nd helpless person and give,
Quantity III: Second person = (3x/4) * (1/4) = 3x/16
200 km First person = 3x/16
Hence, Quantity I = Quantity II > Quantity III Remaining amount = (3x/4) – 2 * (3x/16) = 3x/8
Answer is (C), (A) Again, Ruban found 3rd helpless person and give,
Third person = (3x/8) * (1/5) = 3x/40
71) Answer: b) And, Second person = 3x/40
Quantity I: And, First person = 3x/40
24 years Remaining amount = (3x/8) – [3 * (3x/40)] = 3x/20
Quantity II: Finally, Ruban found 4th helpless person and give,
4 years ago, the age of P and Q is in the ratio = 1 : 2 (x, Fourth person = (3x/20) * (1/4) = 3x/80
2x) And, Third person = 3x/80
5 years after, the age of P and the age of Q, 6 years ago is And, Second person = 3x/80
in the ratio = 5 : 6 And, First person = 3x/80
Given,
= > (x + 4 + 5) / (2x + 4 – 6) = (5/6) 72) Answer: d)
= > (x + 9) / (2x – 2) = (5/6) The first helpless person got the amount
= > 6x + 54 = 10x – 10 = > (x/4) + (3x/16) + (3x/40) + (3x/80)
= > 4x = 64 = > (20x + 15x + 6x + 3x) / 80
= > x = 16 = > 44x/80
The age of P, after 4 years = x + 8 = 24 years The fourth helpless person got the amount
Quantity III: = > 3x/80
The product of present age of A and B is 288 years and B Required ratio = (44x/80) : (3x/80) = 44 : 3
is 2 years elder than A. Then find the age of B, after 12
years? 73) Answer: a)
The product of present age of A and B = 288 years The second helpless person got the amount
A * B = 288 = > (3x/16) + (3x/40) + (3x/80)
B=A+2 = > (15x + 6x + 3x)/80
Given, = > 24x/80
(B – 2) * B = 288 The third helpless person got the amount
B2 – 2B – 288 = 0 = > (3x/40) + (3x/80)
(B – 16) (B – 18) = 0 = > 9x/80
B = 16, 18 Given,
B is elder than A. So, the present age of B = 18 years = > (24x/80) – (9x/80) = 450
The age of B, after 12 years = 18 + 12 = 30 years = > (15x/80) = 450
Hence, Quantity I = Quantity II < Quantity III = > x = 2400
Answer is (C), (B) The first helpless person got the amount
= > (x/4) + (3x/16) + (3x/40) + (3x/80)
Directions (72 – 76): = > (20x + 15x + 6x + 3x) / 80
Let the total amount be x, = > 44x/80
Ruban found 1st helpless person and give, = > (44/80) * 2400 = Rs. 1320
Page 70 of 83
77) Answer: d)
74) Answer: c) A is split into x and 15x. A = 16x.
The first helpless person got the amount Investment of Hari = x
= > (x/4) + (3x/16) + (3x/40) + (3x/80) Investment of Ramesh = 4x/3
= > (20x + 15x + 6x + 3x) / 80 Investment of Nishanth = 2x
= > 44x/80 Quarterly interest = 15x*(3/12)*(40/4)/100 = 3x/8
The fourth helpless person got the amount So Hari invested 3x/8 after 3, 6 and 9 months.
= > 3x/80 Hari’s share = x*12 + ((3x/8)*9) + ((3x/8)*6) +
Given, ((3x/8)*3) = 12x + (3x/8)*(9 + 6 + 3) = 12x + (3x/8)*18
= > (80/100) * (44x/80) + (3x/80) * (20/100) = 1074 = 12x + (27x/4) = 75x/4
= > (44x/100) + (3x/400) = 1074 Ramesh share = (4x/3)*12 = 16x
= > (179x/400) = 1074 Nishanth share = 2x*12 = 24x
= > x = 1074 * (400/179) = 2400 Ratio = 75:64:96
The second helpless person got the amount Hari’s share in profit = 75/(75 + 64 + 96) = 75/235
= > (3x/16) + (3x/40) + (3x/80) Hari’s profit = B = (75/235)*470000 = 150000
= > (15x + 6x + 3x)/80 Compound interest = 150000*[1+(10/100)]2 – 150000 =
= > 24x/80 150000*121/100 – 150000 = 31500
Required answer = (24/80) * 2400 * (50/100) = Rs. 360
78) Answer: c)
75) Answer: b) Hari’s profit = 150000
The amount got by fourth helpless person Processing fee = 52980
= > 3x/80 Cost for rods = 97080
The amount got by second helpless person n * (22/7)*21*21*7*(50/100) = 97080
= > (3x/16) + (3x/40) + (3x/80) n * 11*21*21 = 97020
= > (15x + 6x + 3x)/80 n = 20
= > 24x/80 Since melted and converted, volume will be same
Required % = [(3x/80) / (24x/80)] * 100 = 12.5 % 20*(22/7)*21*21*7 = m*(2/3)*(22/7)*4.2*4.2*4.2
m = 1250
76) Answer: d) Length of bus = (30/100)*20 = 6; Length of train =
The fourth helpless person got = Rs. 90 (30/100)*1250 = 375
Given, Crossed in opposite directions in 3 seconds
(3x/80) = 90 Sum of speed of bus and train = (6 + 375)/3 = 381/3 =
x = 90 * (80/3) = Rs. 2400 127
The first helpless person got the amount Let T and B be the speeds of train and bus respectively.
= > (x/4) + (3x/16) + (3x/40) + (3x/80) T + B = 127
= > (20x + 15x + 6x + 3x) / 80 T – B = 33
= > 44x/80 = (44/80) * 2400 = Rs. 1320 Subtracting, 2B = 94
The third helpless person got the amount B = 47m/sec
= > (3x/40) + (3x/80)
= > 9x/80 = (9/80) * 2400 = Rs. 270 79) Answer: e)
Required difference = 1320 – 270 = Rs. 1050 Total amount = 150000
12% profit, selling price of all balls = 150000*1.12 =
Directions (77 - 80): 168000
Page 71 of 83
Selling price of 1 ball = 168000/1250 = 134.4 Difference between the investments of Nishanth and
Cost price of one ball = 150000/1250 = 120 Ramesh = 8000
Selling price of one ball for 20% profit = 120*1.2 = 144 2x – (4x/3) = 8000
2x/3 = 8000
80) Answer: a) x = 12000
A = 16x; A = 16x = 16*12000 = 192000
English Language
Answers:
81. Answer: A
Option A) is correct; ‘commotion’ is the suitable synonym of the given word.
Option B) is incorrect; ‘docility’ is antonym of the word.
Option C) is incorrect; ‘frigidity’ means indifference.
Option D) is incorrect; ‘wintriness’ is antonym of the word.
82. Answer: A
Option A) is correct; ‘propriety’ is the suitable synonym of the given word.
Option B) is incorrect; ‘crudeness’ is antonym of the word.
Option C) is incorrect; ‘disagreement’ is antonym of the word.
Option D) is incorrect; ‘diatribe’ means denunciation.
83. Answer: A
Option A) is correct; ‘implication’ is the suitable synonym of the given word.
Option B) is incorrect; ‘panegyric’ means eulogy.
Option C) is incorrect; ‘encomium’ means tribute.
Option D) is incorrect; ‘determinant’ is antonym of the word.
84. Answer: D
Option A) is incorrect; ‘ordinance’ means command.
Page 72 of 83
Option B) is incorrect; ‘principle’ is synonym of the given word.

Option C) is incorrect; ‘dictum’ is synonym of the given word.
Option D) is correct; ‘anarchy’ is the suitable antonym of the given word.
85. Answer: D
Option A) is incorrect; ‘circumspect’ is synonym of the given word.
Option B) is incorrect; ‘prudent’ is synonym of the given word.
Option C) is incorrect; ‘judicious’ means sensible.
Option D) is correct; ‘reckless’ is the suitable antonym of the given word.
86. Answer: D
Option A) is incorrect; ‘perpetual’ means eternal.
Option B) is incorrect; ‘persistent’ is synonym of the given word
Option C) is incorrect; ‘durable’ is synonym of the given word
Option D) is correct; ‘ephemeral’ is the suitable antonym of the given word.
87. Answer: C
Statement II is incorrect. The recent meeting of Narendra Modi and Donald Trump was in Osaka during the G-20
summit.
88. Answer: A
Option A is the correct choice.
Only Statement III is incorrect. Any rushed measures by Trump to force a
resolution in Afghanistan will have far-reaching and lasting impact, including on India.
89. Answer: C
Part C in the erroneous part of the statement. ‘Enhancement’ is a noun, so replace it with a verb ‘enhancing’ to make
it grammatically correct.
90. Answer: A
Option A) is correct option since it rightfully depicts the central idea of the passage.
Option B) is incorrect option; since it is unrelated to the passage.
Option C) is incorrect option; since Trump’s pullout from Afghanistan is not what the passage talks about as the
central theme.
Option D) is incorrect option since the passage is not related to Trade war.
91. Answer: E
A) Parliament is set to pass a law to regulate the use of DNA technology. Since the DNA of a person is unique, it can
be used to accurately identify a person’s identity.
B) Globally, DNA technology is used to help enforcement agencies identify both perpetrators and victims in criminal
cases.
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D) In medicine, DNA is used to identify the susceptibility of a person to diseases such as cancer and Alzheimer’s.
C) In civilian life, DNA can be used to establish parentage of children or sibling relationships.
F) However, the use of DNA technology also raises major concerns relating to consent (i.e. the right to refuse to
provide a bodily substance), privacy and data security.
E) Hence, countries the world over have felt the need to strictly regulate the use of DNA. One hopes that the new law
would fill a major gap, as the use of DNA technology in India has been left unregulated.
92. Answer: B
A) In a nation of billion-plus people with woefully inadequate access to healthcare and an acute shortage of qualified
doctors, getting a seat at a medical college is often seen as a sure-fire way to prosperity.
D) Owners of private medical colleges have for years sought to exploit this heavy demand by charging exorbitant
fees, often with the blessings of the Medical Council of India (MCI).
E) The Council, the country’s regulator for medical education and practice, has been accused of corruption in
granting recognition to medical colleges.
B) All this would change, or so the government hopes, once the National Medical Commission (NMC) Bill,
introduced on Monday in the Lok Sabha, replaces the 63-year-old MCI with a new oversight body.
C) The bill seeks to establish uniform standards for medical education by proposing that the final year of MBBS
exam be treated as an entrance test for post-graduate courses and a screening test for those who obtained a degree in
medicine from abroad.
F) This exam will be called the National Exit Test (NEXT). While some medical professionals have raised concerns
over a possible dilution of standards this way, students at large appear to have welcomed the shift.
93. Answer: D
A) Perhaps the stand-out provision of the bill is its intent to cap fees on 50% of seats in MBBS and PG courses at
private medical colleges.
E) This seems to be a good interim measure, given the state-created squeeze on seat supply.
F) However, price caps should not get institutionalized as a matter of policy.
D) What the government needs to do is set up a large number of new medical colleges.
B) Simultaneously, it must allow private players, as many as possible, to set up colleges with permits granted in an
open and transparent manner.
C) An increase in the number of seats, along with scrupulous regulation, would do a better job of solving the sector’s
problems than price caps, which are inherently arbitrary and could distort the dynamics of medical education in the
long term.
94. Answer: A
A) 2015 was a landmark year for climate action.
F) In September of that year, the international community adopted the comprehensive Sustainable Development
Goals at UNGA.
E) In December, 197 countries signed the Paris Agreement on climate change.
D) Even as the fault-lines of international politics played out during the negotiations of these two historic summits,
Page 74 of 83
one thing remained clear—the government of India led by Prime Minister Modi is a global leader in the fight against
climate change.
C) In fact, India’s global leadership on climate action predates the adoption of the 2030 development agenda.
B) In May 2014, when Prime Minister Modi took office, he stated unambiguously that India’s development trajectory
will be green.
95. Answer: B
A) Prime Minister Imran Khan was accompanied by Pakistan’s Army Chief, General Qamar JavedBajwa, when he
went to the United States on July 20 to meet President Donald Trump at his invitation.
D) The general had to accompany him and take part in the discussions to “legitimise” them. (The widely held view is
that the army really rules Pakistan.)
E) The meeting went unexpectedly well as both leaders abandoned their well-known loose-tongued aggression and
agreed on getting together on Afghanistan to help the United States get out of that country.
B) It was clear that Washington believed that Pakistan could get the Afghan Taliban to settle with the Ashraf Ghani
government in Kabul while controlling half of Afghanistan. Its unblocking of $1.2 billion aid to Pakistan clearly
signalled this optimism.
C) The Pakistan-US thaw was coming, mainly because Pakistan, driven into a corner, was willing to change its
policy.
F) Clearly, Trump softened after Pakistan submitted to the fiat of the Forward Action Task Force (FATF) to clean up
its act of proxy war and arrested its non-state actors bothering India across the Line of Control in Kashmir.
96. Answer: B
The Russian defence ministry says four bombers, supported by fighter jets, patrolled a pre-planned route over the Sea
of Japan and the East China Sea. South Korea says its jets fired flares and machine-gun warning shots when Russian
planes intruded. Japan has protested both to Russia and South Korea over the incident. The alleged incursion
happened over the disputed Dokdo/Takeshima islands, which are occupied by South Korea but also claimed by
Japan. South Korea says Russian and Chinese planes entered the Korea Air Defence Identification Zone (KADIZ) on
Tuesday morning - and that a separate A-50 Russian warplane twice violated its airspace near the islands. Russia
denies the accusation. Russian and Chinese bombers and reconnaissance planes have occasionally entered the zone in
recent years, but this is the first incident of its kind between Russia and South Korea.
97. Answer: D
Mr Johnson has the immediate task of guiding the UK out of the EU ahead of a 31 October deadline. He says he
wants to renegotiate an agreement with the EU, ditching large parts of the deal outgoing PM Theresa May struck last
year. But EU leaders have said the withdrawal agreement is not up for renegotiation. The European Commission's
newly elected President, Ursula von der Leyen, has however said she is willing to grant the UK another
extension to Brexit talks, if London comes up with good reasons. Congratulating Mr Johnson, Mrs von der Leyen
said: "There are many different and difficult topics to tackle together. There are challenging times ahead of us. I think
it is very important to build up a strong and a good working relation because we have the duty to deliver something
that is good for people in Europe and in the United Kingdom." The EU's Brexit negotiator, Michel Barnier, is due to
Page 75 of 83
meet MEPs on the European Parliament's Brexit Steering Group in an extraordinary meeting on Wednesday to
respond to Mr Johnson's election.
98. Answer: A
On Tuesday, Meteo France registered 41.2C (106.1F) in the south-western city, breaking a 2003 record of 40.7C.
Forecasters predict a record-breaking run across Europe this week, including Belgium, Germany and the Netherlands.
A World Meteorological Organization spokeswoman said the heatwaves bore "the hallmark of climate change". "As
we saw in June they are becoming more frequent, they're starting earlier and they're becoming more intense,"
Claire Nullis added. "It's not a problem that's going to go away."
99. Answer: C
He said last week's court injunction could damage ties with the US. This comes after US President Donald Trump
threatened to impose tariffs on Guatemalan goods. The deal with the US would define Guatemala as a "safe third
country", and migrants en route to the US would have to apply for asylum in Guatemala. Guatemala, as well as its
southern neighbours, El Salvador and Honduras,have all been struggling to curb the flow of people leaving for the
United States. The case of a Salvadorean migrant who drowned alongside his daughter trying to cross the Rio
Grande on the US-Mexican border prompted El Salvador's president to say his country had to do more to fix the
problems forcing people to leave.
100. Answer: D
The DoJ did not name any firms, but companies such as Facebook, Google, Amazon and Apple are likely to be
scrutinized in the wide-ranging probe. It was sparked by "widespread concerns" about "search, social media, and
some retail services online," the DoJ said. It marks the latest scrutiny of tech firms' power over the US economy.
The US Federal Trade Commission is already looking into similar concerns, while there are also investigations taking
place in the European Union. Last month, the Justice Department was reported to be preparing an investigation of
Google to determine whether the search engine giant had broken anti-trust law. The US Department of Justice said its
anti-trust review would consider "whether and how market-leading online platforms have achieved market power and
are engaging in practices that have reduced competition, stifled innovation or otherwise harmed consumers".
101. Answer: C
From the given options only B-D, C-F is matched and make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after
matching will be
(B-D): As part of the Finance Bill introduced in Parliament, the Centre had proposed amendments to the Securities
and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 that were seen as affecting SEBI’s financial autonomy.
(C-F):To be specific, the amendments required that after 25% of its surplus cash in any year is transferred to its
reserve fund, SEBI will have to transfer the remaining 75% to the government.
Option A: (A-D, B-E) is incorrect because it does not make any meaningful sentence.
Option B: (B-F, C-D) is incorrect because it does not make any meaningful sentence.
Option D: (A-F, B-E) is incorrect because it does not make any meaningful sentence.
102. Answer: A
Page 76 of 83
From the given options only A-D, B-F is matched and make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after
matching will be
(A-D): Ever since President Omar al-Bashir’s fall in April amid anti-regime protests, the military leaders who seized
power and the protesters have been on a confrontational path.
(B-F): This, along with pressure from the African Union and foreign countries, appears to have convinced the
generals they could not anymore amass absolute power, as they did under Mr. Bashir’s three-decade-long rule.
Option B: (B-E, C-D) is incorrect because it does not make any meaningful sentence.
Option C: (A-E, C-F) is incorrect because it does not make any meaningful sentence.
Option D: (A-F, B-D) is incorrect because it does not make any meaningful sentence.
103. Answer: D
From the given options only A-F, B-D is matched and make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after
matching will be
(A-F): But it was a popular opinion strongly held by most RTI activists that a demand for progressive amendments
could be used as a smokescreen by the establishment to usher in regressive changes.
(B-D): The proposed amendments tabled in Parliament on July 19, 2019 have been in the offing for some time now.
In the form of the Right to Information (Amendment) Bill, 2019, they seek to amend Sections 13, 16, and 27 of the
RTI Act which carefully links, and thereby equates, the status of the Central Information Commissioners (CICs) with
the Election Commissioners and the State Information Commissioners with the Chief Secretary in the States, so that
they can function in an independent and effective manner.
Option C: (B-E, C-F) is incorrect because it does not make any meaningful sentence.
104. Answer: B
From the given options only B-F, C-D is matched and make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after
matching will be
(B-F): The Bombay High Court last month handed down a judgment upholding the validity of Section 376E of the
Indian Penal Code,which authorises the award of either a life sentence or the death penalty to perpetrators upon a
second rape conviction.
(C-D): Subsequent judgments of larger benches — such as in the Modern Dental College case and the Aadhaar case
— have made it clear that where the question of rights violations is concerned, the proportionality test has to be more
detailed, and has four prongs: first, there must be a legitimate state aim being pursued by the provision; second, there
needs to be a rational nexus between the impugned provision and the aim.
Option C: (B-E, C-F) is incorrect because it does not make any meaningful sentence.
105. Answer: C
From the given options only B-E, C-F is matched and make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after
matching will be
Page 77 of 83
(B-E): China reacted furiously on Monday to anti-government protesters vandalising the walls of its representative’s
office in Hong Kong and defacing the national emblem, branding their actions “absolutely intolerable”.
(C-F): Thousands of masked pro-democracy demonstrators briefly occupied the road outside the office in the semi-
autonomous city on Sunday and targeted the building with eggs, projectiles, laser lights and graffiti in a stark rebuke
to Beijing’s rule.
Option A: (A-D, B-F) is incorrect because it does not make any meaningful sentence.
106. Answer: B
Such educationists also seem to be losing sight of the fundamental nature of public policymaking—always an
exercise in negotiation and balance between contending perspectives.
107. Answer: C
"Special moments that will be etched in the annals of our glorious history! The launch of #Chandrayaan2 illustrates
the prowess of our scientists and the determination of 130 crore Indians to scale new frontiers of science. Every
Indian is immensely proud today!" he tweeted.
108. Answer: A
President Donald Trump voiced optimism on Monday that Pakistani Prime Minister Imran Khan could help broker a
political settlement to end the nearly 18-year-old U.S. war in Afghanistan and held out the possibility of restoring aid
to Islamabad.
109. Answer: B
Palestinian leaders slammed the demolitions in the Sur Baher area which straddles the occupied West Bank and
Jerusalem, but Israel defended them as essential to its security and stressed they had been approved by its Supreme
Court.
110. Answer: D
India’s luxury car market will grow fourfold if the government is willing to rework the existing tax regime to make it
feasible and reasonable, said Jaguar Land Rover India Ltd. (JLRIL), the Indian subsidiary of British auto major,
Jaguar Land Rover.
Directions (111-115):
111. Answer: B
112. Answer: A
113. Answer: E
114. Answer: C
115. Answer: D
The correct sequence is EDCAFB

Page 78 of 83
E. Fuel prices have gone up across the country after Budget 2019 levied a cess of ₹1 per litre and an equal amount of
excise duty on petrol and diesel.
D. Typically, when fuel prices rise, so does inflation, which not only makes goods and services expensive but also
eats into investment returns.
C. Higher the inflation, lower will be your real or inflation-adjusted returns.
A. India’s retail inflation marginally accelerated to 3.18% in June from 3.05% a month ago.
F. So should you be worried that it will increase further once the impact of fuel price rise plays out?
B. You shouldn’t, say experts, as the current fuel price rise won’t lead to a huge increase in inflation.
E will be the first sentence which establishes the introduction of the sentence describing that petrol and diesel prices
increased after Budget 2019
D will be the second sentence which describes that with increase in petrol price, which increases inflation and which
there by also eats into investment returns
C the third sentence is fixed according to the question which describes if the inflation increases then it will lower
your real inflation- adjusted returns
A will be fourth sentence which gives details about retail Inflation of India how much percentage it marginally
accelerated in June when compared with a month ago
F will be the fifth sentence which rises doubt that would you be worried that with increase in fuel prices inflation will
further increase?
B will be the last sentence which gives answer to your doubt that you no need to worry as experts says that increased fuel
prices won't lead a huge increase in inflation
General Awareness:
Answers: AVGC) and insurance sectors in consultation with all
116) Answer: D stakeholders.
To make India a more attractive FDI destination, b) 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) will be
following measures have been proposed in Union budget permitted for insurance intermediaries.
2019-20: c) Local sourcing norms will be eased for FDI in Single
a) The Government will examine suggestions of further Brand Retail sector.
opening up of FDI in aviation, media (animation,
Page 79 of 83
117) Answer: A She scored 669 runs at an average of 66.90 in 12 ODIs

The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) increased the and 622 runs at a strike-rate of 130.67 in 25 T20Is during
monetary limit for an appeal before the Income Tax the voting period, which ran from 1 January to 31
Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) to Rs. 50 lakh from Rs 20 December 2018.
lakh, to reduce litigation.
123) Answer: A
118) Answer: B Ambati Rayudu announced his retirement from all forms
Kerala became the first state to tap into masala bond of cricket. Rayudu made his Ranji Trophy debut in 2002.
market by listing the Kerala Infrastructure Investment Rayudu played 55 ODIs and scored 1,694 runs with three
Fund Board (KIIFB)’s masala bond worth of USD 312 centuries and 10 fifties at 47.05. He also played six
million (Rs 2,150 Crore) in London Stock Exchange’s T20Is, scoring 42 runs.
International Securities Market.
124) Answer: B
119) Answer: C New Zealand topped the list of 190 countries in ease of
Ajey Nagar is named among the Top 10 ‘Next doing business, followed by Singapore, Denmark, and
Generation Leaders 2019’ by Time Magazine. He runs a Hong Kong. It provides objective measures of business
youtube channel named Carry Minati which has 6.8 regulations and their enforcement across economies on
million subscribers. The ‘Next Generation Leaders’ is a ten parameters affecting a business through its life cycle.
list of 10 young people around the world who create new These parameters include ease of starting a business,
paths in politics, music and other sphere. construction permits, getting electricity, getting credit,
paying taxes, trade across borders, enforcing contracts
120) Answer: A and resolving insolvency.
‘Druzhba-III’, the 3rd edition of joint bilateral military India was ranked at 77th place.
training exercise between Pakistan and Russia is recently
held in Pakistan. 125) Answer: E
Wirecard, the global innovation leader in digital financial
121) Answer: C technology, recently announced an expanded partnership
National Stock Exchange of India launched a mobile with RBL Bank to promote financial inclusion in India.
application and web-based platform for retail investors to This partnership will make digital payment and banking
buy government securities. The new app - NSE goBID, transactions more readily accessible to all Indian
was launched by SEBI chairman Ajay Tyagi. The citizens, including those living in remote areas. In
platform will allow retail investors to invest in treasury partnership with RBL, Wirecard will empower its retail
bills (T-Bills) of 91 days, 182 days and 364 days and agents, who serve as customer service representatives in
various government bonds from one year to almost 40 various areas across the country, to enable the financially
years. under-served to access basic payment and banking
services. These include cash withdrawals and deposits as
122) Answer: C well as balance enquiries.
22 year old left-handed opener Smriti Mandhana won the
Rachael Heyhoe Flint Award for the ICC Women's 126) Answer: C
Cricketer of the Year and also been named as the ICC YES Bank has acquired a 9.47 % stake in dry cell battery
Women's ODI Player of the Year by the International maker, Eveready Industries India by invoking shares
Cricket Council. pledged by McLeod Russel.
Page 80 of 83
127) Answer: D The timeline for conversion of minimum detail PPIs to

Facebook recently announced its first interactive game KYC compliant PPIs has been extended from 18 months
show, titled "Confetti" in India. Starting June 12, the to 24 months. All Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs)
interactive show will air from Wednesday to Sunday on shall have a minimum validity period of one year from
Facebook's dedicated video platform - Facebook Watch. the date of last loading/reloading in the PPI. PPI issuers
are, however, free to issue PPIs with a longer validity.
128) Answer: E Issuers shall clearly indicate the expiry period of the PPI
The book titled “Big Billion Startup: The Untold Flipkart to the customer at the time of issuance of PPIs.
Story” recounting the story of how Binny Bansal and
Sachin Bansal (both-former founders of Flipkart) built e- 133) Answer: B
commerce giant Flipkart is published by “Pan Macmillan Dr. Hema Divakar got the ‘Global Asian of the Year
India”. The book has been written by Mihir Dalal. 2018-19’ Award for her yeomen services and
contribution towards Women’s Healthcare Ecosystem.
129) Answer: B
Deputy Chief Minister of Rajasthan, Sachin Pilot stated 134) Answer: D
that Rajasthan is the 1st state in the country that released Karnataka Bank has tied up with fintech company
biofuel rules-2019 with the vision to promote the use of Finwizard Technology Pvt Ltd (widely known as
biofuels. He introduced the biofuel rules-2019 at a state “fisdom”) to offer wealth management products and
level function on the eve of the World Biofuel Day services, beginning with mutual funds (MFs), through its
(August 10, 2019). ‘KBL Mobile Plus’ application.
130) Answer: B 135) Answer: C

The 5th edition of Aqua Aquaria India 2019 was held at Prime Minister of India, Shri Narendra Modi has
Hitex International Convention & Exhibition Centre, launched National Animal Disease Control Programme
Hyderabad, Telangana with the theme “To take Blue (NADCP) in Mathura, Uttar Pradesh in the presence of
Revolution to India’s hinterland”. It was inaugurated by Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath and
the Vice President of India, Shri M. Venkaiah Naidu. Mathura MP, Hema Malini. NADCP aims to control the
The 3-day biennial event was organized by the Marine Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) and Brucellosis in the
Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA) livestock by 2025 and eradicate them by 2030.
under the Commerce Ministry. It is the largest
aquaculture exhibition in India. 136) Answer: B
A committee headed by Dr. Kasturirangan submitted
131) Answer: C draft national education policy 2019 to Union Human
The Department of Administrative Reforms & Public Resource Development Minister, Shri Ramesh Pokhriyal
Grievances (DARPG), in association with Ministry of ‘Nishank’ and Minister of State for HRD, Shri Sanjay
Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY), and the ShamraoDhotre in New Delhi to rename Minister of
State Government of Meghalaya organised the Human Resource Development to Minister of education.
22ndNational Conference on e-Governance (NCeG)
2019 on 8-9thAugust, 2019 at Shillong, Meghalaya. The 137) Answer: B
theme of this Conference was “Digital India: Success to On September 10, 2019, Indian Air Force (IAF) chief Air
Excellence”. Chief Marshal Birender Singh Dhanoa restored Air Force
Station (AFS) Ambala-based 17th Squadron ‘Golden
132) Answer: B Arrows’ which will be committed to operate India-
Page 81 of 83
Pakistan frontier. It will be the first unit to operate the Dhyan Chand was associated with Hockey. National
newly-acquired Rafale aircraft. He also presented a Sports Day is celebrated on 29th August in various
memento to Station Commander Group Captain Harkirat educational institutes and sports academics. This day is
Singh to commemorate the occasion. marked by celebrations by organizing various kinds of
sports events and other programs aimed at encouraging
138) Answer: A the popularity of sports in the country.
As per the report published in the Lancet journal, India
has been ranked fourth in Global Malaria Cases in 2017. 144) Answer: E
India has 4% of the cases worldwide behind the African A commentator & cricket statistician Vijayan Bala has
countries Nigeria, Democratic Republic of Congo and authored the book "Indian Sports: Conversations and
Mozambique. In 2017, there were 10 million malaria Reflections". It is a compilation of interviews of eminent
cases in India out of the 219 million cases of malaria sportspersons he has conducted since 1971. His books
worldwide. India, eastern Indonesia, and Papua New are Indian Test Cricket back in 1974, The Complete
Guinea will struggle to eliminate malaria by 2030 based Indian Sports Quiz.
on current trajectories.
145) Answer: C
139) Answer: D Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of
India successfully test-fired its first indigenously Assam. It has recently reopened for tourists. Amchang
designed and developed long-range sub-sonic cruise Wildlife Sanctuary, Chakrashila Wildlife Sanctuary,
missile 'Nirbhay' from a test range in Odisha. Dihing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary, East Karbi Anglong
Wildlife Sanctuary, North Karbi Anglong Wildlife
140) Answer: A Sanctuary, Nambor Wildlife Sanctuary are also located
Two-time Olympic gold medal winning Hockey Player in Assam.
Keshav Dutt and former India Football Captain Prasun
Banerjee are selected for Mohun Bagan Ratna Award 146) Answer: D
2019. Footballer Ashok Chatterjee will get the Lifetime LAF is a facility extended by RBI to the scheduled
Achievement Award. commercial banks (excluding RRBs) to avail of liquidity
in case of requirement or park excess funds with RBI in
141) Answer: D case of excess liquidity on an overnight basis against the
The currency of Aruba is Florin. collateral of G-Secs. Basically, LAF enables liquidity
Cambodia - Riel management on a day to day basis. The operations of
Colombia - Peso LAF are conducted by way of repurchase agreements
Eritrea - Nakfa (repos and reverse repos).
Georgia – Lari
147) Answer: C
142) Answer: A The authorized capital DIGGC is 50 crores, which is
Cambodia is not a member of BIMSTEC. Bay of Bengal fully issued and subscribed by the Reserve Bank of India
Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic (RBI).
Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a group of countries in South DICGC is one of the subsidiaries of the Reserve Bank of
Asia and South East Asia. These are: Bangladesh, India, India. It aims to provide insurance for deposits and to
Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Bhutan and Nepal. guarantee credit facilities to the customers of banks. The
role of DICGC helps establish trust in the banking
143) Answer: C function amongst customers and depositors in India.
Page 82 of 83
Lavani- Maharashtra
148) Answer: D Mahasu - Himachal Pradesh
On 28th September 2018, International Day for
Universal Access to Information was observed all over 152) Answer: B
the world. Since 2016, United Nations Educational, Kankaria lake - Ahmedabad, Gujarat.
Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) marks Kolleru lake - Andhra Pradesh
28 September as the International Day for Universal Kanwar lake- Bihar
Access to Information. Prashar lake - Himachal Pradesh
Wular lake - Jammu & Kashmir
149) Answer: C
The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) on opened a vital 153) Answer: D
35-meter bridge in Ladakh region of Jammu and “Brazzaville” is the capital and “CFA franc” is the
Kashmir that will ease vehicular movement to the base currency of African country “Congo”.
camp of Siachen Glacier, the world's highest battlefield. Zimbabwe - Harare
The 35-meter long 'Chamesahn' bridge is under Project Brazil - Brasilia
HIMANK. The BRO develops road networks in border Argentina - Buenos Aires
areas & maintains over 32,885 km of roads & 12,200 m Uruguay – Montevideo
of bridges
154) Answer: D
150) Answer: D The famous Indra Jatra festival is celebrated in
The Buxa Tiger Reserve is located inside the Buxa Kathmandu, Nepal.
National Park in West Bengal.
155) Answer: A
151) Answer: D
Grida dance is prominent folk dance of Madhya Pradesh. Francis Gurry is an Australian national and the fourth
Garhwali- Uttarakhand and current Director General of the World Intellectual
Raslila - Uttar Pradesh Property Organization headquarters at Geneva,
Switzerland.
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10) If ‘S’ is added before each 5-letter words

46) Series I: 5, 8, 38, 230, 1673, 15156

58) A and B started a business with investment

59) Boat A takes (T-1) hours to cover a distance

Items Profit (In Rs.) Discount (In Rs.)

Directions (63 – 65): Data Interpretation

Manvi Moni Mahila

D) (66 - 68) - Caselet A construction company has ‘m’ men, ‘w’

Reading Comprehension outstanding issues with Pakistan only bilaterally,

Match the Column

C) To B. You shouldn’t, say experts, as the current fuel price

116. As per Union budget 2019-20, Foreign Direct d) NSE web-app

e) ICICI Bank 132. The timeline for conversion of minimum detail

a) Rajnath Singh e) Kabaddi

Answer Key with Detailed Solution

From the above multiplication process; we can conclude the following:

In Case (2a), we get (B54 x 3 = 462). So we can conclude the value of B as 1.

So, by multiplying 154 x 236; we can find the value of P, Q and Z.

SHEART, SPARTY, SGRACE, SCLEAR, STRAIN

13) Answer: C TW = (6 + 12) = 18m

We have: Hence, option B is correct choice.

18) Answer: B (Directions 23–25):

Given conclusion: Some DOO are ZOO. All KOO can

Given conclusion: Some DOO are ZOO. All DOO can

Given conclusion: Some DOO are ZOO. All POO can be

Given conclusion: Some Steel are Silver. Some Wood

2) The difference of first and last digit is greater than 6.

Hence Ajay account number is ‘2234884289’

Step I: In this step following logic is applied:

Clearly, result in step I can be obtained by difference of product of digits.

Clearly, result in step II can be determined by difference of results in above diagram.

Clearly, result in step III can be determined by difference of results.

Clearly, result in step IV can be determined by difference of results.

43) Answer: D 45) Answer: A

Marked price = 900 + 75 = Rs. 975 = > 320000 = 240000 + 8X

c = 10 Man’s wage = 4x = 4*125 = 500

x / 12 – x / 20 = 8 First person = x * (1/4) = x/4

Option B) is incorrect; ‘principle’ is synonym of the given word.

The correct sequence is EDCAFB

117) Answer: A She scored 669 runs at an average of 66.90 in 12 ODIs

127) Answer: D The timeline for conversion of minimum detail PPIs to

130) Answer: B 135) Answer: C

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