Answers & Solutions: For For For For For NEET (UG) - 2021

DATE : 12/09/2021 Test Booklet Code
M1
GAJAHA
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Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720
for
NEET (UG) - 2021
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-M1)
PHYSICS
Sol. Let Fv be the viscous force and FB be the Bouyant

SECTION - A
force acting on the ball.
1. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and Fv FB
R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface
charge densities of the spheres (1/2) is
v = constant
R1 R2
(1) R (2) R
2 1
Mg
 R1  R12
(3) R  (4) Then, when body moves with constant velocity
 2 R22
Mg = FB + Fv [a = 0]
Answer (2)
Fv = Mg – FB
Conducting
wire d
 dVg   Vg (M = dVg) V = volume of ball.
Sol.
R1 R2
2
d
 Vg
2
When two conductors are connected by a conducting
M
wire, then the two conductors should have same Fv  g
2
potential.
3. An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current
so, V1 = V2 of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed
1 Q1 1 Q2 of 10 5 m/s parallel to the conductor. The
 
40 R1 40 R2 perpendicular distance between the electron and the
conductor is 20 cm at an instant. Calculate the
1 Q1 R1 1 Q2 R2 magnitude of the force experienced by the electron
   
40 R1 R1 40 R2 R2 at that instant.
5
Q1R1 Q2 R2 Electron v = 10 m/s
 
4R12 0 4R22 0
1R1 2R2 20 cm
 
0 0
1 R2
  P 5A Q
2 R1
(1) 4 × 10–20 N (2) 8 × 10–20 N
2. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density
(3) 4 × 10–20 N (4) 8 × 10–20 N
d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine
becomes constant after some time. If the density of Answer (4)
Sol. Magnetic field produced due to current carrying wire
d
glycerine is , then the viscous force acting on the at point 'A'
2
e 5
ball will be A v = 10 m/s
Mg
(1) (2) Mg r = 20 cm
2
3
(3) Mg (4) 2Mg P 5A Q
2
0 2I
Answer (1) B
4 r
2
10 7  2  5 1 On moving towards right electric field strength

B   10 5 (Tesla), upward to the decrease therefore potential energy decrease.
20  10 2 2
plane of paper Net force on electric dipole is towards right and net
Now, force acting on electron due to this field torque acting on it is zero.
So, it will more towards right.
F  q v  B 
5. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best
1
F  1.6  1019  105   10 5 suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope
2 since
= 0.8 × 10–19 N
(1) A large aperture contributes to the quality and
F  8  10 20 N visibility of the images.
4. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In (2) A large area of the objective ensures better light
which direction will it move? gathering power.
(3) A large aperture provides a better resolution.
(4) All of the above
Answer (4)
E Sol. With larger aperture of objective lens, the light

+q –q
gathering power in telescope is high.
Also, the resolving power or the ability to observe two
objects distinctly also depends on the diameter of
the objective. Thus objective of large diameter is
(1) Towards the left as its potential energy will preferred.
increase. Also, with large diameters fainter objects can be
(2) Towards the right as its potential energy will observed. Hence it also contributes to the better
decrease. quality and visibility of images.
(3) Towards the left as its potential energy will Hence, all options are correct.
decrease.
6. A screw gauge gives the following readings when
(4) Towards the right as its potential energy will used to measure the diameter of a wire
increase.
Main scale reading : 0 mm
Answer (2)
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
Sol. Potential energy of electric dipole in external electric
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100
field U  P  E divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the
wire from the above data is
(1) 0.52 cm (2) 0.026 cm
(3) 0.26 cm (4) 0.052 cm
P Answer (4)
E
+q –q
Sol. Here, pitch of the screw gauge, P = 1 mm
Number of circular division, n = 100
P 1
Thus least count LC    0.01 mm
n 100
Angle between electric field and electric dipole is
180° = 0.001 cm
U = –PEcos So, diameter of the wire = MSR + (CSR × LC)
U = –PEcos180° = 0 + (52 × 0.001 cm)
U = +PE = 0.052 cm
3
7. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two

g sin  g sin 
fragments each of mass number 120, the binding Sn 1  0  [2(n  1)  1]  (2n  1) ...(ii)
2 2
energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6
MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total Dividing equations (i) and (ii)
gain in the Binding Energy in the process is
Sn (2n  1)
(1) 0.9 MeV 
Sn 1 (2n  1)
(2) 9.4 MeV
9. Find the value of the angle of emergence from the
(3) 804 MeV
prism. Refractive index of the glass is 3.
(4) 216 MeV
Answer (4)
Sol. Mass number of reactant = 240
BE per nucleon = 7.6 MeV
Mass number of products = 120
BE per nucleon of product = 8.5 MeV 60°
Total gain in BE = (BE) of products – (BE) of (1) 60° (2) 30°

(3) 45° (4) 90°
reactants.
Answer (1)
= [120 + 120] × 8.5 – [240] × 7.6
Sol. From the ray diagram shown in the figure.
= (240) × 8.5 – 240 × 7.6
At point P, from Snell's law
= (2040 – 1824) MeV
nt
Gain in BE = 216 MeV ci de
I n
r ay
8. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined 30°
plane, starting from rest at time t = 0. Let Sn be the
distance travelled by the block in the interval P 30°
e
Sn
t = n – 1 to t = n. Then, the ratio is
Sn 1
y nt
ra rge
2n  1 2n  1 60°
e
m
(1) (2)
E
2n 2n  1
sin i 
2n  1 2n  air
(3) (4) sin r Prism
2n  1 2n  1
sin30 1
Answer (2)   (r = e emergent angle)
sin e 3
Sol. Suppose  is inclination of inclined plane
acceleration along inclined plane a = gsin 1
 sin e  3 
2
Sn = distance travelled by object during nth second.
 e = 60°
Initial speed u = 0
10. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The
By equation of uniformly accelerated motion time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg
is suspended by it is
a
Sn  u  (2n  1)
2 (1) 0.0628 s (2) 6.28 s
(3) 3.14 s (4) 0.628 s
g sin  g sin 
Sn  0  (2n  1)  (2n  1) ...(i) Answer (4)
2 2
Distance travelled during (n + 1)th second. Sol. For a spring, kx = F
4
given x = 5 cm, F = 10 N
eE
(C) Relaxation Period (R) 
 k(5 × 10–2) = 10 m
1000
k   200 N/m E
5 (D) Current Density (S)
J
Now, for spring-mass system undergoing SHM
(1) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (P), (D) - (Q)
m (2) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (Q), (D) - (P)

T  2
k
(3) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)
given, m = 2 kg
(4) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)
2 2 Answer (1)
 T  2   0.628 s
200 10
eE 
Sol. Drift velocity, v d 
11. A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm and a m
concave lens 'B' of focal length 5 cm are kept along 1 E
the same axis with a distance 'd' between them. If Electrical resistivity,   
 J
a parallel beam of light falling on 'A' leaves 'B' as a
parallel beam, then the distance 'd' in cm will be m
Relaxation period,  
ne 2
(1) 25 (2) 15
I
(3) 50 (4) 30 Current density, J   nev d
A
Answer (2)
(A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (P), (D) - (Q)
13. The electron concentration in an n-type

semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in
Sol. a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is
applied across each of them. Compare the currents
A d B fB in them.
fA
(1) Current in n-type = current in p-type
Parallel beam of light after refraction from convex lens
converge at the focus of convex lens. In question it (2) Current in p-type > current in n-type
is given light after refraction pass through concave (3) Current in n-type > current in p-type
lens becomes parallel. Therefore light refracted from
(4) No current will flow in p-type, current will only
convex lens virtually meet at focus of concave lens.
flow in n-type
According to above ray diagram d = fA – fB
Answer (3)
= 20 – 5 = 15 cm
Sol. The current through a semiconductor is
12. Column-I gives certain physical terms associated
with flow of current through a metallic conductor. I = neAvd
I = neAE
Column-II gives some mathematical relations
involving electrical quantities. Match Column-I and In ne eAe E

Column-II with appropriate relations. Ip nheA h E
Column-I Column-II In e

m Ip h
(A) Drift Velocity (P)
ne 2  ∵ e   h
(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) nevd  In > Ip
5
A 16. The number of photons per second on an average

14. A radioactive nucleus ZX undergoes spontaneous
emitted by the source of monochromatic light of
decay in the sequence wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of
A 3.3 × 10–3 watt will be (h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s)
Z X Z 1 B Z 3 C Z 2 D , where Z is the atomic
(1) 1018 (2) 1017
number of element X. The possible decay particles
in the sequence are (3) 1016 (4) 1015
(1) , –, + Answer (3)
(2) , +, – Sol. The power of a source is given as
(3) +, , – E n  hc 
P   
t t  
(4) –, , +
n P
Answer (3)  
t  hc 
Sol. On + decay atomic number decreases by 1  
  
On –1 decay atomic number increases by 1 n
(Here is number of photons emitted per second)
On  decay atomic number decreases by 2 t
 decay  decay
n 3.3  10 3  6  10 7
A
X   decay
 Z 1 B  Z 3 C 
 D  
Z Z 2 t 6.6  10 34  3  108
Hence correct order of decay are +, , – = 1016 photons per second
15. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 17. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in
15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to x-direction, which one of the following combination
frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How gives the correct possible directions for electric field
much power is generated by the turbine? (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively?
(g = 10 m/s2) (1) j  k, j  k

(1) 10.2 kW
(2) 8.1 kW (2)  j  k ,  j  k
(3) 12.3 kW
(3) j  k,  j  k
(4) 7.0 kW
Answer (2) (4)  j  k,  j  k
d  mgh  Answer (2)

Sol. Incident power on turbine =
dt Sol. Direction of propagation of electromagnetic waves

is along E  B
dm
 gh Given that direction of propagation is along x-axis
dt
= 10 × 60 × 15 (1)  j  k    j  k   0
= 9000 W
Now, losses are 10%
(2)   j  k     j  k   2i

 power generated =  1 
10 
  9000
(3)  j  k     j  k   0
 100 
= 8100 W (4)   j  k     j  k   0
= 8.1 kW  Option (2) is correct.
6
18. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that 20. Polar molecules are the molecules
consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of (1) Having zero dipole moment
cross-section and same material is 0.25 . What
(2) Acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of
will be the effective resistance if they are connected
electric field due to displacement of charges
in series?
(3) Acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic
(1) 0.25  (2) 0.5  field is absent
(3) 1  (4) 4  (4) Having a permanent electric dipole moment
Answer (4) Answer (4)
Sol. All the wires are identical and of same material so Sol. In polar molecules, the centre of positive charges
they will have same value of resistance. Let it be R. does not coincide with the centre of negative
When these are (four) connected in parallel. charges.
Hence, these molecules have a permanent electric
R dipole moment of their own.
21. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field
R
A B
' E ' in the space between the plates. If the distance
R
between the plates is 'd' and the area of each plate
R is 'A', the energy stored in the capacitor is
R  1 1 1 1 1  (0 = permittivity of free space)
RP  R  R  R  R  R 
4  P 4 
1 2 3 1
(1) 0 E 2 (2) 0EAd
Given RP = 0.25  2
R 1 E 2 Ad
 0.25  (3) 0 E 2 Ad (4)
4 2 0
 R=1 Answer (3)
Now these four resistances are arranged in series Sol.

R R R R
A B
RS = R + R + R + R = 4R
 RS = 4 × 1 = 4  E d
19. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives

balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell Plate Area = A
of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what
length of the wire, the balance point occurs? Energy density associated with electric field is given
by
(1) 60 cm (2) 21.6 cm
dU 1
(3) 64 cm (4) 62 cm u  0 E 2
dV 2
Answer (1) 1
 dU  0 E 2dV
Sol. From the application of potentiometer to compare two 2
cells of emfs E1 and E2 by balancing lengths 1 and Total energy stored in the space between the
2 capacitor will be
E1 1 1 2
 U   dU   2 0 E dV
E2 2
1
 E2   2.5 V   0 E 2  dV [E is constant]
 2  1  E   (36 cm)  1.5 V  2
 1   1 1
  0 E 2V   0 E 2 Ad [V  Ad ]
= 60 cm 2 2
7
22. The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown 24. A particle is released from height S from the surface
in the figure is of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is
C three times its potential energy. The height from the
surface of earth and the speed of the particle at that
C instant are respectively
C S 3gS S 3gS
(1) , (2) ,
(1) 3C (2) 2C 4 2 4 2
C 3C S 3gS S 3gS
(3) (4) (3) , (4) ,
2 2 2 2 4 2
Answer (2)
Answer (4)
Sol. Given circuit is
Sol. Let required height of body is y.
C 1
When body from rest falls through height (S – y)
C Then under constant acceleration
A 2 B
C 3
Points 1, 2, 3 are at same potential (as they are S
v
connected by conducting wire) y
So the capacitor is short circuited. It does not store EARTH

any charge.
v2 = 02 + 2g(S – y)
The circuit can be redrawn as
C v  2g (S  y ) ...(1)
When body is at height y above ground. Potential

A 1, 2, 3 B energy of body of mass m
C U = mgy
CAB = C + C = 2C (Parallel combination)
As per given condition kinetic energy, K = 3U
23. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and
1
identify the correct answer. m(v )2  3  mg ( y )
2
(A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when
used as a voltage regulator. 1
 m  2g (S  y )  3  mgy (using (1))
(B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between 2
0.1 V to 0.3 V. S – y = 3y
(1) (A) and (B) both are correct. S

 y ...(2)
4
(2) (A) and (B) both are incorrect
(3) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.  S 3gS
 v  2  g S    ...(3)
(4) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.  4 2
Answer (3) 25. If E and G respectively denote energy and
Sol. • In reverse biased, after breakdown, voltage across E

gravitational constant, then has the dimensions
the zener diode becomes constant. Therefore G
zener diode is connected in reverse biased when of
used as voltage regulator.
(1) [M2] [L–1] [T0] (2) [M] [L–1] [T–1]
• Potential barrier of silicon diode is nearly 0.7 V
(3) [M] [L0] [T0] (4) [M2] [L–2] [T–1]
statement A is correct and statement B is
incorrect. Answer (1)
8
Sol. Dimensional formula of energy

1
[E] = [M1 L2 T–2] ...(I) Pressure exerted by ideal gas  nmv 2
3
Dimensional formula of gravitational constant
[G] = [M–1 L3 T–2] ...(II) 3
Average kinetic energy of a molecule  kBT
From (I) & (II) 2
[E ] [M1 L2 T 2 ] 1
 Total internal energy of a gas is (U )  nfRT
[G ] [M1 L3 T 2 ] 2
= [M2 L–1 T0] Here, n = 1
E  f=5
Hence, dimensions of    [M2 L–1 T0 ]
G 
5
U RT
So, correct option is (1) 2
26. Match Column - I and Column - II and choose the
Hence, (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R)
correct match from the given choices.
27. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with
Column - I Column - II
frequency 'n', the frequency of its potential energy is
1
(A) Root mean square (P) nmv 2 (1) n
3
speed of gas (2) 2n
(3) 3n
molecules
(4) 4n
3 RT
(B) Pressure exerted (Q) Answer (2)
M
by ideal gas Sol. Equation of displacement of particle executing
5 SHM is given by x = Asin(t + ) ...(I)

(C) Average kinetic (R) RT
2 Potential energy of particle executing SHM is given
energy of a by
molecule
1 2
3 U kx
(D) Total internal (S) kBT 2
2
energy of 1 mole 1 2
 kA sin2  t    ...(II)
of a diatomic gas 2
(1) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q) From I and II, it is clear that
(2) (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P) Time period of x = Asin(t + ) is
(3) (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R) 2 

T1   frequency n1 
(4) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (P), (D) - (S)  2
Answer (3) while time period of x2 = A2sin2(t + ) is
Sol. Root mean square speed of gas molecule  

T2   frequency n2 
 
3 RT
 Hence n2 = 2n1
M
9
28. A cup of coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C in t minutes, dV
when the room temperature is 20°C. The time taken Id  C
dt
by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80°C to 60°C
d
at a room temperature same at 20°C is C (V0 sin t ) (using equation 1)
dt
13 13 = C(V0)cost
(1) t (2) t
10 5
Id = V0Ccost
10 5 30. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The
(3) t (4) t
13 13 fraction of original activity that will remain after 150
hours would be
Answer (2)
1 1
Sol. From Average form of Newton's law of cooling (1) (2)
2 2 2
 T  T2  T  T2 2 2
 1  Ts  K  1 (3) (4)
 2  t 3 3 2
T1 and T2 are initial and final temperature and Ts is Answer (2)
surrounding temperature. Sol. The activity of a radioactive substance is given as
t
  90  80   90  80  1 T
 K   20   A  A0   1/2
 2  t 2
t
10 A  1 T1/2
 K  65   Now,  
t A0  2 
2 150
 K 
13 t A  1 100
  
In second case, A0  2 
3
 80  60   80  60  A  1 2
K   20     
 2  t1 A0  2 
20 A 1
 K  50   
t1  A0 2 2
2 20 31. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of
  50  
13t t1 capacitance C and a resistor of resistance 'R' are
connected in series to an ac source of potential
13t
 t1  difference 'V' volts as shown in figure.
5
Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10
29. A capacitor of capacitance 'C', is connected across V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of current
an ac source of voltage V, given by
flowing through LCR series circuit is 10 2 A . The
V = V0sint
impedance of the circuit is
The displacement current between the plates of the
capacitor, would then be given by
V0 40 V 10 V 40 V
(1) Id = V0Ccost (2) Id  cos t
C
~
V0
(3) Id  sin t (4) Id = V0Csint V
C
5
Answer (1) (1) 4 2  (2) 
2
Sol. Given V = V0sint (1) (3) 4  (4) 5 
Now displacement current Id is given by Answer (4)
10
Sol. VL = 40 volt 33. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength '' is incident

VR = 40 volt on a photosensitive surface of negligible work
function. If 'm' mass is of photoelectron emitted from
VC = 10 volt the surface has de-Broglie wavelength d , then
Now, VRMS  VR2  VL  VC 

2
 2m  2  2mc  2
(1)     d (2) d   
 hc   h 
 (40)2  (40  10)2  50 V
 2mc  2  2h  2
(3)     d (4)     d
I0 10 2  h   mc 
IRMS    10 A
2 2 Answer (3)
Θ VRMS  IRMS  Z Sol. As per Einstein's photoelectric equation
hc
VRMS 50  0  k
 Z  5 
IRMS 10
0: work function
32. A thick current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries
k = maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons
current 'I' uniformly distributed across its cross-
section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to As per question,   0
the cable with the distance 'r' from the axis of the
cable is represented by hc P2 2mhc
 k  P 
 2m 
Now De-broglie wavelength,

B B
(1) (2)
h h
d  
r r P 2mhc 
2 mc
   d
B B h
(3) (4)
r r  2mc  2
  d
Answer (3)  h 
Sol. From Ampere's circuital law 34. The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is v.
The escape velocity from the surface of another
0I
B r if r < R  Binside  r planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and
2R 2
same mass density is
0I 1 (1) v (2) 2v
B if r  R  Boutside 
2r r (3) 3v (4) 4v
Hence the correct plot of magnetic field B with Answer (4)
distance r from axis of cable is given as
Sol. Escape velocity from the Earth's surface
B
2GM
in e ve 
tl R
i gh
ra
St
Hyperbola 4
2G R 3
 3
O R r R
11
8G 2 0 i
 R Magnetic field at centre  B 
3 2R1
ve  R (For same density) Magnetic flux through inner coil  B  R22
v R 0 i

v1 4R   R22
2R1
v1 = 4v
0 i R22
35. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen  
2 R1
as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the
as per definition,  = Mi
dimensions of energy.
2
 R
(1) [F][A][T] (2) [F][A][T2]  M  0  2
 2  R1
(3) [F][A][T–1] (4) [F][A–1][T]
R22
Answer (2) M
R1
Sol. Energy, EFaAbTc
37. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from
[E] = [Fa][Ab][Tc] a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror
 [ML2T–2] = [MLT–2]a [LT–2]b [T]c were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the
lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final
[ML2T–2] = [MaLa + b T–2a – 2b + c] image would be formed at a distance of
Comparing dimensions on both sides.
 a = 1; a + b = 2 and –2 = – 2a – 2b + c
b=1  –2 = – 2 – 2 + c
c=2
[E] = [FAT2]
60 cm 40 cm
SECTION - B
36. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2 are (1) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
placed in the same plane with their centres (2) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
coinciding. If R1 > > R2, the mutual inductance M (3) 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual
between them will be directly proportional to image
(4) 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual
R1 R2
image
(1) R (2) R
2 1 Answer (4)
R12 R22 Sol. Using lens formula for first refraction from convex
(3) (4) lens
R2 R1
1 1 1
Answer (4)  
v1 u f
Sol. Two concentric coils are of radius R1 and R2 as
shown v1 = ?, u = –60 cm, f = 30 cm
1 1 1
    v1  60 cm
v1 60 30
R1
40 cm 20 cm
O
R2
i I1
Let current in outer loop be i 60 cm 60 cm
12
I1 here is first image by lens 39. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are
The plane mirror will produce an image at distance applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would be
20 cm to left of it. the output at the terminal y?
For second refraction from convex lens, t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6

5
u = –20 cm, v = ? , f = 30 cm A
0
1 1 1 1 1 1
    
v u f v 20 30 5
B
1 1 1 0
  –  v  60 cm
v 30 20
Thus the final image is virtual and at a distance, 5
60 – 40 = 20 cm from plane mirror. C
0
38. Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 are
connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio A
i3
i1 of currents in terms of resistances used in the
B
circuit is y
i 2 r2
r1
C
A i1 B
i3 r3 t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
y
r1 r2 (1)
(1) r  r (2) r  r 0V
2 3 2 3
5V
r1 r2 (2)
0V
(3) r  r (4) r  r
1 2 1 3 (3) 5V
Answer (2) 5V
(4)
i2 r2 0V
r1 Answer (3)
Sol.
i1 Sol. Output of combination of logic gates is given as
i3 r3 y  A  B  B C
In parallel combination of resistances r2 and r3,
potential difference will be equal across both Input Output
Signals Signal
resistance.
Time A B C AB B. C y = A . B + B .C
i3 r3 duration
So, i 2 r2  i3 r3  i 2  ...(1) 0 - t1 0 0 1 0 1 1
r2
t1 - t2 1 0 1 0 1 1
As per Kirchhoff's first law
t2 - t3 0 1 0 0 1 1
 i1 = i2 + i3
t3 - t4 1 1 0 1 1 1
r  t4 - t5 0 0 1 0 1 1
 i1   3  1 i3 (from equation 1)
r  t5 - t6 1 0 1 0 1 1
 2 
t6 - t7 0 0 1 0 1 1
i3 r2
  So the output y is high (1) that is v0 = 5 V
i1 r2  r3
13
40. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80 At t = 4 s, A ball is dropped out of a window so
F capacitor and 40  resistor is connected to 230 velocity of ball at this instant is 20 ms –1 along
V variable frequency ac source. The angular horizontal.
frequencies of the source at which power transferred
After 2 seconds of motion :
to the circuit is half the power at the resonant
angular frequency are likely to be Horizontal velocity of ball = 20 ms–1 (∵ ax = 0)
(1) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s Vertical velocity of ball (vy) = uy + ayt
(2) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s vy = 0 + 10 × 2 = 20 ms–1 (∵ ay = g = 10 m/s2)
(3) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s So magnitude of velocity of ball
(4) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s

(v) = v x2  v y2  20 2 m/s
Answer (3)
Acceleration of ball at t = 6 s is g = 10 m/s2
Sol. The resonance frequency of LCR series circuit is
As ball is under free fall.
1 1
given as 0   = 50 rad/s 42. A particle of mass 'm' is projected with a velocity
LC 5  80  10 –6
v = kVe (k < 1) from the surface of the earth.
Now half power frequencies are given as (Ve = escape velocity)
R The maximum height above the surface reached by

  0  the particle is
2L
2
40 (1) R  k 
 1 k 
i.e. L  50   46 rad/s  
25
2
 k 
(2) R  
H  50 
40
 54 rad/s  1 k 
25
R 2k
(3)
41. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s2. At 1 k
t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a
Rk 2
person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and (4)
acceleration of the ball at t = 6 s? 1 k 2
Answer (4)
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
Sol. given v = kVe
(1) 20 m/s, 5 m/s2
where, k < 1
(2) 20 m/s, 0
Thus, v < Ve
(3) 20 2 m/s, 0
From conservation of mechanical energy,
(4) 20 2 m/s, 10 m/s2
1 GmM GmM
Answer (4) mv 2 – 
2 R (R  h )
Sol. Initial velocity of car = 0
v 2 GM (GM ) h
    GM
Acceleration of car = 5 m/s2 2 R (R  h ) R (R  h )
Velocity of car at t = 4 s; v = u + at 1 2 2 GMh

 k Ve 
 v = 0 + 5 × 4 = 20 ms–1 2 R (R  h )
14
8gR
2GM  sin2   ...(2)
We know, Ve  U2
R
8gRT 2 2gT 2
1 2  2GM  GMh  sin2    2 (using equation 1)
 k   4 2 R 2 R

2  R  R (R  h ) 1
2gT 2 
1 
2
   sin  2 
h   R 
k2 
(R  h )
44. In the product
Rk2 + hk2 =h
Rk2 = h(1 – k2) 
F  q v B 

 h
Rk 2 
 qv  Biˆ  Bjˆ  B0 kˆ 
2
(1  k )
For q  1 and v  2iˆ  4 ˆj  6kˆ and
43. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a

uniform speed takes a time T to complete one F  4iˆ – 20 ˆj  12kˆ
revolution. If this particle were projected with the
same speed at an angle '' to the horizontal, the What will be the complete expression for B ?
maximum height attained by it equals 4R. The angle
(1) –8iˆ – 8 ˆj  6kˆ (2) –6iˆ – 6 jˆ  8kˆ
of projection, , is then given by :
1 (3) 8iˆ  8 ˆj  6kˆ (4) 6iˆ  6 ˆj  8kˆ
gT 2 
1 
2
(1)   cos  2 
Answer (2)
 R

1 Sol. F  q(v  B )
2 R 
1 
2
(2)   cos  2 
 gT  
 qv  Biˆ  Bjˆ  B0 kˆ 
1
2 R 
1 
2 Given, q  1 v  2iˆ  4 ˆj  6kˆ and
(3)   sin  2 
 gT  F  4iˆ – 20 ˆj  12kˆ
1
 2gT 2 
(4)   sin1  2 
2
     
 4iˆ – 20 jˆ  12kˆ  1  2iˆ  4 jˆ  6kˆ  Biˆ  Bjˆ  B0 kˆ 
 
  R 
Thus, calculating values of RHS,
Answer (4)
Sol. To complete a circular path of radius R, time period iˆ jˆ kˆ
is T. 2 4 6
B B B0
2R
so speed of particle (U) = ......(1)
T
 i (4B0  6B ) – j (2B 0 – 6B )  kˆ(2B – 4B )
Now the particle is projected with same speed at
Comparing L.H.S and R.H.S,
angle to horizontal.
4B0 – 6B = 4  2B0 –3B = 2 ...(1)
2 2
U sin  –(2B0 – 6B)= –20 B0 – 3B = 10 ...(2)
So Maximum Height  H  
2g
2B – 4B = 12 B = –6 ...(3)
Given that : H = 4R From (2) and (3)
B = –6 and B0 = –8
U 2 sin2 
  4R
2g Hence, B  –6iˆ  6 ˆj  8kˆ
15
45. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m, and magnetic moment of square loop = NIA
strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height.
The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is  12a  2
  I a
(g = 10 m/s2) nearly  4a 
(1) 0 kg m/s (2) 4.2 kg m/s

M2  3Ia2
(3) 2.1 kg m/s (4) 1.4 kg m/s
47. Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at
Answer (2) 200 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop.
Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.
Sol. Given that :
(1) 660 V (2) 1320 V
Mass of ball = 0.15 kg
(3) 1520 V (4) 1980 V
Height from which ball is dropped = 10 m
Answer (4)

Impulse, I = Change in linear momentum = P kQ
Sol. Electric potential due to a charged sphere 
R
 Pf  Pi
k = 9 × 109 N–m2/C2
Velocity of ball at ground v   2gh Q : charge on sphere
R : Radius of sphere
 2  10  10  10 2 m/s
Let charge and radius of smaller drop is q and r

 
I  0.15  10 2  ˆj  0.15  10 2 ˆj  respectively
kq
For smaller drop, V   220 V
   
I  2  0.15  10 2  ˆj  4.2  ˆj r
Let R be radius of bigger drop,
 magnitude of impulse = 4.2 kg m/s
As volume remains the same
46. A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and
4 3 4 3
resistance 'R' is wound up as a current carrying coil  3 r   27  3 R
 
in the shape of,
 R  3 27 r  3r
(i) an equilateral triangle of side 'a'.
Now, using charge conservation,
(ii) a square of side 'a'.
 Q = 27q
The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each
kQ k (27q )  kq 
case respectively are Vbig drop    9 
R 3r  r 
(1) 3 Ia2 and 3 Ia2 = 9 × 220 = 1980 V
(2) 3 Ia2 and Ia2 48. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is
balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass
(3) 3 Ia2 and 4 Ia2
of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and
(4) 4 Ia2 and 3 Ia2 another unknown mass 'm' is suspended from the
Answer (1) rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the
value of 'm' such that the rod is in equilibrium.
V (g = 10 m/s2)
Sol. Current in the loop will be  I which is same for
R
both loops. 0 20 cm 40 cm 160 cm
Now magnetic moment of Triangle loop = NIA
 12a  3 2
M1    I  4 a = 3Ia2
 3a  2 kg m
16
1 1 3
(1) kg (2) kg (1)
2 3 4
1 1 7
(3) kg (4) kg (2)
6 12 8
Answer (4) 1
(3)
Sol. Given that 4
Mass of rod = 500 g; Length of rod = 200 cm

1
(4)
8
0 20 40 100 160 cm
Answer (1)
Sol. Given that,
CM
O Mass of Ring = M; Radius of Ring = R
2 kg m Now 90° arc is removed from circular ring, then
M
mass removed =
Rod will be in equilibrium, when net torque about 4
point O will be zero.
Torque at point O due to 2 kg mass O O

90°
  r  F  rF sin   nˆ 

1  20  20  102  sin90º kˆ  4 N m kˆ  Mass of remaining portion =
3M
4
2
Torque due to mass of rod : Moment of inertia of remaining part   dmr
 
2  5  60  102  sin90º –kˆ  3 N m kˆ   2
 I  R  dm (∵ r  R )
Torque due to mass m 3MR 2 3

 I . So the value of K is
4 4
 
3  mg  120  102  sin90º – kˆ  12m N m – kˆ   50. A step down transformer connected to an ac mains
supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W
Net torque about point O will be zero lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what
is the current in the primary circuit?
So 1  2  3  0
(1) 0.2 A
4 – 3 – 12m = 0
(2) 0.4 A
12m = 1
(3) 2 A
1 (4) 4 A
m kg
12 Answer (1)
49. From a circular ring of mass 'M' and radius 'R' an arc Sol. In ideal transformer:
corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The Input power = Output power
moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring
 VPIP = VSIS = Given power
about an axis passing through the centre of the ring
and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is 'K' times  220 × IP = 44
'MR2'. Then the value of 'K' is  IP = 0.2 A
17
CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A CH3
(4) CBr CH2 – CH3
51. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane CH3
is : Answer (1)
(1) 120° (2) 180°
CH 3
(3) 60° (4) 0° Sol. CH CH CH 2 + HBr
CH 3 (C 6H 5 CO)2O 2
Answer (4)
Sol. Ethane has two conformers (i) Eclipsed CH 3
CH CH2 – CH2 Br
(ii) Staggered CH 3
Eclipsed conformer is least stable while staggered Mechanism : Peroxide effect proceeds via free
conformer is most stable. In eclipsed conformer the radical chain mechanism.
dihedral angle is 0°
O O O
Homolysis
O O
•
(i) C6H 5 C C C 6H5 2C 6H 5 C O
••
••
•
2C 6H 5 + CO 2
Homolysis
(ii) C6H5 + H Br
•
C6H6 + Br
CH 3
•
(iii) CH CH CH 2 + Br
CH 3
52. Noble gases are named because of their inertness
towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement CH 3
•
about them. CH CH CH 2 Br
CH 3
(1) Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water More Stable secondary
free radical
(2) Noble gases have very high melting and boiling
points CH3
•
(iv) CH CH CH2 Br + H Br
(3) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces CH3 Homolysis
(4) Noble gases have large positive values of CH3

electron gain enthalpy CH CH2 CH2 Br
CH3
Answer (2)
Major product
Sol. Noble gases have weak dispersion forces hence
54. A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi
they have low melting and boiling points.
broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz).
53. The major product of the following chemical reaction The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation
is : emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light
c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1]
CH 3 (C 6 H 5CO) 2O2
CH CH CH2 + HBr ? (1) 219.3 m (2) 219.2 m
CH 3
(3) 2192 m (4) 21.92 cm
CH3 Answer (1)
(1) CH CH2 CH2 Br
CH3 Sol. Energy of electromagnetic radiation (E)
hc
(2) =  h

CH 3 c c
CH 3 So,   
(3) CH CH CH  
3
Br
18
Sol. z Benzenesulphonyl chloride (C6H5SO2Cl) is also
3  108
=  219.3 m known as Hinsberg's reagent.
1368  103 z The reaction of Hinsberg's reagent (C6H5SO2Cl)
with primary amine (CH 3 CH 2 NH 2 ) yields
55. The incorrect statement among the following is : N-ethylbenzene sulphonamide.
(1) Actinoid contraction is greater for element to O
element than lanthanoid contraction S – Cl + H – N – C 2H 5
(2) Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are O H O
colorless in the solid state
S – N – C2H5 + HCl
(3) Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and O H
electricity N-Ethylbenzene sulphonamide
(Soluble in alkali)
(4) Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially
z The reaction of Hinsberg's reagent (C6H5SO2Cl)
when finely divided.
with secondary amine (C 2H 5NHCH 3) gives,
Answer (2) N-Ethyl-N-Methyl benzene sulphonamide
Sol. z Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially O
when finely divided S – Cl + H – N – CH 3
z Actinoid contraction is greater from element to O C2H5
element than lanthanoid contraction resulting CH3
O
from poor shielding by 5f electrons
S – N – CH
2 5
+ HCl
z Many trivalent lanthanoids ions are coloured both O
in the solid state and in aqueous solutions. Insoluble in alkali due to
absence of H-atom
z Lanthanoids have typical metallic structure and
are good conductors of heat and electricity z 3° amine do not react with Hinsberg reagent
56. Right option for the number of tetrahedral and 58. Which of the following reactions is the metal
displacement reaction? Choose the right option.
octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are :

(1) 2KClO3   2KCl + 3O2
(1) 8, 4 (2) 6, 12

(2) Cr2O3 + 2Al   Al2O3 + 2Cr
(3) 2, 1 (4) 12, 6
(3) Fe + 2HCl  FeCl2 + H2
Answer (4)
(4) 2Pb(NO3)2  2PbO + 4NO2 + O2
Sol. z Number of octahedral and tetrahedral voids Answer (2)
formed by N closed packed atoms are N and
Sol. z Both reactions (1) and (4) are examples of
2N respectively.
decomposition reactions.
z Each hexagonal unit cell contains 6 atoms z Reactions (2) and (3), both are examples of
therefore, number of tetrahedral and octahedral displacement reactions, while reaction (2) is an
voids are 12 and 6 respectively. example of metal displacement reaction.
57. Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg's 59. Given below are two statements :
reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali. Statement I :
CH 2 Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of
(1) CH NO2
3 narcotic analgesics.
CH 2 Statement II :
CH3
(2) CH3 NH
Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. In
CH2 the light of the above statements, choose the correct
(3) CH3 NH 2 answer from the options given below.
CH 2 CH 2 (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
CH3 N CH 3 (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4)
CH3 (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
Answer (3)
true.
19
Answer (2) 62. Which one among the following is the correct option
Sol. z Aspirin and paracetamol belong to the class of for right relationship between CP and CV for one mole
non-narcotic analgesics of ideal gas?
z Morphine and Heroin are Narcotic analgesics (1) CP + CV = R
 Both statement I and statement II are false (2) CP – CV = R
60. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound (3) CP = RCV
formed in the following chemical reaction? (4) CV = RCP
(i) C H MgBr, dry Ether Answer (2)
Acetone 
2 5
  Product
(ii) H2O, H
Sol. At constant volume, qV = CVT = U
(1) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
At constant pressure, qP = CPT = H
(2) pentan-2-ol
For a mole of an ideal gas,
(3) pentan-3-ol
(4) 2-methylbutan-2-ol H = U + (PV)
Answer (4) = U + (RT)
– = U + RT
O OMgBr
(i) C2H5 MgBr On putting the values of H and U, we have
Sol. CH3 –+C – CH 3 Dry ether
CH3 – C – CH 3
C2H5 CPT = CVT + RT
+
(i) H2O/H CP = CV + R
OH CP – CV = R
CH3 – C – CH 2 – CH 3
63. Match List-I with List-II.
CH3
List-I List-II
Product
(2-methylbutan-2-ol) (a) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal
61. Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order (b) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar
given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI.
(c) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral
Statement II : As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br,
I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF, (d) BF3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal
HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength Choose the correct answer from the options given
increases.
below.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
correct answer from the options given below.
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are true
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
Answer (1)
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true Cl
Sol. Cl
Answer (1)
(a) Cl P sp3d hybridised and
Sol. In the modern periodic table, moving down the group Cl trigonal bipyramidal in
as the size of halogen atom increases, the H – X Cl shape
bond length also increases as a result the bond
enthalpy decreases. Hence, The acidic strength also F
F F
increases.
(b) S sp3d2 hybridised and
So, the correct order of acidic strength is F octahedral in shape
F
HI > HBr > HCl > HF F
20
Answer (1)
F F
1
(c) Br sp3d2 hybridised and
Sol. Hydrogen has three isotopes : protium, 1H
F F square pyramidal in shape deuterium, 12 H or D and tritium 13 H or T . Of these

F isotopes, only tritium is radioactive and emits low
F energy – particles (t1/2, 12.33 years).
(d) F B sp2 hybridised and trigonal 67. The correct option for the number of body centred
F planar in shape unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells
is :
64. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving
(1) 7 (2) 5
10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1),
10 g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and (3) 2 (4) 3
10 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3). Answer (4)
The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic Sol. z In 14 types of Bravais lattices, body centred
pressure of these solutions is : unit cell is present in cubic, tetragonal and
(1) P2 > P1 > P3 orthorhombic crystal systems.
(2) P1 > P2 > P3 z Hence, body centred possible variation is present

in three crystal systems.
(3) P2 > P3 > P1
(4) P3 > P1 > P2 68. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation
reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This
Answer (1)
product formation is based on?
Sol. z Osmotic pressure () = iCRT
(1) Saytzeff's Rule (2) Hund's Rule
where C is molar concentration of the solution
(3) Hofmann Rule (4) Huckel's Rule
z With increase in molar concentration of solution
osmotic pressure increases. Answer (1)
z Since, weight of all solutes and its solution Sol. Major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction
volume are equal, so higher will be the molar of 2-bromopentane is pent-2-ene because according
mass of solute, smaller will be molar to Saytzeff's rule, in dehydrohalogenation reactions,
concentration and smaller will be the osmotic the preferred product is that alkene which has greater
pressure. number of alkyl group(s) attached to the doubly
z Order of molar mass of solute decreases as bonded carbon atoms.
Sucrose > Glucose > Urea Br
OH–
z So, correct order of osmotic pressure of solution CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH – CH 3
is P3 < P1 < P2
CH 3 – CH2 – CH = CH – CH3
65. Which one of the following methods can be used to Pent-2-ene (81%)
obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room +
temperature? CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH = CH2
Pent-1-ene (19%)
(1) Electrolysis (2) Chromatography
(3) Distillation (4) Zone refining 69. The maximum temperature that can be achieved in
blast furnace is :
Answer (3)
(1) Upto 1200 K (2) Upto 2200 K
Sol. Distillation method is generally used for the
purification of metals having low boiling point such (3) Upto 1900 K (4) Upto 5000 K
as Hg, Zn etc.
Answer (2)
66. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits
which of the following particles? Sol. Maximum temperature that can be achieved in blast
furnace is upto 2200 K.
(1) Beta (–) (2) Alpha ()
(As per NCERT text: 2170 K maximum temperature
(3) Gamma () (4) Neutron (n)
is given in the figure of blast furnace)
21
70. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa Cl Cl Cl

at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and
Be Be Be
91.0 S cm 2 mol –1 respectively. The molar
Cl Cl Cl
conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is.
Choose the right option for your answer. In vapour phase Beryllium chloride tends to form a
chloro-bridged dimer.
(1) 201.28 S cm2 mol–1
Cl
(2) 390.71 S cm2 mol–1
Cl Be Be Cl
(3) 698.28 S cm2 mol–1
Cl
(4) 540.48 S cm2 mol–1 73. The correct structure of 2, 6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is
Answer (2)
Sol. According to Kohlrausch law of independent
migration of ions. (1) (2)
o
m (CH3COOH)
o o o
= m (CH3 COONa)  m (HCl)  m (NaCl)
(3) (4)
= 91.0 S cm2 mol–1 + 426.16 S cm2 mol–1
– 126.45 S cm2 mol–1
Answer (1)
= 390.71 S cm2 mol–1
71. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is : Sol. 4
5 2 1
(1) Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N" 3
donor atoms 6 10
8
7 9
(2) Unidentate ligand
2, 6-Dimethyldec-4-ene
(3) Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms
(4) Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor atoms 74. The right option for the statement "Tyndall effect is
exhibited by", is :
Answer (1)
(1) NaCl solution
Sol. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is a (2) Glucose solution
hexadented ligand having four donor oxygen atoms
and two donor nitrogen atoms (3) Starch solution
(4) Urea solution
– –
O O
–
O
– O
Answer (3)
O=C M C= O C= O
Sol. z Tyndall effect is exhibited by colloidal solution
O=C
CH 2 CH2 only.
CH 2 – N N CH2
z Among the given options, Urea, NaCl and
CH 2 – CH2 Glucose solutions are true solutions, so cannot
72. The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and show Tyndall effect.
vapour phase, are : z Starch solution is a colloidal solution therefore
can show Tyndall effect.
(1) Chain and dimer, respectively
75. Which one of the following polymers is prepared by
(2) Linear in both
addition polymerisation?
(3) Dimer and Linear, respectively (1) Teflon (2) Nylon-66
(4) Chain in both (3) Novolac (4) Dacron
Sol. Beryllium chloride has a chain structure in the solid Sol. Dacron, Nylon-66 and Novolac are prepared by
state as shown below condensation polymerisation.
22
Teflon is an addition polymer. Monomer of teflon is Answer (3)
tetrafluoroethene.
Sol. Element Mass percentage No. of mole Mole ratio
Catalyst [CF2 – CF 2] n
nCF2 = CF 2 78 6.5
High pressure C 78%  6.5 1
Teflon 12 6.5
Tetrafluoroethene 22 22
H 22%  22  3.38 3
1 6.5
76. The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of :
(1) Vitamin B12 (2) Vitamin B6 Based on above calculation, possible empirical
formula is CH3.
(3) Vitamin B1 (4) Vitamin B2
79. Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one
Answer (1) which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents
Sol. z Deficiency of vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) causes is :
cheilosis, digestive disorders and burning (1) Calcium chloride (2) Strontium chloride
sensation of the skin. (3) Magnesium chloride (4) Beryllium chloride
z Deficiency of vitamin B12 causes Pernicious Answer (4)
anaemia which is RBC deficiency in
Sol. z Except for beryllium chloride all other chloride of
haemoglobin.
alkaline earth metals are ionic in nature.
z Deficiency of vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) causes z Due to small size of Be, Beryllium chloride is
Convulsions. essentially covalent and soluble in organic
z Deficiency of vitamin B 1 (Thiamine) causes solvents.
Beri-Beri (loss of appetite and retarded growth). 80. BF 3 is planar and electron deficient compound.
77. The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of 'C—X' bond Hybridization and number of electrons around the
is : central atom, respectively are :
(1) CH3 – F < CH3 – Cl < CH3 – Br < CH3 –I (1) sp3 and 4 (2) sp3 and 6
(2) CH3 – F > CH3 – Cl  CH3 – Br > CH3 – I (3) sp2 and 6 (4) sp2 and 8
(3) CH3 – F < CH3 – Cl  CH3 – Br > CH3 – I Answer (3)
(4) CH3 – Cl > CH3 – F > CH3 – Br > CH3 –I Sol. F
Answer (2) B
F F
Sol. The size of halogen atom increases from F to I
hence bond length from C – F to C – I increases z Number of electrons around boron atom is 6.
 Bond enthalpy from CH 3 – F to CH 3 – I z Hybridization of B is sp2.
decreases z Shape is trigonal planar.
C – X Bond Bond dissociation 81. The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid are
–1
enthalpies/kJ mol 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct
option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate
CH3 — F 452 solution is :
CH3 — Cl 351 (1) 8.50 (2) 5.50
CH3 — Br 293 (3) 7.75 (4) 6.25

Answer (3)
CH3 — I 234
Sol. Dimethylammonium acetate is a salt of weak acid
78. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon and weak base whose pH can be calculated as
and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right 1
option for the empirical formula of this compound pH = 7 + pK a – pK b 
2
is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]
1
(1) CH (2) CH2 7  4.77 – 3.27 
2
(3) CH3 (4) CH4
= 7.75
23
82. Choose the correct option for graphical representation where k is proportionality constant and equal to nRT.
of Boyle's law, which shows a graph of pressure vs.  Graph between P vs. V should be rectangular
volume of a gas at different temperatures :
hyperbola and product of PV increases with
increase in temperature.
83. For a reaction A  B, enthalpy of reaction is
–4.2 kJ mol –1 and enthalpy of activation is
Pressure (P)
9.6 kJ mol–1. The correct potential energy profile for

(bar)
(1) 200 K the reaction is shown in option.

400 K
600 K
Volume (V)
3
(dm ) (1) PE B
A
Reaction Progress
Pressure (P)
(200 K, 400 K, 600 K)

(bar)
(2) PE A
(2)
B
Reaction Progress
Volume (V)
3
(dm )
K
0
K
20
0 (3)
40
0K
Pressure (P)
60
(bar)
(3)
Volume (V) B
3
(dm ) PE A
(4)
Reaction Progress
Answer (2)
Pressure (P)
(bar)
Sol. z Hrxn = (Ea)f – (Ea)b

600 K
(4)
400 K
–4.2 = (Ea)f – (Ea)b
200 K
–4.2 = 9.6 – (Ea)b
Volume (V)
3
(dm ) (Ea)b = 9.6 + 4.2 = 13.8 kJ mol–1
Answer (4) z Since reaction is exothermic, so possible graph
Sol. According to Boyle's law is (2) only.
1 k
P  P  PV  k z Also (Ea)f < (Ea)b, so answer is option (2).
V V
24
84. The compound which shows metamerism is : Sol. Magnetic moment,   n(n  2) BM (where
(1) C5H12 (2) C3H8O n = number of unpaired electrons)
(3) C3H6O (4) C4H10O Complex No. of unpaired (BM)
Answer (4) electron(s)
Sol. Compounds with formula C4H10O can be ethers (a) [Fe(CN)6]3– 1 1.73
which may exhibit metamerism. For example (b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ 5 5.92
CH3 – CH 2 O CH2 CH3 , CH 3 O CH CH3 (c) [Fe(CN)6]4– 0 0
CH 3 (d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ 4 4.90
87. The reagent 'R' in the given sequence of chemical
and CH3—O—CH2—CH2—CH3 are metamers as
reaction is:
structure of alkyl chains are different around the –
NH2 N2 Cl –
–
functional group.
Br Br Br Br Br Br
NaNO2, HCl R
85. Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and
0.5°C
ionic radii because of :
Br Br Br
(1) Belonging to same group
(1) H2O (2) CH3CH2OH
(2) Diagonal relationship (3) HI (4) CuCN/KCN
(3) Lanthanoid contraction Answer (2)
(4) Having similar chemical properties NH 2
–
N2 Cl–
–
Answer (3) Br Br Br Br Br Br
NaNO2, HCl CH 3CH 2OH
Sol.
0 - 5°C
Sol. z The cumulative effect of the contraction of the
lanthanoid series, known as lanthanoid Br Br Br
contraction, causes the radii of the members of Reagent R is C2H5OH with diazonium salt.
the third transition series to be very similar to
88. From the following pairs of ions which one is not an
those of the corresponding members of the
iso-electronic pair?
second series.
(1) O2–, F–
z The almost identical radii of Zr (160 pm) and
(2) Na+, Mg2+
Hf (159 pm) is a consequence of the lanthanoid
contraction. (3) Mn2+, Fe3+
(4) Fe2+, Mn2+
SECTION - B
Answer (4)
Sol.  Isoelectronic species have some number
List-I List-II ofelectrons.
(a) [Fe(CN)6]3– (i) 5.92 BM
 Species Number of electrons
(b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (ii) 0 BM
(c) [Fe(CN)6]4– (iii) 4.90 BM Fe2+ 26 – 2 = 24
(d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (iv) 1.73 BM

Mn2+ 25 – 2 = 23
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. O2– 8 + 2 = 10
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) F– 9 + 1 = 10

(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
Na+ 11 – 1 = 10
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
Mg2+ 12 – 2 = 10
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Answer (4) Fe3+ 26 – 3 = 23
25
Sol. Stronger is the acid, lower is the value of pKa. On
 1
89. The slope of Arrhenius plot  ln k v/s  of first moving down the group, bond dissociation enthalpy
 T  of hydrides of group 16 elements decreases hence
order reaction is –5 × 103K. The value of Ea of the acidity increases and pKa value decreases. Correct
reaction is. Choose the correct option for your order of pKa value will be
answer.
H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
[Given R = 8.314 JK–1mol–1] 92. The intermediate compound 'X' in the following
(1) 41.5 kJ mol–1 (2) 83.0 kJ mol–1 chemical reaction is:
O
(3) 166 kJ mol–1 (4) –83 kJ mol–1
CH3 C
Answer (1) CS2 +
H 3O H
+ CrO 2Cl2 X
Sol. Arrhenius equation
CH(OCrOHCl 2)2
k  Ae–Ea /RT (1)
ln k  ln A  ln e –Ea /RT
CH(OCOCH 3 )2
E  1
lnk  ln A – a    1 (2)
R T
Cl
1 CH
Slope of ln k vs curve, Cl
T (3)
Ea
m– Cl
R CH
H
E
–5  103  – a (4)
R
Ea = 5 × 103 × 8.314 J/mol Answer (1)
= 41.57 × 103 J/mol Sol. Etard's reaction
O
41.5 kJ/mol
(OCrOHCl 2)
CH 3 HC C—H
90. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under (OCrOHCl 2)
isothermal condition, the correct option is: CS2 H 3O
+
+ CrO 2Cl 2
(1) U = 0, Stotal = 0 (2) U  0, Stotal  0
(3) U = 0, Stotal  0 (4) U  0, Stotal = 0 (X)
Answer (3) 93. The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of
a solution at 45°C with benzene to octane in molar
Sol. z For a spontaneous process, Stotal > 0 and since
ratio 3 : 2 is :
irreversible process is always spontaneous
therefore Stotal > 0. [At 45°C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg
z Since U = nCVT and T = 0 for isothermal and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]
process therefore U = 0. (1) 160 mm of Hg (2) 168 mm of Hg
91. In which one of the following arrangements the (3) 336 mm of Hg (4) 350 mm of Hg
given sequence is not strictly according to the
properties indicated against it? Answer (3)
(1) HF < HCl : Increasing acidic Sol. Given : nC6H6 : nC8H18  3 : 2
< HBr < HI strength 3 2
So,  C6H6  ,  C8H18 
(2) H2O < H2S : Increasing pKa 5 5
< H2Se < H2Te values
p s  p oC 6H6  C 6H6  p oC8H18  C8H18
(3) NH3 < PH3 : Increasing
< AsH3 < SbH3 acidic character 3 2
 280   420 
5 5
(4) CO2 < SiO2 : Increasing
< SnO2 < PbO2 oxidizing power  168  168
Answer (2) = 336 mm of Hg
26
94. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 (d) R — CH 2COOH (iv) Esterification
S cm2 mol–1. What is the dissociation constant of (I ) X2/Red P
I
acetic acid? Choose the correct option. (ii) H 2O
   +  350 S cm2 mol1  Choose the correct answer from the options given
 H  below.
   50 S cm
2
mol 1 
 CH3COO  (1) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
(1) 1.75  104 mol L1 (2) 2.50  104 mol L1 (2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(3) 1.75  105 mol L1 (4) 2.50  105 mol L1 (3) (a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
Answer (3) (4) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
Answer (4)
Sol. m  20 S cm2 mol1
Sol.  Gattermann-Koch reaction:
o o o
m CH3COOH   CH COO  m H CHO
3
 50  350  400 S cm2 mol1 CO, HCl

Anhyd. AlCl 3/CuCl
m 20 1 
 o
  Haloform reaction:
m 400 20
2
C 2  1 
Ka  C2  7  103     Esterification:
1   20 
O O
1 Conc.
 7  10 3   10 2 R CH2 OH + R C OH H2SO4
R C OCH2 R
4
 Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction:
 1.75  105 mol L1 X
NaOH, +? (i) X2/Red P
95. CH3CH2COO– Na+ CH3CH3 + Na2CO3. R CH2COOH R CH COOH
Heat (ii) H2O
97. The product formed in the following chemical
Consider the above reaction and identify the missing reaction is:
reagent/chemical. O O
NaBH4
(1) B2H6 (2) Red Phosphorus CH2–C–OCH3 C2H5OH
?
(3) CaO (4) DIBAL-H
CH3
Answer (3) H
OH
Sol. Alkane is produced by heating sodium salt of CH 2 –C–OCH3
carboxylic acid with sodalime (NaOH and CaO in the (1)
OH
ratio of 3 : 1) CH 3
O
NaOHCaO
CH3CH2COO Na  
Heat  CH3CH3  Na 2CO3 CH 2 –CH 2–OH
96. Match List-I with List-II (2)
CH 3
List-I List-II
OH H
CO, HCI
(a) (i) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky CH 2 –C–CH3
Anhyd. AlCl3/
O CuCl reaction (3) OH
(b) R — C — CH 3 + (ii) Gattermann-Koch CH 3
reaction OH O
NaOX
CH 2 –C–OCH3
(c) R — CH2 — OH (iii) Haloform reaction
+R COOH (4)
Conc. H2SO 4
CH 3
Answer (4)
27
Sol. NaBH4 is a reducing agent. If reduces carbonyl Sol. z Tropospheric pollution: In the presence of
group into alcohols but does not reduce esters. pollutant, SO2 cunverts into SO3.
O
O O
OH 2SO2  O2  2SO3
CH2 OCH3
CH2 OCH3
NaBH4 z In spring season, sunlight breaks HOCl and Cl2
CH3 C2H5OH
CH3 to give chlorine radicals.
 
98. Which of the following molecules is non-polar in h
HOCl   OH g  Cl  g
nature?
These chlorine radicals deplete ozone layer
(1) POCl3 (2) CH2O
z High level of sulphur causes acid rain which
(3) SbCl5 (4) NO2
reacts with marble and causes discolouring and
Answer (3)
disfiguring
Cl CaCO3  H2SO4  CaSO4  H2O  CO2
Cl
Sol. SbCl5 : Cl Sb z A chain reaction occurs from interaction of NO
Cl with sunlight in which NO is converted to NO2
Cl
which absorb energy from sunlight and breaks
Net vector summation of bond moments will be zero into NO and O, which causes photochemical
so SbCl5 is a non-polar molecule. smong.
O
NO2  g  
h
 NO  g   O  g
 NO 2 : N  polar molecule. 
O
100. Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in
O
 POCl 3 :
Cl
P
Cl
 polar molecule.
atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined in
a total volume of one litre at 0°C is :
Cl
O [Given R = 0.082 L atm mol–1K–1, T = 273 K]
 CH O :
2
H
C
H
 polar molecule.
(1) 2.518
99. Match List-I with List-II. (2) 2.602
List-I List-II
(3) 25.18
(a) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  (i) Acid rain
2SO3(g) (4) 26.02
Answer (3)
(b) HOCl(g) 
h
 (ii) Smog
 
OH + Cl 4 1
Sol. nO2  
(c) CaCO3+ H2SO4  (iii) Ozone 32 8
CaSO4 + H2O+CO2 depletion

2
(d) NO2 (g) 
h nH2  1
 (iv) Tropospheric 2
NO(g) + O(g) pollution
1 9
Choose the correct answer from the options given nt  1
below. 8 8
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

Pt V  nt RT
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) 9
 0.082  273
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) Pt  8  25.18 atm
1
Answer (3)
28
BOTANY
104. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two

SECTION - A
equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is
101. Which of the following plants is monoecious? referred as :
(1) Carica papaya (1) Metacentric (2) Telocentric
(2) Chara (3) Sub-metacentric (4) Acrocentric
(3) Marchantia polymorpha Answer (1)

Sol. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two
(4) Cycas circinalis
equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is
Answer (2) referred as Metacentric.
Sol.  When male and female sex organs are present When the centromere is present slightly away from
on same plant body, such plants are said to be the middle, it is called sub-metacentric
monoecious. chromosome.
 Most of the species of Chara are monoecious. When the centromere is present very close to one
end of the chromosome, it is called acrocentric
 Cycas circinalis, Carica papaya and Marchantia chromosome.
polymorpha are dioecious.
When the centromere is present at terminal position,
102. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is: the chromosome is called telocentric.
(1) 8-nucleate and 7-celled 105. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves
division of centromere?
(2) 7-nucleate and 8-celled
(1) Metaphase I (2) Metaphase II
(3) Anaphase II (4) Telophase II
Answer (3)
Answer (1) Sol.  Division of centromere occurs in anaphase II.
Sol. A typical angiospermic embryo sac has seven cells  Telophase II is the last stage of meiosis II.
that are three antipodals, one central cell, one egg During this phase, the chromatids reach the
cell and two synergids. poles and start uncoiling.
The central cell has two polar nuclei, hence the  Chromosomes form two parallel plates in
embryo sac is eight nucleated. metaphase I and one plate in metaphase II.
103. Gemmae are present in 106. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in Sorghum is
(1) Mosses (1) Pyruvic acid
(2) Pteridophytes (2) Oxaloacetic acid
(3) Some Gymnosperms (3) Succinic acid
(4) Some Liverworts (4) Phosphoglyceric acid

Answer (2)
Answer (4)
Sol.  Sorghum is a C4 plant. The first stable product
Sol.  Gemmae are green, multicellular asexual buds
of CO2 fixation in Sorghum is oxaloacetic acid.
that are produced by some liverworts like
Marchantia.  The first stable product in C 3 cycle is
3-phosphoglyceric acid.
 Mosses reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation
and budding of protonema.  Pyruvic acid is the end product of glycolysis.
 Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms normally do  Succinic acid is an intermediate product in krebs

not reproduce asexually cycle.
29
107. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a 110. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen,
population is : phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any
(1) Natural selection given time, is referred as :
(2) Genetic recombination (1) Climax (2) Climax community
(3) Mutation (3) Standing state (4) Standing crop
(4) Genetic drift Answer (3)
Answer (4) Sol.  Amount of all the inorganic substances or
Sol.  Change in gene frequency in a small population nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus
by chance is known as genetic drift. Genetic and calcium present in soil at any given time, is
drift has two ramifications, one is bottle neck referred as standing state.
effect and another is founder's effect.
 Amount of living material present in different
 When accidentally a few individuals are trophic levels at a given time, is referred as
dispersed and act as founders of a new isolated standing crop.
population, founder's effect is said to be
observed.  Climax community is the last community in
biotic succession which is relatively stable and
 Crossing over which occurs during gamete
is in near equilibrium with the environment of
formation results in genetic recombination.
that area.
 Mutations are random and directionless.
111. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as
108. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
reserve food material?
(1) Mature sieve tube elements possess a
conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic (1) Ectocarpus (2) Gracilaria
organelles (3) Volvox (4) Ulothrix
(2) Microbodies are present both in plant and animal Answer (1)
cells
Sol. Ectocarpus is a brown alga belongs to the class
(3) The perinuclear space forms a barrier between Phaeophyceae. Members of this class have mannitol
the materials present inside the nucleus and that
and laminarin as stored food material.
of the cytoplasm
Ulothrix and Volvox belong to Chlorophyceae (green
(4) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and
RNA molecules in both directions between algae). Members of this class have starch as reserve
nucleus and cytoplasm food material. Gracilaria is a member of red algae
(Rhodophyceae). This class is characterised by
Answer (1)
having floridean starch as stored food material.
Sol. A mature sieve tube elements possess a peripheral
cytoplasm and a large central vacuole but lacks a 112. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which
nucleus. mechanism the competing species might have
evolved for their survival?
Rest of other statements are correct.
109. Amensalism can be represented as: (1) Resource partitioning (2) Competitive release
(1) Species A (–); Species B (0) (3) Mutualism (4) Predation

(2) Species A (+); Species B (+) Answer (1)
(3) Species A (–); Species B (–) Sol. • Inspite of interspecific competition the competing
(4) Species A (+); Species B (0) species may co-exist by doing resource
Answer (1) partitioning.
Sol. • Amensalism is an interaction between two • In mutualism two organisms are equally
organisms of different species in which one benefitted.
species inhibits the growth of other species by • In predation one organism (Predator) eats the
secreting certain chemicals. The first species is another one (Prey).
neither get benefited nor harmed.
• In competition release there occurs dramatical
• (+) : (0) interaction is observed in commensalism
increase in population of a less distributed
• (+) : (+) interaction is observed in mutualism. species when its superior competitor is
• (–) : (–) interaction is seen in competition removed.
30
113. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two 116. Match List-I with List-II.
kinds of spores. Such plants are known as:
(1) Homosorus
(2) Heterosorus
(3) Homosporous
(4) Heterosporous
Answer (4)
Sol. Plants like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two

kinds of spore i.e., microspores and macrospores.
They are known as heterosporous.
Most of the pteridophytes produce single type of Choose the correct answer from the options given
spores and are called homosporous below.
Sorus are brownish or yellowish cluster of spore- (a) (b) (c) (d)
producing structures located on the lower surface of (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
fern leaves. (2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
114. The site of perception of light in plants during (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
photoperiodism is (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(1) Shoot apex Answer (3)
(2) Stem Sol.  The inner membrane of mitochondria forms

infoldings called cristae.
(3) Axillary bud
 Thylakoids are flattened membranous sacs in
(4) Leaf stroma of plastids.
Answer (4)  Cisternae are disc shaped sacs in Golgi

apparatus.
Sol.  The site of perception of light in plants during  Primary constriction in chromosome that holds
photoperiodism is leaf. two chromatids together is called centromere.
 The site of perception of low temperature Hence correct option is (3)- a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
stimulus during vernalisation is shoot apex and 117. Match List-I with List-II.
embryo.
 Axillary bud are not sites of perception of

photoperiod.
115. Plants follow different pathways in response to

environment or phases of life to form different kinds
of structures. This ability is called
(1) Elasticity
(2) Flexibility Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(3) Plasticity
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Maturity (1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Answer (3) (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Sol. Plants show plasticity which means the ability of (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
plant to follow different pathways and produce (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
different structures in response to environment. Answer (1)
31
Sol. (a) Cohesion is mutual attraction among water 121. Which of the following statements is not correct?
molecules.
(1) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
(b) Adhesion is attraction towards polar surfaces.
(2) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.
(c) Surface tension explains water molecules are
more attracted in liquid phase than gaseous (3) Pyramid of energy is always upright.
phase.
(4) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem
(d) Guttation is loss of water is liquid form from the is upright.
leaf margins.
Answer (2)
118. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide
when viewed under UV radiation, appear as Sol. Pyramid of biomass in sea is inverted. For example,
biomass of zooplanktons is higher than that of
(1) Yellow bands (2) Bright orange bands
phytoplanktons as life span of former is longer and
(3) Dark red bands (4) Bright blue bands
the latter multiply much faster though having shorter
Answer (2) life span.
Sol. After the bands are stained, they are viewed in UV
light. The bands appear bright orange in colour.
PC 21
Ethidium bromide is the intercalating agent that
stacks in between the nitrogenous bases. PP 04
119. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from
anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant Small standing crop of phytoplanktons supports
which, during pollination, brings genetically different large standing crop of zooplankton
types of pollen grains to stigma, is :
122. In the equation GPP – R = NPP
(1) Xenogamy (2) Geitonogamy
R represents :
(3) Chasmogamy (4) Cleistogamy
(1) Radiant energy (2) Retardation factor
Answer (1)
(3) Environmental factor (4) Respiration losses
Sol.  Xenogamy refers to the transfer to pollen grains
from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different Answer (4)
plant which during pollination, brings genetically Sol. In the equation,
different types of pollen grains to stigma.
GPP – R = NPP
 Cleistogamy is a condition is which flower does
not open. R refers to respiratory loss
 Geitonogamy refers to the transfer of pollen grain GPP is gross primary productivity
from anther to stigma of another flower of the NPP is net primary productivity
same plant.
123. Diadelphous stamens are found in
 Chasmogamy is a condition in which flowers
remain open. (1) China rose
120. Which of the following algae produce Carrageen? (2) Citrus
(1) Green algae (2) Brown algae (3) Pea
(3) Red algae (4) Blue-green algae (4) China rose and citrus
Sol. • The cell wall of red algae is composed of agar, Sol.  Stamens are said to be diadelphous when these
carrageen and funori along with cellulose. are united in two bundles e.g. Pea.
• In brown algae cell wall contains algin while in  China rose has monoadelphous stamens while,
green algae it is composed of cellulose and Citrus has polyadelphous stamens.
pectin. Monoadelphous stamens are grouped in single
• In blue green algae cell wall is composed of bundle whereas polyadelphous stamens occur in
mucopeptides. more than two bundles.
32
124. When gene targetting involving gene amplification is Sol. The production of gametes (n) by the parents (2n),
attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease, the formation of the zygote (2n), the F1 and F2 plants
it is known as : can be understood from a diagram called Punnett
(1) Biopiracy (2) Gene therapy square.
127. Which of the following is a correct sequence of
(3) Molecular diagnosis (4) Safety testing
steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
Answer (2)
(1) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
Sol. The correct option is (2)
(2) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
 Gene therapy is a collection of methods that (3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
allows correction of a gene defect that has been
diagnosed in a child/embryo. (4) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
Answer (1)
 Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of
bio-resources by multinational companies and Sol. The first step in the polymerase chain reaction is
other organisations without proper authorisation denaturation during which strands of dsDNA
from the countries and people concerned without separate. This requires temperature around 94°C.
compensatory payment. This is followed by annealing in which primers anneal
 Molecular diagnosis refers to the act or process to 3' end of template DNA strand.
of determining the nature and cause of a Annealing is followed by extension in which Taq
disease. polymerase adds nucleotides to 3'OH end of
primers.
128. Mutations in plant cells can be induced by:
List-I List-II (1) Kinetin (2) Infrared rays
(a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen (3) Gamma rays (4) Zeatin
Answer (3)
(b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition
Sol. • Several kinds of radiation like gamma rays, X-
(c) Secondary cortex (iii) Exchange of gases rays, UV-rays cause mutation.
• These are physical mutagens.
(d) Cork (iv) Phelloderm
• Such induced mutation in plants is done to
develop improved varieties. The first natural
cytokinin was isolated from unripe maize grain
below.
known as zeatin. The cytokinin that was
(a) (b) (c) (d) obtained from degraded product of autoclaved
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) herring sperm DNA was kinetin (N 6-furfuryl
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) aminopurine). Infrared rays cause heating effect.
129. Match List-I with List-II
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) List-I List-II
Answer (2) (a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency
Sol.  Lenticels are meant for exchange of gases.
(b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato
 Phellogen is also known as cork cambium.
 Phelloderm is also called secondary cortex (c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones
because it is the cortex that develops during
secondary growth. (d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants
 Cork has deposition of suberin in their cell walls Choose the correct answer from the options given
when they get mature. below.
126. The production of gametes by the parents, formation (a) (b) (c) (d)
of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood (1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
from a diagram called : (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(1) Bullet square (2) Punch square (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) Punnett square (4) Net square (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
33
Sol. • Pomato is obtained as a result of protoplast 132. Which of the following is not an application of PCR
fusion. (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
• Totipotency is a property of explant to develop (1) Molecular diagnosis
into whole plant body during plant tissue culture.
• Virus free plants can be obtained through (2) Gene amplification
meristem culture. (3) Purification of isolated protein
• Somaclones are obtained by the process of
(4) Detection of gene mutation
micropropagation.
130. During the purification process for recombinant DNA Answer (3)
technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates
Sol. PCR is Polymerase Chain Reaction.
out :
(1) RNA (2) DNA It is used for making multiple copies of the gene.
(3) Histones (4) Polysaccharides Hence PCR is used for
Answer (2)
• Gene amplification.
Sol. Various enzymes like protease, RNase, etc. are
added to break down substances like proteins, RNA, • PCR-based assays have been developed that
etc. Once all these substances are broken down, detect the presence of gene sequences of the
DNA is left which is precipitated out by adding infectious agents.
chilled ethanol.
• It is also used in detecting mutations.
Histones are basic proteins that help condense DNA
in a cell. • Protein is not the target of PCR. Hence, plays
no role in its purification.
131. Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
133. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field
(1) IAA
(1) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription;
(2) NAA
(c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein
(3) 2, 4-D
(2) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication;
(c)-Transcription;(d)-Transduction (4) IBA
(3) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation; Answer (3)
(d)-Protein
Sol. Some synthetic auxins are used as weedicides.
(4) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication;
2,4-D is widely used to remove broad leaved weeds
(d)-Protein
or dicotyledonous weeds in cereal crops or
Answer (3) monocotyledonous plants.
Sol. • Formation of DNA from DNA is replication.
IAA and IBA are natural auxins.
• Formation of mRNA from DNA is called
Transcription. NAA is a synthetic auxin.
• Formation of protein from mRNA is called 134. Match List-I with List-II.
Translation.
• So, (a) is Replication
(b) is Transcription
(c) is Translation
(d) is Protein
• Transduction is transfer of genetic material from
one bacterium to another with the help of virus
or a bacteriophage.
34
Select the correct answer from the options given Sol.  During respiration, process of ATP synthesis is
below. explained by chemiosmotic model. It says that
a proton gradient is required for ATP synthesis
(a) (b) (c) (d)
that is established by oxidation-reduction
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) reactions.
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)  In ETC, one NADH + H+ produces 3 ATP while
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) one FADH2 produces 2 ATP molecules.
 ATP is synthesised via complex V.
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
 In ETS, oxygen acts as terminal electron
Answer (1) acceptor.
Sol. (a) Meristematic tissues are those tissues which 137. Match Column-I with Column-II.
have cells with active cell division capacity.
(b) Simple tissues are those tissues which have all Column-I Column-II
the cells similar in structure and function. (a) Nitrococcus (i) Denitrification
(c) Vascular tissues are complex permanent tissues (b) Rhizobium (ii) Conversion of ammonia
hence they have different types of cells. to nitrite
(d) Sclereids are sclerenchymatous cells which are (c) Thiobacillus (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate
dead with highly thickened walls and narrow (iv) Conversion of atmospheric
(d) Nitrobacter
lumen. nitrogen to ammonia
135. Which of the following are not secondary Choose the correct answer from options given
metabolites in plants? below.
(1) Morphine, codeine (2) Amino acids, glucose (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Vinblastin, curcumin (4) Rubber, gums (1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Answer (2) (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Sol. The correct option is (2) (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
• Amino acids and glucose are included under the
category of primary metabolites as they have Answer (1)
identifiable functions and play known roles in Sol. • Nitrogen fixation is conversion of atmospheric
normal physiological processes. N2 to NH3 (ammonia). It is carried out by N2
• Rubber, gums, morphine, codeine, vinblastin and fixers such as Rhizobium.
curcumin are included under the category of
• NH3 is converted to NO-2 (nitrite) by nitrifying
secondary metabolites as their role or functions
in host organisms is not known yet. However, bacteria such as Nitrococcus.
many of them are useful to human welfare.
• Then NO-2 is converted to NO3 (nitrate) by
nitrfying bacteria called Nitrobacter.
SECTION - B
• Thiobacillus carries out denitrification, a process
136. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
where NO2 / NO3 is converted to N2.
(1) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is
limited to the terminal stage 138. Match Column-I with Column-II
(2) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule Column-I Column-II

of NADH + H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, (a) % K(5) C1 + 2 + (2) A (9) + 1 G1 (i) Brassicaceae
and one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules
(b) K (5) C(5)A5 G(2) (ii) Liliaceae
(3) ATP is synthesized through complex V
(4) Oxidation-reducation reactions produce proton (c) P(3 + 3) A3 + 3 G(3) (iii) Fabaceae
gradient in respiration
Answer (2) (d) K2 + 2 C4 A2 – 4 G (2) (iv) Solanaceae
35
Select the correct answer from the options given Sol. • In some blue-green algae specialised cells
below. called heterocyst fixes atmospheric nitrogen into
(a) (b) (c) (d) ammonia.
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) • Fusion of two nuclei is called Karyogamy.
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) • Organisms that depend on living plants are
parasites, saprophytes grow on dead material.
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
• Fusion of protoplasts of two cells is called
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) plasmogamy.
Answer (1) 141. Select the correct pair.
Sol. The floral formula of (1) Large colorless empty - Subsidiary cells
cells in the epidermis
Brassicaceae family – K2 + 2 C4 A2+ 4 G (2)
of grass leaves
Solanacae family – K(5) C(5) A5 G (2) (2) In dicot leaves, vascular - Conjunctive
bundles are surrounded tissue
–% K(5) C 1 + by large thick-walled cells
Fabaceae family 2 + (2) A (9) +1 G1
(3) Cells of medullary rays - Interfascicular
Liliaceae family – P(3 + 3) A3 + 3 G (3) that form part of cambium
cambial ring
So a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) is correct matching.
(4) Loose parenchyma cells - Spongy
139. Identify the correct statement.
rupturing the epidermis parenchyma
(1) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is and forming a lens shaped
added to the 3' end of hnRNA opening in bark
(2) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to Answer (3)
terminate the process of transcription in bacteria Sol. • When the cells of medullary rays differentiated,
(3) The coding strand in a transcription unit is they give rise to the new cambium called
copied to an mRNA interfascicular cambium.
(4) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of • Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis
prokaryotes and forming a lens-shaped opening in bark are
Answer (2) called complementary cells.
Sol. • Split gene arrangement is characterstic of • Large colourless empty cells in the epidermis of
eukaryotes. grass leaves are called bulliform cells.
• In capping 5-methyl guanosine triphosphate is • In dicot leave, vascular bundles are surrounded
added at 5 end of hnRNA. by large thick walled cells called bundle sheath
cells.
• At 3 end poly-A tail is added.
142. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in
• The non coding or template strand is copied to some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as
an mRNA. RNA polymerase accociate with 
(1) Satellite DNA (2) Repetitive DNA
factor (Rho factor) and it alters the specificity of
the RNA polymerase to terminate the processes. (3) Single nucleotides (4) Polymorphic DNA
140. Which of the following statements is correct ? Answer (2)
(1) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy Sol. • DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences
in some specific regions in DNA sequence
(2) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile on
called as repetitive DNA.
non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy
• The basis of DNA fingerprinting is VNTR (a
(3) Organisms that depend on living plants are
satellite DNA as probe that show very high
called saprophytes
degree of polymorphism)
(4) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric
• Polymorphism is the variation at genetic level.
nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells
Allelic sequence variation has traditionally been
Answer (2) described as a DNA polymorphism.
36
143. In some members of which of the following pairs of Sol. • RNA polymerase III transcribes tRNA, ScRNA,
families, pollen grains retain their viability for months 5S rRNA and SnRNA.
after release?
• RNA polymerase I transcribes 5.8S, 18S and
(1) Poaceae ; Rosaceae 28S rRNA.
(2) Poaceae ; Leguminosae
• RNA polymerase II transcribes hnRNA which is
(3) Poaceae ; Solanaceae precursor of mRNA
(4) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae 146. In the exponential growth equation Nt = N0ert, e

Answer (4) represents
Sol. • In members of some plant families like (1) The base of number logarithms
Solanaceae, Rosaceae and Leguminosae the
(2) The base of exponential logarithms
pollen grains retain their viability for several
months. (3) The base of natural logarithms
• In cereals (Poaceae) pollen grains retain viability (4) The base of geometric logarithms
for around 30 minutes.
Answer (3)
144. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Sol. In the exponential growth equation Nt = N0ert,
(1) Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized
during non-cyclic photophosphorylation e represents the base of natural logarithms
(2) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP Nt = Population density after time t
reductase
N0 = Population density at time zero
(3) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II
r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase called biotic
(4) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I
potential.
and PS II
Answer (4) 147. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene
causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to
Sol. • Cyclic photophosphorylation involves only PS I.
hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells,
Both PS I and PS II are involved in non-cyclic
followed by its detection using autoradiography
photophosphorylation where both ATP and
because :
NADPH + H+ are synthesized.
• Both PS I and PS II are found on grana (1) mutated gene partially appears on a
lamellae whereas stroma lamellae have PS I photographic film
only and lack NADP reductase. (2) mutated gene completely and clearly appears on
145. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the a photographic film
process of transcription in eukaryotes?
(3) mutated gene does not appear on a
(1) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S) photographic film as the probe has no
(2) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA complementarity with it
(3) Transcribes precursor of mRNA (4) mutated gene does not appear on photographic
film as the probe has complementarity with it
(4) Transcribes only snRNAs
37
Sol. Autoradiography allows the detection/localisation of Choose the correct answer from the options given
radioactive isotope within a biological sample. below.
Probe is a radiolabelled ss DNA or ss RNA
(a) (b) (c) (d)
depending on the technique. To identify the mutated
gene probe is allowed to hybridise to its (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
complementary DNA in a clone of cells followed by
detection using autoradiography. The mutated gene (2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
will not appear on the photographic film, because the (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
probe does not have complementarity with the
mutated gene. (4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
148. Match List-I with List-II. Answer (3)
List-I List-II Sol. • In S phase DNA replication takes place.

(a) Protein (i) C = C double bonds • In G2 phase there is synthesis of proteins, RNA
(b) Unsaturated (ii) Phosphodiester etc.
fatty acid bonds
(c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds • Quiescent stage is inactive stage of cell cycle
but cells remain metabolically active in this
(d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds
stage.
Choose the correct answer from the options given • G1 phase is the interval between mitosis and
below. initiation of DNA replication.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
150. Plasmid pBR322 has Pstl restriction enzyme site
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance.
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) -galactoside production and the recombinant
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain
Answer (1) (1) It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance
Sol. • In a polypeptide or a protein, amino acids are to the host cell
linked by a peptide bond which is formed when (2) The transformed cells will have the ability to
the carboxyl (–COOH) group of one amino acid resist ampicillin as well as produce
reacts with amino (–NH2) group of the next amino
-galactoside
acid with the elimination of a water moiety.
• Unsaturated fatty acids are with one or more (3) It will lead to lysis of host cell
C = C double bonds. (4) It will be able to produce a novel protein with
• In nucleic acids, a phosphate moiety links the dual ability
3-carbon of one sugar of one nucleotide to the
5-carbon of the sugar of the succeeding Answer (1)
nucleotide. The bond between the phosphate Sol. pBR322 is a commonly used cloning vector. When
and hydroxyl group is an ester bond. As there is the gene for -galactoside is inserted in the
one such ester bond on either side, it is called
ampicillin resistance gene by using Pst I, the
phosphodiester bond.
recombinant E.coli will lose ampicillin resistance due
• In a polysaccharide, the individual to insertional inactivation of the antibiotic resistance
monosaccharides are linked by a glycosidic bond. gene.
The host (recombinant) cell will produce
List-I List-II -galactoside which is not a novel protein nor does
(a) S phase (i) Proteins are
it have dual ability.
synthesized
The transformed cells cannot resist ampicillin as they
(b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase
have lost ampicillin resistance.
(c) Quiescent (iii) Interval between mitosis
stage and initiation of A recombinant E. coli is produced and the host cell
DNA replication
will not undergo lysis due to insertion of
(d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication
-galactoside gene.
38
ZOOLOGY
(a) (b) (c) (d)

SECTION - A
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
151. Identify the incorrect pair (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(1) Alkaloids – Codeine (3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) Toxin – Abrin (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) Lectins – Concanavalin A Answer (3)
Sol. Metamerism is commonly seen in the members of

(4) Drugs – Ricin
phylum Annelida where the body is externally and
Answer (4) internally divided into segments with a serial
repetition of atleast some organs.
Sol.  Option (4) is incorrect because ricin is a toxin
obtained from Ricinus plant. Vinblastin and Water canal system is present in the members of
curcumin are drugs. phylum Porifera.
 Morphine and codeine are alkaloids. The body of ctenophores bears 8 external rows of
 Abrin is also a toxin obtained by plant Abrus. ciliated comb plates which help in locomotion.
 Concanavalin A is a lectin. Cnidoblasts or cnidocytes are characteristic feature

of cnidarians (coelentrata).
152. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell.
During interphase of Mitosis if the number of 154. Match List-I with List-II.
chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the
List-I List-II
number of chromosomes after S phase?
(a) Vaults (i) Entry of sperm through
(1) 8
Cervix is blocked
(2) 16
(b) IUDs (ii) Removal of Vas
(3) 4 deferens
(4) 32 (c) Vasectomy (iii) Phagocytosis of
Answer (1) sperms within the Uterus
Sol. In S phase there is duplication of DNA. So amount (d) Tubectomy (iv) Removal of fallopian tube
of DNA increases but not the chromosome number. Choose the correct answer from the options given
So, if the number of chromosomes at G1 phase is below
8 in fruit fly then the number of chromosomes will be (a) (b) (c) (d)
same in S phase that is 8 only.
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
153. Match List - I with List - II
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Answer (2)
Sol.  Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are barrier
methods of contraception for female which works
by blocking the entry of sperms through the
cervix.
Choose the correct answer from the options given  IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the
below. uterus.
40
 Vasectomy is a surgical method of contraception 157. Which one of the following is an example of
in males in which a small part of the vas Hormone releasing IUD?
deferens is removed or tied up through a small
(1) CuT (2) LNG 20
incision on the scrotum.
 Tubectomy is a surgical method of contraception (3) Cu 7 (4) Multiload 375
in females where a small part of the fallopian Answer (2)
tube is removed or tied up through a small
incision in the abdomen or through vagina. Sol.  LNG-20 is a hormone releasing IUD which
makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation and
155. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what
the cervix hostile to sperms.
will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and
Cytosine in it?  Multiload 375, CuT and Cu7 are copper
(1) T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20 releasing IUDs which suppress sperm motility
and the fertilizing capacity of sperms.
(2) T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
(3) T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20 158. Succus entericus is referred to as:
(4) T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25 (1) Pancreatic juice (2) Intestinal juice
Answer (3) (3) Gastric juice (4) Chyme

Sol. According to Chargaff's rule, for a double stranded Answer (2)
DNA, Sol.  Option (2) is correct because succus entericus
 A    T , is referred to as intestinal juice.
∵  A   30%,   T   30%  Chyme is name given to acidic food present in

stomach.
Since C  G
 Exocrine secretion of pancreatic acini is called
 100   A  T 
pancreatic juice.
 100  30  30
 Secretion of gastric glands present in stomach
 100  60  40% is called gastric juice.
and C= G = 20% each
159. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro
  A   30% muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and
T   30% paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as:
G  20% (1) Arthritis
C  20% (2) Muscular dystrophy
156. Which of the following RNAs is not required for the (3) Myasthenia gravis
synthesis of protein?
(4) Gout
(1) mRNA (2) tRNA
Answer (3)
(3) rRNA (4) siRNA
Sol.  Option (3) is correct because myasthenia gravis
Answer (4) is a chronic auto immune disorder affecting
neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue,
Sol. siRNA are small interfering RNA also called silencing
weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle.
RNA. It is a class of double-stranded RNA,
non-coding RNA molecules.  Gout is caused due to deposition of uric acid
mRNA is messenger RNA that carries genetic crystals in joints leading to its inflammation.
information provided by DNA.  Inflammation of joints is commonly known as
tRNA carries amino acids to the mRNA during arthritis.
translation.  Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder which
rRNA is structural RNA that forms ribosomes which results in progressive degeneration of skeletal
are involved in translation. muscle.
41
160. With regard to insulin choose correct options. 162. Which is the "Only enzyme" that has "Capability" to
catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
process of transcription in prokaryotes?
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
peptide.
(2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide
(3) DNA Ligase
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are
interconnected by disulphide bridges. (4) DNase
Choose the correct answer from the options given Answer (2)
below
Sol. In prokaryotes, the DNA dependent RNA
(1) (b) and (d) only polymerase is a holoenzyme that is made of
polypeptides (2') . It is responsible for
(2) (b) and (c) only initiation, elongation and termination during
transcription.
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
DNase degrades DNA.
(4) (a) and (d) only
DNA dependent DNA polymerase is involved in
Answer (3)
replication of DNA.
Sol.  Insulin is synthesized as a pro-hormone which
DNA ligase joins the discontinuously sysnthesised
contains A-chain, B-chain and an extra stretch
fragments of DNA.
called the C-peptide.
163. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present
 C-peptide is not present in mature insulin called on :
humulin.
(1) Corona radiata
 Chains A and B are connected by interchain
(2) Vitelline membrane
disulphide bridges.
(3) Perivitelline space
161. Which one of the following belongs to the family
(4) Zona pellucida
Muscidae?
Answer (4)
(1) Fire fly
Sol.  Option (4) is correct because zona pellucida has
(2) Grasshopper receptors for sperm binding (ZP3 receptors) in
(3) Cockroach mammals.
 Corona radiata is a layer of radially arranged
(4) House fly
cells of membrana granulosa.
Answer (4)  Perivitelline space is present in between vitelline
Sol.  Option (4) is correct because housefly belongs membrane and zona pellucida.
to the family Muscidae, class Insecta and 164. The centriole undergoes duplication during:
phylum Arthropoda.
(1) S-phase
 Fire flies are placed in family Lampyridae of
class insecta. (2) Prophase
 Grasshopper is also an insect placed in family (3) Metaphase
Acrididae.
(4) G2 phase
 Cockroach is also an insect placed in family
Blattidae. Answer (1)
42
Sol. During S phase of cell cycle replication of DNA takes 167. Match the following:
place. In animal cells during S phase, centriole List-I List-II
duplicates in the cytoplasm.
(a) Physalia (i ) Pearl oyster
In G2 phase there is duplication of mitochondria, Portuguese Man of
(b) Limulus (ii)
chloroplast and Golgi bodies. Tubulin portein is also War
synthesized during this phase. (c) Ancylostoma (iii) Living fossil
During prophase, condensation of chromatin starts. (d) Pinctada (iv) Hookworm
During metaphase, chromosomes get aligned at Choose the correct answer from the options given
equator to form metaphasic plate. below.
165. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow (a) (b) (c) (d)
and pneumatic long bones?
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(1) Neophron
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) Hemidactylus
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) Macropus (4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) Ornithorhynchus Answer (3)
Answer (1) Sol.  Option (3) is correct because Physalia is
Sol.  Hollow and pneumatic long bones are present in commonly known as Portuguese man of war.
animals that belong to class Aves e.g.,  Limulus is considered as a living fossil and
Neophron (vulture). commonly known as king crab.
 Ornithorhynchus (Platypus) and Macropus  Ancylostoma is a roundworm and commonly
(Kangaroo) belong to class Mammalia. known as hookworm.
 Hemidactylus (Wall lizard) is a member of class  Pinctada is commonly known known as pearl
oyster, included in phylum Mollusca.
Reptilia.
168. During the process of gene amplification using PCR,
166. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C.
if very high temperature is not maintained in the
formation is produced by:
beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR
(1) Alpha cells of pancreas will be affected first?
(2) The cells of rostral adenohypophysis (1) Annealing (2) Extension
(3) The cells of bone marrow (3) Denaturation (4) Ligation
(4) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney Answer (3)
Answer (4) Sol.  Option (3) is correct. High temperature about
94°C is required for the process of denaturation
Sol.  Option (4) is correct because Juxtaglomerular
whic is the first step of PCR.
cells of kidney secrete erythropoietin hormone
which stimulates RBC formation.  Ligation of DNA fragments is performed with the
help of an enzyme called DNA ligase.
 Alpha cells of pancreas produce hormone
 Annealing is performed at 50°-60°C which is the
glucagon.
second step that can get affected.
 The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
 Addition of nucleotides to the primer,
synthesizes hormones of anterior lobe of synthesizing a new DNA strand using only the
pituitary. template sequences with the help of enzyme
 The cells of bone marrow are responsible for DNA polymerase is called primer extension/
formation of formed elements. polymerisation.
43
169. Which of the following statements wrongly Choose the correct answer from the options given
represents the nature of smooth muscle? below
(1) These muscle have no striations (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) They are involuntary muscles (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) Communication among the cells is performed by (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
intercalated discs (3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) These muscles are present in the wall of blood (4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
vessels
Answer (1)
Answer (3)
Sol. Aspergilus niger is involved in production of citric
Sol.  Option (3) is incorrect because intercalated discs acid. Acetobacter aceti is involved in production of
are found only in cardiac muscle tissue. acetic acid. Clostridium butylicum is involved in
production of butyric acid whereas Lactobacillus is
 Smooth muscle fibres are non-striated and
involved in the production of lactic acid.
involuntary in nature and are present in the wall
of blood vessels, uterus, gall bladder, alimentary So a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) is correct matching.
canal etc. 172. For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis
170. The organelles that are included in the and understanding its pathophysiology is very
endomembrane system are important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic
techniques is very useful for early detection?
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria,
Ribosomes and Lysosomes (1) Western Blotting Technique
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, (2) Southern Blotting Technique

Lysosomes and Vacuoles (3) ELISA Technique
(3) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and (4) Hybridization Technique
Lysosomes
Answer (2/3*)
(4) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum,
Mitochondria and Lysosomes Sol.  ELISA can be used for early detection of an
infection either by detecting the presence of
Answer (2)
pathogenic antigen or by detecting the antibodies
Sol.  Endomembrane system consist of endoplasmic synthesized against the pathogen.
reticulum, Golgi complex, vacuoles and
lysosomes.  Option (2) Southern blotting is used to detect a
specific DNA sequence in the given sample and
 Mitochondria is semi-autonomous cell can be detected prior to antibody formation. One
organelle. can detect presence of pathogenic DNA/RNA.
 Ribosome is non-membranous cell organelle.
 In hybridization technique a ssDNA/ssRNA
171. Match List-I with List-II tagged with a radioactive molecule (probe) is
List-I List-II
allowed to hybridize its complementary DNA in
a clone of cells followed by detection using
Aspergillus
(a) niger (i ) Acetic Acid autoradiography. It is used to find a mutated
(b) Acetobacter (ii) Lactic Acid gene.
aceti
(c) Clostridium (iii) Citric Acid  Western blotting technique is used to detect a
butylicum
specific protein molecule among a mixture of
(d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric A cid
proteins.
44
173. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect Sol. The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from
with respect to cockroach? the ground to the top of atmosphere is measured in
(1) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction term of Dobson unit (1 DU = 1ppb).
of midgut and hind gut The lowermost layer of atmosphere is called
(2) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by troposphere.
the mouth parts CFCs are ozone depleting substances. Ozone found
(3) In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a genital in upper part of atmosphere (the stratosphere) is
pouch called good ozone.
(4) 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a 176. Read the following statements
pair of anal cerci
(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
Answer (1)
(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate
Sol.  Option (1) is incorrect because a ring of gastric animals.
caecae is present at the junction of foregut and
(c) Round worms have organ-system level of body
midgut. At the junction of midgut and hindgut,
organization.
malpighian tubules are present.
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in
 Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by
digestion.
mouthparts.
(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of
 In female cockroach, the 7th sternum is boat
Echinoderms.
shaped and together with the 8th and 9th sterna
forms a genital pouch. Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a
pair of anal cerci and 9th sternum only in male (1) (c), (d) and (e) are correct
cockroach, bears a pair of chitinous anal style. (2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
174. Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as (3) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
"Universal recipients". This is due to :
(4) (b), (c) and (e) are correct
(1) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of
Answer (4)
RBCs
Sol.  Metagenesis (alternation of generation) is
(2) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
observed in members of phylum Coelenterata
(3) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on (Cnidaria).
RBCs  Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate
(4) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in animals as true coelom is observed in them.
plasma  Roundworms (Aschelminths) have organ system
Answer (4) level of organization.
Sol. Option (4) is correct because persons with 'AB'  Comb plates present in ctenophores help in
blood group contain antigens 'A' and 'B' but lack locomotion.
antibodies anti-A and anti-B in plasma. So, persons  Water vascular system is seen in echinoderms,
with 'AB' blood group can accept blood from persons which helps in locomotion, capture and transport
with AB as well as the other groups of blood due to of food and respiration.
lack of antibodies in their blood. Therefore, such
persons are called "Universal recipients". 177. In a cross between a male and female, both
heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what
175. Dobson units are used to measure thickness of:
percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
(1) CFCs (2) Stratosphere (1) 50% (2) 75%
(3) Ozone (4) Troposphere (3) 25% (4) 100%
45
Sol. According to given question;  The conditions favourable for the dissociation of
oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin at the tissue level
A S A S
Hb Hb × Hb Hb Parents are; low pO2, high pCO2, high H+ concentration
and high temperature.
Hb Hb , Hb Hb
S S A S
, HbAHbS, HbAHbA Progenies 180. Sphincter of oddi is present at:
Total number of affected progenies = 1 (1) Ileo-caecal junction
 Percentage of diseased/affected progenies (2) Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and

duodenum
1
  100 = 25% (3) Gastro-oesophageal junction
4
(4) Junction of jejunum and duodenum
178. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of Answer (2)
inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?
Sol.  The bile duct and the pancreatic duct open
(1) Thrombin together into the duodenum as the common
(2) Renin hepato-pancreatic duct which is guarded by a
sphincter called the sphincter of Oddi.
(3) Epinephrine
 Ileo-caecal valve is present at the junction of
(4) Thrombokinase ileum and caecum to prevent the backflow of
faecal matter into the ileum in humans.
Answer (1)
 Gastro-oesphageal sphincter regulates the
Sol. During coagulation of blood, an enzyme complex opening of oesophagus into stomach.
thrombokinase helps in the conversion of
prothrombin (present in plasma) into thrombin. 181. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows
terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?
Thrombin further helps in the conversion of inactive
(1) Leptotene
fibrinogens into fibrins which form network of threads.
(2) Zygotene
Renin is secreted by JG cells in response to fall in
glomerular blood flow, which converts (3) Diakinesis
angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin-I (4) Pachytene
Epinephrine or adrenaline is secreted by adrenal Answer (3)
medulla in response to stress of any kind and
Sol.  In meiosis I, chiasmata (X shaped structure) is
during emergency.
formed in diplotene stage while it terminalise in
179. Select the favourable conditions required for the diakinesis stage.
formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
 Bivalents are formed in zygotene stage and
(1) High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature crossing over takes place in pachytene stage.
(2) Low pO 2 , high pCO 2 , more H + , higher  Compaction of chromosomal material occurs in
temperature leptotene stage.
(3) High pO 2 , high pCO 2 , less H + , higher 182. Which of the following is not an objective of
temperature Biofortification in crops?
(4) Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature (1) Improve protein content
Answer (1) (2) Improve resistance to diseases

Sol.  The factors favourable for the formation of (3) Improve vitamin content
oxyhaemoglobin at the alveolar level are; high
(4) Improve micronutrient and mineral content
pO2, low pCO2, less H+ concentration and lower
temperature. Answer (2)
46
Sol. Biofortification improves vitamin content, protein 185. A specific recognition sequence identified by
content and micronutrient and mineral content. endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions
within the DNA is:
It does not create resistance in plants against
diseases. (1) Degenerate primer sequence
183. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and (2) Okazaki sequences
carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion)
are: (3) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
(1) pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40 (4) Poly(A) tail sequences

(2) pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45 Answer (3)
(3) pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40
Sol.  Each restriction endonuclease recognizes a
(4) pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3 specific palondromic nucleotide sequence in the
Answer (1) DNA. Once it finds its specific recognition
sequence it bind to DNA and cuts each of the
Sol.  Option (1) is correct because pO2 in alveoli is two strands of DNA.
104 mm Hg and pCO2 in alveoli is 40 mmHg.
 During post transcriptional modification in
 In atmosphere, pO2 is 159 mm Hg and pCO2 is
eukaryotes, poly(A) tail (200–300 adenylate
0.3 mm Hg.
residues) are added at 3' end of hnRNA.
 In deoxygenated blood, pO2 is 40 mmHg and
pCO2 is 45 mmHg.  During DNA replication Okazaki fragments are
synthesized discontinuously and joined by DNA
 In oxygenated blood, pO2 is 95 mmHg and pCO2
ligase.
is 40 mmHg.
 A PCR primer sequence is termed degenerate if
184. Veneral diseases can spread through :
some of its position have several possible
(a) Using sterile needles bases.
(b) Transfusion of blood from infected person
(c) Infected mother to foetus SECTION - B
(d) Kissing
186. Which one of the following statements about
(e) Inheritance Histones is wrong?
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) Histones are organized to form a unit of 8
below molecules
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) The pH of histones is slightly acidic
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only (3) Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and
(3) (b) and (c) only Arginine
(4) (a) and (c) only (4) Histones carry positive charge in the side chain

Sol.  Histones are rich in basic amino acids residue
Sol.  Venereal diseases or sexually transmitted
lysine and arginine with charged side chain.
diseases or infections are transmitted by sharing
of infected needles, surgical instruments with  There are five types of histone proteins i.e., H1,
infected person, transfusion of blood or from an H2A, H2B, H3 and H4. Four of them occur in
infected mother to foetus. pairs to produce a unit of 8 molecules (histone
octamer)
 Venereal diseases are not transmitted through
kissing or inheritance.  The pH of histones is basic.
47
187. During muscular contraction which of the following (a) (b) (c) (d)
events occur?
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(a) 'H' zone disappears
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(b) 'A' band widens
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(c) 'I' band reduces in width
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and
Answer (4)
Pi.
Sol. The correct option is (4).
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards.
 Scapula is a large triangular flat bone situated in
the dorsal part of the thorax between the second
below:
and the seventh ribs.
(1) (a), (c), (d), (e) only
 Fibrous joint is shown by the flat skull bones
(2) (a), (b), (c), (d) only
which fuse end-to-end with the help of dense
(3) (b), (c), (d), (e) only fibrous connective tissues in the form of sutures,
(4) (b), (d), (e), (a) only to form the cranium.
Answer (1)  Sternum is a flat bone on the ventral midline of

thorax.
Sol. The correct option is (1) because the length of
A-band is retained. During muscle contraction, the  Cartilaginous joints between the adjacent
following events occur: vertebrae in the vertebral column permits limited
(1) The globular head of myosin acts as ATPase movements.
and hydrolyses ATP molecule and eventually 189. Which of these is not an important component of
leads to the formation of cross bridge. initiation of parturition in humans ?
(2) This pulls the actin filament towards the centre
(1) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
of 'A-band'.
(2) Synthesis of prostaglandins
(3) The Z-line attached to these actins are also
pulled inwards thereby causing a shortening of (3) Release of Oxytocin
the sarcomere.
(4) Release of Prolactin
(4) The thin myofilaments move past the thick
Answer (4)
myofilaments due to which the H-zone narrows.
This reduces the length of I-band but retains the Sol.  At the end of gestation, the completely
length of A-band. developed foetus is expelled out. This process is
called parturition.
(5) The myosin then releases ADP+Pi, and goes
back to its relaxed state.  Parturition is controlled by a complex
neuroendocrine mechanism.
188. Match List-I with List-II
 Estrogen and progesterone ratio increases as
List -I List -II estrogen levels rise significantly.
Cartilaginous
(a) Scapula (i)  Prostaglandins, which stimulate uterine
joints
contractions are also produced that act on
(b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone myometrium.
(c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints  Oxytocin, the main hormone, also called as birth
hormone is released by maternal pituitary, which
Vertebral Triangular flat
(d) (iv) brings about strong uterine contractions.
column bone
 Prolactin is a lactation hormone that has no role
in initiation of parturition.
below
48
190. Assertion (A): A person goes to high altitude and 192. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into
experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like
breathing difficulty and heart palpitations. (1) Dysfunction of Immune system
Reason (R): Due to low atmospheric pressure at (2) Parkinson's disease

high altitude, the body does not get sufficient
(3) Digestive disorder
oxygen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) Addison's disease
correct answer from the options given below Answer (1)
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct Sol. Adenosine deaminase (ADA) enzyme is crucial for
explanation of (A)
the immune system to function. Hence, its
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the deficiency results in the dysfunction of immune
correct explanation of (A) system.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false  Hyposecretion of hormones of the adrenal cortex
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true causes Addison's disease.
Answer (1)  Parkinson's disease is a long-term degenerative
Sol. Altitude sickness can be experienced at high altitude disorder of the central nervous system.
where body does not get enough oxygen due to low
 Disorders which affect GIT & associated glands
atmospheric pressure and causes nausea, fatigue
are called digestive disorders.
and heart palpitations.
193. Which of the following secretes the hormone,
Hence correct option is (1) as [R] is correct
explanation of [A]. relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?
191. Following are the statements with reference to (1) Graafian follicle (2) Corpus luteum
'lipids'. (3) Foetus (4) Uterus
(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called
unsaturated fatty acids Answer (2)
(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid. Sol. The hormone relaxin is produced in the later phase
of pregnancy. It is produced by the ovary.
(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
 Graafian follicle is not formed when the woman
(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including
is pregnant.
carboxyl carbon.
 Uterus and foetus do not produce relaxin.
(e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
 Relaxin is produced by the corpus luteum
below. present in the ovary. Ruptured Graafian follicle is
called corpus luteum, which has endocrine
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (c) and (d) only
function.
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (b) and (e) only
194. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop
Answer (3) the leakage of the substances across a tissue and
Sol.  The correct option is (3) because lipids having facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells
only single bonds are called saturated fatty acids via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
and lipids having one or more C = C double
bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids. (1) Gap junctions and Adhering junctions,
respectively
 Palmitic acid has 16 carbon atoms including
carboxyl carbon. (2) Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively
 Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms including (3) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions,
the carboxyl carbon. respectively.
 Lecithin is a phospholipid found in cell (4) Adhering junctions and Gap junctions,
membrane.
respectively
 Glycerol has 3 carbons, each bearing a hydroxyl
(–OH) group. Answer (2)
49
Sol. Three types of junctions are found in tissues Sol. The correct option is (2).
 Tight junctions stop leakage of substances from  Filariasis is the disease caused by Wuchereria
leaking across a tissue. bancrofti, filarial worm.
 Adhering junctions cement and keep  Amoebiasis/Amoebic dysentery is caused by a
neighbouring cells together. protozoan parasite Entamoeba histolytica in the
 Gap junctions or communication junctions large intestine of human.
facilitate communication between cells by  Pneumonia is caused by bacteria like
connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus
195. Which of the following is not a step in Multiple influenzae.
Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?  Ringworm is caused by fungi belonging to
(1) Cow is administered hormone having LH like genera Microsporum, Trichophyton and
activity for super ovulation Epidermophyton.
(2) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time 197. Match List-I with List - II
(3) Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination List - I List - II
(4) Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate (a) Allen’s Rule (i) Kangaroo rat
mothers at 8-32 cell stage (b) Physiological (ii) Desert lizard
Answer (1) adaptation
Sol. Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology is (c) Behavioural (iii) Marine fish
adaptation at depth
used for herd improvement in short time.
 Cows are administered hormones, with FSH-like (d) Biochemical (iv) Polar seal
activity for superovulation. adaptation
 8-32 celled embryos are transferred to surrogate
mothers.
below.
 6-8 eggs are produced per cycle.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
 Cows can be fertilised by artificial insemination.
196. Match List-I with List-II (1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
List -I List -II (2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

Haemophilus
(a) Filariasis (i) (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
influenzae
(b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Wuchereria Answer (3)

(c) Pneumonia (iii)
bancrofti
Entamoeba Sol.  Polar seal generally has shorter ears and limbs
(d) Ringworm (iv)
histolytica (extremities) to minimise heat loss. This is with
Choose the correct answer from the options given reference to Allen's rule.
below  Kangaroo rat exhibits physiological adaptation.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
 Desert lizard shows behavioural adaptation.
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) They lack the physiological ability to cope-up
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) with extreme temperature but manage the body
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) temperature by behavioural means.
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)  Marine fishes at depth are adapted biochemically
Answer (2) to survive in great depths in ocean.
50
198. Match List - I with List - II 199. Statement I: The codon 'AUG' codes for
methionine and phenylalanine.
List - I List - II
Statement II: 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code
(a) Adaptive (i) Selection of
radiation for the amino acid lysine.
resistant varieties
due to excessive In the light of the above statements, choose the
use of herbicides correct answer from the options given below.
and pesticides
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Convergent (ii) Bones of forelimbs
evolution in Man and Whale (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Divergent (iii) Wings of Butterfly (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
evolution and Bird false
(d) Evolution by (iv) Darwin Finches (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
anthropogenic
action true
Answer (4)
below. Sol.  AUG has dual functions, it codes for
methionine. It also acts as initiator codon.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
 AUG does not code for phenylalanine.
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)  Statement II is true.
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 200. Following are the statements about prostomium of
earthworm.
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(a) It serves as a covering for mouth.
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it
Answer (1) can crawl.
Sol. The correct option is (1) (c) It is one of the sensory structures.
 Adaptive radiation is the process of evolution of (d) It is the first body segment.
different species in a given geographical area
starting from a point and literally radiating to
below.
other areas of geography, for example : Darwin's
finches. (1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
 Analogous organs which are not anatomically (2) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
similar structures though they perform similar
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
functions, are a result of convergent evolution,
for example: Wings of butterfly and of birds. (4) (b) and (c) are correct
 Homologous organs which are anatomically Answer (1)
similar structures but perform different functions
Sol.  The anterior end of the earthworm has mouth
according to their needs, are a result of divergent
which has covering called prostomium.
evolution, for example : Bones of forelimbs in
man and whale.  Prostomium acts as a wedge to force open
cracks in the soil.
 Evolution by anthropogenic action means
 Prostomium has receptors, so it is sensory in
evolution due to human interference, for example:
function.
Antibiotic resistant microbes, herbicides
resistant varieties and pesticide resistant  The first body segment of earthworm is the
varieties. peristomium

51

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DATE : 12/09/2021 Test Booklet Code

Sol. Let Fv be the viscous force and FB be the Bouyant

10 7  2  5 1 On moving towards right electric field strength

E Sol. With larger aperture of objective lens, the light

7. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two

Total gain in BE = (BE) of products – (BE) of (1) 60° (2) 30°

Distance travelled during (n + 1)th second. Sol. For a spring, kx = F

m (2) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (Q), (D) - (P)

13. The electron concentration in an n-type

A 16. The number of photons per second on an average

(g = 10 m/s2) (1) j  k, j  k

d  mgh  Answer (2)

Now these four resistances are arranged in series Sol.

19. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives

So the capacitor is short circuited. It does not store EARTH

When body is at height y above ground. Potential

(1) (A) and (B) both are correct. S

Answer (3) 25. If E and G respectively denote energy and

Sol. • In reverse biased, after breakdown, voltage across E

Sol. Dimensional formula of energy

= [M2 L–1 T0] Here, n = 1

5 SHM is given by x = Asin(t + ) ...(I)

(3) (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R) 2 

Answer (3) while time period of x2 = A2sin2(t + ) is

Sol. Root mean square speed of gas molecule  

Sol. VL = 40 volt 33. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength '' is incident

Now, VRMS  VR2  VL  VC 

Θ VRMS  IRMS  Z Sol. As per Einstein's photoelectric equation

Now De-broglie wavelength,

Let current in outer loop be i 60 cm 60 cm

For second refraction from convex lens, t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6

(1) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s Vertical velocity of ball (vy) = uy + ayt

(2) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s vy = 0 + 10 × 2 = 20 ms–1 (∵ ay = g = 10 m/s2)

(3) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s So magnitude of velocity of ball

(4) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s

R The maximum height above the surface reached by

Velocity of car at t = 4 s; v = u + at 1 2 2 GMh

(1) 0 kg m/s (2) 4.2 kg m/s

Now magnetic moment of Triangle loop = NIA

Mass of rod = 500 g; Length of rod = 200 cm

Torque due to mass m 3MR 2 3

(4) Noble gases have large positive values of CH3

z Morphine and Heroin are Narcotic analgesics (1) CP + CV = R

 Both statement I and statement II are false (2) CP – CV = R

Answer (4) = U + (RT)

F F square pyramidal in shape deuterium, 12 H or D and tritium 13 H or T . Of these

(2) P1 > P2 > P3 z Hence, body centred possible variation is present

70. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa Cl Cl Cl

CH3 — Br 293 (3) 7.75 (4) 6.25

9.6 kJ mol–1. The correct potential energy profile for

(1) 200 K the reaction is shown in option.

(200 K, 400 K, 600 K)

Sol. z Hrxn = (Ea)f – (Ea)b

(d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (iv) 1.73 BM

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) F– 9 + 1 = 10

acetic acid? Choose the correct option. (ii) H 2O

 50  350  400 S cm2 mol1 CO, HCl

CaSO4 + H2O+CO2 depletion

(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

104. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two

(2) Chara (3) Sub-metacentric (4) Acrocentric

(3) Marchantia polymorpha Answer (1)