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Table of Contents

1. ECONOMY .........................................................................................................................................3

2. ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT ..........................................................................................................6

3. GEOGRAPHY ......................................................................................................................................8

4. GOVERNMENT SCHEMES AND PROGRAMMES ...................................................................................9

5. SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY............................................................................................................. 10

6. INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS AND ORGANISATIONS .......................................................................... 12

7. POLITY ............................................................................................................................................. 14

8. HISTORY, ART AND CULTURE............................................................................................................ 17

9. AGRICULTURE .................................................................................................................................. 17

10. DEFENCE AND SECURITY............................................................................................................... 18

11. REPORTS AND INDICES ................................................................................................................. 18

12. MAPS / PLACES............................................................................................................................. 18

13. MISCELLANEOUS .......................................................................................................................... 20

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1. Economy
1) Which of the following statements describe the
term ‘Demographic Dividend’?
a) A rise in the gross employment ratio of
country due to government policies
b) A rise in the rate of literacy due to
development of educational institutions in different
parts of the country
c) A rise in the rate of economic growth due
to higher share of working age people in a
population
d) A rise in the standard of living of the
people due to the growth of alternative livelihood
practices
2) The Department of Financial Services (DFS)
oversees several key programs/initiatives. It
provides policy support to
1. Public Sector banks (PSBs)
2. Public Sector Insurance Companies (PSICs)
3. Development Financial Institutions (DFIs)
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 3
3) Consider the following statements
regarding Government security (G-sec) yields.
1. Government securities or government
bonds, are instruments that governments use to
borrow money.
2. G-sec yields indicates the broader trend of
interest rates in the economy.
3. If G-sec yields start going up, it means
lending to the government is becoming riskier.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
4) Consider the following statements regarding
small savings schemes in India.
1. Public Provident Fund (PPF), Sukanya
Samriddhi Yojana and the National Savings
Certificate (NSC) are categorised as small savings
schemes.
2. Generally the Small savings schemes rates
are linked to yields on benchmark government
bonds.
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3. As a social responsibility, the RBI always
keeps the interest rates of small savings schemes
higher than the CPI inflation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
5) On tap licensing provided RBI means
a) the RBI window for granting banking
licences will be open only on specific dates.
b) the RBI window for granting banking
licences will open only when a proposal
arises.
c) the RBI window for granting banking
licences will be open throughout the year.
d) None of the above
6) India has come a long way in liberating the
capital account transactions in the last three
decades and currently has partial capital account
convertibility. Which of the recent moves
indicate the above statement?
1. Easing of external commercial borrowing.
2. Introducing the Fully Accessible Route
(FAR) — through which non-residents can invest in
specified government securities without any
restrictions.
3. Increasing the foreign portfolio
investment limits in the Indian debt markets.
4. Allowing outbound FDI by Indian
incorporated entities.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
7) Which of the following are regulated by Reserve
Bank of India (RBI)?
1. Merchant Banker
2. Venture Capital Fund Company
3. Chit Fund Companies
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) None of the above
8) Consider the following statements regarding
International Development Association (IDA).
1. The International Development
Association (IDA) is the part of IMF that
helps the world’s poorest countries.
3

2. IDA lends money on concessional terms
i.e., at zero or very low interest charge and
repayments are stretched over 30 to 40
years.
3. IDA does not provide any grants to
countries.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
9) Consider the following statements regarding
Special Drawing Right (SDR).
1. The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is an
interest-bearing international reserve asset
created by the IMF.
2. The value of the SDR is not set by IMF,
rather it is directly determined by supply and
demand in the market.
3. It can be held and used by member
countries, private entities or individuals.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
10) Under stagflation, the economy faces
1. Stagnant growth
2. Rising inflation
3. High employment
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
11) Which of the following are the reasons for
involuntary financial exclusion?
1. Lack of surplus income
2. Remoteness of service provider
3. High transaction costs
4. Poor quality of services rendered
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
12) Consider the following statements regarding
Formalisation of economy.
1. Formalisation of the economy means
bringing companies under the regulatory regime of
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government and subject to laws related
to manufacturing and income tax.
2. It establishes rule of law and provide
benefits of labour laws to entrepreneurs and
workers.
3. It leads to more tax revenues with
an increase in tax-to-GDP ratio.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
13) Which of following measures could be used by
the government to control the sudden spike in
specific food items?
1. Temporary ban on the export of inflated
item.
2. Imposition of stock limit under the
Essential Commodities Act
3. Temporary prohibition on the import of
inflated item.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1 only
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
14) Which of the following are considered as tax
revenue for the Union Government?
1. Excise Duty
2. Personal income tax
3. Income through Spectrum Auctions
4. Dividends on investments
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 2
d) 2, 3, 4
15) Consider the following statements regarding
Reserve assets.
1. A reserve asset must be readily available,
controlled by policymakers, and easily transferable.
2. Currencies like U.S. dollar and Gold bullion
are classified as Reserve assets.
3. In India, the Reserve assets have always
been less than 50 percent of India’s international
financial assets.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3
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16) Which of the following is/are the Effects of
Inflation?
1. Usually lenders suffer and borrowers
benefit out of inflation.
2. Holding money remains an intelligent
economic decision during inflation.
3. With every inflation the currency of the
country appreciates.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
17) In India, Internal Debt comprises
1. Loans raised in the open market
2. Treasury bills issued to State Governments
and Commercial Banks.
3. Non-interest bearing rupee securities
issued to International Financial Institutions.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
18) Consider the following statements regarding
Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB).
1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
(AIIB) It is a development bank with a mission to
improve the economic and social outcomes in Asia.
2. AIIB does not allow non-sovereign
entities to apply for AIIB membership.
3. AIIB Project Preparation Special Fund
(PPSF) provides technical assistance grants to
support the preparation of high-quality bankable
projects for AIIB Members.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
19) Consider the following statements regarding
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India.
1. FDI is regulated through Foreign
Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA).
2. For an investment into a listed company,
to be qualified as FDI, it should be 10% or
more of the post issue paid-up equity
capital.
3. In India, FDI is not allowed into unlisted
companies.
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Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
20) Which of the following statements best
describes the ‘Seed Capital’?
a) It is a capital required to make initial
investments in stock market.
b) Bail out capital given by the government
for public sector enterprises.
c) Essential capital required to procure seeds
for cultivation in monsoon season.
d) It is an early capital required to start a
new business.
21) Consider the following statements regarding
India International Bullion Exchange (IIBX).
1. It will be India’s first bullion exchange at
National Stock Exchange of India Limited (NSE) in
Mumbai.
2. Qualified jewellers will be permitted to
import gold through the IIBX.
3. The bullion exchange also has necessary
infrastructure to store physical gold and silver.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
22) Which of the following are the advantages of
having a bullion exchange in India?
1. Bullion imports for domestic consumption
can be channelized through the exchange.
2. It will offer the advantages of price
discovery, transparency in disclosures, guaranteed
centralised clearing and assurance of quality.
3. It will be an important step towards
financialization of bullion-based products.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
23) Gini coefficient or Gini ratio is associated with
which one of the following measurements in an
economy?
a) Personal income
b) Poverty index
c) Rate of inflation
d) Income inequality
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24) Consider the following statements.
1. The price rise which is the result of
increase in the production cost is known as cost-
push inflation.
2. Even if the price of one good has gone up,
it is considered as inflation.
3. A mismatch between demand and supply
can lead to inflation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 1 only
c) 1, 2
d) 2, 3
25) Consider the following statements.
1. Product taxes and subsidies are paid or
received per unit or product.
2. Production taxes and subsidies are paid or
received in relation to production and are
independent of the volume of production.
3. Factor cost includes only the payment to
factors of production including tax.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3
26) Consider the following statements.
1. Import cover is the number of months of
imports that could be paid for by a country’s
Forex reserves.
2. Import substitution is an inward-looking
trade strategy aimed at replacing imports
with domestic production.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
27) Which of the following are major economic traits
of boom?
1. Demand peaks up to such a high level that
it exceeds sustainable output/production levels.
2. The economy might face structural
problems like shortage of investible capital and
lower savings.
3. The market forces mismatch and tend to
create a situation where inflation starts going
upward.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
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d) 1, 2, 3
2. Ecology and
Environment
1) Consider the following statements regarding
India’s Ethanol blending in petrol.
1. The amended National Biofuel Policy-2018
has set the new target for 2025-26 for achieving 20%
ethanol blending in petrol.
2. Molasses is the feedstock used by sugar
mills to produce ethanol.
3. The National Biofuel Coordination
Committee (NBCC), with the Union Minister for
Environment, Forest & Climate Change as its head, is
the agency to coordinate this blending programme.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
2) Consider the following statements regarding Ban
on single-use plastic (SUP).
1. The Government has prohibited the
manufacture, import, stocking, distribution, sale and
use of identified SUP commodities, including
polystyrene and expanded polystyrene.
2. The violation of the ban will invite
punitive action under Environment Protection Act
(EPA) and under the bylaws of the respective
municipal corporations.
3. Plastic used for packaging in the FMCG
(fast moving consumer goods) sector is also banned.
4. The Extended Producer Responsibility
(EPR) guidelines states that, it is the producer's
responsibility to ensure environmentally-sound
management of a product until the end of its life.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
3) Consider the following statements.
1. Global Assessment Report on Biodiversity
and Ecosystem Services was released by
the Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on
Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES).
2. The World Network of Biosphere Reserves
is created by UNEP.
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3. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is
designated as the first biosphere reserve in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
4) Consider the following statements regarding
India Plastics Pact, sometimes seen in news.
1. India Plastics Pact (IPP) was launched as a
collaboration between Ministry of Environment,
Forest and Climate Change and the Confederation of
Indian Industry (CII).
2. It is a collaborative initiative between
businesses, governments and NGOs that aims to
transform the current linear plastics system into a
circular plastics economy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
5) Consider the following statements regarding Red
Sanders.
1. Red Sanders is a flora-species that is
endemic to a distinct tract of forests in Eastern
Ghats region of Andhra Pradesh.
2. Red Sanders is also listed in Appendix-II of
the Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species of Wildlife Fauna and Flora
(CITES).
3. Operation Rakth Chandan is related to
surveillance of export of Red Sanders.
4. The export of Red Sanders from India is
prohibited as per the Foreign Trade Policy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
6) Consider the following statements regarding
Whale sharks.
1. Whale sharks are the largest fish in the
sea.
2. They feed on plankton and travel large
distances to find enough food to sustain their huge
size, and to reproduce.
3. They are mainly found in the temperate
oceans of the world.
4. They are easily distinguished by their
white spotted colouration.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
7) Consider the following statements regarding
Western Ghats.
1. The Western Ghats are second only to the
Eastern Himalaya as a treasure trove of biological
diversity in India.
2. Western Ghats region runs from the
mouth of the river Tapti near the border of Gujarat
and Maharashtra to Kanyakumari.
3. K. Kasturirangan committee designated
the entire hill range of Western Ghats as an
Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
8) Consider the following statements regarding
T.S.R Subramanian committee.
1. T.S.R Subramanian committee was set
up to review India’s green laws and the
procedures followed by the Ministry of Environment,
Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC).
2. It recommended for the creation of Indian
Environmental Service (IES).
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
9) Consider the following statements.
1. The Asiatic cheetah was declared extinct
in India and is a critically endangered species
surviving only in Iraq.
2. Guru Ghasidas National Park is located in
Chhattisgarh.
3. Kuno National Park is the planned location
in India for the reintroduction of African cheetahs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
10) Consider the following statements regarding Jim
Corbett National Park.
1. Jim Corbett National Park is India’s and
Asia’s first national park.
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2. It was the first to come under the Project
Tiger initiative.
3. It completely encompasses the Shivaliks,
near the foothills of the Himalayas.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
11) Consider the following statements regarding
Snow leopard.
1. Spiti valley of Himachal Pradesh provides
a good habitat for Snow leopard and its prey species.
2. Siberian ibex and blue sheep are the
important prey species for Snow leopard.
3. They are Classified as ‘Critically
Endangered’ by the International Union for
Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red list and listed
in Schedule-I species of the Indian Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
12) To be classified as a wetland under Ramsar
Convention, the wetland should have which of
the following properties?
1. It should be a natural wetland and not
artificially formed
2. The water in the wetland can be static or
flowing
3. The depth of the marine water at low tide
must not exceed six meters
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
13) Consider the following pairs of wetlands and
their location
1. Pichavaram Mangrove: Tamil Nadu
2. Sakhya Sagar Lake: Mizoram
3. Pala wetland: Madhya Pradesh
4. Karikili Bird Sanctuary: Kerala
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1 only
c) 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
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14) Consider the following statements regarding
Ramsar Convention.
1. Designation of a wetland under Ramsar
Convention will lead to funding from the Ramsar
secretariat.
2. The Ramsar designation for a wetland can
be taken off if the country does not meet the
required standards.
3. Not every Ramsar Site in India is a notified
protected area under the Wildlife (Protection) Act,
1972.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
3. Geography
1) Consider the following statements regarding
Rare Earth Minerals.
1. The magnets made from rare earths are
more powerful than conventional ones.
2. India holds 2nd largest reserves after
China.
3. They are called 'rare earth' because
earlier it was difficult to extract
them from their oxides forms
technologically.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 3 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
2) Floods occur frequently in the Brahmaputra
River basin due to which of the following
factors?
1. The Brahmaputra often witnesses heavy
rainfall in its catchment area.
2. The tributaries of Brahmaputra are large
and bring large water and sediment volume.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
3) Consider the following statements.
1. While La Niña conditions enhance the
rainfall associated with the Northeast monsoon,
8

it has a negative impact on rainfall associated
with the Southwest monsoon.
2. During El Niño, there is abnormal surface
warming observed along the eastern and central
regions of the Pacific Ocean.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
4) Consider the following statements regarding
derecho, recently seen in news.
1. Derecho is associated with a “band of
rapidly moving showers or thunderstorms”.
2. Being a cold-weather phenomenon, a
derecho generally occurs during winter time.
3. They occur only across central and eastern
parts of the United States.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
5) Consider the following statements.
1. Low-pressure zones tend to draw air
toward them.
2. Changes in the jet stream can increase the
frequency and intensity of heat waves in Europe.
3. As the Arctic warms at a faster rate, the
temperature differential between it and the equator
increases.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
6) Consider the following statements.
1. El Niño brings warm water from the
equatorial Pacific Ocean up to the western coast of
North America.
2. In North America, the summer
temperatures trend lower during La Niña.
3. Shift in the position of jet streams results
in heatwaves in some places.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
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4. Government Schemes
and Programmes
1) Consider the following statements regarding
Public Distribution System (PDS).
1. The concept of a buffer stock was first
introduced during the Second Five Year Plan.
2. The Central Government takes the
responsibility for procurement, storage,
transportation and bulk allocation of
foodgrains, at subsidised prices.
3. The responsibility of distribution to
consumers including target groups through a
network of fair price shops (FPSs) rests with
the State Governments.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 2 only
d) 1, 3
2) The amended National Biofuel Policy-2018
focuses on which of the following?
1. Introduction of more feedstock for
production of biofuels.
2. Production of biofuels under the ‘Make in
India’ programme in Special Economic Zones.
3. Ban of export of biofuels.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
3) Consider the following statements.
1. Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) is the
parent ministry of the India Meteorological
Department (IMD).
2. In the hills, clouds don’t easily dissipate
and can get trapped over a certain area, bringing
torrential showers and even a cloud burst.
3. Convergence of the winds flowing from
opposite directions can lead to formation of
cumulonimbus clouds over the hilly region.
Which of the above statement sis/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
4) Consider the following statements regarding
Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP).
9

1. WEP is the initiative of Ministry of Women
and Child Development.
2. It will provide an ecosystem for budding &
existing women entrepreneurs across the country
along with hands-on support in setting-up and
scaling up businesses.
3. It will provide services such as free credit
ratings, mentorship, funding support to women
entrepreneurs, apprenticeship and corporate
partnerships.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
5) Which of the following are related to regulations
and steps taken to check food adulteration?
1. Consumer Protection Act, 2019
2. Codex Alimentarius Commission
3. Harmonised System (HS) code
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
5. Science and Technology
1) Consider the following statements regarding
Anthrax.
1. Anthrax, also known as woolsorter’s
disease is a zoonotic disease.
2. It is primarily a disease of herbivores, with
both domestic and wild animals being affected by it.
3. Host animals shed the bacteria into the
ground, which sporulates when exposed to the air.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
2) Consider the following statements regarding
Anthrax.
1. Flies also appear to play a significant role
in explosive outbreaks of the disease.
2. People with cuts or scrapes in the skin can
get infected with anthrax.
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3. One way to prevent the disease is by
vaccination of livestock so that the disease cannot
spread.
Which of the above statement sis/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
3) Consider the following statements regarding
Cyanobacteria.
1. Cyanobacteria are microscopic organisms
commonly found in water and sometimes in soil.
2. Not all Cyanobacteria produce toxins.
3. Climate change and increasing global
temperature is leading to cyanobacterial blooms.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
4) Apollo 11 mission is related to
a) Electrodynamics of Moon’s Interaction
with the Sun
b) Explore the dark side of the Moon
c) First manned mission to the Moon.
d) Collect data on the moon’s radiation
levels
5) Consider the following statements regarding
Space Station.
1. A space station is a large spacecraft that
remains in low-earth orbit for extended periods of
time.
2. International Space Station is the first fully
functional Space Station.
3. The ownership and use of International
space station is established by intergovernmental
treaties and agreements.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
6) Consider the following statements.
1. Asteroids are rocky objects much smaller
than planets, that orbit the Sun.
2. Asteroids were formed after millions of
years after the formation of planets and other
objects in the solar system.
3. OSIRIS-Rex is European Space
Agency’s (ESA) first mission to return a sample from
an asteroid.
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Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? 3. It leads to softening of bones resulting in
a) 1, 2 skeletal deformities.
b) 1 only Which of the above statements is/are correct?
c) 1, 3 a) 1, 2
d) 2, 3 b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
7) Supercomputing play an important role in which d) 1, 2, 3
of the following fields?
1. Quantum mechanics 8) Metamaterial, sometimes seen in news, is an
2. Weather forecasting object that gains its electrical properties from its
3. Genomics a) Change of phase
4. Oil and gas exploration b) Constituent materials
5. Drug discovery c) Temperature
Select the correct answer code: d) Internal microstructures
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
2) 2, 3, 4, 5 9) Consider the following statements regarding Li-
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 Fi Technology.
d) 1, 3, 4, 5 1. Li-Fi is a wireless technology that makes
use of High frequency radio waves to transmit data
5) Consider the following statements regarding at terabits per second speeds.
Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV). 2. Li-Fi can work underwater, where Wi-Fi
1. PSLV is the first Indian launch vehicle to fails completely.
be equipped with liquid stages. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
2. In the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) a) 1 only
system all the stages of the rocket fall back b) 2 only
into the ocean and does not leave any space c) Both 1 and 2
junk. d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Chandrayaan-1 and Mars Orbiter
Spacecraft were launched using PSLV. 10) Consider the following statements regarding
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Kala Azar.
a) 3 only 1. Kala Azar is a bacterial disease spread by
b) 1, 2 sandfly bites.
c) 1, 3 2. The disease is linked to malnutrition,
d) 1, 2, 3 population displacement, poor housing and a weak
immune system.
6) Which of the following are the Benefits of 3. Recently WHO declared that India has
blockchain technology? eliminated Kala Azar.
1. Blockchain technology records and validate Which of the above statements is/are correct?
each and every transaction made. a) 1, 2
2. There is no need of any third-party or central b) 2, 3
authority for peer-to-peer transactions. c) 2 only
3. The transactions made are immutable and can d) 1, 3
prevent it from hacking.
Select the correct answer code: 11) Consider the following statements regarding
a) 1, 2 Randomized controlled trial.
b) 1, 3 1. Randomized controlled trials (RCT) are
c) 2, 3 prospective studies that measure the effectiveness
d) 1, 2, 3 of a new intervention or treatment.
2. Examples of RCTs are clinical trials that
7) Consider the following statements regarding compare the effects of drugs and surgical
the deficiency of Vitamin D in human body. techniques.
1. Vitamin D deficiency is often associated with 3. Randomized controlled trials are used to
rickets. understand whether a free grains distribution
2. In the absence of vitamin D, the skeletal muscle scheme helped improve the nutrition levels among
is starved of energy, decreasing muscle mass. people living in a district.
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 INSTA CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 2. The disease is clinically similar to Ebola in
a) 1, 2 its spread, symptoms and progression, although it is
b) 1, 3 caused by a different virus.
c) 2, 3 3. Marburg can cause severe viral
d) 1, 2, 3 hemorrhagic fever, which interferes with the blood’s
ability to clot.
12) Consider the following statements regarding Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Non fungible tokens (NFTs) sometimes seen in a) 1, 2
news. b) 1, 3
1. A non-fungible token (NFT) is an c) 2, 3
interchangeable unit of data. d) 1, 2, 3
2. NFT works on blockchain.
3. Anything that can be converted into a
digital form can be an NFT.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 6. International Relations
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3 and Organisations
d) 1, 2, 3
1) Which of the following countries are members of
13) Consider the following statements regarding both BIMSTEC and ASEAN?
Non-fungible tokens (NFTs). 1. Myanmar
1. Non-fungible tokens are cryptographic 2. Bhutan
assets on a blockchain with unique identification 3. Thailand
codes that distinguish them from each other. 4. Cambodia
2. NFTs can be used to represent individuals’ Select the correct answer code:
identities and property rights. a) 1, 2, 3
3. They are similar to tokens like b) 1, 3, 4
cryptocurrencies. c) 1, 3
Which of the above statements is/are correct? d) 2, 3, 4
a) 1 only
b) 1, 3 2) Consider the following statements regarding
c) 1, 2 Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS).
d) 2, 3 1. BEPS refers to the phenomenon where
companies invest in a host country via shell
14) Consider the following statements about companies situated in tax havens to reduce
Bioremediation Technology. their tax liability.
1. Bioremediation is the use of living 2. India has ratified the Multilateral
microorganisms to degrade the environmental Convention to Implement Tax Treaty Related
contaminants into less toxic forms. Measures to Prevent BEPS.
2. One of the advantages of Bioremediation 3. The Multilateral Convention to Implement
is that it is effective in all environmental conditions. Tax Treaty Related Measures to Prevent
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create BEPS is an outcome of the World Bank BEPS
microorganisms specifically designed for Project.
Bioremediation. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1, 2
a) 2, 3 b) 2, 3
b) 2 only c) 2 only
c) 1, 3 d) 1, 3
d) 1, 2
3) India has hosted which of the following events
15) Consider the following statements regarding from the year 2021?
Marburg virus disease. 1. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
1. There are no vaccines or antiviral 2. G-20 summit
treatments for the disease. 3. 2021 BRICS summit
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 INSTA CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
Select the correct answer code: 3. Iraq
a) 1, 2 Select the correct answer code:
b) 2, 3 a) 1 only
c) 3 only b) 1, 2
d) None of the above c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
4) Which of the following countries are known as
the Four Asian Tigers? 8) Consider the following statements regarding UN-
1. South Korea General Assembly.
2. India 1. UN-General Assembly is the deliberative,
3. Taiwan policymaking and representative organ of the UN.
4. Singapore 2. It elects the non-permanent members of
5. Hong Kong the UN Security Council.
Select the correct answer code: 3. Each sovereign state gets one vote and
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 permanent members enjoy Veto powers.
b) 1, 3, 4, 5 4. All the decisions at the General Assembly
c) 1, 2, 4, 5 must be approved by two-thirds majority of Member
d) 2, 3, 4, 5 States.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
5) Consider the following statements regarding UN a) 1, 2
Convention on the Rights of the Child. b) 1, 3, 4
1. It is a legally-binding international c) 1, 2, 3
agreement setting out the civil, political, economic, d) 1, 2, 3, 4
social and cultural rights of every child.
2. Under the terms of convention, 9) India is not a member of which of the following
Governments are required to meet children’s basic organization/agency of World Bank Group?
needs and help them reach their full potential. a) Multilateral Investment Guarantee
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? Agency
a) 1 only b) International Development Association
b) 2 only c) International Centre for Settlement of
c) Both 1 and 2 Investment Disputes
d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) International Finance Corporation

6) Consider the following statements regarding 10) Build Back Better World (B3W) is the initiative
Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR). undertaken by
1. Missile Technology Control Regime a) G7 Countries
(MTCR) was established by G-20 countries. b) G20 Countries
2. The focus of MTCR include non- c) ASEAN
proliferation of unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) for d) OECD
all weapons of mass destruction.
2. It is not a legally-binding treaty, it is an 11) Consider the following statements regarding
informal and voluntary partnership among countries. International Criminal Court.
4. India was the founder member of the 1. The International Criminal Court (ICC)
Missile Technology Control Regime. investigates and tries individuals charged with the
Which of the above statements is/are correct? gravest crimes of concern to the international
a) 1, 2, 3 community like genocide, war crimes and crimes
b) 2, 3 against humanity.
c) 2, 3, 4 2. It is governed by Vienna convention.
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 3. India is a state party to ICC.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
7) CAATSA is a law that came into effect in the US a) 1 only
in 2017, meant to punish countries having deep b) 1, 2
engagements with c) 1, 3
1. Russia d) 2, 3
2. North Korea
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12) Consider the following statements regarding
India’s role in UN Peacekeeping Missions.
1. India’s contribution to UN Peacekeeping
began with its participation in the UN operation in
Korea in the 1950s.
2. India became the first country to deploy
an all-women contingent to a UN Peacekeeping
Mission.
3. The number of Indian peacekeepers have
had one of the lowest fatalities among the
peacekeepers of UN member states.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
7. Polity
1) Consider the following statements regarding
Election Commission of India (ECI).
1. The election commissioners can be
removed before the expiry of their term.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner can be
removed from office only through a process
of removal similar to that of a Supreme
Court judge.
3. The Constitution has debarred the retiring
election commissioners from any further
appointment by the government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
2) Consider the following statements regarding
Cooperatives.
1. Cooperatives fall in the Concurrent list of
the 7th Schedule.
2. Forming Cooperatives is a fundamental
right under 107th Constitutional Amendment Act.
3. Promotion of Cooperatives is also a
constitutional directive to the state mentioned
under the DPSP.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 3 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2
3) Consider the following statements.
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INSTA CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. In India, generally the fundamental
rights are enforceable against the state whereas in
few cases can be
enforceable against the private individuals.
2. In the Puttaswamy judgement, the
Supreme Court held that the right to privacy is a
fundamental right.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
4) Right to Equality in the Indian constitution does
not include this right?
a) Prohibition on discrimination on ground
of religion
b) Rights of the accused and convicts
c) Abolition of titles
d) Equality of opportunity in employment
5) The Election Commission registers political
parties for the purpose of elections and grants
them recognition as national or state parties on
the basis of their
1. Poll performance
2. Number of elections contested
3. Financial backing
4. Cadre strength
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1 only
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 2, 3
6) Consider the following statements regarding the
suspension of MLAs in the State Legislature.
1. The Constitution stipulates that the State
Legislative Assembly may declare vacant the seat of
a member who is absent for 60 days without
permission.
2. According to The Representation of the
People Act, 1951, a bye-election for filling any
vacancy shall be held within a period of one
year from the date of the occurrence of the vacancy.
3. During suspension, a member continues
to hold office, but only loses their voice in the
legislature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
7) Consider the following statements.
14

1. Judicial review is considered a basic
structure of the constitution.
2. The term ‘untouchability’ has been
defined in Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955
3. Article 11 declares that all laws that are
inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the
fundamental rights shall be void.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 1 only
d) 1, 3
8) Consider the following statements.
1. The Constitution has specified the process
and the role of Governor in electing the speaker of
State legislative assembly.
2. In State legislative assembly, Speaker
decides the date for the election of the Deputy
Speaker.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
9) Consider the following statements regarding
Nominated members of Rajya Sabha.
1. The Constitution of India does not specify
any qualifications for the appointment of nominated
members of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Nominated members of Rajya Sabha enjoy
all the powers and privileges to which the elected
MPs are entitled.
3. They do have the right to vote in the
election of the President and Vice-President of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
10) Consider the following statements regarding the
Office of the Vice President of India.
1. The Constitution states that the Vice-
President shall be the ex-officio Chairman of
the House of the People.
2. The office of the Vice-President of India
ranks next to the Chief Justice of India in the order of
precedence.
3. The Vice-President shall be elected by the
members of an electoral college consisting of the
members of both Houses of Parliament in
accordance with the system of proportional
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representation by means of the single transferable
vote.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 3 only
11) Consider the following statements.
1. All India Services (AIS) officers are made
available for central deputation through the
discretion of the Centre.
2. It was Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel who had
championed the creation of the Indian
Administrative Service (IAS) and the Indian Police
Service (IPS) as “All India Services” (AIS).
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
12) Which of the following schedules of the
constitution gives a clear constitutional
recognition to the existence of the system of
“political parties” in India?
a) Third Schedule
b) Tenth Schedule
c) Seventh Schedule
d) Ninth Schedule
13) Consider the following statements.
1. A legislation can be implemented even
without the rules being notified.
2. As per the Manual on Parliamentary
Work, in case the Ministries are not able to frame
the rules within the prescribed period of six months
after a legislation is passed, “they should seek
extension of time from the Committee on
Subordinate Legislation stating reasons for such
extension” which cannot be more than for three
months at a time.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
14) Article 66(3) of the Constitution of India says No
person shall be eligible for election as Vice-
President unless he/she
1. Is a citizen of India
2. Must not be less than 30 years of age.
3. Is qualified for election as a member of
the Council of States
15

Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2, 3
15) Consider the following statements regarding
Vice-President of India.
1. The Constitution of India states that a
person shall not be eligible for election as Vice-
President if he holds any office of profit under the
Government of India or the Government of any
State.
2. Vice-President may leave office before the
end of his term by submitting a resignation letter to
the Deputy Speaker of the Rajya Sabha.
3. All doubts and disputes arising out in
connection with the election of Vice-President shall
be decided by the Supreme Court whose decision
shall be final.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 3
16) Consider the following statements.
1. The Fundamental Duties are held
obligatory for all citizens subject to the State
enforcing the same by means of a valid law.
2. Any law that even though it deviates from
the Fundamental Rights, but has been made to give
effect to the Directive Principles in Article 39(b) and
Article 39(c) would not be deemed invalid.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
17) Consider the following statements.
1. The Constitution of India provides for
designation of Tribal areas in terms of Fifth Schedule
and designation of Scheduled areas in terms of sixth
Schedule.
2. According to the Constitution of India,
specification of a ‘Scheduled Area’ or
modification of an existing Scheduled Area is
done after consultation with the Governor of
that state and through notification issued
with the approval of the President of India.
2. The state of Uttarakhand has neither
Scheduled areas nor Tribal areas.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
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b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
18) The criteria for declaration of Scheduled areas
include:
1. Preponderance of tribal population
2. Compactness and reasonable size of the
area
3. Economic backwardness of the area as
compared to neighbouring areas
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
19) In the last few years, the Indian Supreme Court
has delivered some judgments of far-reaching
consequence. It includes
1. Declared the right to privacy a
fundamental right
2. Recognised transgender persons as the
third gender
3. Criminalised consensual sexual conduct
between adults of the same sex
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
20) Consider the following statements regarding 6th
Schedule of Constitution of India.
1. It deals with the administration of the
tribal areas in the states of Assam, Manipur, Tripura
and Mizoram.
2. If there are different Scheduled Tribes in
an autonomous district, the Governor may divide the
district inhabited by them into several autonomous
regions.
3. The governor can appoint a commission to
examine and report on any matter relating to the
administration of the autonomous districts.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3
21) Consider the following statements regarding the
Governor of a State.
1. Governor is a Constitutional office
subordinate to the Central Government.
16

2. The appointment of Governors is based
on the Canadian Constitution.
3. According to the Constitution, one of the
qualifications for a person to be appointed as a
Governor is, he/she should not belong to a state
where he/she is appointed.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
8. History, Art and Culture
1) Consider the following statements.
1. Dokra art is a ferrous metal casting art
that uses the lost-wax casting technique.
2. The lost-wax casting technique has been
in use for over 4,000 years in India, and is still
practised by artisans in central and eastern India.
3. One of the earliest known lost wax
artefacts is the dancing girl of Mohenjo-daro.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
9. Agriculture
1) Consider the following statements.
1. Prices of milk in the country are decided
by Cooperative and Private dairies based on cost of
production.
2. Improving animal husbandry and the
quality of cattle breed is one of the Directive
Principles of State Policy in the Constitution
of India.
3. ‘Preservation of cattle’ is a matter on
which the Centre has exclusive powers to
legislate.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
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2) Nuclear science is being utilized in which of the
following areas of agriculture in India?
1. Radiation processing of food items
2. Development of high yielding crop seeds
3. Fertilizer and pesticide related studies
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
3) Podu is a form of shifting cultivation practiced
mainly in
a) Odisha
b) Jharkhand
c) Telangana
d) West Bengal
4) Consider the following statements.
1. At present, the cultivation and processing
of poppy and opium in India is controlled by the
provisions of The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic
Substances (NDPS) Act and Rules.
2. Due to the potential for illicit trade and
risk of addiction, In India the cultivation and
processing of opium is done only by the Public
Sector.
3. Opium is a natural substance obtained
from poppy seeds that are potent painkillers and are
mainly prescribed to cancer patients.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
5) Consider the following statements.
1. Agriculture Orientation Index (AOI) is
developed as part of the 2030 Agenda for
Sustainable Development.
2. Agriculture Orientation Index measures
the ratio between government spending towards the
agricultural sector and the sector’s contribution to
GDP.
3. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDG)
emphasises an increase in investment in rural
infrastructure, agricultural research and extension
services.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3
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 INSTA CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
3. Strait of Gibraltar can be accessed through
a narrow passage via Ukraine.
10. Defence and Security Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
1) The multiple rocket launcher produced in India b) 2 only
and developed by the Defence Research and c) 2, 3
Development Organisation (DRDO) for d) 1, 3
the Indian Army is named as
a) Pralay 3) Which of these territories, sometimes seen in
b) Pinaka news, border the Mediterranean Sea?
c) Python 1. Gaza strip
d) Pratyush 2. West Bank
3. Jerusalem
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
11. Reports and Indices b) 1 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3
1) Consider the following statements regarding
India Innovation Index, 2022.
4) The Mediterranean Sea connects to the Atlantic
1. India Innovation Index was released by
Ocean by the
Ministry of Statistics and Programme
a) Dardanelles strait
Implementation (MOSPI).
b) Strait of Gibraltar
2. It determines innovation capacities at the
c) Straits of Bosporus
sub-national level.
d) Suez Canal
3. At present India is among the top 25
nations in the Global Innovation Index.
5) Snake Island, recently seen in news is located in
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Baltic Sea
a) 1, 2
b) Black Sea
b) 2 only
c) Caspian Sea
c) 2, 3
d) Mediterranean Sea
d) 1, 3
6) Maitri Setu, recently seen in news is a link
between
a) India and Nepal
b) India and Myanmar
12. Maps / Places c) India and Bhutan
d) India and Bangladesh
1) Which of the following nations in the Middle-
east is/are land locked? 7) If you keep walking on the Mediterranean coast,
1. Iran starting from the coast of Egypt towards middle-
2. Syria east, you are likely to touch the coast of which of
3. Iraq these countries en route?
4. Turkey 1. Iraq
Select the correct answer code: 2. Israel
a) 1, 2, 3 3. Syria
b) 1, 3, 4 4. Lebanon
c) 2, 3, 4 5. Turkey
d) None of the above Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3
2) Consider the following statements. b) 1, 2, 4
1. Ukraine is bordered by both Black Sea and c) 2, 3, 4, 5
Mediterranean Sea. d) 1, 3, 4, 5
2. Romania, Poland and Belarus share land
boundary with Ukraine.
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 INSTA CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
8) North Korea and South Korea are sandwiched 2. The entire portion of Depsang Plains is
between controlled by India.
a) Korean Strait and Bungo channel Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
b) Sea of Japan and Pacific Ocean a) 1 only
c) Yellow Sea and Sea of Japan b) 2 only
d) South China Sea and Pacific Ocean c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
9) The countries bordering Russia are
1. China 14) The World’s longest land border occurs between
2. Norway a) India and Bangladesh
3. Sweden b) Russia and China
4. Kazakhstan c) Canada and United States
Select the correct answer code: d) Chile and Argentina
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4 15) Consider the following statements regarding
c) 1, 2, 4 Black Sea.
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 1. The Black Sea is a marginal Mediterranean
Sea of the Atlantic Ocean lying
10) Which of these Central Asian nations border between Europe and Asia.
Caspian Sea? 2. Dardanelles Strait connects the Black Sea
1. Kazakhstan to the Sea of Marmara.
2. Tajikistan 3. Russia is the only nation that borders both
3. Turkmenistan Black Sea and Caspian Sea.
4. Uzbekistan Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Select the correct answer code: a) 1 only
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 2
b) 1, 3 c) 1, 3
c) 1, 3, 4 d) 2, 3
d) 2, 4
16) Consider the following statements
11) Lake Baikal, World’s largest freshwater lake by 1. West Bengal shares border with
volume and the world's deepest lake, is situated Bangladesh, China, Nepal and Bhutan.
in 2. Kolkata city is located above Tropic of
a) Kazakhstan Cancer.
b) Southern Siberia 3. Diphu Pass is a mountain pass around the
c) South America area of the disputed tri-point borders of
d) Africa India, China, and Myanmar.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
12) Aral Sea is an endorheic lake that is part of the a) 3 only
territories of b) 1, 2
1. Kazakhstan c) 2 only
2. Kyrgyzstan d) 1 only
3. Uzbekistan
Select the correct answer code: 17) The countries bordering Iran are
a) 1, 2 1. Armenia
b) 1, 3 2. Afghanistan
c) 1, 2, 3 3. Tajikistan
d) 2, 3 4. Iraq
5. Syria
13) Consider the following statements regarding Select the correct code:
Depsang Plains. a) 1, 2, 4
1. For India Depsang Plains provides land b) 1, 2, 3
access to Central Asia through the c) 2, 3, 4
Karakoram Pass. d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

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 INSTA CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS

13. Miscellaneous
1) Consider the following statements regarding
Saharia tribe.
1. Saharia are an ethnic group in the state
of Gujarat.
2. They are classified as Particularly
vulnerable tribal group.
3. They are particularly skilled in
making catechu from Khair trees.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3

2) Fields Medal, recently seen in news is awarded

in the field of
a) Agriculture
b) Economy
c) Astronomy
d) Mathematics

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