5. Which is NOT a possible cause for an eNodeB-triggered radio link failure (FDD case)?

a. HARQ RLF
b. PDCCH Order Failure (benar)
c. Max RLC Transmission (benar)
d. CQI RLF (benar)
6. You are in optimizing 1 new site and 4G payload suddenly increase and to your CSSR KPI, what
will you NOT do immediately?
a. Check your validity of your measurement if any double counting.
b. Check if any site surrounding site if shutdown.
c. Check if any promo campaign to up the sales.
d. Payload increase is good, so make justification for CSSR KPI.
7. Measurement base Scell selection is done based on which measurement event?
a. A6
b. IF
c. A3
d. A4
8. Which interface carries the user data in LTE Network?
a. Gx
b. S5 : SGW <-> PGW (user data)
c. S1-MME: eNB <-> MME (signalling)
d. S11: SGW <-> MME (signalling)
9. Without this feature VOLTE call will drop when it leaves the LTE coverage.
a. SRVCC to WCDMA/SRVCC to GSM. SRVCC Single Radio Voice Call Continiuty
b. Dedicated Mobility Thresholds for SRVCC
c. Service based Mobility Trigger
d. Service based Mobility Threshold.
10. Which of the following mMIMO statements is TRUE for radio pilot overhead?
a. In TDD, it is independent of the number of spatially multiplexed UEs.
b. In FDD, it depends on the number of antennas and the number of spatially multiplexed UEs.
c. In TDD, it depends on the number of antennas and the number of spatially multiplexed UEs.
d. In FDD, it is only independent on the number of spatially multiplexed UEs.
11. What tools are available in the Tool Hosting section of the NPO Mobile Radio Community?
a. RANDim and Atoll
b. Asset and Connect
c. Atoll and Mentum Plannet.
d. 3DGL and NPM
12. What is the meaning of the cell capacity results in Nokia Dimensioning tools?
a. 2. It means maximum user data rate.
b. 1,2,3 true
c. 3. It means maximum cell data rate possible
d. 1.cell capacity recalculated from the system simulation result based on assumption of many
active user.
13. Which is typical function of an eNodeB?
a. Provisioning of IP addresses to UEs.
b. Mobility anchoring for non-3GPP access systems.
c. Mobility anchoring of Inter 3GPP mobility
d. Access Layer Security
14. Which of the following mMIMO statements is TRUE for radio pilot overhead?
a. In FDD, it depends on the number of antennas and the number of spatially multiplexed UEs.
b. In FDD, it is only independent on the number of spatially multiplexed Ues.
c. In TDD, it is independent of the number of spatially in TDD, it is independent of the number
of spatially multiplexed UEs.
d. In TDD, it depends on number of antenna and the number of spatially multiplexed Ues.
15. Which answer can NOT be applied to the following statement: When a UE is in
RRC_CONNECTED mode and RRC security is active, the UE can trigger Radio Link Failure (RLF)
and initiated RRC Connection Re-establishment due to:
a. Reaching the maximum number of UR RLC retransmissions.
b. Handover failure (T304 expiry)
c. TA timer Expiry
d. T310 Timer Expiry
16. Which are the two main factors contributing to the latency?
a. 1.Paging load and RACH load
b. 1,2,3 false
c. 3. UE State (RRC State) and Payload size
d. 2. Number of users in the cell and the scheduler type.
17. Which scheduler considers the UL interference level and the signal strength of each UE during
resource allocation?
a. Fair Scheduler
b. Interference aware scheduler
c. Channel Unaware scheduler
d. Channel aware scheduler
18. How to improve DL Throughput, except?
a. MIMO 2x2  2x4
b. Single TX  MIMO
c. MIMO 2x2  4x4
d. MIMO 2x4  4x2
19. Which statement(s) correctly describe the SBTS site configuration evolution: <br />1. Cell sets
define on sub baseband module level are combined in independent building blocks to build an
SBTS configuration. <br />2. LTE and SRAN cell sets can flexibly combined to build the target
configuration. <br />3. “Cell set” approach is adopted from LTE. Requires higher effort on LTE
migration from legacy RAT to SRAN in comparison to the “Profile” approach. <br />4.”Cell set”
concept is only applicable to the shared operation SRAN cells.
A. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 1 and 2
D. 2 and 4
20. What could be the reason for high average ping round-trip time under good radio conditions in
an unloaded network?
a. 256QAM in downlink is disabled causing bandwidth limitation and hence larger ping
response scheduling delay.
b. Uplink periode CQI reporting interval is too long
c. Uplink Pro-Active scheduling timer value is shorter the ping transmission interval
d. Not enough PUCCH scheduling Request resources to accommodate all RRC connected UEs in
the cell.
21. Which statement is INCORRECT about KPI: E-UTRAN E-RAB Drop Ratio , RAN VIEW
a. This KPI describes the radio abnormally released (dropped) E-RABs from RAN point of view
b. RAN point of view means that as abnormally E-RABs drops only those ones initiated by eNB
are counted.
c. In denominator of the formula normal E-RAB releases due to successful HO to eHRPD are
not counted.
d. E-RAB releases due to “No Radio Resources Available” initiated by eNB are counted as
abnormal releases.
22. Which physical channel must be redimensioned when LTE CA feature is activated?
a. PDCCH
b. PUSCH
c. PUCCH
d. PRACH
23. Which statement is FALSE about SMART Admission Control?
a. Data DRB are admitted/rejected comparing cell internal counters agains configured
thresholds.
b. For new GBR-DRB bearers the forecast on needed resources is based on periodical
measurements.
c. It supports GRB and non GRB traffic
d. It usually works together with the Allocation and Retention Priority feature.
24. Which one of following applications should be used to test Single User Throughput
performance?
a. Video Streaming application
b. Web browsing application
c. 1,2,3 true
d. FTP application
25. What does the term of ‘connected user’ mean for baseband dimensioning purposes?
a. UEs actively time scheduled
b. UEs in RRC Connected mode with DRB established.
c. UEs actively Scheduled during the same TTI
d. UEs which communicate with the network but without DRB established.
26. Which of the following options does NOT improve the latency as part of the Radio Network
Optimization Procedures?
a. Tuning the scheduling request period.
b. Tuning DRX cycle duration
c. Enabling/Disabling Proactive Scheduling
 d. Increasing PUCCH Capacity
27. Select the factor that does NOT improve the Spectral Efficiency in Massive MIMO?
a. 3D beamforming
b. UL interference cancellation
c. SINR improvement due to narrower UE beam
d. Multiuser gain
28. Is it possible to plot throughput with a planning tool capable of only path loss based
calculations?
a. 1 and 3 true
b. 2. Yes if the tool can calculate the path loss and SINR (for statis load) and MAPL (from link
budget) is available for different throughputs.
c. 1. No, it is only possible with Monte Carlo simulations.
d. 3. No, it is not possible based on only path loss calculations.
29. Which scheduler considers the UL interference level and the signal strength of each UE during
resource allocation?
a. Fail scheduler
b. Channel aware scheduler
c. Channel unaware scheduler
d. Interference aware scheduler
30. Which technologies does support the Harmonized Object model, part of single OAM
development? 1. LTE FDD; 2. LTE TDD; 3. WCDMA; 4. GSM
a. 1,2,3, and 4
b. 3 and 4
c. 1 and 2
d. 1,2, and 3
31. Which is NOT a concept of DL carrier aggregation?
a. Scell activation is done via RRC connection Reconfiguration message.
b. It enhances downlink throughput performance
c. VoLTE call is served only via Pcell
d. FTP data downloading can be sent via both Pcell and Scell
32. Which global NPO community contains network planning and optimization guidance material
grouped per technology or product?
a. Services Community
b. Radio community Wiki
c. NPO Services Wiki
d. NPO Modular Working Items Wiki
33. In case of 4CC Carrier Aggregation, the value of RLC PDU Re-transmission Ratio DL KPI of Pcell is
influenced by:
a. The performance of the Scells only
b. The performance of Pcell only
c. The performance of the component carriers.
d. The performance of the Pcell and the performance of only the last added Scell
34. Nokia single RAN solutions is designed to support multiple Radio Access Technologies with
common and shared functionalities. Which of the following statement are correct? 1. Single
FMSF baseband capacity can be shared between GSM+WCDMA or GSM+LTE but not
LTE+WCDMA. 2. Common BTS OAM to simply site creation commissioning and configuration
process, there IOMS is re-used to handle SRAN operability. 3. SRAN solution is compatible with
FSME, FSMF, and Airscale system module. 4. AirScale System Module can be used as two logical
SBTSs in full subrack, or one logical SBTS and one logical LNBTS in full subrack.
A. 2 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. 1 and 2
35. UL CA Stratum Access Category:
a. Rel8
b. Rel11
c. Rel10
d. Rel9
36. What happens if the orthogonality between OFDM subcarriers is lost due to effects such as
Doppler?
a. Adjacent Channel Interference
b. Inter-subcarrier interference
c. Inter cell interference
d. Intersymbol interference
37. What is FALSE about Tracking Area (TA) in LTE?
a. One cell can belong to several TA
b. A UE registers within a specific Tracking Area when attaching on network
c. TA does not need to be the same as the area served by one MME gateway
d. TA does not necessary be exactly the same as the location Area in a 3G co-located network.
38. The usage level of which physical channel defines the admission of CQI1 bearers when Smart
admission control is enabled?
a. PUSCH
b. PDCCH
c. PUCCH
d. PDSCH
39. If any troubleshoot eNodeB scheduling. What is the tool for debugging eNodeB?
a. BTS Site Manager
b. Emil
c. NetAct trace viewer
d. TTI trace analyzer
40. What parameter to define maximum number of preambles allowed in one preamble ramping
cycle?
a. PowerRampStepPRACHpreamble
b. PRACH_Preamble_retrans
c. UETxPowerMaxPRACH
d. PRACHRequiredReceivedCI
e. All options are incorrect