Duricef for Team M

Content Lab Code : PM-PK-SS-QNA-200001

Question
Serial Question Ans Option 1 Ans Option 2 Ans Option 3 Ans Option 4 Correct Answer Options
Type
1 MC Microbiology is defined as: Study of micro minerals Study of microorganism Study of bacteria Study of virus Study of microorganism
Medical microbiology is the branch of science that relates to
2 TF FALSE TRUE TRUE
interactions between man and microorganisms.

Which of the following are the interactions of

3 MC Pathogenic Both are correct Commensal Both are correct
microorganisms with human?
Most microorganisms cannot exist independently in the
4 TF TRUE FALSE FALSE
environment and most of the time they need host.

Microorganism exist in the Microorganisms capable of Microorganisms capable of

environment co-existing with living host Microorganisms that cause co-existing with living host
5 MC Which of the following is the definition of commensal? All are correct
independently of living cells without causing damage to host cells cells without causing
hosts damage damage
Which of the following is not the definition of infectious Is easily transmitted Is caused by increase in Is caused by an identifiable Is caused by increase in
6 MC May confer immunity
disease? between individuals blood pressure microorganism blood pressure

Infectious diseases are caused by which of the following

7 MC Bacteria All are correct Viruses Fungi All are correct
microorganisms?
8 MC Which of the following are the sources of infections? Exogenous Both are correct Endogenous Both are correct
Both may be the Both may be the
Change in local
Under what circumstances normal flora can become circumstances for normal Overgrowth of circumstances for normal
9 MC environment within the
pathogenic? flora to become microorganisms flora to become
body
pathogenic pathogenic

Microorganisms are
introduced in sufficient
Which of the following is the best description of endogenous
10 MC numbers to overpower
source of infection?
normal body defense
mechanisms
Microorganisms are
introduced in a very small
Normal commensal flora to Normal commensal flora to
numbers they multiply by
become pathogenic and become pathogenic and
overpowering normal body
trigger infection trigger infection
defense mechanisms and
cause infection

Microorganisms are Normal commensal flora to Microorganisms are

Normal commensal flora to Normal commensal flora to
introduced in sufficient become pathogenic if it introduced in sufficient
Which of the following is the best description of exogenous become pathogenic if it become pathogenic if it
11 MC numbers to overpower overpowers the host numbers to overpower
source of infection? changes it site and trigger overgrows and trigger
normal body defense defense and trigger normal body defense
infection infection
mechanisms infection mechanisms
Bacterial and viral infections may present with similar clinical
12 TF FALSE TRUE TRUE
symptoms.
Which of the following is/are the source/s of spread of Contaminated water, food, Airborne particles or
13 MC All are correct Animal or insect All are correct
infections? sewage, soil or dust droplets

Which of the following is an example of infection caused by

14 MC Typhoid Malaria Flue TB Malaria
insect bites?
Which of the following is an example of infection caused by
15 MC Typhoid Flue Malaria Hepatitis Flue
airborne particles or droplets?
Which of the following is an example of infection caused by
16 MC Flue Typhoid Malaria TB Typhoid
contaminated food and water?
17 MC Pathogenicity is dependent on the following factors Except: Virulence Hypersensitivity Transmissibility Infectivity Hypersensitivity

A measure of the microbes ability to harm the host is defined

18 MC Transmissibility Virulence Infectivity Virulence
as:
The ability of a microbe to survive passage from one host to
19 MC Infectivity Transmissibility Virulence Transmissibility
the next is:
How can some microorganisms evolve to survive in adverse By developing envelope By altering cell membrane
20 MC By producing spore By thickening their cell wall By producing spore
conditions? around it permeability

The ability of a microbe to penetrate the protective barriers

21 MC Virulence Infectivity Transmissibility Infectivity
of the body:
Only cause disease when Only cause disease when
Pathogens always cause
22 MC Which of the following is true for opportunistic pathogens? the environment or the environment or
disease
circumstances are unusual circumstances are unusual

23 MC Which of the following disease is caused by bacteria? Measles Typhoid Chicken Pox Hepatitis B Typhoid
Community and public Community and hospital Community and hospital
24 MC What are the two setting of infections? Public and private setting All of these
infections infection infection
Infection acquired as a Infection acquired as a
Infection acquired in a
25 MC Nosocomial infection is: All are correct result of hospital result of procedures in the All are correct
hospital
treatment hospital
Resistant bacteria spread more readily via cross
26 TF FALSE TRUE TRUE
contamination in a hospital setting than in the community.

27 TF The microbiologist is always a qualified medical doctor. TRUE FALSE FALSE

The microbiologist has the major responsibility for

28 TF TRUE FALSE FALSE
prescribing antibiotics in the hospital environment.
The use by a doctor of his or her "favourite" antibiotic, may
29 TF contribute to a poor outcome, because of an inadequate FALSE TRUE TRUE
antibacterial spectrum.
DNA is carried on a single
Which of the following is not the Characteristics of No membrane-bound cell Having well defined DNA is not contained Having well defined
30 MC chromosome and small
prokaryotic cells? organelles nucleus within a nucleus nucleus
plasmids
Absence of protein Absence of genetic
31 MC The main feature of prokaryotic organism is: Absence of locomotion Absence of nucleus Absence of nucleus
synthesis material
Transcription and Transcription and
DNA contained within a DNA carried on multiple Membrane-bound cell translation of DNA can translation of DNA can
32 MC Which of the following is not a feature of a eukaryotic cell?
distinct nucleus chromosomes organelles occur simultaneously in the occur simultaneously in the
cell cytoplasm cell cytoplasm
Bacterial cells have a cell wall and DNA contained within a
33 TF FALSE TRUE FALSE
nucleus
34 MC Bacteria are: Eukaryotes Advance form of viruses Prokaryotes Prokaryotes
A bacterial cell is A bacterial cell has a cell Bacterial and animal cells Bacterial and animal cells
All statements are
35 MC Which of the following statements is untrue? prokaryotic whereas an wall whereas an animal cell both have a well-defined both have a well-defined
incorrect
animal cell is eukaryotic does not nucleus nucleus
Following are the key defining characteristics of Bacteria Can be aerobic or Usually multiply by cell Unicellular eukaryotic Unicellular eukaryotic
36 MC Possess an outer cell wall
Except: anaerobic division microorganisms microorganisms
37 TF Bacteria are classified as gram-positive and Gram-negative. True False TRUE

38 MC Bacterial cell wall is made up of: Dextran Chitin Cellulose Peptidoglycan Peptidoglycan
During conjunction the genetic material is transferred
39 MC Pili Cell wall Capsule Pili
through:
Extra chromosomal, circular, double stranded, self-replicating
40 MC Phasmid Cosmid Phagemid Plasmid Plasmid
DNA molecule in bacteria is called:
Difference in the cell Difference in the mode of Difference in the cell wall Difference in the cell wall
structure of Gram positive nutrition of Gram positive layer components of Gram layer components of Gram
41 MC Differential staining of bacteria on Gram staining is due to: None are correct
and Gram-negative and Gram-negative positive and Gram- positive and Gram-
bacteria bacteria negative bacteria negative bacteria
42 MC Staining material of gram positive bacterium is: Safranin Fast green Haematoxylon Crystal violet Crystal violet
43 MC Gram-positive bacteria appear as: Pink Blue Yellow Purple/black Purple/black
44 MC Counter stain used in Gram staining is: Carbol fuchsin Crystal violet Safranin Safranin
45 MC Gram negative bacteria appear as None of these Violet Both of these Pink Pink
Which of the following statements are/are true regarding Outer lipopolysaccharide Cell wall has a thick
46 MC All of these All of these All of these
Gram positive bacteria? layer is absent peptidoglycan layer

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Outer Lipopolysaccharide Outer Lipopolysaccharide Cell wall has a thick Cell wall has a thick
47 MC
Gram negative bacteria? layer is present layer is present peptidoglycan layer peptidoglycan layer

Polypeptides or
48 MC Bacterial capsule is chemically composed of: Polypeptide Polynucleotides Polysaccharides Polysaccharides
polysaccharides
Chains of ovoid or spherical Clusters of ovoid or Curved, comma-shaped Curved, comma-shaped
49 MC What shape are vibrio bacteria cells? Cylindrical or rod-like
cells spherical cells cells cells
50 MC Cork-screw shaped forms of bacteria are: Actinomycetes Bacilli Coccobacilli Spirochaetes/spirilla Spirochaetes/spirilla
51 MC Rod shaped bacteria are known as: Bacilli Cocci Comma forms Pleomorphic forms Bacilli
52 MC Spherical or ovoid shape bacteria are classified as: Cocci Bacilli Vibrio Spirilla Cocci
53 TF Aerobic bacteria able to survive if oxygen is absent. FALSE TRUE FALSE
Which of the following bacteria can survive if oxygen is
54 MC Anaerobic Aerobic Anaerobic
absent?
Survive in both aerobic and Only grow in the presence Survive in both aerobic and
55 MC A facultative anaerobic bacteria; Only grow anaerobically
anaerobic environment of O2 anaerobic environment

56 MC pH required for the growth of bacteria is: 5 – 7.5 6.8 – 9.2 3.0 – 6.0 8.0 – 14.0 5 – 7.5
57 MC Bacterial temperature requirement is: 0 –100°C 50-100°C 0-150°C 10-50°C 0 –100°C
58 MC How do bacteria exchange genetic material? Bacterial conjugation Binary Fission Both Bacterial conjugation
The two sites of bacteria where genetic information coding
59 TF TRUE FALSE TRUE
for resistance can be located are Chromosomes and Plasmid.

60 MC Bactria damage human cell by: All are correct Releasing enzymes Releasing toxins Competing with nutrients All are correct

Produced and released Derived from components Produced and released

They are usually less
61 MC Which of the following is true for Exotoxins? from gram-positive and of the cell wall of most Released when bacteria die from gram-positive and
potent and specific
Gram-negative bacteria Gram-negative bacteria Gram-negative bacteria

62 MC Which of the following bacteria is anaerobic? Bacteroides fragilis Streptococcus pneumoniae Haemophilus influenzae Staphylococcus aureus Bacteroides fragilis

Every bacterium is strictly classified and named by means of

63 MC Genus and species Genus and family Family and species Phylum and species Genus and species
a two-part Latin name which denotes its:
The first word in bacterial binomial name refers to the
64 MC Genus Species Family Kingdom Genus
_____.
Refers to one species Refers to one species
65 MC The second word in bacterial scientific name _____. Refers to family name Refers to kingdom All are correct
within the genus within the genus
In Nomenclature Bacteria like Escherichia coli, coli is the
66 TF False True False
genus name?
Which of the following is not a factor used to classify
67 MC Speed of motility Gram-staining Structural shape Oxygen requirements Speed of motility
bacteria?
68 MC Which of the following bacteria is aerobic? Streptococcus pneumoniae Clostridium tetani Peptococcus Bacteroides fragilis Streptococcus pneumoniae

69 MC Which of the following is not a gram-positive bacterium? Pseudomonas Streptococci Staphylococcus None of these Pseudomonas

Mycobacterium
70 MC Which of the following is/are non-gram staining bacteria? All of these Chlamydia trachomatis Chlamydia pneumoniae All of these
tuberculosis
71 MC Following are atypical bacteria except: E. coli Mycoplasma pneumoniae Chlamydia pneumoniae Legionella pneumophila E. coli

The main difference in true bacteria and mycoplasma is that

72 MC Cell wall Flagella ATP synthesis Capsul Cell wall
mycoplasmadoes not possess:
73 MC Coagulase test is used for: Staphylococcus Salmonella Bordetella Pneumococcus Staphylococcus
74 MC E. coli and Salmonella typhi are what type of bacteria? Gram-negative bacteria Gram-positive bacteria Gram-negative bacteria

Streptococcus pneumoniae and Staphylococcus aureus are

75 MC Gram-positive bacteria Gram-negative bacteria Gram-positive bacteria
what type of bacteria?
76 MC Group A β-haemolytic bacteria is: Streptococcus pyogenes Strep. pneumoniae Strep. viridans Strep. Faecalis Streptococcus pyogenes
Staphylococcus
77 MC Which one of the following is a gram-negative bacterium? Haemophilus influenzae Streptococcus pyogenes Staphylococcus aureus Haemophilus influenzae
epidermidis
Isolation of bacteria by
Finding bacteria in
78 MC Diagnosis of bacterial disease can be made by: Both of these culture from exudates or None of these Both of these
pathological fluids
blood
Which of the following is not a technique to identify bacterial
79 MC Susceptibility testing Culturing Microscopy and staining Molecular diagnostics Susceptibility testing
pathogen?
Which of these is not a good reason for empiric treatment of The patient will be happier Microbiology will take a The doctor’s diagnosis is To provide early relief of The patient will be happier
80 MC
a community-acquired infection? if they receive an antibiotic long time or is unavailable likely to be broadly correct symptoms if they receive an antibiotic

Infections typically associated with Streptococcus

81 MC All of these Pneumonia AOM Meningitis All of these
pneumoniae is/are:
The two main techniques used in testing the susceptibility of
82 TF TRUE FALSE TRUE
bacteria to antibiotics are diffusion tests and dilution tests.

In a culture, Gram-positive cocci in chains suggest a

83 TF streptococcal infection, while clusters of Gram-positive cocci TRUE FALSE TRUE
suggest a staphylococcal species.
Infectious diseases occur when a microorganism is
84 TF encountered by the host and replicates within the host, TRUE FALSE TRUE
leading to a reaction and clinical symptoms.
The minimum The minimum The maximum The maximum The minimum
concentration of an concentration of an concentration of an concentration of an concentration of an
85 MC Define MIC
antibiotic that will inhibit antibiotic that will kill the antibiotic that will inhibit antibiotic that will kill the antibiotic that will inhibit
bacterial growth bacterial bacterial growth bacterial bacterial growth
 A substance produced by A substance produced by
one species of one species of
microorganism which Agent used to treat A chemical substance used microorganism which
86 MC Which of the following is the best definition of Antibiotics? All are incorrect
effectively inhibits the bacterial infections to treat bacterial infections effectively inhibits the
growth of other growth of other
microorganisms microorganisms
Agents used to treat bacterial infections are correctly called
87 TF TRUE False TRUE
antimicrobial, or more specifically, antibacterial drugs.

Today, the terms “antibiotic”, “antimicrobial” and

88 TF TRUE False TRUE
“antibacterial” tend to be used interchangeably.
Inhibiting the growth and
Directly killing the Directly killing the
89 MC Bactericidal agents typically work by: multiplication of Both are correct Both are incorrect
susceptible bacteria susceptible bacteria
susceptible bacteria
Which of the following are the mechanisms of antibiotic Disruption of the bacterial Alteration of the bacterial Interference with protein
90 MC All of these All of these
action? cell wall cell membrane synthesis

Susceptible to the Susceptible to the

91 MC Antibiotic that eliminates bacteria is termed as: Resistant to the antibiotic
antibiotic antibiotic
Bacteria that are not killed or inhibited by an antibiotic at the
92 MC Resistant Susceptible Effective antibiotic Safe antibiotic Resistant
concentrations used therapeutically, are said to be:

Bacteria were susceptible

Bacteria have never been The body nature immunity Bacteria have never been
Which of the following statement is true for natural or to the antibiotic at one
93 MC susceptible to a particular is very strong against such All are correct susceptible to a particular
primary resistance of bacteria? time, but is no longer
antibiotic bacteria antibiotic
susceptible.
Which of the following is a mechanism responsible for the Reduced cellular uptake of Modification of antibiotic Enzymatic inactivation of
94 MC All are correct All are correct
development of bacterial resistance? antibiotic target site antibiotic
What is the mechanism of penicillin/cephalosporins Modification of antibiotic Reduced cellular uptake of Enzymatic inactivation of Development of alternative Modification of antibiotic
95 MC
resistance of S. pneumonia? target site antibiotic antibiotic metabolic pathway target site

Unnecessary use to treat

Which of the following issues must be addressed to control conditions where Inadequate dose or
96 MC All of these Patient non-compliance All of these
the spread of bacterial resistance? antibiotics are not duration of therapy
indicated
All are the properties of That has poor That have poor All are the properties of
97 MC Suboptimal antibiotic is: That have poor potency.
suboptimal antibiotic pharmacodynamics pharmacokinetics suboptimal antibiotic
Education of healthcare Monitoring and
Following are the recommendations of WHO for the use of Promote the use of professionals on the surveillance of both The development of Promote the use of
98 MC
antibiotics Except: antibiotics on OTC appropriate use of prescribing and resistance national policies antibiotics on OTC
antibiotics, patterns
Methicillin-resistant Moxifloxacin-resistant Methicillin-resistant Most resistant Methicillin-resistant
99 MC MRSA stands for:
Staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pyogenes Staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus aureus
Penicillins act by disrupting
Penicillins act by disrupting Penicillins act by disrupting Penicillins act by disrupting Penicillins act by disrupting
the synthesis of the cell
Why are human tissue cells not affected by penicillin in the the synthesis of the cell the synthesis of the cell the synthesis of cell the synthesis of the cell
100 MC wall by inhibiting PBPs,
same way as bacterial cells? wall, which is not present wall, which is very strong in membrane, which is not wall, which is not present
human cell wall synthesis
in human cell human cell present in human cell in human cell
do not require PBPs
101 MC Empiric treatment is a treatment based upon what? Practical experience Scientific proof Susceptibility results MICs Practical experience
Prevent spreading Prevent spreading
Why might prompt empiric treatment of infections in the Empirical treatments are
102 MC infections throughout the Doctors are very busy Patient will be happier infections throughout the
hospital environment be important? cheap
hospital population hospital population
A particular species of bacteria only develops one mechanism
103 TF of resistance and remains susceptible to other antimicrobial FALSE TRUE FALSE
agents.
The internal tissues, for example the brain, muscle and blood,
104 TF TRUE False TRUE
are normally free of microorganisms (sterile).

Mechanism of action of Mechanism of action of

105 MC Which of the following is true for pharmacodynamic? Absorption Metabolism Half life
drug drug
Mechanism of action of Mechanism of action of
106 MC Which of the following is not true for pharmacokinetics? Absorption Metabolism Distribution
drug drug
What three processes determine the disposition of a drug in Absorption, distribution, Mode of action Absorption, Coverage, Absorption, Resistance, distribution, Absorption, distribution,
107 MC
the body? elimination distribution elimination elimination elimination

Elimination is the removal of the original drug molecule from

108 MC Both are correct Metabolism Excretion Both are incorrect Both are correct
the body by:
Which one of the following is the major sites for absorption Mucosa of stomach and Mucosa of stomach and
109 MC Buccal mucosa Bronchial mucosa Rectal mucosa
of oral drugs? small intestine small intestine
110 MC Which of the following are the routes of drug administration? All of these Gastrointestinal Inhalation Injection All of these

The proportion of the administered dose which arrives in its

111 MC Bioavailability Protein binding Half life Peak plasma concentration Bioavailability
therapeutic form at the site of action is termed as:

Which rout of drug administration ensure 100%

112 MC Intravenous Subcutaneous Oral Inhalation Intravenous
bioavailability?
The percentage of drug in the plasma that is bound to plasma
113 MC Protein binding Receptor binding Plasma binding Protein binding
proteins is known as?
Which organ is responsible for the metabolism of most
114 MC Liver Kidney Lungs GIT Liver
drugs?
115 MC To penetrate cells the drug should be: Highly lipid soluble Highly water soluble Minimally lipid soluble Solubility have no effect Highly lipid soluble

Which type of drug penetrate in the brain tissue by crossing

116 MC Highly lipid soluble Highly water soluble Only antibiotics Only antipsychotics Highly lipid soluble
blood brain barrier?
Which Liver enzymes are most commonly involved in drug Mixed function oxidases Mixed function oxidases
117 MC Multi-function oxidase Amylase Mixed function reductase
metabolism? (MFO) (MFO)
118 MC Which organ is responsible for the excretion of most drugs? Kidney Liver Lungs Saliva Kidney

The cumulative
Peak plasma concentration Time taken to reach peak Time for 50% elimination concentration of the drug Peak plasma concentration
119 MC Which of the following is the definition of Cmax?
of drug plasma concentration of drug over a specified time of drug
period
Which of the following group of antibiotic show
120 MC Quinolones Macrolides Quinolones
concentration-dependent killing?
Which of the following group of antibiotic show time-
121 MC Cephalosporins Quinolones Cephalosporins
dependent killing?
Time for which unbound Time for which protein Time for which unbound
Time to achieve peak Elimination half-life of the
122 MC T>MIC for an antibiotic signifies? drug serum concentration bound drug serum drug serum concentration
serum level antibiotic
remains above MIC concentration exceeds MIC remains above MIC
 Which of the following is the predictor of bacteriological
123 MC ≥25-35 ≥45-55 ≥35-45 ≥15-25 ≥25-35
success (AUC/MIC ratio) for Gram-positive infections?

Which of the following best predicts bacterial eradication for

124 MC T>MIC Cmax/MIC Cmax AUC/MIC T>MIC
the β-lactam class of antibiotics?
For penicillins / cephalosporins an unbound drug serum
concentration exceeding the MIC for __________ of the
125 MC 40% -50% 20% -30% 30% -40% 40% -50%
dosing interval is predictive of bacteriologic efficacy against
respiratory pathogens.
In which groups of patients, the pharmacokinetics of an
126 MC All of these People with liver disease People with kidney disease Elderly patients All of these
antibiotic might differ from that of the population as whole?

Breakpoints are values that An isolate with an MIC The breakpoint is the MIC
define the susceptibility or value greater than the of the antibiotic that
127 MC Which of the following is true for breakpoint? All are correct resistance of a specific breakpoint is unlikely to be correlates with sufficient All are correct
population of bacteria to a susceptible to the antibacterial activity to
specific antibiotic, antibiotic give clinical success.
Clinical and Laboratory Centre for laboratory Clinical and laboratory Centre and laboratory Clinical and Laboratory
128 MC CLSI stands for?
Standards Institute services institute services institute standards institute" Standards Institute
129 MC Which official body determine the value of breakpoint? CLSI WHO ACIP UNICEF CLSI

Use of antibiotics is not effective against which of the

130 MC Flue Bladder infections Ear infections Skin infections Flue
following?
Resistance acquired by an organism that has previously been
131 TF False True False
sensitive is called as adaptive immunity.

Because they rely upon Because they rely upon

Because some viruses are
their host cells for the Because they can have RNA Because there are many their host cells for the
132 MC Why are viral infections especially difficult to treat? naked while others are
majority of their metabolic as their nucleic acid types of viral structures majority of their metabolic
enveloped
functions functions
Which of the following is not a category of antimicrobial Those that inhibit mRNA Those that inhibit cell wall Those that inhibit DNA and Those that inhibit protein Those that inhibit mRNA
133 MC
drugs? processing in the nucleus synthesis RNA structure and function synthesis processing in the nucleus

134 MC What are the most common side effects of oral antibiotics? GI disturbance Visual impairment Drowsiness Vaginal infections GI disturbance

135 MC β-lactam ring is present in: Cephalosporins Clarithromycin Tetracyclines Chloramphenicol Cephalosporins
What crucial feature of Cephalosporin is involved in its
136 MC β-lactam ring Carboxylic acid Acyl side chain Thiazolidine ring β-lactam ring
mechanism of action?
Inhibition of nucleic acid
Which of the following is the general mechanism of action Inhibition of cell wall Inhibition of a metabolic Disruption of protein Inhibition of cell wall
137 MC transcription and
for Cephalosporin? synthesis enzyme synthesis synthesis
replication
138 MC Following are the parts of respiratory system except: Esophagus Lungs Pharynx Trachea Esophagus
139 MC Following are the parts of respiratory system except: Esophagus Lungs Pharynx Trachea Esophagus
Mark the organ which share for both respiratory and
140 MC Pharynx Oesophagus Stomach Intestine Pharynx
digestive system:
141 MC Tonsils are present in which part of the respiratory tract? Oropharynx Trachea Nasal cavity Naso-pharynx Oropharynx

Which part of respiratory contains entrance to Eustachian

142 MC Naso-pharynx Oropharynx Trachea Nasal cavity Naso-pharynx
Tubes?
The tonsils are two masses of lymphoid tissue located within
143 TF TRUE False TRUE
the lower portion of pharynx.
144 MC Which is not the part of upper Respiratory System? Alveoli Nasal cavity Pharynx Larynx Alveoli
Which of the following is not considered to be part of the
145 MC Pharynx Bronchioles Bronchi Lungs Pharynx
lower respiratory tract?
The respiratory tract The respiratory tract
provides a warm, moist provides a warm, moist
It serve a reservoir for Winter persist for most of
146 MC Upper respiratory tract infections are common because; environment that is ideal Tonsils are present environment that is ideal
most of the viruses the time in a year
for many pathogenic for many pathogenic
bacteria and viruses bacteria and viruses
Which of the following is not a major bacterial pathogen
147 MC Candida Moraxella catarrhalis Haemophilus influenzae Streptococcus pneumoniae Candida
associated with community acquired URTIs?
148 MC Which of the following is not upper RTI? Pneumonia Tonsillitis/pharyngitis Otitis media Sinusitis Pneumonia
Which of the following is not among the main symptoms of
149 MC Productive cough Localized pain Swelling Raised temperature Productive cough
URTIs?
The main bacterial pathogens associated with community-
150 MC All of these Group A streptococci S. pneumoniae Haemophilus influenzae All of these
acquired URTIs are:
Involvement of GABHS in pharyngitis is most commonly seen
151 TF TRUE False TRUE
in children .
152 TF The majority of URTIs are bacterial in origin. FALSE True FALSE
Which of the following is the cause of lowering the normal
153 MC Laryngitis Tonsillitis Otitis Media Esophagitis Laryngitis
voice pitch?
otitis media is more
Most are viral rather than Staph aureus is the most Most are viral rather than
154 MC Which one of the following regarding URTI is true? common in adults than
bacterial origin common pathogen bacterial origin
children
Which of the following is the most common pathogen Group A β-hemolytic Group A β-hemolytic
155 MC H. influenzae S. pneumoniae M. catarrhalis
causing bacterial tonsillopharyngitis? streptococci streptococci
Group A ß-hemolytic Group A ß-hemolytic Group A ß-hemolytic Group A ß-hemolytic Group A ß-hemolytic
156 MC What does GABHS stand for?
streptococci salmonella staphylococcus stenotrophomonas streptococci
Acute post-streptococcal
157 MC Streptococcus pyogenes produce which infection? All of these Rheumatic fever Streptococcal sore throat All of these
glomerulonephritis

Which one of the following is not a sign and symptom of

158 MC Tinnitus A painful sore throat Difficulty swallowing Fever and general malaise Tinnitus
bacterial pharyngitis?
Inflammation of the
159 MC What is dysphagia? Difficulty in swallowing Difficulty in breathing Painful menstruation Difficulty in swallowing
esophagus
Without treatment, a streptococcal throat infection can give Rheumatic fever & acute Rheumatic fever & acute
160 MC Tinnitus & Deafness Deafness & Earache
rise to: Glomerulonephritis Glomerulonephritis

An inflammatory disease
that may develop after an
Which of the following is the definition of Is a group of diseases that infection with Is a group of diseases that
161 MC
Glomerulonephritis injure a part of the kidney Streptococcus bacteria injure a part of the kidney
which can affect the heart,
joints, skin, and brain

In tonsillitis on examination, the tonsils are red and swollen

162 TF TRUE False TRUE
and may be covered in white/ yellowish spots or patches.
 Tonsillopharyngitis is an
Tonsillopharyngitis is an Tonsillopharyngitis is an
acute infection of the
acute infection of the acute infection of the
163 MC What is tonsillopharyngitis pharynx, palatine tonsils None of these
pharynx, palatine tonsils or pharynx, palatine tonsils or
with some involvement of
both . both .
larynx
164 TF GABHS requires antibiotics, so must be diagnosed early True False True

Untreated Group A streptococcal infections may lead to

165 TF local suppurative complications and sometimes to rheumatic True False True
fever or glomerulonephritis.
166 MC Which layer of skin contains blood vessels ? Dermis Fascia Epidermis None of these Dermis
167 MC Which is the largest organ of human body? Skin Liver Brain Heart Skin
168 MC The skin's colour is due to Melanocytes Fibroblasts Hair follicles Non of these Melanocytes
infections of the infections of the infections of the
epidermis, dermis or epidermis, dermis or epidermis, dermis or
infections of the
169 MC Skin and soft tissue infections (SSTIs) are defined as subcutaneous tissue, subcutaneous tissue or None of these subcutaneous tissue,
epidermis, dermis only
underlying fascia and underlying fascia and underlying fascia and
muscle pericardium muscle
Streptococcus pyogenes
Staphylococcus aurues and Staphylococcus aurues and
170 MC The most common causes of SSTIs is MRSA and GABHS and Streptoccus None of these
Streptococcus pyognes Streptococcus pyognes
penumoniae
The skin infections that often appears as a swollen, red area
171 MC Cellulitis Folliculitis Faruncle Impetigo Cellulitis
on the skin, and feels tender and hot when touched

Cuts, Wounds, Scratches, Skin has pores from which Cuts, Wounds, Scratches,
172 MC How can pathogenic bacteria invades skin ? None of these
Insect Bites bacteria can enter Insect Bites

173 MC Infection of hair follicles is known as ? Folliculitis Carbuncle Cellulitis None of these Folliculitis
Skin infections are more common in warm, humid climates
174 TF TRUE False TRUE
(which favour bacterial growth);
175 MC Painless vesicles with yellow crusts are features of Non bullous impetigo Bullous impetigo Erysipelas None of the above Non bullous impetigo
176 MC Infected eczema is a type of Secondary skin infection Primary skin infection Chronic skin infection Secondary skin infection

177 MC Name bacteria that colonizes healthy skin . Staplycoccus epidermidis Staphylococcus pyogenes Streptococcus pyogenes None of the above Staplycoccus epidermidis
A tender, dome-shaped
skin lesion caused by an
Red, swollen, and painful Localised redness and Red, swollen, and painful
178 MC Carbuncle is infection around a hair None of the above
cluster of boils infection of dermis cluster of boils
follicle with Staphylococcus
aureus.
Tender, dome-shaped pus Tender, dome-shaped pus
Red, swollen, and painful Localised redness and
179 MC Faruncle is filled lesions around a hair None of the above filled lesions around a hair
cluster of boils infection of dermis
follicles . follicles .
Infection in faruncle Folliculitis spreads to Infection in faruncle
180 MC Difference between folliculitis and faruncle is None of the above
spreads deeper deeper tissues spreads deeper
181 TF Cephalosporins are beta-lactam antibiotics. TRUE FALSE TRUE
Following are the four mechanisms of actions of antibiotic, Disruption of bacterial cell Interference with protein Alteration of cell Disruption of bacterial cell
182 MC Interference with DNA
which one is for cephalosporins? wall synthesis membrane wall
They cause fewer allergic
Which of the following is untrue of the cephalosporin group There are three Their structure is like that Their spectrum of activity There are three
183 MC reactions than the
of drugs? generations of these drugs of the penicillins is extremely narrow generations of these drugs
penicillins
Reduced cellular uptake of
Modification of antibiotic Modification of antibiotic
Which of the following is a mechanism responsible for the antibiotic & Development
184 MC target site & β-lactamase target site & β-lactamase
development of resistance for cephalosporin? of alternative metabolic
production production
pathway
185 MC First generation cephalosporins include all except: Cefuroxime Cephradine Cefalexin Cefadroxil Cefuroxime
What are the exception of the gram +ve that first generation
186 MC MRSA S. pneumonia S. pyogenes MRSA
cephalosporins does not cover?
187 MC Which of the following is/are 2nd generation cephalosporin? Both of these Cefuroxime Cefaclor None of these Both of these

2nd generation cephalosporins have increased activity

188 MC All of these E. coli Klebsiella H. influenzae All of these
against gram negative bacteria such as:
2nd generation cephalosporins are not as active as 1st
189 TF TRUE FALSE TRUE
generation cephalosporins against Gram-positives bacteria.

190 MC Which of the following is not 3rd generation cephalosporin? Cephradine Cefoperazone Ceftizoxime Ceftriaxone Cephradine

3rd generation cephalosporins have good activity against

191 MC Gram negative bacteria Gram positive bacteria MRSA Gram negative bacteria
which bacteria?
Which third generation cephalosporin is particularly active
192 MC Ceftazidime Ceftriaxone Cefotaxime All are correct Ceftazidime
against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
193 MC Which 3rd generation cephalosporin is used orally? Cefixime Ceftriaxone Cefotaxime Ceftazidime Cefixime
Select the fourth-generation cephalosporin among the
194 MC Cefepime Ceftizoxime Ceftazidime Cefuroxime Cefepime
following.
About 10% of patients who are hypersensitive to
195 TF TRUE FALSE TRUE
cephalosporins show cross-sensitivity to penicillins.
In what way do cephalosporin antibiotics differ from They are more resistant to They are susceptible to They have a different They are bactericidal They are more resistant to
196 MC
penicillin antibiotics? hydrolysis by β-lactamases PBPs-mediated resistance mode of action rather than bacteriostatic hydrolysis by β-lactamases

Bacteria may become

All cephalosporins can Cephalosporin may be used All cephalosporins can
resistant to cephalosporins
197 MC Which of the following statement false? readily cross the blood- in children because of a readily cross the blood-
through alterations to the
brain barrier favourable safety profile brain barrier
PBPs
Cephalosporins generally
Bacteria may become
Cephalosporin may be used achieve lower tissue
resistant to cephalosporins
198 MC Which of the following statements are true? All of these in children because of a concentrations in All of these
through alterations to the
favourable safety profile respiratory tract infections
PBPs
than penicillins.
Interrupt the Interrupt the
Interrupt the Interrupt the Interrupt the
transpeptidation reaction transpeptidation reaction
Which of the following is the specific mechanism of action transpeptidation reaction transpeptidation reaction transpeptidation reaction
199 MC by binding to DNA Gyrase, by binding to beta
for Cephalosporins? by binding to PBPs, causing by binding to 50S, causing by binding to PBPs, causing
causing a defect in the cell lactamase, causing a defect
a defect in the cell wall a defect in the cell wall a defect in the cell wall
wall in the cell wall
Some bacteria produce enzymes, called beta-lactamases,
200 TF which can break down the beta-lactam ring and cause True FALSE True
resistance in some cephalosporins and Penicillins.
 1 g per day in a single dose 500 mg per day in a single 3 g per day in a single dose 250 mg per day in a single 1 g per day in a single dose
201 MC For tonsillopharyngitis , dosage of duricef fo adults is or two equally divided dose or two equally or two equally divided dose or two equally or two equally divided
doses for 10 days. divided doses for 5 days. doses for 10 days. divided doses for 10 days. doses for 10 days.

1 g per day in a single dose 500 mg per day in a single 250-500 mg per day in a 0.5 g per day in a single 1 g per day in a single dose
202 MC For SSTIs , the dosage of duricef for adults is or two equally divided dose or two equally single dose or two equally dose or two equally or two equally divided
doses. divided doses. divided doses. divided doses. doses.
The recommended dosage for children is 25 to 50
203 TF True False True
mg/ kg/ day in two equally divided doses
Select the correct dose of Duricef Oral Suspension (125mg
204 MC 2.5- 5ml 5-10 ml 3.75-7.5 ml 2-5.5 ml 2.5- 5ml
/5ml ) in children up to 5kg body weight:
Select the correct dose of Duricef Oral Suspension (250 mg
205 MC 2.5-5 ml 5-10 ml 3.75-7.5 ml 2-5.5 ml 2.5-5 ml
/5ml ) in children up to 10kg body weight:
Select the correct dose of Duricef Oral Suspension (250
206 MC 3.75- 7.5 ml 5-10 ml 10-20 ml 2-5.5 ml 3.75- 7.5 ml
mg/5ml ) in children up to 15kg body weight:
Cefadroxil should be prescribed with caution in individuals
207 TF True False True
with a history of gastrointestinal disease, particularly colitis.

According to SOAR (Survey of Antibiotic Resistance ), in

208 MC 22% 20% 23% 24% 22%
Pakistan resistance of GABH streptococci to Macrolides is:

Probenecid , Probenecid ,
Histamine, omerprazole Dopamine, allupurinol and
209 MC Cefadroxil shows interaction with aminoglycosides , oral aminoglycosides , oral
and mefenamic acid acetaminophen
contraceptives contraceptives
210 MC The elimination half-life is about ? 2 hours 1.5 hours 2.5 hours 0.5 hours 2 hours
For cefadroxil , the urine antibiotic concentration, following a
211 TF 1 g dose, was maintained well above the MIC of susceptible True False True
urinary pathogens for 20 to 22 hours.

Discard unused portion Discard unused portion Discard unused portion Discard unused portion Discard unused portion
after 7 days at room after 5 days at room after 8 days at room after 2 weeks at room after 7 days at room
212 MC Which of the statement is true ?
temperature or 14 days temperature or 10 days temperature or 1 week temperature or 15 days temperature or 14 days
under refrigeration. under refrigeration. under refrigeration. under refrigeration. under refrigeration.
According to The Sanford Guide to Antimicrobial Therapy
213 TF 2017 , Spectrum of Cefadroxil includes Staph. aureus MSSA False True False
and MRSA .
In multicenter clinical trial bacteriologic treatment success
214 MC rate with cefadroxil 95% 98% 92% None of the above 95%
in patients with GABHS pharyngitis
Cefadroxil achieves higher concentrations in skin blister fluid
215 TF True False True
relative to serum for at least 2 hours after an oral dosage.

216 MC Ribosomal resistance occurs with: Macrolides Sulphonamides Penicillin Fluoroquinolones Macrolides
Inhibiting DNA-gyrase and Binding to PBPs leading to
Which of the following best describes the mode of action of Binding to ribosomes and Blocking bacterial folic acid Binding to ribosomes and
217 MC disrupts supercoiling of disruption of cell wall
the macrolides? blocking protein synthesis metabolism blocking protein synthesis
bacterial DNA synthesis

Which of the following bacterial resistance become problem

218 MC All are correct H. influenzae S. pyogenes S. pneumoniae All are correct
for macrolides?
Through which of the following mechanism organisms may Reduced entry into the modification of the target Inactivation of the drug by
219 MC All are correct All are correct
become resistant to macrolides. bacterial cell site enzymes (esterases).
220 MC Following antibiotics are macrolides Except? Doxycycline Azithromycin Erythromycin Clarithromycin Doxycycline
Azithromycin rapidly reaches high intracellular
221 TF concentrations at the expense of low extracellular TRUE FALSE TRUE
concentrations.
Macrolides (clarithromycin and azithromycin) are not
222 TF recommended for empiric therapy in tonsillopharyngitis due TRUE FALSE TRUE
to high rates of resistance among S. pyogenes

223 MC Against which of these organisms is clarithromycin active? Both are correct Chlamydia spp Mycoplasma pneumoniae Both are correct

The bioavailability of Azithromycin is not

All statements are true for Its absorption is reduced All statements are true for
224 MC Which of the following is true for Azithromycin? azithromycin is markedly suitable for intravenous
Azithromycin by drugs such as antacids. Azithromycin
decreased by food. administration

Azithromycin comes in what category of antibiotics accroding Reserve group of

225 MC Watch group of antibiotics Access group of antibiotics Watch group of antibiotics
to WHO antibiotics
Lincosamide antibiotic that Lincosamide antibiotic that Lincosamide antibiotic that Lincosamide antibiotic that
226 MC Lincomycin is what ? comes from the bacteria comes from the bacteria comes from the bacteria None of these comes from the bacteria
Streptomyces lincolnensis lactococcus lactis listeria monocytognenes Streptomyces lincolnensis

Inhibiting protein synthesis Inhibiting protein synthesis Inhibiting protein synthesis

Inhibiting protein synthesis
227 MC Mechanism of action of lincomycin is ? by binding to 50 s subunit by binding to 30 s subunit None of these by binding to 50 s subunit
by binding to plasmids
of ribosomes of ribosomes of ribosomes

Heart associated problems

228 MC Which is true about macrolides ? All of the above High resistance profile None of these All of the above
as Side effects

229 MC Cefixime is what generation of cephalopsorin ? third generation second generation fiirst generation None of these third generation

Studies suggest although third generation cephalosporins are first generation second generation first generation
230 MC both of them
often used to treat SSTIs, they appear to less effective then ? cephalopsorins cephalopsorins cephalopsorins